Compiled Geas MCQ

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Questions in
GENERAL ENGINEERING
CERTII-CONSOLIDATED ENGINEERING REVIEW & TRAINING INSTITUTE, INC.
Encoded by:
VILLAMAYOR, DON RYAN M.

ECE-4/2006103613
ECE003/C12
GENERAL ENGINEERING I
1. A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400 at the end of
every 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the principal outstanding at that time.
Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all his debt.
a. P 7490
b. P 8576
c. P12 400
d. P6850
2. If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly,
what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P24, 457.24
b. P57, 420.42
c. P42, 516.12
d. P30, 632.50
3. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other
factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. This law is _________.
a. Law of diminishing Return
b. Law of Diminishing Utility
c. Law of Supply
d. Law of Demand
4. It occurs when the mathematical product of price and volume of sales remains constant regardless of any
change in price.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary demand
d. Utility
5. It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no restriction against
other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________.
a. Monopoly
b. Competition
c. Oligopoly
d. Anomaly
6. It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue
indefinitely.
a. Annuity due
b. Deferred annuity
c. Ordinary annuity
d. Perpetuity
7. A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127 460 and 24
monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the nominal rate of interest.
a. 36.3% compounded monthly
b. 30.5% compounded monthly
c. 25.15% compounded monthly
d. 32.5% compounded monthly
8. A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semi-annual
payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of interest is 26%
compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment?
a. P 4277.70
b. P 4770.20
c. P 4777.20
d. P 4077.20
9. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce a
profit.
a. Write off period
b. Physical life
c. Economic life
d. Perpetual life
10. It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation expenses, initial
taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the equipment into operation.
a. Depreciation cost
b. First cost
c. Salvage cost
d. Scrap cost
11. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year.
a. Matheson Formula
b. Straight Line method
c. SYD Method
d. Sinking Fund Method
12. A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual depreciation cost
should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of
the service life necessary if the depreciation method is straight line.
a. 8 yrs
b. 12 yrs
c. 10 yrs
d. 6 yrs
13. A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and insurance charges
amounted to P180, 000; customs brokers fee and arrastre services, P 85, 000; taxes, permits and
installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10 years. Determine the book value of the unit at
the end of years using sinking fund method at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost.
a. P 1,589,496.90
b. P 1,165,430.50
c. P 1,805,460.50
d. None of these
14. A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of the annuity is P
2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of interest if it compounds
quarterly.
a. 6.45%
b. 12.5%
c. 10.5%
d. 8.56%
15. A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the 1 st payment
being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued paying the semi-annual
installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in the position to pay the remaining
balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest is 14% compounded semi-annually?
a. P 14,467.84
b. P 16,750,50
c. P 18,120.50
d. P 12,845.60
16. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in practically any
business transacti0on which a real person can do.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
d. None of these
17. A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the ground. If the
slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the velocity at the foot of the incline
plane.
a. 14.1 m/s
b. 16.5 m/s
c. 9.64 m/s
d. 12.8 m/s
18. It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced force system, and
of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired change in its motion.
a. Kinematics
b. Statics
c. Kinetics
d. Robotics
19. A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the forces causing
the motion.
a. Kinematics
b. Statics
c. Kinetics
d. Robotics
20. This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.
a. Newtons 2nd law
b. Newtons 3rd law
c. Varignons theorem
d. DAlemberts Principles
21. These are system of forces whereby all forces dont meet even of they are extended along their line of
axes.
a. Concurrent forces
b. Parallel forces
c. Forces in space
d. Non-concurrent forces
22. These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force.
a. Resultant
b. Equilibrant
c. Component
d. Parallel
23. It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.
a. 40oC
b. -50oC
c. -40oC
d. -10oC
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple:
a. The resultant force of a couple is zero
b. The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis
c. The force couple must always be parallel with one another
d. The force couple must be going on the same direction

25. A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in succession. The post is
spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds to travel from the first post to the
second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2 nd to the 3rd post. Where did the car started from the first
post?
a. 73.5 m
b. 75.3 cm
c. 57.3
d. 35.7 m
26. It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Centroid
d. Moment
27. When the force is divided by the resisting area parallel to it.
a. Shearing stress
b. Normal stress
c. Axial stress
d. Bearing stress
28. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it
take the body to return to the ground?
a. 7.85 seconds
b. 12.5 seconds
c. 5.1 seconds
d. 10.2 seconds
29. It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supported
a. Simple beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Propped beam
d. Overhanging beam
30. The point on the beam where the shear is zero
a. Point of inflection
b. Maximum shear
c. Maximum moment reaction
d. Reaction
31. The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________.
a. 16T/(pi)d^2
b. 16T/(pi)d^4
c. 16T/(pi)d^3
d. 16T/(pi)d
32. A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the maximum
moment developed is ________.
a. 240 kN-m
b. 160 kN-m
c. 204 kN-m
d. 402 kN-m
33. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at 200 rpm. The
transmitted power is _______.
a. 20 kW
b. 200 kW
c. 10 kW
d. 100 kW
34. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______.
a. Guy Lussacs Law
b. Hookes Law
c. Van der Walls Law
d. Charles Law
35. The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
a. PL/2AE
b. PL/AE
c. PL2/AE
d. PA/EL
36. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______________.
a. Rectangle
b. Triangle
c. 2nd degree
d. 3rd degree
37. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each
rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
a. 8 rpm
b. 12 rpm
c. 10.6 rpm
d. 9.97 rpm
38. A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60, what maximum
safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the 100 m radius?
a. 100 kph
b. 90 kph
c. 122 kph
d. 130 kph
39. It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction.
a. Scalar quantity
b. Vector quantity
c. Product
d. Difference
40. A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a sag of 8 m at
its center. The tension at the sag is ______.
a. 708.25 kg
b. 615.7 kg
c. 781.25 kg
d. 812.8 kg
41. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what
height will it attain on its 5th bounce?
a. 3 m
b. 8 m
c. 4 m
d. 6 m
42. Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total head of 100m.
The available power from each tribune is _______.
a. 12.286 mW
b. 18.62 mW
c. 16.82 mW
d. 20.56 mW
43. An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60 o with the horizontal. How long
did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same level with its range?
a. 12.83 sec
b. 10.25 sec
c. 8.83 sec
d. 9.58 sec
44. How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of the tank is 4 m
and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from the base of the tank.
a. 5.5 hrs
b. 6.45 hrs
c. 8.26 hrs
d. 7.6 hrs
45. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the base is
________.
a. bh3/3
b. bh3/12
c. bh3/36
d. bh3/4
46. The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is f is
minimum when force is applied.
a. Horizontally
b. 30o
c. 45o
d. arctan f
47. The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____.
a. Potential energy
b. Kinetic energy
c. Work energy
d. Power
48. A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 200 kN. The
young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______.
a. 2.56 mm
b. 1.38 mm
c. 3.18 mm
d. 3.81 mm
49. A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a span of 6 m. The
maximum moment developed is _______.
a. 90 kN-m
b. 120 kN-m
c. 180 kN-m
d. 100 kN-m
50. The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except:
a. Degree of roughness of contract surface
b. Area of contract surface
c. Normal force
d. Weight of body
51. It represents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the corporation after
all the claims have been settled.
a. Preferred stock
b. Common stock
c. Bond
d. Capital
52. This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation.
a. Debenture bond
b. Joint bond
c. Lien bond
d. Mortgage bond
53. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation or policy which
is made.
a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Fixed cost
d. Variable cost
54. When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the
demand this is __________.
a. Law of supply
b. Law of diminishing return
c. Law of supply and demand
d. Law of demand
55. It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by anyone of them
will definitely affect the course of action of the others
a. Monopoly
b. Competition
c. Utility
d. Oligopoly
56. It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and the
patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations.
a. Good-will value
b. Salvage value
c. Fair value
d. Book value
57. It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and maintenance for
a long time or forever.
a. First cost
b. Capitalized cost
c. Original cost
d. None of these
58. It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic payments continue
indefinitely.
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
d. Perpetuity
59. The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of depreciation is constant
percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year.
a. Straight Line Method
b. Sinking Fund method
c. SYD Method
d. Matheson Formula
60. The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already been recovered
is _____.
a. Economic life
b. Write-off period
c. Physical life
d. Salvage life
61. It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in practically
any business transaction which a real person can do.
a. Corporation
b. Partnership
c. Conglomerate
d. Proprietorship
62. This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses resulting in no
profit.
a. Kelvins law
b. Break-even point
c. Unhealthy point
d. Minimum cost Analysis
63. Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20, 1996 if the
rate of simple interest is 14%.
a. P299.18
b. P303.33
c. P279.82
d. P309.18
64. If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly,
what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P 20,642.50
b. P 32,120.30
c. P 26,132.32
d. P 24,457.24
65. Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded quarterly.
a. 11.882%
b. 12.6%
c. 10.5%
d. 12.3%
66. A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity is P1200 and the
accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest.
a. 11.35 percent
b. 9.37 percent
c. 10.67 percent
d. 12.6 percent
67. For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest is 8%
compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated?
a. 8 yrs
b. 9 yrs
c. 10 yrs
d. 11 yrs
68. A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage value of P10,
000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge.
a. P 8,000
b. P 9,000
c. P 7,000
d. P 6,000
69. A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire. There are 400
soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire is P33; on tinned wire is
P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear meter and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter.
Calculate the length of cable used so that the cost of each installation will be the same.
a. 892 m
b. 726 m
c. 846 m
d. 953 m
70. A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But the interest is
to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end of one year, he has to pay
back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest?
a. 15%
b. 16.5%
c. 17.65%
d. 18%
71. An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to build a house.
How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10 years?
a. P 2,040.30
b. P 1,102.40
c. P 1,200.50
d. P 1,350.60
72. How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily.
a. 6.5 yrs
b. 5.8 yrs
c. 6.1 yrs
d. 7.2 yrs
73. It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured and shift of
population.
a. Physical depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Functional depreciation
d. Deflation
74. It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be considered as being
concentrated without changing its moment of inertia.
a. Centroid
b. Radius of gyration
c. Center of gravity
d. Neutral axis
75. The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its length L and
carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____.
a. wL2/8
b. wL2/12
c. wL2/4
d. wL2/2
76. A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod along the joint
between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied either by an electric arc or by an
oxyacetylene torch.
a. Welding
b. Riveting
c. Soldering
d. None of these
77. The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected to a torsion T
is _________.
a. 16T/d2
b. 16T/d
c. 16T/d3
d. 16T/d4
78. It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting area parallel to it.
a. Axial stress
b. Shearing stress
c. Bearing stress
d. Compressive stress
79. A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the middle of the
beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the beam is neglected is ________.
a. 150 kN-m
b. 280 kN-m
c. 120 kN-m
d. 180 kN-m
80. A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power at 1200 rpm.
What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa.
a. 245.85 hp
b. 285.75 hp
c. 320.50 hp
d. 296.45 hp
81. A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm deep. If it is 8
m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress developed is ______.
a. 25 MPa
b. 30 MPa
c. 18 MPa
d. 20 MPa
82. A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load can elongate the
rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa.
a. 1309 kN
b. 2050 kN
c. 1200 kN
d. 1500 kN
83. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid is _____.
a. bh3/12
b. bh3/30
c. bh3/36
d. bh3/3
84. An object was fired at an inclination of 60 o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s/ the
total time it will be in air is _______.
a. 17.66 s
b. 18.5 s
c. 16.4 s
d. 19.2 s
85. A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is simply supported
the maximum moment is _______.
a. 80 kN-m
b. 90 kN-m
c. 120 kN-m
d. 70 kN-m
86. It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction.
a. Scalar quantity
b. Vector quantity
c. Resultant
d. Displacement
87. The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion
a. Torque
b. Resultant
c. Equilibrant
d. Couple
88. The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet.
a. Orbiting velocity
b. Angular velocity
c. Escape velocity
d. Linear velocity
89. It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at rest or in motion.
a. Centrifugal force
b. Frictional force
c. Centripetal force
d. Resultant force
90. It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature
a. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Isentropic process
91. It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body.
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Work
d. Power
92. The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional
with the square of the distance between them.
a. Ohms Law
b. Avogadros Law
c. Coulombs Law
d. Faradays Law
93. Which of the following is a vector quantity:
a. Entropy
b. Electric field intensity
c. Kinetic energy
d. Charge
94. Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k)
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
95. A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5th bounce.
a. 6.88 m
b. 5.99 m
c. 8 m
d. 7.5 m
96. A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due to impact
caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50 o with the vertical. If the bullet was
embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet.
a. 200.6 m/s
b. 252.6 m/s
c. 213.5 m/s
d. 233.85 m/s
97. A block was made to slide down a 30o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the block and the
plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest?
a. 5.65 s
b. 4.12 s
c. 3.55 s
d. 6.55 s
GENERAL ENGINEERING II
1. Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies.
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Emission
2. It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time interval
a. Instantaneous acceleration
b. Constant acceleration
c. Average acceleration
d. Speed
3. It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed.
a. Equivalent force
b. Co-planar
c. Concurrent force
d. Equilibrant force
4. The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.
a. Rate discount
b. Nominal discount
c. Actual discount
d. Sales discount
5. An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Suspended annuity
c. Deferred annuity
d. Annuity due
6. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?
a. Compounded interest
b. Nominal interest
c. Simple interest
d. Effective interest
7. A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.
a. Debenture
b. Mortgage
c. Collateral
d. Lien
8. Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost inevitably result
in the similar action by the other.
a. Monopoly
b. Oligopoly
c. Competition
d. Necessity
9. It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.
a. Resale value
b. Face value
c. Book value
d. Written value
10. The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.
a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Devaluation
d. Deviation
11. It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both the seller
and the buyer.
a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Common value
d. Safe value
12. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region of the
country.
a. Outlet
b. Branch
c. Extension
d. Franchise
13. It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and
maintenance.
a. Total cost
b. Capitalized cost
c. Initial cost
d. Variable cost
14. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed
by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. Collateral
b. Bond
c. Mortgage
d. Contract
15. What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.
a. Utility value
b. Present value
c. Salvage value
d. Resale value
16. Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent
additional vendors entering the market.
a. Free market
b. Perfect competition
c. Open market
d. Law of supply and demand
17. In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost. A
method called as __________.
a. Rate of return
b. Annual cost pattern
c. Present worth pattern
d. Capital cost
18. Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5%
a. P 1, 192.57
b. P 1, 912.75
c. P 1, 219.60
d. P 1, 921.65
19. A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an amortization
installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt. What should be the amount
of each payment?
a. P 220.50
b. P 224.62
c. P 242.61
d. P 222.50
20. P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25 years, assuming
that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit?
a. P 5, 247.63
b. P 5, 437.34
c. P 5, 427.43
d. P 5, 720.51
21. What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12% ordinary simple
interest?
a. P 756
b. P 765
c. P 675
d. P 576
22. A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 10% payable annually is to be
redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P 1,120. Determine the yield at this
price.
a. 4.68%
b. 6.48%
c. 8.64%
d. 8.46%
23. A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9% compounded
annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000, 000 can be built?
a. 7.34 years
b. 7.44 years
c. 7.20 years
d. 7.54 years
24. A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his original load
left. What was the original load?
a. 80
b. 70
c. 60
d. 90
25. The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last digits, the new
number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the last two digits of the new
number, the resulting number is greater than the original by 576. Find the original number.
a. 137
b. 147
c. 127
d. 157
26. In how many minutes after 2 oclock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each other?
a. 27 3/11
b. 23 7/11
c. 11 3/7
d. 3 11/27
27. A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after which it
proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident happened 50 km further
out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length of the journey?
a. 98.88 km
b. 88.88 km
c. 78 km
d. 68.88 km
28. A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same time it takes it to
go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
a. 1.5 kph
b. 2.5 kph
c. 2 kph
d. 2.75 kph
29. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
a. Arithmetic mean
b. Median
c. Root mean square
d. Range
30. If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf by __ %
a. 18%
b. 19%
c. 23%
d. 21%
31. Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22
a. 3.82
b. 3.72
c. 3.52
d. 3.62
32. If = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3., find the value of x?
a. -1/2
b.
c. -1/3
d. 1/3
33. In statistics, the standard deviation means?
a. Central tendency
b. Dispersion
c. Distribution
d. Frequency
34. If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle.
a. 25 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 15 degrees
35. A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25 o15N. how many nautical miles is that place from
the north?
a. 5, 883
b. 5, 838
c. 3, 885
d. 5, 883
36. The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called the _______.
a. Incenter
b. Circumcenter
c. Centroid
d. Orthocenter
37. What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60.
a. 5.5
b. 6.5
c. 8.5
d. 7.5
38. The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
a. PL/2AE
b. PL/AE
c. PL2/AE
d. PA/EL
39. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each
rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
a. 7.99 rpm
b. 9.97 rpm
c. 10.97 rpm
d. 8.99 rpm
40. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it
take the body to return to the ground?
a. 10.2 sec
b. 5.1 sec
c. 7.8 sec
d. 12.2 sec
41. Which of the following cannot be a probability value?
a. (0.99)^4
b. 88/100
c. (0.59)^(1/3)
d. (0.50)^-1
42. If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______.
a. A circle
b. An ellipse
c. A parabola
d. A hyperbola
43. The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy)^-3 is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44. Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 x ad y^2=4-4x.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 6
d. 12
45. Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the reciprocal of the
product of the coordinates of the point.
a. y^2=lnx + 2C
b. y^2=ln2x + C
c. y^2=2(lnx + C)
d. y^2=2lnx + Cx
46. Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y.
a. -8/y^3
b. -6/y^3
c. -2/y^3
d. -4/y^3
47. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known as _________.
a. Guy Lussacs Law
b. Hookes Law
c. Charles Law
d. L.A. Law
48. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______.
a. Rectangle
b. Triangle
c. 2nd degree
d. 3rd degree
49. It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported.
a. Simple beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Propped beam
d. Overhanging beam
50. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what
height it will attain on its 5th bounce?
a. 4 m
b. 5 m
c. 6 m
d. 7 m
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
CHEMISTRY
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Eledctrions and Protons

Protons and Neutrons
Cations and Anions
Electrons and Neutrons
2. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons
Protons
Neutron
Molecule
3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons
Protons
Neutron
Molecule
4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons
Protons
Neutron
Molecule
5. The word atom comes from Greek Atomos which means what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extremely Small
Invisible
Indivisible
Microscopic
6. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ernest Rutherford
Democritus
John Dalton
Joseph John Thomson
7. Who discovered the electron?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Joseph John Thomson

John Dalton
Humphrey Davy
Ernest Rutherford
8. Who discovered the proton?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Eugene Goldstein
Pierre Curie
Ernest Rutherford
Michael Faraday
9. Who discovered the neutron?

A.
B.
C.
D.
James Chadwick
Eugene Goldstein
Niels Bohr
Julius Lothar Meyer
10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Element
Ion
Matter
Molecule
11. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
molecules
atom
elements
ions
12. How are substances classified?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Elements or Compounds
Metals or Non-metals
Acids or Bases
Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
13. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?
A. Ion
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Element
14. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass, of two or more elements?
A. Mixture
B. Compound
C. Substance
D. Chemical Reaction
15. How are mixtures classified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elements or Compounds
Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids
Suspension, Colloids or Solutions
16. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous
Suspension
Colloid
Solution
17. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this mixture classified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Colloid
Suspension
Solution
Compound
18. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous mixture. What is this
homogeneous mixture called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Colloid
Compound
Suspension
Solution
19. How are elements classified?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids

Suspension, Colloid, Solution
Quarks, Solids or Liquids
20. What are the three states of matter?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Solid, Liquid and Gas

Metals, Nonmetals and Metalloids
Suspension, Colloid and Solution
Quarks, Photons and Quasar
21. Compounds are mostly classified as:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous and Heterogeneous

Acids and Bases
Gases, Liquids and Solids
Metals and Nonmetals
22. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ductility
Malleability
Luster
Elasticity
23. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their surfaces, making them appear shiny?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Malleability
Ductility
Luster
Plasticity
24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Metals are neither malleable nor ductile.

Metals have high thermal conductivity.
Metals have high electrical conductivity.
Metals have more luster.
25. What are elements that have properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gases
Solids
Liquids
Metalloids
26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Taste sour
Feel slippery on the skin
Turn litmus paper to red
Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas
27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Feel slippery on the skin

Turn litmus paper to blue
Taste bitter
Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas
28. An acid can react with base to produce a __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
hydrogen gas
salt
oxide
hydroxide
29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Phosphoric acid
Sulfuric acid
Nitric acid
Acetic acid
30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Citric acid
Phosphoric acid
Sulfuric acid
Nitric acid
31. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate

Sodium and chlorine
Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate
Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
32. What occurs when a substance is transformed into another substance with a totally different composition
and properties?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Physical change
Chemical change
Catalyst
Chemical reaction
33. What occurs when a substance changes it appearance without changing its composition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical reaction
Chemical change
Physical change
Catalyst
34. What is another term for chemical change?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical reaction
Phase change
State change
Composition change
35. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are uniform throughout.
A.
B.
C.
D.
homogeneous
heterogeneous
pure substance
pure compound
36. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are not uniform throughout.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Un-pure
homogeneous
heterogeneous
malicable
37. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance changes are called _______
properties.
A.
B.
C.
D.
intensive
extensive
physical
chemical
38. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of substance changes are called _______
properties.
A.
B.
C.
D.
intensive
extensive
chemical
physical
39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Color
Surface area
Melting point
Taste
40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Length
Volume
Density
Weight
41. When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of one element that
combine with a given mass of another element in the different compounds is the ratio of small whole numbers.
This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Graham Law of diffusion

The uncertainty principle
Law of definite proportion
Law of multiple proportion
42. The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion. This statement is known
as ________.
A. Law of multiple proportion

B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law
D. Daltons atomic theory
43. Who formulated the atomic theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
John Dalton
Humphrey Davy
Henri Becquerel
Ernest Rutherford
44. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible spheres imagined by Dalton and
proposed the raisin bread model of the atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pierre Curie
Robert Andrews Millikan
Joseph John Thomson
Humphrey Davy
45. How does Joseph John Thomson call his model of the atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Orbital model
Planetary model
Radioactive model
Plum-pudding model
46. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who discovered
radioactivity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Henri Becquerel
Marie Curie
Pierre Curie
Niels Bohr
47. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic mass unit (amu)

Charge unit
Coulomb
Gram
48. What is the unit for a charge of a particle?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Coulomb
Charge unit
Atomic mass unit
Lepton
49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb?
A.
B.
C.
D.
-1.70217733 x 10^-19
-1.60217733 x 10^-19
-1.50217733 x 10^-19
-1.40217733 x 10^-19
50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1+
1
0
51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?

