Goljan Transcripts - Nts MODIFIED With SLIDES 5
Goljan Transcripts - Nts MODIFIED With SLIDES 5
Goljan Transcripts - Nts MODIFIED With SLIDES 5
Orchitis mumps
Epididymitis less than 35 = N gonorrhea/chlamydia, greater than 35 = pseudomonas
Varicocele on left side bc spermatic vein connected to left renal vein, wheras the
spermatic vein on the right is connected to the IVC;
bc of this, the pressures increase, and a varicocele on the left, leads to increased heat and
is one of the most common causes of infertility
ie what would happen if you blocked the left renal vein? Would develop a varicocele.
So, if you block the left renal vein, you will increase the pressure in the spermatic vein and
will lead to a varicocele.
Torsion spermatic cord twisting; when there is a torsion of the spermatic cord, it shortens
it.
This means that the testicle will go up into the inguinal canal.
This is painful.
You will lose your cremasteric reflex (in normal male, if you scatch the scrotum, it will
contract, which is lost in torsion of the testicle).
Hydrocele persistence of tunica vaginalis; when you have big scrotum, you dont know
whether its big bc there is fluid in it, or its big bc there is a testicle in it.
So, what do you do? Transilluminate. If it transilluminates, it is hydrocele.
If it doesnt its cancer.
d/d for painless enlargement of testicle : cancer, cancer, cancer!! (why they dont even do
bx, just remove)
Seminoma
67. Seminoma
Note the yellow-tan tumor that does not completely replace the testicle (usually they do, but
not in this case).
68. Seminoma
The microscopic appearance of this tumor shows collections of germ cells in nests or cords with
a stroma that has scattered lymphocytes present. This is the same histologic pattern that you
would see in a dysgerminoma of the ovary.
So, older pts get malignant lymphoma (not as primary dz, but from mets); the testes mets a
lot , esp in leukemia and lymphomas
Summary:
Worst = choriocacinoma
MC = Seminoma
MC in kids = yolk sac tumor
MC in old = mets malignant lymphoma
Prostate
Hyperplasia occurs in the periurethral portion of the prostate gland.
urethra)
This is why you get dribbling and urinary retention as the most common symptom.
Prostate cancer is in the periphery of the prostate gland within the periphery of your finger.
So, when you press on it, you feel hardness.
Example 75 yo man with urinary retention and bladder is up the umbilicus and has dribbling
what is the most likely cause? NOT prostate cancer
why? Bc for prostate cancer to do that, it has to invade all the way through the
prostate gland to the urethra/bladder neck.
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This is prostate HYPERPLASIA bc it is already around the urethra, and this is the MCC, not
cancer.
What male hormone is totally responsible for prostate? Dihydrotestosterone
in embryogenesis, this hormone fuses the labia to form a scotrum, extends the clitoris
to form a penis and makes a prostate gland.
So, prostate HPY and cancer are NOT testosterone dep cancers, but dihydrotesterone
dep cancers.
If you use a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor, that will increase testosterone.
This drug will decrease DIHYDROTESTOSTERONE
MC cancer in men = prostate cancer
Produces osteoblastic mets.
Notice the
Day 5
Audio file #1 Gyn1
Hirsutism and Virilization
Hirsutism = increased hair in normal hair bearing areas
Virilization = hirstuism, plus male secondary sexual characteristics (zits, acne, deeper
voice), clitoromegaly (pathognomonic)
Testosterone is predominantly synthesized in the ovary.
Most testosterone in a woman is from the ovary.
DHEA sulfate is 95% from adrenals, and is an androgen.
Therefore, if a pt has hirstuism, have to get two tests get a testosterone level have to
fractionate it bc sometimes the total can be normal, but the free test can be increased, and
you get a DHEA sulfate test.
So, if testeterone is predominantly elevated, it is coming from the ovary and if DHEA is
elevated, it is coming from the adrenals.
At the same time, these are being converted to estrogens so will have endometrial
hyperplasia and therefore have a risk of endometrial caricinoma.
So, there is a combo of increased androgens and increased estrogens.
It is the increased estrogens that causes suppression of FSH via negative feedback, while
there is a POSITIVE feedback on LH.
So, bc increased estrogens, pt is constantly suppressing FSH and constantly increasing
LH, so the cycle repeats itself.
So, you can break the cycle with an OCP bc the progestin in it will block LH.
So, why do they have cysts? Functions of FSH is to prepare the follicle.
Also, they increase the aromatase activity.
If the FSH is constantly suppressed, the follicle degenerates and leaves behind a cystic
spaces where the follicle used to be.
So, pt has POLYcytic ovarian syndrome related to chronic FSH suppression.
Can feel these by pelvic exam and seen with ultrasound.
Menstrual dysfunction
Dysmenorrhea = painful menses (primary and secondary
MCC primary is too much PGF a PG that increases contraction of the uterine
musculature.
The MC secondary cause is endometriosis).
There are also problems with dysfunctional uterine bleeding this is NOT a bleeding
abnormality related to a bleeding/organic cause.
So, in other words, it is not bleeding from an endometrial polyp, its not bleeding from a
cancer; this type of bleeding is a hormone imbalance that causes abnormality in bleeding.
MCC abnormal bleeding in young lady from menarche to 20 yrs of age = anovulatory
bleeding.
So, if a young lady is bleeding, that is the usual cause.
So, they develop a lil hyperplasia, there is a build up of mucosa as the month progresses,
and then eventually the stroma sloughs off and leads to significant bleeding.
So, its mainly an estrogen primed uterus, without the effect of progesterone and they do
not ovulate related to this.
This is the MCC.
Amenorrhoea
Primary amenorrhea and secondary amenorrhea
When you think amenorrhea, it can be a prob with the hypothalamus/pituitary.
In other words, is the hypothalamus putting out GnRH or not? Is the pit putting out FSH/LH
or not?
So, is it a hypothalamic-pit abnormality?
Is it an ovarian prob? Maybe the ovary is not making enough estrogen.
Is its an end organ prob?
This is anatomically related maybe she doesnt have a vagina - Rokitansky-KusterHauser syndrome,
or maybe she has an imperforate hymen shes been having periods all along, and has
blood built up behind it,
or cervical stenosis (DES exposure) these are all anatomical reasons for the amenorrhea.
Ashermans syndrome secondary amenorrhea, woman has repeated dilatation and
curotoshes(?),
where the stratum basalis is scraped away; have to leave something behind from which
you can proliferate endometrial mucosa
if you scrape all the way down the the muscle, will not be able to menstruate again, and
will scar everything off, leading to an infertile woman.
So, amenorrhea is primary or secondary : hypothalamic-pit problem, ovarian prob, or end
organ prob.
If you have an end organ defect, what would FSH and LH levels be? Normal.
What is the first step in the workup of any case of amenorrhea? Pregnancy test.
Turners syndrome:
Primary cause of amenorrhea, webbed neck, females
Majority are XO, therefore do not have a barr body.
Defects in lymphatics.
Can make dx at birth via PE see swelling of hand and feet (lymphedema) = turners
Webbed neck is due to lymphatic abnormalities
get cystic hygromas,
which are dilated lymphatics in the neck area and fill with lymphatic fluid and stretch the
skin bc they stretch the skin, looks like webbing.
Have preductal coarctations.
Do not have MR.
some cases are mosaics XOXX and there is a remote possibility that they may be fertile.
There are also XOXYs that are mosaics.
Have menopause b4 menarche.
All of there follicles are gone by the age of 2, and this is the streak ovaries (gonad).
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70. Adenomyosis
This slide shows the presence of endometrial glands and stroma within the wall of the uterus
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see chocolate cyst (endometromas - not cancer, just endometriosis of the ovary), tube, in
pouch of Douglas
Example: good question to ask if pt has endometriosis:
Does it hurt when you defecate ? Yes.
How about when your period goes away? No, it goes away
this is endometriosis bc there is bleeding in the rectal pouch of the pouch of Douglas
(there is endometreosis there).
The rectum is filled with stools, and streches the pouch of Douglas, leading to pain.
So, pain on defecation during the period leads to endometriosis.
