MCQ Pharmacology
MCQ Pharmacology
MCQ Pharmacology
Contents
Chapter Pages
(1) GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY............................................................................................... 5
PART I PHARMACOKINETICS ........................................................................................................................................ 5
PART II PHARMACODYNAMICS.................................................................................................................................... 8
(2) AGENTS, CONTROLLING THE FUNCTIONS OF THE PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM ................. 12
PART I LOCAL ANESTHETICS .............................................................................................................................................. 12
PART II CHOLINOMIMETIC DRUGS ...................................................................................................................................... 16
PART III CHOLINORECEPTOR BLOCKING DRUGS ................................................................................................................. 19
PART IV ADRENORECEPTOR ACTIVATING DRUGS ............................................................................................................... 24
PART V ADRENORECEPTOR ANTAGONIST DRUGS ............................................................................................................... 29
(3) AGENTS, CONTROLLING THE FUNCTIONS OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM........................ 34
PART I HYPNOTIC DRUGS ................................................................................................................................................... 34
PART II ANTISEIZURE DRUGS ............................................................................................................................................. 38
PART III ANTIPARKINSONIAN AGENTS................................................................................................................................ 41
PART IV ETHYL ALCOHOL .................................................................................................................................................. 44
PART V NARCOTIC ANALGESICS......................................................................................................................................... 46
PART VI NON-NARCOTIC ANALGESICS ............................................................................................................................... 49
PART VII ANTIPSYCHOTIC AGENTS .................................................................................................................................... 51
PART VIII ANTIDEPRESSANT AGENTS ................................................................................................................................ 54
PART IX ANXIOLYTIC AGENTS ........................................................................................................................................... 57
PART X CNS STIMULANTS ................................................................................................................................................. 60
PART XI DRUGS OF ABUSE ................................................................................................................................................. 63
PART XII GENERAL ANESTHETICS ...................................................................................................................................... 65
(4) ORGANOTROPIC AGENTS.................................................................................................................................. 68
PART I DRUGS ACTING ON RESPIRATORY SYSTEM .............................................................................................................. 68
PART II DRUGS USED IN GASTROINTESTINAL DISEASES ...................................................................................................... 70
PART III DRUGS ACTING ON HEMATOPOIETIC SYSTEM........................................................................................................ 73
PART IV DRUGS USED IN DISORDERS OF COAGULATION ..................................................................................................... 74
PART V DRUGS USED FOR TREATMENT OF HEART FAILURE ................................................................................................ 76
PART VI ANTIARRHYTHMIC AGENTS .................................................................................................................................. 78
PART VII DRUGS FOR ANGINA PECTORIS TREATMENT ....................................................................................................... 80
PART VIII ANTIHYPERTENSIVE DRUGS............................................................................................................................... 83
PART IX HYPERTENSIVE (ANTI-HYPOTENSIVE) DRUGS. DRUGS INFLUENCING CEREBRAL BLOOD FLOW. ANTI-MIGRAINE
AGENTS ................................................................................................................................................................................ 85
PART I PHARMACOKINETICS
001. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
004. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
005. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?
a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
006. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
007. What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient
008. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
009. The reasons determing bioavailability are:
a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate
010. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
011. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
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b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
012. What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
013. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
014. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
015. Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use
016. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
017. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
a) True
b) False
018. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
019. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
020. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta
021. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
022. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
023. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
024. A small amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic substances easy penetrating through barriers and
widely distributing in plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
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a) True
b) False
025. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
026. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
027. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
028. Pick out the right statement:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
029. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
030. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins
031. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
032. Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
033. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
034. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
035. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of a substance biological activity:
a) True
b) False
036. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
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037. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
038. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
039. Elimination is expressed as follows:
a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
040. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
041. The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
042. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d) Bioavailability and half life
PART II PHARMACODYNAMICS
001. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
002. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism
003. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
004. Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”
a) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in
order to elicit its specific effect
d) Carriers activated by a drug
005. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
006. Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:
a) Only receptors
b) Only ion channels
c) Only carriers
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d) All of the above
007. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
008. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
009. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
010. An antagonist is a substance that:
a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
011. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
012. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:
a) Competitive antagonist
b) Irreversible antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Partial agonist
013. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
014. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:
a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b) Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect
c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand
d) Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer protein (G-protein) which in turn
generates an intracellular second messenger
015. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
016. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to second messengers:
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) G–protein
d) Calcium ions
017. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
018. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels
a) Sodium channel blockers
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Potassium channels activators
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d) All of the above
019. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same
effect
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
020. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:
a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism
021. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
022. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
023. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
024. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
025. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
026. Drug resistance is a term used to describe the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or antitumour drugs. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
027. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
028. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
b) Increased receptor sensitivity
c) Decreased metabolic degradation
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion
029. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
030. Dependence is often associated with tolerance to a drug, a physical abstinence syndrome, and psychological
dependence (craving). This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
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031. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
032. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is connected with processes of absorption, biotransformation,