A.
B.
C.
D.
+ 1.70217733 x 10^-19
+ 1.60217733 x 10^-19
+ 1.50217733 x 10^-19
+ 1.40217733 x 10^-19
52. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1+
1
0
53. What is the mass of an electron in gram?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10203 x 10^-23
8.218290 x 10^-25
1.672623 x 10^-24
9.109387 x 10^-28
54. What is the mass of an electron in amu?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2.490210 x 10^-4
3.890140 x 10^-4
1.007276 x 10^-4
5.485799 x 10^-4
55. What is the mass of a proton in gram?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2.490210 x 10^-24
3.890140 x 10^-24
1.007276 x 10^-24
5.485799 x 10^-24
56. What is the mass of a proton in amu?

A. 1.0052981
B. 1.0072765
C. 1.0086600
D. 1.0066241
57. What is the mass of a neutron in grams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.47495 x 10^24
1.37495 x 10^-24
1.67495 x 10^-24
1.77495 x 10^-24
58. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1.00866
1.00521
1.00324
1.00000
59. The protons and neutrons are not considered are fundamental particles because they consist of a smaller
particles called__________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
bosons
quarks
leptons
fermions
60. The atomic number of an element is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the sum of number of protons and electrons

the number of protons in the nucleus
the number of electrons
the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
61. Atoms of the same element which have different masses are called _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
molecules
ions
nuclides
isotopes
62. What is an atom specific isotope called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Nuclide
Ion
Molecule
Fermion
63. The number of _______ in an atom defines what element the atom is.
A. neutron
B. electrons
C. protons
D. protons and electrons

64. The number of __________ in an atom defines the isotopes of an element.
A.
B.
C.
D.
neutrons
protons
electrons
protons and neutrons
65. If electrons are removed from or added to a neutral atom, a charged particle of the same element, called
_______ is formed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ion
cation
anion
isotope
66. A negatively charged ion which results when an electron is added to an atom called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boson
Fermion
Cation
Anion
67. A positively charged ion which results when an electron is removed from an atom is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anion
Cation
Fermion
Lepton
68. What is density number of an atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic number
Mass number
Atomic mass
Atomic weight
69. The _______ of an atom is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
A.
B.
C.
D.
mass number
atomic weight
atomic mass
atomic number
70. When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with similar properties
appear at periodic intervals. This statement is known as _________.
A. Law of multiple proportion
B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law

D. Daltons atomic theory
71. Who are the two chemists credited for the discovery of the periodic law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich Mendeleev

Humphrey Davy and Henri Becquerel
Henri Becquerel and Ernest Rutherford
Ernest Rutherforn and Julius Lothar Meyer
72. The elements with similar properties are placed in columns of the periodic table. These columns are
commonly called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Periods
Groups
Families
Groups or families
73. What are the rows in the periodic table called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Periods
Transitions
Groups
Families
74. Elements in Gropu1A in the periodic table are ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Boron group
Alkaline earth metals
Alkali metals
Carbon group
75. Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Halogens
Alkaline earth metals
Alkali metals
Nitrogen group
76. The boron group is what group in the periodic table?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Group IIIA
Group IVA
Group VA
Group VIA
77. What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Group IIIA
Group IVA
Group VA
Group VIA
78. What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Group VA
Group VIA
Group VIIA
Group IVA
79. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group VA
Group VIA
Group VIIA
Group IVA
80. Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Group IVA
Group VA
Group VIA
Group VIIA
81. The elements, germanium and silicon, which are commonly use for semiconductors belongs what group of
elements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boron group
Carbon group
Nitrogen group
Halogens
82. What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group 0
Group VIIIA
Group VIIA
Group 0 or VIIIA
83. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Argon
Xenon
Radon
Antimony
84. What is the atomic number for oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6
7
8
9
85. What is the atomic number of germanium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
14
32
18
23
86. What is the atomic number of carbon?

A.
B.
C.
D.
6
7
8
10
87. Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beryllium
Magnesium
Calcium
Barium
88. Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Argon
Krypton
Neon
Helium
89. What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrogen
Helium
Oxygen
Nitrogen
90. What is the most abundant element in the human body?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Calcium
91. What is the second most abundant element in the human body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Nitrogen
92. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Antimony
Boron
Magnesium
Silicon
93. Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another term for caustic soda?
A. Sodium benzoate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium chlorate
D. Cesium bromide
94. What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnesium hydroxide
Potassium chlorate
Potassium perchlorate
Cesium bromide
95. All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnesium
Barium
Radium
Beryllium
96. What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to allow x-rays to pass though
with minimum absorption?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnesium
Radium
Beryllium
Barium
97. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-resistant material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnesium
Titanium
Zinc
Chromium
98. What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers artifact hearts?
A. Promethium
B. Neodymium
C. Uranium
D. Plutonium
99. What element is commonly used in making lasers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chromium
Neodymium
Promethium
Terbium
100. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Carbon
Uranium
101. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Helium
Inert gases
102. What is the only gas in Group VIA in the periodic table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Argon
Krypton
Oxygen
Helium
103. What is the second most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrogen
Helium
Oxygen
Nitrogen
104. What element is used in advertising signs?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Neon
Helium
Sodium
Xenon
105. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that, for a particle as small as the electron, one
cannot know exactly where it is and at the same time know its energy how it is moving?
A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

106. Who discovered the uncertainty principle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Werner Karl Heisenberg principle?

Louie de Broglie
Albert Einstein
John Newlands
107. What principle states that the electrons fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting with the lowest orbital then
proceeding to the one with higher energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Autbau principle
Uncertainty principle
Pauli exclusion principle
Kinetic molecular theory
108. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum
numbers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Autbau principle
Uncertainty principle
Kinetic molecular theory
109. What describes how the electrons and distributed among the orbitals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronegativity of the element

Electron configuration of an atom
Energy state of the atom
110. The _______ of the atom describes the atom as having a nucleus at the center around which electrons
move?
A.
B.
C.
D.
spin number
quantum mechanical model
quantum number
azimuthal number
111. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Valence shells
Azimuthal shells
Spin shells
Quantum shells
112. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are called main group elements or
A.
B.
C.
D.
transition
representatives
inner transitions
metals or nonmetals
113. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as the _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
number of electrons
number of neutrons
the rightmost digit of the group number of the element
number of electrons less the number of neutrons
114. For transition elements, the number of valence electron is the same as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the group number

the rightmost digit of the group number of the element
the number of electrons less the number of neutrons
the number of electrons less the number of protons
115. The size of the atom is dependent on which of the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the size of the nucleus

the region of space occupied by its electrons
the number of protons and neutrons
all of the choices above
116. What happens to the atomic size of the elements in a group when you go from top to bottom of the group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It remains the same

It increases
It decreases
It become zero
117. Who first predicted the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) in 1924?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Albert Einstein
Satyendra Nath Bose
Carl Wieman
Wollgang Ketterie
118. The ionization energy is _________ to the atomic size of atom.

A.
B.
C.
D.
directly proportional
inversely proportional
equal to
not related
119. What refers to the measure of the atoms tendency to attract an additional electron?
A. Period number
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Electronegativity
120. The process of gaining or losing an electron results to the formation of a charged atom or molecule called
_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ion
cation
anion
crystal
121. Aside from liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plasma and Quark

Quartz and Plasma
Quartz and Quasar
Plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate
122. Who first identified plasma in 1879?

A.
B.
C.
D.
William Crookes
Irving Langmuir
Albert Einstein
Eric Cornell
123. Who coined the term plasma in 1928?

A.
B.
C.
D.
William Crookes
Irving Langmuir
Albert Einstein
Eric Cornell
124. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature the atoms
slow down, combine and forms a single entity known called a superatom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionized gas
Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC)
Plasma
Quark
125. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first created in what year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1992
1993
1994
1995
126. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer
orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive charge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quartz
Quark
BEC
Plasma
127. Water has bigger density when it is in what state?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquid
Gas
Solid
Vapor
128. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm?

A.
B.
C.
D.
40C
250C
00C
50C
129. The density of water is the largest at what temperature?

A.
B.
C.
D.
20C
10C
30C
40C
130. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of light bulbs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Barium
Aluminum
Tungsten
Titanium
131. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of metals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Malleability
Ductility
Rigidity
Plasticity
132. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile strength. It is a combination of
what element?
A. Iron and carbon
B. Iron and aluminum
C. Lead and carbon
D. Lead and aluminum

133. What refers to the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charged ions, the cations and
anions, in the solid compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronic bond
Metallic bond
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
134. What states that atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they are surrounded by eight valence
electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Figure of 8 rule
Octet rule
Ionic rule
Lewis rule
135. What indicates the number of valence electrons to the atom represented by dots scattedred on four sides of
the atomic symbol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electron dot structure

Lewis structure
Crystalline structure
Electron dot structure or Lewis structure
136. What is formed by sharing of electrons between atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Electronic band
137. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bond length
Molecular length
Atomic distance
Atomic radius
138. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Bond distance and bond size

Bond distance and bond angle
Bond radius and bond angle
Bond angle and bond size
139. What is an angle made by the lines joining the nuclei of the atoms in the molecule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic angle
Bond angle
Molecular angle
Ionic angle
140. The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared electrons is the one that minimizes the
repulsion among them. This is known as ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
valence bond theory

electron group theory
molecular polarity theory
valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory
141. A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals. This statement is the basic idea of which
theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Valence bond theory

Energy group theory
Molecular polarity theory
Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSPER) theory
142. What refers to the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronegativity
Electron affinity
Ionization energy
Periodic number
143. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity is greater than or equal to 2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent
144. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.00 to 0.40
0.50 to 1.90
1.90 to 2.00
2.00 and up
145. When can we say that a molecule is polar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the centers of positive and negative charge do not coincide

When the centers of positive and negative charge coincide
When there is no positive nor negative charge
When there is only one charge, either negative or negative
146. What is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule of the substance called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic mass
Molecular mass
Formula mass
Atomic weight
147. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Avogadros number
Mole
Molar mass
amu
148. Which one is the Avogados number?

A. 6.20 x 10^23
B. 6.62 x 10^23
C. 6.32 x 10^23
D. 6.22 x 10^23
149. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023 particles of that substance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mole
Molar mass
Atomic mass
amu
150. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Molar mass
Molecular mass
Atomic mass
Atomic weight
151. What is the unit of molar mass?

A.
B.
C.
D.
amu
mole
grams
grams per mole
152. The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases in the
mixture. This statement is known as __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Daltons law of partial pressure

Gay-Lusaac law
Boyles law
Charles law
153. The dry air is composed of how many percent nitrogen?

A.
B.
C.
D.
73.1%
74.4%
76.1%
78.1%
154. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen?

A.
B.
C.
D.
20.9%
21.2%
22.1%
23.7%
155. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0.003%
0.03%
0.3%
3%
156. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Diffusion
Effusion
Fission
Fusion
157. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to another through a tiny opening
between the containers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diffusion
Effusion
Fission
Fusion
158. The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Who discovered
this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gilbert Lewis
John Tyndall
Robert Brown
Thomas Graham
159. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount of gas that through the hole in a
given amount of time, is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Henrys law
Grahams law of effusion
Hunds law
Lewis theory
160. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Hydroxide
Nitric acid
161. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for among and acid rain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sulfur dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Hydroxide
162. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interaction forces
Dispersion forces
Intermolecular forces
Induction forces
163. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dipole-dipole interaction
London dispersion forces
Heat bonding
Hydrogen bonding
164. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are collectively known as van der Waals
forces. This is named after ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diderick van der Waals

Derick van der Waals
Doe van der Waals
Eric van der Waals
165. A dipole has how many electrically charged pole(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
166. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydroxides
Hydrides
Hydros
Hydrates
167. What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly
electronegative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby electronegativeatom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydride bond
Hydro bond
Hydrogen bond
Hydrate bond
168. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sublimation
Condensation
Deposition
Vaporization
169. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Melting
Freezing
Sublimation
Condensation
170. What is the process of changing fro, liquid state to gas state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vaporization
Sublimation
Condensation
Deposition
171. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vaporization
Deposition
Sublimation
Condensation
172. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deposition
Vaporization
Condensation
Sublimation
173. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Freezing
Melting
Condensation
Vaporization
174. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance to change from solid to liquid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molar heat of vaporization

Molar heat of solidification
Molar heat of fission
Molar heat of fusion
175. What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it change from liquid to solid?
A.
B.
C.
D.

176. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from liquid to gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Molar heat fusion
177. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from gas to liquid?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Molar heat of condensation
178. Liquid that vaporizes easily are called ______ liquids.

A.
B.
C.
D.
volatile
nonvolatile
surfactant
hydrophilic
179. What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by an increase in pressure?
A. Absolute temperature
B. Absolute zero
C. Critical temperature
D. Maximum temperature
180. What is a homogeneous mixture made of particles that exist as individual molrcules or ions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Colloid
181. What is the component of a solution that is dissolved?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Solvent
Solute
Catalyst
Colloid
182. What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solvent
Catalyst
Reactant
Medium
183. Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tin is a solvent.
Copper is a solute.
Copper is the solvent.
The solution is called aqueous solution.
184. When the solvent of the solution is water, it is a/an _____ solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
wet
liquid
aqueous
fluid
185. What is the most common solvent in medicines?

A. Paracetamol
B. Acid
C. Ethanol
D. Starch
186. What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute molecules or ions with solvent
molecules?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solubility
Solvation
Saturation
Transformation
187. What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that a given solvent can dissolve to give a
stable solution at a given temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solubility
Solvation
Saturation
Transformation
188. When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvent at a stated temperature, this solution
formed is __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unsaturated
saturated
supersaturated
undersaturated
189. When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum amount the solvent can dissolve at that
temperature, the solution is ____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unsaturated
saturated
supersaturated
undersaturated
190. When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can normally hold, the solution is
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unsaturated
saturated
supersaturated
undersaturated
191. What is the most common solution on earth?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Air
Seawater
Blood
Freshwater
192. Solutions composed of two or more metals are called ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
saturated solutions
supersaturated solutions
unsaturated solutions
alloys
193. The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the following factors except __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
nature of solute and solvent

pressure
volume
temperature
194. Liquids that do not mix are said to be _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
miscible
immiscible
soluble
nonsoluble
195. Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion. They are said to be __.
A.
B.
C.
D.
miscible
immiscible
soluble
nonsoluble
196. How will an increase in temperature in solids affect the solubility?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It will cause a decrease in solubility.

It will not affect the solubility at all.
It will slightly affect solubility.
It will cause an increase in solubility.
197. How will an increase in temperature of gases dissolving in liquids affect the solubility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It will cause a decrease in solubility.

It will not affect solubility at all.
It will slightly affect solubility.
It will cause an increase in solubility.
198. How does pressure affects the solubility of gases in liquids?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It decreases solubility.
It does not affect solubility at all.
It slightly affects solubility.
It increases solubility.
199. How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in another liquid?
A. It decreases solubility.
B. It does not affect solubility at all.
C. It slightly affects solubility.
D. It increases solubility.
200. The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the
solution. This is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hunds law
Pascals law
Henrys law
Daltons law
201. What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Rate of solubility
Rate of agitation
Rate of dissolution
Rate of solution
202. How can the rate of dissolution be increased?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduce particle size

Agitation
Application of heat
All of the above
203. ________ means there is only a little amount of solute dissolved in a solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated
Unsaturated
204. ________ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated
Unsaturated
205. What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution to the total number of moles of all
the components?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molarity
Molality
Formality
Mole fraction
206. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the solution in liters?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
207. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molarity
Molality
Formality
Mole fraction
208. What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the addition of more solvent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Concentration
Dilution
Saturation
Colligation
209. What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually accompanied by the production of the bubbles
of vapor in the liquid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vaporizing
Boiling
Condensing
Sublimation
210. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the prevailing atmospheric
pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boiling point
Triple point
Saturation point
Critical point
211. What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boiling point
Resting point
Freezing point
Critical point
212. What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when another substance is dissolved in the
liquid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Freezing point compression

Freezing point extension
Freezing point depression
Freezing point dilution
213. If two solutions have the same concentration of solute, they are ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hypertonic
hypotonic
isotonic
photonic
214. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with the
higher concentration is described as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hypertonic
hypotonic
isotonic
photonic
215. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with the
lower concentration is described as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hypertonic
hypotonic
isotonic
photonic
216. The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable membrane from the region lower solute
concentration to the region of higher solute concentration is called _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
osmosis
hymolysis
orenation
dialysis
217. The term colloid comes from the Greek kolla and oidos which means _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cloudy auppearance
cloudy shape
glue appearance
glue color
218. What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Emulsions
Aerosols
Foams
Sols
219. What in some aerosol products that can cause harm to the atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Smog
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
Emulsifying agent
Hydrocarbons
220. What are colloidal dispersion of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Emulsions
Aerosols
Foams
Sols
221. What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Emulsions
Gels
Foams
Sols
222. What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Emulsions
Gels
Foams
Sols
223. What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of fibrous, interwoven particles called
fibrils which exert a marked effect on the physical properties of the dispersing medium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Emulsions
Gels
Foams
Sols
224. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
emulsions
gels
foams
sols
225. The substance usually used in cleaning toilets bowls and tiles is muriatic acid. What is another term for
this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nitric acid
Sulfuric acid
Hydrochloric acid
Phosphoric acid
226. Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield hydroxide ions. What is this
statement commonly called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrhenius theory
pH concept
Bronstead-Lowry theory
Le Chateliers principle
227. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of
the solvent cation, H3O?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lewis acid
Lewis base
Arrhenius base
Arrhenius acid
228. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of
the solvent anion, OH?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lewis acid
Lewis base
Arrhenius base
Arrhenius acid
229. What is the dissolution constant of water at 250C?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1.8 x 10-15
1.8 x 10-16
1.8 x 10-17
1.8 x 10-18
230. What theory states that an acid in any substance that donates a proton to another substance, and a base is
any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrhenius theory
Bronsted-Lowry theory
Lewis theory
pH concept
231. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from another molecule, and a base
is a substance that has a lone pair of electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrhenius theory
Bronsted-Lowry theory
Lewis theory
pH concept
232. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the _________ acid.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrhenius
Pure
Lewis
Bronsted-Lowry
233. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
a proton donor
a proton acceptor
an electron pair acceptor
an electron pair donor
234. The Bronsted-Lowry base is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
a proton donor
a proton acceptor
an electron pair acceptor
an electron pair donor
235. According to Gilbert Lewis an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an electron pair will form what type of
bond?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coordinate ionic bond

Coordinate covalent bond
Coordinate metallic bond
Coordinate bond
236. What is the type of covalent bond in which the shared electrons are donated by one, not both, of the atoms
involved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Synchronous covalent bond

Coordinated covalent bond
Asynchronous covalent bond
Translating covalent bond
237. What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxyacids
Binary acids
Acibas
Adduct
238. Acids composed of only two elements; hydrogen and nonmetal are called __________.
A. Binary acids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids
239. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxygen
Sulfur
Water
Carbon
240. Acids consist of three element; hydrogen and two nonmetals are called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Triacids
Ternary acids
Oxyacids
Organic acids
241. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxide
Oxyacid
Oxide acid
Acidic acid
242. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?

A.
B.
C.
D.
H2SO4
H2SO3
HNO2
HNO3
243. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?

A.
B.
C.
D.
HNO4
H2NO3
HNO2
HNO3
244. What acid is usually used in vinegars?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sulfuric acid
Acetic acid
Nitric acid
Carbonic acid
245. What acid is used in glass itching?

A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
246. What acid is usually present in some fruits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Citric acid
Carbonic acid
Organic acid
Nitric acid
247. What acid is used in carbonated drinks?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbonic acid
Hydrofluoric acid
Nitric acid
Citric acid
248. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other pain relievers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbonic acid
Acetylsalicylic acid
Sulfuric acid
Phosphoric acid
249. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbonic acid
Sulfuric acid
Phosphoric acid
250. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Phosphoric acid
251. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbonic acid
Sulfuric acid
Phosphoric acid
252. Bases are compounds consisting of:

A. metal and oxide ion
B. nonmetal and oxide ion
C. metal and hydroxide ion
D. nonmetal and hydroxide ion
253. Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lithium hydroxide
Sodium hydroxide
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium hydroxide
254. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnesium hydroxide
Sodium hydroxide
Aluminum hydroxide
Lithium hydroxide
255. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and laxative if consumed in
large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Skim if Magnesia
Oil of Magnesia
Cream of Magnesia
Milk of Magnesia
256. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrometer reading
pH scale
Alkalinity
Basicity
257. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Albert Einstein
J. Williard Gibbs
Henri Hess
Soren Sorensen
258. What does the symbol pH stands for?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The power of the hydroxide compound

The power of the hydroxide ion
The power of the hydrogen ion
The power of hydrogen
259. What is the pH of pure water?