Endometrial Hyperplasia
From unopposed estrogen.
Always dangerous to have unopposed estrogen, meaning no progesterone effect, bc then
pt runs risk for endometrial cancer.
MCC endometrial cancer = endometrial HPY due to unopposed estrogen
Pouch of Douglas can collect seeding from ovarian cancer, pus from PID, unclotted blood
from ruptured ectopic pregnancy
(low part of a womans pelvis includes: vagina, cervical os, uterus, bladder)
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Endometrial cancer:
Early vs late menarche early is worse bc longer time for estrogen to circulate
Early vs Late menopause late is worse bc more estrogen exposure
Obese vs not obese obese bc the estrogen factor in adipose (more aromatase),
therefore, obese woman are more susceptible to cancers related to estrogen - breast
cancer, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer
Type II diabetics are at increased risk bc 80% of type II pts are obese (so, the obesity is the
cause of increased risk of endometrial cancer).
Cancer and age brackets
45 = cervical
55 = endometrial
65 = ovarian
55 yo, postmenopausal is when you usually see endometrial carcinoma.
Any woman that has been in menopause for over 1 yr, and then has rebleeding has
endometrial cancer until proven otherwise.
1st step in management? Endometrial Bx
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76. Leiomyosarcoma
Ectopic pregnancy
Example: young woman sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain
must do a pregnancy (look at beta HCG level) test to rule out ectopic
pregnancy.
Ovarian masses
Surface derived derived from the surface of the ovary
Germ cell types - dysgerminomas (men have these, too)
Sex chord stromal tumors make estrogens (ie granulosa cell tumors - therefore can have
hyperestrinism which leads to bleeding and endo carcinomas),
some make androgens (sertoli leydig cell tumors of the ovary assoc with virulization and
hirstuism).
(males just have germ cell tumors)
Follicular cyst
MCC of ovarian mass in a young woman = follicular cyst
Follicle that ruptured, not neoplastic, accumulates fluid and leads to peritonitis.
Sudden onset of pain in women
It is bad if its on the right side bc it can be either ruptured follicular cyst, appedicitus, ectopic
pregnancy (ruptured), PID; look at with ultrasound
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cell tumor)
Granulosa cell tumor of ovary: low grade malignant tumor; what does the granulosa cell
normally do? It aromatizes androgens and estrogens, so a granulosa cell tumor is more
than likely an estrogen producing tumor.
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Signet ring cells is this a primary cancer, or mets from another site? Site is from stomach
called a krukenburg tumor;
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What hormones is it making? B-hcG and Human Placental Lactogen (HPL) growth
hormone of pregnancy.
Has myxomatous stroma.
Vessels coalesce into umbilical vein, which has the highest o2 content.
Causes of choriocarcinoma:
15% of choriocaricnomas are from preexisting hyadiform mole
25% from spontaneous abortion
25% from normal pregnancy
Hyatidiform moles are b9 tumors of the chorionic villus;
choriocarcinomas are a malignancy of the trophoblastic tissue (do not see chorionic villi).
Loves to go to the lungs and responds well to chemotherapy (can even go away in the
presence of mets)
97. Choriocarcinoma
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Breast
Picture a schematic with nipple, lactiferous duct, major ducts, terminal lobules (where milk
is made), and the stroma
Nipple = Pagets dz of the breast
Lactiferous duct = Intraductal papilloma (MCC of bloody nipple discharge of woman under
50) b9 papillary tumor, if you press on it, blood will come out of the areola
Major ducts = where most of the cancers arise from invasive ductal cancers, medullary
carcinomas, mucinous carcinomas
Terminal lobules (where milk is made) MC tumor = lobular carnicoma, is famous be
BILATERAL (so, lobular tumors are to the breast as serous tumors are to the ovary in
terms of their bilatterallity);
mammography doesnt pic up lobular cancers.
MCC of mass in breast of woman under 50 = fibrocystic change
MCC of mass in breast of woman over 50 = cancer: infiltrating ductal carcinoma (not
intraductal
this means that we are not picking up the cancer early enough by mammography and
picking up in the intraductal phase, and our techniques are insensitive
so we are missing the ductal stage and we are picking up the cancer when it has
invaded to pick up early, need to get at 5mm or less).
So, if they are intraductal, has a good prognosis
Example: 35 yo woman with movable mass in breast that gets bigger as the cycle
progresses = fibroadenoma
These are the most commons in terms of age and location
Slide: fibrocystic change cysts, lumpy bumpy in breast, more painful as the cycle
progresses bc they are hormone sensitive
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Example:: ductal hyperplasia cannot see; precursor lesion for cancer that are estrogen
sensitive epithelial cells in the ducts (just like the endometrial glands are estrogen
sensitive, the glands lining the ducts are estrogen sensitive).
Sclerosing adenosis in terminal lobules, b9 part of fibrocystic change (see cysts)
Fibroadenoma
MC tumor that moves around in the breast in a woman under 35 = fibroadenoma is
the neoplastic components the glands or the stroma? Its the stroma
as it grows, it compresses the ductstems, so they have slit like spaces; very common.
Even if you know its a fibroadenoma, still get a bx
99. Fibroadenoma
Breast Cancer
Slide: How do you know its breast cancer? nipple is hard as a rock
when breast cancers invade the stroma, they elicit a fibroblastic and elastics tissue
response, making it hard
this is good bc it makes it palpable.
This is why a woman over 50, that has a painless palpable mass, its cancer.
If its painful and under 50, its rarely cancer (fat necrosis, fibrocystic change).
So, the magic word is painless.
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Outer quadrants of the breast are the MC sites bc this is where most of the breast tissue is.
Therefore, this would be the MC site for breast cancer. The 2nd MC site is around the
areola.
Slide: nipple being sucked in, whitish mass, stellate (classic for invasive cancer); on
mammography, see density with spicules coming out and has calcified.
This is highly predictive for cancer.
What is the first step in management of a palpable mass? FNA bc can make a dx and tell
if its solid or cystic
(this is also the first step in management of cold nodule in thyroid, not ultrasound).
Slide: intraductal cancer netlike arrangement, called comedocarcinoma, junk that comes
out (like caseous necrosis); has erb-2 oncogene (aggressive cancers).
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Slide: invasive cancer, see tumor cells invading stroma; see Indian filing sign of invasive
lobular cancer; seen more often in infiltrating ductal carcinoma
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invasion
Slide: eczematous dz around the nipple = pagets dz of the breast rash around nipple
cancer of the duct that has spread to the skin
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Slide: inflammatory carcinoma worst, red, dimpled skin bc the lymphatics are plugged
with cancer underneath and the lymphatic fluid leaked out, but the ligaments are still
attached, but increasing the fluid in the interstium, and as it expands out,
it dimples peau d'orange
so, inflammatory carcinoma looks like that bc its lymphatic filled with tumor, and is the
worst of the worst.
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The lumpectomy removes the underlying tumor with a good border of normal tissue
around it, take a few nodes from the axilla (bc have to use for staging bc they go to lower
axillary first), and then you do radiation of the breast (good for breast conservation same
prognosis as mastectomy)
Example:: ERA-PRA = estrogen receptor/progesterone receptor assay what does it
mean? Relationship betwn estrogen and its receptor synthesis.
So, if you are in a reproductive period of your life when estrogen is abundant, the receptors
will be downregulated.
This is why in women that are young, in the reproductive period of their life, have breast
cancer and are ERPRA negative bc this is what we would expect bc estrogen would down
regulate receptor synthesis.
Whereas, if you are postmenopausal, it leads to up regulation of the receptors and those
women are ERPRA positive.
But what does this mean? It means that the tumor is responding to estrogen and need to
take away that estrogen affect bc it is feeding the tumor.
How can you take it away? Tamoxifen
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this is weak estrogen, so it hooks into the receptor of breast tumors, so if there is any left
behind, normal estrogen in a woman cant get into it and wont be able to feed the tumor.
So, its a blocker of the receptor.
Complications? Menopausal type symptoms; also, it is an estrogen so you have the risk of
endometrial cancer.
