Insruction: select the correct answer for each of the following questions.

Mark only the

answer for each item corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

SITUATIONAL

Situation 1 – We now employ in maternal and child health nursing new concepts.
1. What is the latest concept in maternal and child health nursing care?
A. Care starts from pregnancy to adulthood
B. Is transitional and portable
C. Begins from toddler to adolescence
D. Should be evidence-based
2. Who among the nursing theorists postulates that nursing is a human science and
health is a lived experience?
A. Imogene King C. Calixta Roy
B. Rosemarie Rizzo Parse D. Faye Abdellah
3. To curtail hospital costs, one of the most popular trends in health care setting today,
in
A. home folk management C. ambulatory
B. manage care D. half-way home
4. Physiologic readiness for children begins at what phases of life?
A. During intra uterine life
B. Young adulthood
C. Early childhood
D. Teen age years
5. What do you call a beginning of breast development?
A. Menarche C. Thelarche
B. Testorache D. Adrenarche
Situation 2 – The vision-mission of the Dept. of Health is health for all Filipino and
Filipino and ensure accessibility and quality health care.

6. Which of the following is the BASIC principle to achieve improvement in health?

A. Strengthen health care
B. Universal accees to health services
C. Support local health system
D. Develop national standard
7. The legal basis of the Primary Health Care is the signing of the legal papers after one
year of the conference in which country?
A. Alma Ata, Russia C. Frankfort, Germany
B. Paris, France D. Vienna, Austria
8. which of the following is not included in the components of the Primary Health
Care?
A. Environmental Situation
B. Support mechanism
C. Immunization
 D. Control of Communicable diseases
Comprehensive Test I

9. In the two levels pf primary health care, which one refers to he trained community
health worker?
A. Health care volunteer
B. Barangay Health Worker
C. Tertiary Caregiver
D. Intermediate Health Worker

10. Among the ten herbal plants advocated by the Dept. of Health, which of the
Following is recommended for asthma, cough and fever?
A. Niyug-Niyugan C. Yerba Buena
B. Lagundi D. Akapulko

Situation 3 – Health care are classified into categories. Nurses should

be cognizant of these categories to be able to render appropriate nursing
intervention.

11. Which of the following interventions are classified as primary care?

A. Screening patients for tubercolosis
B. Provision of direct nursing care to patients in the ward
C. Counseling newly married couples on appropriate family planning methods
D. Teaching diabetic patients how to self-inject
12. Which of the following can be classified under the secondary levels of care?
1. Assisting in an open heart surgery
2. Implementing Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) in Tubercolosis.
3. Attending to the delivery of a G2P1 mother.
4. Participate in the immunization campaign against polio
5. Doing active and passive exercise with a CVA patient or bed bath.
A. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 4 and 5
B. 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2 and 3
13. Applying sandbags against the sole of the feet of a stroke patient to prevent foot
Drop is an example of what level of care?
A. Primary care B. Secondary care
B. Psychological care C. Tertiary care
14. Establishing a nurse-client relationship with a medical patient is a example of which
what of the following level of care?
A. Tertiary care C. Secondary care
B. Psychological care D. Primary care
15. Which of the following nursing interventions are considered primary care?
1. Conducting mother’s class on how to bathe newborns.
2. Conducting group classes on Lamaze technique to couples.
3. Conducting group classes to diabetic patients.
4. Doing adolescent reproductive health counseling.
5. Doing health education classes on how to stop smoking.
 A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 4 and 5
Situation 4 – The nurses in the labor room monitors the fetal heart rate of a LCV client in
labor.

16. The nurse is aware that the normal fetal heart rate between contractions is
beats per minute.

A. 120 to 160 C. 130 to 170

B. 90 to 120 D. 100 to 110

COMPREHENSIVE TEST 1

17. The nurse is aware that nursing intervention is not needed in early deceleration, a
characteristic of which is:
A. FHR decreases but not below 100 beats per minute.
B. FHR decreases to 60 beats per minute.
C. Occurs during the relaxation phase.
D. FH decreases but not below 120 beats per minute.
18. When assessing the fetal heart rate and the nurse notes on irregularity, the nurse
should:
A. continue to monitor progress of labor
B. administer supplemental oxygen
C. call for immediate help immediately
D. place the client in a knee-chest position
19. The nurse auscultates the abdomen of the client to determine the location of the
fetal heart beat. If the fetal heart beat is in the right lower quadrant, which of the
following is most likely the presenting part?
A. Buttocks C. Shoulder
B. Feet D. Head
20. The nurse is aware that when the fetus is delivered, an Apgar score is taken based
on the nurse’s assessment of the newborn
A. heart rate, respiratory effort, reflex, irritability an color
B. heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex, irritability and color
C. heart rate, respiratory effort, temperature, color and muscle tone
D. heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone and sucking reflex.
Situation 5- Post partnum blues sometimes happen among women who recently gave
birth.

21. From research findings, the pregnant women who have tendencies to have post
Partnum blues are those in
A. high risk pregnancy C. infectious cases

B. cardiovascular ailments D. primigravida state

22. Post partnum blues usually happen within the
A. first week and lasts 5 to 10 days
 B. fourth week and lasts 10 to 15 days
C. second week and lasts 5 to 12 days
D. third week and lasts 4 to 8 days
23 Post partnum depression on the other hand, is more serious and lasts longer. The
nurse should know that cause comes from
A. unrecognized and untreated depression
B. missing meals habitually
C. disorganized behavior
D. inability to sleep for a long time
24. One promotive measure to avoid post partnum psychosis is having
A. collegial friends and classmates
B. good food and long hours of sleep
C. healthy and supportive family life
D. outing and recreation activities
25. Built feelings when not verbalized can be a factor in having which condition?
A. Depression C. Fear
B. Anxiety D. Anger
COMPREHENSIVE TEST 1

Situation 6 – Miss Janet, a school nurse, was invited to speak at a career talk for high
school students organized by the school. In the open forum; she was asked whether
nursing is a profession.

