UT Level I

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At a glance
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The key takeaways are that ultrasonic testing is used to detect flaws and discontinuities in materials. It involves transmitting high frequency sound waves into a part and analyzing the echoes to determine if defects are present. Main components include transducers, pulsers, receivers and displays. Factors like frequency, couplant selection, transducer type and material properties affect wave transmission and reception.

Ultrasonic testing is used to detect internal flaws, cracks or inclusions in materials. It is a non-destructive testing method that can inspect parts without damaging them. This allows components to be inspected periodically to monitor for degradation or damage over time.

The main components of an ultrasonic testing system are the transducer, pulser, receiver and display. The transducer converts electrical pulses to ultrasonic waves and vice versa. The pulser generates high voltage pulses to the transducer. The receiver amplifies echoes and the display presents the data for analysis.

Ultrasonic ASNT Level I

1. The indication on the instrument display that represents the far boundary of the material being tested is
called:
A. Hash
B. The initial pause
C. The main bang
D. The back surface reflection

2. In immersion testing, the position of the transducer is often varied to transmit sound into the test part
at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to as:
A. Angulation
B. Dispersion
C. Reflection testing
D. Refraction

3. The cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the transducer is specially designed so that one
conductor is centered inside another. The technical name for such a cable is:
A. BX cable
B. Conduit
C. Coaxial cable
D. Ultrasonic conductor cable-grade 20

4. The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:
A. Angulation
B. Calibration
C. Attenuation
D. Correlation

5. Another name for a compressional wave is:
A. Lamb wave
B. Shear wave
C. Longitudinal wave
D. Transverse wave

6. Another name for Rayleigh wave is:
A. Shear waves
B. Longitudinal waves
C. Transverse waves
D. Surface waves

7. A material used between the face of a transducer and the test surface to permit or improve the
transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the transducer to the material being tested is called:
A. A wetting agent
B. A couplant
C. An acoustic transmitter
D. A lubricant

8. The piezoelectric material in a transducer that vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called a:
A. Backing material
B. Lucite wedge
C. Crystal
D. Couplant

9. Ultrasonic testing of material where the transducer is in direct contact with the material being tested
may be:
A. Straight beam testing
B. Surface wave testing
C. Angle beam testing
D. All of the above

10. An advantage of using lithium sulfate in transducers is that it:
A. Is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
B. Is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
C. Is insoluble
D. Can withstand temperatures as high as 700 degrees C (1260 degrees F)



11. The transducer shown in Figure 1 is used for:
A. Surface wave testing
B. Angle beam testing
C. Immersion testing
D. Straight beam testing

12. The transducer that contains the thinnest piezoelectric crystal is a:
A. 1 MHz transducer
B. 5 MHz transducer
C. 15 MHz transducer
D. 25 MHz transducer

13. A 25 MHz transducer would most likely be used during:
A. Straight beam contact testing
B. Immersion testing
C. Angle beam contact testing
D. Surface wave contact testing


14. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on the:
A. Type of test
B. Tightness of crystal backing in the transducer
C. Frequency and crystal size
D. Pulse length

15. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle a
new angle of sound travel take place in the second material due to:
A. Attenuation
B. Rarefaction
C. Compression
D. Refraction

NOTE: Using Figure 2, answer questions 16 through 20


16. Figure 2 illustrates a contact test on a 203 mm (8 in) aluminum block. A discontinuity is located 152 mm
(6 in) from the front surface. The display representation for this is shown to the right. What does
indication A represent?
A. The initial pulse or front surface indication
B. The first discontinuity indication
C. The firs back surface reflection
D. None of the above

17. In Figure 2, indication B represents:
A. The initial pulse or front surface indication
B. The first discontinuity indication
C. The firs back surface reflection
D. None of the above




18. In Figure 2, indication C represents the:
A. Second back surface reflection
B. Firs discontinuity indication
C. Second discontinuity indication
D. First back surface reflection

19. In Figure 2, indication D represents the:
A. First discontinuity indication
B. Second indication of the discontinuity
C. First back surface reflection
D. Second back surface reflection

20. In Figure 2, indication E represents the:
A. First discontinuity indication
B. Second discontinuity indication
C. First back surface reflection
D. Second back surface reflection

21. The velocity of surface waves is approximately _________ the velocity of shear waves in the same
material.
A. Two times
B. Four times
C.
D. 9/10