A benefit of tamofxifen in the postmenopausal state with an ERA PRA pos woman is that it
does prevent osteoporosis.
So, cannot give estrogen to a woman that is ERA PRA pos, but is a candidate for tamox
and will prolong recurrence.
1)prolactinoma can be suppressed bc it can prevent the tumor from making prolactin;
bromocriptine suppresses it (dopamine analog normally,
women do not have galactorrhea bc they are releasing dopamine, which is inhibiting
prolactin (therefore dopamine is an inhibitory substance
bromocriptine is also used for treating parkinsons bc bromocriptine is a dopamine analog
(which is what is missing in parkinsons dz)
2) Pituitary Cushings: b9 tumor in the pitiuitary that is making ACTH you CAN suppress
it with a high dose of dexamethasone.
These are the only two exceptions for a tumor making too much stuff.
(There is no way to suppress a parathyroid adenoma making PTH, or an adrenal ademona
making cortisol, or a an adrenal tumor from synthesizing aldosterone these are
AUTONOMOUS)
Example: pt with hypocortisolism
lets do an ACTH stimulation test
will hang up an IV drip and put in some ACTH; collecting urine for 17
hydroxycorticoids (metabolic end product of cortisol) and nothing happens
so what is the hypocortisol due to? Addison dz gland was destroyed
therefore, even if you keep stimulating it, you will not be making cortisol.
Example: Lets say after a few days you see in an increase in 17 hydroxycorticoids, then
what is the cause of hypocortisolism? Hypopituitarism
in other words, its atrophic bc its not being stimulated by ACTH, but when you gave it
ACTH over a period of time, it was able to regain its function.
So, with that single test, you are able to find cause of hypocortisalism.
Can also look at hormonal levels ie Addisons causing hypocortisalism, what would ACTH
be? High;
if you have hypopituitarism causing hypocortisalism, what would ACTH be? Low
Hypopituitarism
MCC in adults = nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma (within sella turcica in the
sphenoid bone, hence surgery is transphenoidal surgery, where the expanded sella turcica
is).
Pit Adenoma usually nonfunctioning and destroys the normal pituitary over time as it
grows, leading to hypopituitarism.
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(This is not liquefactive necrosis bc the pituitary is not part of the brain).
Mech is ischemia and coagulation necrosis.
Pregnant woman have a pituitary gland two times the normal size.
Prolactin is being synthesized but a pregnant woman does not have galatorrhea bc the
estrogen and progesterone inhibit release.
So, the moment you give birth, the inhibitory effect is released and start having
galactorrhea.
This is the 2nd MCC hypopit in adult.
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MC in kids = craniopharnygioma
Rathkes pouch origin this is part of the embryological development of the pituitary gland
pieces of it remain and can become neoplastically transformed into a craniopharygioma.
Its not a malignant tumor, but a b9 tumor in a bad place.
It is MC supra-sellar (above the sella) and it goes down and destroys the pituitary, but
likes to go forward and bumps into optic chiasm,
leading to bitemporal hemianopsia, leading to visual field defect.
Example:: child with headaches and visual field defect do a schematic of it and will ask
what the cause is craniopharyngioma tumor of rathkes pouch origin.
Growth Hormone
When you have a tumor that is expanding in the sella turcica, different releasing factors
(hormones) decrease in a certain succession.
The first thing that is destroyed is gonadotropin.
So, in a woman, what would happen? She would have amenorrhea (secondary
amenorrhea).
What if I were a man (what is the analogous condition)? Impotence; impotence is to a male
as amenorrhea is to a female.
Impotence = failure to sustain an erection during attempted intercourse.
The next thing that goes is growth hormone (which has 2 functions:
1) increases aa uptake and
2) involved in gluconeogenesis (hormone that produces bone and tissue growth is insulin
like growth factor-1, which is present in the liver aka somatomedins;
so, GH release will stimulate the liver to release IGF-1 to cause growth of bones linearly
and soft tissue);
an adult with the loss of growth hormone will not get smaller, but will have the effects of
lack of growth hormone:
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will start to lose muscle mass and will have fasting hypoglycemia bc GH is normally
gluconeogenic.
So, its not there and not contributing is func to glucogngeogenesis, leading to
hypoglycemia.
What would you see in a child? Pituitary Dwarfism.
Would see hypoplasia (incomplete development of something).
So, pit dwarfisim is an incompletely developed child, but everything looks normal.
What is the best stimulation test to see if you are GH or IGF-1 defecient? Sleep.
You grow when you sleep exactly at 5 am (thats when GH comes out).
So, the best test is sleeping, then checking blood at 5 am (if it isnt your def).
Why is histidine and arginine deficient? They are essential to normal growth of a child bc
they stimulate growth hormone.
These are basic aas.
This is why wt lifters buy arg/his supplements.
So, best test is sleep, followed by measuring arg and his levels.
The third hormone to go is TSH, which leads to hypothyroidism (therefore low TSH and low
T4 cold intolerance, brittle hair, fatigue, delayed reflexes).
The next thing that goes is ACTH , leading to hypocortisalism.
Will be fatigue will a low cortisol level. Will also lead to hypoglycemia bc cortisol is
gluconeogenic.
That last thing to lose is prolactin & if you re not preg you 'll never know that.
Diabetes Insipidus
Central (lacking ADH) vs Nephrogenic (kidney doesnt respond to ADH)
Central: one of the common causes is car accident, leading to head trauma.
The head is shifted and stalk is severed.
One of the first things that goes is ADH bc it is made in the supraopitic paraventricular
nucleus of the hypothalamus.
In the same nerve it is made in, it goes down the stalk and is stored in the POSTERIOR
pituitary.
So, if you sever that stalk, you sever the connection and leads to ADH def.
Also def in all the releasing factors that are made in the hypothalamus that stimulate the
pituitary, leading to hypopituitarism (eventually but initially will have s/s of DI = polyurea
and thrist).
Nephrogenic: have ADH, but doesnt work on the collecting tubule to make it permeable to
free water.
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Other polyureas (DM mech = osmotic diuresis, polydipisia mech = drink too much
water (psychological problem), hypercalcemia leads to polyurea).
Constantly diluting, but will never be able to concentrate urine; SIADH is the exact
opposite, where ADH is always there, and will constantly concentrating, and will not be able
to dilute.
In DI, constantly diluting urine, losing free water, and will never be able to concentrate the
urine. So, you are losing all the water, and serum Na will go up, correlating with an
increased plasma osmolality (bc most of plasma osmolality is Na).
To test: restrict water in a normal person, if you restrict water, the plasma osmolality
will go up to 292 (the upper limit of normal for the osmolality), 750 urine osmolality - what
does that mean? Pt is concentrating the urine.
So, if you are depriving a normal pt of water, it should concentrate the urine; water is being
retained get into the ECF to get the serum Na into normal range.
Example: pt restricted water and have a 319 and 312 plasma osmolality (which is
elevated).
So, they have hypernatremia.
If you look at urine osmolality, it is 110 and 98.
So you know that have DI.
So, how do you distinguish central from nephrogenic? Give them ADH (aka vasopressin).
So, you give it to them and see what happens to urine osmolality.
If it increases greater that 50% from the baseline: then its central.
It its less than 50% its nephrogenic.
So, gave ADH to first guy and it urine osmolality change to 550, indicating that he has
central DI.
For the second pt, ADH was given, but only a lil increase in urine osmalality, indicated
nephrogenic DI.
Acromegaly
What is cheapest way for screening for acromegaly? Ask for an old pic of the pt 10 years
ago.
Gigantism in kid bc epiphyses havent fused, therefore an excess in GH and IGF-1 lead to
an increase in linear growth.
Bad dz bc can die from cardiomyopathy.
So, they have excess GH and excess IGF-1.
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acromegaly:
acromegalic:
So, what if youre an adult with acromegaly? Will not get taller bc the epiphyses have fused,
but bones will grow wider.
One of the bones in the head that does that is the frontal bones, so they stick out.
So, get a gorilla like increase in the frontal lobe (bc it increases size of the sinuses), so the
hat size will increase.
Your hands get bigger, feet get bigger, and every organ in the body gets bigger.