26. Which of the following BEST describes nursing as a profession?

A. It is highly paid especially in developed countries.
B. It is service oriented and a universal profession.
C. It is highly skilled and purely technical.
D. It has a culture of autonomy in decision-making especially in responding
to patient’s nursing problems.
27. When asked “how do you define nursing” Miss Janet quoted the statement “It is
assisting the individual sick or well in the performance of activities contributing to
health or recovery in a manner that will help the client gain independence”. Who
among the following is NOT an independent function of the school nurse?
A. Applying cold compress to a localized *hemiclome caused a fall.
B. Injecting quick acting pain reliever to a great severe dysmenorrhea.
C. Teaching a non teaching personnel with diabetes how to self-inject insulin.
D. Referring a grade one pupil with speech problem to speech a speech
therapist
29. One student in the convocation asked, “How can nurses prevent themselves from a
Malpractice suite”? Which of the following would be the BEST answer?
A. always ask your supervisor before doing anything for the patient.
B. Ask the watcher or relative to assist you in doing nursing care to patients.
C. Always observed teamwork.
D. Ensure competence through continuing professional education.
30. Which of the following is the main nursing function of a school nurse?
A. Develop programs to increase workers health and safety
 B. Provide a variety of health related services within a designated locality.
C. Provide health education and care for clients with non-emergency illnesses.
D. Teach clients and family to provide home nursing activities.

Situation 7 – Majority of the children’s time is spent watching television programs. This
phenomenon is observed in both the rural and urban areas.

31. What is an appropriate word to describe children who are television-exposed?

A. Interpersonal relationship lessened
B. Very interactive
C. Sleepy in classroom work
D. Sharp in vocabulary and expressions

COMPREHENSIVE TEST 1

32. What is the impact of television watching on the eyesight of children?

A. Early use of glasses
B. Double vision tendency
C. Blurring of vision early in life
D. Juvenile cataract
33. How should media exposure be made beneficial to children’s health and
Development?
A. Family and fully guided by parents
B. Well planned
C. Contemporary with western influence
D. Culturally attuned
34. What programs in the televisions should be incorporated to enhance family values
and solidarity?
A. Communication and trust family stints
B. Children training to become movie stars
C. Drama in family realities
D. Educational modules
35. Why do children get addicted easily to television and game shows?
A. Schools encouraged television shows
B. No family to come home to
C. Family recreational activities are absent
D. Multi-partner family style
Situation 8 – Teacher Cora Reyes lecture on personality development focuses on
interpersonal relationships and experiences as modes towards maturity.

36. The interpersonal Model of Personality is postulized by:

A. Sullivan C. Freud
B. Lazarus D. Erickson
37. In infancy, the tool or behavior used to establish contact with others is:
A. smiling C. crying
B. grimacing D. kicking
 38. During the juvenile period the tool used by the child to develop relationships with
Peers.
A. Competition C. Industry
B. Autonomy D. Independence

39. During early adolescence (ages 12 - 14)

A. Self-image C. Independence
B. Capacity for love D. Lasting sexual relationship
40. In Sulllivan’s model of personality development. The nurse-therapist takes the role
as:
A. active listener C. care provider
B. passive observer D. participant observer

Situation 9 – Problems of pregnant mothers are likely to come your way as you practice
nursing and many times you will need to counsel them in many aspects of care.

41. What is an effective basis to determine the root of any problem regarding pregnant
motherhood?
A. textbook reading
B. personal experience working with pregnant mothers
C. thorough history taking
D. research work
42. At what age range is a human sexuality identity biobehaviorally marked?
A. 3 - 18 C. 3 - 20
B. 2 - 15 D. 1 – 12
43. What does the nurse highlights when teaching human sexuality?
A. Sexual orientation of the male and the female
B. Gender role between a man and a woman
C. Masculinity of a man and a feminity of a female
D. Anatomical organ difference between a boy and a girl
44. The nurse can do much to enlighten and educate girls about menarche. What should
be the emphasis of nursing teaching to girls having this first experience of
menstruation?
A. Sexual reproductive health teaching
B. Appropriate advices for family planning methods
C. Preparation for early motherhood
D. Assessment for early pregnancy
45 What is the implication of girls who marry at a very young age?
A. not very responsible yet to act as mothers
B. will have longer sexual life
C. definitely will bear many children
D. surely will end in divorce

Situation 10 – A good attribute of a professional nurse is one who is cognizant of the

historical development of nursing sensitive. The important events of the past that have a
positive impact professionalization of nursing.
 46. The establishment of St. Thomas Hospital School of Nursing by nightingale
ushered in which of the following important period history of nursing.
E. Intuitive period C. Educative period
F. Apprentice period D. Contemporary period
47. Which of the following schools of nursing were first establish in the Philippines
with all their preparatory general education held at the Philippine Normal School?
1. Philippine General Hospital
2. St. Lukes Hospital
3. St. Paul Hospital
4. Mary Johnston Hospital
5. North General Hospital
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
48. Which of the following laws were enacted to directly regulate the practice of
nursing in the past years?
1. R.A. 7164
2. R.A. 4704
3. R.A. 877
4. R.A. 9173
5. R.A. 6511
A. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 4 and 5
49. The belief that professional nursing must be based in a university or college setting
is the basic foundation for which of the following established educational program
in nursing?
A. Graduate nurse program
B. Associate in Health Science Education Curriculum
C. Bachelor of Science in Nursing
D. Licensed Practical Nurse Program
50. The difference between the training of Florence Nightingale at Kaisserswerth
Hospital and the training at the St. Thomas Hospital which Florence Nightingale
established was most evident in which of the following?
A. Staff nurses acted as instructors
B. Adherence to strict admission policy
C. Dormitory quarters were on the hospital itself
D. Students did not pay tuition fees
Situation 11 – The nurse assist in the care of pregnant women admitted in the labor and
delivery unit of a maternity hospital.

