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: day 74 night 36 25 68 all for

I : all day 74 night 36 25 68 for
II : all 74 day night 36 25 68 for
III : all 74 day 68 night 36 25 for .
IV : all 74 day 68 for night 36 25
V : all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25
V
1.

III bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46

VII
(1) bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33
bond 86
46
bond 86
46
33 like
2.
mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower

like 33 12
(5)

(1)

3.

IV
(1)

dear 63 few 51 16 29

now

(2)

4.

II

(3)

car 73 18 25 wear 49 long for

(1) 18 25 wear 49
for car 73
(2) 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for
18 73 25 car wear 49
(5)
5.
war 52
43 16 now 24
(1)
6.

(2)

(3)

(2)
(5)

(3)

53269718
(1)

7.
I H G F E D C B
(1) I

I H G F E D C I H G F E
(2)

8.

B
TSFI

(1)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

9.

CHRONICLE

10.

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Reasoning Test
Direction (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input: day 74 night 36 25 68 all for
Step I: all day 77 night 36 25 68 for
Step II: all 74 day night 36 25 68 for
Step III: all 74 day 68 night 36 25 for
Step IV: all 74 day 68 for night 36 25
Step V: all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
1.
Step III of an Input : bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46
Which of the following will be step VII ?
(1) bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33 high (2) bond 86 goal 46 high like 33 12
(3) bond 86 goal 46 high 33 like 12 (4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
2.
Input : mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(1) VI
(2) IV
(3) V
(4) VII
(5) None of these
3.
Step IV of an Input: dear 63 few 51 16 29 yes now
How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement ?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two
(5) None of these
4.
Step II of an input is : car 73 18 25 wear 49 long for
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(1) 18 25 wear 49 long for car 73 (2) 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for
(3) 18 73 25 car wear 49 long for (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
5.
Input : war 52 and peace 43 16 now 24
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
(5) None of these
6.
The positions of how many digits in the number 53269718 will remain unchanged if the
digits within the number are rearranged in ascending order ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7.
What should come next in the following letter series ?
I H G F E D C B A I H G F E D C I H G F E
(1) I
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these
8.
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using each letter
only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHRONICLE each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10.
Pointing to a boy, Sunita said "He is the son of my grandfather's only son". How is the boy
related to Sunita ?
(1) Son
(2) Nephew
(3) Uncle
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

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11.

R,
15 W 12

T,
8 R 2 B 6 = ?

W,

11
12
(4) 3
12.
89123654

(2) 3

(1)

2
3

(3) 27

(5)

(1) 9
(4) 2
13.

B,

ARCHIVE
(1) TZTSTNF
(4) RXRSTNF

(2) 8
(5)
DSBGFWJ
(2) TZTUTNF
(5)

(1) QS
(4) QU

SYSTEMS
(3) TZTSFNT

(2) RU
(5)
ARM
(2) 249@
(5)

15.
(1) 23@9
(4) 24@9
16-20):
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H
F, C
H, E

(3) 1

K
K

(3) PS
TERM
(3) 42@9

B, G
D

A, K

C
K

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

(1) EKB
(4) FGD
E
(1) A
(4)
K
(1) C
(4) E
H
(1) A
(4) F
D
(1) K
(4) B
21-26):

(2) CHB
(5)

(3) AGC

(2) C
(5)

(3) G

(2) H
(5)

(3) F

(2) D
(5)

(3) G

(2) H
(5)

(3) E
I

II

(1)

II

(2)

II

(3)
(4)
(5)

I
I

I
II

II

II

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==================================================================================
11.
If 'R' denotes 'divided by'; T denotes 'added to'; W denotes 'subtracted' from and 'B' denotes
'multiplied by', then
15 W 12 T 8 R 2
B 6 =
?
11

(2) 3

(3) 27
12
3
(4) 3
(5) None of these
12.
The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 89123654 are interchanged.
Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which
of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 1
(4) 2
(5) None of these
13.
In a certain code ARCHIVE is written as DSBGFWJ. How is SYSTEMS written in that code?
(l) TZTSTNF
(2) TZTUTNF
(3) TZTSFNT
(4) RXRSTNF
(5) None of these
14.
'MP' is related to 'HK' in the same way as 'WZ' is related to?
(1) QS
(2) RU
(3) PS
(4) QU
(5) None of these
15.
In a certain code BASKET is written as '5%3#42' and ARM is written as '$%@9'. How is TERM
written in that code?
(1) 23@9
(2) 249@
(3) 42@9
(4) 24@9
(5) None of these
Direction ( 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the center. B is fourth to the left
of G who is second to the right of C. F is fourth to the right of C and is second to the left of K. A is
fourth to the right of K. D is not an immediate neighbour of either K or B. H is third to the right of E.
16.
In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and
the second persons ?
(1) EKB
(2) CHB
(3) AGC
(4) FGD
(5) None of these
17.
Who is fourth to the left of E ?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) G
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
18.
Who is second to the right of K?
(1) C
(2) H
(3) F
(4) E
(5) None of these
19.
Who is third to the right of H ?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) G
(4) F
(5) None of these
20.
Who is fourth to the right of D ?
(1) K
(2) H
(3) E
(4) B
(5) None of these
Direction (21-26). Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer:
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either instatement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
(4) if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question, and
(5) if the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
(1)

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21.
he is
is she
P, Q, R, S

I.
II.
22.
I. Q
II. S

ha

23.
I.
II.
24.

I.
II. M
R
25.
P,
I.
T,
K
II.
R,
V
26. J
M
I. M
II. J,
27-32):
(4)

M
(1), (2), (3)

(5),

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
27.

28.

29.

NUBAQE
(1) 263$4#

(2) 326$4#

(4) 362$3#
FWZERA
(1) 5Gl#7$

(5)

(4) 511$#7$
HUBDIM
(1) 6289%

(5)

(2) 5GGl#7$

(2) 2689%

(4) 629%
EMIRDP
(1) #%978@

(5)

30.

(5)

31.

(4) #9%78@
OREDHM
(1) @7#8%

32.

(2) #%9#8@

(2) #7#8%

(4) @7#@%
PQIMHZ
(1) @49%1

(2) %49@1

(4) 949%1

(5)

(3) 362$4#

(3) 5G17#$

(3) 6289

(3) 7%9#8@

(3) @78#%

(5)
(3)@49@1

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==================================================================================
21.
How is 'sure' written in a code language ?
I. 'he is sure' is written as 'ja ha ma' in that code language.
II. 'is she sure' is written as 'kaja ma' in that code language.
22.
Among P, Q, R, S and T each having different age, who is the youngest among them ?
I. Q is younger than only P.
II. S is older than only R.
23.
On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi ?
I. Sourav visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday but not on an odd day of the week.
II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday.
24.
What is R's position from the left end in a row ?
I. M is tenth from the left end of the row.
II. There are sixteen children between M and H.
25.
Town P is towards which direction of town T ?
I. Town T is towards South of town K which is towards West of town P.
II. Town R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.
26.
How is J related to M ?
I. M has only one brother and two sisters.
II. J is daughter of T who is wife of M.
Direction (27-32) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations
of digits / symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4), You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions
that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the third letter is a vowel, their codes are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the fourth letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.
(iii) If the second and the third letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the
third letter.
NUBAQE
(1) 263$4#
(2) 326$4#
(3) 362$4#
(4) 362$3#
(5) None of these
FWZERA
(1) 5Gl#7$
(2) 5GGl#7$
(3) 5G17#$
(4) 511$#7$
(5) None of these
HUBDIM
(1) 6289%
(2) 2689%
(3) 6289
(4) 629%
(5) None of these
EMIRDP
(1) #%978@
(2) #%9#8@
(3) 7%9#8@
(4) #9%78@
(5) None of these
OREDHM
(1) @7#8%
(2) #7#8%
(3) @78#%
(4) @7#@%
(5) None of these
PQIMHZ
(1) @49%1
(2) %49@1
(3)@49@1
(4) 949%1
(5) None of these

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G, , %,

33-38):
P, Q
Q

%
G

.
.