Also, you produce a cardiomyopathy, which leads to death.
Galactorrhea/Prolactinoma
Men do not get galactorrhea bc we dont have enough terminal lobules to make the milk.
So, if a male has a prolactinoma, do not expect him to have galactorrhea.
This has many causes.
When woman comes in with it, make sure you ask what drug they are on - bc there are
many drugs that can stimulate prolactin synthesis.
Example:: OCPs, hydralazine, Ca channel blockers, psychotropic drugs. Primary
hypothyroidism can also be a cause, therefore get a TSH level.
Why? Bc if you have hashimotos, not only is TSH increased, but you also have increased
TRH.
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the tongue:
Example: pt on anabolics, so less TBG being synthesize bc proteins being used elsewhere
(muscles).
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The same number of site are occupied, but missing TBG. So, free T4 is the same, but
missing TBG.
So, if a person has a low T4 with a TSH, they are on anabolic steroids.
If a woman has a high T4 and a normal TSH, what is she on? Estrogen.
If a person has high T4 and low TSH, what do they have? Hyperthyroidism.
If pt has low T4 and increased TSH, what do they have? Primary hypothyroidism. Do not
need resin T3 uptake to make these dxs.
I 131 uptake is a radioactive test (remember that thyroid hormone is tyrosine with iodine on
it).
(What are other things involved with tyrosine? Melanin, tyrosine tyrosinase, dopamine
goes into the golgi apparatus and becomes melanin, phenylalanine, dopamine, dopa, NE,
epi (catecholamines),
if you put iodides on tyrosine you have thyroid hormone).
So, with hyperthyroidism (ie graves), thyroid gland will be making more thyroid hormone.
Would we need more iodide to do this? Yes.
So, if you gave a pt radioactive iodide, will there be increased uptake of radioactive iodide
in that overactive gland? Yes.
So, will have increased I131 uptake.
What if I were taking excess thyroid hormone to lose weight what would that do to my
TSH level? Suppress it.
So, when that pt is taking too much hormone, the gland has atrophied.
So, if you have a radioactive I 131, would there be an increased uptake? No bc is has
atrophied.
So, radioactive I 131 is the main way to distinguish whether a person has true evidence of
hyperthyroidism (GLAND is making too much thyroid hormone) vs someone that is
surreptitiously/purposely/unknowingly taking too much thyroid hormone and producing
hyperthyroidism.
I 131 is the best test to distinguish these two types of hyperthyroidism. So, if its increased,
pt has graves (gland is using it); if its decreased, pt is taking thyroid hormone.
Example:: pt from wt loss clinic they are taking thyroid hormone, so they will lose wt at the
expense of hyperthyroidism
Slide: midline cyst dx? Thyroglossal cyst. Remember that the thyroid gland was
originally at the base of the tongue and migrates down the midline to the current location.
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exophalmos Unique to Graves Dz excess GAGs deposited in orbital fat, and pushing
the eye out (pathonomognic for graves); apathetic graves
OLD people with graves dz have heart prob with atrial fib.
They get heart manifestations.
So, any pt with atrial fib, must get a TSH level to rule out graves.
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s/s hyperthyroidism:
heat intoleranc, sinus tachy, atrial fib, brisk reflexes, diarrhea, systolic HTN, hypercalcemia,
increased bone turnover (all symptoms are adrenergic they are all catecholamine things
why? T4 increases the synthesis of beta receptors (catecholamines are cousins of
Thyroid hormone and they work together.
All the symptoms are adrenergic.
What is the INITIAL Rx of graves? Beta blockers (blocking adrenergic response, then give
PTU to stop the gland from making it can stop all the symptoms with beta blocker except
one sweating)
so, thyroid studies on graves pt: T4 is high, TSH is low, I 131 is HIGH
Note exophthalmos
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Graves' disease:
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deficiency.
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So, in Hashimotos and Graves, these are both autoimmune dzs but at opposite ends of
the spectrum.
One as stimulatory IgG while the other has an inhibibitory one.
So, an overlying symptom that they both have is pretibial myxedema and GAG deposition.
Where do you see a decrease in GAGs (ie metabolism of GAGs)? Lysosomal storage dzs
Hurlers, Hunters need lysosomal enzymes for breaking down dermatan sulfate, etc
s/s hypothyroidism
weakness (MC) bc all pts with hypothyroidism have proximal muscle myopathy, so they
cannot get up out of chairs , serum CKs are elevated. Also have brittle hair, course skin,
slow mentation, periorbital puffiness, delayed reflex, diastolic HTN
Slide: bx of thyroid gland in Hashimotoss no follicle, but do see germinal follicle bc there
is autoimmune destruction of the gland.
There are cytotoxic T cells that destroying it, and are synthesizing Abs (IgG Abs, hence
you see the germinal follicles), and therefore looks like a lymph node).
Will see a low T4, high TSH, low I 131 (not necessary to do this test).
Example: pt on estrogen what will happen to T4? Increase TSH? Normal (no need for I
131 this is bad bc babies thyroid would take it up and its thyroid would take it up and
leads to cretinism)
thyroid hormone is responsible for brain growth in the first year, so it imp to do thyroid
hormone screens to avoid cretinism (will be severly MR bc brain depends on thyroid
hormone for development).
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lymph node.
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3. Medullary carcinoma some cases are sporadic and other cases have AD
relationship; assoc with MEN syndromes (multiple endocrine neoplasia I, IIa, IIb)
Pink stain stain with congo red and see polarized apple green birefringence =
amyloid A (which came from calcitonin);
what is the tumor marker? Calcitonin (which is the screening test of choice)
Example: where would the cancer be located in the body where the tumor marker is
converted into amyloid? Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
MEN I pit tumor, parathyroid adenoma, pancreatic tumor (usually Zolinger Ellison, leading
to peptic ulcer).
MEN IIa medullary carcinoma, pituitary , pheochromocytoma
MEN IIb medullary carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuroma
How do you screen? Ret protooncogene (unique to coding for receptors in this syndrome).
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hyperparathyroidism:
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Note the "salt and pepper" appearance of the bone is related to bone resorption. (End032)
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So, if you have an alkalotic state the COOH groups become COO - groups.
Bc if you have less H ions, its COO-.
So, albumin has MORE of a negative charge in an alkalotic state, which means it can bind
more Ca.
So, where does it get it from? Ionized free Ca (so a bunch of ionized free Ca binds to the
the albumin).
However, we have NOT altered the total, just took it. It doesnt affect the total, but it DOES
decrease the ionized Ca level, leading to TETANY. So, total is the same, but the ionized
level has decreased.
What is the mech of tetany? Have threshold for the AP before the nerve is stimulated.
Then you have a resting membrane potential.
So, a decreased ionized Ca level will lower the threshold for activating the nerve and
muscle.
If its -60 for normal threshold.
Pt is partially depolarized, therefore doesnt take a lot to activate the muscle or the nerve
(which is the mech of tetany) so you are lowering the threshold.
In hypercalcemia, the opposite occurs and you are increasing the threshold, so it takes
more ionized Ca to activate the nerve.
PTH on y axis and Ca in x axis ht of square = PTH and width = Ca
Low serum Ca, low PTH = primary hypoparathyroidism
MCC = previous thyroid surgery
Example: pt goes in to remove thyroid cancer (these days they autotranplant it to the arm)
Example: newborn with cyanosis, irritable and xray of chest shows not anteriormediastinum
shadow dx? DiGeorge hypoparathyroidism and no thymus
Example: low Ca, high PTH = secondary hypoparathyrodism so whatever is causing
the hypocalcemia is causing a compensatory increase in PTH (called secondary
hypoparathyrodism
the MCC of this is renal failure bc these pts have hypovitaminosis D, which decreases
Ca and increases PTH).
So, any decrease in Ca with cause a compensatory increase in PTH.
Example: high Ca, high PTH = primary hyperparathyroidism = gland is not obeying
negative feedback.
This is MCC hypercalcemia is a community;
If pt is in a hospital, MCC hypercalcemia = mets to bone (malignancy induced).