NOTE: Using Figure 3, answer questions 22 through 26



22. Figure 2 illustrates an immersion test of a 76 mm (3 in) block of aluminum with a discontinuity located
51 mm (2 in) below the surface. The display pattern is shown also. What does indication A represent?
Assume no sweep delay is used.
A. The first front surface indication
B. The initial pulse
C. The first discontinuity indication
D. The firs back surface reflection



23. In Figure 3, indication B represents the:
A. First front surface indication
B. Initial pulse
C. First back surface reflection
D. First discontinuity reflection

24. In Figure 3, indication C represents the:
A. First front surface indication
B. Initial pulse
C. First back surface reflection
D. First discontinuity reflection

25. In Figure 3, indication D represents the:
A. First discontinuity indication
B. First back surface reflection
C. Second front surface indication
D. Second discontinuity indication

26. In Figure 3, the distance between indications A and B represents:
A. The distance from the front surface of the aluminum block to the discontinuity
B. The distance from the font surface of the aluminum block to the back surface of the aluminum block
C. The water distance from the transducer to the aluminum block
D. None of the above

27. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the best resolving power?
A. 1 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz
D. 25 MHz

28. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the greatest amount of
sound attenuation over a given distance?
A. A hand forging
B. A coarse-grained casting
C. An extrusion
D. The attenuation is equal in all materials.

29. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:
A. The initial pulse
B. The back reflection
C. The skip distance
D. The scan path

30. An ultrasonic instrument display pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often
referred to as hash) could be caused by:
A. A crack
B. A large inclusion
C. Coarse-grained material
D. A gas pocket

31. A test method employing two separate transducers on opposite surfaces of the material being tested is
called:
A. Contact testing
B. Surface wave testing
C. Through-transmission testing
D. Lamb wave testing

32. The number of complete waves that pass a given point in a give period of time (usually 1 s) is referred to
as the:
A. Amplitude of a wave motion
B. Pulse length of a wave motion
C. Frequency of a wave motion
D. Wavelength of a wave motion

33. The boundary between two different materials that are in contact with each other is called:
A. A rarefactor
B. A refractor
C. An interface
D. A marker

34. When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the wave being
transmitted is called a:
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Shear wave
C. Surface wave
D. Lamb wave

35. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave
being transmitted is called a:
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Shear wave
C. Surface wave
D. Lamb wave

36. 25 million cycles per second can also be stated as:
A. 25 kHz
B. 2500 kHz
C. 25MHz
D. 25 Hz

37. Moving a transducer over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred to as:
A. Scanning
B. Attenuating
C. Angulating
D. Resonating





38. A term used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which sound waves pass through various substances is:
A. Frequency
B. Velocity
C. Wavelength
D. Pulse length

39. When a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on
the display of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its:
A. Distance amplitude height
B. Absorption level
C. Vertical level
D. Limit of resolution

40. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer elements is not parallel to the test surface is
called:
A. Angle beam testing
B. Immersion testing
C. Contact testing
D. Through-transmission testing

NOTE: Using Figure 4, answer questions 41 through 43



41. In Figure 4, angle 1 (01) is called:
A. The angle of incidence
B. The angle of reflection
C. The angle of refraction
D. None of the above

42. In Figure 4, angle 2 (02) is called:
A. The angle of incidence
B. The angle of reflection
C. The angle of refraction
D. None of the above


43. In Figure 4, angle 3 (03) is called:
A. The angle of incidence
B. The angle of reflection
C. The angle of refraction
D. None of the above

44. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:
A. 1 and 25 kHz
B. 1 and 1000kHz
C. 0.2 and 25MHz
D. 15 and 100 MHz

45. In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents:
A. The amount of reflected ultrasonic sound energy
B. The distance traveled by the transducer
C. The elapsed time or distance
D. None of the above

46. In an A-scan presentation the amplitude of vertical indications on the display represents the:
A. Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the transducer
B. Distance traveled by the transducer
C. Thickness of material being tested
D. Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

47. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration in a 30 cm (12 in)
thick specimen of coarse-grained steel?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2.25 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10 MHz

48. In a basic ultrasonic test pattern (A-scan) for contact testing (assuming no sweep delay is used), the
initial pulse:
A. Is the high indication on the extreme left side of the display that represents the entry surface of the
inspected part
B. Is the first pulse that occurs near the right side of the display and represents the opposite boundary
of the inspected part
C. Is an indication that appears and disappears during screening
D. Is always the second pulse from the left on the viewing display

49. An ultrasonic test using straight beam contact transducer is being conducted through the thickness of a
flat part such as a plate. This test should detect:
A. Laminar-type flaws with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface
B. Transverse-type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the rolled surface
C. Radial flaws with major dimensions along length but radially oriented to the rolled surface
D. None of the above



50. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the part surface is
necessary because:
A. Lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface
B. An air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost completely reflect
the ultrasonic vibrations
C. The crystal will not vibrate if placed directly in contact with the surface of the part being inspected
D. The liquid is necessary to compete the electrical circuit in the transducer

51. Entry surface resolution is a characteristic of an ultrasonic testing system which defines its ability to:
A. Detect discontinuities oriented in a direction parallel to the ultrasonic beam
B. Detect discontinuities located in the center of a forging containing a fine metallurgic structure
C. Detect minute surface scratches
D. Detect discontinuities located just beneath the entry surface in the part being tested

52. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to angulate the transducer
with a discontinuity is located in order to:
A. Avoid a large number of back reflections that could interfere with a normal test pattern
B. Obtain a maximum response if the discontinuity is not originally oriented perpendicular to the
ultrasonic beam
C. Obtain the maximum number of entry surface reflections
D. Obtain a discontinuity indication of the same height as the indication from the flat bottom hole in a
reference block

53. All other factors being equal, the mode of vibration that has the greatest velocity is the:
A. Shear wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Surface wave
D. Longitudinal wave

54. On the area amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat bottom holes in the blocks are:
A. All of the same diameter
B. Different in diameter, increasing by 0.4 mm (0.016 in) increments from the No. 1 block to the No.
8 block
C. Largest in the No. 1 block and the smallest in the No. 8 block
D. Drilled to different depths from the front surface of the test block

55. In immersion testing, verification that the transducer is normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by:
A. Maximum reflection from the entry surface
B. Elimination of water maniples
C. Proper wavelength
D. Maximum amplitude of the initial pulse

56. A piezoelectric material can:
A. Convert a longitudinal beam to a shear wave
B. Convert an mechanical energy to electrical energy
C. Create ionization in a test specimen
D. Produce sound waves in a coaxial cable



57. Sound waves of frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred to as ultrasonic
waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of frequency greater than
approximately:
A. 2 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 20,000 Hz
D. 2 MHz

58. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on:
A. The pulse length
B. The angle of incidence
C. The material, material thickness, and UT frequency (time between signals on the display)
D. None of the above

59. A disadvantage of using natural quartz in a transducer is that:
A. It will dissolve in water
B. It is the least effective generator of ultrasonic energy of all commonly used materials
C. It is mechanically and electrically unstable
D. It easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages

60. An advantage of using a ceramic transducer in transducers is that it:
A. Is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
B. Is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
C. Has a very low mechanical impedance
D. Can withstand temperatures as high as 700 degrees C (1260 degrees F)

61. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to:
A. Aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflections
B. Obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument
C. Obtain a common reproducible signal
D. None of the above

62. When testing by the surface wave method, patches of oil or dirt on the surface may:
A. Block the progress of all sound
B. Attenuate the sound
C. Have no effect on the test
D. Cause both an attenuation of sound and indications on the screen

63. In immersion testing, the most commonly used couplant is:
A. Water
B. Oil
C. Glycerine
D. Alcohol

64. The piezoelectric material in the transducer:
A. Converts electrical energy into sound
B. Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
C. Eliminates the signal-to-noise energy
D. Produces high speed electrons in metals

65. The shortest wavelength pulse is produced by a frequency of:
A. 1 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz
D. 25 MHz

66. The angle of incidence is:
A. Greater than the angle of reflection
B. Less than the angle of reflection
C. Equal to the angle of reflection
D. Not related to the angle of reflection

67. On many ultrasonic testing instruments, an operator conducting an immersion test can remove that
portion of the display presentation that represents water distance by adjusting a:
A. Pulse length control
B. Reject control
C. Sweep delay control
D. Sweep length control

68. 100,000 cycles per second can be written:
A. 0.1 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 100 kHz
D. 100 MHz



69. Figure 5 is an illustration of a typical:
A. A-scan presentation
B. B- scan presentation
C. C- scan presentation
D. D- scan presentation



70. Figure 6 is an illustration of a typical:
A. A- scan presentation
B. B- scan presentation
C. C- scan presentation
D. D- scan presentation



71. Figure 7 is an illustration of a typical:
A. A-scan presentation
B. B- scan presentation
C. C- scan presentation
D. D- scan presentation

72. A transducer with a frequency greater than 10 MHz will most likely be used during:
A. A straight beam contact test of aluminum ingot
B. An angle beam contact test of a steel pipe
C. A surface wave contact test of a metallic plate
D. An immersion test

73. The reference holes in standard aluminum area amplitude ultrasonic test blocks contain:
A. Flat bottom holes
B. Concave-surface holes
C. Convex-surface holes
D. Conical-shaped holes



74. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material is referred to as:
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Reproducibility
D. Attenuation

75. A term used to describe a numerous small indications on the instrument display resulting from test part
structure, numerous small discontinuities, or both is often referred to as:
A. Multiple back reflections
B. Multiple front reflections
C. Hash
D. Resonance

76. When testing a plate, increasing the frequency of an ultrasonic longitudinal wave results in:
A. An increase in its velocity
B. A Decrease in its velocity
C. No change in its velocity
D. A reversal in its velocity

77. Ultrasonic waves transmitted into and received from the test material in the form of repetitive burst of
acoustic energy is called:
A. Pulse echo testing
B. Continuous wave testing
C. Resonance testing
D. None of the above

78. Metal blocks, which contain one or more drilled holes to simulate discontinuities, are called:
A. Scrubbers
B. Crystal collimators
C. Single plane angulators
D. Reference blocks

79. If the major dimensions of a discontinuity in a 152 mm (6 in) thick aluminum plate lie parallel to the
entry surface at a depth of 76 mm (3 in), it will be best detected by:
A. A straight beam test
B. An angle beam test
C. A surface test
D. A lamb wave test

80. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a specific discontinuity indication on the
Instrument display when using the:
A. Straight beam testing method
B. Surface wave testing method
C. Angle beam testing method
D. Through-transmission testing method





81. The depth of a discontinuity cannot be determined when using the:
A. Straight beam testing method
B. Through-transmission testing method
C. Angle beam testing method
D. Immersion testing method

82. When inspecting coarse-grained material, a sound wave is most easily scattered by the grain structure
by a frequency of:
A. 1 MHz
B. 2.25 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10 MHz

83. The thickest crystal is contained in:
A. A 1 MHz transducer
B. A 5 MHz transducer
C. A 15 MHz transducer
D. A 25 MHz transducer

84. When performing a surface wave test, indications may result from:
A. Improper frequency
B. Oil on the surface
C. A surface discontinuity
D. The acoustical velocity of aluminum

85. Which of the following discontinuities located 152 mm (6 in) from the entry surface results in the largest
display indication if all factors except discontinuity surface condition and orientation are the same?
A. A 2 mm (0.08 in) diameter flat-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is at an angle of 75 degrees
from the direction of sound beam propagation
B. A 2 mm (0.08 in) diameter rough-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is at an angle of 75
degrees from the direction of sound beam propagation
C. A 2 mm (0.08 in) diameter flat-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is perpendicular to the
direction of sound beam propagation
D. A 2 mm (0.08 in) diameter rough-surfaced discontinuity whose major face is parallel to the direction
of sound beam propagation

86. Transducers constructed with a plastic wedge or standoff between the transducer element and the test
piece are commonly used for:
A. Angle beam contact testing
B. Immersion testing
C. To eliminate the need for a couplant
D. To reduce the speed of electrons

87. A transducer containing three or more individual transducer elements is often referred to as:
A. A dual transducer
B. A sandwich transducer
C. A mosaic transducer
D. None of the above


88. Sound can be focused by means of special curved adapters located in front or the transducer element.
These adapters are referred to as:
A. Scrubbers
B. Acoustic lenses
C. Angle beam adapters
D. Single plane adapters

89. A test method in which the parts to be inspected are placed in a water bath or some other liquid
couplant is called:
A. Contact testing
B. Immersion testing
C. Surface wave testing
D. Through-transmission testing

90. A separate time base line imposed on the viewing display of some ultrasonic testing instruments that
permits measurement of distances is often referred to as:
A. An initial pulse
B. A time/distance line
C. A marker
D. A sweep line

91. A term used to describe the ability of an ultrasonic testing system to distinguish between the entry
surface response and the response of discontinuities near the entry surface is:
A. Sensitivity
B. Penetration
C. Segregation
D. Resolution

92. The phenomenon whereby an ultrasonic wave changes direction when the wave crosses a boundary
between materials with different velocities is called:
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Penetration
D. Rarefaction

93. In a test where the transducer is not perpendicular to the inspection surface, the angle of incidence is
equal to:
A. The angle of refraction
B. The angle of reflection
C. The shear wave angle
D. Half the shear wave angle

94. The product of the acoustic velocity of sound in a material and the density of the material is the factor
that determines the amount of reflection or transmission of ultrasonic energy when it reaches and
interface. This term is called
A. Acoustic impedance
B. Velocity
C. Wavelength
D. Penetration



95. In transmitting energy into the part shown in Figure 8, the ultrasonic beam will:
A. Diverge (spread out) through the part
B. Converge (focus in to a point) though the part
C. Transmit straight through the part
D. Not enter the part

96. Ultrasonic waves that travel along the surface of a material and whose particle motion is elliptical are
called:
A. Shear waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Longitudinal waves
D. Rayleigh waves

97. The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the:
A. Fresnel zone
B. Acoustic impedance
C. Exponential field
D. Phasing zone

98. When the incident angle is chosen to be between the first and second critical angles, the ultrasonic
wave mode within the part will be a:
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Shear wave
C. Surface wave
D. Lamb wave

99. The formula used to calculate the angle of refraction within a material is called:
A. Fresnels law
B. Fraunhofers law
C. Snells law
D. Lambs law



100. In a material with a given velocity, when frequency is increased, the wavelength will:
A. Not be affected
B. Increased
C. Decreased
D. Double

101. Circuits that electronically amplify return signals from the receiving transducer and often modify
the signals into a form suitable for display called:
A. Pulser circuits
B. Marker circuits
C. Timer circuits
D. Receiver-amplified circuits

102. The most common type of data display used for ultrasonic examination of weld is:
A. An A-scan display
B. A B-scan display
C. A C-scan display
D. An X-Y plot

103. The display that plots signal amplitude versus time is called:
A. An A-scan display
B. A B-scan display
C. A C-scan display
D. None of the above

104. A circuit that modifies the return signal from the receiving transducer into a form suitable for
display on an oscilloscope or other output device is called a:
A. Pulser
B. Receiver-amplifier
C. Clock
D. Sweep

105. A circuit that generates a burst alternating voltage that is applied to the sending transducer is
called a:
A. Pulser
B. Receiver-amplifier
C. Damping
D. Clock

106. A circuit that coordinates electronic operation of the entire ultrasonic instrument system is
called:
A. Damping
B. A receiver-amplifier
C. A clock
D. A power supply





107. A plan view display or recording of a part under examination is called:
A. A C-scan presentation
B. An A-scan presentation
C. An X-axis plot
D. A strip chart recording

108. Ultrasonic data, which is presented in a form representative of the cross section of the test
specimen, is called:
A. An A=scan presentation
B. A B-scan presentation
C. A C-scan presentation
D. An X-Y plot

109. What type of ultrasonic examination uses wheel-type transducers that eliminate the use of a
tank?
A. Through-transmission testing
B. Contact testing
C. Resonance testing
D. Immersion testing

110. In addition to other functions, a transducer manipulator in a mechanical immersion-scanning
unit permits:
A. Use of the through-transmission technique
B. Use of high scanning speeds
C. Detection of obliquely-oriented discontinuities
D. Utilization of less skilled operators

111. A type of data presentation most likely to be used with a high speed automatic scanning system
is:
A. An A-scan presentation
B. A velocity versus amplitude plot
C. A C-scan presentation
D. A plot of echo height versus depth

112. The component in a conventional immersion system that spans the width of the immersion tank
is called:
A. An articulator
B. A bridge
C. A manipulator
D. A search tube

113. The component in an ultrasonic immersion system that is used to adjust and maintain a known
transducer angle is called:
A. A carriage
B. A manipulator
C. A search tube
D. An index system



114. An amplitude type gate is necessary for all:
A. Shear wave examinations
B. Longitudinal wave examinations
C. Automatic examinations
D. Manual examinations

115. When a C-scan recording is used to produce a permanent record of an ultrasonic test, the
information displayed is typically the discontinuitys:
A. Depth and size
B. Depth, orientation, and size
C. Location and depth
D. Location and size (plan view)

116. Rough entry surface conditions can result in:
A. A loss of echo amplitude from discontinuities
B. An increase in the width of the front surface echo
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

117. As the grain size increases in a material, its principal effect in ultrasonic testing is on the:
A. Velocity of sound
B. Attenuation
C. Acoustic impedance
D. Angle of refraction

118. In straight beam pulse echo testing, a discontinuity with a rough reflecting surface perpendicular
to the incident wave has what effect on the detected signal in comparison to the smooth flat
bottom hole of the same size?
A. It increases the detected signal
B. It decreases the detected signal
C. It has no effect on the detected signal
D. It decreases the width of the pulse of the detected signal

119. Ultrasonic vibrations can be propagated only in the longitudinal mode in:
A. Machine oil
B. Aluminum
C. Ice
D. Beryllium

120. If the velocity of a longitudinal mode wave in a given homogeneous material is 0.625 cm/ns at
13mm (0.5 in) below the surface, what is the velocity at 51 mm (2 in) below the surface?
A. the velocity at 13 mm (0.5 in)
B. the velocity at 13 mm (0.5 in)
C. The same as the velocity at 13 mm (0.5 in)
D. None of the above




121. If a 5 MHz transducer is substituted for a 2.25 MHz transducer, the effect on the wavelength of a
longitudinal mode wave produced in the test specimen is that:
A. The wavelength would be longer
B. The wavelength would remain constant
C. The wavelength would be shorter
D. The wavelength would vary directly with the acoustic impedance

122. What can cause nonrelevant indications on the cathode ray tube?
A. Contoured surface
B. Edge effects
C. Surface conditions
D. All of the above

123. The proper interpretation and evaluation of the presented defect signals are essential to any
nondestructive test. A common method for the estimation of defect size is the use of:
A. A double transducer test
B. A piezoelectric standard
C. Mode conversion
D. A reference standard

124. Another name for Fresnel zone is
A. Fraunhofer zone
B. Near field
C. Far field
D. Torrid zone

125. Attenuation is a:
A. Test display characteristic
B. Test material parameter
C. Transducer characteristic
D. Form of testing

126. For discontinuity geometries other than flat, the eco amplitude is usually __________ from that
observed for a flat defect, of similar orientation perpendicular to the sound beams.
A. Identical
B. Increased
C. Decreased
D. Elongated

127. To evaluate discontinuities that are oriented at an angle to the entry surface so that the sound
beam strikes the plane of the discontinuity at right angles, the operator must:
A. Change the frequency
B. Grind the surface
C. Angulate the transducer
D. Increase the gain





128. The pulser circuit in an ultrasonic instrument is used to:
A. Control the horizontal and vertical sweep
B. Activate the transducer
C. Control transducer timing between transmit and sweep
D. Generate markers that appear on horizontal sweep

129. An A-scan display, which sows a signal both above and below the sweep line, is called:
A. A video display
B. A RF display
C. An audio display
D. A frequency modulated display

130. A B-scan display shows the relative:
A. Distance a discontinuity is from the transducer and its through-dimension thickness
B. Distance a discontinuity is from the transducer and its length in the direction of transducer
travel
C. Cross sectional area of a discontinuity above a predetermined amplitude
D. None of the above

131. Surface (Rayleigh) waves traveling on the top face of a block:
A. Are not reflected from a sharp edge corner
B. Are reflected from a sharp edge corner
C. Travel through the sharp edge corner and are reflected from the lower edge
D. Are absorbed by a sharp edge corner

132. Surface (Rayleigh) waves are more highly attenuated by:
A. A curved surface
B. A heavy couplant
C. A thin couplant
D. Both A and B

133. The velocity of sound in a material is dependent upon the:
A. Frequency of the wave
B. Wavelength
C. Material properties
D. Vibration cycle

134. To vary or change the wavelength of sound being used to test a part, change the:
A. Sound wave frequency
B. Diameter of the transducer
C. Electrical pulse voltage
D. Pulse repetition rate

135. Ultrasonic vibrations are commonly used to:
A. Examine materials for discontinuities
B. Examine materials for thickness
C. Examine materials for mechanical properties
D. All of the above


136. Which of the following has the longest Fresnel zone?
A. 13 mm (0.5 in) diameter 1 MHz
B. 13 mm (0.5 in) diameter 2025 MHz
C. 28.5 mm (1.125 in) diameter 1 MHz
D. 38 mm (1.5 in) diameter 2 MHz

137. When contact testing, if the ultrasonic instrument is set with an excessively high pulse repetition
frequency:
A. The screen trace becomes too light to see
B. The time-base line becomes distorted
C. The initial pulse disappears
D. Interference of UT signals and undesirable fluctuations in signal amplitude result

138. The advantages of immersion testing include:
A. Increased inspection speed
B. The ability to control and direct sound beams
C. Adaptability for automated scanning
D. All of the above

139. Longitudinal wave velocity in water is approximately the velocity in aluminum or steel.
Therefore, the minimum water path should be:
A. Four times the test piece thickness
B. the test piece thickness
C. the test piece thickness plus 6 mm (0.25 in)
D. None of the above

140. In immersion testing, a wetting agent is added to the water to:
A. Adjust the viscosity
B. Help eliminate the formation of air bubbles
C. Prevent cloudiness
D. None of the above

141. The formula used to determine the fundamental resonant frequency is:
A. F=V/T
B. F=V/2T
C. F=T/V
D. F=VT

142. If frequency is increased, wavelength:
A. Decreases (becomes shorter)
B. Increases (becomes longer)
C. Remain the same but velocity increases
D. Remains the same but velocity decreases

143. The variable in distance amplitude calibration block construction is the:
A. Drilled hole size
B. Drilled hole point angle
C. Metal distance above the drilled hole
D. Angle of the drilled hole to block longitudinal axis

144. When setting up a distance amplitude correction curve using 3 flat bottom holes, sometimes the
hole closest to the transducer gives less of the response than one or both of the other two. This
could be caused by:
A. A hole that is too large
B. Near field effects
C. Impedance mismatch
D. The acoustic velocity

145. Most ferrous and nonferrous welds may be ultrasonically tested using a frequency range of:
A. 25-100 kHz
B. 200-500 kHz
C. 1-2.25 MHz
D. 3-6 MHz
E. 10-20 MHz

146. The product of the material density and the velocity of sound within that material is referred to
as:
A. Acoustic impedance
B. Near field
C. Acoustic attenuation
D. Ultrasonic beam distribution
E. Vibrational index

147. A straight beam contact transducer consists of:
A. A case, a crystal, a mount, and backing
B. A case, a crystal, a mount, backing, and a plastic wedge
C. A case, a crystal, a mount, backing, and acoustic lenses
D. A case, a crystal, a mount, backing, a plastic wedge, and acoustic lenses

148. In immersion testing, to remove the second water reflection from between the entry surface
signal and the first reflection, you should:
A. Increase the repetition rate
B. Decrease the frequency
C. Decrease the sweep length
D. Increase the water path

149. For a given incident angle, as the frequency of the transducer increases, the refracted angle:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Cannot be determined

150. Both longitudinal and shear wave may be simultaneously generated in a second medium when
the angle of incidence is:
A. Between normal and the first critical angle
B. Between the first and second critical angles
C. Past the second critical angle
D. Only the second critical angle


151. In immersion testing, when the sound beam strikes a concave surface, the sound beam tends to:
A. Converge
B. Diverge
C. Stay the same
D. Mode convert

152. Penetration of ultrasonic waves in a material is normally the function of test frequency used.
The greatest depth of penetration is provided by a frequency of:
A. 1 MHz
B. 2.25 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10 MHz

153. Generally speaking, certain piezoelectric materials exhibit better properties than others. The
following material that is considered to the most efficient receiver of ultrasonic energy is:
A. Quartz
B. Ceramic
C. Barium titanate
D. Lithium sulfate

154. Refracted energy assumes a new direction of propagation when the ___________is changed
A. Principle angle
B. Reflected angle
C. Critical angle
D. Incident angle

155. The loss of energy as it propagates through material is the result of beam:
A. Interference
B. Attenuation
C. Absorption
D. Reflection

156. In selecting a suitable couplant, which of the following characteristics would not affect the
selection?
A. Mode of propagation desired
B. Material surface finish and temperature
C. Operating frequency of the transducer
D. Chemical properties of the couplant

157. Excessive surface roughness of the material being tested can cause:
A. A loss of echo amplitude from discontinuities within the material
B. Impedance mismatch
C. Increased acoustic velocity
D. Increased back surface response

158. Reference or calibration standards are used for:
A. Determining phase shift analysis
B. Providing a method of standardizing the test system
C. Determining tensile strength
D. Measuring vibrations
159. The change in direction of an ultrasonic beam when it passes from one material to another
material in which elasticity and density differ is called:
A. Refraction
B. Rarefaction
C. Angulation
D. Reflection

160. If a discontinuity is oriented at an angle other than 90 degrees to the sound beam, the results
may be a:
A. Loss of signal linearity
B. Loss or lack of signal reflected from the discontinuity
C. Focusing of the sound beam
D. Loss of interference phenomena

161. A device that transforms electrical pulses into mechanical and vice versa utilizes:
A. Snells law
B. Piezoelectric principles
C. Mode conversion principles
D. None of the above

162. Whenever an ultrasonic incident angle is set at 5 degrees from normal:
A. The refracted wave is mode converted
B. The refracted wave is the same mode as the incident wave
C. The refracted wave has two components, one of which will be the same mode as the incident
wave
D. It is impossible to determine mode(s) of refracted wave without more information

163. If a discontinuity is located in the Fresnel or near field region of a sound beam:
A. The larger the discontinuity, the larger the amplitude of the reflected signal
B. The closer to the surface the discontinuity is located, the larger will be the amplitude of
reflected signal
C. In immersion testing, the amplitude of signal increases as the water path decreases
D. In immersion testing, the amplitude of reflected signal may increase or decrease s water path
decreases

164. If a transducer is vibrating at a frequency and injecting ultrasonic energy through water into a
steel specimen:
A. The sound wavelength is the same in both the water and the steel
B. The sound frequency in the water is less than the wound frequency in steel
C. The sound wavelength is not the same in both the water and the steel
D. The sound frequency in the water is greater than the sound frequency in steel











165. When a longitudinal sound wave strikes a water-steel interface at an angle of 15 degrees,
(See Figure 9)
A. All the sound energy is reflected back into the water at an angle of 15 degrees
B. Part of the sound energy is reflected at 15 degrees and part is refracted into the steel at an
angle of less than 15 degrees
C. Part of the sound energy is reflected at 15 degrees and part is refracted along the water-steel
interface
D. Part of the sound energy is reflected at 15 degrees and part is refracted into the steel at an
angle greater than 15 degrees














Ultrasonic ASNT Level I
Answer Key
1. D 43. C 85. C 127. C
2. A 44. C 86. A 128. B
3. C 45. C 87. C 129. B
4. B 46. A 88. B 130. B
5. C 47. A 89. B 131. B
6. D 48. A 90. C 132. B
7. B 49. A 91. D 133. C
8. C 50. B 92. A 134. A
9. D 51. D 93. B 135. D
10. B 52. B 94. A 136. D
11. D 53. D 95. A 137. D
12. D 54. B 96. D 138. D
13. B 55. A 97. A 139. C
14. C 56. B 98. B 140. B
15. D 57. C 99. C 141. B
16. A 58. D 100. C 142. A
17. B 59. B 101. D 143. C
18. D 60. A 102. A 144. B
19. B 61. C 103. A 145. C
20. D 62. D 104. B 146. A
21. D 63. A 105. A 147. A
22. B 64. B 106. D 148. D
23. A 65. D 107. A 149. C
24. B 66. C 108. B 150. A
25. B 67. C 109. D 151. A
26. C 68. C 110. C 152. A
27. D 69. A 111. C 153. D
28. B 70. C 112. B 154. D
29. A 71. B 113. B 155. B
30. C 72. D 114. C 156. C
31. C 73. A 115. D 157. A
32. C 74. D 116. C 158. B
33. C 75. C 117. B 159. A
34. A 76. C 118. B 160. B
35. B 77. A 119. A 161. B
36. C 78. D 120. C 162. C
37. A 79. A 121. C 163. D
38. B 80. D 122. D 164. C
39. C 81. B 123. D 165. D
40. A 82. D 124. B
41. A 83. A 125. B
42. B 84. C 126. C

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