1. What is the primary means of identifying network devices and services in a Windows Server 2008 network?

A) DHCP

B) TCP/IP

C) DNS

D) IP
Feedback: In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of identifying network devices and services is through
the use of DNS.
Correct Answer(s): C
2. The process of obtaining an IP address for a computer name (for example, “ComputerA”) is called __________.

A) name resolution

B) address controlling

C) address resolution

D) name controlling
Feedback: The process of obtaining an IP address for a computer name (for example, “ComputerA”) is called name
resolution.
Correct Answer(s): A
3. Which of the following is not a top-level domain name?

A) .aero

B) .coop

C) .museum

D) .corp
Feedback: The available generic top-level domain names include .aero, .biz, .com, .coop, .edu, .gov, .info, .int, .mil,
.museum, .name, .net, .org, and .pro.
Correct Answer(s): D
4. The routing service included with Windows Server 2008 is better suited for __________.

A) a smaller network

B) a larger network

C) a mid-size network

D) large amounts of traffic

Feedback: The routing service included with Windows Server 2008 is better suited for a smaller network or one with a
small amount of network traffic that needs to pass between subnets.
Correct Answer(s): A
5. Which feature is an integral part of IPv6, whereas it was an optional feature under IPv4?
 A) IP security

B) subnetting

C) DNS security

D) name resolution
Feedback: IP security through the use of IPSec is an integral part of IPv6, whereas it was an optional feature under IPv4.
Correct Answer(s): A
6. The DHCP relay agent listens for which messages that are broadcast from the client?

A) DHCPDISCOVER

B) DHCPREQUEST

C) DHCPINFORM

D) All of the above

Feedback: The DHCP relay agent is configured with the address of a DHCP server. The DHCP relay agent listens for
DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, and DHCPINFORM messages that are broadcast from the client.
Correct Answer(s): D
7. What service provides the ability to use a Windows Server 2008 computer as a router, which passes network traffic
from one TCP/IP network to another, as well as for remote access capabilities using either dial-up or VPN technology?

A) DNS

B) Routing and Remote Access

C) DHCP

D) VPN Routing
Feedback: The Routing and Remote Access service provides the ability to use a Windows Server 2008 computer as a
router, which passes network traffic from one TCP/IP network to another, as well as for remote access capabilities using
either dial-up or VPN technology.
Correct Answer(s): B
8. Which of the following is not a function of DHCP?

A) transmitting data from one network to another

B) bootstrapping diskless workstations

C) automating the assigning, tracking, and reassigning of IP addresses

D) dynamically allocating an IP address from a pool of addresses

Feedback: DHCP may be based on BOOTP, but it extends its predecessor in several ways. Rather than push
preconfigured parameters to expected clients, DHCP can dynamically allocate an IP address from a pool of addresses and
then reclaim it when it is no longer needed. Because this process is dynamic, no duplicate addresses are assigned by a
properly configured DHCP server and administrators can move computers between subnets without manually configuring
them. In addition, a large number of standard configuration and platform-specific parameters can be specified and
dynamically delivered to the client. Thus, DHCP provides important functions beyond simply bootstrapping diskless
workstations, and it is often used to automatically configure networking after systems are booted.
Correct Answer(s): A
9. Which of the following is not a component of DNS?

A) DNS namespace

B) DNS zones

C) DNS resource records

D) DNS relay agent

Feedback: The components of DNS include the DNS namespace, DNS zones, DNS name servers, and DNS resource
records.
Correct Answer(s): D
10. One benefit of the hierarchical structure of DNS is that it is possible to have two hosts with the same host names that
are in different locations in the hierarchy.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
11. DHCP cannot dynamically allocate an IP address from a pool of addresses and then reclaim it when it is no longer
needed.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
12. Using DHCP relay agents eliminates the need to have a DHCP server on every subnet.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. Each host on a TCP/IP network should be configured with a number of mandatory and optional configuration items
except for which of the following?

A) routing method

B) subnet mask

C) default gateway

D) DNS/WINS servers
Feedback: Each host on a TCP/IP network should be configured with a number of mandatory and optional configuration
items, including an IPv4 or IPv6 address, subnet mask, default gateway, and WINS/DNS servers.
Correct Answer(s): A
2. If a system will be a DHCP server, what type of address should you set?
 A) automatic private IP address

B) fixed IP address

C) static IP address

D) none of the above

Feedback: If a system will be a DHCP server, you should set a static IP address because that will be required when you
try to set up the DHCP server role.
Correct Answer(s): C
3. Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating systems going back to Windows 2000) supports which two types of
hard disks?

A) partitioned and virtual

B) basic and virtual

C) partitioned and dynamic

D) basic and dynamic

Feedback: Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating systems going back to Windows 2000) supports two types
of hard disks, basic and dynamic.
Correct Answer(s): D
4. Which type of volume consists of free space contained on a single physical disk?

A) striped volume

B) simple volume

C) spanned volume

D) mirrored volume
Feedback: A simple volume consists of free space contained on a single physical disk. You can configure all of the
available space on a disk as a simple volume, or you can configure multiple simple volumes using the space on a single
disk.
Correct Answer(s): B
5. Which partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or for disks that are used in Itanium computers?