51. A woman with uncomplicated pregnancy, full term and in early labor is admitted.
She thinks her water bag has broken. Which of the following actions by the nurse
would be MOST appropriate?
A. note the color, amount, and odor of the fluid
B. contact the physician immediately
C. prepare the woman for delivery
 D. collect the sample of the fluid for microbial analysis
52. A 36 weeks pregnant client is admitted to the unit with mild contractions. Which of
the following complications she will watch when the client informs her she has
placenta previa
A. Vaginal bleeding C. Emesis
B. Sudden rupture of membranes D. Fever
53. The nurse monitors a client in labor which does not progress. The physician after
out cephalo pelvic disproportion orders an administration of 1,000 ml normal saline
solution with oxytocin (pitocin) 10 U to run at 2 milliunits per minute. Two miliunits
per minute is equivalent to how many ml per minute?
A. 0.02 C. 2.0
B. 0.2 D. 0.002
54. The nurse monitors a client in labor receiving oxytocin (pitocin) to aid her progress.
The nurse observes that a contraction has remained strong for 60 seconds. Which of
the following actions should the nurse takes first?
A. Turn the client on her left side
B. Monitor fetal heart tones as usual
C. Stop the oxytocin infusion
D. Notify the physician
55. A woman is admitted in the labor room. During labor, the amniotic membranes
Ruptured. Meconium is present in the amniotic fluid. The nurse knows that the
presence of meconium in the automatic fluid is a normal finding in which of the
following situations?
A. Cephalopelvic disproportion
B. Preterm labor
C. Breech presentation
D. Prolonged latent phase

Situation 12 – The qualifications of the community health nurses in specific levels are
significant in relation to their functions and responsibilities.

56. The nurse supervisor in the provincial or city health office in order to develop
the nursing complement of the health plan must be Bachelor of Science in Nursing
with:
A. Masters degree in nursing with three (3) years experience
B. Doctoral degree in nursing with five (5) years experience
C. Masters degree in nursing or public health six (6) years experience
D. Masters degree in Public Health with five (5) years experience
57. The regional training nurse in order to discharge her functions and responsibilities
effectively must have one of these qualifications:
A. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing or public health and six (6) year
experience 50% of which is in training or education
B. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing and five (5) years nurse or
Instructor.
C. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing and three (3) years as community
health nurse or teaching community health nursing.
 D. BSN, RN with masters in public health and three (3) years in education.
58. As nurse instructor who implements the training program for nurses and midwives,
Which one of the following must be the qualification?
A. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing is public health, major in CHN
administration and supervision, five (5) years experience in CHN, two (2)
years of which is supervisory position.
B. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing and three (3) years teaching and
training in community health nursing
C. BSN, RN with masters degree in public health and three (3) years
experience in the fields.
D. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing three (3) years experience or
community health nurse and special training.
59. Mrs. Defensor is a regional nurse supervisor. What must be the her qualification?
A. BSN, RN with masters degree in nursing or public health, five (5) years
experience in community health nursing two (2) years of which is teaching
in a collage and major in supervision.
B. BSN, RN, masters degree in nursing in community health nursing, two (2)
years of which is supervisory position.
C. BSN, RN, masters degree in nursing or public health with six (6) years of
CHN experience three (3) years of which is in education.
D. BSN, RN, masters degree in nursing or public health , major in CHN
administration and supervision, five (5) years experience in CHN, two (2)
years of which is supervisory position.
60. The occupational health nurse is a registered nurse with training in occupational
health. Which of the following is her priority function and responsibilities?
A. Conducts studies/research
B. Developing a program for the employees and their families
C. Works closely with the health team
D. Prepares and submits reports
Situation 13 – The human behavior is not fully developed at birth and continues to
develop as the child grows and interacts with his environment.

61. The electrical and neural connections in the brain that enables the child to see, hear,
smell, touch, feel and think are called
A. Synapses C. Fissures
B. Electrodes D. Neurons
62. Studies have shown that brain development is hastened through the process of
A. racking C. sound environment
B. touching D. stimulation
63. Who plays the most important role in the childs brain development?
A. yaya C. father/mother
B. grandparents D. sibling
64. Visual activity that enhances formation of synapses in the brain include exposure to
1. music
2. colorful bath toys
3. animated faces
 4. tasty foods
A. 3 and 4 C. 2 only
B. 1 only D. 2 and 3
65. The most important factor that will ensure not only brain development but a
mentally healthy child in
A. medical care C. sound environment
B. parental love D. good nutrition
Situation 14 – A mother brings all three of her children ages 3 months old, 3 years old
and a 9-year old for routine physical check-up at a private children’s clinic, while waiting
for the physician. The mother relates some behaviors of her children to the nurse

66. The mother tells the nurse that her 3 – year old child always say no whenever the
child is always to do some task. Based on her knowledge of Erikson’s
developmental task, the burse could explain that it is a typical behavior for:
A. separation anxiety
B. sibling rivalry
C. the pursuit of autonomy
D. a need to expend excess energy
67. The mother expresses concern that her 9-years old does not play much in school.
The nurse explains that according to Erikson’s framework of psychological
development, play is a vehicle development which can help the child develop a
sense of:
A. initiative C. industry
B generativity D. intimacy
68. The nurse explains to the mother that according to Erikson’s theory of personality
Development, a child who is not allowed to function autonomously early in life
may in later life experience psychological crisis of:
A. guilt C. inferiority
B. mistrust D. shame and doubt
69. The mother tell the nurse about her 3-year old does not seem to know the
difference between right and wrong behavior. The nurse would explain that
according to Kohlberg’s level of moral development , this behavior is typical of
what level.
A. preconventional C. moralistic
B. autonomous D. ------------
70. The mother tells the nurse that her 9-year old child is starting to do things that
please others and generally manifests good behavior. This is characteristic of what
level of Kohlberg’s moral development?
A. preautonomous level C. conventional level
B. autonomous level D. preconventional level
Situation 15 – Key concepts involved in understanding emotional growth and
development of children

71. The age when the sex impulse emerge and change in physical body occurs
A. phallic C. adulthood
B. puberty D. latency
 72. This period provides the early conditions and experiences for development and
independence.
A. latency C. adulthood
B. pubery D. phallic
73. During the phallic phase the following is NOT initiated
A. shift of interest from home to outside love object
B. masculine and feminine identification
C. awareness of sexual differences
D. infantile masturbation
74. The negative attitude of parents towards infantile masturbation like threatening a
Boy with the loss of his penis may lead to
A. electra complex C. oedipal complex
B. inferiority complex D. castration complex
75. When a boy chooses a love and marriage partner who possesses personality traits
exactly that of her mother, this identification is called
A. oedipus attachment C. introjection
B. parental fixation D. symbolization
Situation 16 – The nurse has a strong advocacy role on behalf of the clients.