P, Q

.
Q
Q

.
.
I, II, III

IV
33.
(1)
(4)

R K,
I. J G K

K G M,

II

III
B N,

R G B,
I. N
R

34.

J
II. M
(2)
(5)

III
W K,
K G R,
I. N
K
(1)
I
II
(4)
I
III
36.
H W,
W
N,
I. R G W
(1)
I
II
I, II
III
37.
Z % M,
M F,
I. F % Z
(1)
I
(4)
III
38.
D
K,
K % F,
I. F G D
(1)
I
(4)
II
III
(39-44):
F 4 J 2 E % M 5 W 9
39.
JEM
59I
RU3
?
(1) 7AB
(4) ABV
40.
(1)
(4)
41.
(1) M
(4) 2
42.
(1)
(4)

III. M % R
II

(3)

T
II.
(2)
(5)

(1)
(4)

35.

R
I
III
G B
I
I

G R
II

III.
(3)
II

R % N
II. R
W
(2)
II
(5) I, II
III

III. W G N
(3)
II

III

III

N % R
II. N G W
(2)
II
(5)

III

III. H
(3)

R
I

III. D
(3)

Z
II

III

(4)

F G D
II. F G Z
(2)
(5)

II

F B
II. B
(2)
(5)

K
II

I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7
(?)

III. B % K
(3)
III
II

III

B 8 V # G $ Y D

(2) 7AT
(5)

(3)

78

(2)
(5)

(3)

(2) T
(5)

(3) #

(2)
(5)

(3)

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==================================================================================
Direction (33-38): In the following questions, the symbols G, , %, @ and are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
'P Q'means'P is not greater than Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
'P G Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which
of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
33.
Statements: R K , K GM , M J
Conclusions: I. J G K
II. M @ R
III. M % R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only either II or III is true
(5) Only III is true
34.
Statements: R G B, B N, N @ T
Conclusions: I. N @ R
II. T G B
III. T G R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(4) Only I and II are true
35.
Statements: W K, K G R, R % N
Conclusions: I. N @ K
II. R @ W
III. W G N
(1) OnlyI and II are true
(2) Only either II or III is true (3) Only II and III are true
(4) Only I and III are true
(5) All I, II and IIIaret rue
36.
Statements: H W, W @ N, N % R
Conclusions: I. R G W
II. N G W
III. H @ R
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
37.
Statements: Z % M, M F, F G D
Conclusions: I. F % Z
II. F G Z
III. D @ Z
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only either I or II is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(4) None of these
38.
Statements: D @ K, K % F, F B
Conclusions: I. F G D
II. B @ K
III. B % K
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either II or III is true
(5) Only either II or III and I are true
Direction (39-45): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
F 4 J 2 E % M P 5 W 9 @ I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7 A T B 8 V # G $ Y D
39.
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement?
JEM
59I
RU3
?
(1) 7AB
(2) 7AT
(3) 7 8
(4) A B V
(5) None of these
40.
How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
41.
Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the
above arrangement?
(1) M
(2) T
(3) #
(4) 2
(5) None of these
42.
How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
8

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z DILSHAD GARDEN zROHINIz
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43.
(1) 24
(4) RUQ

(2) PWM
(5) VG8

(3) RI6

(1) R
(4)3
(45-50):

(2) Q
(5)

(3) U

44.

I, II

III

45.
I.
(1)
(4)

II.
(2)
(5)

III

I
I

III.
(3)

II

III.
(3)

II

III.
(3)

II

III.
(3)

II

III.
(3)

III

II

46.
I.
(1)
(4)

II.
(2)
(5)

III

I
I

II

47.
I.
(1)
(4)

III

II.
(2)
(5)

I
II

II.
(2)
(5)

I
I

III

48.
I.
(1)
(4)

III

II

49.

(1)
(4)

I.
I
I

II

II.
(2)
(5)

II
I

II

III

50.

(1)
(3)

I.
I
II

II
III

II.
(2)
I
(4) I, II

III.
III
III

(5)

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==================================================================================
43.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 24
(2) PWM
(3) RI6
(4) RUQ
(5) VG8
44.
If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the
fourteenth from the left end?
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) U
(4) 3
(5) None of these
Direction(45-50): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
45.
Statements: Some tyres are ropes. Some ropes are tents. Some tents are walls.
Some walls are buildings.
Conclusions: I. Some buildings are ropes. II. Some walls are ropes. III. Some tents are
tyres.
.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
46.
Statements: Some beads are rings. Some rings are bangles. All bangles are clothes. All
clothes are boxes.
Conclusions: I. Some boxes are bangles. II. Some clothes are rings. III. Some bangles are
beads.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
47.
Statements: All chairs are fires. Some fires are winds. All winds are nets. Some nets are
clocks.
Conclusions: I. Some clocks are winds. II. Some nets are fires. III. Some winds are chairs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
48.
Statements: All desks are pillars. All pillars are circles. Some circles are squares. Some
squares are rectangles.
Conclusions : I. Some rectangles are pillars. II. Some circles are desks. III. Some squares
are desks.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
49.
Statements: All sticks are hammers. No hammer is dress. Some dresses are doors. All
doors are cots.
Conclusions: I. Some cots are hammers. II. No cot is hammer. III. Some dresses are sticks.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or II follows
(5) Only either I or II and III follow
50.
Statements: Some plates are knives. All knives are chains. Some chains are wheels. All
wheels are poles.
Conclusions: I. Some poles are chains. II. Some wheels are knives. III. Some chains are
plates.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these

10

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1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

2
5

4
7

1
4

132  28 y 4  (3)3  107

(?)2

1
4

1
4

2025
1
4

1
4
1
4

2
5

2
5

2
5

2
5

2
5
1

1
4

2
1
2

1
3

1
2

1
3

11

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z DILSHAD GARDEN zROHINIz
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Airthmetic Ability
Directions: (51-55): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
numbe r s er ies ?
51. 123
277
459
669
907
?
(1) 1179
(2) 1173
(3) 1167
(4) 1169
(5) None of these
52. 456.5
407
368.5
341
324.5 ?
(1) 321
(2) 319
(3) 317
(4) 323
(5) None of these
53. 23
42.2 80.6
157.4
311
?
(1) 618.2
(2) 623.2
(3) 624.2
(4) 616.6
(5) None of these
54. 36
154
232
278
300
?
(1) 304
(2) 313
(3) 308
(4) 307
(5) None of these
55. 24
256
487
703
678
?
(1) 768
(2) 748
(3) 764
(4) 742
(5) None of these
Directions (56-60) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
56.