A) MBR

B) NTFS

C) FAT

D) GPT
Feedback: The GPT partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or for disks that are used in Itanium
computers.
Correct Answer(s): D
6. A Server Core installation includes which of the following programs?
 A) Windows Explorer

B) Outlook Express

C) Windows Notepad

D) Start menu
Feedback: A Server Core computer will allow you to launch the Windows Registry Editor, Notepad, and a number of
Control Panel applets. However, it does not include a Start menu and does not allow you to install or run any of the MMC
consoles, such as Computer Management or Active Directory Users and Computer.
Correct Answer(s): C
7. Best practices when installing Windows Server 2008 recommends installing the software onto which type of media?

A) fresh or previously used media

B) previously used or partitioned media

C) fresh or partitioned media

D) none of the above

Feedback: When installing Windows Server 2008, you have the option of installing onto fresh media that has never been
used before or onto previously used media containing existing files. If Windows Server 2008 is installed onto a disk
partition containing a previous version of Windows, the files will be preserved but the software will not be usable.
Correct Answer(s): A
8. Which feature allows recovery of operating system state, files, folders, and application data by periodically creating a
snapshot of the full server or selected volumes?

A) WINS Server

B) Remote Server Administration Tools

C) Windows Server Backup

D) Wireless Networking
Feedback: The Windows Server Backup feature allows recovery of operating system state, files, folders, and application
data by periodically creating a snapshot of the full server or selected volumes.
Correct Answer(s): C
9. You can manage disks and partitions in Windows Server 2008 by using which tool?

A) Remote Server Administration tools

B) Disk Management tools

C) Server Management tools

D) Computer Management tools

Feedback: You can manage disks and partitions in Windows Server 2008 by using the Disk Management GUI tool or the
diskpart command-line utility.
Correct Answer(s): B
10. What is the minimum number of physical computers required to allow you to use a KMS key?

A) 20 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers

B) 20 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

C) 15 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers

D) 25 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

Feedback: The minimum number of physical computers required to allow you to use a KMS key is 25 Vista computers
and five Windows Server 2008 computers. Any computer on your network that has been activated by an internal KMS
host will attempt to “check in” with the KMS host every seven days and will be required to connect to that host at least
once every 180 days to maintain its license.
Correct Answer(s): D
11. Once a Server Core computer is installed, how can it be managed locally?

A) Windows Console

B) Start menu

C) command-line utilities

D) Computer Management Console

Feedback: The installation process for Server Core is identical to the installation of a full version of Windows Server
2008. Once a Server Core computer is installed, however, it can be managed locally using only command-line utilities and
the limited GUI facilities installed on a Server Core computer.
Correct Answer(s): C
12. ICS turns your computer into a router so that other computers on the local network can access its Internet connection.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. BOOTP enables a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the configuration parameters it needs to run
excluding which option?

A) subnet mask

B) default gateway

C) workstation settings

D) IP address

Feedback: BOOTP, which is still in use today, enables a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the
configuration parameters it needs to run including an IP address, a subnet mask, a default gateway, and Domain Name
System (DNS) server addresses.
Correct Answer(s): C
2. Which of the following is not a key benefit provided by DHCP for those managing and maintaining a TCP/IP network?
 A) IP host configuration

B) dynamic host configuration

C) flexibility and scalability

D) de-centralized administration
Feedback: DHCP provides four key benefits to those managing and maintaining a TCP/IP network: IP host configuration,
dynamic host configuration, flexibility and scalability, and centralized administration.
Correct Answer(s): D
3. What computer provides DHCP configuration information to multiple clients?

A) DHCP client

B) DHCP server

C) DHCP lease

D) DHCP discover
Feedback: A DHCP server is a computer that provides DHCP configuration information to multiple clients.
Correct Answer(s): B
4. Sent by clients via broadcast to locate a DHCP server per RFC 2131, which message may include options that suggest
values for the network address and lease duration?

A) DHCPDECLINE

B) DHCPREQUEST

C) DHCPOFFER

D) DHCPDISCOVER
Feedback: A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent by clients via broadcast to locate a DHCP server. Per RFC 2131, the
DHCPDISCOVER message may include options that suggest values for the network address and lease duration.
Correct Answer(s): D
5. The initial DHCP lease process is accomplished by using a series of exchanges between a DHCP client and DHCP
server that utilizes four messages. Which of the following is not a message that is used?

A) DHCPDISCOVER

B) DHCPOFFER

C) DHCPRELEASE

D) DHCPACK
Feedback: A DHCPRELEASE message is sent by a DHCP client to a DHCP server to relinquish an IP address and
cancel the remaining lease. This message type is sent to the server that provided the lease.
Correct Answer(s): C
6. All DHCP servers that receive the DHCPDISCOVER message and have a valid configuration for the client will
broadcast __________.
 A) DHCPACK

B) DHCPOFFER

C) DHCPNACK

D) DHCPINFORM
Feedback: A DHCPOFFER message is sent by one or more DHCP servers to a DHCP client in response to
DHCPDISCOVER, along with offered configuration parameters.
Correct Answer(s): B
7. The broadcast DHCPREQUEST message contains all of the following information except __________.