76. What does advocacy as a nursing responsibility include?

A. Health care educator
B. total assistance to empower clients
C. decision making counsel
D. human rights intercessor
77. In line with the advocacy, Patricia Benner, a nursing theorist, says that nursing is a
progressive caring relationship. This means that nurses grow from novice to expert.
Hence, they need to practice in what venue?
A. home environment C. clinical setting
B. classroom situation D. community immersion
78. Which of the following demonstrates best the advocacy role of the nurse?
A. mothering orphaned babies
B. guiding the old people by the hand
C. settling family feuds
D. allowing potentials of clients to develop

79. Why is maternal and child health nursing an important major nowadays?
A. childhood illnesses are on the rise
B. more mothers are working in foreign lands
C. babies are born every minute – increase in population daily
D. parents need to be educated in childrearing practices
80. Caring for mothers and children require that the nurse in his/her heart innately is,
A. skillful C. educated
B. competent D. compassionate
Situation 17 – A mother has given a birth to a baby whose feet resemble a bunch ginger
The neighbors said that when the mother was conceiving, she was fond of eating ginger
in her meals for nine months.
 81. What do you call the phenomenon?
A. fetal malformation
B. maternal impressions
C. congenital phalangeal anomaly
D. chromosomal alterations
82. What is the action of the ginger in the body when taken regularly and in
moderation?

A. digestant C. vitamin supplement

B. stimulant D. dieuretic
83. In terms of mixing ginger with meal preparation, which food group of cooks rely
heavily on ginger as a cooking ingredient to promote healthy, palatable eating of
the dish?
A. Japanese C. Mexicans
B. Filipinos D. Chinese
84. What should you remember about pregnancy and spicy foods?
A. spicy foods will make mothers develop hemorrhoids
B. spicy foods are taboo in pregnancy
C. 1st and 2nd trimesters are okay for spicy foods
D. moderation of spices should be observed in pregnancy
85. What is the practical nursing measure that a nurse can advice to a person who “lost
the voice” due to sore throat and fluish feeling?
A. burned calamansi fruit
B. gargle with salt and vinegar
C. take ginger in mouth as candy
D. chew beetle nut to enhance salivation
Situation 18 – The health status of country or community can now be assessed through
many indicators.

86. What is the most sensitive indicator to asses health status of a country at the
contemporary time?
A. infant mortality
B. paternal irresponsibility
C. adolescent delinquence
D. maternal morbidity
87. How does a nurse map out children’s health in any given country?
A. house to house census survey
B. contact Barangay health workers and read report
C. immersion and live in a community
D. read through news bulletin about health
88. Why are children and older persons prone to viral ailments?
A. both have similar fragility
B. basically they are the favorite victims of viruses
C. there immune systems are weak
D. they eat the same menu – soft diet
 89. What advice can you give to children and older persons in order to enhance their
resistance against easy prey ailments?
A. be happy, enjoy and play
B. eat, drink, relax and sleep well
C. wash hands very frequently
D. positive thinking have friends
90. When children do not brush their teeth after each meal, which of the fruits would
you advice them to eat in order to help prevent tooth decay?
A. pears C. mangoes
B. oranges D. grapes
Situation 19 – Bernadette is the Rural Health Nurse of Sitio Sta. Lucia who is respected
by the community. She has attended the Primary Health Care Seminar lately.

91. Which of the following is the concept of Primary Health Care?

A. Assurance of the health care system
B. partnership and empowerment of the people
C. support to local health system development
D. development of national standards for health
92. Which of the following is the goal the Primary Health Care?
A. universal access to health services
B. primary health care as a strategy
C. increased investment to health care
D. development for all Filipinos in 2020
93. Which of the following is the goal the Primary Health Care?
A. increased opportunities to strengthen health care system
B. mobilization of people to identify their needs.
C. reorganization and reorientation due to devulotion
D. development of sectoral linkages in all levels
94. Which of the following Primary Health Strategies refers with in cooperation with
local officials?
A. devolved authority due to Code of 1991.
B. referral to local government units
C. increased community participation
D. increased linkages with local sectors
95. Which of the following strategies could result to self reliance of the people in the
community?
A. community participation in terms of local and regional objectives.
B. emphasizing partnership not as giver and receiver status
C. organization of people for their own development
D. mobilization for people to identify their basic needs.
Situation 20 – We hear many cases of prostate abnormalities. There are means to promote
healthy prostate and the nurses are good in these.

96. What should a nurse emphasize among men who go to the comfort room to empty
bladder frequently?
A. regular physical examination
 B. lessen fluid intake
C. have a prostatic assessment by a urologist
D. avoid smoking and marijuana intake
97. What can you say about prostatic cancer as people talk about it now more openly
than in earlier time?
A. it is always benign, no need to worry
B. people with prostatic cancer die young
C. treatable when discovered at its early stage
D. easily spreads among executives and businessmans
98. How does one suspect that a man has a advancing state of his prostatic cancer?
A. frequent painful urination
B. has genitu-urinary discomforts
C. sudden loss of weight
D. irritable and hot tempered
99. Is surgery the recommended therapy for the cancer of the prostate. What does the
nurse say about this?
A. chemotherapy is one of the best choices of threat
B. radiation is effective for this condition
C. herbal medicines can treat cancer of the prostate well
D. Surgery is not indicated for all cancer of the prostate
100. What propels spread of prostatic cancer?
A. Fatique C. Depression
B. Worry D. Stress

***E N D***

INTEGRATED COMPREHENSIVE TEST IV

INSTRUCTION: select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

SITUATIONAL
 Situation 1 – With the nature of their work, nurses must always be aware that she can be a
carrier of infection and can endanger herself and clients because of their carelessness,
lack of prudence and deviation from the usual protocol.

