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AIR REGULATIONS
1. Threshold / Displaced threshold light are.
a.

White / Green

b.

Green / Green

c.

Green / White

2. Aeronautical information of shorter nature is contained in

a.

AIP

b.

AIC

c.

Operations manual

3. An accident is notified to DGCA.

a.

If a/c All up Weight is more than 5700 kgs.

b.

If a/c is carrying passengers

c.

All a/c accident must be reported to DGCA.

d.

Only if a /c accident occurs in the air.

4. A/C intending to fly in formation

a.

Can fly only under IFR flight plan

b.

Can fly only after DGCA permission

c.

Can fly with prior arrangement with ATC

d.

Can fly only in uncontrolled air space

5. Two red balls hoisted on a mast near the signal area means.
a.

Aerodrome is closed due to bad weather

b.

Aerodrome closed due to extreme danger

c.

All a/c to land and return to apron

d.

Glider flying is in progress

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6. A red flag hoisted on ATC building of uncontrolled aerodrome means.

a.

Aerodrome under enemy attack, all aircraft are to divert

b.

All a/c to land immediately due lo bad weather.

c.

Glider flying in progress over aerodrome

7. An aircraft on which Navigation Lights have not been fitted

a.

Can not fly at night.

b.

Can not fly at all

c.

Cannot fly without DGCA permission

8. When two a/c are on converging or crossing, tracks and there is a risk of collision
a.

A small a c like Chipmunk or Cessna will give wav to bigger a c. like Boeing.

b.

Powered a c will give wav lo Gliders.

c.

If both a/c are powered, the .1 c u hit h has other a c on its right gives wax1 to
that

d.

a/c.

Both b & c are correct.

9. A horizontal while dumbbell displayed in signal area means

a.

Aerodrome closed permanently

b.

All a/c to land, takeoff of runway and taxi on taxi on taxi - tracks only.

c.

A/C to land on runway but may taxi on grass.

10. A horizontal while dumbbell with black bars market perpendicular to shall on circular
portion of dumbbell means that
a.

Aircraft to land on runway only but may use areas oilier than runway or taxi
track for other maneuvers e.g. taxiing etc,

b.

Aircraft may land on runway or taxi track.

c.

Runway is closed for repairs.

11. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal displayed in signal an-a means
a.

Runway is closed for repairs

b.

All aircraft to land and takeoff from taxi tracks.

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c.

Due to bail stale of manoeuvring area or some other reason. Pilots lo observe
special precaution during approach and landing.

12. Letter 'C displayed vertically in black against yellow background on a building indicates
a.

The place where Pilots can slay for the night halt

b.

The place where Pilots are to report for ATC services.

c.

Location of Canteen for tea and snacks.

13. Series of White flashes to an ac in flight mean

a.

Do not Land and give way lo another a/c in emergency.

b.

Cleared lo land.

c.

Land and return to parking apron

14. Supersonic a/c is allowed to fly in India

a.

At all speeds.

b.

At speeds below Mach 1.

c.

Above Mach 2

15. A steady white light lo an ac in the air or on ground indicates

a.

Return to starting point on Apron.

b.

Nothing as per ICAO approved signals

c.

Cleared to land, I he danger is over

16. A Pilot who is forced lo fly low over populated area due to bad weather.
a.

Can be sued in court for trespass by the residents of the colony.

b.

Cannot be sued in the court.

c.

DGCA will cancel his Pilots license

17. Smoking is permitted in the a/c only if permitted vide its COA.
a.

The rule is not applicable lo private a c.

b.

The rule is applicable only lo Public Transport a c.

c.

The rule is applicable to all a/c.

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18. A passenger on a private a c.

a.

Should not have consumed alcoholic drinks 12 hours before flight

b.

Can be prevented from boarding the a c for flight if he is intoxicated

c.

Cannot be served any alcohol in a private a c.

19. DI [Daily Inspection] and certificate of safety by a licensed Engineer is required

a.

For all flights.

b.

Only for ac proceeding outstation.

c.

Only for solo flight by trainee pilots.

20. An a/c without registration markings can be flown

a.

For purpose of lest flight before purchase.

b.

Only if specially permitted in writing by Central Govt.

c.

It JI is Government owned a/c.

21. On routes not designated by specific reporting points, the position report shall he
a.

Immediately alter lake all and thereafter

b.

While crossing a FIR and

c.

Every 30 minutes in IMC and one hour when in VMC.

d.

All are correct.

22. An a/c in distress

a.

Transmits PAN PAN [3 times on R/T]

b.

Transmits MAY DAY [3 times on R/T]

23. Petroleum in Bulk means storage capacity of receipted is

a.

More than 900 gallons.

b.

More than 900 liters.

c.

More than 1900 liters.

d.

More than 900 Lbs.

24. Route on which flight Navigation is to be carried is specified in.

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a.

COA

b.

Maintenance

c.

Route Guide

d.

Operations Manual

25. Routes to be followed by international Flights over India are deckled by

a.

CAO

b.

DGCA

c.

Pilot in Command

26. Decision height for an Instrument Approach Procedure is determined by

a.

DGCA

b.

PIC

c.

The operator

d.

The manufactures

27. An a/c flying over high seas shall follow rules of the air laid down by
a.

Rules of the slate from where a c has departed

b.

Rules of the state of its destination aerodrome

c.

ICAO

d.

DGCA

28. A Rescue Co-ordination Centre is placed under the change of

a.

State IG police.

b.

Controller of Aerodromes.

c.

Local IAF commander.

29. The Met conditions for an aerodrome are considered below minimum when cloud amount
is
a.

More than 6/8 in any layer below specified height.

b.

More than 2/8 in any layer below specified height.

c.

More than 4/8 in any layer below specified height.

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30. When Met minima has not been filed with DCCA the following minima will apply
a.

For takeoff ceiling 90 meters Visibility 2.7 Kms.

b.

For takeoff ceiling 1 10 meters Visibility 2.7 Kms

c.

For takeoff ceiling 90 meters Visibility 4.7 Kms

31. If Met Minima for a particular aerodrome is QBH 400 feet vis 2 Kms. The conditions will
be considered below minima if
a.

Cloud base is 3/8 at 300 feet vis 2 Kms.

b.

Cloud base is 3/8 at 300 feet vis 5 Kms.

c.

Cloud base is 3/8 at 500 feet vis 2.5 Kms.

d.

Cloud base is 3/8 at 400 feet vis 2 Kms.

32. A VFR flight shall not take-off or land al an aerodrome unless

a.

Ground visibility is loss than 5 Kms and ceiling less than '00 Motors [1,000]
foot

b.

Ground Visibility is more than 5 Kms [3Nms] and ceiling more than 1500 feet.

c.

Ground Vis is more (than 8 Kms and ceiling more than 1500 foot.

33. VFR flights outside controlled airspace air space 3,000 fool amsl can be conducted
provided flight visibility is more than
a.

5 Kms

b.

5 nms

c.

8 nms

34. With regard to an a o engaged in aerobatics its height

a.

Should not be below 6000 feet when flying over an aerodrome.

b.

May be below 6000 feet but not below 2000 feet when flying at a place which
is more than 2 Nms from centre of the aerodrome.

c.
d.

May be below 2000 feet when flying over unpopulated area.

Not below 2000 feet when flying at a place more than 2 Nms from the nearest
point of perimeter of an aerodrome.

e.

Both a and d are correct.

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35. The minimum safe distance for personal behind jet engine exhaust is.
a.

2 Nms

b.

200 meters

c.

200 feet

36. A/C departing India on international route must.

a.

Depart from only Mumbai, Calcutta, Chennai or New Delhi.

b.

Depart from a Custom Notified Airport.

c.

Depart from Calcutta for Eastbound flights and Mumbai for westbound flights.

37. UTC means.

a.

Universal Time Co ordinate and is theoretically same as GMT

b.

Universal Co ordinate Time and is practically same as GMT.

c.

Co ordinate universal Time and is practically same as GMT.

38. A foreign a/c intending to enter into or transit through Indian airspace on a non
scheduled flight is required to give a notice of
a.

On week to seek DGCA clearance

b.

70 hours to seek DGCA clearance

c.

No prior notice is required.

39. An ac on FL 125 on track [M] 290 entries adjoining FIR in which Semi - circular crusing
system is in force will.
a.

Climp 500 feet

b.

Continue on FL 125

c.

Descend by 500 feet

40. An a/c before entering controlled airspace shall seek permission from ATS unit
a.

30 min in advance

b.

10 min in advance if in direct with ATS unit and 20 min. if seeking permission
through another station.

c.

Does not require any advance permission if in direct contact with ATS unit.

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41. The procedure for transiting through Transition layer is

a.

Ascending a c changes altimeter setting to QNE [1013.2 Mbs] after crossing

Transition Altitude k Descending a c Changes over to local QNH after crossing
Transition Level.

b.

Ascending a c changes over to 1013.2 Mbs after crossing Transition Ievel.

c.

Descending a c changes over to QNH after crossing Transition altitude.

d.

Both climbing and Descending a c maintain QN11 in Transition layer

42. If QNH falls below 996 hpa minimum FL allowed is

a.

30

b.

55

c.

60

43. Minimum Vertical separation between two IFR flights on reciprocal tracks is
a.

Below FL 290 . [ 500 feet / 1,000 feet / 2,000 feet ]

b.

Above F290 in non RVSM airspace . (500 feet/lOOOfeet/2000 feet]

c.

Between f290 and F410 in RVSM airspace .[ 2000feet/500 feet/1000

feet]
A-1000/1000/1000 feet

B-1000/2000/lOOOfeet c) 1000/2000/500 feet

44. Which of the following Flight Levels are available to an a/r on Track [M| 18O IFR plan
FL 100,
a.

100/190.

b.

190/200.

c.

100/200.

FL 190

FL 200

45. This of the following will matter in selection of minimum Flight Level available to an a/c,
when following high features appear en route.
a.

A tower 400 feet 6 Nms from runway.

b.

A hill 5970 feet within 6 Kms of track.

c.

A hill 8800 feel 12 Kms off track.

46. Prevention of collision between two IFR ac is responsibility of

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a.

Flight Information Service.

b.

Pilot in Command only.

c.

Air Traffic Control service.3

d.

'Traffic Police' for a/c on the ground and for a/c in the air' Control Tower.

47. While passing through Transition layer a c vertical position is reported as

a.

Height on QNH setting while climbing and as Level on 1013.2 Mbs while
descending.

b.

As Level on 1013.2 Mbs while climbing and as altitude on QNH during descent,

c.

Level on 1013.2 Mbs during both climb and descent stages.

48. A Pilot who has flown 65 hrs as Co-Pilot can fly hrs as PIC in remaining period of
30 consecutive days
a.

60 hrs

b.

73 hrs

c.

35 hrs

49. A typical holding pattern is called

a.

Circular Pattern

b.

Race-Horse Pattern

c.

Race-Course Pattern

50. A crew member can operate R/T if he has

a.

100 hrs dual flight experience

b.

FR TO license

c.

Cleared CPL Navigation paper

51. A Private a c can land at a Private aerodrome for the purpose of joy rides
a.

Without restriction

b.

With Central Govt. permission

c.

With DCCA permission

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52. Any suitable plan1 can be used

a.

For unrestricted landings by a private a/c.

b.

For giving joy rides to public

c.

For one landing and take off for a specific purpose.

53. An a c will be regarded as infected with yellow fever

a.

If ac has flown over a place with Yellow Fever epidemic

b.

If it has landed tit a place situated in Yellow Fever affected area before its
arrival in India

54. If a person on board an a/c falls sit. k the Pilot will send health report on R/T to its
destination aerodrome
a.

2 hours before ETA.

b.

24 hours before ETA.

c.

Half an hours before ETA.

55. Except at designated points if an ATS route has lo be crossed it should be done at
a.

45 deg

b.

90 deg

c.

Parallel to track

56. As per ICAO a "standard practice" means all contracting state will
a.

Endeavour to conform with the specification

b.

Conform with the specification

c.

Change the specification as per local requirements

57. As per ICAO "Recommended practice' means that contracting, fine, slate will
a.

Definitely conform lo laid down specification

b.

Endeavour to conform to laid down specification

c.

Recommend to ICAO lo change the specification.

58. Time separation of take-off of light a c behind heavy a/c is

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a.

1 min

b.

3 min

c.

30 min

59. Difference of TAS allowed between flight plan and actual TAS is plus or minus
a.

20%

b.

10%

c.

5%

60. Flight of a c over Mathura refinery is

a.

Allowed

b.

Restricted

c.

Prohibited

61. Flight of a c near Malabar Hills is prohibited within a radius of

a.

1 NM

b.

50 Nms

c.

Nms

62. Carrying of a sick passenger on Kurd is permitted

a.

If accompanied by an attendant

b.

Without any permission

c.

If permitted by DGCA

63. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance,
unless the pilot
a.

Requests an amended clearance.

b.

Is operating VFR on top

c.

Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency

64. Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
a.

Gyroplane

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b.

Airship

c.

A/C towing other aircraft

65. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching lo land on a runway served by a visual approach
slope indicator (VASI) shall
a.

Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing.

b.

Maintain a 3o glide to the runway.

c.

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

66. Automatic Terminal Information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning;
a.
b.

Nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.

Pilots of radar identified a/c whose a/c is in dangerous proximity to terrain or
to an obstruction.

c.

Non control information in selected high activity terminal areas.

67. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a.

121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

b.

118.0 and 118.8 MHz.

c.

123.0 and 119.0 MHz.

68. A Pilot can act as PIC of a Public Transport Aircraft on an particular route provided he has
flown at least.
a.

10 Route flight on that as co pilot or as PIC without passengers on that

route.l

b.

200 hours solo on that aircraft.

c.

Both 'a' and 'b' are correct.

69. Validity of PPL for a person below 30 years of age is

a.

2 years

b.

36 months

c.

12 month.

d.

10 years

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70. Maximum age limit for flying by a PPL holder is

a.

58 years

b.

No age limit if medically fit

c.

60 years

71. Which aircraft has the right of way lover all oilier air traffic?
a.

An a/c in distress

b.

A balloon

c.

An a/c on final approach to land

72. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot
adjust the altimeter.
a.

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.

b.

Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature

c.

The elevation of the departure area.

73. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited

a.

Class C.

b.

Class B.

c.

Class A.

d.

1500 feet.

74. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
a.

Two white lights and two red lights

b.

Four white lights

c.

Three white lights and one red lights

75. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a.

009o and 27o true.

b.

090o and 270o magnetic.

c.

090o and 270o true.

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76. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly' through a restricted area?
a.

A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance

b.

Regulations do not allow this.

c.

With the controlling agencys authorization.

77. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplanes position
which aircraft has the right of way
a.

The airplane

b.

Each pilot should alter course to the right.

c.

The airship.

78. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision
course?
a.

Both pilots should give way to the right,

b.

The glider pilot should give way to the right.

c.

The airplane pilot should give way to the left

79. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the
right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
a.
b.

That is the least maneuverable.

At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front
of or to overtake another.

c.

That has the- other to its right.

80. Unless other wise authorized, what is the maximum speed at which a person may
operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
a.

200 Kts IAS

b.

288 Kts TAS

c.

250 Kts IAS

d.

250 Kts ground speed

81. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

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a.

Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment

(PMP)

b.

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and nltHmli1 reporting

equipment

c.

May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

82. Pilots arc not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
a.

Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach

procedure being used.

b.

Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the
approach being used.

c.

Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to
the pilot.

83. An ATC clearance provides

a.

Adequate separation from all traffic

b.

Priority over all other traffic.

c.

Authorization to precede under specified traffic conditions in controlled

airspace.

84. Changes in domestic routes will be notified in.

a.

AIP

b.

CAR

c.

AIC

d.

Aircraft manual

85. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which Is a category of aircraft?

a.

Landplane, seaplane.

b.

Normal, utility, acrobatic.

c.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.

86. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

a.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

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b.

Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.

c.

Transport, restricted, provisional.

87. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching I mm

the left. Which pilot should give way?
a.

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine
airplane is to its right.

b.

The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to
the left.

c.

Each pilot should alter course to the right.

88. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

a.

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

b.

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to he passed on the right.

c.

Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right, the pass.

89. An ac on dry lease Iease Indian airlines to IAF will be flown under category
a.

Civil

b.

Private

c.

Military

90. Flight data recorder data is preserved for

a.

30 mins

b.

30 hrs

c.

24 hrs

91. During Test flights passengers for

a.

Can be carried

b.

Can be carried without remuneration

c.

Can not be carried

92. End of runway is marked by.

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a.

Green light

b.

White light

c.

Red light

93. A CPL holder can fly as pic of an a/c with AUW

a.

Below 1500 kgs only

b.

5700 kgs

c.

No restriction

94. Cabin crew is carried in ac on the basis of.

a.

VIP on board

b.

Aircraft sealing rapacity.

c.

Passengers on board

95. Navigator is carried on ac when.

a.

Flying over enemy airspace

b.

When directed by PIC.

c.

Distance exceeds 600 nms and navigation aids are not available within 30
nms of track.

96. If threshold RVR is above but Mid RVR is below minima the Pilot .
a.

Can proceed with IAP and landing

b.

Cannot carry out IAP and landing

c.

Can land if co pilot has instrument rating.

97. Flight Engineer is carried on board at

a.

Flights exceeding 600 nms

b.

When directed by PIC.

c.

When directed by air hostess.

d.

When specified in its CO A.

98. Facilities at an aerodrome are listed in.

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a.

AIP

b.

Notams

c.

AIC

d.

CARs

99. Two digit black colour against yellow background displayed vertically indicate.
a.

Aerodrome elevation

b.

Runway direction in use

c.

Wind direction

100.

Runway designator 24 means.

a.

Runway direction [true] is between 024 to 029.

b.

Runway direction is 235 [M] and 244 [M].

c.

Runway direction is 235 [T] and 244 [T].

101.

Width of airway [ATS route] is.

a.

20Nms [10 nms either side] over land and 40 [20 nms either side] over sea.

b.

20 nms over land and also over sea.

c.

10 nms over land and also over sea.

102.

FDTL, extension per day due to weather /ac unserviceability etc is

a.

2 hrs

b.

By concerned state

c.

By ATC

103.

Transition altitude of aerodromes is laid down by.

a.

ICAO

b.

By concerned state

c.

BY ATC

104.
will

The Pilot of a search plane which has sighted distress signals displayed by survivors
convey to persons on ground that it has understood the message by.

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a.

Flying low over the crash site

b.

By circling over the place.

c.

By rocking wings during day and switching on and off nav / landing lights
twice during hours of darkness.

105.

Lowest transition altitude used in India is

a.

3000 ft

b.

4000 ft

c.

5000 ft

106.

Control zone is

a.

Area in which air traffic control service is provided.

b.

Area of defined dimensions extending upwards from ground level to

unspecified height.

c.

Area of defined dimension extending from ground to a specified bright

upwards.

107.

The pairs of touchdown zone markings indicate that LDA threshold to threshold
distance, is.

a.

Less than 2900 mtrs.

b.

1200 mtrs upto but not including 1500 mtrs.

c.

More than 2100 mtrs.

108.

Fight threshold stripes indicate that runway width is.

a.

23 mtrs

b.

30 mtrs

c.

45 mtrs

109.

Length of runway center line and spacing between each line is

a.

30m/30m

b.