Most hypercalcemia pts are asmptomatic; if they ARE symptomatic, they have stones (Ca
stones, which is the MC symptomatic presentation for hypercalcemia).
Labs: increased Ca, increased PTH, low phosphate (normally PTH increases Ca
reabsorption and decreased phophorus reabsorption). Almost always over 50 yo
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Example: high Ca, low PTH = all other causes except primary hyperparathyroidism.
MC due to malignancy.
Can PTH like peptide cause hyperCa? Yes (so if you measure PTH it will be normal).
Squamous cell of the lung, renal adenocacinoma, or mets to bone (breaking bone down),
sarcoidsis (leading to hypercalcemia), multiple myeloma (leading to hypercalcemia) all will
have LOW PTH.
So, what is the ezest way to determine hyperCa in a pt? PTH level
(if its high, its primary hyperparathyroidism; if its low, its all the causes ie malignancy).
ADRENAL GLAND
Cushing Syndrome
PURPLE striae, obesity, thin extremities
MCC = pt on long term steroid therapy (ie pts with renal transplants, pt on
immunosuppressant, Lupus)
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If this is excluded, need to think of 3 sources: pituitary Cushings, adrenal Cushings, ectopic
Cushings.
Which of the three will have the highest ACTH levels? Ectopic (small cell carcinoma).
Which would have the lowest ACTH levels? Adrenal.
Why? Bc its making cortisol, which would suppress the ACTH.
Pit Cushings is usually a b9 tumor making ACTH.
There are 2 good screening tests for Cushings (when you have excluded the fact that they
are not on steroids).
The screening tests are: 24 hr urine test for free cortisol.
This is looking for cortisol in the urine, not attached to any protein (so its free).
It must mean that you have a lot of excess of it to have that much of it in your urine.
This is the BEST screening test for Cushings.
This test distinguishes Cushings syndrome from Cushingoid obesity.
Example: see obese pt with Cushings symptoms and you think they have Cushings;
however, get a 24 hr urine cortisol test and its normal.
If its increased, they truly have Cushings in other words, they have 99% sens and
specificity.
They will ask about dexmeth suppression test (low vs high dose).
What is dexamethasone? Its a cortisol analog.
If you give dexamethasone to a normal person, it will suppress ACTH.
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If you suppress ACTH, the cortisol levels with be low, indicating the cortisol levels are
suppressible.
So, what happens when you give a LOW dose of dexamethasone in a pt with Cushings
will you suppress their cortisol? No.
So, you see a lack of suppression.
Therefore pt has cushings.
However the LOW dose just tells you pt has Cushings, not what kind they have, so it just a
screening test (if you did a 24 hr cortisol urine level, it would be positive).
Remember that there are two endocrine dzs that you CAN suppress PITUITARY
Cushings and prolactinoma.
So, if you give high dose of dexamethasone, you are able to suppress the ACTH release by
the pituitary and cortisol goes down.
It will not be suppressed in adrenal and ectopic Cushings (small cell).
[Read last sentence if you get a long question]
Example: for one of these, they will describe Cushings, and ask about dexmeth
suppression
first thing to do is look at high dose suppression
if its suppressed, its automatically pituitary cushings (not a hard question!)
So, why do the pts look like this? Pt has hypercortisolism, which is gluconeogenic.
So, need substrates for gluconeogenesis main substrate is aa from muscles.
Where are the muscles located? Arms and legs so pt will get a break down of muscle in
the extremities, which is why they have thin arms and thin legs.
Then will get alanine transaminated and get pyruvate.
So, will always have thin arms and extremities.
Bc it is gluconeogenic, what will the glucose be? High.
What does that do to insulin release? Increases it.
What does insulin do to fat? Increases fat storage.
What part of the body have the most adipose? Face and trunk.
So, you are getting an increase in deposition of TG in the face and trunk and back.
So, the thin extremities is due to breaking down muscle for aas in gluconeogenesis. The
moon facies, buffalo hump and truncal obesity is due to increase in insulin and fat
deposition.
The stretch marks are due to obesity, and they are purple bc cortisol decreases collagen
synthesis.
Will get structurally weaker collagen.
Its like purpura within the stretch mark (like senile purpura).
Break down the vessels bc increase in cortisol.
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Addison's disease
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diabetes mellitus:
Due to osmotic damage (End044)
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PATHOGENESIS: 2 mechanisms:
1) Osmotic Damage
Tissue has to have aldose reductase: only 2 have them:
i) Lens, glucose sorbitol, osmotic reactive, absorbs water into the lens
Retinal vessels in lens get weak, then destroyed due to microabsesses and can rupture
and lead to blindness.
ii) Scwann Cells: MCC cause of peripheral neuropathy is Diabetes: MECH: osmotic
damage
2) Non-enzymatic Glycosylation
Renders the BM permeable to proteins: Hyaline arteriolosclorosis, diabetic
nephrophathy
HbA1c: long term control of DM.
Slide: Retina in a diabetic-microaneurysms (red dots)
Slide: Retina in a diabetic-neovascularization
Example: 50 yr old, blurry vision; gets a prescription from a optometrist, new glasses,
one month later, blurry vision again. Gets new prescr, one mth later, blurry vision again.
Dx: Diabetes.
Glucose is being converted to sorbitol-water is going in and changing the refractive
index. Classic question. HAVE to get a FASTING BLOOD GLUCOSE.
Lab: Fasting glucose >126 mg/dl on two separate occasions.
Example: Beh Sc link: The FBS level has been decreased from 140 mg/dl to 126 mg/dl.
Is this increasing the specificity or the sensitivity of the test?
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A: HIGH Sensitivity. By bringing it lower ie closer to the normal range, you are going to
be able to pick up more people with diabetes. When it was 140, it was high sp: to
eliminate false positives. So it was unequivocally a diabetic if it was > 140.
Glucose tolerance test, dont worry about it.
Gestational Diabetes
Def: Woman who did not have diabetes, but after becoming pregnant develops
diabetes.
Risk factors for baby:
RDS, premature delivery
Women with GD, are at a higher risk for developing diabetes later on.
Amyloid in Beta islets: Type 2
Antibodies against islets; inflammation: Type1
(Coxackie virus implicated)
HLA correlation: HLA DR3 and DR4=Type 1; propensity for developing Type 1, if
certain environmental factor comes in such as infection: Coxsackie, mumps, EBV
HLAB27: Ankylosing Spondylitis
Env factors:
Chlamydeal Infection
Ulcerative Colitis,
Shigellosis
Psoriasis
Musculoskeletal System
Need to identify crystals in synovial fluid
Gout
Pseudogout
Rhomboid crystals in synovial fluid==pseudogout
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18. Chondrocalcinosis
But Pseudogout could also have needle-shaped crystals (like those of mono-sodium
urate in Gout) which makes DD difficult. So you use a special filter to make the whole
slide red and then the crystals are made to look yellow or blue.
When the color of the crystals is yellow when the plane of filter is parallel to the
analyzer= Negatively birefringent =GOUT
East west direction: color is blue and parallel to analyzer=Positively birefringent =
PSEUDOGOUT (calcium pyrophosphate)
Arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Progressive wearing down of articular cartilage
Sometimes leads to reaction to injury: SPUR formationat the margin of the joint=
Heberdens node: osteophyte in the joint
Note the enlargement of the DIP (Heberden's nodes) and PIP joints (Bouchard's
nodes), enlargements represent osteophytes.
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6. Osteoarthritis
Note the enlargement of the DIP (Heberden's nodes) and PIP joints (Bouchard's nodes),
enlargements represent osteophytes (MS006)
7. Osteoarthritis
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Rheumatoid Arthritis
Inflammatory joint dz; enlarged MCP joints
Rh factor sets up the inflammation: IgM Ab against IgG.
IgG is in synovial fluid.
IgM-IgG form complexes, activate the complement system, damage the joint, synovial
fluid gets inflamed, starts growing and growing, starts growing over the articular
cartilage= PANNUS; hyperplastic synovial fluid. (different from Tophus)
Joints can get fixed, and ankylosed and cannot move.
Dont get fixing of the joint in OA.