distribution and excretion?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
033. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
034. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism
035. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
036. What does the term “potentiation” mean?
a) Cumulative ability of a drug
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
037. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
038. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:
a) two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
c) two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
d) two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
039. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
040. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance
d) Teratogenic action
041. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
042. Therapeutic index (TI) is:
a) A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug for indication
b) A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
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c) A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d) A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
PART IX Hypertensive (anti-hypotensive) drugs. Drugs influencing cerebral blood flow. Anti-migraine agents
001. The main principle of shock treatment is:
a) To increase the arterial pressure
b) To increase the peripheral vascular resistance
c) To increase the cardiac output
d) To improve the peripheral blood flow
002. Pick out the drug which increases cardiac output:
a) Noradrenalin
b) Methyldopa
c) Phenylephrine
d) Angiotensinamide
003. Tick the synthetic vasoconstrictor having an adrenomimic effect:
a) Noradrenalin
b) Adrenalin
c) Phenylephrine
d) Angiotensinamide
004. Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin:
a) Ephedrine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Xylomethazoline
d) Angiotensinamide
005. Which type of receptors can be activated by angiotensinamide:
a) Adrenergic receptors
b) Cholinergic receptors
c) Dopaminergic receptors
d) Angiotensin’s receptors
006. General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors is:
a) Increase of arterial pressure
b) Increase of cardiac output
c) Decrease of peripheral blood flow
d) Increase of blood volume
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007. For increasing blood pressure in case of low cardiac output the following agents must be used:
a) Ganglioblockers
b) Vasoconstrictors
c) Positive inotropic drugs
d) Diuretics
008. Tick the positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure:
a) Dopamine
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
d) Adrenalin
009. Tick the positive inotropic drug of non-glycoside structure:
a) Digitoxin
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
d) Strophanthin
010. Dopamine at low doses influences mainly:
a) Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral vasoconstriction)
b) Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c) Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac output)
d) All of the above
011. Dopamine at medium doses influences mainly:
a) Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral vasoconstriction)
b) Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c) Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac output)
d) All of the above
012. Dopamine in high doses influences mainly the:
a) Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral vasoconstriction)
b) Dopamine’s receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c) Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhancing of cardiac output)