A) the IP address of the DHCP server chosen by the client

B) the requested IP address for the client

C) a list of requested parameters (subnet mask, router, DNS server list, domain name, vendor-specific information,
WINS server list, NetBIOS node type, NetBIOS scope)

D) DNS information for the client

Feedback: The DHCPREQUEST message type is sent by the DHCP client to signal its acceptance of the offered address
and parameters. The client generates a DHCPREQUEST message containing the address of the server from which it is
accepting the offer, along with the offered IP address. Because the client has not yet configured itself with the offered
parameters, it transmits the DHCPREQUEST message as a broadcast. This broadcast notifies the server that the client is
accepting the offered address and also notifies the other servers on the network that the client is rejecting their offers.
Correct Answer(s): D
8. A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in all of the following situations with the exception of
__________.

A) the very first time the client boots

B) after every reboot

C) after releasing the IP address

D) after receiving a DHCPNACK message

Feedback: A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in the following situations: the very first time the client
boots, after releasing the IP Address, and after receiving a DHCPNACK message.
Correct Answer(s): B
9. If you use DHCP with an alternate configuration and the DHCP client cannot locate a DHCP server, the alternate
configuration is used to configure the network adapter. Additional discovery attempts are made under what condition?

A) The network adapter is disabled and then enabled again.

B) Media is disconnected and then reconnected again.

C) TCP/IP settings for the adapter are changed, and DHCP remains enabled after these changes.

D) All of the above

Feedback: If you use DHCP with an alternate configuration and the DHCP client cannot locate a DHCP server, the
alternate configuration is used to configure the network adapter. No additional discovery attempts are made except under
the following conditions: The network adapter is disabled and then enabled again; media is disconnected and then
reconnected again; or TCP/IP settings for the adapter are changed, and DHCP remains enabled after these changes.
Correct Answer(s): D
10. The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be __________.

A) contiguous

B) associated with a subnet mask

C) both A and B

D) none of the above

Feedback: The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be contiguous and are associated with a subnet mask. If the
addresses you want to assign are not contiguous, you must create a scope encompassing all of the addresses you want to
assign and then exclude specific addresses or address ranges from the scope.
Correct Answer(s): C
11. Which of the following apply to all clients within a scope and are the most frequently used set of options?

A) server options

B) scope options

C) class options

D) client options
Feedback: Scope options apply to all clients within a scope and are the most frequently used set of options. Scope options
override server options.
Correct Answer(s): B
12. Which of the following is not a database function used to manage the DHCP database?

A) compact

B) reconciliation

C) connect

D) restore
Feedback: Your network is constantly changing. New servers are added, and existing servers are changing roles or are
removed from the network altogether. Therefore, you must both monitor and manage the DHCP service to ensure that it is
meeting the needs of the organization. Specifically, you must manage the DHCP database by performing the following
database functions: backup and restore, reconciliation, compacting the database, and removing the database.
Correct Answer(s): C
13. What criteria must be met by the server before using the Reconcile feature to verify client information for a DHCP
scope from the registry?

A) You must restore the DHCP server registry keys, or they must remain intact from previous service operations on
the server computer.

B) You must delete and recreate the DHCP database.

 C) You must reboot the server.

D) None of the above

Feedback: Before using the Reconcile feature to verify client information for a DHCP scope from the registry, the server
computer needs to meet the following criteria: You must restore the DHCP server registry keys, or they must remain
intact from previous service operations on the server computer. You must generate a fresh copy of the DHCP server
database file in the %systemroot%\System32\Dhcp folder on the server computer.
Correct Answer(s): A
14. After the client receives an offer from at least one DHCP server, it broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to all
DHCP servers with 0.0.0.0 as the source address and __________ as the destination address.

A) 265.265.265.265

B) 225.225.225.225

C) 255.255.255.255

D) 205.205.205.205
Feedback: The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to find a DHCP server. Because the client does not
already have an IP address or know the IP address of the DHCP server, the DHCPDISCOVER message is sent as a local
area broadcast, with 0.0.0.0 as the source address and 255.255.255.255 as the destination address. The DHCPDISCOVER
message is a request for the location of a DHCP server and IP addressing information.
Correct Answer(s): C
15. Once a DHCP scope is defined and exclusion ranges are applied, the remaining addresses form what is called an
available address pool within the scope.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. Which of the following is not considered a top-level domain?

A) .nato

B) .int

C) .coop

D) .com
Feedback: The generic top-level domain names include .aero, .biz, .com, .coop, .edu, .gov, .info, .int, .il, .museum, .name,
.net, .org, and .pro.
Correct Answer(s): A
2. Which of the following is not a forward or reverse lookup zone type?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) integrated
 D) stub
Feedback: DNS zones are classified by where they are stored, whether they are writable, and by what information they
receive and return. Each forward lookup zone can be a primary zone, a secondary zone, or a stub zone.
Correct Answer(s): C
3. Which zone hosts a read/write copy of the DNS zone in which resource records are created and managed?

A) standard primary zone

B) standard secondary zone

C) reverse lookup zone

D) stub zone
Feedback: A standard primary zone hosts a read/write copy of the DNS zone in which resource records are created and
managed. Only one server can host and load the master copy of the zone; no additional primary servers for the zone are
permitted, and only the server hosting the primary zone is allowed to accept dynamic updates and process zone changes.
Correct Answer(s): A
4. Which zone enables a host to determine another host’s name based on its IP address?