3. Nosocomial infection is a common problem in most hospitals. Which one is the most
important and basic practice to prevent nosocomial infection?
A. Immunization of health care providers
B. All client with inflammatory condition should be confined in private room
C. Require prophylactic antibiotics for all pre-operative patients.
D. All health care providers wash their hands before and after care of clients.
4. To provide safe care to every tracheostomy patient, which of the following should you
observe?
A. Suction client every two hours.
B. Use gloves when providing any care
C. Clean ties daily with peroxide
D. Ensure that ties used to put the tracheostomy tube in place are secure but not
restrictive
5. Mrs. Samson, a staff nurse, has just announced that she is two (2) months pregnant. As
the head nurse is making an assignment for her. Which of the following assignments
should be AVOIDED?
A. A delirious patient with head injury
B. An HIV positive client
C. A child with bacterial pneumonia
D. A cancer patient who is receiving external radiation
6. Utilization of unusual precautions is required when handling or anticipating contacts with
blood and body fluid because of which of the following reasons?
A. HIV virus has been isolated in many body fluids and blood,semen, breasmilk,
cerebrospinal fluid and urine.
B. Blood maybe present in the body fluid being handled.
C. In an HIV positive client, blood comes into contact with an intact skin, the
health care provider will contact AIDS.
D. Blood or body fluid may splash into the health care provider’s open skin or
mucous membrane.
7. Being in the terminal stage, an AIDS client needed suctioning, When performing the task
you must utilize which of the following protective barrier inorder to exercise appropriate
universal precaution?
A. A mask and eye protector
B. A mask and a sterile gloves
C. Sterile gloves and eye protector
D. A mask, eye protector and a sterile gloves

Situation 2 – Asthma is a complex disorder of the bronchial airway characterized by

period of bronchospasm.

8. What is the severe life threatening complication of asthma?

A. Status asthmatocis
 B. Acute respiratory infection
C. Acute episode of brochospasm
D. Cor pulmonale
9. In assessment of respiratory status every hour, what should a nurse focus as a priority?
A. Breathing pattern C. Lung sounds
B. presence of wheezing D. vital signs
10. When arterial blood gasses are ordered, what is the role of the nurse?
A. Monitor thrachycardia/tremors
B. Monitor color and consistency of sputum
C. Reposition frequently
D. Monitor blood gasses
11. Upon discharge, the nurse must from instruction on all the following, EXCEPT;
A. Recurrent symptoms
B. Side effects of medication
C. Use of inhalers
D. Avoidance of social affairs
10. When asthmatic patient is allergic to pollen, mold, smoke, and food, this is
classified as
A. Intrinsic C. Periodic
B. Extrinsic D. episodic

Situation 3 – Bioethical issues confronting nurses usually involved birth and death
situation.

12. Active or positive euthanasia is a deliberate act to end a person’s life. Which of the
following is passive or negative?
A. Admisnistering a criminal substance to hasten death
B. Not doing CPR nor administering oxygen after a reported cardiac arrest
C. Removing life support system to alleviate prolonged suffering
D. Prescribing an agent that would result
13. One bioethical issue that has surfaced in the country lately in the case of organ transplant.
An organ, such as kidney, which is to be used a transplant, maybe removed from the
donor only.
A. Within 48 hours after death
B. When an EEG shows no evidence of brain activity
C. After respiration and pulse cease
D. Only after permission is obtained
14. Currently, there is a proposed bill to legalized abortion. Which of the following statement
about abortion is currently true?
A. Abortion is acceptable if done for therapeutic reason
B. Nurses are legally obliged to assist abortion
C. Abortion is legally permissible before the end of the bid month
D. Abortion is absolutely illegal in the Philippines
15. Which of the following factor have increased ethical decision-making problems for
nurses?
A. Changing religious views
 B. Changing technology
C. Changing moral standards
D. Changing career opprtunities
16. It is best for a nurse who’s personal philosophy is contradictory to birth control measures
to do which of the following?
A. Recognize the rights of other individuals not to hold the same beliefs as hers
B. Explain the personal belief prior to discussing birth control measures with the
client
C. Ask the client to consider her desire for birth control information
D. Request for another nurse to do birth control counseling
Situation 4 – Tita Flor is undergoing hemodialysis in a freestanding dialysis center. She is
45 years old with End Stage Rural Disease (ESRD)

17. When the patient ask what caused her renal problem. The nurse response is immediate
A. Renal caculi
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. High blood pressure
D. Sore throat infection
18. Tita Flor ask what food she could order to eat, the nurse reply is
A. Tuna sandwich C. Salad
B. Fruits D. Hamburger
19. When Tita Flor asks the nurse the purpose of the hemodialysis, the nurse replied?
A. “To correct fluid electrolyte imbalance”
B. “to change lab result”
C. “to clean your blood”
D. “to prepare for transplant”
20. When Tita Flor asks the nurse if she is dying, the nurse replied,
A. “god knows when”
B. “all of us will die”
C. “No, if you will always have dialysis”
D. “ask your doctor”
21. Which of the following should nurse teach family members to maintain well being at
home?
A. Prevention of infection
B. Proper nutrition
C. Adequate personal hygiene
D. Prevention of injury
Situation 5 – Mr. Diaz, 40 years old and a farmer, is admitted in the hospital with a
inflammation of the left foot. On admission, his BP is 140/90, the axillary temperature is
38.4 deg C and respiratory rate, 30.

22. Which of the following steps should nurse do when taking an axillary temperature?
A. Clean the axilla, with an alcohol wipe before inserting the thermometer.
B. Insert the thermometer in the axilla, then proceed with other nursing functions
and come back after 20 minutes
C. Leave the thermometer tip in place for 5 minutes.
 D. Fold the patients arm across his chest while the measurement is being taken for
at least 10 minutes.
23. With a BP of 140/90, which of the following figures is the pulse pressure of Mr. Diaz?
A. 90 C. 140
B. 50 D. 230
24. Using a blood pressure cuff that is too small for the patient’s arm can result in which of
the following errors?
A. A false high measurement
B. No significance difference in measurement
C. A false low measurement
D. The inability to obtain a measurement
25. In assessing Mr. Diaz pulse, the nurse can expect to find which of the following
observations?
A. Bradycardia C. An irregular rhythm
B. An increase pulse rate D. A dysarrythmia
26. Which of the following is the primary consideration in determining where to measure Mr.
Diaz temperature?
A. Privacy C. Convenience
B. Age D. Safety

Situation 6 – Billy, 42 years old was arrested for drunken driving, vagrancy and public
disturbance.