4
of 6755 = ? + 1687
7
(1) 1586
(4) 1582

85% of

(2) 1592
(5) None of these

(3) 1594

(1) 256

(2) 4

(3)

(4) 16

(5) None of these

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

132  28 y 4  (3)3  107

(?)2

(1) 2
(2) 16
(4) 4
(5) (256)2
4
4
4
(0.49) (0.343) (0-2401) = (70 100)? + 3
(1) 3
(2) 1
(4) 7
(5) None of these
45% of

(3) 256

(3) 4

2025 0.01 = (?)2 25

(1) 3
(2) (81)2
(3) 225
(4) 9
(5) 12
Which of the following is second largest?
(1) 138.6 - 38.4 + 479.3
(2) 36.5 - 844.6 + 1289
(3) 931 - 564 + 156
(4) 564 - 213 + 120
(5) 130 - 461 + 888
Which of the following is the largest? (You are not expect-ed to calculate the exact value.
(1) (56 15) 42
(2) (25 72) 62
(3) (6 441) 72
(4) (28 78) 56
(5) (32 48) 26
Which of the following is the smallest? (You are not expect-ed to calculate the exact value.
1

5
2
(1) of 1250
9

15
2
of 412
(4)
11

7
3
of 4112
(2)
13

5
2
of 3221
(3)
19

17
3
of 3444
(5)
13

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1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

`
1
4

2
5

`
`
1

4
7

A
1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

3
`

`
1
4

`
`
I
x>y
x<y

I.
I.
I.
I.
I.

15

441

x<y

II. y10 - (36)5 = 0

= (x)
2
x
x
5x +2y = 96
1
2

2 `
5
II
x>y
x=y

II. 3(7x + 5y ) = 489

x 2  111 (15)2

II.

17x = (13)2 + 196 + (5)2 + 4x

3x2 - 13x + 14 = 0

121 y2 + (6)3 = 260

II. 9y -345 = 14 = 0
II. y -7y + 12 = 0
I

I
I

II

II

II

I
I
II
II

II

I.
II.

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64.

The cost of 8 dozen of eggs is Rs.256.Which calculation in needed to find the cost of 9 eggs?
(1) (9 256) (8 12)
(2) (12 256) (8 9 )
(3) (8 256) (9 12)
(4) (9 256) (8 12)
(5) (9 256) (8 12)
65. 24% of 4568 8% of 246 is approximately equal to.
(1) 32
(2) 43
(3) 89
(4) 78
(4) 55
66. A man sells calculator at the rate of Rs. 250 each which includes a profit of 14 per cent. What
amount of profit of will he earn in 19 days if he sells seven calculators per day?
(1) Rs. 4665
(2) Rs. 4565
(3) Rs. 4545
(4) Rs. 4655
(5) None of these
67. Circumference of a circle-A is times perimeter of a square. Area of the square is 784 sq cm.
What is the area of another circle-B whose diameter is half the radius of circle circle-A?
(1) 38.5 sq.cm
(2) 156 sq.cm
(3) 35.8 sq.cm
(4) 616 sq.cm
(5) None of these
68. Amits present age is their names Pratibha prc.scm 9/13 of his Fathers present age.
Tinsum of the present age of all of them is 150 years. What is the difference between Pratibha
present age and Amits fathers present age?
(1) 56 years
(2) 64 years
(3) 60 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
69. What value will you obtain if 25% of 2340 is subtracted from 4/9 of square of 36?
(1) 9
(2) -18
(3) 18
(4) -9
(5) 3
70. Varun got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Pujas monthly salary. Pujas monthly salary is
Rs.7800. Varuns monthly salary before increment was Rs.6400.What amount will he earn in
four months after his increment?
(1) Rs.29344
(2) Rs.29434
(3) Rs.28434
(4) Rs.28344
(5) None of these
Directions (71 -75) : In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
Give answer if
(1) x > y
(2) x > y
(3) x < y
(4) x < y
(5) x = y or the relationship .cannot be estab-lished
71.

I.

72.

I.

73.

I.

15

= (x)

1
2

II. y10 - (36)5 = 0

5x +2y = 96
441

1
2

x 2  111

II. 3(7x + 5y ) = 489

(15)2

II.

121 y2 + (6)3 = 260

17x = (13)2 + 196 + (5)2 + 4x

II. 9y -345 = 14 = 0
2
75. I. 3x - 13x + 14 = 0
II. y -7y + 12 = 0
Directions (76-80) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in either Statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
76. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?
I. Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than
Raman.
II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.
74.

I.

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x2 + y + z
I. 4x +3y + 5y = 60

2x =y. 2y = z

II. 3x +3y + 2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72

I.
II.

I.
II.

I.

II.

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

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What is the value of A2 + y + z?
I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60and 2x = y, 2y = z II. 3x + 3y + 2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72
78. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?
I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is
72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68 kg and Binay is 46 kg.
II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68
kg and Vi-nay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.
79. What is the respective ratio between the length of a rect-angle and side of a square?
I. Area of the square is 576 sq. cm. and the area of the rectangle is 600 sq.cm.
II. Breadth of the rectangle is half the side of the square.
80. What is the smaller angle of a parallelogram?
I. Ratio between the angles of a triangle is 3 : 5 : 4 and the larger angle of the par-allelogram
is 34 more than the largest angle of the triangle.
II. Larger angle of the paral-lelogram is 38 more than its smaller angle.
Directions (81-85) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number, of Research papers and Articles published by six different scholars (Person) in
five different Journals

77.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

How much more approximate percentage of the number of Research papers that were published
by Neeta in Educon as compared to the number of Research papers that were published by
Vijay in Eduforms?
(1) 52
(2) 42
(3) 152
(4) 147
(5) 47
What is the difference between the total number of Research papers published by Anand, Vijay
and Neeta together in Educon and the total number of Articles published by Mohan, Naidu and
Ronit together in Edutrack?
(1) 33
(2) 27
(3) 32
(4) 29
(5) None of these
Who published third highest number of Research papers and Articles together in Eduforms ?
(1) Anand
(2) Vijay
(3) Neeta
(4) Mohan
(5) Naidu
What is the average number of Research papers published by all the six scholars together in
Frontier?
(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 15
(5) None of these
Total number of Research papers and Articles together published by Mohan in Edutrack
is approximately what percentage of the total number of Articles published by all the six scholars
together in New Era?
(1) 145
(2) 117
(3) 137
(4) 132
(5) 124

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1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

2
5

HR
1
4

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==================================================================================
Directions (86-90) : Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follows.
In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800 students. 65 per cent of the number of
staff mem-bers is teachers and remaining staff members are administrative officials. Out of .the
total number of students 45 per cent are girls. 20% of the number of girls can speak only Hindi.
Remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. 3/4 of the number of boys can speak only Hindi.
Remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. 2/3 of the number of teachers is male. 5/14 of
the number of administrative officials is female.
86. What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and
English and the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English?
(1) 164
(2) 178
(3) 188
(4) 174
(5) None of these
87. Total number of girls (student) is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the
school?
(1) 350
(2) 300
(3) 400
(4) 450
(5) None of these
88. What is the difference between the total number of female administrative officials and female
teachers together and the number of male administrative officials?
(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 14
(5) None of these
89. What is the respective ratio between the total number of teachers and the number of boys
(student) who can speak Hindi only?
(1) 11 : 56
(2) 13 : 54
(3) 13 : 56
(4) 11 : 54
(5) None of these
90. What is the total number of male administrative officials, female teachers and girls (student)
who can speak Hindi only?
(1) 125
(2) 115
(3) 127
(4) 117
(5) None of these
Directions (91-95): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.
Percentagewise distribution of employees in six departments of an Institution
Total Number of Employees = 12600

91.