A.
B.
C.
D.
6.1
6.5
7
7.4
260. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saliva and milk

Orange juice and tomato juice
Vinegar and calamansi juice
Urine and apple juice
261. Which is most acidic?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Vinegar
Calamansi juice
Carbonated drink
Orange juice
262. Which is the best description of strong acids?

A.
B.
C.
D.
They dissociate or ionize completely in water.

They dont dissociate or ionize completely in water.
They are normally found in vinegars.
They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen.
263. Which is the best description of weak acids?

A.
B.
C.
D.
They dissociate or ionize completely in water.

They dont dissociate or ionize completely in water.
They are normally found in hydrogen chloride form.
They are the acids that not found in vinegars.
264. What is a measure of the H30+ concentration of a solution?

A.
B.
C.
D.
pH
pOH
indicator
OH-
265. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution?

A. pH
B. pOH
C. Indicator
D. H30+
266. What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
6
7
8
267. Which of the following pH is the most basic?

A. pH 8
B. pH 9
C. pH 11
D. pH 13
268. What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Litmus paper
Indicator
Balancer
Lichen
269. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt and water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Neutralization
Titration
Hydrolysis
Buffer
270. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one solution by adding a base or
acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in the solution of unknown concentration is fully
neutralized?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Neutralization
Titration
Hydrolysis
Buffer
271. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is enough to fully neutralize
the acid or base?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Neutral point
Titrant point
Central point
Equivalence point
272. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Salt titration
Salt buffering
Salt neutralization
Salt hydrolysis
273. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or of a weak base and its conjugate
aid?
A. Seawater
B. Salt
C. Buffer
D. Aqueous solution
274. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of materials with oxygen accompanied
by the giving off of energy in the form of heat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combustion
Exothermic reaction
Endothermic reaction
Kinetic reaction
275. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which chemical reactions occur?
A. Chemical collision theory
B. Chemical dynamics
C. Chemical kinematics
D. Chemical kinetics
276. What is the minimum amount of energy need for a chemical reaction to occur called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initial energy
Activation energy
Ignition energy
Catalystic energy
277. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a _____ reaction.

A.
B.
C.
D.
instantaneous
spontaneous
exothermic
endothermic
278. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a _____ reaction.

A.
B.
C.
D.
instantaneous
spontaneous
exothermic
endothermic
279. What is a substance that, when added to a reaction mixture, increases the rate of the reaction but is itself
unchanged after the reaction is done?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydroxide ions
Accelerations
Catalyst
Neutral substance
280. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inhibitors
Retardant
Catalyst
Decelerators
281. How are catalysts classified?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous and heterogeneous

Slow and fast
Pure and composite
Acidic and basic
282. What type of catalyst exists in the same phase as the reactants in a reaction mixture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous catalyst
Heterogeneous catalyst
Pure catalyst
Composite catalyst
283. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the reaction mixture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous catalyst
Heterogeneous catalyst
Pure catalyst
Composite catalyst
284. Most heterogeneous catalyst are ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
liquids
solids
gases
plasma
285. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temperature
Concentration and surface area of reactants
Presence of a catalyst
All of the above
286. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical equilibrium
Reversible equilibrium
Reaction equilibrium
Haber equilibrium
287. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction?
A. Stoichemistry
B. Thermochemistry
C. Thermodynamics
D. Enthalpy
288. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the equilibrium concentration reactants
with each species concentration raised to the corresponding stoichemistric coefficient found in the balanced
reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium constant
Equilibrium concentration
Reaction quotient
289. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a chemical reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium position
Equilibrium
Reaction equilibrium
290. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the chemical reaction is?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reaction index
Chemical quotient
Equilibrium quotient
Reaction quotient
291. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium position
will shift in the direction that tends to reduce the effects of that change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hess principle
Catalyst effect
Haber process principle
Le Chatellers principle
292. What refers to the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduction
Oxidation
Oxygenation
Oxygenization
293. The loss of electron by a substance is known as ___________.

A. oxidation
B. covalent process
C. reduction
D. ionic process
294. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
oxidation
covalent process
reduction
ionic process
295. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons in each bond belonged entirely to the
more electronegative atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxidation number
Atomic number
Atomic weight
Electron affinity
296. A reduced substance is what type of agent?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxidizing agent
Redox agent
Reducing agent
Nonredox agent
297. The oxidized substance is what type agent?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxidizing agent
Redox agent
Reducing agent
Nonredox agent
298. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Redox reaction
Nonredox reaction
Reducing reaction
Oxidizing reaction
299. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to generate electricity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Voltaic cell
Fuel cell
Lead cell
Nickel cadmium cell
300. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing molecules known as organic
compounds?
A. Organic chemistry
B. Inorganic chemistry
C. Stoichemistry
D. Biochemistry
301. Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diamond
Graphite
Fullerenes
All of the above
302. What crystalline carbon is soft, black, slippery solid that possess metallic luster and conduct electricity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Charcoal
Graphite
Diamond
Coke
303. What is formed when hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in the presence of very little oxygen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon black
Charcoal
Coke
Diamond
304. What type of carbon is produced when wood is heated intensely in the absence of air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon black
Charcoal
Coke
Diamond
305. What type of carbon is used to remove undesirable odors from air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon black
Charcoal
Coke
Diamond
306. What carbon is produced when coal is strongly heated in the absence of air?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon black
Charcoal
Coke
Diamond
307. What type of carbon is used in the manufacture of car tires?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon black
Charcoal
Coke
Diamond
308. Which of the following is NOT a property of inorganic compounds?

A.
B.
C.
D.
High melting and boiling points

Mostly soluble in water
Conduct electric current
Usually flammable and combustible
309. Organic compounds:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Are generally soluble in non-polar systems

Are usually flammable and combustible
Have presence of covalent bond
All of the above
310. Inorganic compounds:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Are generally soluble in non-polar solvents

Are generally non flammable
Have presence of ionic bond
All of the above
311. The organic compounds are related to each other by a common feature involving a certain arrangement of
atoms called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrocarbons
Chain
Functional groups
Alkanes
312. What is the simplest and most commonly encountered class of organic compounds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbides
Oxides
Carbon Oxides
Hydrocarbons
313. Based on the type of bond existing between two carbon atoms, how do hydrocarbons classified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saturated and unsaturated

Pure and unpure
Organic and inorganic
Natural and artificial
314. What hydrocarbons contain only single bonds?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkanes
Alkyne
Alkene
Benzene
315. When a hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a long, straight or branched chain, it is classified as
__________ type.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cyclic
Chain
Pole
Linear
316. When hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a ring, it is classified as __________ type.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cyclic
Chain
Pole
Linear
317. The aromatic hydrocarbons contain the structural unit called __________.
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane
318. What is a six- carbon ring with three alternating double bonds, or closely related rings or rings of similar
nature where nitrogen replaces carbon in one or more ring positions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkyne
Benzene
Alkene
Alkane
319. What is another term for Alkanes?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Olefins
Acetylene
Paraffins
Methyl
320. What is the simplest alkane which is a major component of nature gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Methane
Octane
Olefin
Acetylene
321. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkyne
Benzene
Alkene
Alkane
322. What is another term for alkenes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Olefins
Ethene
Paraffins
Methyls
323. What is the simplest alkene, which is a plant hormone that plays important role in seed germination and
ripening of fruits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anthracene
Propyl
Ethyne
Ethene
324. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more triple bonds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkyne
Benzene
Alkene
Alkane
325. What is the simplest alkyne which is a highly reactive molecule?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Ethene
Acetylene or Ethyne
Propyl
Alkyl
326. The compounds, benzene, naphthalene and anthracene are examples of what hydrocarbon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alphatic hydrocarbon
Aromatic hydrocarbon
Alkenes
Alkynes
327. What aromatic hydrocarbon is used as acomponent of mothballs?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Benzene
Naphthalene
Anthracine
Methyl
328. In 1956, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) devised a systematic way of
naming organic compounds. What is this called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
System of Nomenclature
System of Identification
System of Verification
System of Unification
329. In naming of hydrocarbons, what refers to a side chain that is formed by removing a hydrogen atom from
an alkane?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alkyl group
Alken group
Methyl group
Alkyn group
330. Compounds that contain halogens are called __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Amines
Halides
Ethers
Aldehydes
331. The organic compounds that contains oxygen but not in the carbonyl group are called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alcohols and Ethers

Amines and Amides
Halides
Aldehydes
332. What organic compounds contain the hydroxyl as the functional group and are considered derivates of
water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alcohols
Ethers
Aldehydes
Ketones
333. What organic compounds contain nitrogen?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Halides
Amines and Amides
Alcohols
Ethers
334. What organic compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups that can be aliphatic or aromatic are attached
to one oxygen atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amines
Alcohols
Ethers
Halides
335. Which of the following gases is usually used as a refrigerant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ketone
Muscone
Propyl ether
Dimethyl ether
336. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids

All organic matter contains carbon
Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures
Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water
337. A substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and negative ions is called _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Base
Acid
Electrolyte
Solvent
338. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
B. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no
effect on limestone
C. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
D. The substance floats in water
339. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Helium
Neon
Carbon Dioxide
Sodium
340. What element is known as the lightest metal?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Aluminum
Manganese
Magnesium
Lithium
341. What refers to the attraction between like molecules?

A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion
342. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Van de Waals
Metallic
Covalent
Ionic
343. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called a/an __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compound
Chemical
Element
Ion
344. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The molecules are less energetic

The molecules collide more frequently
The activation energy is less
The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less
345. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific Gravity
Acid Content
Voltage output
Current value
346. An element maybe defined as a substance with all atoms of which have the same __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Number of neutrons
Radioactivity
Atomic weight
Atomic number
347. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acid meter
Hydrometer
Hygrometer
Pyrometer
348. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains how many electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No electron
One electron
Two electrons
Four electrons
349. A __________ is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be recharged
A.
B.
C.
D.
Secondary cell
Electrolyte cell
Chemical cell
Battery
350. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform reactants
B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero
C. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on
volume
D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse
rate
351. What is the opposite of alkali?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acid
Fluid
Carbon
Oxide
352. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thickness of the plate

Plate surface area
Strength of the acid
Discharge load
353. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecular number
Proton number
Mass number
Atomic number
354. The electrolyte is a solution of water and __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sulfuric acid
Uric acid
Nitric acid
Formic acid
355. What is deuteron?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A neutron plus two protons

A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
An electron with a positive charge
A helium molecules
356. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plutonium
Californium
Uranium
Cobalt
357. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
N2O5
NO3
NO
N3O4
358. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity

Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons
The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton
359. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formula?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aldehydes
Amines
Isomers
Esters
360. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-product?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amine
Ester
Polymer
Teflon
361. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Lactic acid
Citric acid
Tartaric acid
Lauric acid
362. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
363. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil?
A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
364. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged themselves when they
combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Space-lattice
Crystal
Grain
Unit cell
365. When a solid has crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures called ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lattice
Unit cell
Crystal
Domain
366. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit where atoms are not
properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Discrystallization
Dislocation
Slip step
Dispersion
367. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Ion
Electron
Proton
Anode
368. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxidation
Corrosion
Reduction
Ionization
369. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A.
B.
C.
D.
At the anode
At the cathode
At the electrode
At both cathode and anode
370. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode

371. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the element?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The chemical atomic weight of the isotope

The relative abundance of the isotope
The electromagnetivity of the isotope
The quantum number of the isotope
372. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hydrolysis
Neutralization
Bufferization
Titration
373. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Titanium
Plutonium
Uranium
Radium
374. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
May be expanded or may be compressed

Have low densities
Indefinite shape
Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another
375. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one?
A. Do not expand nor compress to any degree
B. Usually flow readily
C. Indefinite shape but fixed volume
D. Do not mix by diffusion
376. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene ring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aromatic hydrocarbon
Aliphatic hydrocarbon
Simple hydrocarbon
Carbon hydrocarbon
377. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Base
Acid
Alcohol
Wine
378. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Partial reaction
Monomolecular reaction
Molecular reaction
Additional reaction
379. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic energy
Activation energy
Initial energy
Reaction energy
380. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earths crust?

A.
B.
C.
D.
50.0
49.5
48.5
47.5
381. What percent of the human body is carbon?

A.
B.
C.
D.
22%
20%
18%
16%
382. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct value?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy
383. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Accuracy
Precision
Relative precision
Relative accuracy
384. What is the physical appearance of sodium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Silver metal
Yellowish metal
White crystal
Reddish gas
385. What is the physical appearance of chlorine?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Silver metal
White crystal
Yellowish gas
White metal
386. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Silver metal
White crystal
Yellowish gas
White metal
387. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?

A.
B.
C.
D.
J,J Thomson
Neils Bohr
Max Planck
Ernest Rutherford
388. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quantum orbital level

Quantum energy level
Orbital
Quantum Theory
389. Who performed an experiment in 1887 that yielded the charge-to-mass ratio of the electrons?
A. Niels Bohr
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. J.J Thompson
D. Max Planck
390. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amalgram
Amine
Allotrope
Alkynes
391. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one carboxyl group is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Allotrope
Animo acid
Alkenes
Alkynes
392. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the atomic orbitals from which it was
formed is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Main molecular orbital

Partial molecular orbital
Bonding molecular orbital
Anti-bonding molecular orbital
393. A molecular orbit that is of lower energy and greater stability than the atomic orbitals from which it was
formed is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Main molecular orbital

Partial molecular orbital
Bonding molecular orbital
anti-bonding molecular orbital
394. An ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compound ion
Complex ion
Simplex ion
Buffer ion
395. Compounds containing CN ion are called __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cyanides
Cycloalkanes
Carbides
Carboxylic acids
396. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Polar molecule
Non- polar molecule
Non-electrolytic molecule
Electrolytic molecule
397. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a solution that is not electrically
conducting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Non-polar
Electrolyte
Non-electrolyte
Polar
398. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to one another in a molecule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecular formula
Structural formula
Standard formula
Bonding formula
399. What refers to ions that are not involved in the overall reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Guest ion
Special ions
Spectator ions
Extra ions
400. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into thousands and millions of grams, and made
up of many repeating cells is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrolyte
Polymer
Nucleotide
Oxoacid
401. Determine the density of the space occupied by the electrons in the Na atom. The radius of the nucleus is
given, and 3.04 fm. The radius of Na atom is 186 pm and atomic number is 11.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.21 x 10^-4 g/cm3

3.71 x 10^-4 g/cm3
7.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3
8.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3
402. Calculate the moles of Magnesium (Mg) present in 93.5 g of Mg? (Mg atomic mass = 24.31g)
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.85 moles
4.15 moles
5.38 moles
3.35 moles
403. How many number of atoms are there in 1.32 x 10^3 g of Lead (Pb)? Pb atomic mass is 207.7g.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.84 x 10^23 atoms

4.38 x 10^23 atoms
3.84 x 10^24 atoms
4.38 x 10^24 atoms
404. How many grams are there in 4.57 x 10^21 amu?

A. 6.95 x 10^-3 g
B. 5.45 x 10^-3 g
C. 5.96 x 10^-3 g
D. 7.59 x 10^-3 g
405. Calculate the number of moles of cobalt (Co) atom in seven billion Co atoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.16 x 10^-14 moles

1.61 x 10^-13 moles
1.16 x 10^-13 moles
1.43 x 10^-14 moles
406. Given 16.7 moles of gold (Au), how many grams of Au are there? Atomic mass of Au is 197.0g.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.51 x 10^3 g
3.29 x 10^3 g
2.39 x 10^3 g
3.76 x 10^3 g
407. Determine the mass in grams of a single atom of Ge which has an atomic mass of 72.59.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom

1.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom
1.12 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom
1.31 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom
408. Zinc (Zn) atom has atomic mass of 65.39. Calculate the number of atoms present in 4.22 g of zinc (Zn).
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.75 x 10^22 Zn atoms

3.93 x 10^22 Zn atoms
3.89 x 10^22 Zn atoms
4.04 x 10^22 Zn atoms
409. Calculate for the number of molecules of ethane (C2H6) present in 0.431 g of C2H6. (C atomic mass =
12.01g; H atomic mass = 1.008 g)
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.63 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules

410. How many oxygen (O) atoms are there in 2.31 x 10^4 g of urea [(NH 2)2CO]. Given molar mass of urea is
60.062g.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.43 x 10^26 atoms

2.12 x 10^26 atoms
2.32 x 10^26 atoms
2.52 x 10^26 atoms
411. How many water molecules are present in 5.34 mL of water at a temperature of 4 oC, which the density of
water at this temperature is 1.00 g/mL? Atomic masses of H and O are 1.008 g and 16.00 g respectively.
A. 1.84 x 10^23 molecules
B. 1.78 x 10^23 molecules
C. 1.74 x 10^23 molecules
D. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules
412. Which of the following is the molecular formula of peroxyacylnitrate (PAN), one of the components of
smog, and is a compound of C, H, N, O, with percent composition by mass: 19.8% C, 2.5% H, 11.6% N.
Given that its molar mass is about 120 g. ( Atomic masses: C = 12.01g; H = 1.008g; N = 14.01g; O =
16.00g).
A.
B.
C.
D.
C2H3NO2
C2H5NO3
C4H6N2O10
C2H3NO5
413. Calculate the molecular mass of methanol (CH4O), given the atomic masses of C = 12.01 g, H = 1.008 g
and O = 16 g.
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.018 amu
34.241 amu
32.042 amu
30.026 amu
414. How many moles of chloroform (CHCl3) are there in 210.45 g of chloroform? C = 12.01 amu, H = 1.008
amu and Cl = 35.45 amu.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.76 CHCl3 moles

2.12 CHCl3 moles
4.34 CHCl3 moles
2.51 CHCl3 moles
415. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.07g, 1.008g and 16.00g respectively. Calculate
the number of C atoms present in 84.5 g of isopropanol (rubbing alcohol), C3H8O?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.88 x 1024 C atoms

3.72 x 1024 C atoms
2.54 x 1024 C atoms
2.00 x 1024 C atoms
416. What is the percent composition by mass of oxygen (O) element in sulfuric acid (H 2SO4)? H = 1.008 amu,
S = 32.07 amu, S = 32.07 amu and O = 16.00 amu.
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.25 %
63.34 %
64.45 %
65.25 %
417. If atomic masses of Al and O are 26.98 amu and 16.00 amu, respectively, how many grams of Al are there
in 431g of Al2O3?
A.
B.
C.
D.
228 g
215 g
237 g
114 g
418. Which is the molecular formula of a sample of a compound containing 6.444 g of boron (B) and 1.803 g of
hydrogen (H)? The compound has a molar mass of about 30 g. Given boron (B) has 10.81 amu and
hydrogen (H) has 1.008 amu.
A. B2H3
B. BH
C. B2H6
D. BH3
419. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.01g, 1.008g, and 16g respectively. Calculate
the molarity of a 90-mL ethanol (C2H5OH) solution which contains 2.15 g of ethanol.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.52 M
0.25 M
0.61 M
0.44 M
420. Determine the volume in mL of stock solution that must be diluted to produce 3.00 x 10^2 mL of 0.856 M
NaOH solution, starting with a 5.27 M stock solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.8 mL
48.7 mL
51.2 mL
48.1 mL
421. Bromine (Br) and Silver has atomic masses of 79.90g and 107.9g, respectively. In a certain experiment, a
sample of 0.3320g of an ionic compound containing the bromide ion (BrI) is dissolved in water and treated
with an excess of AgNO3 if the mass of the AgBr precipitate that forms is 0.734 g, calculate the percent by
mass of Br in the original compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.55 %
49.70 %
84.10 %
94.07 %
422. Solve for the volume occupied by 3.12 moles of nitric oxide (NO) which exerts 5.43 atm of pressure at a
temperature of 82oC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.75 L
13.84 L
15.76 L
16.48 L
423. Calculate the volume occupied by 50.6 g of HCl at STP. H = 1.008 amu and Cl = 35.45 amu.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.2 L
31.1 L
27.4 L
1.38 L
424. Calculate the final pressure if a sample of a certain gas is cooled from 34 oC to -73oC, with an initial
pressure of 1.45 atm.
A. 1.42 atm
B. 3.11 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 1.63 atm
425. An 867-mL sample of chlorine gas exerts a pressure of 738 mmHg. Determine the pressure of the gas if
the volume is reduced to 321 mL at constant temperature.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.99 x 103 mm Hg
2.73 x 103 mm Hg
1.21 x 103 mm Hg
2.13 x 103 mm Hg
426. Determine the final pressure of a gas, initially at 3.0 L, 2.2 atm, and 72 oC, which undergoes a change so
that its final volume and temperature are 0.9 L and 41oC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.66 atm
6.67 atm
4.18 atm
5.73 atm
427. Calculate the density of uranium hexafluoride (UF6) with pressure of 697 mmHg at 57oC temperature.
Atomic masses: U = 238 g; F = 19 g.
A. 90.55 g/L
B. 52.42 g/L
C. 68.98 g/L
D. 11.92 g/L
428. Calculate the molar mass of a certain gaseous organic compound having a density of 0.00356 g/mL at 2.12
atm and 45oC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.20 g/mol
42.84 g/mol
0.043 g/mol
4.384 g/mol
429. Determine the molecular formula of a gaseous compound which is 78.14% boron and 21.86% H. At a
temperature of 27oC, 33.2864-mL of the gas exerted a pressure of 2.5 atm, and the mass of the gas was
0.0934g. B = 10.81 amu and H = 1.008 amu.
A. BH2
B. BH3
C. B2H6
D. BH3
430. The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 g. What is the root-mean-square of molecular chlorine in m/s at
31oC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
104 m/s
10 m/s
327 m/s
193 m/s
431. Assuming there is no change in volume, determine the molarity of the acid solution if a 3.12-L sample of
hydrogen chloride gas at 2.57 atm and 27.5oC, which is completely dissolved in a 700 mL of water to form
hydrochloric acid solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.644 M
0.000464 M
0.464 M
0.0464 M
432. A certain sample of natural gas contains 0.377 mole of ethane (C 2H6), 7.48 moles of methane (CH4), and
0.134 mole of propane (C3H8). Calculate the partial pressure of propane gas, if the total pressure of the gases
is 1.79 atm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.68 atm
0.084 atm
0.94 atm
0.03 atm
433. A 2.102g of methanol (CH3OH) was burned in a constant-volume bomb calorimeter. Consequently, the
temperature of the water was rose by 5.13oC. Solve for the molar heat of combustion of methanol, if the heat
capacity of the bomb plus water was 11.8 kJ/ oC. Carbon has 12.01 amu, hydrogen has 1.008 amu and
oxygen has 16.00 amu.
A. 922.75 kJ/mol
B. - 922.75 kJ/mol
C. 60.534 kJ/mol
D. - 28.79 kJ/mol
434. Caffeine (C8H10N4O2) is a stimulant found in tea and coffee. What is its empirical formula?
A.
B.
C.
D.
C4H5N2O
C5H3NO2
C2H6NO3
C8H10N4O2
435. Calculate the mass of a piece of platinum metal with a density of 34.1 g/cm3 and has a volume of 5.2 cm3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.732 g
1773.2 g
177.32 g
1.7732 g
436. Calculate the number of molecules of oxygen gas present in 1.5 L of air at STP. Assuming that air contains
31% O2, 67% N2 and 2% Ar, all by volume.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.87 x 10^23 molecules