d) All of the above
013. Tick the group of drugs for treatment of shock with hypovolaemia (reduced circulating blood volume):
a) Positive inotropic drugs
b) Vasoconstrictors
c) Plasmoexpanders
d) Analeptics and tonics
014. Tick the group of drugs for chronic hypotension treatment:
a) Positive inotropic drugs
b) Vasoconstrictors
c) Plasmoexpanders
d) Analeptics and tonics
015. Indicate the group of drugs influencing the cerebral flow:
a) Ca-channel blockers
b) Derivatives of GABA
c) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant
d) All the above
016. Tick the drug influencing the blood flow which is related to antiplatelet agents:
a) Heparin
b) Aspirin
c) Pyracetam
d) Tanakan
017. Which of the following drugs is related to anticoagulants and may be useful in disorders of cerebral circulation?
a) Aspirin
b) Cinnarizine
c) Nicergoline
d) Heparin
018. Indicate the drugs which are Ca-channel blockers influencing the brain blood flow:
a) Aminalon, Picamilon
b) Nimodipine, Cinnarizine
c) Heparin, Warfarin
d) Vinpocetine, Nicergoline
019. Indicate the drugs influencing the blood flow in the brain - derivatives of GABA:
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a) Aminalon, Picamilon
b) Nimodipine, Cinnarizine
c) Heparin, Warfarin
d) Vinpocetine, Nicergoline
020. Indicate the drug - Vinca minor alcaloid:
a) Nicergoline
b) Warfarin
c) Cinnarizine
d) Vinpocetine
021. Tick the drug – a derivative of Ergot:
a) Nicergoline
b) Warfarin
c) Cinnarizine
d) Vinpocetine
022. Indicate the nootropic agent useful in disorders of brain circulation:
a) Aspirin
b) Pyracetam
c) Warfarin
d) All the above
023. What is the main action of GABA derivatives in disorders of brain circulation?
a) Decrease of vessel permeability
b) Stimulation of the metabolic processes in neurons
c) Brain vessel constriction
d) Intracranial pressure increase
024. Choose the appropriate mechanism of vinpocetine action:
a) It dilates cerebral vessels and improves blood supply
b) It constricts cerebral vessels and decreases blood supply
c) It stimulates GABA-receptors and thus increases cerebral metabolic processes
d) It constricts peripheral vessels and increases blood pressure
025. Antiaggregants are used in disorders of brain circulation for:
a) Stimulation of the metabolic processes in neurons
b) Dilation of cerebral vessels
c) Improving the microcirculation in cerebral tissue
d) All the above
026. Migraine is a disorder connected with:
a) Thrombosis of cerebral vessels
b) Brain hemorrhage
c) Dysfunction of regulation of cerebral vessel tonus
d) Malignant growth in brain
027. Main agents for acute migraine attack treatment are Ergot and indol derivatives and NSAID’s. The consideration is:
a) True
b) False
028. The following Indol derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack:
a) Paracetamol
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Metoclopramide
029. The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack:
a) Paracetamol
b) Sumatriptan
c) Ergotamine
d) Metoclopramide
030. The derivative of lysergic acid for migraine attack prevention is:
a) Metoclopramide
b) Methysergide
c) Sumatriptan
d) Ergotamine
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(5) METABOLIC PROFILE DRUGS
PART VII Antihyperlipidemic Drugs & Drugs Used In the Treatment of Gout
001. Lipoprotein is:
a) A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principal means for transporting lipids in the blood
b) Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and
activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods
c) Product of endocrine gland secretion
d) Mediators of inflammatory process
002. Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:
a) A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the
liver to the tissues
b) A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of
atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein
c) A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased
risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein
d) Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose
tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase
003. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:
a) A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of
atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein
b) A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased
risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein
c) A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the
tissues
d) Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose
tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase
004. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:
a) A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a
decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein
b) A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the
tissues
c) A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of
atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein
d) Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose
tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase
005. Chylomicron is:
a) A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased
risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein
b) A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the
tissues
c) A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of
atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein
d) Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to
adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase
006. Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoproteins in the blood. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
007. Hypertriglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the
absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
008. Hypercholesterolemia (or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
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009. Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is True:
a) Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and
triglycerides, which decrease if the diet becomes fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density
lipoproteins, which increase if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissue lipoprotein lipase activity
b) Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density
lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced
hyperlipemia
010. Familial chylomicronemia (type I) is caused by deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
011. The Coronary Primary Prevention Trial (CPPT) demonstrated that treatment with a lipid-lowering drug could reduce the
risk of death due to coronary heart disease. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
012. Women taking probucol (Lorelco) should wait for 6 months after cessation of therapy before becoming pregnant. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
013. Nicotinic acid (Niacin) plus a bile acid-binding resin has not proven effective in combating hyperlipidemia. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
014. The ideal therapy for patients with elevated levels of cholesterol would lower the serum concentration of LDL-cholesterol
while raising the concentration of HDL-cholesterol. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