92.

93.

Number of employees in the department of Academic affairs is approximately what percent

more than the number of employees in Examination department?
(1) 39
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 139
(5) 112
If 30 per cent of the number of employees of research department is females. Then what is the
number of male employees in the research department?
(1) 1343
(2) 1232
(3) 1323
(4) 1242
(5) None of these
Number of employees in Exam-ination department is approximately what percentage of the
total number of employees in the department of HR and Academic affairs together?
(1) 69
(2) 65
(3) 61
(4) 55
(5) 51

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1
4
HR

2
5

1
4

2
5

1
4

2
5

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94. What is the average number of employees in Accounts, Admission and Research department
together?
(1) 1722
(2) 1742
(3) 1786
(4) 1784
(5) None of these
95. What is the difference between the total number of employees in the department of HR and
Admission together and the total number of employees in Accounts and Examination
department together?
(1) 2268
(2) 2464
(3) 2286
(4) 2644
(5) None of these
Directions (96-100): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Runs scored by three different teams in five different cricket matches

96.

Total runs scored by India and Australia in Match-4 together is approximately what percentage
of the total runs scored by England in all the five matches together?
(1) 42
(2) 18
(3) 36
(4) 24
(5) 28
97. In which match Is -the difference between the runs scored by Australia and England sec-ond
lowest?
(1) Match-1
(2) Match-2
(3) Match-3
(4) Match-4
(5) Match-5
98. In which match are the total runs scored by India and England together third highest/ lowest?
(1) Match-1
(2) Match-2
(3) Match-3
(4) Match-4
(5) Match-5
99. What is the respective ratio between the runs scored by In-dia in Match-5, Australia in
Match-1 and England in Match-2?
(1) 11 : 13 : 7
(2) 11 : 7 : 13
(3) 11 : 3 : 9
(4) 11 :13 : 9
(5) None of these
100. What are the average runs scored by all the three teams in Match-3 together ?
(1) 280
(2) 270
(3) 275
(4) 285
(5) None of these

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(1) SSD
(4) Blue-ray

(2) CDR
(5)

(3) DVD

(1)
(4)
P2P
(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)
CDs, DVD
(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1) SMTP
(4) UDP

(2) HTTP
(5)

(3) FTP

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

blue-ray

USB
(3)

(1)
(4)
___________RAM
(1) WRAM
(4) ERAM

(2)
(5)
(2) NVRAM
(5)

(3) V RAM

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) USB

(5)
RAM

(1) RAM
(2)
(3)
(4)

RAM
RAM
RAM

(5)
(1)
(2)

RAM

(3)

RAM

(4)
(5)
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(3)

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==================================================================================

COMPUTER
101. Which of the following is not a type of optical media?
(1) SSD
(2) CDR
(3) DVD
(4) Blue-ray
(5) None of these
102. Serif and san-serif are types of__________.
(1) images
(2) Audio files
(3) Video files
(4) Fonts
(5) None of these
103. P2P is used for which type of internet service?
(1) Online gaming
(2) File sharing
(3) Online gaming
(4) E-mail
(5) None of these
104. How may values can a single bit have?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these
105. CDs, DVDs, and blue ray discs are all types of_____________.
(1) Disk
(2) Harddisks
(3) Magnetic Media
(4) Optical Media
(5) None of these
106. Which protocol is used to deliver web pages to web browser?
(1) SMTP
(2) HTTP
(3) FTP
(4) UDP
(5) None of these
107. Which values passed in to function called?
(1) Constant
(2) Parameters
(3) Packets
(4) Headers
(5) None of these
108. Which is small data storage device that used flash memory and has a built in USB connection?
(1) Jump Drives
(2) Opereting system
(3) Web server
(4) Spreatsheet pakage
(5) All of the above
109. _______is a type of RAM that retains data after the host devices power is turned off.
(1) WRAM
(2) NVRAM
(3) WRAM
(4) ERAM
(5) None of these
110. Microsoft windows is ________.
(1) A web browser
(2) An operating system
(3) A web server
(4) A spreadsheet Package
(5) None of these
111. All of the following statements concerning RAM are true EXCEPT:(1) RAM is the temporary holding space far all data and instructions that the computer uses
while it is on.
(2) At a minimum, you need enough RAM to run the operating system and whatever software
applications you are running.
(3) Adding more RAM will not improve system performance.
(4) The amount of RAM on the memory modules, in the computer, is referred to as physical
memory.
(5) None of these
112. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning virtual memory?
(1) Virtual memory is the space on the hard drive where the operating system begins to store
data when it becomes memory bound.
(2) Accessing data from RAM is slower than accessing data from virtual memory?
(3) When it is using virtual memory, the operating system builds a file called the RAM file.
(4) If a computer is memory-bound, adding more RAM will not solve the problem.
(5) sNone of these
113. storage refers to storage that loses its data when the power is turned off.
(1) Permanent
(2) Volatile
(3) Nonvolatile
(4) Virtual
(5) None of these

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CPU
(1)
(4)

RAM
(2)
(5)

(3)

(1) rpm
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)
DSL
(1) DDSL
(4) BDSL

(2) MHz
(5)

(3) GHz

(2) SDSL
(5)

(3) ADSL

(1) ISP
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1) VeriSign
(4) SpamGuard

(2) Verizon
(5)

(3) SpamButcher

(1) http.
(4) FTP

(2) HTML
(5)

(3) TCP/IP

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1) DVD
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3) SQL

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1) 700 MB
(4) 1.44MB

(2) 1 GB
(5)

(3) 10 MB

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(NIC)

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==================================================================================
114. The time it takes a CPU to retrieve data from RAM is measured in:
(1) milliseconds
(2) microseconds
(3) nanoseconds
(4) picoseconds
(5) None of these
115. The ____________ of the hard drive is the sum of seek time and latency (rotational delay).
(1) rpm
(2) access time
(3) spin time
(4) read time
(5) None of these
116. The speed of a hard drive is measured in:
(1) milliseconds
(2) MHz
(3) GHz
(4) nanoseconds
(5) None of these
117. DSL service, in which the maximum download speed is higher than the maximum upload
speed, is known as:
(1) DDSL
(2) SDSL
(3) ADSL
(4) BDSL
(5) None of these
118. When you are on the Internet, your browser-keeps track of the Web sites you have visited in
the ____________so that it can load them faster.
(1) ISP
(2) plug in
(3) menu
(4) cache
(5) None of these
119. ______is an example of a security company that certifies that a companys online transactions
are secure.
(1) VeriSign
(2) Verizon
(3) Spam Butcher
(4) Spam Guard
(5) None of these
120. Which of the following is NOT a protocol?
(1) http
(2) HTML
(3) TCP/IP
(4) FTP
(5) None of these
121. What is the term used to describe a set of instructions for a computer?
(1) Software
(2) Printout
(3) Procedure
(4) Output
(5) None of these
122. Which of the following is NOT an input device?
(1) A DVD drive
123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