437. Calculate the mass of F in grams in 31.2 g of the compound Tin (II) fluoride (SnF 2), which is often added
to toothpaste as an ingredient for the prevention of tooth decay. Tin = 118.7 amu and Flourine = 19.00 amu.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.78 g
7.57 g
4.30 g
8.61 g
438. Which of the following is the molar mass of the gas at 752 torr and 41oC? Ten grams of a gas occupy a
volume of 5.12 L.
A.
B.
C.
D.
51 g/mol
1.96 g/mol
149 g/mol
1144 g/mol
439. Determine the pressure exerted by hydrogen bromide (HBr) gas having a density of 2.978 g/L at a
temperature of 46oC. Hydrogen and bromine has atomic masses of 1.008g and 79.9 g, respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73 mm Hg
106 mm Hg
733 mm Hg
0.964 mm Hg
440. How many grams of mercury (Hg = 200.6 amu) are there in 7.18 moles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.036 g
1440 g
312 g
1004 g
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1.What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are perpendicular to each other? The two
forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.
36
42
25
40
2. A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of 100 lbs was placed that
caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in the rope.
A.
B.
C.
D.
206 lbs
150 lbs
280 lbs
240 lbs
3. What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N force inclined at 30 degrees
with horizontal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.21 N
25.98 N
15.32 N
20.62 N
4. A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the post. If the angle between the
wire and the ground is 60 degrees, what is the horizontal component of the force supporting the pole?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.6 N
50.0 N
76.6 N
98.5 N
5. The resultant of two forces in a plane is 400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces is 200 lbs at 20 degrees
what is the other force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
347.77 N at 114.85 degrees

435.77 N at 104.37 degrees
357.56 N at 114.24 degrees
477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
6. Determine the resultant of the following forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N at 160 degrees and C =
200 N at 300 degrees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
532.78 N, 55.32 degrees

435.94 N, 235.12 degrees
522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
627.89 N, 225.81 degrees
7. A collar, which may slide on a vertical rod is subjected three forces. Force A is 1200 N vertically upward,
Force B is 800 N at an angle of 60 degrees from the vertical and a force F which is vertically downward to the
right. Find the direction of F if its magnitude is 2400 N and the resultant is horizontal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.61 degrees
43.52 degrees
40.13 degrees
45.52 degrees
8. Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx) and B = i(yz) + j(2zx) + k(3xy). Determine the
scalar product at the point (1,2,3).
A.
B.
C.
D.
144
138
132
126
9. Determine the divergence of the vector: V = i(x2) + j(-xy) + k(xyz) at the point (3,2,1).
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.00
11.00
13.00
7.00
10.The three vectors described by 10 cm/ at 120k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2 encompass the sides of an equilateral
triangle. Determine the magnitude of the vector cross product: 0.5 [ (10/ at 0 deg) x (10/ at 120 deg) ].
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.6
25.0
50.0
43.3
11. The 5 vectors: 10 cm/ at 72k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 encompass the sides of a regular pentagon. Determine
the magnitude of the vector cross product: 2.5 [ (10/ at 144 deg) x (10/ at 216 deg) ].
A.
B.
C.
D.
198.1
237.7
285.2
165.1
12. What is the angle between two vectors A and B if A = 4i - 12j + 6k and B = 24i 8j + 6k?
A.
B.
C.
D.
168.45 degrees
84.32 degrees
86.32 degrees
-84.64 degrees
13. Given the 3-dimensional vectors : A = i (xy) + j (2yz) + k (3zx), B = i (yz) + j (2zx) + k (3xy). Determine
the magnitude of the vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.92
29.88
27.20
24.73
14. What is the cross product A x B of the vectors, A = I + 4j + 6k and B = 2i + 3j + 5k ?

A.
B.
C.
D.
ijk
i + j+ k
2i + 7j 5k
2i + 7j + 5k
15. A simply supported beam is five meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed load including its own
weight of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters from the left end. Find the reactions if reaction
A at the left end and reaction B at the right end.
A.
B.
C.
D.
RA = 810 N, RB = 700 N
RA = 820 N, RB = 690 N
RA = 830 N, RB = 680 N
RA = 840 N, RB = 670 N
16. A man can exert a maximum pull of 1,000 N but wishes to lift a new stone door for his cave weighing
20,000 N. If he uses a lever how much closer must the fulcrum be to the stone than to his hand?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 times nearer
20 times farther
10 times farther
20 times nearer
17. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft apart. The load is 500
lbs per horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is 30 ft. Calculate the total length
of the cable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
503.21 ft
504.76 ft
505.12 ft
506.03 ft
18. The weight of a transmission cable is 1.5 kg/m distributed horizontally. If the maximum safe tension of the
cable is 60000 kg and the allowable sag is 30 m, determine the horizontal distance between the electric posts
supporting the transmission cable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
897 m
926 m
967 m
976 m
19. A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a uniformly distributed load along its span. If the cable is strung between
two posts at the same level, 40 m apart, compute the smallest value that the cable may sag.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.14 m
10.12 m
9.71 m
8.62 m
20.A pipeline crossing a river is suspended from a steel cable stretched between two posts 100 m apart. The
weight of the pipe is 14 kg/m while the cable weighs 1 kg/m assumed to be uniformly distributed horizontally.
If the allowed sag is 2 m, determine the tension of the cable at the post.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9047.28 kg
9404.95 kg
9545.88 kg
9245.37 kg
21. The distance between supports of a transmission cable is 20 m apart. The cable is loaded with a uniformly
distributed load of 20 kN/m throughout its span. The maximum sag of the cable is 4 m. What is the maximum
tension of the cable if one of the supports is 2 meters above the other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
415.53 N
413.43 N
427.33 N
414.13 N
22. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot and 800 feet long is to be suspended with sag of 80 feet. Determine the
maximum tension of the cable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
403 kg
456 kg
416 kg
425 kg
23. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and is supported from two points at the same elevation. Determine the
required sag if the maximum tension that the cable can carry shall not exceed 8000 N.
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.1 m
28.2 m
40.3 m
31.3 m
24. A transmission cable 300 m long, weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of the cable are 400 kg and 450
kg. Find the distance of its lowest point to the ground.
A.
B.
C.
D.
145 m
148 m
150 m
153 m
25. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20, determine the
horizontal force P applied on the block to start the block moving up the plane.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.30 kg
58.10 kg
219.71 kg
265.29 kg
26. Compute the number of turns of the rope to be wound around a pole in order to support a man weighing 600
N with an input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of friction is 0.30.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.172
3.123
1.234
4.234
27. A block weighing 500 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal drum. The coefficient of friction
between the rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of contact is 150 degrees, compute the force that will raise
the object.
A.
B.
C.
D.
740.7 N
760.6 N
770.5 N
780.8 N
28. A cirlce has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area relative to the axis
perpendicular to the area though the center of the circle in cm4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
14,280
15,708
17,279
19,007
29. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statics
Kinetics
Kinematics
Dynamics
30. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion under the
action of forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statics
Strenght of materials
Kinematics
Dynamics
31. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion without
reference to the force that causes the motion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statics
Kinetics
Kinematics
Dynamics
32. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Natural force
External force
Internal force
Concentrated force
33. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Couple
Moment
Torque
All of the above
34. What is a concurrent force system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
All forces act at the same point.

All forces have the same line of action.
All forces are parallel with one another.
All forces are in the same plane.
35. When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
When the sum of the two forces is equal to the third force.
When they are concurrent or parallel.
When they are coplanar.
All of the above
36. A roller support has how many reactions?

A.
B.
C.
D.
None
1
2
3
37. A link or cable support has how many reactions?

A.
B.
C.
D.
None
1
2
3
38. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 reaction and 1 moment

2 reactions and 1 moment
1 reaction and 2 moments
2 reactions and no moment
39. Which support has one moment?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Frictionless guide
Pin connection
Fixed support
Roller
40. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by forces acting on
it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Engineering Mechanics
Theory of Structures
Mechanics of Materials
Strength of Materials
41. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding its motion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Particle
Atomic substance
Element
Quarks
42. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load

the centroid of the area of the loading curve
the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
43. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
twice the area under the loading curve

half the area under the loading curve
the area under the loading curve
one-fourth the area under the loading curve
44. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said to be _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
in static equilibrium
in dynamic equilibrium
statically determine
statically indeterminate
45. When does an equation be considered dimensionally homogeneous?

A. When it is unitless
B. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not the same as the
dimensions of the various terms on the right side.
C. When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side.
D. When the dimensions of various terms on the left side of the equation is the same as the
dimensions of the various terms on the right side.
46. What refers to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of quantities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unit analysis
Dimensional analysis
System analysis
Homogeneity analysis
47. What is a simple beam?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A beam supported only at its ends.

A beam supported with a fixed support at one end and non on the other end.
A beam with more than two supports.
A beam with only one support at the midspan.
48. What assumption is used in the analysis of uniform flexible cable?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cable is flexible.
Cable is inextensible.
The weight of the cable is very small when compared to the loads supported by the cable.
All of the above
49. The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to the moment
of the resultant force about the same point. This statement is known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pappus proposition
D Alemberts principle
Varignons theorem
Newtons method
50. Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can be obtained by
drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given forces. This statement is known
as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pappus Propositions
Principle of Transmissibility
Parallelogram Law
Varignons Theorem
51. The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting at a given point
of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point
provided that the two forces have the same line of action. This statement is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pappus Propositions
Parallelogram Law
Varignons Theorem
52. If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a triangle taken in
order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order. This statement is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parallelogram Law
Varignons Theorem
Triangle Law of Forces
53. If a number of concurrent forces acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this system of forces is represented by
the closing side of the polygon in the opposite in the opposite order. This statement is known as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parallelogram Law
Polygon Law
Triangle Law of Forces
54. A beam with more than one supports is called ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
cantilever beam
simple beam
complex beam
continuous beam
55. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
plane truss
space truss
ideal truss
rigid truss
56. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
plane truss
space truss
ideal truss
rigid truss
57. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are required?
A. Methods of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwells diagram
D. Method of superposition
58. Which of the following statements about friction is FALSE?
A. The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of one surface to slide
relative to the other.
B. The total frictional force is dependent on the area of contact between the two surfaces.
C. The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move the body till the limiting
value is reached.
D. Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion.
59. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force _____ the angle of
friction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
may be greater than or less than

is greater than
is less than
is equal to
60. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block will be in equilibrium
is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
angle of friction
angle of reaction
angle of normal
angle of repose
61. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually smaller that the weight of the
load?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Axle
Incline plane
Wedge
Belt
62. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
angle of thread
angle of lead
angle of friction
angle of pitch
63. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire _____ acts regardless of the
orientation of the body.
A.
B.
C.
D.
mass
weight
mass or weight
volume
64. Second moment of area is the product of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
area and square of the distance from the reference axis

area and distance from the reference axis
square of the area and distance from the reference axis
square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis
65. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an axis passing
through the centroid parallel to the given axis and ____.
A. area and square of the distance between two parallel axes
B. area and distance between two parallel axes
C. square of the area and distance between two parallel axes
D. square of the area and square of the distance between two parallel axes
66. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
kg-m4
kg-m3
kg-m
kg-m2
67. The number of independent degrees of freedom is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Square root of the square of the difference of total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
Square root of the total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
Total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
Total degrees of freedom half the number of constrain equations
68. What velocity is normally referred to as the derivative of position vector with respect to time?
A. Decreasing velocity
B. Average velocity
C. Instantaneous velocity
D. Increasing velocity
69. What refers to a force by which work done on a particle as it moves around any closed path is zero?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Natural force
Virtual force
Conservative force
Non-conservative force
70. When a force causes a change in mechanical energy when it moves around a closed path, it is said to be
______ force.
A.
B.
C.
D.
natural
virtual
conservative
non-conservative
71. The following are quantities that describe motion and uses Newtons law of motion and dAlemberts
principle except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time
Mass
Acceleration
Force
72. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of work and energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Force, mass, velocity, time

Force, mass, acceleration
Force, mass, distance, velocity
Force, weight, distance, time
73. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of impulse and
momentum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Force, mass, velocity, time

Force, weight, distance, time
74. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived from which law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Newtons first law

Newtons second law
Newtons third law
dAlemberts principle
75. What type of impact is when the motion of one or both of the colliding bodies is not directed along the line
impact?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central impact
Eccentric impact
Direct impact
Oblique impact
76. What type of impact is when the centers of mass of colliding bodies are not located on the line of impact?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central impact
Eccentric impact
Direct impact
Oblique impact
77. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
partially plastic
perfectly inelastic
perfectly elastic
partially elastic
78. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a combination of ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
linear velocity and impulse

simple harmonic motion and momentum
two simple harmonic motions
rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation
79. The motion of a particle is defined by the relation x = (1/3)t 3 3t2 + 8t + 2 where x is the distance in meters
and is the time in seconds. What is the time when the velocity is zero?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 seconds
3 seconds
5 seconds
7 seconds
80. A particle moves along a straight line with the equation x = 16t + 4t 2 3t3 where x is the distance in ft and t
is the time in second. Compute the acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds.
A.
B.
C.
D.
28 ft/s2
30 ft/s2
17 ft/s2
24 ft/s2
81. Two cars A and B traveling in the same direction and stopped at a highway traffic sign. As the signal turns
green car A accelerates at constant rate of 1 m/s 2. Two seconds later the second car B accelerates at constant
rate of 1.3 m/s2. When will the second car B overtakes the first car A?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.27 s
30.45 s
20.32 s
10.45 s
82. Two buses start at the same time towards each other from terminals A and B, 8 km apart. The time needed
for the first bus to travel from A to B is 8 minutes, and of the second bus from B to A is 10 minutes. How
much is the time needed by each bus to meet each if they traveled at their respective uniform speeds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.45 min
10.7 min
4.44 min
2.45 min
83. A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mph to 30 mph in a distance of 1500 ft. What is its
acceleration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.94d ft/s2
2.04 ft/s2
2.04 ft/s2
1.94 ft/s2
84. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/s2. Find the average velocity during the first 10
seconds of motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13 ft/s
15 ft/s
14 ft/s
20 ft/s
85. A man aimed his rifle at the bulls eye of a target 50 m away. If the speed of the bullet is 500 m/s, how far
below the bulls eye does the bullet strikes the target?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.0 cm
6.8 cm
5.7 cm
6.0 cm
86. A man driving his car at a constant rate of 40 mph suddenly sees a sheep crossing the road 60 feet ahead.
Compute the constant deceleration (in feet/second2) required to avoid hitting the sheep? Assume a reaction
time of 0.5 second before the man applies the brake.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.65
44.54
55.65
67.87
87. A ball is thrown vertically into the air at 120 m/s. After 3 seconds, another ball is thrown vertically. What is
the velocity must the second ball have to pass the first ball at 100 m from the ground?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.89 m/s
107.72 m/s
108.12 m/s
110.72 m/s
88. A ball is dropped from a height of 60 meters above ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.1 s
3.5 s
5.5 s
1.3 s
89. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground and a student gazing out of the window sees it moving
upward pass him at 5 m/s. The window is 10 m above the ground. How high does the ball go above the
ground?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.25 m
14.87 m
9.97 m
11.28 m
90. A ball thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the window of a tall building. The ball
strikes the sidewalk at the ground level 4 seconds later. Determine the velocity with which the ball strikes
the ground.
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.25 m/s
38.50 m/s
37.75 m/s
36.24 m/s
91. A player throws a baseball upward with an initial velocity of 30 ft/sec and catches it with a baseball glove.
When will the ball strike the glove? Assume the glove is position in the same elevation when the ball left his
hand.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.48 s
0.60 s
1.20 s
1.86 s
92. A highway curve has a super elevation of 7 degrees. What is the radius of the curve such that there will be
no lateral pressure between the tires and the roadway at a speed of 40 mph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
265.71 m
438.34 m
345.34 m
330.78 m
93. A baseball is thrown a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an
angle of 30o above the horizontal. Solve the distance from the throwing point that the ball attains its original
level.
A.
B.
C.
D.
890 m
883 m
858 m
820 m
94. Compute the minimum distance that a truck slides on a horizontal asphalt road if it is traveling at 20 m/s?
The coefficient to sliding friction between asphalt and rubber tire is at 0.50. The weight of the truck is 8000
kg.
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.8
48.5
35.3
31.4
95. A projectile is fired from a cliff 300 m high with an initial velocity of 400 m/s. If the firing angle is 30 o from
the horizontal, compute the horizontal range of the projectile.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.74 km
14.54 km
12.31 km
20.43 km
96. A 25 g mass bullet was fired at the wall. The bullets speed upon hitting the wall is 350 m/s. What is the
average force (in Newton) if the bullet penetrates 10 cm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14,543.2 N
11,342.2 N
10,543.3 N
15,312.5 N
97. A girl tied 80 gram toy plane of a string which he rotated to form a vertical circular motion with a diameter a
1000 mm. Compute for the maximum pull exerted on the string by the toy plane if got loose leaving at the
bottom of the circle at 25 m/s.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.002 kN
0.05 kN
0.2 kN
0.1 kN
98. A gun is shot into a 0.50 kN block which is hanging from a rope of 1.8 m long. The weight of the bullet is
equal to 5 N with a muzzle velocity of 320 m/s. How high will the block swing after it was hit by the bullet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.51 m
0.53 m
0.32 m
0.12 m
99. A train weighing 1000 KN is being pulled up a 2% grade. The trains resistance is 5N/kN. The trains
velocity was increased from 6 to 12 m/s in a distance of 300 m. Compute the maximum power developed by
the locomotive.
A.
B.
C.
D.
600 kW
450 kW
520 kW
320 kW
100. Determine the angle of super elevation for a highway curve of 600 ft radius so that there will be no side
thrust for a speed of 45 mph.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1d3.45o
12.71o
11.23o
10.45o
101. An airplane acquires a take-off velocity of 150 mph on a 2-mile runway. If the plane started from rest and
the acceleration remains constant, what is the time required to reach take-off speed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 s
45 s
58 s
96 s
102. Water drops from a faucet at the rate of 4 drops per second. What is the distance between two successive
drops 1 second after the first drop has fallen.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.32 ft
8.24 ft
7.04 ft
9.43 ft
103. A body which is 16.1 lb rests on a horizontal plane and acted upon by a 10-lb force. Find the acceleration
of the body if the coefficient of friction between the plane and the body is 0.2. Note: 1 lbf = 32.2 lbm-ft/s2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.34 ft/s2
11.57 ft/s2
15.57 ft/s2
13.56 ft/s2
104. A man on an elevator weighs 180 lbf. Compute the force exerted by the man on the floor of the elevator if
it is accelerating upward at 5 ft/s2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
207.95 lbf
210.45 lbf
190.56 lbf
205.54 lbf
105. A 10-lb stone is fastened to a 2-ft cord and is whirled in a vertical circle. Determine the tension in the cord
when it is rotated at 100 rpm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.95 lbf
58.08 lbf
19.56 lbf
20.54 lbf
106. An archer must split the apple atop his partners head from a distance of 30 m. The arrow is horizontal
when aimed directly to the apple. At what angle must he aim in order to hit the apple with the arrow
traveling at a speed of 35 m/s.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.35o
10.55o
3.25o
6.95o
107. A hollow spherical shell has a radius of 5 units and mass of 10. What is its mass moment of inertia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.45
123.34
187.54
165.67
108. A coin 20mg is place on the smooth edge of a 25 cm-radius phonograph record as the record is brought up
to its normal rational speed of 45 rmp. What must be the coefficient of friction between the coin and the
record if the coin is not to slip off?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.45
0.56
0.64
0.78
109. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.67m/s 2. If an astronaut can throw a ball 10 m straight
upward on earth, how high should this man be able to throw the ball on the moon? Assume that the throwing
speeds are the same in the two cases.
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.67
50.84
65.67
45.67
110. A tennis ball is dropped into a cement floor from a height of 2 m. It rebounds to a height of 1.8 m. What
fraction of energy did it lose in the process of striking the floor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One-tenth
One-fourth
One-third
One-seventh
111. A car is a rest on a sloping driveway. By experiment the driver releases the brake of the car and let the car
move at constant acceleration. How fast will the car be moving when it reaches the street? Note: The street
is 4 m below the original position of the car.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.86 m/s
50.45 m/s
6.65 m/s
9.65 m/s
112. A solid sphere is placed at the top of a 45o incline. When released, it freely rolls down. What will be its
linear speed at the foot of the incline which is 2.0 m below the initial position of the cylinder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.86 m/s
5.29 m/s
6.43 m/s
3.55 m/s
113. A ball is dropped from a height y above a smooth floor. How high will rebound if the coefficient of
restitution between the ball and the floor is 0.60?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.45y
0.40y
0.60y
0.36y
114. A ball is thrown at an angle of 32.5o from the horizontal towards a smooth floor. At what angle will it
rebound if the coefficient of between the ball and the floor is 0.30?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.33o
8.67o
9.12o
10.82o
115. A 1.62-ounce marble attains a velocity of 170 mph (249.3 ft/s) in a hunting slingshot. The contract with the
sling is 1/15th second. What is the average force on the marble during contact?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.54 lbf
14.56 lbf
11.75 lbf
10.67 lbf
116. A man weighs 128 lb on the surface of the earth (radius = 3960 miles). At what distance above the surface
of the earth would he weight 80 lb?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3000 miles
2345 miles
7546 miles
1049 miles
117. A steel wheel 800 mm in diameter rolls on a horizontal steel rail. It carries a load of 700 N. The coefficient
of rolling resistance is 0.250 mm. What is the force P necessary to roll the wheel along the rail?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.34 N
0.54 N
0.44 N
0.14 N
118. An electron strikes the screen of the cathode ray tube with a velocity of 10 to the 9 th power cm/s. Compute
its kinetic energy in erg. The mass of an electron is 9 x 10^-31 kg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.5 x 10^-10 erg

3.0 x 10^-10 erg
2.5 x 10^-10 erg
1.5 x 10^-10 erg
MULTIPLE CHOICES
QUESTION in
STRENGHT OF MATERIALS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What is the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body subjected to uniaxial
stress?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Poissons ratio
Eulers ratio
Refractive index
Dielectric index
2. What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Tension, compression, bending and twisting

Tension, compression, elongation and bending
Tension, compression, plastic and elastic
Tension, compression, elongation and torsion
3. What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Beam
Column
Arch
Shaft
4. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each other under
compressive force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tie
Column
Panel
Strut
5. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each other under
compressive force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tie
Column
Strut
Arch
6. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sign through a zero value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical point
Point of inflection
Point of contraflexure
Point of zero stress
7. What is the unit of strain?