27. The principal pharmacologic effect of ethyl alcohol is to:

A. Stimulate the peripheral nervous system
B. Decrease the motility of the digestive tract
C. Increase the irritability of muscle fibers
D. Depress the central nervous system
28. An individual is considered intoxicated when blood conciliation level is:
A. 80 mg per 100 ml of blood
B. 150 mg per 100 ml of blood
C. 100 mg per 100 ml of blood
D. 200 mg per 100 ml of blood
29. It is likely that Billy developed alcoholism more than his drinking buddies because:
A. The pleasure he derives from drinking is higher than his friends
B. He has genetic tolerance to alcohol
C. His sensitivity to others pain is high
D. His metabolism is poor
30. Psychodynamically, Billy is apt to have a:
A. Weak ego and harsh superego
B. Weak ego and weak superego
C. Strong ego and strong superego
D. Strong ego and punitive superego
31. The chief aim of Billy’s rehabilitation should be to help him:
A. Feel completely independent and self-sufficient
B. Become independent on people rather than alocohol
 C. Give all alcohol and association with drinkers
D. Realized the pain he has caused his family
Situation 7 – The increase in the number of colleges of nursing in the country has a
danger of providing sufficient hospital, clinical experience proportionately to the number
of students enrolled in those schools. Because of this reality cheating and inventing of
cases and even of case numbers may happen.

32. If you are a nursing student in a hurry to finish the degree and you were obliged to invent
cases and case number, what is your professional and moral obligation to the Board of
Nursing?
A. Be silent about it, just keep quiet when interviewed
B. Feel lucky if not discovered it is just for formality
C. Be sorry for having succumbed to falsity, do not do it again
D. Talk about it, but work out to those cases in reality
33. Why do some students cheat?
A. It is a common thing to do, others do it to
B. Cheating is part of student’s life
C. Mentors are not strict enough to call our attention
D. It is a way of getting to success in life
34. What is the impact of dishonesty in the life of the nurse?
A. At the end of life, we shall be accountable for all 1
B. Nursing care is effective if nurse is honest and true
C. Dishonesty leads to series of dishonest works
D. It endangers the lives of people placed under your care
35. When do we start inculcating honesty and integrity in our life?
A. High school years C. Grade school years
B. Infancy D. Childhood
36. What is the best method to teach honesty and integrity?
A. Camaraderie sharings and outing learning
B. Lectures in classroom and clinical areas
C. Through example and analogies of cases
D. Family life and consistent presence of role

Situation 8 – Mang Daniel, 55 years old, is admitted to the hospital for colonic CA. he
appears to be anxious and with low morale when told that he is a candidate for operation.

37. To promote an increase sense of self-esteem, the nurse would select activities that would
provide Mang Daniel an opportunity to which of the following?
A. Concentrate on a work project
B. Compete with others
C. Help others in learning new skills
D. Succeed at a task
38. Mang Daniel’s roommate has had an ostomy. Mang Daniel showed interest to know
about it. An important part of ostomy teaching concerns the client’s ability to cope with
change in body image. Which of the following should the nurse do during sessions with
Mang Daniel?
 A. Reassure the client that they will feel better about things soon and postpone
teaching for next day.
B. Openly discuss his/her own difficulties in caring for ostomies.
C. Discourage discussion about feelings of distress having an ostomy
D. Allow client to vent their feelings of distress and continue teaching
39. Which of the following is a major psychosocial factor associated with most of chronic
illness like cancer?
A. Mood swings
B. Uncertainty of the illness
C. Fear of pain
D. Loss of employment
40. Which of the following facts about anxiety should the nurse remember when teaching a
severely anxious client like Mang Daniel?
A. It will reduce breathing
B. It will decrease heartbeat
C. It is treated with valium
D. It will inhibit learning
41. On the day of operation, the nurse observes that Mang Daniel can only perceive details, is
unable to focus in questions asked and cannot follow direction. He complains headache
and dizziness. Based the data what anxiety level most likely is Mang Daniel
experiencing?
A. Mild C. Severe
B. Panic D. Moderate

Situation 9 – Child molestation is a worldwide occurrence. Cielo asks how she can
protect her children from being victimized.

42. Research studies shows evidence that the number of children under 18 years of age who
experienced child abuse is:
A. No difference among boys and girls
B. More in girls than boys
C. Equal number in both sexes
D. More in boys than girls
43. The reason why children fall prey especially sexual molestation is:
A. Laxity of parents C. Apathetic society
B. Pornographic materials D. Ignorance of the child
44. This statement is TRUE of child molesters
A. All child molesters are no-aggressive
B. All child molesters are the same
C. All child molesters are pedophiles
D. All child molesters are motivated by a wide variety influences
45. What can parent do to ensure safety of their children?
A. Always have someone accompany your children
B. Teach children to say “NO” to older persons
C. Shield children from bad company
D. Do not allow children to watch bad television
46. One of the best ways a child is taught is to ask help from is:
A. School C. Police precint
B. Parish D. Bantay Bata at call 163

Situation 10 – One of the hardest things to rehabilitate is a culprit who has no sense of
repentance for the wrong act. The following questions detail the role of the nurse in
initiating moves towards rehabilitation.
47. Sweenyo, 51 years old, shows off the large sums of money he gains from his private duty
nursing
A. This act shows of his insecurity
B. He does not live in reality
C. He is dreaming
D. He has become a slave to his fantasy
48. A complaint ha been filed, stating that Sweenyo is a swindler. Why is that some
professionals swindle?
A. Poverty drives one to do evil
B. It is a fad, so attractive to follow and imitate
C. Excessive mundane to have beyond capacity to earn
D. Product of dysfunctional family origin
49. When doing rehabilitative care, what is the sign that there is hope for improvement?
A. Quiet attitude prefers to be alone
B. Culprit accepts faults, feels sorry tremendously
C. Shows some leadership movements with others
D. Follows what is being asked, but does not initiate work
50. How can a nurse encourage people to be truthful and accept the realities of oneself?
A. By lecturing and sharing about truth telling
B. Emphatic counseling with those tendencies to tell lies
C. Through role modeling
D. Emotive confrontational techniques
51. What attitude of the nurse hastens or facilitates acceptance of one’s fault?
A. Honesty in intention and in action
B. Non-threatening and non-judgmental approach
C. Accepting the culprit with open arms
D. A compassionate caring concern
Situation 11 – The nurse manager of a health care facility performs management
functions.