(2) A bar code reader

(3) A keyboard

(4) A flat bed scanner

(5) None of these
__________is the most widely used personal computer software.
(1) Database management
(2) Word processing
(3) SQL
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
______ is a set of programs that lies between applications software and the hardware.
(1) An operating system
(2) Systems software
(3) Application software
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
The most important program in the operating system is the_____ which manages the entire
system.
(1) Kernel
(2) Platform
(3) Software
(4) User
(5) None of these
Which of the following pointing devices is NOT usually associated with a notebook computer?
(1) Touchpad
(2) Pointing stick
(3) Joystick
(4) Trackball
(5) None of these
Which feature on a monitor display system determines the clarity or sharpness of the output?
(1) Resolution
(2) Number of cathode ray tubes
(3) Refresh rate
(4) Screen size
(5) None of these
Which of the following best matches the storage capacity of a typical floppy disk?
(1) 700MB
(2) 1GB
(3) 10 MB
(4) 1.44 MB
(5) None of these
The concentric rings that are magnetically laid on a disk surface are called:
(1) Tracks
(2) Clusters
(3) Partitions
(4) Sectors
(5) None of these
Which of the following is NOT considered as a network communication device?
(1) Router
(2) Data base
(3) Modem
(4) Network interface card (NIC)
(5) None of these

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(1) Modulator Demodulator

(2) Memory Demagnetization
(3) Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism
(4) Monetary Demarcation
(5)
(1) Ctrl+ H
(4) Ctrl+(1) CPU
(4)

(2) Ctrl+R
(5)
RAM

(2) RAM
(5)

(3) Ctrl+9

ROM

(3) CPU

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3) CD

(1)
(4)
OSA
(1) Open System Authentication
(3) Open System Authorization
(5)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)
TTL
(1) Technical Talk Language
(3) Time To Live
Save as Function
(1)
Name Create
(2)
save
(3)
Microsoft word
(4)
CD
(5)
(1) Excel
(4) Access

Hard Disk

Mac OS

(2) Open Source Authentication

(4) Open Soure Automation

(2)
(5)

(3)

(2) Transparent Transfer layer

(4) True Technology Live
(5)
save

save

(2) Powre Point

(5)

File

(3) World

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131. Modem stands for ____________.
(1) Modulator Demodulator
(2) Memory Demagnetization
(3) Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism
(4) Monetary Demarcation
(5) None of these
132. Which shortcut key is used to hide entire row in Excel?
(1) Ctrl + H
(2) Ctrl+ R
(3) Ctrl + 9
(4) Ctrl+ (5) None of these
133. Cache memory acts between____________.
(1) CPU and RAM
(2) RAM and ROM
(3) CPU and hard disk
(4) All
(5) None of these
134. The design of an integrated circuit is also called __________.
(1) Chip space
(2) Module design
(3) Chip set
(4) Logic layout
(5) None of these
135. Virtual memory consist of ___________.
(1) Static RAM
(2) Dynamic RAM
(3) Magnetic Memory
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
136. A binary digit is called a ______________.
(1) Bit
(2) Byte
(3) Number
(4) Character
(5) None of these
137. Which of the following is a main memory?
(1) Secondary memory
(2) Auxiliary memory
(3) Cache memory
(4) Virtual memory
(5) None of these
138. A system program that translates and executes an instruction simultaneously is ______.
(1) Compiler
(2) Interpreter
(3) Assembler
(4) Operating system
(5) None of these
139. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
(1) Scanner
(2) Speaker
(3) CD
(4) Printer
(5) None of these
140. The two broad categories of software
(1) Word processing and spreadsheet (2) Transaction and application
(3) Windows and Mac OS
(4) System and application (5) None of these
141. OSA stands for(1) Open System Authentication
(2) Open Source Authentication
(3) Open System Authorization
(4) Open Source Automation
(5) None of these
142. A mobile computer without a keyboard but has a monitor that forms one Side of device is
known as
(1) Notebook
(2) Laptop
(3) Tablet
(4) Mini PC
(5) None of these
143. What is the term TTL?
(1) Technical Talk Language
(2) Transparent Transfer Layer
(3) Time To Live
(4) True Technology Lives (5) None of these
144. When would you use the Save As Function?
(1) When you are staying a document for the first time and you need to choose a folder for the
document & create file name for it.
(2) Every time you want to save something.
(3) Only when working with Microsoft word document.
(4) Only when you want to burn files on to CD.
(5) None of these
145. If you want to create an animated presentation, what would be the best program to use?
(1) Excel
(2) Power Point
(3) World
(4) Access
(5) None of these
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MIDI
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(3)

.INI extension
(1) Image file

(2) System File

(3) Hyper text realted file

(4) Image color matching profile file (5)

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

1996

(3)

Hotmail

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(3)

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146. In which year was MIDI introduced?
(1) 1987
(2) 1983
(3) 1973
(4) 1977
(5) None of these
147. INI extension refers usually to what kind of file?
(1) Image file
(2) System file
(3) Hyper text related file
(4) Image color matching profile file (5) None of these
148. Who create Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)?
(1) Paul Zimmerman
(2) Tim Berners lee
(3) Marc Andressen
(4) Ken Thompson
(5) None of these
149. Who Co-founded hotmail in 1996 and then sold the company to Microsoft?
(1) Shawn Fanning
(2) Ada Buron Lovelace
(3) Sabeer Bhatia
(4) Ray Tomlison
(5) None of these
150. Where is the headquarter of Intel Located?
(1) Redmond, Washington
(2) Tucson, Arizona
(3) Santa Clara, California
(4) Richmond Virginia
(5) None of these

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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

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GENERAL AWARENESS
151. Which among the following is true "Budget Deficit"?
(1) This is gap between the government total spending and sum of its revenue receipts and
non debt capital receipts.
(2) It is the difference between the estimated public expenditure and public revenue.
(3) It is the difference between capital expenditure and capital receipt
(4) It is the difference between the fiscal deficit and interest payment
(5) None of these
152. Which among the following is true about Money?
(1) It refers to that money which is made available to the borrowers at high rate of interest
(2) It refers to that money which is made available to the borrowers at a low rate of interest
(3) The foreign money which has the tendency to migrate towards more profit oriented places
(4) Both 1 and 3
(5) None of these
153. Which among the following is true about Money Market?
(1) The term money market refers to the totality of financial institutions which deal with
long-term funds in the economy.
(2) The term money market refers to the totality of financial institutions which deal with
short-term funds in the economy
(3) The term money market to the totality of financial institution which deal with medium
term funds in the economy
(4) Both 1 and 3
(5) None of these
154. Scheduled Bank is that bank which is
(1) Nationalised
(2) Non Nationalised
(3) Based at Foreign country
(4) Included in the second schedule of RBI
(5) None of these
155. The centre has granted permission to the Punjab Governemt to export wheat to which country
in the wake of the state facing a wheat glut and warehouses overflowing?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) China
(3) Pakistan
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) None of these
156. To which country India had added US $ 270mm for the development project of making 50,000
units housing units Tamil Migrants?
(1) Maldives
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Bangladesh
(5) None of these
157. Which among the following countries will train 300 Indian teachers in Mandarian langauge
for more than 100 central board of secondary education school to introduce courses of the
language?
(1) Taiwan
(2) Singapore
(3) Japan
(4) China
(5) None of these
158. Who among the following retired from International Cricket on 18th August 2012?
(1) V.V.S. Laxman
(2) Rahul Dravid
(3) Brett Lee
(4) Ajay Jadeja
(5) None of these
159. Hashim Qandil was appointed as the Prime Minister of_________.
(1) Maldives
(2) Malaysia
(3) Egypt
(4) Libya
(5) None of these
160. RBI has asked the banks to convert the existing 'no frills' accounts into______
(1) Saving Bank Deposit Accounts
(2) Basic Saving Bank Deposit Account
(3) Basic Fixed Deposit Accounts
(4) Basic Current Accounts
(5) None of these