A. Pascal
B. Unitless
C. N-m
D. N-m/s
8. Volumetric stain is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
change in volume per unit time

square root of difference of original volume and change in volume
original volume minus change in volume
ratio of change in volume to original volume
9. What refers to the stress in the material at the elastic limit?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Working stress
Yield stress
Ultimate stress
Maximum stress
10. Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steel
Glass
Copper
Aluminum
11. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the constant of propotionality of
this statement called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Modulus of rigidity
Modulus of elasticity
Youngs modulus
Bulk modulus
12. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
N-m
Unitless
Pa
N-m/s
13. Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress. What is the constant that
relates these two quantities called?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Youngs modulus
D. Bulk modulus
14. What is another term for modulus of rigidity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shear modulus
Youngs modulus
Bulk modulus
Modulus of elasticity
15. How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic range of strain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100
200
300
400
16. What does it means when the material is said to be yielding?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The material has pass through plastic range and enter the elastic range
The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range
The material is in the elastic range only
The material is in the plastic range only
17. What refers to the parallel axis theorem for second moment of area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mohrs theorem
Steiners theorem
Maxwells theorem
Youngs theorem
18. The elastic deformation of a material is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
directly proportional to cross-sectional area of the material

inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material
inversely proportional to the force acting on the material
inversely proportional to the initial length of the material
19. The strain energy of a member is:

A. inversely proportional to the square of the force acting on the member
B. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity
C. inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the member
D. inversely proportional to the initial length of the member
20. Stiffness is:
A. ratio of force to deformation
B. ratio of force to modulus of elasticity
C. ratio of product of cross-sectional area and initial length to deformation
D. ratio of initial length to cross-sectional area
21. Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal expansion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Copper
Concrete
Steel
Tin
22. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of _____ MPa.

A.
B.
C.
D.
200
2,000
20,000
200,000
23. What is the maximum moment of a beam supported at both ends and carries a uniform load of w throughout
its entire length?
A.
B.
C.
D.
wL / 2
wL / 8
wL2 / 8
wL2 / 4
24. ____ is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when unloaded but will
retain a permanent deformation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elastic limit
Proportional limit
Yield limit
Yield strength
25. All are methods of determining the bar force of a truss member except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Method of joints
Method of section
Method of virtual work
Maxwell diagram
26. Determine the force required to punch a inch hole on a 3/8 thick plate if the ultimate shearing strength of
the plate is 50,000 psi.
A.
B.
C.
D.
23,562 lbs
19,450 lbs
20,550 lbs
15,422 lbs
27. A simply supported beam, 10 m long carries a uniform distributed load of 20 kN/m. What is the value of the
maximum moment of the beam due to the load?
A. 10,000 kN-m
B. 5,000 kN-m
C. 2,000 kN-m
D. 250 kN-m
28. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to be completely filled, determine
the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.77 mm
13.18 mm
10.25 mm
12.60 mm
29. The stress in a 90-cm diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm and under a static head of 70 m of
water is
A.
B.
C.
D.
325 kPa
32.5 kPa
32.5 MPa
3.25 MPa
30. A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected to a tensile stress of 175 MPa. Determine the elongation if E =
69116 MPa.
A. 78 mm
B. 76 mm
C. 74 mm
D. 72 mm
31. Determine the load capacity in kN on a 25 mm diameter x 1200 mm long steel shaft if its maximum
elongation shall not exceed 1 mm. Assume E = 200,000 MPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.2 kN
78.3 kN
83.2 kN
81.8 kN
32. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft long at 0 oC. What will be its increase in length when heated to 100 oC?
Coefficient of linear expansion is 30 x 10^-6 per oC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.18 ft
0.12 ft
0.20 ft
0.28 ft
33. A steel railroad rails 10 m long are laid with clearance of 3 mm at a temperature of 15 oC. At what
temperature will the rails just touch? If there were no initial clearance Assume: alpha = 11.7 micro m/m
deg.C and E = 200 GPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.90 deg
56.06 deg
50.36 deg
40.64 deg
34. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30 oC is to be slide into a hole on a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of
0.99970 cm at 30oC. To what temperature the plate must be heated? Coefficient of linear expansion for steel
is 1.2 x 10^-5 per oC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
62oC
55oC
48oC
65oC
35. A certain steel tape is known to be 100,000 ft long at a temperature of 70 oF. When the tape is at a
temperature of 10oF, what tape reading corresponds to a distance of 90,000 ft? Assume a coefficient of
thermal expansion equal 65 x 10^-7 per oF.
A.
B.
C.
D.
90,035 ft
89,965 ft
90,225 ft
89,775 ft
36. A solid shaft 2.0 m long is transmitting 27 kN-m torque. If the shear modulus of the shaft material is 85 GPa
and the allowable shearing stress is 70 MPa, determine the angle of twist between the two ends of the shaft.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.52o
1.02o
1.44o
1.32o
37. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter
wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 20 kN?
A.
B.
C.
D.
d529 Gpa
370 Pa
25 kPa
121 MPa
38. A 14-ft simple beam uniformly loaded with 200 pounds per foot over its entire length. If the beam is 3.625
in wide and 7.625 in deep, what is the maximum bending stress/
A.
B.
C.
D.
7974 lbf/in2
8205 lbf/in2
6332 lbf/in2
1674 lbf/in2
39. A 19-foot beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 lb/ft on two supports 14 feet apart. The
right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. What is the shearing stress midway between supports?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.0 psi
10 psi
67 psi
2.0 psi
40. A long beam of length L has a formula which is 48Ely = w (2x^4 5Lx^3 + 3(L^2 )(x^2)); where does the
maximum deflection occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.675L
0.578L
0.987L
0.876L
41. A steel support must connect to 30,000 pound tensile loads separated by 200 inches. The maximum
allowable stress is 10,000 psi and the maximum elongation is 0.020 inch. What is the required area? E(steel)
= 3 x 10^7 psi
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.5 mm2
47.1 in2
55 mm2
10 in2
42. High strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 mm thick runs over the pulley 600 mm in diameter of
pulleys can be used without exceeding the flexural stress of 400 MPa? Note: E = 200 GPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
250 cm
325 mm
400 mm
150 in.
43. What weight in pounds can be lifted by a screw that has an efficiency of 80% if it is operated by a 50 lb
force at the end of a 30 inched lever and the pitch of the screw is inch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15,080
15,500
10,000
12,000
44. What is the stress in an 8-inch round x 16-inch high concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x 10^6 psi) when the unit
deformation is 0.0012 inch/inch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
500 psi
8100 psi
210 psi
3000 psi
45. What uniform load will cause simple beam which is 10 ft long to deflect 0.3 in. ft it supported (in addition
to the supports) by a spring at the beam mid-point. The spring constant of 30,000 lbf/in. Assume the beam is
steel, 10 in. deep, rectangular, and with a centroidal moment of inertia of 100 in4 .
A.
B.
C.
D.
3550 lbf/ft
6445 lbf/ft
2250 lbf/ft
5440 lbf/ft
46. During the stress strain test, the unit deformation at a stress of 35 MN/m 2 it was 667 x 10^-6 mm. If the
proportional limit was MN/m2, what is the modulus of elasticity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 x 10^8 N/cm2
5.8 x 10^6 N/in2
2.1 x 10^5 N/mm2
35 x 10^6 N/mm2
47. A 2.5 in. diameter shaft is 2 ft. long. Its maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi. What is the angular deflection
in degrees?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.96o
0.45o
0.78o
0.56o
48. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16 inch diameter cable, 1500 feet long. When the
elevator carries a 1500 lb, the cable elongates 6 inches more. What is the modulus of elasticity of the cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.35 x 10^7 psi

5.87 x 10^7 psi
3.42 x 10^7 psi
2.34 x 10^7 psi
49. A hallow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m. Compute the torque if the
shear stress is not exceed 120 MPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4,500 N-m
4,300 N-m
5,500 N-m
3,450 N-m
50. A spherical tank with 10 inches inside diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500 psi. Calculate the required
wall thickness in (mm) under stress of 28,000 psi.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.12 mm
5.66 mm
4.88 mm
7.21 mm
51. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter
wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN?
A.
B.
C.
D.
121 MPa
130 MPa
150 MPa
120 MPa
52. A single bolt is used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force on the bar is 20,000 N. Determine the
diameter of the bolt required if the allowable shearing stress on it is 70 MPa.
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 mm
19 mm
15 mm
12 mm
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
LAW AND ETHICS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

A. E. O. 125
B. R. A. 3846
C. R. A. 3396
D. R. A. 7925
2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004

Telecommunications Law of the Philippines
PRC Modernization Law
Municipal Telephone Act of 2000
3. What is otherwise known as The Maritime Communications Law ?

A.
B.
C.
D.
R. A. 109
R. A. 3396
R. A. 3846
R. A. 7925
4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision of local
exchange carrier service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
O. 109
R. A. 3846
O. 59
O. 546
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Philippines
and other purposes?\
A.
B.
C.
D.
R. A. 3846
D. O. 11
D. O. 88
D. O. 5
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications Engineer in
the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
R. A. 3846
R. A. 9292
R. A. 5734
D. O. 88
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons satellite
corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. O. 109
E. O. 196
E. O. 59
E. O. 205
8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and for other
purposes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P. D. No. 223
P. D. No. 576-A
P. D. No. 567-A
P. D. No. 657-A
9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture, acquisition, sale
and service of radio communication equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
MC No. 9-13-98
MC No. 8-06-88
MC No. 4-22-99
MC No. 2-05-88
10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
A. E. O. 196
B. E. O. 463
C. E. O. 436
D. E. O. 205
11. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. O. 467
E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 59
12. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications
in the country?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 205
E. O. 467
13. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. O. 436
E. O. 205
E. O. 250
E. O. 346
14. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing the national
policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. O. 3846
E. O. 59
E. O. 456
E. O. 467
15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

A.
B.
C.
D.
December 21, 1993

February 24, 1993
June 21, 1993
December 12, 1993

A.
B.
C.
D.
September 11, 1997

September 6, 1997
September 9, 1997
September 18, 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.
July 12, 1993

July 15, 1993
October 10, 1993
December 12, 1993
18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

A.
B.
C.
D.
June 30, 1987

June 21, 1987
June 12, 1987
June 1, 1987
19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

A.
B.
C.
D.
March 1, 1995
March 21, 1995
February 20, 1995
March 7, 1995
20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

A.
B.
C.
D.
March 1, 1995
March 15, 1995
March 17, 1995
March 21, 1995
21. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988
22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

A.
B.
C.
D.
P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988
23. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal communication
having a global coverage using satellite?
A.
B.
C.
D.
NMT
GMPCS
GSM
TACS
24. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bureau of Communications
Department of Transportation and Communications
House of Representatives
National Telecommunications Commission
25. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce Promotion Council?
A.
B.
C.
D.
NTC
DOTC
NEDA
DTI
26. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and

A.
B.
C.
D.
10
18
22
25
27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman &

A.
B.
C.
D.
members.
5
10
20
30
28. MTRCB law defines an Adult as a person

A.
B.
C.
D.
members.
years of age and above.
18
19
20
21
29. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7 PM
8 PM
9 PM
10 PM
30. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 AM to 9 AM
12 NN to 2 PM
11 AM to 3 PM
4 PM to 7 PM
31. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from
A.
B.
C.
D.
6:00 to 11:00 PM
5:00 to 10:00 PM
4:00 to 9:00 PM
3:00 to 8:00 PM
local time.
32. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 AM to 7 PM
6 AM to 8 PM
7 AM to 7 PM
6 PM to 7 PM
33. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM
4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
34. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7:00 AM to 7 PM
6:00 AM to 6 PM
6:00 AM to 8 PM
7:00 AM to 8 PM
35. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from

.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 AM to 8 PM
9 PM to 12 MN
12 MN to 5 AM
36. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term nighttime refers to the period of time
between
UTC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000 to 2200
1000 to 1600
1000 to 1500
1000 to 1800
37. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 kW
20 kW
15 kW
5 kW
38. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and direct
supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 kW
4 kW
1kW
3kW
39. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 kW
25 kW
50 kW
100 kW
40. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila
and Metro Cebu for channels 7 13?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 kW
500 kW
1000 kW
1500 kW
41. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed

A.
B.
C.
D.
minutes for one hour program.
10
15
20
25
42. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of
of news per day.
A. 1 hour
B. 45 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes
43. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
program hour.
A.
B.
C.
D.
breaks in every
8
5
6
7
44. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
program hour.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
6
7
8
45. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed

A.
B.
C.
D.
breaks per
minutes in one hour program.
12
15
17
20
46. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing
OPM every hour.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
4
1
3
47. All station must have a minimum of

A.
B.
C.
D.
news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.
50 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
48. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of

excluding intro,
extro, headline and commercial load.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute and 30 seconds
49. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many breaks in 1
hour?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
3
7
6
50. TV station is required at least

A.
B.
C.
D.
20 minutes
40 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
51. Radio station shall allocate at least

A.
B.
C.
D.
newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day during weekdays.
as a program or programs rendering public service.
2 hours per day

3 hours per day
1 hour per day
1.5 hours per day
52. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
40.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
43.75MHz
41.25 MHz
53. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

A. 40.25 MHz
B. 45.75 MHz
C. 43.75MHz
D. 41.25 MHz
54. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
A. ELF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. HF
55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV operator shall
have a maximum term of how many years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 years
10 years
15 years
20 years
56. High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at least
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mbps.
2.048
32
64
256
57. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band is
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.725 to 1.79
1.275 to 1.975
1.925 to 1.975
1.575 to 1.975
58. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than
A.
B.
C.
D.
dB.
30
34
36
38
59. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum loss of
dB.
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
18
20
22
MHz
73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for accessing the facilities of
such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all
types of traffic derived from the interconnector?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interconnection charge
Approach charge
Access charge
Network charge
74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the acquisition,
servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit

Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
Service Center Operation Permit
Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point
75. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines and no
regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Off-network
Cablecasting
First-Run series
First-Run No-series programs
76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a registered
ECE. The statement above is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
True
False
It depends upon the area of coverage
It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global maritime distress
and safety system implemented last 1999?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A facsimile
A radio personnel
A Morse code
A radio-telegraph operator
78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every
exchange lines.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
10
15
20
79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of
switch termination.
urban local
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 local exchange lines per international

80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of Public
Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Franchise
B SEC document
Business Permit
Radio station license
81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order No. 88?
A.
B.
C.
D.
FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts

TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW
82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized to install,
own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the
business of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Local exchange carrier

International carrier
Inter-exchange carrier
National carrier
83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local exchange and interexchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by
such carriers is known as
.
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provider
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing an entity to
engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Authority to Operate
Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
Franchise
Provisional Authority
85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within the same
franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority previously granted by the
Commission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization.
New entrant has more financial support
Current service is grossly inadequate
Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should an
international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and
under-served areas within three years from grant of authority?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule

Cancellation of its authority
Given one year to comply
Given two years to comply
87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the franchise area.
When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon approval of NTC.
Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and access, and
has separated books of account.
73. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals
or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telecommunications
Broadcasting
Mass media
Multi media
88. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as
well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages?
A
B
C
D
Telephone-telegraph calling center

Telecommunications calling station
Public toll calling station
Call center
89. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange service in
unserved or underserved areas within
years from the grant of the authority as required by
existing regulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 years
4 years
2 years
5 years
90. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system equivalent to
kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.
A. 56.6
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
91. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency for radio
telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the authorized bands
between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
165.8 MHz
156.8 MHz
158.6 MHz
168.5 MHz
92. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau report?
A.
B.
C.
D.
RRB
WTDC
WRC
WTSC
93. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Depending on geographical boundary of a nation

Efficient use and equitable access
Depending on national sovereignty
Equal distribution
94. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ITU-R
ITU-D
ITU-T
RAG
95. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report?
A.
B.
C.
D.
WTSC
TDAB
WRC
Council
96. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio communications as
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR
97. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practices for all civil aviation?
A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
98. What is the executive branch of government in-charge of policy making in the telecommunication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
National Telecommunications Commission

Telecommunications Control Bureau
Department of Transportation and Communications
Bureau of Telecommunications
99. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions and
corrections in communication system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
File
Documentation
Reporting
Log
101. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to
and receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the reserve transmitter
AA
Direction finder
Main transmitter
Emergency transmitter
102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
provision of Morse code.

provision of radiotelegraph operator.
provision of facsimile.
provision of radio personnel.
103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global maritime
distress and safety system. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
On board radio facilities

Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel onboard
104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that any auxiliary
antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
A. AA
B. Emergency transmitter
C. Direction finder
D. Ground
105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the ship is in
electrical storm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AA
Main transmitter
Grounded
HF
106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its international
conference issues on orbital resources?
A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources.
C. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a performance bond of
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1 million
P 3 million
P 5 million
P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications
carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or
operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or operator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interconnection
Toll patching
Gateway
Outside plant sharing
109. Which law refers to the Electronic Commerce Act of 2000?

A.
B.
C.
D.
R. A. 8927
R. A. 9287
R. A. 8792
R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as Electronics Engineering Law of 2004?