If rheumatoids dont keep moving their joints, and if it is not controlled using antiinflammatory drugs then eventually they cannot move it at all.
Slide: Rheumatoid nodules. Can be seen in Rheumatic fever as well.
10. RA
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11. RA
Boutonniere deformity of digit - note extension of DIP joint and flexion of PIP joint
12. RA
Swan-neck deformity of digit - note flexion of DIP joint and extension of PIP joint
13. RA
Example: older pt having trouble eating and swallowing crackers, feels like there is sand
in my eye all the time.
On examination: eyes and mouth are dry.
Dx? Sjograns Syndrome. Pt with RA and auto-immune destruction of lacrimal glands,
salivary glands. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Rheumatoid nodules in lung + pneumoconiosis==Caplan Syndrome
Treatment of RA= Methotrexate
Example: Pt with RA, develops a macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils,
neuro exam is normal, interstitial fibrosis in lung. What is the drug? Methotrexate
Gout = podagra
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14. Gout
Note inflamed first metatarsophalangeal joint (big toe) (MS014)
15. Gout
Note large tophus on malleolus and along margin of the foot, sign of chronic gout,
composed of crystalline material (H and E shows multinucleated giant cell reaction to the
MSU crystals)
16. Gout
Polarization of tophus showing MSU crystals (MS016)
17. Gout
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Monosodium urate crystals are precipitated and taken up by the neutrophils that
phagocytose it and release chemicalsinflammatory reaction.
Dont define Gout based on Uric acid level. Elevated uric acid does not necessarily lead
to gout. About 25% of people might have elevated uric acid.
Dx: HAS to be by presence of uric acid crystals in the joint.
Treatment: Indomethacin to control inflammation.
Cause: over production (Rx=allopurinol: blocks Xanthine oxidase) or under excretion of
uric acid (>90% of cases) Rx=uricosuric drugs like probenecid and Sulfinpyrazone
Chronic Gout = tophus: deposition of monosodium urate in soft tissuemalleolus
Very disabling as it erodes the joint.
Rx= allopurinol
Slide: Tophus that was polarized showing MSU crystals
Slide: X-ray of digit showing erosion by tophus
Genetics of Gout:
Multifactorial inheritance
AVOID red meats (full of purines)
AVOID Alcohol. Mechanism:
Metabolic acidosis: uric acid has to compete with other acids for excretion in proximal
tubule. Alcohol increases all the lactic acid, and beta hydroxyl butyric acids. So all these
acids compete and win against uric acid, and get excreted. Uric acid keeps waiting and
waiting; and builds up and causes gout.
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21. AS
20 yr old, morning when he woke up, sudden pain in sacro-lumbar region. Inflammatory
reaction seen on X-ray, as the day progresses pain decreases. Eventually, the
inflammation spreads to the vertebral column, and it fuses==Bamboo spine
Also develop: Uveitis, Aortitis, iridocyclitis, blurry vision, eventually go blind.
Example: Genetic dz where degenerative arthritis in vert col, on autopsy, black
cartilage; urine on exposure to air turns black. Alkoptonuria
Aut rec, homogentisic acid oxidase enzyme def
Slide: 20 yr old, dysuria, increased freq, urinalysis= leucocyte esterase positive, sterile
pyuria--sexually active, had non-specific urethritis, conjunctivitis, was treated. It was
Chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis, but one week later, got sterile conjunctivitis and
tendonitis in Achilles tendon.
So patient with non-infectious conjunctivitis, previously had Chlamydia trachomatis
infection and then developed conjunctivitis and arthritis (HLA B27 positive): Reiter's
syndrome
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Slide: Note the Ixodes tick (vector of Borrelia burgdorferi and Babesia microti), note
the erythematous rash in the bottom screen - the tick bite is in the center of the rash
and the rash extends out in concentric circles from that point, the rash is called
erythema chronicum migrans (pebble thrown in water) Pathognomonic of Lyme's
disease
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Bone Disorders
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Slide: Kid with an eyeball, blue sclera: AD disorder with defect in synthesis of type I
collagen, note the blue sclera- loss of collagen in sclera allows bluish color of choroidal
vessels to shine through: Osteogenesis imperfecta (NOT foreign body!) brittle bone
disease cant break bone down
40. Osteoporosis
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Osteoporosis: Overall reduction in bone mass. Both mineral AND organic component.
WHOLE mass of bone is reduced.
Osteomalacia: Decreased mineralization of bone: organic part of bone is normal.
Cartilage is ok, osteoid is ok; its not getting mineralized
Dx of osteoporosis: Dual beam Absorptiometry: density of the bone in whole body is
measured. Non invasive, very easy.
MC fracture: compression fracture: lose stature,
2nd MC fracture: Colles fracture of distal radius.
Question: Is swimming a good exercise for preventing osteoporosis: NO. Because no
stress on bones. It is great exercise for aerobics. But it does not prevent osteoporosis.
Walking is good. Weight bearing is even better than walking! Walk with Dumbells! Get
aerobics and inc in bone mass!
HAVE to stress bone to build it up.
Example: In space, lack of gravity and astronauts are given bisphosphonates, Vit D and
calcium to get bone density back: because serious prob of osteoporosis in space.
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MC malignant one
Osteogenic sarcoma
Slide: Note metaphyseal origin of the cancer and extension into the muscle, note the
splinter of periosteum that is elevated which would correspond to Codman's triangle
46.Osteogenic sarcoma
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Gowers maneuver
Elevated Serum CK, Absence of dystrophin protein
Sex linked recessive, missing Dystrophin gene
Variant: Beckers dystrophy: make dystrophin but it is defective
Analogy: alfa 1 antitrypsin def: MCC of HCC in children
Adults get panacinar emphysema: many diff sub types of alfa 1 anti-trypsin:
1) Absent alfa 1 anti-trypsin: get pan acinar emphysema.
2) Alfa 1 anti-trypsin is present but it cannot get OUT of the hepatocytes: so get HCC
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Example: pt with failure to release grip on golf stick (or when shaking hand) they
cannot relax their muscle grip, diabetes, cardiac abnormality
Myasthenia Gravis
AutoAb against Ach receptor its an IgG Ab, therefore is an Example: of type II HPY,
like Graves, which is an IgG Ab against the receptor (by definition, this makes it type II).
Whether you destroy the receptor or just block it is irrelevant. Ach cannot hook into it
and therefore there is muscle weekness. The first muscles are the lids, which leads to
lid lag. They also get double vision bc muscles of the eye are messed up, leading to
diplopia. Eventually, they get dysphagia for solids and liquids (gets stuck in upper
esophagus, bc this is where there is STRIATED muscle). Eventually muscle dz prevails
throughout.
Feel energized in the morning and feel tired at night. Tensilon test positive. Can die.
Rx is acetylcholinestrase inhibitors. By giving an inhibitor, block the breakdown of Ach
and build up Ach. With few receptors you have in there, there is a larger chance of
hooking up to the receptors and pt does well. However, eventually, no receptors there
and it doesnt matter how much Ach is there, so pt is screwed. Then, her only option is
a thymectomy.
The thymus is in the anterior mediastimun. Trick question: they can ask, what is the
pathology? They can describe MG and ask, what do you expect to see in the
mediastinum? Do NOT put thymoma. This is a malignancy of the thymus and does
occur in 15-20% of cases, but isnt the MC pathology seen in the thymus in a pt with
MG. See germinal follicles in the thymus (remember, this T cell country, not B cell
country, so its abnormal to have germinal follicles here) they are the ones making the
Ab causing the MG. So, by doing a thymectomy for Rx, you are removing the Ab
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producing tissue. 1/3 pts get a complete cure. 1/3 get a partial cure, and 1/3 die bc
they waited too long for thymectomy and Rx and didnt have receptors, anyway. So, B
cell hyperplasia is the MC thing you see, not thymoma. This where the Ab is being
made.