52. In selection of nursing personnel, what steps are taken by the nurse manager?
1. Screening
2. Recruitment
3. Orienttation
4. Interview
5. Staff development
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 2, 3, 1, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
53. The nurse-manager encourages the staff to participate in the decision making process of
the health care facility and practice assistance to the staff to enhance their clinical
competences. Nurse manager is functioning effectively as an;
A. Manager C. Autocrat
B. Supervisor D. Leader
54. The nurse-manager practices the principle of delegation. Which of the following tasks
can the nurse-manager appropriately delegate?
A. Deciding in salary increases for nursing aids
B. Scheduling ward and shift assignments of staff nurses for the next months
C. Terminating the services o a staff nurse for negligence
D. Designating a staff nurse to initiate disciplinary action against a colleague
55. The nurse-manager would behave appropriately as an authoritarian leader in which
situation?
A. Scheduling vacation time of staff
B. Conducting a nursing audit
C. Evaluating new admission procedures of clients
D. Directing activities of the staff----------------***
56. The nurse-manager participates in budgeting. Which items are included in the personnel
budget?
A. Potential salary increases overtime payment and other benefits for staff.
B. Computers to be installed in the nurses station for use to staff.
C. Medicines and wound dressing supplies
D. Office supplies and equipment

Situation 12 – Headnurses are expected to demonstrate administrative and managerial

competence in the operation of their respective units.

57. Which of the following is the headnurse MOST important communication skill as a
manager?
A. Assertiveness C. Questioning
B. Affirmation D. Listening
58. You have just been promoted as a headnurse at the start of the month. You came from
another unit before this new promotion. Which of the following is BEST for you to do?
A. Project an image of authority by sounding firm and knowledgeable
B. Delegate responsibilities to staff nurse according to their abilities
C. To get the cooperation of the team leader, assign her the best schedule
D. Seek the advice of a close friend in another unit
59. Which of the following is, OFTENTIMES, a major managerial responsibility of the
headnurse?
A. Join the doctors during their grounds
B. Set a standard of performance among the staff nurses
C. Provide bedside nursing care to critical patients
D. See to it that the ward is clean and orderly
60. In evaluating staff performance, which of the following expected of a new headnurse?
A. Give a good evaluation initially so you can get the staff cooperation
B. Give the nurse average scores to make room for improvement
 C. Perform an outcome evaluation
D. Evaluate the nurse performance as objectively as possible.
61. When interviewing an applicant for staff nurse position, which of the following question
is most appropriate to ask in order to get an idea of the applicants competence?
A. When did you take up your B.S.N?
B. Do you plan to go abroad?
C. What was your last nursing experience?
D. Are you willing to work overtime?
Situation 13 – You are made to conduct a research on profiling a caring dean who is at the
same time a manager of people. The following questions pertain to the characteristics of
what a dean should be as borne out by the research you made.

62. To conduct a research on the characteristics and formation of caring deans, what would
be your blue print of activities?
A. Establish a resource map including it’s framework
B. Plan a retinue of desirable characteristics
C. Observe at large the actualities and behavior of deans
D. Frame up the appropriate research questions
63. What would be the appropriate design of study that will capture the characteristics of
caring deans?
A. Comparative observation C. Ethnographic studies
B. Qualitative descriptive D. Checklist analytical
64. To elicit the characteristics, what would be the best hope of tool to construct for this
particular study?
A. Observation with on the spot interviews
B. Thematic frames
C. Itemized questionnaire checklist
D. Structured interview with endnotes
65. When you have gathered the data, how will data be analyzed?
A. Thematic description
B. Combining both in triangulation
C. Qualitatively in description
D. Quantitatively in significant interpretation
66. How will you create an impact of your findings?
A. Publication nationwide
B. Giving results to all institutions and deans
C. Media broadcast and radio lanes
D. Sharing of findings through organized form and seminars
Situation 14 – Cancer can occur at any age. The cells proliferate in excess proportion not
related to physiological demand.

67. The risk of getting cancer maybe affected by a combination of multiple factor. The risk of
social characteristic is the finding that
A. Asians are less prone
B. Black people are more prone
C. Filipinos are less prone
 D. White people are more prone
68. Health habits which are contributory to getting cancer is getting high. One of these,
A. Exercise C. Diet
B. Rest and sleep D. Smoking
69. Cancer prevention is a program which nurse has a great contribution opportunity. This is
a campaign for
A. Self-examination C. Case finding
B. Early detection D. Referrals
70. In palliative, a supportive care to cancer patients, the nurse as a member of the health
team is competent to render
A. Alternative approach C. Support system
B. Holistic care D. Spiritual care
71. Which of the following is the lead agency in the DOH Palliative Care of Cancer Patients
(PCCP) program?
A. Home Care Management
B. Hospice Care Program
C. Philippine Cancer Society
D. Home Care Approach

Situation 15 – The nurse is working with a 26 years old man, RJ diagnosed with anti-
social personality disorder. He has been in and out of the courts for the last ten years.

72. RJ demandingly called the nurse “can you give me some medication so I can go back to
work?” “the response of the nurse:
A. The medication has much side effects
B. You don’t want to take medication do you?
C. Medication is given only as last resort.
D. There is no medication specific for your condition
73. In planning ca re for RJ, the nurse realizes that this patient will most likely
A. Not require medication
B. Resist any change in behavior
C. Not need long-term therapy
D. Require anti-anxiety medication
74. Which of the statements below is NOT true of persons like RJ
A. Maternal deprivation is not an important element in anti-social personality
disorder
B. Mental status examination is normal
C. There is evidence of genetic predisposition to antisocial personality disorder
D. Environmental factors contribute to the risk of anti-social personality disorder
75. With short-term hospitalization, the nurse can initiate the therapeutic process by:
A. Setting firm limits
B. Isolating him from other patients
C. Not allowing parental visits
D. Being nice and friendly
76. It is important to discuss with RJ’s parent to continue Group Therapy after discharge for
what purposes?
 A. To change his lifestyle
B. To develop socially appropriate behavioral response
C. To free him from litigation court
D. To enable hi to accept his wrong doings

Situation 16 – Meeting the nutritional needs and maintaining well-balanced diet are
important concerns of nurses in the care of client with various disorders.