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(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(3)
(5)

(2)
(4)

(1)
(2)
(4)
(5)
BCSBI
(1) Banking Costs and Standard Board of India
(2) Banking Codes and Standard Board of India
(3) Banking Codes and Statistics Board of India
(4) Broad Codes and Standard Board of India
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

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161. Karrar is an unmanned combat air vehicle produced for the military of ________.
(1) Pakistan
(2) Afghianstan
(3) Iraq
(4) Iran
(5) None of these
162. According to the mobile banking conceptual model Mobile Banking can be said to consist to
three inter-realted concepts. Which of the following is among those three inter-related concepts.
(1) Mobile Accounting
(2) Mobile Brokerage
(3) Mobile Financial Information
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
163. Which of following inaguarated the Second International Buddhist Conclave at Varanasi?
(1) Union Minister of Labour and Employment, Mallikarjun Kharge
(2) Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting, Ambika Soni
(3) Union Minister of Finance, Palaniappan Chidambaram
(4) Union Minister of Tourism, Subodh Kant Sahai
(5) None of these
164. Who is the ninth recipent of the James C Morgan Global Humanitarian Award 2012?
(1) Dalai Lama
(2) Robert May
(3) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(4) Michael Milken
(5) None of these
165. What is the full form of BCBSI?
(1) Banking Costs and Standard Board of India
(2) Banking Codes and Standard Board of India
(3) Banking Codes and Statstics Board of India
(4) Broad Codes and Standard Board of India
(5) None of these
166. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed on 1st October 2012 between India and
..................... to strength the long-term bilateral cooperation and relationship on rail and road
infrastructure.
(1) Australia
(2) Pakistan
(3) England
(4) China
(5) None of these
167. What is Cluster financing ?
(1) Extending financial services to companies
(2) Extending services to Small and Medium Enterprises
(3) Extending fiancial services for poor farmers
(4) Extending finanical services to the whole economy
(5) None of these
168. Which of the following has been crowned as the Miss World 2012 at a gala ceremony held in
Managolia in August 2012?
(1) Yu Wenxia
(2) Sophie Moulds
(3) Jessica Kahawaty
(4) Vanya Mishra
(5) None of these
169. Which of the following banks is covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?
(1) All Scheduled Commercial Banks
(2) Regional Rural Commerical Banks
(3) Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
170. Which of the following functions can be performed with the help of ''Mobile Banking"?
(1) Transactions like fund transfers (2) Purchasing tickets
(3) Cheque book request
(4) Utility bill payments
(5) All of these
171. A new facility "Cash on Mobile" has been lunched by a Bank as per which we need not to carry
ATM card to withdraw cash. What is the name of the Bank which has launched the Scheme?
(1) Punjab National Bank
(2) IndusInd Bank
(3) Canara Bank
(4) State Bank of India
(5) None of these
172. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is working with ________to create a network
of 14 lakh micro ATMs across the country.
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) Indian Bank's Association
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
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(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(1)
A
(4) A, B,

(2)
(5)

(3) B

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(1)
(4)

(2)
(5)

(3)

(2)
(5)

(3)

CAMELS
(1)
(4)

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173. National Payment Corporation of India is an umbrella institution for all the ________ in the
country.
(1) Wholesale Payment System
(2) Retail Payment System (3) Small Scale Payments
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
174. Which of the following Tribunal was setup to deal with the deal with matters related to
Enviornment?
(1) National Ecosystem Tribunal
(2) National Eco Friendly
(3) National Green Tribunal
(4) National Enviornment Tribunal
(5) None of these
175. Eric Hobsbawn recently passed away. He was a famous(1) Historian
(2) Scientist
(3) Mathematician
(4) Sportsperson
(5) None of these
176. Which of the following publishes "Economic Outlook 2012-2013"?
(1) Government of India
(2) Planning Commission
(3) Economic Advisory Counil
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these
177. The term "Book Building" is related to which of the following?
(1) Takeover
(2) Goodwill of company
(3) Economic Advisory Council
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these
178. Which of the following is/are true about Certificate of Deposit?
A. The minimum size of issue is Rs. 1 Lakh
B. They are issued at the discount to the face value
C. Banks do not have the freedom to issue CDs as per thier requirements
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
(5) A, B and C
179. Which country is on the top position in the Global Competitiveness index 2012-13 of World
Economic Forum?
(1) India
(2) Switzerland
(3) America
(4) China
(5) None of these
180. Who won Japanese Grand Prix 2012?
(1) Jenson Button
(2) Fernado Alonso
(3) Lewis Hamilton
(4) Michael Schumacher
(5) Sebastian Vettel
181. On which of the following the supreme court had lifted the ban recently?
(1) Sugar
(2) Rice
(3) Tiger Tourism
(4) Gutka
(5) None of these
182. Which of the following is also known as Demat Account?
(1) Demarginalizing Account
(2) Demarcate Account
(3) Democratic Account
(4) Dematerialised Account
(5) None of these
183. Who is the Lender of Last Resort (LORL) in India?
(1) Government of India
(2) State Government
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these
184. Which among following is the current reverse repo rate?
(1) 7%
(2) 8%
(3) 9%
(4) 7.7%
(5) 8.5%
185. Which among the following is currency of China?
(1) Yen
(2) Rufiyaa
(3) Yaun
(4) Dollar
(5) None of these
186. Who has been conferred with Man Booker Prize 2012?
(1) Julian Branes
(2) Howard Jacobson
(3) Arvind Adiga
(4) Hilary Mantel
(5) None of these
187. Which country hosted Twenty-20 World Cup 2012?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Australia
(4) West Indies
(5) None of these
188. Which of the following is represented by the letter 'L' in the abbreviation CAMELS a rating
system used in financial world?
(1) Liquidity
(2) Loans
(3) Leadership
(4) Liabilities
(5) None of these
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

FERA

FEMA

(A) FERA
(B) FEMA
(C) FEMA
(1) A
(4) A

(5)

FEMA
FERA
RBI

(2) B

(5)

SBI

(3)
SBI

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(3)

PURA
(1) Provision for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
(2) Project for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
(3) Provision for Urban Amenities in Restricted Areas
(4) Provision for Upper Amenities in Rural Areas
(5)
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