Lupus
Butterfly distribution on the face (malar rash)
Of all the autoimmune dzs this one is the most likely one to have a + ANA (99%
sensitivity). The Abs you want to order to prove that its lupus are anti-Smith Ab (which
has a 100% spec, therefore no false pos therefore 100% PPV) for lupus, meaning that
if you test + for this Ab, you have Lupus. The other Ab is anti dsDNA this not only
indicates that you have lupus, but also that you have KIDNEY dz. That has a 98%
spec, too. So, these are two good Abs to confirm lupus. Morning stiffness is present in
lupus (simulates Rh arthritis/photophobia), rash, pericarditis; LE cell prep Anti DNA
Abs are phagocytosed by neutrophils, and they have altered DNA. Not specific for
lupus (waste of time).
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Dermatomyositis
Racoon eyes, elevated serum CK, rash over the PIP (goutren patches), highest assoc
with underlying cancer.
37. Dermatomyositis
Sjogrens syndrome
Assoc with rh arthritis, autoimmune Abs destroy salivary glands leading to dry mouth,
lacrimal glands leading to dry eyes.
Example: bx of lower lip which is a confirmatory test its looking to see if there is
destruction of the minor salivary glands see lymphocytes (which is confirmatory dx).
Abs are anti-SSa (aka anti-Ro) and anti-SSb (aka anti-La) (SS = Sjogrens syndrome).
Anti-ro can also be in lupus pts, and can cross the placenta and disrupts the babys
conduction system (leads to complete heart block).
Skin
Basal cell carcinoma (upper lip)
Squamous cell carcinoma (lower lip)
Psoriasis silvery lesion that is red and raised. Can involve the hands, scalp pts
think they have dandruff (aka seborreic dermatitis from malasezia furfura), but they
really have psoriasis. On black person wont see red lesion, will see silver one. Rash at
pressure points esp the elbow.
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19. Psoriasis:
Note the raised red plaque with silvery scales on the surface. Pinpoint bleeding will occur if
the scale is picked off (Auspitz sign). (Drm019)
Atopic dermatitis child with allergic diathesis starts dz; have eczema (aka atopic
dermatitis); type I HPY.
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Seborrheic Dermatitis
Due to Malassezia furfur (a fungus)
IC pt (ie AIDs)
This is a preAIDs lesion
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Tinea capitis
Example: pt with bald spot on head, fluouresces and seen with black light blacklight
(UV-A light)
Can cause Tinea capitis (now Trichophyton tonsurans is MCC)
Bc the fungus involves the inner portion of the shaft, there are no fluorescent
metabolites, and is Wood light negative
All the other superficial dermatophyte infections including Tinea corporis (ring worm)
Example: red outer edge and clear center, what is first step in workup? Scrape outside
and do KOH prep, and see hyphae and yeast forms. All other superficial
dermatophyte infections (except Tinea capitis) are due to trychophyton rubra.
What is the color around Tinea capitis? Red (= rubra) (how to remember it).
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9. Tinea versicolor:
Note the areas of pigmentation and depigmentation. It is due to M. furfur. (Drm009)
Molluscum contagiosum
Sandy like material in crater, children, self inoculate
Poxvirus makes these (DNA virus)
Volcano crater look, with sandy stuff in it
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Pityriasis Rosea
Example: rash on butt non pruritic rash, NON INFECTIOUS; oblong looking with red
on outside and pale in middle. You think this is T corporis, but its oblong (and not
circular). Do a KOH prep, find nothing; then put topical steroids and doesnt go away; 3
days later comes back with rash in the line of langer in Christmas tree like distribution;
not an infectious dz, like a herald rash; not a fungus
of pityriasis rosea
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CNS
Spinal fluid derives from choroid plexus in the ventricles.
In the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles. Its an ultrafiltrate of plasma.
What is the difference in serum and spinal fluid? Way more protein in spinal fluid bc its
an ultrafiltrate.
Cell? Hardly any cells in spinal fluid (none).
Glucose? Lower in spinal fluid about 60% of what it is in serum (if the spinal fluid
glucose level were low, then something is in there utilizing it for energy such as bacteria
or fungus or cancer cells).
Is there anything MORE in spinal fluid than serum? Chloride (way higher in spinal fluid
than serum) - around 120.
These are imp bc there are injuries to the head.
Example: baseball that hits the eye in an orbital blowout fracture can potentially break
cribriform plate, leading to dripping fluid out, which could be snot, serum, or spinal fluid.
So, its imp to know diffs btwn the two.
Example: wacked in the head fluid out of ear (otorrhea), hemorrhage leads to battle
sign.
This is a fracture of the basilar plate and there is spinal fluid there.
Most of the fluid comes out the aqueduct of sylvius which is the MCC of
hydrocephalus in children bc it gets blocked off until you get a build up of spinal fluid in
the 3rd vent and lateral vent, which is a narrow area and leads to hydrocephalus.
Then, it comes to the fourth vent and needs to get out bc it needs to get into the
subarachnoid space.
So, it goes through the foramen of Luschka and Magendie, so fluid goes out.
Dura means strong its tightly adherent to the periosteum.
So, when pt has epidural hematoma (blood clot betwn bone and dura).
The only pressure that can split the periosteum away from dura is arterial pressure.
So, this is the one when the middle mengial artery ruptures, and can be done with
arterial pressure (not venous).
It gets into the subarachnoid space (to protect us a cushion against damage).
Get rid of spinal fliud in arachonoid granulation.
[A tumor can arise from the arachnoid granulations meningioma.]
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It goes through the arachnoid granulations, (there are NO LYMPHATICS IN BRAIN) and
the dural sinuses and conglomerate into the jugular vein, which is emptied into the right
side of the heart.
So, when you do a valsalva and the neck veins distend, that pressure transmits all the
way back to the dural sinuses, to the arachnoid granulations through the spinal fluid ,
and right down the the needle in the subarachnoid space at L4 and the pressure goes
up.
This is called quakens step maneuver.
It is a great test for when you are doing a spinal tap to see if the entire subarachnoid
space is patent.
If you dont see that manometer go up, there is something blocking the spinal fluid more
proximally.
Example: when you wt lift, you shouldnt hold your breath bc the pressure are huge and
and lead to a herniated disk.
Tentorium Cerebelli
70% of brain tumors in adults are supratentorial (involve cerebral cortex)
70% of brain tumors in kids are infratentorial (cerebellar, cystic astrocytoma,
medulloblastoma)
Hydrocephalus
Communicating vs Noncommunicating
Communication of spinal fluid in ventricles with subarchnoid space.
Noncommunicating
MC
Something is preventing spinal fluid in the ventricles from getting into the subarachnoid
space
MCC = stenosed Aqueduct of Sylvius
Or something going in the 4th vent, ependymoma in kids will block it off, or meningitis in
base of brain (TB), leads to scar tissue bc blocks foramen of magendie and luschka.
Communicating
Still communicating, but still a build up of pressure.
One cause could be tumor of choroid plexus (papillary looking).
So, if you have a tumor there, you have a greater ultrafiltrate of plasma and would be
making more plasma.
Also, would be making more spinal fluid.
There would still be a communication with here, but the pressure would build up bc
making more than you commonly do.
More commonly, what if you have a subarachnoid bleed or meningitis? Then pt has
scarred off arachnoid granulations and have no way of draining it out.
So, still have a communication, but cannot get rid of it (MC).
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if you miss hydrocephalus in adult and sutures have fused, will lead to dilatation of the
ventricles and eventually over years, the pressure will turn back to normal bc the
increased pressures keep the choroid plexus from making so much
Dementia, ataxia, urinary incontinence.
Aka normal pressure hydrocephalus (bc pressures normalize)
Tuberous Sclerosis
AD
Hamartomas (noneoplastic proliferation of things)
Ventricles have bumps called tubercles which are hamartomas which have
proliferation of astrocytes.
They produce hamartomas that bulge into the ventricle, called candle stick dripping.
Hemartomas of the kidney called angiomyolipomas, MR, cardiac tumors
(rhabdomyomas), shagreen patches, areas of hypopigmentation, woods light shine out
Anencephaly
Worst of neural tube defects
Absent brain
Vertebral arch defects
Spina bifida occulta tufts of hair come out, vert arches do not touch, no meninges
come
Meningoceole meninges come out
Meningomylocele both meninges and spinal cord come out
High alpha feto protein levels in blood of mother; decreased in downs syndrome
Have to be on folate to prevent neural tube defects (neural tube finished forming by 30
days, so make sure she is on folate if she is trying to get pregnant).