77. Which of the following dietary regimen is best recommended for post-cholecystectomy
patient?
A. Low fat, high carbohydrate, low salt
B. Low fat, high carbohydrate, high protein
C. High fat, low protein, high residue
D. High protein, low carbohydrate, low fat
78. Which of the following menus is appropriate for a client in a low sodium diet?
A. Ham and chicken sandwich, fresh fruit, coffee
B. Canned soup, green salad, diet coke
C. Fresh fruit, iced tea, corned beef
D. Fish fillet, green salad, tea
79. Which of the following menus is MOST appropriate for a client on a low cholesterol
diet?
A. Broiled shrimps, broccoli, diet soda, banana
B. Baked potato, fried chicken wing, fruit, coffee
C. Chicken salad sandwich, milk, sponge cake
D. Baked potato, broiled fish, fresh fruit, tea
80. Patient hospitalized for acute glumerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome is about to be
discharge. Health instruction for the client best include, which of the following diet?
A. High sodium, high protein
B. Low sodium, low protein
C. High sodium, low protein
D. Low sodium, low protein
81. In counseling a young mother on the first solid food to be introduced to her 6 month old
child, which of the following foods is best recommended
A. Rice cereal C. Soft-boiled egg
B. Pureed chicken D. Banana

Situation 17 – You have just been assigned to a pilot ward where problem oriented record
system (PORS) has been used for 3 months. You have learned that a nursing audit will be
conducted the following week.

82. Problem Oriented Record System (PORS) focuses on which of the following?
A. Current issues and problems concerning health progression
B. Systematic approach using the S.O.A.P charting
C. Decantation of recurrent problems in the unit or anecdotal report
D. Nursing used when dealing with clients problems.
83. In problem oriented record system, the progress considered to be which of the following?
 A. It is written in narrative form using separate forms for doctors and nurses to
accomplish.
B. It is the mechanisms for providing on going assessment of the client
C. It is less critical than the flow chart and data base form
D. It is accomplished by the doctor-in-charge or resident on duty.
84. In establishing data base for your clients, which of the following nursing activities is
NOT considered in the problem oriented record system
A. Reviewing laboratory results
B. Interviewing the attending physician
C. Doing physical assessment
D. Getting the health history
85. When eliciting a health history from your client, you can gather information by
A. Using how and why questions.
B. Utilizing probing questions
C. Using questions answerable by yes or no
D. Using open ended question
86. A nursing audit is a tool to ensure quality assurance, which statement below describes the
BEST concept of quality assurance?
A. Refers to the accountability of the health profession for the quality, quantity and
cost of health services provided.
B. A method for comparing results of actual nursing person once established
standards
C. A mechanism used to evaluate nursing services
D. It is the core component of nursing process
Situation 18 – Miss Tupaz was for discharged in the afternoon. In the morning, the nurse
applied hot water bag directly on the swollen part of the thigh. When she removed the
bag after 15 minutes, she said that the patient’s skin was burned.

87. Which of the following can the nurse be charge by the patient?
A. Defamation C. Assault
B. Tort D. Malpractice
87. A malpractice suit is justifiable for which of the following order of the fact?
1. Presence of 1st degree burn
2. Breach of procedure in the hot water bag application
3. The cause of the burn is the direct application of hot water bag
4. Lack of concern
A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3, and 1 D. 2, 1, and 3
88. If the nurse is found guilty of negligence, her PRC license can either be revoked or
suspended. Which of the following reasons are not INCLUDED in the grounds for
suspension from practice?
A. Not physically fit
B. Malpractice
C. Unprofessional conduct
D. Use of fraud or deceit in obtaining a license.
89. The investigative action of the board in the light of Miss Tupaz case is an example of
what type of Board’s function?
A. Legislative C. Ministerial
B. Executive D. Quasi-judicial
90. Miss Tupaz can be guilty of negligence by virtue of which of the following principles?
A. Individual accountability
B. Command responsibility
C. Res Ipsa loquitor
D. Administrative jurisdiction

Situation 19 – The nurse works in a rehabilitation center for drug dependents.

91. In caring for an adolescent with suspected narcotic heroine overdose, the nurse would
monitor the adolescent for what signs?
A. Drowsiness
B. Constricted pupils and respiratory depression
C. Euphoria
D. Aggressive behavior
92. Which of the following nursing interventions would receive the lowest priority for the
client for the client with an overdose of heroin?
A. Prepare for cardio-pulmonary resuscitation
B. Monitor vital signs
C. Discuss treatment options
D. Monitor breathing patterns
93. The nurse is aware that drug abuse is best defined as:
A. A compulsion to take a drug on either a continous or periodic basis
B. A psychologic dependence on a drug
C. A physiologic need for a drug
D. An excessive drug use inconsistent with acceptable medical practice
94. The nurse understand that hard drugs cause dependence because of the drugs ability to:
A. Decrease motor activity C. Clear sensorium
B. Ease pain D. Blur reality
95. The nurse would expect an addicted clients basic personality to be marked by insecurity
and:
A. Weak id drives
B. The use of psychosomatic mechanisms
C. The need to delay gratification
D. Infantile passion for self-grantification

Situation 20 – A 30 year old male fell from tall building while doing construction work.
He is conscious and apparently alert but could not move his arm and legs.

96. When planning to move a person with possible spinal cord injury, the primary concern
would be;
A. Cushion the back with pillows to ensure comfort
B. Move the person gently to help reduce pain
 C. Immobilize the head and neck to prevent further injury
D. Wrap and support the extremities which can be injured easily
97. The client is brought to the hospital. On assessment by the physician. The client suffered
a C7 spinal cord injury. Which of the following would be the most important nursing
intervention during the acute stage of the client’s care?
A. Turning and repositioning every 2 hours
B. Maintaining a patient airway
C. Maintaining proper alignment
D. Monitoring vital signs
98. A part of the client’s care regimen are passive range-of-motion exercises for the legs and
assisted range of motion exercises for the arms. Which observation by the nurse would
indicate that the treatment is effective?
A. Absence of fissure ischemia over bony prominences
B. Absence of paralytic footdrop
C. Free, easy movements of the joints
D. External rotation of the hips at rest
99. The fracture is surgically repaired. As soon as healing take place, daily physical therapy
sessions are scheduled. A tilt table. After the therapist places the client on a 45 degree
angle, the nurse should monitor him for which of the following?
A. Hypertension C. Pedal edema
B. Dizziness D. Facial flushing
100.After a month of therapy, the client begins to experience muscle spasms in his legs,
which of the following statements is ACCURATE?
A. Indicate that the damaged nerves are healing
B. Occur from muscle reflexes, they cannot be initiated or controlled by the brain.
C. Means that eventually, the client will be able to walk again because the damage
is not permanent.
D. Is a good sign therefore the client should keep on trying to move all the affected
muscles.