IEPF
Investor Education and Protection Fund
Interest Education and Preserve Fund

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

Investor Employed and Power Fund

Investor Employed and Preserve Fund

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189. What are the main objectives of SEZ (Special Economic Zone)?
(1) Generation of additional economic activity
(2) Promotion of import of goods and services
(3) Promotion of disinvestment from domestic and foreign sources
(4) Creation of employment opportunities
(5) Only 1 and 4
190. When is any country's balance of payment in its favour?
(1) When imports are greater than exports.
(2) When exports are greater than imports.
(3) When exports and exports both are equal.
(4) When both exports and imports are increasing.
(5) None of these
191. About FERA/FEMA which of the following statement is right?
(A) FERA/FEMA, both laws are associated with Foreign Exchange
(B) FEMA replaced FERA in 2002
(C) FEMA is regulated by RBI
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) All are true
(4) A and C
(5) None of these
192. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment Bill) 2011, which changes the minimum level of
share of the government in SBI's equity?
(1) From 51% to 55%
(2) From 55% to 52%
(3) From 74% to 51%
(4) From 55% to 49%
(5) None of these
193. When is International Women's Day celebrated?
(1) 15th March
(2) 8th March
(3) 22nd March
(4) 8th April
(5) None of these
194. Given the full form of the following PURA.
(1) Provision for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
(2) Project for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
(3) Provision for Urban Amenities in Restricted Areas
(4) Provision for Upper Amenities in Rural Areas
(5) None of these
195. The...........Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in Tehran, Iran.
(1) 15th
(2) 17th
(3) 14th
(4) 16th
(5) None of these
196. Which among the following countries has joined the World Trade Organisation as a member
on August 22, 2002?
(1) China
(2) Libya
(3) Russia
(4) Ukraine
(5) None of these
197. Which among the following countries had successfully test fired a new generation intercontinental ballistic missile 28, 2012?
(1) Russia
(2) France
(3) Pakistan
(4) China
(5) None of these
198. Which among the following countries ranked first in number of tobacco consumers globally?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) Brazil
(4) Russia
(5) None of these
199. Which among the following is the capital of Mauritius?
(1) Abuja
(2) Tripoli
(3) Port Louis
(4) Ulan Bator
(5) None of these
200. What is the full form of IEPF?
(1) Investor Education and Protection Fund
(2) Investor Employee and Power Fund
(3) Interest Education and Preserve Fund
(4) Invesior Employee and Preserve Fund
(5) None of these
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION

Direction (201-210). In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The continuing economic crisis has put central banks and governments the world over into
(201) waters. For the industrialized West, the question seems to be a choice between economic
stimulus and jobs, in the hope of creating a softer landing, or a swift shock at the hands of the free
markets, in the hope of getting through the (202) more quickly. In emerging markets, the question
is how to deal with being the focal point for investors looking to maximise returns.
Specifically, for the Federal Reserve in the United States, that means (203) hundreds of
billions of dollars into the markets - buying Treasury bills to increase liquidity. In Europe the concern
is that monetary union may be at risk due to the strains posed by euro-zone countries that are
(204) in (205). In Asia, on the other hand, economies are surging, but the prospect of hot money
flowing into the region could potentially spell (206) due to overheating.
Fears that the Feds second round of quantitative easing may lead to a faster pace of (207)
may be (208). US unemployment remains persistently high at around 10%, while inflation remains
astoundingly low at 1 % or less, the slowest on record. Thats despite the Feds earlier injection of $
1.7 trillion into the financial system to avert an economic depression in the wake of the global
financial crisis.
In contrast to the Feds quantitative easing, the European Central Bank has reduced liquidity
in the European banking system by some 350 billion Euros during the past five months. This reflects
the central banks (209) in the improved stability of the banking system and easier (210) to capital.
201. (1) tested
(2) unpredictable (3) under
(4) unquestionable (5) uncharted
202. (1) downturn
(2) spectrum
(3) options
(4) hope
(5) drama
203. (1) sucking
(2) pumping
(3) forming
(4) blocking
(5) promoting
204. (1) mired
(2) safe
(3) above
(4) unhappy
(5) out
205. (1) market
(2) trouble
(3) debt
(4) surplus (5) manner
206. (1) positive
(2) negative
(3) trouble
(4) growth
(5) process
207. (1) cost
(2) depreciation (3) cooperation
(4) inflation
(5) rate
208. (1) challenged
(2) overstated
(3) perfect
(4) predicted
(5) simple
209. (1) weakness
(2) strength
(3) correction
(4) contract
(5) confidence
210. (1) denial
(2) approval
(3) appreciation (4) access
(5) disposal
211-215. Read the following passage based on an Interview to answer the given questions based
on it. Certain word(s) are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
A spate of farmer suicides linked to harassment by recovery agents employed by micro finance
institutions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state government to bring in regulation to protect
consumer interests. But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for consumer protection,
it tries to micro-manage MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle some of the crucial
benefits that MFIs bring to farmers, says the author of Microfinance India, State Of The Sector
Report 2010. In an interview he points out that prudent regulation can ensure the original goal of
the MFIs social uplift of the poor.
Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFIs is well thought out ? Does it ensure fairness to the
borrowers and the long-term health of the sector ?
The AP Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for customer protection in four critical
areas First is pricing. Second is lenders liability whether the lender can give too much loan
without assessing the customers ability to pay. Third is the structure of loan repayment - whether
you can ask money on a weekly basis from people who dont produce weekly incomes. Fourth is the
practices that attend to how you deal with defaults.
But the Act should have looked at the positive benefits that institutions could bring in, and
where they need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It should have brought only those
features in.
Say you want the recovery practices to be consistent with what the customers can really
manage. If the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody is harassing him, then those
complaints should be investigated by the District Rural Development Authority.
Instead what the Bill says is that MFIs cannot go to the customers premises to ask for
recovery and that all transactions will be done in the Panchayat office. With great difficulty, MFIs

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brought services to the door of people. It is such a relief for the customers not to be spending time
out going to banks or Panchayat offices, which could be 10 km away in some cases. A facility which
has brought some relief to people is being shut. Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI where
it should do business and how it should do it.
Social responsibilities were in-built when the MFIs were first conceived. If MFIs go for
profit with loose regulations, how are they different from moneylenders ?
Even among moneylenders there are very good people who take care of the customers
circumstance and there are really bad ones. A large number of the MFIs are good and there are
some who are coercive because of the kind of prices and processes they have adopted. But
Moneylenders never got this organised. They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought in
organisation, it mobilized the equity it brought in commercial funding. It invested in systems. It
appointed a large number of people. But some of them exacted a much higher price than they should
have. They wanted to break even very fast and greed did take over in some cases. Are the for-profit
MFIs the only ones harassing people for recoveries ?
Some not-for-profit outfits have also adopted the same kind of recovery methods. That may
be because you have to show that you are very efficient in your recovery methods and that your
portfolio is of a very high quality if you want to get commercial funding from a bank.
In fact, among for-profits there are many who have sensible recovery practices. Some have
fortnightly recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have differing practices. We just describe
a few dominant ones and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that. How can you introduce
regulations to ensure social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards for-profit models ?
I am not really concerned whether someone wants to make a profit or not. The bottom-line
for me is customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are you telling your customers how
the loan is structured ? Are you being transparent about your performance ? There should also be a
lenders liability attached to what you do. Suppose you lend excessively to a customer without
assessing their ability to service the loan, you have to take the hit.
Then theres the question of limiting returns. You can say that an MFI cannot have a return
on assets more than X, a return on equity of more than Y. Then suppose there is a privately promoted
MFI, there should be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity markets till a certain
amount of time. MFIs went to markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big too fast. The
government thought they were making profit off the poor, and thats an indirect reason why they
decided to clamp down on MFIs If you say an MFI wont go to capital market, then it will keep political
compulsions under rein.
211
Which of the following best explains Structure of loan repayment in this context of the first
question Asked to the author ?
(1) Highest interest rate
(2) Payment on weekly basis
(3) Giving loan without assessing ability to pay
(4) Method of dealing with defaults
(5) Total amount of loan
212. The author is of the view that
(1) the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed
(2) the bill neglects the interests of the customers
(3) the positive aspects of MFIs should also be considered
(4) most of the MFIs are not good
(5) MFIs must be told what and where they should do business
213. One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is that
(1) they brought services to the door of people
(2) they dealt with default very firmly
(3) they provided adequate customer protection
(4) they are governed by the local people
(5) they have highly flexible repayment plan
214. What is the difference between MFIs and moneylenders ?
(1) There is no difference
(2) Marge number of moneylenders are good whereas only a few MFIs are good
(3) Moneylenders gave credit at lower rate of interest than that of MFIs
(4) MFIs adopted a structure and put a process in place, which was not the case with
moneylenders
(5) Moneylender appointed large number of local people as against more outside people in MFIs
215. Which of the following is positive outcome of the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?
(1) The banks have started this service in remote areas
(2) It highlighted some areas of customer protection
(3) It highlighted the bad practices being followed by moneylenders
(4) MFIs invested in systems and brought in commercial funding
(5) It will help convert MFIs into small banks
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216. The author is recommending
(1) Not-for profit MFIs
(2) For-profit MFIs
(3) Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs
(4) Customer satisfaction irrespective of Not-for profit or for-profit MFIs
(5) Public sector promoted MFIs
217. Why did MFIs go to the equity markers ?
(1) Top repay the loan
(2) To lower interest rate
(3) There were political compulsions
(4) To become a public sector institution
(5) To grow very fast
218. Which of the following has not been indicated as one of the features of fair practices for
customer protection ?
(1) Providing information about loan structuring
(2) MFIs should also be held liable for some of their actions
(3) Not to raise money from capital market
(4) MFIs should also inform public about their own performance also
(5) To provide credit as per the rational assessment of their ability to service the loan
219. Which of the following could possibly be most plausible reason for banning recovery by going
to customers premises ?
(1) To protect the family members
(2) To protect the customer from harassment and coercion
(3) To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs resulting in lower interest rates
(4) To account systematically the money recovered in the books of accounts
(5) To keep Panchayat office out of these transactions
Direction (220-223). Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/
group of words printed in bold.
220.
manage
(1) afford
(2) assess
(3) thrust
(4) administer (5) use
221.
exacted
(1) perfected
(2) demanded
(3) estimated (4) corrected (5) accurate
222.
scuttle
(1) delay
(2) mix
(3) shuffle
(4) destroy
(5) smoothen
223.
spurred
(1) agitated
(2) instigated
(3) reflected (4) disapproved(5) prompted
Direction (224-225). Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning of
the word printed in bold.
224.
under rein (1) under wrap
(2) without target (3) let loose
(4) no clout
(5) under cloud.
225.
coercive (1) gentle
(2) promoting
(3) progressive (4) natural
(5) opinionated
Direction (226-231). Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Two of the best-performing major economies in 2010 were China and Brazil, with growth
estimated at 7.5% and 10.5% respectively.
(B) Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11 % and 20%
for the year.
(C) Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes is of no help to an investor.
(D) It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets.
(E) But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.
(F) By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year.
226. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
227. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
228. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
229. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
230. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
231. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
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Direction (232-235). Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Add the incremental loans to the basic metals and metal product industry, which account
for another 14.5% of loans to industry and over 80% of the increase in loans to industry
this fiscal is accounted for.
(B) RBI decision to publish data on sectoral deployment of bank credit every month will provide
much-needed detail.
(C) Of the total increase in non-food credit, infrastructure loans accounted for 37%.
(D) For instance, the data show that while bank credit to industry increased by 11.7% this
year, as much as two-thirds of that increase is on account of lending to infrastructure.
(E) This will help us to gauge which sector of the economy are doing well.
232. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
233. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) Either A or E
(4) D
(5) E
234. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
235. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Direction 236-240. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it
or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has
been printed in bold and has been numbered (1), (2), (3) or (4). The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if
any.)
236. The convergence of (1)/Indian accounting standards with International Financial Reporting
Standards (IFRS) beginning (2)/in April is expecting to (3)/see power companies struggling
with significant (4)/ first-time adoption impact. No error (5)
237.
Researchers at (1)/the Indian Institute of Science (HSc), Bangalore, are mapping (2)/Indias
solar hot spots-where round-the-year (3)/sunlight makes it viable of (4)/companies to set
up solar power plants. No error (5)
238. Though their qualifications span a diverse (1)/range, there is an equal (2)/number of
graduates and those who have (3)/just completed School, each set making up (4)/close to
30% of these households. No error (5)
239.
As if (1)/the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (2)/it starts to (3)/reform
North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.(4)/ No error (5)
240.
It so happens (1)/that this happy campy ritual is their way of life (2)/and one into which
(3)/ they dont particularly welcome (4)/voyeuristic intrusions. No error (5)
Direction (241-250): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part will be the
answer.If there is No error, mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
241. A recycling plant in close proximity to (1)/ the residential area can pose (2)/ serious threats
from residents (3)/ by leaving behind persistent pollutants. (4)/ No error (5)
242. The government has the obligation (1)/ to provide basic infrastructure facilities (2)/ toregulating
the process of (3)/ urbanization in the country. (4)/ No error (5)
243. Bharatpur is transforming into (1)/ Indias most fastest growing bird sanctuary (2)/ attracting
thousands of rare migratory birds (3)/ from Europe and Siberia. (4)/ No error (5)
244. Plagued by huge losses, (1)/ full service airlines are struggling (2)/ to cope with the competition
(3)/ from low cost airlines. (4)/ No error (5)
245. Volunteers of an NGO (1)/ interacted with school students (2)/ to spread awareness about (3)/
environment related issues. (4)/ No error (5)
246. The Union health minister said that (1)/ there was an acute shortage of (2)/ health personnel
in rural areas (3)/ who needed to be addressed urgently. (4)/ No error (5)
247. Even though most of Indias youth (1)/ lives in villages, many people considers (2)/ the ones
roaming in dazzling multiplexes (3)/ as their true reflection. (4)/ No error (5)
248. The RBI has proposed to introduce (1)/ polymer notes after taking into considering (2)/ the
cost and longevity (3)/ associated with their manufacturing. (4)/ No error (5)
249. Some genuine issues exist (1)/ with the newly adopted (2)/ system and needs to (3)/ be examined
seriously.(4) / No error (5)
250. Whether or not to confront (1)/ them about their role (2)/ in the matter is a decision (3)/which
is yet to take. (4)/ No error (5)
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