Neurofibromatosis
Albright syndrome (precocious puberty, caf au lait, bone zits)
Sturge weber
Caf au lait (coffee colored non raised lesions) spot, plexiform neurofibromas,
hyperpigmentation in the axilla (axillary freckling), neurofibromas
AD , therefore late manifestations (esp for neurofibromatosis), penetrance, variable
expressivity (you are expressing the dz, but diff levels of how severe the dz is)
Example: pt with HTN and pic, what test would you get? Relationship of neurofibroma
with pheochromocytoma, therefore get a 24 hr urine for VMA and metanephrine.
Acoustic schwannoma
Example: pt with sensorinerual hearining loss b9 tumor of Schwann cells around CN 8
Meningiomas
Optic nerve gliomas
Syringomyelia
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Example: pt that works in factory and one of workers says you are burning your hand
and pt didnt notice this, on exam loss of musculature (loss of LMN) in intrinsic muscles
of the hand, loss of pain and temp in cape like distribution across back.
Cant feel pain (not ALS in ALS, first place of development of loss of muscles is here,
so dont confuse; but ALS is UMN and LMN loss, PURE MOTOR , so if pt has pain, ie,
this is sensory and not ALS)
Big cystic cavity knocking off spinothalamic knocking off pain and temp. can knock off
the corticospinal tract and anterior horn cells, so it will be a COMBO of sensory AND
motor loss for syringiomyelia.
Infections
Meningitis vs encephalitis
Meningitis inflammation of meninges and nuchal rigidity; if you move your head or
extend your knee, you will stretch the meniges, leading to pain (stretching inflamed
meninges).
Encephalitis sleeping sickness they are always sleeping and drowsy; they have
mental status abnormalities (not nuchal rigidity)
Pus at the base of the brain can possibly block lushka and majendie, leading to
obstructive hydrocephaly and noncommunicating
When you Rx meningitis, use steroids and Abs. why? Steroids prevent scar tissue
formation and complications that arise with it (ie hydrocephalus).
This is standard TB meningitis Rx (TB in brain causes vasculitis and scarring)
Deafness is a complication of meningitis.
Rabies
Example:: meningitis, cerebral abcess, Rabies (MCC in States = skunks, dogs in 3rd
world)
Negri bodies (perkinje cell inclusion)
CMV
Periventricular calicifications
Example: section of kid (brain) - see white stuff going around ventricles
MC congental infection = CMV
What body fluid is best to culture from? Urine
Meningitis
What is MC meningitis/sepis in first month of life? Group B strep strep agalactae bc
many women have this organism in their vagina, so they are carriers. Premature
ruptured membranes lets the organism get up, get an chorioamnionitis and into the
bloodstream.
2nd MCC is E coli
3rd MCC is listeria monocytogenes (gram + rod with tumbling motility as does
Trichomonas vaginalis)
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What food should pregnant women avoid? Soft cheeses (ie feta cheese, but listeria is
present).
MC in 1 month 18 yo = N meningitides
(not H influenza bc vaccination)
MC in 18+ = Strep pn
Example: 52 yo man, nuchal rigidity, tap shows increased protein, increased neutrophils
and decreased glucose dx? Strep pn. what is the gram stain? Gram + diploccus
Cryptococcus
India ink see narrow based bud for Cryptococcus
Who do you think this is in? ICd pts
What is MC immunodef in USA? AIDs
MCC meningitis in AIDs pts? Cryptococcus
Mucormycosis
In frontal lobe, therefore from a diabetic in ketoacidosis
Example: special stain on AIDs pt with CD 4 ct of 50, CT showed space occupying
lesion
Dx? Toxoplasmosis
Example: pig herder, and long time problem with focal epileptic seizures (dilating
therapy) multiple calcified and cystic lesions in brain dx? Cysticercosis
Example: Jacob Cruetzfeltds from prions (mad cow) who is most likely to get?
Neuropathologists, neurosurgeons, beef, lettuce from Arizona (cow manure on it)
Traumatic lesions
Epidural hematoma (above dura) hit in head middle meningeal have to fracture
bone (under arterial pressures, can separate dura from periosteum). When you get 50
mls of blood, you get uncal herniation and die. Ie get him, say they are ok, 6 hrs later
epidural hematoma and death
Subdural hematoma rupture of bridging veins betwn dura and arachonoid
membrane. If you have cerebral atrophy, then the space bwtn the dura and arachnoid
membranes is bigger. Bridging veins dangling, break and get a hematoma. Fluctuating
levels of consciousness. Left untreated lead to dementia. Do CT to r/o epi and
subdural hematoma (also for strokes if its a hemorrhagic stroke)
Strokes
Slide: Brain: one side is bigger. Atherosclerotic stroke; pale infarct of brain. At
bifurcation, there is an atherosclerotic plaque and thrombus. No blood flow to brain and
it infracted, starts breaking down, no reperfusion, so it remains a pale infarct. If the
thrombus did break apart, and reperfusse the brain, the blood in the goes into the area
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of infarction and is called a hemorrhagic infarct. However, this usually doesnt occur
and pale infarcts more common. If no blood, and there is infarction, pt is a candidate
for heparin therapy. Over time, if pt survives, ends up with cystic space where there
was infarction and this is called liquefactive necrosis--pale infarct, liquefactive necrosis.
Slide: hemorrhagic infarct blood is to edge of brain this is an embolic infarct, usually
from left side of the heart. The vessel it always goes to is middle cerebral artery. It gets
into the Circle of Willis and into the middle cerebral. If you embolize down, will go into
the superior mesenteric
The reason it is hemorrhagic is bc pt will get breakdown of fibrinolytic system of the
embolus and leads to reperfusion. Instead of being a pale infarct, its a hemorrhagic
infarct. So, both a atherosclerotic stroke and hemorrhagic stroke are both infarcts one
is pale and the other is hemorrhagic.
Slide: HTN, pressures cause lenticulostriate vessels to come up and supply this area of
the brain. Derive from the middle cerebral aneurysms, called Charcot Bouchard
aneurysm and it ruptures, leading to giant hematoma and blood clot. Horrible prognosis.
So, embolic stroke goes to surface of the brain and if its in the basal ganglia, its
always an intracebral bleed from HTN.
Example: subarachnoid hemorrhage mostly due to rupture congenital berry
aneurysm. MC at the junction ant comm branch of ant cerebral artery
Less common cause of SAH:
AV malformation
Sturge Weber on same side as skin lesion of the face, there is an AV malformation
Lacunar infarcts small areas on the brain; unusual bc they hit areas of the brain.
Depending on where in the internal capsule, can have a pure motor stroke or pure
sensory. MC due to HTN
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
MC demyelinating Dz (autoimmune) MS
Slide:demylinated: white matter has myelin it, grey doesnt. If you are destroying white
matter, then youll see grey underneath. Plaques of MS.
2 ways to demylinate
1) knock off cell that makes myelin in the brain (oligodendrocytes in brain, schwann cell
in PNS) viruses do this subacute sclerosis, progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy, HPV they affect the oligodendrocyte;
2) can also have Abs against myelin and not the oligodendrocyte, which is MS
paresthesias
Nystagmus, ataxia, optic neuritis with blurry vision (MCC of Optic Neuritis= MS bc
demylination of optic nerve)
Internuclear opthalmaplegia (demylination of MLF) - pathognomonic
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Spinal tap will show increased protein, normal glucose, increase lymphs
Hydrocephalus Ex Vacuo
Severe atrophy of brain and ventricles look bigger than they should be
Dementia
Alzheimers Dz
Classic lesion: senile plaque, neurits, amyloid (Beta!!) so beta amyloid is toxic and the
more you have the more toxic pathognomonic of alzheimers, on csome 21, therefore
seen in downs, neurofib tangles (in any dementia and HD)
Alz probs in higer levels dementia
Only way to dx is autopsy (confirmation) see senile plaques
Parkinsons Dz
Resting tremor
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