A) standard primary zone

B) standard secondary zone

C) reverse lookup zone

D) stub zone
Feedback: Most queries sent to a DNS server are forward queries; that is, they request an IP address based on a DNS
name. DNS also provides a reverse lookup process that enables a host to determine another host’s name based on its IP
address. This is a reverse lookup zone.
Correct Answer(s): C
5. Where are zone transfers initiated?

A) primary server

B) secondary server

C) stub server

D) master server
Feedback: Zone transfers are always initiated at the secondary server for a zone and sent to the server’s configured
master server, which acts as its source for the zone.
Correct Answer(s): B
6. DNS zone file resource records are represented as __________.

A) binary packets

B) DHCP data entries

C) form packets
 D) text entries
Feedback: Resource records are represented in binary form in packets when queries and responses are made using DNS.
In DNS zone files, however, resource records are represented as text entries.
Correct Answer(s): D
7. Which of the following is a 32-bit integer representing the maximum time, in seconds, that a DNS server or client
caches this resource record before it is discarded?

A) Owner

B) Class

C) TTL

D) Resource Record Data

Feedback: TTL is a 32-bit integer representing the maximum time, in seconds, that a DNS server or client caches this
resource record before it is discarded.
Correct Answer(s): C
8. What is the length of time that the DNS service waits before failing a recursive lookup that has been retried?

A) 3 seconds

B) 5 seconds

C) 7 seconds

D) 15 seconds
Feedback: By default, DNS servers use timings for retry intervals and time-out intervals. This includes a recursion time-
out interval of 15 seconds. This is the length of time that the DNS service waits before failing a recursive lookup that has
been retried.
Correct Answer(s): D
9. You can use the DNS console to manually or automatically test DNS servers by submitting all of the following queries
except __________.

A) iterative

B) simple

C) recursive

D) All the above

Feedback: You can use the DNS console to manually or automatically test DNS servers by submitting two different types
of queries: simple queries and recursive queries.
Correct Answer(s): D
10. To conserve disk space, DNS servers store only the most recent updates.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
11. The primary DNS server for a zone is not required to perform an incremental zone transfer.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
12. Scavenging is enabled by default.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B

1. For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than how many subnets with an easily predicted traffic
pattern (such as arranged consecutively in a straight line)?

A) 5

B) 7

C) 10

D) 12
Feedback: A static-routed IP environment is best suited to small, single-path, static IP internetworks. By definition,
static-routed networks do not use routing protocols, such as RIP or OSPF, to communicate routing information between
routers. For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than 10 subnets with an easily predicted traffic
pattern (such as arranged consecutively in a straight line). Of course, a static-routed IP environment is appropriate only as
long as the routes in the environment remain the same.
Correct Answer(s): C
2. How can you view the IP routing table?

A) Routing and Remote Access console

B) command prompt

C) both A & B

D) none of the above

Feedback: You can view the IP routing table by using the Routing and Remote Access console or the command prompt.
Correct Answer(s): C
3. Which column of the IP Routing Table indicates the gateway value for each routing table entry?

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth
Feedback: The third column indicates the gateway value for each routing table entry. When a particular route or table
entry is applied to a packet, the gateway value determines the next address or hop to which the packet should be sent.
Correct Answer(s): C
4. Which option enables internal clients to connect to the Internet using a single, external IP address?

A) remote access

B) network address translation

C) virtual private network

D) custom configuration
Feedback: The RRAS service also allows you to configure a Windows Server 2008 computer to act as a Network
Address Translation (NAT) device, which allows internal network clients to connect to the Internet using a single shared
IP address.
Correct Answer(s): B
5. What type of connectivity creates a secure point-to-point connection across either a private network or a public
network, such as the Internet?

A) remote access

B) dial-up networking

C) virtual private network

D) custom configuration
Feedback: VPN connectivity creates a secure point-to-point connection across either a private network or a public
network, such as the Internet.
Correct Answer(s): C
6. What encryption type is used for dial-up and PPTP-based VPN connections with a 40-bit key?

A) basic encryption

B) strong encryption

C) strongest encryption

D) no encryption
Feedback: Basic encryption is used for dial-up and PPTP-based VPN connections, and MPPE is used with a 40-bit key.
For L2TP/IPSec VPN connections, 56-bit DES encryption is used.
Correct Answer(s): A
7. Which mutual authentication method offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data?

A) EAP.TLS

B) MS-CHAPv2

C) MS-CHAPv1

D) Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5

CHAP)
Feedback: MS-CHAPv2 is a mutual authentication method that offers encryption of both authentication data and
connection data.
Correct Answer(s): B
8. Which generic authentication method offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5 hashing scheme?

A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

B) Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

C) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D) Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5

CHAP)
Feedback: CHAP is a generic authentication method that offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5
hashing scheme.
Correct Answer(s): C
9. Which generic authentication method does not encrypt connection data?

A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

B) Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

C) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D) Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5

CHAP)
Feedback: PAP is a generic authentication method that does not support the encryption of connection data.
Correct Answer(s): A
10. By using the Routing and Remote Access service, Windows Server 2008 can be configured as a router and remote
access server.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
11. A hub examines the destination and source address of an incoming data frame and forwards the frame to the
appropriate destination port according to the destination address.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
12. A static-routed IP environment is best suited to small, single-path, static IP internetworks.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable
system administrators to address many problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise network. However, before
you implement the role or begin using these tools, what should you spend some time thinking about?