015. Agents, which lower levels of LDL-cholesterol, tend to promote regression of atherosclerotic plaques. This consideration
is:
a) True
b) False
016. Clofibrate (Atromid-S) is the drug of choice for treatment of broad-beta hyperlipidemia (type III). This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
017. One advantage of gemfibrozil (Lopid) is that, in addition to lowering blood levels of most lipids, it raises the level of HDL
cholesterol. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
018. Probucol (Lorelco) appears to increase clearance of LDL cholesterol by a non-receptor mediated mechanism. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
019. All of the following statements concerning cholestyramine (Questran) are true, EXCEPT:
a) It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)
b) It is not well tolerated by patients
c) It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood
d) It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia
020. All of the following statements concerning drugs which inhibit cholesterol synthesis are true, EXCEPT:
a) They work in part by increasing the rate of LDL clearance from the plasma
b) They are the most effective single agents for lowering LDL-cholesterol
c) When used with a bile-acid binding resin, they can lower LDL-cholesterol by 50% or more
d) No special monitoring is required in patients receiving one of them
021. All of the following statements concerning nicotinic acid (Niacin) are true, EXCEPT:
a) It reduces the rate of synthesis of VLDL
b) Sustained-release preparations of this drug are largely free of side effects
c) Almost all patients taking the traditional dosage form of this drug experience uncomfortable flushing
d) It should not be used with antihypertensives
022. All of the following statements concerning drugs which inhibit cholesterol synthesis are true, EXCEPT:
a) When used alone, they are the most effective agents for lowering LDL cholesterol
b) They are often effective in patients in whom a diet, with or without a bile acid-binding resin or niacin, has failed
c) Lovastatin (Mevacor) plus a resin causes regression of coronary lesions in about one third of treated patients
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d) Members of this drug class are generally not as well tolerated as the older bile acid-binding resins
023. All of the following statements concerning drugs which inhibit cholesterol synthesis are true, EXCEPT:
a) These drugs should not be used in pregnant women or children
b) These drugs often cause myopathy if used in combination with cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
c) Failure to discontinue the drug after myopathy has been detected can cause acute renal failure
d) Several of these drugs tend to lengthen the sleep cycle
024. All of the following statements concerning the fibric acid derivatives are true, EXCEPT:
a) Clofibrate (Atromid-S) is the drug of choice for therapy of Type III hyperlipidemia
b) Gemfibrozil (Lopid) increases HDL cholesterol while lowering LDL cholesterol
c) Gemfibrozil (Lopid) has been shown to reduce mortality associated with a heart disease
d) Gemfibrozil (Lopid) is generally well tolerated
025. All of the following statements concerning the bile acid-binding resins are true, EXCEPT:
a) They decrease total cholesterol and LDL
b) They are contraindicated in patients with hypertriglyceridemia
c) When used alone, they do not slow the progression of atherosclerotic lesions
d) They are the drugs of choice for therapy of type II hyperlipidemia when used either alone or in combination with
selected agents
026. All of the following statements concerning nicotinic acid (Niacin) are true, EXCEPT:
a) Both triglycerides and LDL cholesterol are reduced by this drug
b) The drug acts by directly decreasing the rate of synthesis of apoproteins
c) Doses higher than 3 gm/day are no longer used because of possible disturbances of hepatic or pancreatic functions
d) Most patients taking this drug experience uncomfortable cutaneous flushing, itching, and/or rashes
027. All of the following statements concerning the general principles of therapy with lipid-lowering drugs are true EXCEPT:
a) Therapy with a lipid-lowering drug should be always accompanied by an appropriate diet
b) A lipid-lowering diet should be discontinued if it fails to decrease the levels of plasma LDL cholesterol by at
least 10%
c) Lipid-lowering drugs should only be administered after at least 3 months of prior dietary therapy
d) Some combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are synergistic
028. The cholesterol synthesis inhibitors increase the rate of clearance of LDL cholesterol from the plasma. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
029. Lovastatin (Mevacor) plus a bile-acid binding resin causes regression of coronary lesions in about one third of treated
patients. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
030. The cholesterol synthesis inhibitors are better tolerated than most other lipid-lowering agents. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
031. Selected liver and muscle enzymes should be monitored during the use of any cholesterol synthesis inhibitors because
of possible toxic effects. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
032. The bile acid-binding resins act by directly binding cholesterol and facilitating its excretion. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
033. Nicotinic acid (Niacin) acts by increasing the rate of catabolism of VLDL. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
034. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) can cause dizziness and syncope when used with antihypertensives. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
035. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) increases concentrations of HDL cholesterol more than clofibrate (Atromid-S). This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
036. The bile acid-binding resins can bind many drugs and vitamins and reduce their absorption. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
037. When used alone, the bile acid-binding resins are contraindicated in patients with hypertriglyceridemia. This
consideration is:
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a) True
b) False
038. Combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are likely to be synergistic if they work at different steps in the same pathway. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
039. Reduction in plasma triglycerides and LDL cholesterol concentrations with gemfibrozil treatment is greater than reduction
in plasma cholesterol and LDL cholesterol concentrations with gemfibrozil treatment. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
040. Patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) lack any functional LDL receptors on their
hepatocytes. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
041. Effects of drugs in lowering blood cholesterol levels are additive with those of diet. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
042. HMG-CoA reductase inhibiting drugs can cause muscle breakdown, especially when used in combination with a
cyclosporine. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
043. Probucol (Lorelco) reduces the risk of atherosclerosis by stimulating the rate of clearance of LDL by receptor-mediated