A. P. D. 223
B. R. A. 5734
C. R. A. 9292
D. R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as PRC modernization law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
R. A. 8891
R. A. 8981
R. A. 8918
R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under

A.
B.
C.
D.
P. D. 323
P. D. 223
P. D. 232
P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?

A.
B.
C.
D.
June 21, 1973

June 22, 1973
June 23, 1973
June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
June 21, 2000

October 10, 2000
April 22, 2000
June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
A.
B.
C.
D.
April 12, 2004

April 17, 2004
April 19, 2004
April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
August 27, 2007

August 28, 2007
August 29, 2007
August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Registered Electronic Technicians

Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers
Choices B and C above
118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience

D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall
Registered Electronic Engineer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the electronics plan designed by a
review
sign
seal
all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and
installation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Professional Electronic Engineers

Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on

.
A.
B.
C.
D.
current practice
current costumer price index
minimum basic daily wage
all of the above
122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer for routine
or ordinary consultation will not be less than
per month.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1,500
P 2,000
P 2,500
P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in

A.
B.
C.
D.
of the R. A. No. 9292.
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released within
after the examination.
A.
B.
C.
D.
days
5
10
15
3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement
to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months

P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish

client.
A.
B.
C.
D.
sets of drawing specifications and other contract documents to the
5
3
7
2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years of active
service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 4,000 to P 8,000
P 2,000 to P 5,000
P 5,000 to P 9,000
P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems is under what field of ECE
practice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Engineering consultation
Design Services
Construction and Installation
Inspection and Appraisal
129. Testing and quality control of electronic products is under what field of ECE practice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Education Service
Research and Development
Manufacturing
Maintenance
130. If the ECE consultants present is required in another place away from his office, additional compensation
of
for every hour he is away from his office or if the place more than 50 km away from his office.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1,000.00
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with definite
duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is
for salaried ECEs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.01 of basic monthly salary scale

132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least business class transportation and
accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than
km away from the established office
of electronic engineer consultant.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30
40
50
100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not less than
hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than
attendance regardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
A.
B.
C.
D.
per
per hour per
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Constant Percentage Method

Percent of Cost Method
Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
Percent of Total Project Cost
136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not involve a whole
project, what method is used for computing the professional fee?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unit Cost Method

Constant Percentage Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into classifications which
have corresponding unit design rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Percent of Cost Method

Unit Cost Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of active service?
A. P 6,000 to P 20,000
B. P 5,000 to P 8,000
C. P 8,000 to P 12,000
D. P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10 years of active
service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 15,000 up
P 12,000 up
P 8,000 up
P 10,000 up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate of retainers
fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1,500 per month

P 1,000 per month
P 2,000 per month
P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to form and/or to
set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Construction and/or installation

Investigation
Appraisal
Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or related
components, parts, devices and accessories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality control
Manufacturing
Development
System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and facility using the
arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and technical consideration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Construction service
Consultation service
Organizing service
Design service
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics engineering and its
related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and practices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Consultancy design
Professional consultation
Engineering consultation
Consultancy service
145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the E-commerce
Act of the Philippines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 100,000
P 500,000
P 100,000
P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the Ecommerce Act of the Philippines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 months imprisonment
147. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over public channels into a
form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as
A.
B.
C.
D.
password
username
encrypted code
electronic key
148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 years
3 years
6 years
7 years
149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic Codes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Voltage/current limiting and interrupting

Undergrounding
Grounding and bonding
Shielding
150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
roentgens per minute

milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
rebs per hour
rems per minute
151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
A. rad
B. rbe
C. rem
D. reb
152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1 roentgen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
rbe
reb
rem
rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to X-rays by a
number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
rbe
rems
rebs
all of the above
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Must not exceed 100 mr per week

Must not exceed 10 mr per week
Must not exceed 1000 mr per day
Must not exceed 100 mr per day
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?

A.
B.
C.
D.
rems (roentgen equivalent man)

rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
Both A & B
Only A
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the whole body, with N
= persons age?
A.
B.
C.
D.
MPD = 5 (N 18)
MPD = 3 (N 15)
MPD = 7 (N 18)
MPD = 5 (N 15)
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10
5
15
7
159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2
1
4
3
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause genetic and somatic
effects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
roentgens
rems
rbes
rebs
161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service entrance will be
used as the most feasible and economical way?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expense of telephone company

Expense of subscriber
Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical installation should not
exceed
volts RMS.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
45
0
30
163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sand
Clay
Surface loam soil
Limestone
164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but circular in shape?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fitting
Sleeve
Insert
Header
165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an entire floor of a
building?
A. Floor terminal distribution area
B. Raceway terminal
C. Floor distribution terminal

D. Riser terminal
166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor structure to allow the
passage of a cable and wire?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Insert
Sleeve
Raceway
Slot
167. In cable facilities for a building communications service,

is referred to as a physical cable
within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable pairs and house cable pairs but
not wiring cable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
entrance cable
floor distribution cable
house cable
building cable
168. A telephone companys cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main cross-connecting
a point within the building is called
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telephone cable
Entrance cable
Connecting cable
Building cable
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic terminal
cabinets or boxes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Raceway
Riser shaft
Riser conduit
Entrance cable
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building
is called
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service fitting
Raceway
Riser conduit
Riser shaft
171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story residential building to
be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two lines
Five lines
Three lines
Not required
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the equipment thus
protected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alpeth
Anchor
Alarm
Arrester
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter oscillator
circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Poor soldered connections.

Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.
Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.
174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Honesty
Justice
Integrity
Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Consideration
Partnership
Contract
Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in engineering practice
and research?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Engineering ethics
Engineering management
Engineering system
Engineering integrity
177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged in engineering,
and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ethics
Code of ethics
Engineering ethics
Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral
values is problematic?
A. Silo mentality
B. Preventive ethics
C. Ethical issues
D. Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a
professional society?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of work?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code
181. Ethics is synonymous to

A.
B.
C.
D.
morality
money
standards
conduct
182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Death of a party to the contract

Failure of consideration
Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
All of the above
183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Court order
Passage of new laws
Declaration of war
All of the above
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The meanings of the clauses were established.

The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.
The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.
All of the above
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as

A.
B.
C.
D.
real
original
prime
legitimate
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?
contractor.
A.
B.
C.
D.
There must be a clear, specific and definite offer.

There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
There must be an acceptance of the offer.
All of the above
187. What contract document is part of the constructive contracts?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Agreement form
General condition
Drawings and specifications
All of the above
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A representation
An offer
A proposal
A consideration
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Warranty
Condition
Injuction
Innominate terms
190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example of the defendant
to deter other from doing the same thing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Punitive damages
Nominal damages
Liquidated damages
Consequential damages
191. What is another term for punitive damages?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquidated damages
Exemplary damages
Compensatory damages
Nominal damages
192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially
less than or different from what the contract is intended?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Willful breach
Material breach
Unintentional breach
Intentional breach
193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a contract may sue
under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be
sued under that contract?
A. Doctrine of contract
B. Party policy of contract

C. Equity of contract
D. Privity of contract
194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property,
emotional well-being, or reputation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Consequential damage
Fraud
Punitive damage
Tort
195. The tort law is concerned with

A.
B.
C.
D.
imprisonment
fine
compensation for the injury
punishment
196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in ceremonies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Canon
Code
Creed
Rule
197. A canon is defined as:

A.
B.
C.
D.
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.

a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
198. A rule is defined as:

A.
B.
C.
D.

199. A code is defined as:

A.
B.
C.
D.

200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his technical education,
training, experience and competence?
A. Professional practice
B. Professional service
C. Legal practice and service
D. Professional consultation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
THERMODYNAMICS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. The term thermodynamics comes from Greek words therme and dynamis which means _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat power
Heat transfer
Heat energy
Heat motion
2. The term thermodynamics was first used in 1849 in the publication of a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Rudolph Clausius
William Rankine
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Savery
3. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

A.
B.
C.
D.
First law of Thermodynamics

Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
4. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
First law of Thermodynamics

Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
5. The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the behavior of
individual particles is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics
6. What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average behavior of
large groups of individual particles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics
7. What is defined a region in space chosen for study?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Surroundings
System
Boundary
Volume
8. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Conservation of mass
Conservation of energy
Action and reaction
The entropy-temperature relationship
9. What is the mass or region outside the system called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Surroundings
Boundary
Volume
Environment
10. What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings?
A. Division
B. Wall
C. Boundary
D. Interface
11. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium system
Thermal equilibrium system
Open system
Closed system
12. A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Closed system
Exclusive system
Isolated system
Special system
13. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium system
Isolated system
Open system
Closed system
14. Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Compressor
Turbine
Nozzle
All of the above
15. The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginary is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control boundary
Control system
Interface
Control surface
16. Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Property
Process
Phase
Cycle
17. How are thermodynamic properties classified?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Physical and chemical

Intensive and extensive
Real and imaginary
Homogeneous and heterogeneous
18. The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property
19. The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property
20. Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Temperature
Mass
Pressure
Density
21. Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Mass
Volume
Energy
22. Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific properties
Relative properties
Unit properties
Phase properties
23. A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Static
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
24. A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system with time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pressure
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
25. If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase reaches an
equilibrium level and stays there.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
26. A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time, i.e., no chemical
reaction occurs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
27. The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent, intensive
properties. This is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium postulate
State postulate
Environment postulate
Compressible system postulate
28. What is the unit of the total energy of the system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kj
Kj/Kg
Kg
g
29. Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is called _____
system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Simple
Simple compressible
Compressible
Independent
30. What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state?
A. Process
B. Path
C. Phase
D. Cycle
31. What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Path
Phase
Cycle
Direction
32. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
3
2
1
33. What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at all times?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Path equilibrium process

Cycle equilibrium process
Phase equilibrium process
Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process
34. A closed system may refer to ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature
35. An open system may refer to ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature
36. A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanical and phase

Thermal and chemical
Thermal, mechanical and chemical
Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical
37. What is a process with identical end states called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cycle
Path
Phase
Either path or phase
38. What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process
39. What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process
40. What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric or isometric process
Isovolumetric process
41. The prefix iso used to designate a process means ______.

A. Cannot be interchanged
B. Remains constant
C. Approximately equal
D. Slight difference
42. What does the term steady implies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No change with volume

No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass
43. What does the tem uniform implies?

A.
B.
C.
D.
No change with volume

No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass
44. What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transient-flow process
Steady and uniform process
Uniform-flow process
Steady-flow process
45. The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Total energy
Internal energy
System energy
Phase energy
46. What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Macroscopic form of energy

Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy
47. What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some outside reference
frame, such as potential and kinetic energies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Macroscopic form of energy

Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy
48. Who coined the word energy in 1807?

A.
B.
C.
D.
William Rankine
Rudolph Clausius
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Young
49. The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy
50. The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spin energy
Sensible energy
51. The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy?
A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy

D. Sensible energy
52. What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic energies of the
molecules?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spin energy
Sensible energy
53. What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Thermal energy
54. What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
State energy
55. What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the nucleus of the
atom itself called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Nuclear energy
56. What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy and heat

Heat transfer and work
Thermal energy and chemical energy
Latent energy and thermal energy
57. What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in equilibrium with
each other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics
58. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Celsuis
A. Einstein
R.H. Fowler
G. Fahrenheit
59. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale
60. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale
61. What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Ideal gas temperature scale

Ideal temperature scale
Absolute gas temperature scale
Triple point temperature scale
62. The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Constant-volume gas thermometer

Constant-mass gas thermometer
Constant-temperature gas thermometer
Constant-pressure gas thermometer
63. What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes fusion reaction
difficult to attain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic repulsion
Nuclear repulsion
Coulomb repulsion
Charge repulsion
64. What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas is proportional
to its pressure at constant volume?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Constant-pressure gas thermometer

Isobaric gas thermometer
Isometric gas thermometer
Constant-volume gas thermometer
65. What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tripoint of water
Triple point of water
Triple phase point of water
Phase point of water
66. What is defined as the force per unit area?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Pressure
Energy
Work
Power
67. The unit pascal is equivalent to ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
N/m^2
N/m
N-m
N-m^2
68. Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 bar
1 atm
1 kgf/cm^2
14.223 psi
69. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Atm
Bar
Pa
Psi
70. 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10^3
10^4
10^5
10^6
71. 1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101,325
101,689
101,102
101,812
72. What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute vacuum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure
73. What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure
74. The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the _____ pressure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gage
Normal
Standard
Vacuum
75. Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Bourdon tube
Pitot tube
Aneroid
Manometer
76. What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Pitot tube
Wind vane
Barometer
Manometer
77. Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the torr. This is named after the Italian physicist,
Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr?
A. 740
B. 750
C. 760
D. 770
78. What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all directions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Avogadros Law
Amagat Law
Pascals Law
Bernoullis Theorem
79. What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out when the tube
is subjected to an internal pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aneroid
Manometer
Bourdon pressure gage
Barometer
80. What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in temperature of
each object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Power
Heat transfer
Heat
Work
81. What is the SI unit of energy?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Newton
Btu
Calorie
Joule
82. One joule is equivalent to one _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kg m/ s^2
Kg m^2/s^2
Kg m^2/s
Kg m/s
83. One calorie is equivalent to how many joules?

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.448
4.184
4.418
4.814
84. One erg is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 10^-8
B. 10^-7
C. 10^-6
D. 10^-5
85. The first law of thermodynamics is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of conservation of momentum

Law of conservation of mass
Law of conservation of power
Law of conservation of energy
86. What is the study of energy and its transformations?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Thermostatics
Thermophysics
Thermochemistry
Thermodynamics
87. What is considered as the heat content of a system?

A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Internal heat
D. Molar heat
88. What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree Celsius or 1K?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat capacity
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat
89. What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat
90. What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat
91. The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages, provided the
initial and final conditions are the same for each route. This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dulongs Law
Daltons Law
Hesss Law
Petit Law
92. What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enthalpy
Entropy
Heat capacity
Molar heat
93. Entropy is measured in ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Joule/Kelvin
Joule-Meter/Kelvin
Meter/Kelvin
Newton/Kelvin
94. What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entropy
Ion exchange
Enthalpy
Enthalpy of reaction
95. When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as _____liquid.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saturated
Compressed o subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated
96. A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated
97. A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated
98. A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated
99. A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monoatomic
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Pure
100. What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium temperature
Saturation temperature
Superheated temperature
Subcooled temperature
101. What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equilibrium pressure
Saturation pressure
Superheated pressure
Subcooled pressure
102. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the solid to liquid
state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission
103. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the liquid to the
gaseous state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission
104. What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molar heat
Latent heat
Vaporization heat
Condensation heat
105. What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
331.1 kJ/kg
332.6 kJ/kg
333.7 kJ/kg
330.7 kJ/kg
106. What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2314.8 kJ/kg
2257.1 kJ/kg
2511.7 kJ/kg
2429.8 kJ/kg
107. What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same or identical?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Triple point
Inflection point
Maximum point
Critical point
108. What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or vice versa
without passing the liquid state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Condensation
Vaporization
Sublimation
Cryogenation
109. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 C is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie
110. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1F is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie
111. 1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1016
1043
1023
1054
112. The term enthalpy comes from Greek enthalpen which means ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Warm
Hot
Heat
Cold
113. The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vapor ratio
Vapor content
Vapor index
Quality
114. The equation of state refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pressure and temperature

Pressure, temperature and specific weight
Temperature and specific weight
Pressure, temperature and specific volume
115. In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Universal gas constant

Gas constant
Ideal gas factor
Gas index
116. The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Universal gas constant to molar mass

Universal gas constant to atomic weight
Universal gas constant to atomic number
Universal gas constant to number of moles
117. What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol K?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10.73
1.986
8.314
1545
118. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as ______.

A. Molar weight
B. Molar mass
C. Molar volume
D. Molar constant
119. What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one
degree?
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Molar heat
C. Specific heat capacity

D. Specific heat
120. The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit mass of the
substance to change its temperature by one degree.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Latent heat of fusion

Molar heat
Specific heat capacity
Specific heat
121. What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg C?

A.
B.
C.
D.
4581
4185
4518
4815
122. What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
J/kg
J/kg F
J/kg C
J/C
123. What is constant for a substance that is considered incompressible?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific volume of density

Pressure
Temperature
All of the above
124. If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Static
Isobaric
Polytropic
Adiabatic
125. The term adiabatic comes from Greek adiabatos which means ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
No heat
No transfer
Not to be passed
No transformation
126. How is heat transferred?

A. By conduction
B. By convection
C. By radiation
D. All of the above
127. What refers to the transfer of energy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves or photons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification
128. What refers to the transfer of energy between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid that is in motion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification
129. What refers to the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less
energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification
130. What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the net change in the
total mass of the system during that process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Conservation of energy principle
Second law of thermodynamic
Conservation of mass principle
131. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
PV = nRT
An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole
No attractive forces exists between the molecule of a gas
132. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Adiabatic heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic heat transfer is zero
Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
Adiabatic heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero
Both heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible
133. Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?

A.
B.
C.
D.
V/T = K
V= k*(1/P)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
PV = nRT
134. What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific heat capacity

Coefficient of thermal expansion
Coefficient of thermal conductivity
Thermal conductivity
135. What refers to the heating of the earths atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight but by infrared light
radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon dioxide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Greenhouse effect
Global warming
Thermal rise effect
Ozone effect
136. What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of substances?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boundary work
Thermodynamic work
Phase work
System work
137. Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range.

A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 100m
0.1 to 100m
0.1 to 10m
10 to 100m
138. What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorptivity
Emissivity
Emissive power
139. What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to the absorptivity
are equal?
A. Kirchhoffs radiation law
B. Newtons law of cooling

C. Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Hesss law
140. What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body
141. What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body
142. At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surfaces is ______ the radiation emitted by a black
body.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less than
Greater than
Equal to
Either less than or greater than
143. Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It is high with most nonmetals

It is directly proportional to temperature
It is independent with the surface condition of the material
It is low with highly polished metals
144. What is the emissivity of a black body?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
0.5
0.25
145. What is the absorptivity of a black body?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
0.5
0.25
146. What is sometimes known as the Fourth-power law?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kirchhoffs radiation law

Newtons law of cooling
Stefan-Boltzmann law
Hesss law
147. What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to the difference
between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system during that process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Conservation of energy principle
Conservation of mass principle
148. The equation Ein Eout = Esystem is known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Energy conservation
Energy equation
Energy balance
Energy conversion equation
149. What remains constant during a steady-flow process?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mass
Energy content of the control volume
Temperature
Mass and energy content of the control volume
150. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Net work input to total heat input

Net work output to total heat output
Net work output to total heat input
Net work input to total heat output
151. What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no other effect
than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of work?
A.
B.
C.
D.

152. Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a thermal
efficiency of 100 percent?
A. Kelvin-Planck statement
B. Clausius statement
C. Kevin statement
D. Rankine statement
153. What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combustion efficiency
Phase efficiency
Heat efficiency
Work efficiency
154. What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy input?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combustion efficiency
Thermal efficiency
Overall efficiency
Furnace efficiency
155. What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTSs for 1 watt-hour of electricity
consumed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost efficiency rating

Energy efficiency rating
Coefficient of performance
Cost of performance
156. What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other
than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body?
A.
B.
C.
D.

157. What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a device that
operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a
higher-temperature body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kelvin-Planck statement
Clausius statement
Kelvin statement
Rankine statement
158. A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of thermodynamics is
known as _____.
A. Ambiguous machine
B. Universal machine
C. Perpetual-motion machine
D. Unique machine
159. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

Universal machine of the first kind
Ambiguous machine of the first kind
Unique machine of the first kind
160. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perpetual motion machine of the second kind

Universal machine of the second kind
Ambiguous machine of the second kind
Unique machine of the second kind
161. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1842
1824
1832
1834
162. Who proposed the Carnot cycle?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sammy Carnot
Sonny Carnot
Sadi Carnot
Suri Carnot
163. The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2
3
4
5
164. The Carnot cycle is composed of ______ processes.

A. One isothermal and one adiabatic
B. One isothermal and two adiabatic
C. Two isothermal and one adiabatic
D. Two isothermal and two adiabatic
165. What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy reservoirs at
temperature limits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ericson efficiency
Otto efficiency
Carnot efficiency
Stirling efficiency
166. What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called?
A. Carnot heat engine
B. Ideal heat engine
C. Most efficient heat engine
D. Best heat engine

167. What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two
reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible one operating between the
same two reservoirs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ericson principle
Carnot principle
Otto principle
Stirling principle
168. Who discovered the thermodynamic property Entropy in 1865?

A.
B.
C.
D.

169. A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isometric
Isochoric
Isobaric
Isentropic
170. A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not necessarily
reversible adiabatic process. This statement is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
True
False
May be true and may be false
Absurd
171. The term isentropic process used in thermodynamics implies what?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reversible adiabatic process

Externally reversible, adiabatic process
Internally reversible, adiabatic process
Irreversible adiabatic process
172. What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero?
A.
B.
C.
D.

173. What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
174. The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer through the system
boundary and the entropy generated within the system. This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entropy generation
Entropy change of a system
Entropy balance relation
175. What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed?
A.
B.
C.
D.

176. Entropy is transferred by ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Work
Heat
Energy
Work and heat
177. During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is temperature-dependent
It is always greater than zero
It is always zero
It is always less than zero
178. Water boils when:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure

Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius
Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm
179. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere

32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
180. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Positive or negative
181. At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. This is known as
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boyles Law
Charless Law
Gay-Lussac Law
Ideal gas law
182. Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charless law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
V1/V2= P2/P1
V1/T1=V2/T2
V1/T2=V2/T1
V1/V2=P2/P1
183. Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material

2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material
Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material)
Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material
184. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of
electromagnetic waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
182,000 miles/second
185. For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency attainable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Eff = 1 (T2/T1)
Eff = 1 -(T1/T2)
Eff = T1-T2
Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2
186. Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of performance
(COP)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EER = 2.34COP
EER = 3.24COP
EER = 3.42COP
EER = 4.23COP
187. The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio between the:

A. Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour
B. Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts

C. Work required and the absorbed heat
D. Absorbed heat and work required
188. What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of Dulong and Petit
Mollier diagram
Pressure-enthalpy diagram
189. Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______ law.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gay-Lussac law
Dulong and Petit
Avogadros
Henrys
190. An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perfect gas
Natural gas
Artificial gas
Refined gas
191. What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas molecules do not attract each other

The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas
The molecules behave like hard spheres
All of the above
192. The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes. This
statement is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Maxwell-Boltzmann law
Amagats law
Avogadros law
193. An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a significant
decrease in pressure is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isochoric process
Isobaric process
Throttling process
Quasistatic process
194. What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a real gas is
throttled?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rankine coefficient
Kelvin coefficient
Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient
Joule-Thomson coefficient
195. The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Source reservoir
Heel reservoir
Toe reservoir
Sink reservoir
196. A ______ is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is zero.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isentropic flow
Isobaric flow
Steady flow
Uniform flow
197. What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Burn temperature
Kindle temperature
Spark temperature
Ignition temperature
198. What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Daltons law
Ringelman law
Amagats law
199. What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amagats law
Joules law
Lussacs law
Henrys law
200. Which is NOT a correct statement?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed
An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor
A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing
Water at 1 atm and room temperature is subcooled
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
PHYSICS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What is the standard unit of mass?