A) how quickly you can recover from the failure of a hard drive, a server, or an entire facility

B) your users’ needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices

C) how you control access to network file shares

D) how users will find the files that they need

Feedback: The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools
that enable system administrators to address all of these problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise network.
However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, you should spend some time thinking about your
users’ needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices.
Correct Answer(s): B
2. How many active partitions can you have per hard drive?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4
Feedback: A primary partition can be marked as an active partition. You can have only one active partition per hard disk.
The system BIOS looks to the active partition for the boot files it uses to start the operating system.
Correct Answer(s): A
3. What volume type is essentially a method for combining the space from multiple dynamic disks into a single large
volume?

A) simple

B) spanned

C) striped

D) RAID-5
Feedback: A spanned volume is essentially a method for combining the space from multiple dynamic disks into a single
large volume. Windows Server 2008 writes to the spanned volume by filling all of the space on the first disk and then
proceeds to fill each of the additional disks in turn.
Correct Answer(s): B
4. What volume type consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks?

A) simple

B) spanned

C) striped
 D) RAID-5
Feedback: A RAID-5 volume consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks. The
system stripes data and parity information across all of the disks so that if one physical disk fails, the missing data can be
recreated using the parity information on the other disks.
Correct Answer(s): D
5. Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing strategy provides each user with all of the following resources except
__________ storage space.

A) public

B) virtual

C) private

D) shared
Feedback: Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing strategy provides each user with three resources: a private storage
space, such as a home folder, to which the user has exclusive access; a public storage space, where each user can store
files that they want colleagues to be able to access; and access to a shared work space for communal and collaborative
documents.
Correct Answer(s): B
6. What file system provides the most granular user access control and also provides other advanced storage features,
including file encryption and compression?

A) NTFS

B) FAT

C) LTP

D) SWAP
Feedback: NTFS not only provides the most granular user access control, it also provides other advanced storage
features, including file encryption and compression.
Correct Answer(s): A
7. Windows Server 2008 has several sets of permissions that operate independently of each other. Which permissions
control access to folders over a network?

A) share permissions

B) NTFS permissions

C) registry permissions

D) Active Directory permissions

Feedback: Share permissions control access to folders over a network.
Correct Answer(s): A
8. For network users to be able to access a shared folder on an NTFS drive, you must grant them __________
permissions.
 A) share

B) NTFS

C) both A & B

D) registry
Feedback: For network users to be able to access a shared folder on an NTFS drive, you must grant them both share
permissions and NTFS permissions.
Correct Answer(s): C
9. By default, what topology do replication groups use?

A) hub/spoke

B) full mesh

C) partial mesh

D) mesh/spoke
Feedback: The larger the DFS deployment, the more complicated the replication process becomes. By default, replication
groups use a full mesh topology, which means that every member in a group replicates with every other member. For
relatively small DFS deployments, this is a satisfactory solution, but on larger installations, the full mesh topology can
generate a huge amount of network traffic.
Correct Answer(s): B
10. The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two
technologies: DFS Namespaces and __________.

A) DFS Remediation

B) DFS Replication

C) DNS Replication

D) DFS Topology
Feedback: The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two
technologies: DFS Namespaces and DFS Replication.
Correct Answer(s): B
11. A period of planning and design is unnecessary before you start implementation of a file server deployment.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
12. You can mark an existing dynamic disk as an active partition.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
1. Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves all of the following components except a __________.

A) print device

B) print router

C) printer

D) printer driver
Feedback: Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves the following four components: the print device, printer,
print server, and printer driver.
Correct Answer(s): B
2. What computer (or standalone device) receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print devices that are either
locally attached or connected to the network?

A) print device

B) print server

C) printer

D) printer driver
Feedback: A print server is a computer (or standalone device) that receives print jobs from clients and sends them to print
devices that are either locally attached or connected to the network.
Correct Answer(s): B
3. What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and
Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?

A) XML Paper Specifications (XPS)

B) Enhanced Metafile (EMF)

C) PCL 6

D) PCL 5e
Feedback: Enhanced Metafile (EMF) is a standardized, highly portable print job format that is the default format used by
the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems.
Correct Answer(s): B
4. Compared with NTFS permissions, printer permissions are __________.

A) harder to use

B) simpler

C) more complex

D) more granular
Feedback: Printer permissions are much simpler than NTFS permissions. They basically dictate whether users are
allowed to merely use the printer, manage documents submitted to the printer, or manage the properties of the printer
itself.
Correct Answer(s): B
5. Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you
resume it by selecting the same menu item again?

A) Document > Restart

B) Document > Pause

C) Printer > Use Printer Offline

D) Printer > Pause Printing

Feedback: The Printer > Pause Printing document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending
jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again.
Correct Answer(s): D
6. To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except __________.

A) create multiple printers

B) create multiple print users

C) modify printer priorities

D) associate printers with the same print device

Feedback: In some cases, you might want to give certain users in your organization priority access to a print device so
that when print traffic is heavy, their jobs are processed before those of other users. To do this, you must create multiple
printers, associate them with the same print device, and then modify their priorities.
Correct Answer(s): B
7. What is the only role service that is required when you add the Print Services role?