pathways. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
044. Clofibrate (Atromid-S) is generally regarded as superior to gemfibrozil.
a) True
b) False
045. Niacin’s most common side effects can be reduced by pretreatment with aspirin and/or by taking the drug at the end of
meals. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
046. The major side effect of cholestyramine is hepatotoxicity. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
047. The statins are dependent on the presence of LDL receptors on hepatocytes in order to exert their effect. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False
048. This drug increases lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity in adipose tissue:
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Nicotinic acid (Niacin)
d) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
049. This drug both inhibits an enzyme and indirectly enhances clearance of low density lipoproteins (LDL):
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Nicotinic acid (niacin)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
050. This drug binds bile acids in the GI tract:
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Nicotinic acid (niacin)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
051. This drug may block oxidation of low density lipoproteins (LDL):
a) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
b) Nicotinic acid (niacin)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
052. This drug weakly stimulates synthesis of very low density lipoproteins (VLDL):
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a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
053. Flushing caused by this drug can be reduced by taking it after meals and/or by pretreatment with aspirin:
a) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
b) Nicotinic acid (niacin)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
054. This drug can cause muscle damage, especially when used with any of several drugs including erythromycin:
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
055. This drug decreases blood levels of high density lipoproteins (HDL):
a) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
b) Nicotinic acid (niacin)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
056. This fibric acid derivative increases blood levels of high density lipoproteins (HDL):
a) Cholestyramine (Questran)
b) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
c) Gemfibrozil (Loprol)
d) Probucol (Lorelco)
057. Gout is a familial metabolic disease characterized by recurrent episodes of acute arthritis due to deposits of monosodium
urate in joints and cartilage. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
058. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are uricosuric drugs employed to decrease the body pool of urate in patients with
tophaceous gout or in those with increasingly frequent gouty attacks. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
059. Which of the following drugs is an uricosuric agent:
a) Allopurinol
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Indomethacin
060. Uricosuric drugs are the following, EXCEPT:
a) Probenecid
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Aspirin (at high dosages)
061. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout acts by preventing the migration of granulocytes:
a) Allopurinol
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Indomethacin
062. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout has as its primary effect the reduction of uric acid synthesis
a) Allopurinol
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Indomethacin
063. Characteristics of probenecid include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) It promotes the renal tubular secretion of penicillin
b) It is useful in the treatment of gout
c) At appropriate doses, it promotes the excretion of uric acid
d) The metabolic products of probenecid are uricosuric
PART I ANTIBIOTICS
001. What does the term “antibiotics” mean:
a) Non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms
b) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that selectively kill or inhibit
the growth of another microorganisms
c) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that inhibit the growth of organism cells
d) Synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes
002. General principles of anti-infective therapy are:
a) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors
b) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism’s susceptibility
c) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment
d) All of the above
003. Minimal duration of antibacterial treatment usually is:
a) Not less than 1 day
b) Not less than 5 days
c) Not less than 10-14 days
d) Not less than 3 weeks
004. Rational anti-microbial combination is used to:
a) Provide synergism when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with a single agent alone
b) Provide broad coverage
c) Prevent the emergence of resistance
d) All of the above
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005. Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following, EXCEPT:
a) Active transport out of a microorganism or/and hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism
b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism
c) Modification of a drug’s target
d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism
006. The statement, that some microorganisms can develop alternative metabolic pathways for rendering reactions inhibited
by the drug, is:
a) True
b) False
007. All of the following drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:
a) Streptomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Co-trimoxazole
d) Chloramphenicol
008. Bactericidal effect is:
a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c) Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
009. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?