20m/20m

c.

30m/20m

d.

20m/30m

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110.

Deviations if any from JCAO recommended practices arc given in.

a.

Aircraft act 1034

b.

Aircraft rules 1937

c.

AIP

111.

Amendments to Rules 1937 are published as

a.

Black

b.

White

c.

Orange

d.

Green

112.

On an instrument approach where a Hi I or MDA 'applicable, the pilot may not operate
below, or continue the approach unless the

a.

Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing,

on the intended runway, can be made.

b.
c.

Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.

Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that
approach.

113.

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a.

The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

b.

The other aircraft is approaching head on.

c.

The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

114.

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other a/c.

a.

The other aircraft is crossing lo the left.

b.

The other aircraft is approaching head on.

c.

The other aircraft is flying away from you.

115.

When departure or destination aerodrome has not been allotted ICAO designator; in
Flight Plan form appropriate column enter.

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a.

////

b.

XXXX

c.

ZZZZ

d.

Nil

116.

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should beset to which altitude or altimeter setting?

a.

The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

b.

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport

elevation.

c.

117.

The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.

Cabin crew position at take-off time is.

a.

Near cockpit

b.

In crew cabin

c.

Any passengers sent

d.

At floor level near exits

118.

Track separation is.

a.

Vertical separation

b.

Lateral separation

c.

Longitudinal separation.

119.

An ac may fly without registration markings when.

a.

Used for govt purpose.

b.

Permitted by central govt.

c.

Under test flight before purchase.

d.

All above are correct

120.

COA is valid in India for.

a.

36 months

b.

12 months for all a/c

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c.

12 months for a/c less than 20 years old and 6 months for a/c more than 20
years old.

121.

An ac departing behind a heavy ac should maneuver a/c to avoid wake turbulence.

a.

Above and upwind of preceding a/c.

b.

Below and upwind of preceding a/c.

c.

Above and downwind of preceding a/c.

122.

A flight plan is considered current

a.

When ETD is filled in it is filed.

b.

When ETA is filled in.

c.

When amended and read back

123.

Airport information signs are

a.

In green colour nn white background

b.

In white colour on black background.

c.

In yellow colour on black background

d.

In black colour on yellow background

AVIATION MEDICINE
124.

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a.

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

b.

An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.

c.

A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.

125.

The most effective method of scanning for oilier ah craft for collision avoidance

during

daylight hours in to use

a.

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.

b.

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degrees

sector.

c.

Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'cIock positions.

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126.

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

a.

Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.

b.

Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

c.

Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

127.

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility

condition, the best way to overcome the effect is lo

a.

Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume
normal breathing rate.

b.

Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.

c.

Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.

128.

Pilots are more subjects to disorientation if

a.

Eyes are moved often in the process of cross -checking the flight instruments.

b.

They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.

c.

Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.

129.

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known .it

a.

Hyper ventilation

b.

Aerosinusits

c.

Aerotitis

130.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a.

An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

b.

Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear,

c.

The excessive consumption of alcohol.

131.

A pilot is able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of

hyperventilation by
a.

Increasing the breathing rate in order lo increase lung ventilation.

b.

Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.

c.

Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

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132.

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

a.

Altitude decreases.

b.

Altitude increases.

c.

Air pressure increases.

133.

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

a.

Loss of muscular power.

b.

An increased sense of well-being.

c.

Tightness across the forehead/throbbing in temles.

134.

What effect does haze have on the ability to sec traffic or terrain features during

flight.
a.

Haze causes the eyes to focus at Infinity.

b.

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual
distance.

c.

The colour contrast is less distinct, objects become difficult lo see eyes tend to
overwork in ha/r and do not detect relative movement easily.

135.

A stale of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to

the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

a.

Hypoxia.

b.

Hyperventilation.

c.

Spatial disorientation.

136.

Loss of cabin pressure may cause hypoxia because cabin altitude increases and.

a.

Oxygen percentage decreases

b.

Nitrogen percentage Increases

c.

Partial pressure[amount] of oxygen decreases

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