A) Internet Printing

B) LPD Service

C) Print Server

D) Printer Pool
Feedback: Print Server is the only role service that is required when you add the Print Services role.
Correct Answer(s): C
8. Which of the following is not an option with the Print Services Management Console?

A) Installing a printer

B) Access the print queues and Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise

C) Deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy

D) Create custom views

Feedback: The Print Management snap-in for MMC is an administrative tool that consolidates the controls for the
printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console. With this tool, you can access the print queues and
Properties sheets for all of the network printers in the enterprise, deploy printers to client computers using Group Policy,
and create custom views that simplify the process of detecting print devices that need attention due to errors or depleted
consumables.
Correct Answer(s): A
9. Printer permissions, which are much simpler than NTFS permissions, basically dictate whether __________.

A) users are allowed to merely use the printer

B) users can manage documents submitted to the printer

C) users can manage the properties of the printer itself

D) all of the above

Feedback: Printer permissions are much simpler than NTFS permissions. They basically dictate whether users are
allowed to merely use the printer, manage documents submitted to the printer, or manage the properties of the printer
itself.
Correct Answer(s): D
10. By default, the Print Management console displays only which of the following in its list of print servers?

A) networked printers

B) local machine

C) networked computers

D) terminal services
Feedback: By default, the Print Management console displays only the local machine in its list of print servers.
Correct Answer(s): B
11. What is one of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks?

A) keeping track of roles and permissions

B) keeping track of print utilization

C) keeping track of users and permissions

D) keeping track of print devices

Feedback: One of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks is keeping track of dozens
or hundreds of print devices, all in frequent use and all needing attention on a regular basis. Whether the maintenance
required is a major repair, replenishing ink or toner, or just filling the paper trays, print devices will not get the attention
they need until an administrator is aware of the problem.
Correct Answer(s): D
12. Although any Windows computer can function as a print server, it is not recommended that you use a workstation for
this task.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
1. Which of the following is not a tool that can help you proactively troubleshoot network problems?
 A) Reliability and Performance Monitor

B) Performance console

C) Windows Server 2008 Event Viewer

D) Network Monitor
Feedback: A proactive approach to network management is preventative and makes use of tools such as the Performance
and Reliability Monitor, the Event Viewer, and Network Monitor utilities.
Correct Answer(s): B
2. Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor?

A) Performance Monitor

B) Reliability Monitor

C) Resource

D) Network
Feedback: Resource view is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor. This view provides a quick
overview of the four major performance components of a Windows server: CPU, Disk, Network, and Memory.
Correct Answer(s): C
3. The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that combines
features that had previously been spread across a number of tools. Which of the following is not a feature?

A) Performance Logs and Alerts

B) Performance Monitor

C) Server Performance Advisor

D) System Monitor
Feedback: The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that
combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools: Performance Logs and Alerts, Server
Performance Advisor, and System Monitor. The Reliability and Performance Monitor in Windows Server 2008 allows
you to collect real-time information on your local computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions.
Correct Answer(s): B
4. Which log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory?

A) Event Viewer

B) Directory Service

C) Service Monitor

D) Event Monitor
Feedback: The Directory Service log is created when Active Directory is installed. It logs informational events such as
service start and stop messages, errors, and warnings. This log should be the first place you look when you suspect a
problem with Active Directory.
Correct Answer(s): B
5. Which log records events associated with server installation, adding and removing server roles, installing applications,
and so forth?

A) Setup

B) System

C) Forwarded events

D) Security
Feedback: The Setup Log is new to Windows Server 2008 and records events associated with server installation, adding
and removing server roles, installing applications, and so forth.
Correct Answer(s): A
6. Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of the following except __________.

A) security fixes

B) critical updates

C) additional user experience features

D) critical drivers
Feedback: Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include security fixes, critical updates, and critical drivers. These
updates resolve known security vulnerabilities and stability issues in the Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows Server
2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.
Correct Answer(s): C
7. Which of the following is not a main component of WSUS?

A) Windows Update Synchronization Service

B) Website hosted on an IIS server that services update requests from Automatic Updates clients

C) Windows Update Communication Service

D) WSUS MMC Administration console

Feedback: WSUS has three main components: Windows Update Synchronization Service, which downloads content to
your server that runs SUS; a Website hosted on a IIS server that services update requests from Automatic Updates clients;
and a WSUS MMC Administration console.
Correct Answer(s): C
8. Initial WSUS server configuration options include all of the following except __________.

A) proxy server information for the server to access the Internet

B) options for handling previously approved content

C) the list of client languages you would like to support

D) all of the above

Feedback: Initial WSUS server configuration options include the following: choice of whether the update files are hosted
on the Internet Windows Update service or locally on your server that runs WSUS, proxy server information for the server
to access the Internet, options for handling previously approved content, and the list of client languages you would like to
support.
Correct Answer(s): D
9. You can create your own custom Data Collector Set.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
10. Windows Server 2008 includes a built-in network monitor.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
11. If multiple servers run WSUS, the administrator controls which clients access particular servers that run WSUS.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
12. If Automatic Updates is configured to notify the user of updates that are ready to install, it checks to see whether a
user with administrative privileges is logged on to the computer.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. What suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide
security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data?

A) IPSec

B) checksum

C) TCP

D) UDP
Feedback: To address this, the IPSec suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms
that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is
sending or receiving data.
Correct Answer(s): A
2. What rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as
membership in a particular Active Directory domain?

A) Tunnel

B) Authentication exemption
 C) Isolation

D) Server to server
Feedback: The Isolation rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria,
such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain.
Correct Answer(s): C
3. Which rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic?

A) Tunnel

B) Authentication exemption

C) Isolation

D) Server to server
Feedback: The Authentication exemption rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be
authenticated to pass traffic; for example, defining a DHCP server that should not have an Isolation connection security
rule apply to it.
Correct Answer(s): B
4. Before secure data is sent, what must occur to determine the type of traffic to be secured and how it will be secured?

A) quick mode negotiations

B) quick mode messages

C) IKE main mode negotiations

D) IKE main mode messages

Feedback: Before secure data is sent, a quick mode negotiation must occur to determine the type of traffic to be secured
and how it will be secured.
Correct Answer(s): A
5. To set the Netsh IPSec context, what is the first command you enter at the command prompt?

A) netsh

B) ipsec

C) static

D) dynamic
Feedback: To set the Netsh IPSec context, type netsh at the command prompt, and then press Enter. Key ipsec, and press
Enter. From here, you can enter the word static at the Netsh IPSec prompt. Static mode allows you to create, modify, and
assign policies without affecting the active IPSec policy.
Correct Answer(s): A
6. The command “set config property=ipsecloginterval value=value” can be set to what range of values?

A) 0  7

B) 0, 1
 C) 60 – 86,400

D) 0, 1, 2
Feedback: The “set config property=ipsecloginterval value=value” command indicates how frequently in seconds the
IPSec events are sent to the system event log. The range of the value parameter is 60 to 86,400 with a default of 3600.
Correct Answer(s): C
7. Which default authentication method is used by IPSec policies deployed within an Active Directory domain and can
only be used in an Active Directory environment?

A) Kerberos v5 protocol

B) PKI certificate from a Certification Authority (CA.

C) preshared key

D) IPSec Authentication mode

Feedback: Kerberos v5 protocol is the default authentication method used by IPSec policies deployed within an Active
Directory domain. This authentication method can only be used in an Active Directory environment.
Correct Answer(s): A
8. The driving factor behind combining administration of the Windows Firewall with IPSec policies is to streamline
network administration on which type of computer?

A) Windows Server 2008

B) Windows Server 2003

C) Windows Vista

D) Windows 2000
Feedback: The driving factor behind combining administration of the Windows Firewall with IPSec policies is to
streamline network administration on a Windows Server 2008 computer.
Correct Answer(s): A
9. Which field does the IPSec driver use to match the correct SA with the correct packet?

A) IPSec Driver field

B) IKE Authentication field

C) IP Filter field

D) SPI field
Feedback: The IPSec driver uses the SPI field to match the correct SA with the correct packet.
Correct Answer(s): D
10. Each TCP/IP packet protected with IPSec contains a cryptographic checksum in the form of a keyed hash.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
11. Use Tunnel mode when you require packet filtering and end-to-end security.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
12. To identify a specific SA for tracking purposes, a 32-bit number known as the Security Parameters Index (SPI) is
used.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. In a PKI, each user/computer possesses a piece of information that is known only to the individual user or computer
that is called a __________.

A) public key

B) private packet

C) private key

D) shared secret key

Feedback: Each user/computer possesses a private key, which is a piece of information known only to the individual user
or computer.
Correct Answer(s): C
2. Which digital document contains identifying information about a particular user, computer, service, and so on?

A) digital signature

B) digital certificate

C) certificate revocation list

D) smart card
Feedback: A digital certificate, sometimes called simply a certificate, is a digital document that contains identifying
information about a particular user, computer, service, and so on. The digital certificate contains the certificate holder’s
name and public key and the digital signature of the Certificate Authority that issued the certificate, as well as the
certificate’s expiration date.
Correct Answer(s): B
3. Certificate templates can be used to automate the deployment of PKI certificates by controlling the __________.

A) security settings associated with each template

B) user settings associated with each template

C) configuration settings associated with each template

D) networking settings associated with each template

Feedback: Certificate templates can be used to automate the deployment of PKI certificates by controlling the security
settings associated with each template.
Correct Answer(s): A
4. Which of the following is not a privilege granted to certificate managers?

A) modify Certificate Revocation List (CRL) publication schedules

B) recover archived keys

C) issue, approve, deny, revoke, reactivate, and renew certificates

D) read records and configuration information in the CA database

Feedback: Certificate managers are tasked with issuing and managing certificates, including approving certificate
enrollment and revocation requests. Certificate managers have the following privileges: to perform bulk deletions in the
CA database; issue, approve, deny, revoke, reactivate, and renew certificates; recover archived keys; and read records and
configuration information in the CA database.
Correct Answer(s): A
5. Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between the NAP
Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents?

A) Health Registration Authority

B) System Health Agent

C) NAP Agent

D) System Health Validator

Feedback: The NAP Agent combines the Statement of Health from each SHA into a single System Statement of Health
(SSOH), which it then passes to the Enforcement Clients.
Correct Answer(s): C
6. Which enforcement method allows authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal corporate or private
network from any Internet-connected device?

A) Internet Protocol Security (IPSeC. enforcement

B) VPN enforcement

C) 802.1X enforcement

D) Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement

Feedback: The Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement method integrates with new Terminal Services
functionality that is built into Windows Server 2008, allowing authorized remote users to connect to resources on an
internal corporate or private network from any Internet-connected device.
Correct Answer(s): D
7. The NPS service combines each Statement of Health Response into what?

A) System Statement of Health Response

B) System Statement of Health Requirement

C) Statement of Health Requirement

 D) System Statement of Health Policy
Feedback: The NPS service combines each Statement of Health Response into a System Statement of Health Response
(SSOHR).
Correct Answer(s): A
8. Which feature enables users to request their own PKI certificates, typically through a Web browser?

A) self-enrollment

B) recovery agents

C) autoenrollment

D) Web enrollment
Feedback: Self-enrollment enables users to request their own PKI certificates, typically through a Web browser.
Correct Answer(s): A
9. DHCP is the only NAP enforcement method that can be deployed in a non-Active Directory environment.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
10. If a client cannot provide the necessary health certificate, they will still be able to participate in IPSec-secured traffic.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): B
11. Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, and Windows XP with Service Pack 3 all have a built-in NAP client, and
third-party vendors can use the NAP API to write additional clients for additional operating systems, such as Macintosh
and Linux computers.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
12. Depending on the configuration item that is being monitored for compliance, autoremediation may not be possible.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
1. What does the Windows Server Backup feature use to perform file and volume-level backups?

A) Server Backup Copies

B) Shadow Backup Copies

C) Volume Backup Copies

 D) Volume Shadow Copies
Feedback: The Windows Server Backup feature is a new feature in Windows Server 2008 that performs file and volume-
level backups using Volume Shadow Copies.
Correct Answer(s): D
2. Shadow Copies protects against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis
by using what type of fault tolerance?

A) file-based

B) index-based

C) security-based

D) user-based
Feedback: Shadow Copies is a file-based fault tolerance mechanism that does not provide protection against disk failures,
but does protect against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis.
Correct Answer(s): A
3. What is the minimum amount of space you must allocate to store shadow copies?

A) 200MB

B) 250MB

C) 300MB

D) 350MB
Feedback: You must allocate a minimum of 300MB of space to store shadow copies.
Correct Answer(s): C
4. Once you have enabled Shadow Copies of Shared Folders for a particular volume, the default schedule will create a
snapshot twice per day, seven days per week, at what times?

A) 6:00 am and 12:00 pm

B) 8:00 pm and 12:00 am

C) 10:00 am and 12:00 am

D) 7:00 am and 12:00 pm

Feedback: Once you have enabled Shadow Copies of Shared Folders for a particular volume, the default schedule will
create a snapshot twice per day, seven days per week, at 7:00 am and 12:00 pm.
Correct Answer(s): D
5. A maximum of how many shadow copies can be stored on a particular volume?

A) 32

B) 64

C) 96
 D) 128
Feedback: A maximum of 64 shadow copies can be stored on a particular volume.
Correct Answer(s): B
6. Three options can be found on the Previous Versions tab for any snapshots listed. Which of the following is not an
option?

A) Open

B) Duplicate

C) Copy

D) Restore
Feedback: From the Previous Versions tab, you have one of three options for any snapshots listed: Open, Copy, and
Restore.
Correct Answer(s): B
7. NTFS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on what basis?

A) per user

B) group

C) network

D) none of the above

Feedback: NTFS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on a per-user basis.
Correct Answer(s): A
8. If you wish to perform backups from the command line, what will you need to install?

A) Windows PowerShell

B) Windows Server Backup

C) Windows Server Core

D) Windows Server Manager Console

Feedback: If you wish to perform backups from the command line, you will need to install Windows PowerShell, which
is a new command-line and task-based scripting technology that is included with Windows Server 2008, although
PowerShell cannot be installed on Server Core in Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer(s): A
9. Windows Server Backup supports the use of what type of media as backup destinations?

A) magnetic tape

B) dynamic volumes

C) DVD
Feedback: Windows Server Backup supports the use of CD and DVD drives as backup destinations, but does not support
magnetic tapes as backup media. Additionally, you cannot perform backups to dynamic volumes.
Correct Answer(s): A
10. When restoring data in Windows Server 2008, what types of restores can you can choose to perform?

A) files/folders

B) files/volumes

C) folders/volumes

D) files/folders/volumes
Feedback:
When restoring data in Windows Server 2008, you can choose to restore data from either a local or a remote server. You
can choose to perform two types of restores
Files and folders - This restore allows you browse to individual files and folders to restore in situations in which you need
to restore only a limited amount of information.
Volumes - This restore will recover an entire volume. This option cannot be selected from the Windows Server Backup
utility if the selected volume contains operating system components.
Correct Answer(s): D
11. When users accidentally overwrite or delete files, they can access the shadow copies to restore earlier versions.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A
12. When the storage limit of your Shadow Copies of Shared Folders is reached, older versions of shadow copies will be
deleted without any means of restoring them.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE
Correct Answer(s): A