a) Tetracyclines
b) Macrolides
c) Penicillins
d) All of the above
010. Bacteristatic effect is:
a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b) Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth
c) Destroying of bacterial cells
d) Formation of bacterial L-form
011. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect:
a) Carbapenems
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Cephalosporins
012. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure :
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Carbapenems and monobactams
d) All groups
013. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides:
a) Neomycin
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Cefotaxime
014. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems:
a) Aztreonam
b) Amoxacillin
c) Imipinem
d) Clarithromycin
015. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:
a) Ampicillin
b) Bicillin-5
c) Aztreonam
d) Imipinem
016. Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins:
a) Streptomycin
b) Cefaclor
c) Phenoxymethilpenicillin
d) Erythromycin
017. Tick the drug belonging to lincozamides:
a) Erythromycin
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b) Lincomycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Aztreonam
018. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:
a) Doxycycline
b) Streptomycin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Amoxacillin
019. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
a) Gentamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Clindamycin
d) Neomycin
020. Tick the drug belonging to nitrobenzene derivative:
a) Clindamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Chloramphenicol
021. Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides:
a) Vancomycin
b) Lincomycin
c) Neomycin
d) Carbenicillin
022. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
a) Beta-lactam antibiotics
b) Tetracyclines
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Macrolides
023. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is:
a) Erythromycin
b) Rifampin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Imipinem
024. Antibiotics altering permeability of cell membranes are:
a) Glycopeptides
b) Polymyxins
c) Tetracyclines
d) Cephalosporins
025. All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells, EXCEPT:
a) Macrolides
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Glycopeptides
d) Tetracyclines
026. Biosynthetic penicillins are effective against:
a) Gram-positive and gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirochetes, Clostridium gangrene
b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteries
c) Gram positive cocci, viruses
d) Gram negative cocci, Rickettsia, mycotic infections
027. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:
a) Penicillin G
b) Penicillin V
c) Carbenicillin
d) Procain penicillin
028. Which of the following drugs is penicillinase resistant:
a) Oxacillin
b) Amoxacillin
c) Bicillin-5
d) Penicillin G
029. All of the following drugs demonstrate a prolonged effect, EXCEPT:
a) Penicillin G
b) Procain penicillin
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c) Bicillin-1
d) Bicillin-5
030. Mechanism of penicillins’ antibacterial effect is:
a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall
d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane permeability
031. Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Sulbactam
c) Tazobactam
d) All of the above
032. Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of:
a) Gram-positive microorganism infections
b) Gram-negative microorganism infections
c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect
d) Only bacteroide infections
033. Carbapenems are effective against:
a) Gram-positive microorganisms
b) Gram-negative microorganisms
c) Only bacteroide infections
d) Broad-spectum
034. All of the following antibiotics are macrolides, EXCEPT:
a) Erythromycin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Lincomycin
d) Roxythromycin
035. Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects:
a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect
c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
d) All of the above
036. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:
a) Erythromycin
b) Gentamycin
c) Vancomycin
d) Polymyxin
037. Aminoglycosides are effective against:
a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes
b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms
d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses
038. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects:
a) Pancytopenia
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa
039. Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol:
a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
b) Influences the Gram-positive microorganisms. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
c) Influences the Gram-negative microorganisms. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
d) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.
040. Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Pancytopenia
c) Hepatotoxicity
d) Ototoxicity
041. Choose the characteristics of lincozamides:
a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci.
c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.
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d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci.
042. Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Cancerogenity
c) Pseudomembranous colitis
d) Irritation of respiratory organs
043. Choose the characteristics of vancomicin:
a) It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against Gram-negative bacteria
b) It is a glycopeptide, that alters permeability of cell membrane and is active against anaerobic bacteria
c) It is a beta-lactam antibiotic, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis and is active only against Gram-positive bacteria.
044. Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects:
a) Pseudomembranous colitis
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) “Red neck” syndrome, phlebitis
d) All of the above
045. Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
a) Co-trimoxazol
b) Griseofulvin
c) Amphotericin B
d) Nitrofungin
046. Which of the following drugs is used for dermatomycosis treatment:
a) Nystatin
b) Griseofulvin
c) Amphotericin B
d) Vancomycin
047. Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment:
a) Griseofulvin
b) Nitrofungin
c) Myconazol
d) Streptomycin
048. All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Myconazol
d) Griseofulvin
049. Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
050. Azoles have an antifungal effect because of:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
c) Reduction of ergosterol synthesis
d) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
051. Which of the following drugs alters permeability of Candida cell membranes:
a) Amphotericin B
b) Ketoconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Terbinafine
052. Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:
a) Psychosis
b) Renal impairment, anemia
c) Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia
d) Bone marrow toxicity
053. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics having a polyene structure:
a) Nystatin
b) Ketoconazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) All of the above
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054. All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:
a) Terbinafin
b) Amfotericin B
c) Ketoconazole
d) Myconazol
055. Characteristics of polyenes are following, except:
a) Alter the structure and functions of cell membranes
b) Broad-spectrum
c) Fungicidal effect
d) Nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity
056. Characteristics of Amfotericin B are following, EXCEPT:
a) Used for systemic mycosis treatment
b) Poor absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
c) Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity
d) Influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane