Umat Practice Test 2 PDF
Umat Practice Test 2 PDF
TM
Practice Test 2
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INTRODUCTION
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UMAT is a test of general reasoning ability and is designed to provide a measure of your aptitude for the study of
medicine and the health professions.
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The purpose of UMAT is to assess the general skills and abilities developed over the course of your education
and life experience that are considered by the universities to be important to the study and practice of medicine
and the health sciences. To operate most effectively in these career areas graduates will need to be flexible; to
have good thinking skills (critical and analytical); to be able to respond quickly to new situations and problems;
and to have a well developed ability to understand and respond to patients needs and individual situations. For
these reasons UMAT has been developed as a test that is not based on learned academic curriculum or study of
particular subjects, but as a test of your response to stimuli that will not necessarily be familiar. UMAT is designed
to complement academic achievement and to give universities a more rounded picture of applicants to assist them
in selection decisions. Most UMAT user universities also require shortlisted applicants to attend an interview.
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UMAT is not based on any curriculum or subject areas; therefore you do not need any special knowledge. Intensive
preparation is not advisable or necessary, although wide and critical reading may provide helpful preparation for
Sections 1 and 2. However, as with any test, some practice in answering questions of a similar type, and under
similar time constraints as those found in the real test, is helpful and reassuring to most candidates. It is also helpful
to practise using a machine-readable answer sheet similar to the one in the actual test.
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UMAT is divided into three separately timed Sections designed to measure ability in the following areas:
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Questions in this Section are based on a brief text or piece of information presented graphically. In the test there
are 44 questions to be answered in 65 minutes. For each question you are to decide which of the four options given
is the correct answer, based only on the information given. The questions assess your ability to comprehend,
draw logical conclusions, reach solutions by identifying relevant facts, evaluate information, pinpoint additional or
missing information, and generate and test plausible hypotheses.
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Section 2 assesses the ability to understand and reason about people. Questions are based on a scenario, dialogue
or other text representing specific interpersonal situations. The questions will assess your ability to identify,
understand, and, where necessary, infer the thoughts, feelings, behaviour and/or intentions of the people represented
in the situations. In the test there are 40 questions to be answered in 50 minutes.
Section 3 Non-verbal Reasoning
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Questions in this Section may be of several kinds. All are based on patterns or sequences of shapes and are
designed to assess your ability to reason in the abstract and solve problems in non-verbal contexts. In the test there
are 38 questions to be answered in 50 minutes.
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All UMAT questions are in multiple choice format. This means that each question has four or five possible
responses, from which you are to select the one answer you think is correct or best. There is only one correct
response.
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In addition to gaining familiarity with actual UMAT questions, working through the UMAT Practice Test will
help you in building your general test-taking skills. It will help you to:
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Part of your preparation for UMAT is to develop a confident attitude. This will also help you in controlling any
pre-test nerves and give you the best chance of doing well.
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Be prepared
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Focus on positive thoughts about the test, not negative ones. Be aware that although the topic or subject matter
may be new to you, the questions will not depend on any knowledge of the particular subject matter or information
provided in the stimulus material. UMAT questions are designed to assess your ability to respond to new and
unknown situations and problems, and to use the skills you have built up over the whole span of your life and
education. You should keep in mind that questions are not based on any particular subject knowledge that you
might bring to the test. Questions are based solely on the information contained in the stimulus material, and
success depends on your ability to use your skills of reasoning and problem solving to reach a solution. So, even
if the topic of a question is new to you, this should not affect your ability to apply your general skills to find the
answer.
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Most importantly, you should read the UMAT Information Booklet thoroughly as it contains all the essential
information you need to take the test and interpret your results. It is also a good idea to consult the UMAT webpage
at http://umat.acer.edu.au from time to time, for information updates and answers to frequently asked questions.
how long the test takes (how much time allowed for each Section);
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the rules you will be expected to follow during the test; and
the type and number of questions in each Section.
Make sure you know the practical details.
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your test centre address and reporting time allowed (on the Admission Ticket);
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Allow yourself plenty of time to get to the test centre. This is particularly important if you are taking the test in
one of the major capital cities (especially Melbourne and Sydney) which attract very large numbers of candidates.
Traffic congestion is likely around the entrance to the test centre. Avoid arriving at the test centre feeling flustered
or anxious.
Do not forget to eat breakfast and, depending on the reporting time at your designated centre, you may wish to eat
a small snack before you go into the test room. You will not be allowed to take any food or drink, other than bottled
water, into the test room.
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Remember that the test will take 2 hours, plus time for all candidates to be seated and instructions to be read. You
should expect to be at the test centre for 4 to 4 hours in total.
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Take a moment to settle in and focus on the task ahead; use the waiting time to consciously relax.
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Read the written instructions on the front cover of your test book.
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Take note of the finishing time of each test Section as it is announced. Finishing times will be written up on the
whiteboard at the front of the room. (Remember that each Section is separately timed and you are not allowed to
move to another Section until instructed to do so.)
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Once you have been told to begin work on a Section, scan through the whole Section first to familiarise yourself
with the kinds and number of questions.
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Note where on the answer sheet you must record your answers to the questions in this Section.
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When you are ready to begin, read each piece of stimulus material and its related question/s carefully before
selecting your preferred answer. Be aware that there is only one correct response to each question.
You may find it helpful to underline key information on the test book.
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Start from the beginning, but do not spend too much time on any question you are finding difficult. You may
choose to skip such questions and come back to them later to reconsider. If you decide to skip a question, it
would be a good idea to mark it in the test book so you can check it later. (Do not put any stray marks on your
machine-readable answer sheet.) If you skip a question you should also make sure all subsequent answers are
placed against the correct question number on the answer sheet.
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Remember that if you mark two responses to any question it will be considered wrong. If you decide to change
an answer, make sure to erase it completely before filling in your new choice on the answer sheet.
Keep track of the time and try to pace yourself evenly through the Section.
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If possible allow a few minutes at the end of the Section to review and check over your answers.
(The supervisor will announce when there are 10 minutes remaining.)
Answer as many questions as possible. (Remember that marks are not deducted for wrong answers.)
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Never mark your answers in the test book with the intention of transferring them to the answer sheet later.
Answers should be recorded directly onto the answer sheet. Transferring answers from the test book to the
answer sheet wastes time, and there is the chance of not leaving sufficient time at the end of the Section to
complete the transfer.
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UMAT Practice Test is made up of previously used UMAT questions selected to provide examples of the kinds and
style of questions you will find in the test. The UMAT Practice Test is equivalent to a full test and you are advised
to allow yourself the following times to complete each Section:
165 minutes
44 questions
40 questions
38 questions
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Section 1
Section 2
Section 3
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Tear out the answer sheet at the end of this book and mark your answers on this as you would in the real test. Do
not look at the correct answers given on the final page until you have completed all three Sections.
When answering a question,
eliminate responses you know are wrong.
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read all response options carefully, even if you think you know the answer.
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if none of the alternatives given seems to be correct, re-read the question and try to work out what you have
missed. There is always one correct choice.
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Practice Test 2
Test time: 165 minutes
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44 questions
65 minutes
Section 2
40 questions
50 minutes
Section 3
38 questions
50 minutes
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Section 1
Mark the one answer you think is best for each question.
I ncorrect answers, unanswered questions and questions for which more than one answer has been marked
are given a score of zero.
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If you decide to change an answer, erase it completely and mark your new answer clearly.
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Section 1
Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving
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SECTION 1
Questions 1 44
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For each question, decide which answer is correct based only on the information given.
Question 1
In the Mohs scale for the hardness of minerals, a mineral will scratch only
those below it on the scale (i.e. those with a higher number will scratch any
with a lower number).
Human fingernail has a hardness of about 2.5.
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The mineral acerite scratches fingernail, but does not scratch orthoclase.
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Question 2
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DIAMOND
CORUNDUM
TOPAZ
QUARTZ
ORTHOCLASE
APATITE
FLUORITE
CALCITE
GYPSUM
TALC
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A
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Early in 1998, fires destroyed 30 000 square kilometres of forest an area the size of Belgium in Borneo. This
is almost six times the extent of previous official estimates, and is bigger than the area burnt on the island during
the previous years more heavily publicised fires.
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estimates of the size of the 1997 fires originally put them at almost six times the size of Belgium.
at the beginning of 1998 fires started the previous year were still burning underground.
the fires in 1997 appear to have started from burning operations in palm-oil plantations.
an early estimate of the area damaged by fire in Borneo in 1998 was about one-sixth the area
of Belgium.
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The 1998 fires appear to have spread from palm-oil plantations and raged despite a large fire-fighting effort by
the authorities. They lasted from late January to May, when heavy rains extinguished most of them. Some coal
seams and peat bogs are still burning underground.
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Section 1
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Question 3
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Inhabitants of Nuristan speak a variety of languages and dialects. The Siah Posh, or Black-robed Kafirs, inhabit
the north and east. They speak different dialects of Bashguli, and all apparently understand one another. In
the centre and the south live the Safed Posh, or White-robed Kafirs. Two of their three tribes, the Wai and the
Parun, speak different languages that are mutually unintelligible, and unintelligible to all of the Siah Posh. The
exception to this is one small group of the Wai, who speak a dialect containing elements of Bashguli and Parun.
It is not clear whether the third tribe of the Safed Posh the Ashkun can understand, or be understood by,
speakers of any of the other languages.
Question 4
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Plants are not defenceless against attack. Harmful micro-organism intruders can set off responses in a plant that
will protect it against further damage. How do plants recognise and deal with harmful intruders? Scientists have
discovered in cotton hundreds of proteins (known as resistance proteins) involved in this defence. One part of a
molecule of such a protein recognises particular intruders as being harmful. The other part sends a message to
cell nuclei, which then trigger a variety of responses.
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The hypersensitive response involves the production and release of substances toxic to intruding
micro-organisms.
Phytoalexins are manufactured to attack harmful micro-organisms that have previously been
recognised by a resistance protein.
In one response to intruding micro-organisms, plants use chitin and glucan to strengthen their cell
walls against further invasion, or to prevent the escape of micro-organisms already present.
All of the possible responses by plants to intrusion by harmful micro-organisms involve
the self-destruction of plant cells in their immediate vicinity.
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One response, known as the hypersensitive response, is the self-destruction of cells, which often prevents the
further spread of an intruder. Another, more subtle, response is the production of antimicrobial compounds called
phytoalexins, which are toxic to the intruder concerned. A third response is the production of proteins, such as
chitinase and glucanase, that attack the cell walls of intruders, such as fungi. (The cell walls of fungi contain
chitin and glucan.) Finally, plant cells may strengthen their own walls, impeding further entry of the harmful
intruder, and trapping those intruders already present in the cells. These cells will then self-destruct.
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Section 1
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Question 5
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Trial number
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injected with
hydrocortisone
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Which of the following is most strongly supported by the results of the experiment?
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Question 6
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It is likely that either ACTH increases the level of arousal in response to stimuli or hydrocortisone
decreases it.
It is likely that hydrocortisone increases the level of arousal in response to stimuli, regardless of any
effect it may have on ACTH.
The longer rats are exposed to harmless noise, the less they respond.
It is likely that ACTH decreases the level of arousal in response to stimuli.
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Level of
response
(arbitrary
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Animals repeatedly subjected to harmless stimuli often learn to stop responding to them a process known as
habituation. Two groups of rats put through ten trials initially responded vigorously to loud noises made in their
vicinity. The rats in one of the groups had been injected with hydrocortisone, which is known to prevent the
secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Average responses of the groups are shown in the graph.
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Of the following, these findings would least support the conclusion that
a high level of cortisol causes people to wake early.
the fear of waking late raises cortisol levels.
waking early causes high cortisol levels.
waking late increases cortisol levels.
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In a study carried out in London, saliva samples were taken from volunteers every hour throughout the day from
the time they awoke. It was found that the amount of cortisol, a hormone associated with high stress levels,
was significantly higher in each sample taken from the volunteers who woke early (before 7:30 am) than in the
samples of those who woke late (after this time). The volunteers had been free to wake at a time that they liked
and all had slept for similar numbers of hours.
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Section 1
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Question 7
Question 8
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On the island of Blamania, two-thirds of the males are married to three-quarters of the females.
Each marriage is between two people only, one male with one female.
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It follows that
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Question 9
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most sleep disorders are not the result of chemical imbalances in an infants brain.
behavioural therapy reduces the symptoms, but not the causes, of sleep disorders in infants.
medication is always more effective than behavioural therapy in treating infants sleep disorders.
behavioural therapy does not alter chemical imbalances in the brains of infants with some sleep
disorders.
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Infants with sleep disorders are often treated with behavioural therapies. However, some sleep disorders result
from chemical imbalances affecting the brain that can only be treated with medication that will reduce or correct
the imbalance.
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Consider the following diagram concerning the languages spoken by the worlds population.
20 most spoken
languages
total 6060 languages
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approximately 45% of the worlds languages have more than 10 000 speakers.
approximately 45% of the worlds languages have fewer than 10 000 speakers.
the 20 most spoken languages are spoken by more than 99.7% of the worlds population.
the percentage of all languages with more than 10 000 speakers is approximately the same as
the percentage of all people who speak those languages.
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Section 1
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Question 10
This graph shows the age differences for all couples who married during 1997.
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same age
bridegroom older
bride older
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Which one of the following statements applies to the ages of the couples who married in 1997?
More than 80% of the bridegrooms were older than their brides.
For about 78% of all couples, the partners were not of the same age.
There was an age difference of three years for about 11% of all couples.
For the majority of couples, there was an age difference of more than four years.
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Question 11
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Drinking wine appears to decrease the risk of coronary heart disease. The antioxidant hypothesis suggests that
this is due to certain substances that are found in wine, especially in red wine.
Consider the following two possibilities:
I Wine drinking is associated with a generally healthy lifestyle.
II Red- and white-wine drinking are each associated with a similar decrease in the risk of coronary heart
disease.
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I only
II only
both I and II
neither I nor II
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Section 1
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Question 12
The diagrams below show who runs small businesses by gender and age.
by age
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by gender
67%
33%
59%
31%
10%
older
than 50
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Question 13
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30 to 50
younger
than 30
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males
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females
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Question 14
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Bon-bons are party packages that come in boxes of twelve. In each box, half of the bon-bons are green and half
are red. In each box equal numbers of bon-bons contain either a plastic whistle, a clicker or a blow-out. Equal
numbers also contain a copy of one of four jokes.
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In the following figure, the number of smileys ( ) adjacent to a numbered square (including diagonally adjacent)
is indicated by the number in that square. The pattern either side of the central 3 5 rectangle is repeated
indefinitely.
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1 1 1
2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2
y 1 x y 1 x y 3 ? 3 y x 1 y x 1 y
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2
2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1
must be a 2.
must be an x if each y is a 1.
must be a y if each x is a smiley.
cannot be a smiley.
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Section 1
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Question 15
Consider these three propositions:
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Of the ten most poisonous spiders in the world, Australia has nine of them.
II Australia has the worlds nine most poisonous spiders.
III Of the ten most poisonous spiders in Australia, nine are the worlds most poisonous.
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According to the World Conservation Unions recently published Red List, more than 11 000 species
of plants and animals face extinction in the near future, in most cases as a result of loss of habitat.
This includes about 24% of mammal species and 12% of bird species living at present.
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Question 17
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A greater number of mammal species are critically endangered than are bird species.
In the year of the reports publication, there were just over 2600 mammal species still living.
If it were true that in the four years leading to the publication of the report no bird species had
become extinct, the percentage of endangered and critically endangered bird species would have
increased by about 2 %.
In the four years leading to the publication of the report, the ratio of critically endangered
to endangered species has decreased for birds but remained almost the same for mammals.
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The list identifies 180 mammal species in the highest risk category critically endangered and 340 in the
next risk category endangered. This compares with 169 and 315 in those categories just four years earlier.
For birds, the situation is 182 species critically endangered and 321 endangered, compared with an earlier 168
and 235.
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Section 1
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Question 18
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In a recent study, predictions that middle-class educated women would be more likely than working-class women
to complete successful negotiations for a change in the distribution of housework were not validated. However,
the study did support the hypothesis that tertiary-educated men would respond more positively than other men to
any overtures their wives made for assistance.
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when a wifes income increases, there is a high chance that she will be successful in persuading her
husband to do a larger share of the housework.
a mans income production is more important than his level of education in determining whether his
wife will be successful in encouraging him to increase his share of household duties.
working-class wives proved to be less successful than anticipated in encouraging their husbands to do
more of the housework.
a womans income production is more important than her level of education in determining whether
she will be successful in encouraging her husband to increase his share of household duties.
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The study also provided support for the view that increasing womens earning power significantly increases
their negotiating power. In particular, women whose earnings were substantial were somewhat more likely to
be married to men who took some responsibility for housework than were women whose earnings were much
less than those of their husbands. Nevertheless, a majority of the husbands (62%) whose wives were providing
between one-third and two-thirds of the household income failed to provide the level of participation in
housework their wives were seeking.
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In each of three boxes, Eve puts two hats: two black hats in the first box, two white hats in the second,
and a black hat and a white hat in the third. She labels the boxes as shown.
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B
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W
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Carol then changes all the labels around so that no box is labelled correctly.
Can Eve determine the contents of all three boxes by looking into just one box?
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B
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Section 1
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Questions 20 22
A game is played with two four-sided dice. Each side of each die is
marked by one of each of these four symbols: , , or .
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The players take turns to throw the dice and move their counter along the playing board shown, according to the
total value of their throw.
on die 2; ( , ) represents a
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on die 1 and a
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On their second turns, Felicia throws ( , ) and Mal throws ( , ). Felicia is now on position 11.
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Felicia
Mal
Felicia and Mal equally
It is not possible to determine who is closest to position 20.
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Bill
Freya
Bill and Freya equally
It is not possible to determine who is closer to position 20.
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Joshua throws ( , ), ( ,
), ( ,
), ( , ) and ( ,
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Section 1
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Question 23
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Events are better remembered if they trigger some level of emotional arousal. In a study investigating this tendency
in relation to the ADRA2B gene, two groups of people (one with the standard gene and one with a variant of it)
were shown three types of photographic images: those that typically elicit either a positive emotion (e.g. children
playing), a negative emotion (e.g. a polluted river), or no particular emotion (e.g. a chair).
The level of arousal the images elicited in the participants during viewing was measured. After some time, the
peoples memory of the images was tested.
Negative
images
100
575
350
300
250
200
150
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Positive
images
ADRA2B
ADRA2B variant
Negative
images
282
Positive
images
19
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Arousal relative to
neutral images (%)
100
26
11
Question 24
e:
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Any effect of the ADRA2B variant on memory is not caused by increasing arousal.
Emotionally arousing images are better remembered than neutral ones, but only for people with the
ADRA2B variant.
Arousal is greater in people with the ADRA2B variant, which enables negative images to be
remembered better than positive images.
The increased arousal elicited by negative images, compared to positive images, is enhanced in
people with the ADRA2B variant, but this does not affect recall of the images.
on
A
B
11
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180
160
140
120
47
Recall relative to
neutral images (%)
The graphs below present the participants recall of the emotion-arousing images relative to their recall of the
neutral images.
Ph
dt
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How many dogs attending puppy school are brown and have long hair, but are not small?
A
B
C
D
two
three
four
It is not possible to determine this from the information given.
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Section 1
om
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Questions 25 28
Consider the following rules that could be used in order to select one shape from pairs of shapes:
Rule I
Rule II
Rule III
If both shapes are grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.
Rule IV
If one or both shapes are grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.
Rule V
If the left shape is grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.
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The shape that has been selected is indicated by a black arrow under the shape.
282
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26
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11
A
B
C
D
575
19
9
11
25
Suppose that a selection has been made using either just Rule IV or just Rule V.
e:
0
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For which one of the following pairs of shapes would it be possible to determine which one of these two
rules had been used in making this selection?
on
HO
MA
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Section 1
Suppose that a new rule is used to make the four selections shown below.
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27
selection 3
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selection 1
selection 4
19
9
selection 2
7)
tb
282
26
Other rules may need to be considered if two selections are made one after the other.
L(
28
11
11
Select the left shape if either or both of the shapes are grey, otherwise select the right shape.
Select the left shape unless just one of the shapes is grey, in which case select the right shape.
Select the right shape if the triangle is white or the square is grey or both, otherwise select
the left shape.
Select the right shape if the triangle is white or the square is grey but not both, otherwise select
the left shape.
47
A
B
C
575
Which one of the following new rules would produce these four selections?
e:
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Rule VI
Select the shape on the opposite side to the first selection.
Rule VII If the first shape selected is grey, select the shape on the same side as the first
selection, otherwise select the shape on the opposite side.
After selection 1 has been made, which of Rules VI and VII could be used to make selection 2?
on
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A
B
C
D
selection 2
Ph
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selection 1
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Section 1
om
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Questions 29 31
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While some forms of cholesterol are not harmful to humans, an excess of the form known as LDL is believed
to increase the likelihood of heart disease, obesity and diabetes. A link between a high-fat diet and raised
cholesterol levels has long been noted. However, in the natives of Greenland a high-fat diet (seal, whale and fish)
is not associated with these conditions. These people have lower LDL levels than comparable groups of Danish
people eating a typical Western diet based on dairy foods and meat.
Nutritionists believe that there are substances, known as omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, found in the food of
the Greenland natives that explain the difference. These fatty acids are also found in plant sterols. Two recent
studies have investigated the effect of plant sterols on LDL.
19
9
Study I One hundred men and women with normal cholesterol levels or mild hypercholesterolaemia were
given varying amounts of sterols, in food spreads, for 24 days: 0.0 g/day (as a placebo), 0.83 g/day,
1.61 g/day or 3.24 g/day.
7)
tb
575
In the groups that took sterols, there was a reduction ranging from 6.6 to 9.9% in the level of LDL.
There was no significant difference in the average reduction between those who took the three
different levels of sterols. There was no significant reduction in LDL in the control group.
47
Study II Twenty-two hypercholesterolaemic men and women were given, for 28 days, either a placebo or 2.4 g/day
of sterols. The sterols were taken as a combination of food spread (0.8 g/day), bread (0.8 g/day) and
cereal (0.8 g/day).
Note:
29
26
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A
B
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D
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11
282
11
There was an average 10.4% reduction in LDL for those that took sterols, but no significant reduction
for the others.
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Considering the results of Study I and Study II, of the following, the best conclusion is that
A
B
C
D
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Section 1
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Questions 32 34
Qld
WA
SA
NSW
282
Vic.
26
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NT
Suppose that black, red, green and white are used to colour each square of a 3 3 grid a different colour
to every adjacent square.
SB
EL
33
47
11
NT
WA and Qld
any one of NT, WA or Qld
any two of NT, WA or Qld
11
A
B
C
D
575
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on
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Suppose that four colours are used to colour each square of a 4 4 grid a different colour to every
adjacent square.
dt
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34
must be red.
must be black.
can be either red or black.
can be any of red, black, green or white.
HO
MA
A
B
C
D
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0
When the top left square is black and the top right square is red, the colour of the bottom left square
Lic
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A
B
C
D
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Section 1
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Questions 35 37
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When grains of two different sizes (e.g. two different sands) are mixed together and then poured down a vertical
wall, a slope forms down which further added grains tumble. A model of this phenomenon has been developed
that uses grains of two different shapes square (1 1 unit in size) and rectangular (1 2 units). The models
rules governing the tumbling of the grains are as follows:
I f a grain is added to the first column such that the step down to the next column is more than three
units high, the grain tumbles down the slope from column to column until it reaches a stable position,
i.e. where the height difference to the next column does not exceed three units.
I f a grain does not reach a stable position on the slope and tumbles all the way to the bottom,
an avalanche occurs.
I n an avalanche, any grain on the top of any column tumbles if the step to the next column is more than
two units high. It continues to tumble until it reaches a position where the step is no more than two units
high. All such grains tumble simultaneously.
O
nce all grains that could initially tumble in an avalanche have completed their tumbling, any further
grains that are now able to tumble will do so. This process continues until all steps are two or less units
high.
47
7)
tb
575
A
s they are poured one at a time, the grains stack onto the first column next to the wall (with rectangular
grains upright).
19
9
wall
282
on
y
x
Figure 1
Figure 2
dt
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11
11
In the example shown in Figure 1, the rectangular grain x added to the first column will tumble to the bottom
of the slope. This triggers an avalanche, after which the grains y and z are in the positions shown in Figure 2.
Lic
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35
For the situation shown in Figure 1, if a square grain were added instead of a rectangular grain, the grain
would come to rest
A
B
C
D
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C
575
In the situation shown below, a rectangular grain, w, has just been added and has tumbled to the bottom.
282
w
26
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11
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37
19
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36
on
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Which one of the following shows the situation after the ensuing avalanche?
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 1
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Questions 38 40
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Many structures are made from a grid of squares. In order to be structurally sound, the grid must be rigid. This can
be achieved by adding a diagonal brace to some of the squares. To determine the minimum number of braces needed,
a dot diagram can be used.
A dot diagram uses dots to represent the row and column coordinates of each square in the grid:
The left-hand dots represent the grids rows and the right-hand dots represent the grids columns.
L
ines in the dot diagram represent those squares that contain a brace. Each line connects the dots that
represent the coordinates of a single braced square.
575
7)
tb
Column 3
Column 1
Row 2
Column 2
Column 3
26
282
Row 1
Figure 1
Figure 2
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11
Row 2
11
Row 1
47
Column 1
Column 2
19
9
For example, Figure 1 shows a 2 3 grid of six squares, four of which ([1,1], [1,2], [2,2] and [2,3]) contain
diagonal braces. Figure 2 is the corresponding dot diagram. The square at Row 1, Column 1 is braced, and thus
represented in the dot diagram by the line connecting the Row 1 and Column 1 dots. The other braced squares
are similarly represented.
on
Ph
Figure 3
Figure 4
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A grid will be rigid if all the dots of its dot diagram are connected by a single complex of lines. The 3 3 grid
represented in Figure 3 has a single complex; that represented in Figure 4 has two separate complexes.
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Section 1
7)
tb
This grids rigidity
26
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A
B
C
D
19
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39
seven
eight
nine
ten
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A
B
C
D
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What is the minimum number of braced squares required to make rigid a 4 4 grid?
575
38
Ph
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B
C
D
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 1
om
.
Questions 41 and 42
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Mouse cytomegalovirus (MCMV) is a virus that spreads among European species of mice through animal-toanimal contact. It cannot live outside live mice, and does not infect Australias native mouse species. It is not
fatal to the mice it infects, and occurs in some 80% of the European mice in Australia.
26
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I
II
282
11
11
42
575
47
A
B
C
D
7)
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41
19
9
In an effort to control severe European mouse plagues in this country, scientists have modified MCMV to include
a protein, ZP3, that is found on the surface of European mouse eggs. After a female mouse has been infected
with the modified virus, her immune system, naturally primed to attack foreign substances, including normal
MCMV, will attack the ZP3 on the surface of her own eggs, rendering her infertile.
e:
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Some people have concerns that releasing the modified MCMV virus into the wild poses a potential
health risk to Australian native mice.
Which of I and II could be used to support these concerns?
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I only
II only
both I and II
neither I nor II
HO
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A
B
C
D
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Section 1
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Questions 43 and 44
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A study was carried out of 300 booking clerks at a large US airline. Of these clerks, 100 were smokers,
100 used to smoke but no longer did, and 100 had never smoked. The groups were called smokers,
ex-smokers and never smoked, respectively. It was found that smokers were absent because of illness
for an average of 6.16 days a year, while ex-smokers lost 4.53 days, and never smoked lost 3.86 days.
43
19
9
The work output (sales income, rate of answering calls, and so on) of the three groups showed that
the productivity of the smokers was 4.0% below never smoked and 8.3% below ex-smokers.
44
575
282
11
11
47
7)
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A
B
C
When measuring performance in terms of absences due to illness and of output while at work, the data
show that
26
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Suppose that the work output of an ex-smoker while at work was given a value of 100 units.
Which of the following values would then be most consistent with the other data?
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A
B
C
D
END OF SECTION 1
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Section 2
Understanding People
Questions 45 84
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SECTION 2
Questions 45 47
In this excerpt from a novel, Lannie is reminiscing about the time Fred brought their sons to visit the
clinic where she was being treated for her depression.
282
26
on
guilty sorrow.
hopeless despair.
sympathetic concern.
disdainful resignation.
HO
MA
A
B
C
D
46
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45
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19
9
They had been bored. They had asked her to come back. She had said, I will if youll help me. And
Fred had said, Now, now, Lannie, you know I wont have the boys turned into housewives. The
youngest, who was nearly twelve and already taller than his mother, had begged his father to let them
go look round the town and find a hamburger and a video arcade. When they had gone Fred said,
You can see how they miss you.
Not really, she replied, watching her husbands eyes shift.
Dont you love them?
Of course I love them.
Then why dont you come home?
I dont think they love me. They just miss what I do for them. I want a life. Just a bit of a life
outside the kitchen and the wash-house.
Not much wash-house. It was a grim piece of jocularity. The tanks are just about empty.
Peeved, Lannie lost it. She began to yell.
Then youd want me to go down to the creek hole and beat the bloody clothes on rocks while
I utter little orgiastic cries of pleasure and the other wives look on and say, I want to do what shes
doing?
Jesus, youre disgusting! Fred said. Bloody disgusting. Youre not being like the other wives
now. They dont make unreasonable demands.
Lannies behaviour towards Fred during the conversation arises mostly from her feelings of
hatred.
regret.
contempt.
suspicion.
dt
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B
C
D
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apathy to appeasement.
curiosity to astonishment.
affection to disappointment.
condescension to indignation.
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Section 2
Questions 48 and 49
In the passage below, Lois has just arrived by train from the country. Nancy has met her at the train
station. Both women are in their thirties.
1
Nancy:
[making sure that her coat sways becomingly] What do you think of my coat?
Lois:
Oh, ... er ... very nice, very nice indeed. But isnt it rather heavy for such a warm
day?
Nancy:
[Lois smiles.]
It was a present from Harry, you see. On my last birthday. He paid a ruinous price
for it hes a regular spendthrift where Im concerned.
Lois:
7
8
26
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0
on
A
B
C
D
From the context, it is most likely that Nancys smile (8) is one of
HO
MA
delight.
smugness.
bashfulness.
embarrassment.
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B
C
D
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49
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48
L(
11
[Nancy smiles.]
282
47
Nancy:
11
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tb
575
19
9
Lois:
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 2
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Questions 50 52
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In this passage from a novel, Biddy has barged into her mothers bedroom to find her mother
examining her exposed breast in the bedroom mirror.
282
26
10
15
20
25
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50
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Why cant you knock? Mum accuses, her face scrunching up like her nipple.
Normally Biddy would retreat, embarrassed and apologizing, humiliated by her mothers
shame. But this time she doesnt. What are you doing, Mum?
Mum is startled by her tone. She has tucked her breast back into her frock. There is something
furtive about the way she does it. And she cant get her mouth around the words she needs, the kind
of words she usually has no trouble with when she wants to put Biddy in her place.
Biddy has shut the door and leaves a chair backed against it so no one else can barge in the
way she did. Whats the matter, Mum? she insists. She walks towards her. Whats wrong with your
breast?
Mum shakes her head in a disturbed kind of way. Theres nothing the matter with it except for
the five children that fed from it.
Biddy is supposed to cringe. But she is learning she can make Mum cringe too. She stands
close, closer than people usually stand. Then she takes Mum by the shoulders and holds her at arms
length. She looks into the face of her mother like Mum is her daughter. Mum looks down, like she
really is a daughter again.
Its a lump, isnt it? Youve found a lump?
Mum doesnt nod. She wont nod. But she hasnt shaken her head either. If she did her tears
might leave her eyes too quick.
When did you discover it? Just now? Have you been to see a doctor about it? You havent, have
you? She brushes the tears off Mums cheeks with the blade of her hand. Well youre going to. Ill
take you myself if I have to.
Its nothing to worry about, Mum sniffles. Its not what you think it is. Ive had one before
and its gone away.
What! Biddy is horrified. Let me check for myself. Her fingers move to the buttons on
Mums frock.
But Mum dusts them away, repulsed. Youll do no such thing, she says. What would you
know, a girl of your age? Youre no doctor.
When Biddy asks Whats wrong with your breast? (lines 89), Mums response suggests that she mainly
feels
anxious and defiant.
sullen and depressed.
shamed and humbled.
secretive and tongue-tied.
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B
C
D
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... except for the five children ... (lines 10 and 11). What appears to be Mums motive for saying this?
A
B
C
D
52
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Section 2
7)
tb
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Question 53
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47
A
B
C
D
19
9
The reason for Mums failure to answer the question is most likely to be that she
11
Therapist:
Patient:
What do you mean, theres no guarantee that it will? If you dont think it will help,
why dont I just leave now?
Therapist:
I didnt say that. I actually dont know if I can help you until Ive examined you and
learnt more about your symptoms. And even if we cant get rid of all the pain, at the
very least this should help you understand your condition better and know how to
prevent it getting worse.
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Patient:
26
I have to say that Im only coming to see you because the doctor insisted I did. Ive
tried all this before and I dont really think it will get rid of my pain.
L(
Patient:
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Thats what I keep hearing from you medical people. But all I want is for the pain to
go away, forever. I dont want to have to learn to live with it.
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53
Which of the following responses by the physiotherapist would best convey to the patient that she
understands his situation?
A
B
C
D
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 2
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Questions 54 57
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In the following passage from a play, Angela is an architect working for a large firm, Deborah is the
firms human resources manager, and Sam (not present) is Angelas boss.
Deborah:
Angela:
Ive got a kid with severe asthma who worries me out of my brain. When hes carted
off to hospital, do you think Im not going to go and be with him? You got kids?
Deborah:
Angela:
My story? I havent got a story. My life hasnt even got up to the table of contents.
Deborah:
Youre divorced.
Angela:
Isnt everyone? Look, please, I dont want to discuss my life. If Im here to be fired,
then fire me.
Deborah:
Angela:
Deborah:
Angela:
What do you think Ive been trying to do for the past five years or so? Unfortunately
the stuff Ive been forced to design for Sam is deeply unimpressive.
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Angela:
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282
26
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11
11
A
B
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D
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What does Angela ultimately want most to come out of this discussion?
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55
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Section 2
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 2
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.
Questions 58 62
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The following passage is from a novel. Nazneen has recently come to London from a Bangladeshi
village as part of an arranged marriage with a man twenty years older, named Chanu. Here, her
friend Razia is visiting Nazneen at her home, and they have been chatting about some mutual
acquaintances. Razia then asks Nazneen about her husband.
10
15
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Nazneens comment My husband says it is discrimination (line 12) seems mainly intended to
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11
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CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 63 65
In the following passage, Phillip reflects on his mothers battle with a terminal illness.
15
282
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26
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Which of the following best explains why Phillip reflects on his mothers behaviour after the doctors
revelation?
Ph
on
He is trying to discover if his mother had been neglected in any way by the hospital staff.
He is indulging in some fond memories of his mother while he still can.
He is trying to convince himself that the doctor is mistaken.
He is confirming to himself that the doctor is right.
HO
MA
A
B
C
D
65
10
He was relieved to finally know the truth and be able to let go of his false hope.
He felt the doctor had been foolish and insensitive to destroy all his hope.
He accepted the doctors judgment and could even understand it.
He felt betrayed that the doctor had not told him sooner.
L(
A
B
C
D
64
How did Phillip feel about the doctors decision to reveal that his mother was not going to make it
(line 5)?
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Mum seemed so well, so physically strong and graceful as she moved towards me, and her skin had
finally lost that bloodless papery texture. It was the first time in months that I had actually begun to
hope. Then the doctor asked me quietly to come outside. He was a serious young man, almost a boy
with a kind, chubby face.
You know shes not going to make it, dont you?
It wasnt a question. He was telling me honestly to lose that hope, get rid of it, or I wouldnt
make it either. Just when I had dared to think that she might come home and be again that strong and
dominant woman.
I nodded.
Perhaps I knew deep down that those few graceful steps that seemed to me like dancing were
not a new beginning, just a good nights sleep lightening the dark circles beneath my mothers eyes.
It was all nothing.
My mothers joyful words, Darling, watch, as she had taken those few tentative steps towards
me. Phillip, see how well I move, smiling as though it was all over.
The hardest thing was going back into the room.
The passage suggests that in going back into the room Phillip would most likely have
calmly told his mother what the doctor had revealed.
tried to sound even more positive than before.
not revealed what the doctor had told him.
burst into tears upon seeing his mother.
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 66 68
2@
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The following passage is part of a counselling session. A father is talking to a counsellor about his
daughters behaviour. She has come home from secondary boarding school after completing her
second term.
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The fathers comment Im not sure why (line 8) about the effectiveness of changing the subject suggests
that he
Ph
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B
C
D
Judging from the fathers manner in recounting this incident, the most likely reason he has chosen to tell the
counsellor is
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Why does Julies father ask the counsellor What am I supposed to do? (lines 1 and 2)?
47
66
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She just goes on and on and on about how she feels homesick and misses us. What am I supposed
to do? I listen for a while and then my impatience gets the better of me and I say: For goodness
sake, will you just get off this bandwagon. Of course you miss us, that will pass everyone goes
through this. Its no worse than anyone elses situation. You are just trying to get your own way.
You havent given it a real go. Julie generally just sobs. She tries to tell me that her homesickness
is getting worse instead of better. I tell her to pull herself together. Then I change the subject
completely. I say: Hey, how about that team of ours, how good was our win on the weekend! It
usually brings her around. Im not sure why.
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Questions 69 and 70
The following dialogue is between a male doctor and a female patient.
om
.
Section 2
Patient:
Not good, Doctor. My backs still very sore. Just like when I first came to see you
about this last week.
Doctor:
Patient:
Doctor:
Patient:
Yes.
Doctor:
And not doing those things around the house that make you worse, as I
recommended?
Patient:
Doctor:
[laughs] What does that mean? Does that mean youve continued to do them?
Patient:
Doctor:
Patient:
[laughs]
Doctor:
Its true. And if you dont look after yourself, then you wont be able to look after
others.
Patient:
Doctor, please, all I want is some stronger medicine to help me get on with what I
have to do.
Doctor:
Patient:
Doctor:
[pause] I understand your situation, but there is little point giving you stronger
medicine if youre not also avoiding those things which are causing your problems.
The medicine wont fix your back. It may even cause you to injure yourself more
seriously.
Patient:
Doctor:
[pause] Mrs Lee, is there something else you need to tell me about?
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Doctor:
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routine.
suspicious.
insensitive.
sympathetic.
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 71 and 72
2@
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When she was 14, Elizabeths older brother (Ted) died after a long illness. In this passage, Elizabeth,
now an adult, reflects on this period of her life.
10
15
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How does Elizabeth suggest she viewed her fathers behaviour at the time of Teds death?
dt
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Elizabeth says that in retrospect her easy exchange of boyfriends (line 13) was not such a bad thing
because these relationships
SB
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71
282
novocaine: a local anaesthetic commonly used by dentists to block pain during dental procedures
11
47
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My father immersed himself in his work after Ted died. Hed always done that to some degree. But
now he descended and did not come up for air. My mother, whose life had for so long revolved
around my brother, turned her formidable focus on me. I became her constant companion. Her solace
for having lost one child was that she had another one in whom to lose herself. It was bad timing. At
fourteen, I was just at the age when I was trying to find and assert my independence. And the years
on the side-lines of my brothers illness had long since made me decide I didnt, couldnt need my
parents. I resolved the dilemma by appearing, on the surface, the perpetual child my mother wanted
me to be, while quietly turning to the adolescents novocaine1 alcohol and drugs establishing a
pattern of demure self-destruction that would last more than a decade.
Later I would add an eating disorder to my repertoire of dysfunctional coping first anorexia,
then bulimia, then obsessive exercise. Relationships became another common refuge, until they
became demanding rather than distracting. I discovered that I was very good at shutting off emotion,
abruptly. If one boyfriend got too threatening, too connected, I could exchange him for another
quite easily. It wasnt such a bad thing, in retrospect, because somehow I always found myself in
relationships in which my needs were overlooked, a state of affairs that would eventually trigger in
me an inexplicable and very old rage.
with gratitude
with bitterness
with sympathy
with indifference
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 73 76
2@
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The following passage is from a short story. Nick is in bed when he receives a phone call from his
friend, Philip, husband of Anthea.
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The phone rang close to midnight, jerking Nick back from the brink of sleep.
Nick Harvey.
Nick I hope I havent woken you.
Im sorry, he mumbled, still drugged with sleep. Who is this?
Nick, its Philip. Philip Tandy. I know its late, but its important. Im trying to track down a
horrible rumour.
The words splashed his ears like cold water; he was instantly awake.
Its about Anthea, the voice continued. A horrible lie. I wonder if youd heard it?
Nick was cautious, noncommittal: I heard something. It was a bit vague.
I thought you might have. Ive just been speaking to Josie and David they seemed to think
they first heard the rumour from you.
Nick was dumbfounded: When was this?
A few minutes ago, Philip said. Ive just got off the phone to David.
No, when was I supposed to have told them?
At some school function. A month ago. They are certain it came from you.
Nick shivered in his warm bed, momentarily lost for words. This was simply not true. In fact,
the opposite was true: he was certain he had first heard the story from Josie. But what could he say?
His closest friends had already turned him in; it seemed petty, given the gravity of the rumour itself,
to quibble. And he had passed the rumour on to his friends, perhaps, but certainly to his wife. And
through her to other friends.
15
20
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(Later, Nick is listening to his wife, Cassie, discuss the incident with a friend on the phone.)
on
25
30
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Can you believe he would ring Really? He rang them too? He must be ringing everyone
like a chain letter. I wonder where hell end up not here, thank God of course, I dont blame
him. Imagine how Anthea is feeling! No, I couldnt face her If its not true its almost as bad.
Nick took up this last odd nuance with Cassie when she had finally finished on the phone, some
minutes later.
What do you mean: almost as bad? he said. If she hasnt got cancer, what does it matter?
She seemed surprised that he didnt understand. How would you feel if people believed you
had cancer? Wouldnt it make you uneasy?
It wouldnt worry me in the slightest. I havent got cancer.
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Philips words I hope I havent woken you (line 3) are most likely said with
75
In line 8, regarding the rumour, Philip asks of Nick, I wonder if youd heard it?.
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B
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D
11
The way Cassie speaks about Philips behaviour (lines 2224) suggests that she finds it
appropriate and necessary.
rude despite its reasonableness.
ridiculous to the point of being humorous.
melodramatic despite being understandable.
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obligation.
persecution.
protectiveness.
vindictiveness.
47
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B
C
D
282
74
timidity.
open hostility.
genuine courtesy.
dismissive formality.
2@
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A
B
C
D
7)
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73
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Section 2
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 77 79
2@
liv
e.c
The following passage is taken from a play. Barbara and Stuart are an Australian couple who have
moved to Denmark for six months where Stuart has a job at a university. They have moved into an
apartment with their two young sons.
1
Stuart:
Barbara:
Stuart:
Barbara:
Stuart:
Barbara, you promised. We agreed to come here on the clear understanding that you
wouldnt work on your thesis for the six months we were away.
Barbara:
Ive thought that one through and I dont think it was a reasonable thing to ask.
Stuart:
So you make a bargain back home and try to wriggle out of it as soon as you get
here.
Barbara:
Stuart:
Barbara:
I wasnt sure at the time, but since weve got here Ive had time to think.
11
Stuart:
About what?
12
Barbara:
Stuart:
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Stuart, we must have that babysitter whether we can afford it or not. The kids are
wonderful, I love them, but after Ive spent one day with them I feel as if Ive lost
twenty sophisticated words from my vocabulary forever.
19
9
Barbara:
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Stuarts reaction to Barbaras proposal that she could work on her thesis is best described as
spontaneous retort.
carefully planned rejoinder.
hasty retreat from her former stance.
sympathetic acknowledgement of Stuarts concerns.
insecure
disillusioned
helpless
intimidated
282
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troubled
controlling
vulnerable
confused
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on
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Which pair of words most accurately describes how Barbara and Stuart appear in the passage?
SB
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79
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detached.
anguished.
obstructive.
unrestrained.
19
9
A
B
C
D
7)
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Section 2
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 80 82
Opening
Step 1
Step 2
2@
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The following has been offered as a guided dialogue for teachers and child-carers when confronting
a fight in the playground.
19
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Step 4
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Step 3
What can we do now so we can all return to what we were doing before the fight?
Ok, go back and play.
282
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80
11
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Closing
Which of the following responses to the Step 3 question would a teacher following the guided dialogue
prefer to hear?
Because she hit me first.
Because everyone picks on me.
Because I have a right to play too.
Because I thought she did it on purpose.
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Section 2
om
.
Questions 83 and 84
In the following passage, a man reflects on how his brothers death affected his father.
84
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B
C
D
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When my brother died of cancer in 1966 at age thirty-nine, my father began a grieving process that lasted almost
twenty-five years. During that time he suffered from chronic, debilitating headaches that could not be cured. At one
point, a doctor tried to tell him that his headaches were related to his grief, but my father persisted in regarding the
pain as a medical problem, and the torment continued. After my fathers death at eighty-six, I thought about how
he could have been helped.
on
282
END OF SECTION 2
STOP
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11
a limited manner.
an uncaring manner.
a conscientious manner.
a self-interested manner.
L(
A
B
C
D
11
Regarding his father, the writer thinks the medical profession behaved in
Lic
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Section 3
Non-Verbal Reasoning
Questions 85 98
Questions 85 122
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85
86
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For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply continues
the series.
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Section 3
575
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87
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON
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Section 3
575
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Section 3
575
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93
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Section 3
7)
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Section 3
Missing Segment
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Questions 99 110
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For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply completes
the picture.
19
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99
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Section 3
7)
tb
103
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Section 3
7)
tb
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282
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Section 3
108
575
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$$$
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$$
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48
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Section 3
Middle of the Sequence
om
.
In each of the following items, the five figures can be rearranged to form a logical sequence.
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For each item, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply fits the middle of the
sequence.
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Section 3
7)
tb
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Section 3
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122
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119
END OF TEST
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tb1992@live.com.au
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19
9
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Lic
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57
48
58
49
50
L(
51
52
53
54
87
60
26
575
B
43
33
44
65
75
66
76
67
77
68
78
69
79
70
80
71
81
62
72
82
63
73
83
64
74
84
on
e:
0
61
Ph
59
SB
EL
HO
MA
86
dt
oT
32
282
85
7)
tb
47
55
95
105
115
96
106
116
97
107
117
88
98
108
118
89
99
109
119
90
100
110
120
91
101
111
121
92
102
112
122
93
103
113
94
104
114
se
en
11
11
45
Section 3
31
A
D
19
9
5
6
Section 2
Lic
2@
liv
e.c
Section 1
om
.
ANSWERS
57
Licensed to
Phone:
THOMAS
02 6282 5754 BELL (1111477) tb1992@live.com.a
tb1992@live.com.au
om
.
2@
liv
e.c
575
19
9
7)
tb
Ph
on
e:
0
26
282
47
11
11
L(
SB
EL
HO
MA
dt
oT
se
en
Lic
58
Licensed to
Phone:
THOMAS
02 6282 5754 BELL (1111477) tb1992@live.com.a
tb1992@live.com.au