A. Kilogram
B. Pound
C. Gram
D. Newton
2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yard
Feet
Meter
Inch
3. What is the SI unit of work?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Newton
Watt
Newton-Second
Joule
4. What is the SI unit of power?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Newton
Watt
Newton-Second
Joule
5. What is the SI unit of temperature?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Fahrenheit
Kelvin
Celsius
Rankine
6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Candela
Lumens
Lux
Candlepower
7. What is the unit of relative intensity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Pa
N-m
C.N-m/s
Unitless
8. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Pa
B. N-m
C. N/m
D. N-m/s
9. Which one is equivalent of the unit Pascal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
N/nm2
N/m2
N/m
D.N/nm
10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1,000,000
100,000
10,000
D.1000
11. What is the SI unit of intensity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Joule/m2
kg/m2
N/m2
watt/m2
12. What is the unit of potential difference?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Watt
Coulomb
Volt
Weber
13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?

A.
B.
C.
D.
watt/coulomb
joule/coulomb
joule/watt
watt/joule
14. One election volt is equivalent to _______ joules.

A.
B.
C.
D.
1.6 x 10^-17
1.6 x 10^-18
1.6 x 10 ^-19
1.6 x 10^-20
15. What is the unit of capacitance?

A. Farad
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Gauss
16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit farad?
A.
B.
C.
D.
coulomb/volt
joule/volt
joule/coulomb
coulomb/joule
17. What is the unit of electric current?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Volt
Watt
Ampere
Coulomb
18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit ampere?

A.
B.
C.
D.
joule/second
volt/second
coulomb/second
watt/second
19. What is the unit of resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Ohm
Watt
Volt
Ampere
20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
coulomb/ampere
watt/ampere
volt/ampere
joule/ampere
21. What is the unit of luminous intensity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Footcandle
Lumen
Candela
Lux
22. What is the unit of luminous flux?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Candela
Lumen
Lux
Footcandle
23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit candela?

A.
B.
C.
D.
lumen/m2
footcandle/steradian
lux/steradian
lumen/steradian
24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency?

A.
B.
C.
D.
lumen/watt
lumen/volt
lumen/ampere
lumen/coulomb
25. What is the unit of illumination?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Lux
Lumen
Candela
Lumen/watt
26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?

A.
B.
C.
D.
lumen/cm2
lumen/ft2
lumen/m2
lumen/in2
27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?

A.
B.
C.
D.
lumen/cm2
lumen/ft2
lumen/m2
lumen/in2
28. How many dynes are there in one newton?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10,000
100,000
1,000,000
D.1000
29. What is an elemental unit of energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quartz
Quark
Photon
Quantum
30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second when acted on
by a force of one pound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slug
Erg
Dyne
BTU
31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
centimetre
millimetre
nanometer
micrometer
32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
centimeter
millimeter
nanometer
micrometer
33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
milligram
gram
microgram
nanogram
34. Which one is equivalent to the unit joule?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Newton-second
Newton-meter
Newton-meter per second
Newton-meter per second squared
35. Which one is equivalent to the unit watt?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Newton-second
Newton-meter
Newton-meter per second
Newton-meter per second squared
36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

A.
B.
C.
D.
550
746
33,000
250
37. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
work
energy
power
work or energy
38. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
work
energy
power
work or energy
39. The English unit slug is a unit of _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
mass
weight
force
energy
40. How is sound intensity measured?

A.
B.
C.
D.
In beats
In decibels
In phons
In sones
41. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a potential
difference of how many volts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 volt
0.1 volts
10 volts
0.01 volts
42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?

A. Single vector
B. Unit vector
C. Dot vector
D. Scalar vector
43. What is the purpose of a unit vector?

A.
B.
C.
D.
To describe the direction in space

To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
To serve as comparison with other vectors
To set a standard among vectors
44. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cross product
Vector product
Dot product
Plus product
45. What is another term for vector product of two vectors?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cross product
Vector product
Dot product
Plus product
46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
equal to 1
greater than 1
less than 1
equal to 0
47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
equal 1
greater than 1
less than 1
equal to 0
48. The vector product of any vector with itself is ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
equal to 1
greater than 1
less than 1
equal to 0
49. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a unit or
physical quantities that have magnitudes only?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Scalar quantities
Vector product
Dot product
Vector quantities
50. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scalar quantities
Vector quantities
Dot product
Vector quantities
51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Displacement
Velocity
Acceleration
Time
52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Length
Mass
Volume
Time
53. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector
quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vector diagram
Vector
Component
Resultant
54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in
the motion of a body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vector diagram
Vector
Component
Resultant
55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the
time interval.
A.
B.
C.
D.
acceleration
instantaneous speed
average speed
instantaneous velocity
56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
acceleration
instantaneous speed
average speed
instantaneous velocity
57. The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particles kinetic
energy. This statement is known as _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Work-energy theorem
Law of conservation of work
Total work theorem
58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of
being brought to rest.
A.
B.
C.
D.
kinetic energy
potential energy
total energy
mechanical energy
59. Work is defined as the product of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Force and displacement

Force and time
Displacement and time
Power and time
60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?

A.
B.
C.
D.
impulse
Momentum
Power
Energy
61. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impulse
Force
Energy
Work
62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Weight
Mass
Force
63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impulse
Momentum
Inertia
Equilibrium
64. If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion at constant velocity. This statement is the _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
first law of motion

second law of motion
third law of motion
dAlemberts principle
65. The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the
object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration. This statement is
the _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
first law of motion

second law of motion
third law of motion
d Alemberts principle
66. When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force
of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction. This statement is the _____.
A. first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. dAlemberts principle
67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gravitational pull
Mass
Weight
All of the above
68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?

A.
B.
C.
D.
11.9
12.5
13.2
D.14.6
69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contracting
surfaces?
A. Action force
B. Reaction force
C. Friction
D. Drag
70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion
between them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
kinetic friction
sliding friction
starting friction
static friction
71. What is the maximum value of the static friction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Starting friction
Sliding friction
Kinetic friction
Dynamic friction
72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic friction is always to static friction

Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
73. What is another term for kinetic friction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Dynamic friction
Starting friction
Sliding friction
All of the above
74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and
coefficient of kinetic friction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
power output to power input

power input to power output
total work done to total energy
total energy to total power
76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Potential energy
Rest energy
Mechanical energy
78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Potential energy
Rest energy
Mechanical energy
79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero, the
total linear momentum of the system __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
becomes zero
maximizes
changes abruptly
remains constant
80. What is conserved in an elastic collision?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Potential energy
Rest energy
Mechanical energy
81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
true
false
is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies
82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?

A.
B.
C.
D.
When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.

When the kinetic energy is conserved.
When the two colliding objects stick together after impact.
When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.
83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
A. It is conserved.
B. It is lost to maximum value.

C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy.
D. It is lost to minimum value.
84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision

relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
relative speed to absolute speed
absolute speed to relative speed
85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
Less than 1
Greater than 1
86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?

A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
Less than 1
Greater than 1
87. The coefficient of restitution always applies _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
to only one of the colliding objects

to neither of the colliding objects
jointly to the colliding objects
to the bigger colliding object
88. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals zero, the
total linear momentum of the system remaining constant. This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of universal gravitation

Law of conservation of impulse
89. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Impulse
Momentum
Power
Energy
90. Momentum is the product of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
mass and time

velocity and mass
force and time
force and mass
91. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
to only one of the colliding objects

to neither of the colliding
jointly to the colliding objects
to the bigger colliding object
92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve
path?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Centrifugal force
Centripetal force
Reverse-effective force
Gravitational force
93. The centripetal force is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
directed away from the center of the curvature of the path

directed toward the center of curvature of the path
tangent to the curvature of the path
either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path
94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an orbit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
path time
orbit time
revolution
period
95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is _______ to the radius of its
path.
A.
B.
C.
D.
equal
not related in any way
96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
mass
density
weight
volume
97. Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional to
the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating
them. This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of universal gravitation
Law of conservation of impulse
98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the ______ the distance of the
object from the center of the earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
inversely as
inversely as the square of
directly as
directly as the square of
99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
sometimes true
sometimes false
always true
always false
100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Potential energy
Mechanical energy
Rest energy
101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
moment of inertia and linear speed

moment of area and angular speed
moment of inertia and angular speed
moment of area and angular speed
102. When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total
angular momentum of the system remains constant . This statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conservation of energy
Conservation of impulse
Conservation of linear momentum
Conservation of angular momentum
103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?

A. Those particles whose angular speed changes
B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
C. All particles
D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.
104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is
distributed about the axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
moment of mass
moment of area
moment of inertia
torque
105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force
and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
inertia
mass moment
torque
moment
106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in
_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unstable equilibrium
stable equilibrium
rotational equilibrium
translational equilibrium
107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A cone balanced on its apex.

A cone balanced on its base.
A cone on its side.
A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A cone balanced on its apex.

A cone balanced on its base.
A cone on its side.
A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
mechanical tool
machine
axle
wedge
110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

A. stable equilibrium
B. neutral equilibrium
C. unstable equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unstable equilibrium
stable equilibrium
rotational equilibrium
translational equilibrium
112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?

A.
B.
C.
D.
lever
incline plane
hydraulic press
wedge
113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It is always inside the object.

It is always outside the object.
It is always at its geometric center.
It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.
114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Weight density
Relative density
Specific density
115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Weight density
Relative density
Specific density
116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000 kg/m3
62.4 lb/ft3
10 g/cm3
9.81 kN/m3
117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
density
weight density
viscosity
specific gravity
118. What is another term for specific gravity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Weight density
Relative density
Viscosity
119. What is the average pressure of the earths atmosphere at sea level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.042 bar
1.021 bar
1.013 bar
1.037 bar
120. An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of
the fluid. This statement is known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bernoullis energy theorem

Pascals principle
Archimedes principle
Torricellis theorem
121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pascals principle
Reynolds principle
122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pascals principle
Reynolds principle
123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
pressure of a liquid
density of a liquid
Reynolds number
viscosity of liquid
124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its
equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.

A.
B.
C.
D.
frequency
oscillation
period
amplitude
125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplitude
Frequency
Period
Oscillation
126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.
A.
B.
C.
D.
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
equal to
independent of
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body
in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the
magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Damped harmonic motion

Pendulum
Simple harmonic motion
Damped harmonic oscillation
128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Force
Period
Frequency
Friction
129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be strucked without
producing a reaction force on its pivot.
A.
B.
C.
D.
center of gravity
center of oscillation
axis of oscillation
center of mass
130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
A. Sound
B. Resonance
C. Wave
D. Beat
131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of
its natural frequencies of oscillation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beat
Resonance
Doppler effect
Shock wave
132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed
exceeds that of sound?
A. Shock wave
B. Mach wave
C. Beat wave
D. Sonic wave
133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its
source and an observer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Superposition principle
Shock effect
Doppler effect
Wave motion
134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the
direction in which the waves travel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Longitudinal waves
Transverse waves
Wave motions
Shock waves
135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
20 Hz
30 Hz
40 Hz
50 Hz
136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
10,000 Hz
20,000 Hz
30,000 Hz
40,000 Hz
137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side
perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves
138. When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the
amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves. This statement
is known as ________.
A. Mach principle
B. Doppler principle
C. Principle of superposition
D. Wave motion principle
139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either
of the original waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Local interference
Ordinary interference
Constructive interference
Destructive interference
140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the
original waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Local interference
Ordinary interference
Constructive interference
Destructive interference
141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
beats
frequency
gain
intensity
142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 W/m2
0.1 W/m2
1 W/m2
0.01 W/m2
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10^-10
10^-11
10^-12
10^-13
144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
0.1
1.5
145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wave factor
Supersonic number
Sonic number
Mach number
146. The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant. This statement is known as
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Principle of conservation of attraction

Principle of conservation of charge
Coulombs law
Principle of superconductivity
147. The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This
statement is known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coulombs law
Kirchhoffs law
Lenzs law
Faradays law
148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would
experience a force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Energy field
Electric field
magnetic field
Force field
149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume
associated with it.
A.
B.
C.
D.
capacitance
polar energy
energy density
dielectric distance
150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential
difference between the plates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resistance
Inductance
Capacitance
Potential difference
151. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric field set up
across a sample of it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronegativity
Dielectric constant
Energy density
152. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy when
it is not connected to any external circuit is called its ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
electromechanical force
electrostatic force
electromotive force
internal resistance
153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Luminous intensity
Luminous efficiency
Illumination
Lumen
154. What refers to the brightness of a light source?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Luminous intensity
Illumination
Luminous flux
Luminous efficiency
155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1 candela
1 flux
1 lumen
All of the above
156. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting
point?
A. Footcandle
B. Candela
C. Lux
D. Lumen
157. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Luminous intensity
Luminous flux
Luminous efficiency
Illumination
158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in
radius at whose center is a ________ light source that radiates equally well in all directions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.1 candela
1.0 candela
10 candela
100 candela
159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2 lm
4 lm
8 lm
lm
160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Luminous factor
Luminous efficiency
Luminous intensity
Illumination
161. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light
when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mercury
Inert gas
Phosphor
Argon
162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular
medium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Index of refection
Total internal reflection
Index of dispersion
Index of refraction
163. The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the
speeds of light in the two media. This statement is known as ________.
A. Huygens principle
B. Snells law
C. Maxwells hypothesis
D. Dopplers effect
164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface
between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dispersion
Reflection
Refraction
Incidence
165. Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that
spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time
is the envelope of these wavelets. This statement is known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Huygens principle
Snells law
Maxwells hypothesis
Dopplers effect
166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the
same phase of oscillation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gamma ray
Wavefront
Electromagnetic wave
Microwave
167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a
corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flux
Refraction
Reflection
Dispersion
168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spectrum
Luminance
Facet
Reflection
169. What is the index of refraction of air?

A. 1.3
B. 1.03
C. 1.003
D. 1.0003
170. What is the index of refraction of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.33
1.63
1.43
1.53
171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual
focal point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying lens
Convergent lens
Divergent lens
Microscopic lens
172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying lens
Convergent lens
Divergent lens
Microscopic lens
173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It has only concave surfaces.

It has only convex surfaces.
it has no concave surface and no convex surface.
It has one concave surface and one convex surface
174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Focal index
Focal factor
Focal length
All of the above
175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear magnification
Object magnification
Image magnification
Height magnification
176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that:
A. the image and the object are of the same size
B. the image is larger than the object

C. the image is smaller than the object
D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object
177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive photographic
film?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying lens
Convergent lens
Divergent lens
Microscopic lens
178. One of the common defects of vision is _______ commonly known as nearsightedness.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hyporopia
hyperopia
myopia
minorpia
179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ commonly known as farsightedness.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hyporopia
hyperopia
myopia
minorpia
180. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying lens
Convergent lens
Divergent lens
Microscopic lens
181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying lens
Convergent lens
Divergent lens
Microscopic lens
182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different
planes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Astigmatism
Myopia
Hyperopia
Presbyopia
183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the image
and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifying power
Linear magnification
Angular magnification
Object magnification
184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single real
focal point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Convex mirror
Concave mirror
Spherical mirror
Chromatic mirror
185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as
though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Convex mirror
Concave mirror
Spherical mirror
Chromatic mirror
186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a single
plane of polarization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quartz
Fiber optic
Polaroid
Tounnaline
187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coherent power
Brewsters power
Polarization power
Resolving power
188. The resolving power of an equal system is _________ the objective lens of the optical
system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
equal
not related to
189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths?
A. Coherence
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of
light that is diffracted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diffraction grating
Polarization
Coherent waves
Reflection
191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption effect
Spectrum emission
Quantum effect
Photoelectric effect
192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on
matter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beta rays
Alpha rays
X-rays
De Broglie waves
193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving relative to
an observer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exclusion principle
Quantum theory of mass
State of mass
Relativity of mass
194. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spectral device
Prism
Fiber optic
Laser
195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Excited spectrum
Light spectrum
Absorption spectrum
Emission spectrum
196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is
passed through it?
A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
spin
shell
state
quantum number
198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Focal index
Focal factor
Focal length
All of the above
199. What does LASER stands for?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation

Light amplification by state emission of radiation
Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation
200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Weight of the body

Air resistance and gravitational pull
Gravitational pull
Air resistance
201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall at
a constant velocity. What is thus constant velocity called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Instantaneous velocity
Free-falling body
Gravitational velocity
Terminal velocity
202. The first law of motion is also known as ___________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of acceleration
Law of inertia
Law of interaction
Law of momentum
203. The second law of motion is also known as _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of acceleration
Law of inertia
Law of interaction
Law of momentum
204. The third law of motion is also known as __________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of acceleration
Law of inertia
Law of interaction
Law of momentum
205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the cars motion. What is this force called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reverse effective force

Terminal force
Drag force
Aerodynamic force
206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Stropomanometer
Pumpmanometer
Electromanometer
Sphygmomanometer
207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have in common?

A.
B.
C.
D.
These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell.

These do not need a medium to travel in.
These waves are all mechanical waves.
These waves are all serendipitous discoveries.
208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Roentgen
Maxwell
Tesla
Doppler
209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?

A.
B.
C.
D.
3 x 10^6
3 x 10^9
3 x 10^7
3 x 10^8
210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 dB
110 dB
120 dB
130 dB
211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1
10
0.1
0.01
212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2?

A.
B.
C.
D.
10^-12
10^-10
10^-8
10^-6
213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Intensity
Loudness
Pitch
Sone
214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pitch
Intensity
Loudness
Timbre
215. How can loudness of sound be increased?

A. By increasing the energy of sound
B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions.
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.
D. All of the choices.
216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Timbre
Loudness
Intensity
Pitch
217. The Doppler effect is named after which scientist?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Christopher Jacques Doppler

Christian Jacques Doppler
Christopher Jason Doppler
Christian Johann Doppler
218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the intensity of your voice

the number of sound waves you are sending out per second
the loudness of your voice
the equality of your voice
219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Above 50 dB
Above 100 dB
Above 120 dB
Above 150 dB
220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1C increase in
temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.2
0.4
0.6
0.8
221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Because water has greater density than air.

Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.
Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air.
Because water has more in volume than air.
222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both
reduced to one-half?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It will double.
It will reduce in half.
It will quadruple.
It will remain the same.
223. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch.
B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch.
C. A high-frequency sound has low energy.
D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy.

224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ear drum
Cochlea
Tympanum
Ear canal
225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquids
Solids
Gases
Vacuum
226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that
they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection
and interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Townes
Maxwell
Hertz
Huygens
227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Blue
Indigo
Green
Yellow
228. What color has the longest wavelength?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Orange
Red
Yellow
Green
229. What color has the shortest wavelength?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Indigo
Violet
Blue
Green
230. What is the wavelength band of orange?

A. 550 nm 600 nm
B. 600 nm 650 nm
C. 650 nm 700 nm
D. 500 nm 550 nm
231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?
A.
B.
C.
D.
350 700
350 800
300 700
300 800
232. What terms is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the mirror?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Angle of curvature
Focal point
Aperture
Vertex
233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in the line with the horizon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diffraction
Reflection
Refraction
Diffusion
234. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the most?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Violet
Red
Orange
Green
235. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Violet
Red
Orange
Green
236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
diffraction
reflection
refraction
diffusion
237. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different colors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chromatic diffraction
Chromatic polarization
Chromatic aberration
Chromatic dispersion
238. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Color
Shape
Size
Density
239. What is diffraction?

A.It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D.It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.
240. What is dispersion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.

It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
It is the merging of component colors into white light.
It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere
241. What are primary colors?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Blue, Red and White

Light colors
Colors which when combined produce white light
Blue, Red and Green
242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a glass tube sealed at
one end filled with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?
A.Bourdon gage
B. Aneroid barometer
C.Mercury barometer
D.Manometer
243. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it transfers energy?
A.Electromagnetic wave
B. Radiowave
C. Microwave
D.Mechanical wave
244. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism?
A.Light spectrum
B. Solar spectrum
C. White spectrum
D.Visible spectrum
245. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to
make objects behind them undistinguishable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lucidity
Limpidity
Transparent
Translucent
246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave but
longer than the Roentgen ray?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beta ray
Ultraviolet light
Alpha ray
X-ray
247. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light is excluded?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Footprint
Lumbra
Umbra
Sunspot
248. The range of the projectile is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration

directly proportional to the square of the velocity
directly proportional to the velocity
inversely proportional to the velocity
249. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?

A.Hydrometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Lactometer
D.Radiometer
263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale have the same
temperature?
A. 40
B. 30
C. 20
D. 25
264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.
A.luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D.illumination
265. Brightness is the same as __________.
A.luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D.illumination
266. What is a monochromatic light?
A.Light with only one color
B. Light with only one wavelength
C.Light with only one color and one wavelength
D.Light with many colors
267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent
light?
A.Hologram
B. Polygram
C. Opaque image
D.Translucent image
268. In opaque material,
A.light is able to pass through
B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D.the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
269. In translucent material,
B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C.light is partially absorbed
D.the reflected energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
270. In transparent material,

B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed

D.the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ________.
A.index of refraction
B. index of diffraction
C.relative index of refraction
D.index of diffusion
272. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the other?
A.Interference
B. Superposition
C. Reinforcement
D.Polarization
273. What type of waves is produced in the stem when tuning fork?
A.Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave
D.Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave
274. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the following?
A.The objects size and shape
B. The objects mass
C. The location of the axis of rotation
D.All of the above
275. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?
A.It may be outside the object
B. It is always at its geometrical center
C. It is always in the interior of the object
D.It is sometimes arbitrary
276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of how many major chords?
A.2
B. 3
C. 4
D.5
277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how many added half tones?
A.2
B. 3
C. 4
D.5
278. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?
A.Complementary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Primary colors
D.Elementary colors
279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is called ________.
A.visible spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
D.discontinuous spectrum
280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a heated metal in a vacuum?
A.Geiger effect
B. Edison effect
C. Eddy current
D.Fraunhofer effect
281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called __________.
A.secondary colors
B. primary colors
C. complementary colors
D.elementary colors
282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas is
called ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
visible spectrum
continuous spectrum
emission spectrum
discontinuous spectrum
283. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an
atom?
A.Drag force
B. Bind force
C.Exchange force
D.Intact force
284. The f number of the lens is the ration of the:

A.focal length of the lens to the effective aperture
B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
D.effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens
285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei
will disintegrate?
A.active life
B. half cycle
C.half life
D.half period
286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?
A.Treble
B. Bass
C. Octave
D.Fundamental
287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a
radioactive atom?
A.Beta ray
B. Alpha ray
C.Gamma ray
D.X-ray
288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure radioactivity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Edison counter
Radioactive counter
Fraunhofer counter
Geiger effect
289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole number
multiples of the fundamentals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Harmony
Beats
Treble and bass
Harmonics
290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristic of

the atoms parent is called __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
line spectrum
continuous spectrum
slit spectrum
image spectrum
291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mass indicator
Mass spectrograph
Mass counter
Mass technograph
292. What is a nucleon?

A.
B.
C.
D.
A proton in the nucleus of an atom.

An electron in the nucleus of an atom.
A neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
A proton or a neutron of an atom.
293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beaker
Flask
Pyonometer
Graduated cylinder
294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized
light?
A.Polariscope
B. Polarimeter
C. Polargraph
D.Polagraph
295. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics
present and on their prominence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pitch
Quality
Harmonic
Fundamental
296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Retinal failure
Retinal fatigue
Pupil imperfection
Astigmatism
297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each of which
is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as ___________.
A. True color vision theory
B. Young Helmholtz color vision theory
C. Primary vision theory

D. Young Huygen primary vision theory
298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant
data?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Theory
Hypothesis
Axiom
Conclusion
299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _______ equal frequency ratio intervals between
the successive notes of an octave.
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 1
300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assumes that
the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete quantities
proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quantum theory
Radioactive theory
Nuclear energy
Quark energy
301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as measured is 18 cm. The frequency of the wave is
1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound wave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
342 m/s
400 m/s
542 m/s
300 m/s
302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. What must be the tension in the cord if the wavelength
of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.50 N
1.80 N
2.50 N
4.30 N
303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. Determine the speed of transverse waves on the
string if it resonates four segments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
340 m/s
360 m/s
430 m/s
420 m/
304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental to a frequency of 250 Hz. What is the tension in the
string if 80 cm of the string weighs 0.80 grams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 N
30 N
10 N
40 N
305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 g in under tension of 6.4 x 103 N, what is the
fundamental frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
225 Hz
187 Hz
255 Hz
290 Hz
306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope produces a transverse wave. Determine the velocity of
the wave considering that the tension is 40 lb.
A. 75.8 ft/s
B. 95.7 ft/s
C. 78.5 ft/s
D. 85.8 ft/s
307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10^-7 W/cm^2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.8
78.7
80.5
75.4
308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the absolute intensity
considering that 0.001293gm/cm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2

1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm^2
3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2
2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm^2
309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. What frequency is heard by
a man standing at the station considering the velocity of sound in air 1100 ft/s?
A.
B.
C.
D.
739.7 Hz
857.4 Hz
716.4 Hz
786.7 Hz
310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr respectively. If A
blowing its horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B, considering that the velocity of sound
is 344 m/s
A. 1.043
B. 1.021
C. 1.096
D. 1.078
311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the observer. How long after the explosion does a person
hear if the temperature is 18C? Note: the speed of sound at STP (standard temperature and pressure) is 332
m/s and changes by 0.6 m/s for every 1 C change in temperature.
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.58 s
12.45 s
11.87 s
17.54 s
312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature of 25C considering that the molecular mass if this
gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67
A.
B.
C.
D.
543.7 m/s
478.6 m/s
321.7 m/s
447.5 m/s
313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is 5 x 10^14 Hz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
800 mm
200 mm
600 mm
700 mm
314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at angle of incidence
of 30? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and that of air is 1.0.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45
30
22
26
315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45 on one side of a glass plate of index of refraction 1.6. Find the
angle at which the ray emerges from the other side of the plate.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26
20
22
28
316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of its speed in vacuum. What is the index of
refraction of water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.46
1.33
1.26
1.67
317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of 1.55. Compute how long will it take for a pulse
of light to pass through the plate?
A. 4.41 x 10^-12 s
B. 3.11 x 10^-11 s
C. 1.34 x 10^-12 s
D. 2.34 x 10^-11 s
318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and for water is 1.33, compute
the critical angle for this light to pass the glass.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.7
45.8
67.4
50.9
319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens and distributed uniformly over 25% of a sphere.
What is the luminous intensity at 2.5-meter distance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
413 cd
243 cd
134 cd
318 cd
320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, distributed uniformly over a hemisphere. What is
the illuminance at a distance of 2 meters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.65 lm/m^2
35.70 lm/m^2
59.87 lm/m^2
23.56 lm/m^2
321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft below. A chair sits on the floor of the bunker 3 feet from a spot
directly below the bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around the chair if the luminous intensity is
150 candles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.38 footcandles
2.43 footcandles
3.87 footcandles
1.38 footcandles
322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface at an angle of 55 from the normal surface. What
is the angle between the reflected light and the surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55
25
35
45
323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what distance that the
object be placed so that its image appears on the screen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.5 cm
35.7 cm
27.6 cm
50.7 cm
324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length 10 cm from an image of luminous object on a
screen located 50 cm from the object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object

10 cm and 40 cm from the object
325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a concave surface of radius 38 cm and is made of glass of
refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens and classify the type of lens whether diverging or
converging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.93 cm converging lens

57.45 cm diverging lens
55.93 cm diverging lens
57.45 cm converging lens
326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a real image
is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11 cm
10 cm
12 cm
14 cm
327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from the lens, a real image
is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of the lens material
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.64
1.32
1.21
1.76
328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas. Compute the total
luminous flux radiated by the lamp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
842 lm
457 lm
786 lm
987 lm
329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 87.5 candelas. Compute the luminous
intensity of the lamp?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.7 lm/s
4.4 lm/s
2.0 lm/s
1.7 lm/s
330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd source if the surface makes an angle of
18 with the rays?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.67 lm/ft^2
1.50 lm/ft^2
1.24 lm/ft^2
2.13 lm/ft^2
331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp provide the same illumination as a standard lamp of 80-cd
placed 17 ft from the screen?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.76 ft
8.5 ft
12.7 ft
10.41 ft
332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find the radius of the
convex surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.55 cm
15.78 cm
20.78 cm
17.55 cm
333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of its initial intensity after passing through an analyzer, what is
the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of the beam?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.73
76.27
73.22
67.54
334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He passed by in uniform motion with the
speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s elapses on a clock on board the
ship, what is the length of the moving spaceship?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82 m
85 m
83 m
87 m
335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then exactly 1 min. later (as measured
by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on earth sees the second pulse arrive 4
minutes after the first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.987c
0.968c
0.954c
0.953c
336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J and mass of
electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.512 MeV
0.987 MeV
0.345 MeV
0.675 MeV
337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV?

A.
B.
C.
D.
560 THz
300 THz
250 THz
480 THz
338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the momentum of a single photon of red light whose frequency
is 400 x 10^12 HZ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.8 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s

7.6 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s
5.4 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s
6.5 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s
339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of electromagnetic energy. How many photons of orange light
whose wavelength is 600 nm present in the energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
4
3
1
340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume decreased by 0.005% of its
original volume?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1414 m/s
1250 m/s
1130 m/s
1200 m/s
341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves traveled at approximately 5900 m/s? Note: the
density of steel is 7900 kg/m^3
A. 2.75 x 10^11 Pa
B. 1.25 x 10^11 Pa
C. 1.15 x 10^11 Pa
D. 2.45 x 10^11 Pa
342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume that the sound it emits is
uniform and outward through this entire opening. How much power is being radiated by the loudspeaker if
the sound intensity at opening is 150W/m^2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.77 W
1.87 W
2.65 W
3.41 W
343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m^2 is painful to human ear. How many decibels is 1.2 W/m^2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
240.5 dB
170.4 dB
120.8 dB
134.5 dB
344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds if one is 12 times louder than the other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.47 dB
15.85 dB
18.76 dB
14.54 dB
345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is approaching a building whistle with a frequency of 500 Hz. If the
speed of sound in air is 340 m/s what is the apparent frequency of the whistle heard by the driver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
459 Hz
458 Hz
457 Hz
456 Hz
346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half the speed of light?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.05 x 10^-30 kg
2.31 x 10^-30 kg
1.56 x 10^-31 kg
1.61 x 10^-31 kg
347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the table. To what distance should it be lowered to
increase the illumination to 4.45 times its former value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.02 m
3.86 m
3.79 m
4.21 m
348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the center of its beam is aimed at 50 to a point on the ground 20
meters away. The illumination of the point in flux is:
A. 54.12
B. 62.5
C. 31.25
D. 625
349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at 27C of molecular mass 20.18 kg/kmol and k of 1.67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
454 m/s
564 m/s
356 m/s
434 m/s
350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction 5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27
feet for the two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is held 2.36 inches from an object being
viewed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.6
2.78
2.16
1.98
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. Management is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
An art
Both science and art
A science
Neither art nor science
2. Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art

C. A science
D. Neither art nor science
3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Experience
Taking master degree in management
Effective career planning
Trainings
If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop new talents

Acquire new values
Broaden your point of view
All of the above
5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Learning to trust others

Learning how to work through others
Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
All of the above
6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their
likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
7. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and
materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizing
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling
resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading
10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for
deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizing
Planning
Controlling
Staffing
11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with
great commitment and conviction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
Leading
12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment
and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Directing
Motivating
Staffing
Controlling
13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to
produce a predefined set of outputs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Management
Engineering Management
Management
Planning
14. Which is NOT an element of project management process?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Data and information

Research and development
Decision making
Implementation and action
15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Leadership
Charisma
Communication skill
Knowledge
16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project
at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above

17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology ptoject?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Morris model
Waterfall model
Incremental release model
Prototype model
18. In project management, R & D stands for:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Retail Distribution
Research and Development
Repair and Develop
Reduce and Deduce
19. In project management O & M stands for:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Operation and Manpower

Operation and Maintenance
Operation and Management
Operation and Mission
20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication skills
Human relationship skills
Leadership skills
All of the above
21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Project plan development

Project plan execution
Integrated change control
Quality planning
22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality planning
Quality assurance
Quality Control
Quality feature
23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal
operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electronic Data Processing Systems

Management Information System
Central Processing System
Data Management System
24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?

A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower management level

Middle management level
Top management level
Lowest management level
26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Little managerial control and high degree of risk

Time consuming and cost ineffective
Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
All of the above
27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Set goals
Determine the resources needed
Set a standard
Develop strategies and tactics
28. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective
efficiently and effectively?
A.
B.
C.
D.
General Management
Production Management
Operations Management
29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good
__________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interpersonal skills
Communication skills
Leadership
Decision- making skills
30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or
hidden agenda?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Technical opinion conflict

Politics
Ambiguous roles
Managerial procedure conflict
31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Division of labor
Segmentation
Departmentalization
Territorialization
32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Authority
Responsibility
Accountability
All of the above
33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interim committee
Temporary committee
Standing committee
Ad hoc committee
34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Efficiency
Effectiveness
Ability to manage
Decision- making ability
35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be __________ if he
finished the job within the required period of 20 days
A.
B.
C.
D.
Efficient
Effective
Reliable
Qualified
36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same
output, he is said to be more __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Managerial skill
Economical
Effective
Efficient
37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to
measure a persons current knowledge of a subject?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interest test
Aptitude test
Performance test
Personality test
38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in
particular subject?
A.
B.
C.
D.
On-the-job training
Vestibule school
Apprenticeship program
In-basket
39. What type of authority refers to a specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project
regardless of the personnels assignment in the organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
Functional authority
40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope
of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs,
activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Comparison technique
Intuition and subjective judgment
Rational technique
Analytical technique
44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rational and analytical techniques

Intuition and subjective judgment
Comparison in number technique
Cost analysis
45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of
management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services
and markets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Corporate mission
Corporate vision
Corporate character
Corporate identity
46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving
objectives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Power
Leadership
Teamwork
Charisma
47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customers waiting
time and cost of service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Queuing theory
Network model
Sampling theory
Simulation
48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited
or partial information about the decision environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Decision theory
Simulation
49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a
number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Statistical decision theory
Simulation
50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of
the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Physiological need
Security need
Esteem need
Self- actualization need
51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Training
Development
Vestibule
Specialized courses
52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Benchmark job technique

Parametric technique
Modular technique
Non- modular technique
53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific
functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional organization
Territorial organization
Process organization
Product organization
54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the
various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Territorial organization
55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Matrix organization
56. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a dual boss phenomenon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Matrix organization
57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Rapid reaction organization

Adaptation to changing environment
State-of-the-art technology
Better utilization of resources
58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Dual accountability of personnel

Conflicts between project and functional managers
Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
Inefficient use of specialist
59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Efficient use of technical personnel

Good project schedule and cost control
Single point for customer contact
Rapid reaction time possible
60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Uncertain technical direction

Insecurity regarding future job assignments
Slower work flow
61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Efficient use of technical personnel

Rapid reaction time possible
Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
Good technology transfer between projects
62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Weak customer interface

Weak project authority
Slower work flow
63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and
is often assigned a budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Matrix organization
Projectized organization
Project coordinated organization
64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Finance and accounting

Customer relation
Location
Technology
65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for
managing projects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Overhead cost
Type of technology used
Location of the project
Level of uncertainty in projects
66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to reach a
compromise solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leadership
Tradeoff analysis skill
Authority
Decision-making skill
67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost,
performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor
68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Area manager
Sales manager
Functional manager
Project manager
69. What is the major activity of the project support office?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Administrative support for projects

Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via the internet
70. What is the major activity of the project office?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Administrative support for projects

Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via internet
71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the projects work content?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear responsibility chart

Gantt chart
Life cycle model
Project design chart
72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each
project element?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear responsibility chart

Matrix responsibility chart
Responsibility interface matrix
All of the above
73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Forecasting
Critical path method
Program evaluation review technique
Simulation
74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation
75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities
and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly
known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical plan method

Critical path method
Critical project method
Coordinated plan method
76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities
and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly
known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project evaluation review technique

Program evaluation review technique
Path evaluation review technique
Program execution review technique
77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project.
B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the
project will be completed by a specific date
D. All of the above
78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1957
1958
1959
1960
79. In what year was PERT developed?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1957
1958
1959
1960
80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
4
5
6
81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Planning and design

Feasibility
Production
Turnover and startup
82. Risk management is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk avoidance
Controlling risk
To gain opportunities
All of the above
83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule

Use a different technology
Use a different supplier
Buying insurance
84. Buying insurance is a form of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk elimination
Risk reduction
Risk sharing
Risk absorption
85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its
consequences?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reliability management
Risk management
Quality assurance management
Project assurance management
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and
benefits of alternative projects or policies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk management
Risk-benefit analysis
Benefit management
Uncertainty analysis
87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an
approval from his or her manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Responsibility
Leadership
Authority
Tradeoff skill
88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Program
D. Plan
89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer
manager in-charge:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lacks leadership skill

Has inadequate control
Has poor organization
Has no proper planning
90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the
problem at hand?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statistical confidence
Tolerance
Incompleteness of the data
Ambiguity in modeling the problem
91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination

Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question
will the manager ask?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What do we need to get it done?

What are we aiming to do?
How are we going to do it?
What is the operation environment?
93. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Select appropriate performance measures

Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
Identify a need for a product or service
Develop a technological concept
94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually
the next step?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance

Develop a budget
Develop a schedule
Develop the technological concept
95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Select appropriate performance measures

Implement a plan
Monitor and control the project
Evaluate project success
96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are
developed. One of which is A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than
expected.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Three
Four
Two
Two and a half
97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Finance manager
Manufacturing manager
General manager
Marketing manager
98. What is a diagram of the organizations official positions and formal lines of authority called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organization chart
Authority chart
Policy chart
Control chart
99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sampling theory
Alternative-analysis
Problem-solving
Decision-making
100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and
coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Engineering management
Engineering technology
Technical manger
General management
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. First Benchmark Publishings gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the publishing are
estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket, determine the percent of sales is their
profit after taxes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21%
20%
19%
18%
2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price after the costs of
the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.89%
6.65%
6.58%
6.12%
3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed
construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated to be10% of
the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is
P3,500,000.
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.33%
29.17%
30.12%
30.78%
4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a manual operated
guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr.
Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money,
how many months will Mr. Camus be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 months
11 months
12 months
13 months
5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the
interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to
pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.5%
24.7%
25.0%
25.8%
6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future amount is
due at the end of the loan period?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P5,937.50
5,873.20
5,712.40
5,690.12
7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised to repay
P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.19%
12.03%
11.54%
10.29%
8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the amount for one
year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance interest of P80.00. What was
the rate of discount?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.67%
4.00%
4.15%
4.25%
9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest for one year is
automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume
that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which
P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000
one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.02%
16.28%
16.32%
16.47%
10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is P890.36.
Find the rate of return annually.
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.50%
11.75%
11.95%
12.32%
11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available
investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must
the investment offer to be justified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.07%
12.34%
12.67%
12.87%
12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and Training Center,
Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a
promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P18,000
P18,900
P19,000
P19,100
13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay
P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the
bankers discount.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.15%
13.32%
13.46%
13.73%
14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is P100. What is the
rate of interest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.90%
3.92%
3.95%
3.98%
15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P39.01
P39.82
P39.45
P39.99
16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective rate of money?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.01%
9.14%
9.31%
9.41%
17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days.
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.61%
19.44%
19.31%
19.72%
18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.07%
8.12%
8.16%
8.24%
19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A.
B.
C.
D.
12.35% compounded annually

20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest.
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.89%
12.00%
12.08%
12.32%
21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.7 years
14.7 years
14.2 years
15.3 years
22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it
amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at 8% compounded quarterly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.23 years
11.46 years
11.57 years
11.87 years
23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The
interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the
withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P693.12
P700.12
P702.15
P705.42
24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is
compounded.
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If he plans to
withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount
of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P1,549.64
P1,459.64
P1,345.98
P1,945.64
26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a
loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money from the
bank?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 62.44
P44.55
P54.66
P37.56
27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual
interest rate is 8%.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 150.56
P 152.88
P 153.89
P 151.09
28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus
P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 3,260.34
P 3,280.34
P 3,270.34
P 3,250.34
29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual
inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 15,030.03
P 20,113.57
P 18,289.05
P 16,892.34
30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is planning to put
up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension to be
added to cost P 200,000.
By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation to be
neglected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 19,122.15
P 19,423.69
P 19,518.03
P 19,624.49
31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of
the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 727.17
P 717.17
P 714.71
P 731.17
32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume i= 6%
annually.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1,290.34
P 1,185.54
P 1,107.34
P 1,205.74
33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum
at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the
debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 2,500.57
P 2,544.45
P 2,540.56
P 2,504.57
34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8%
compounded annually?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 7,654.04
P 7,731.29
P 7,420.89
P 7,590.12
35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his
obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual
payments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 43,600.10
P 43,489.47
P 43,263.91
P 43,763.20
36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P 8,000
each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12%
compounded semi-annually?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 142,999.08
P 143,104.89
P 142,189.67
P 143,999.08
37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What
does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 6,999.39
P 6,292.93
P 6,222.39
P 6,922.93
38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year,
respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end of the 4th
year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 4,880.00
P 4,820.00
P 4,860.00
P 4,840.00
39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.0%
3.4%
3.7%
4.0%
40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 204. It is
bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 1,122.70
P 1,144.81
P 1,133.78
P 1,155.06
41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum
due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 222.67
P 212.90
P 236.20
P 231.56
42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500. What is its book
value after 8 years using straight line method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 2,000.00
P 2,100.00
P 2,200.00
P 2,300.00
43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost
should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of service life
necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7 eyars
8 years
9 years
10 years
44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P
1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit method
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 3,279.27
P 3,927.27
P 3,729.27
P 3,792.72
45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of
P
50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P 18,500,000. What is the
allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.
A.
B.
C.
D.
P 9,358.41
P 9,228.45
P 9,250.00
P 9,308.45
46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil
at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge during the year where it produces half million
barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
$ 5,000,000.00
$ 5,010,000.00
$ 5,025,000.00
$ 5,050,000.00
47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76 each and variable
cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must be manufactured each month for
the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,033
1,037
1,043
1,053
48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand
for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum
production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.0 hour per unit

1.2 hours per unit
1.4 hours per unit
1.6 hours per unit
49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned wire. There
will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the
tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and
those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the
cost of each installation would be the same.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,000 feet
1,040 feet
1,100 feet
1,120 feet
50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost of P 900.00 a
pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the
variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at
P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-even?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.590
2,632
2,712
2,890
51. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the theories and
principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Economic Analysis
Engineering cost analysis
Engineering economy
Design cost analysis
52. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a countrys domestic money supply?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monetary unit
Currency
Foreign exchange
Cash or check
53. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of
human want?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Services
Goods
Commodities
Goods or commodities
54. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of
human want?
A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities
55. What are the two classifications of goods and services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Local and imported

Raw and finished
Consumer and producer
Ready-made and made-to-order
56. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and activities?
A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity
57. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after all the needs
have been satisfied?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Producer products
Consumer products
Luxury
Necessity
58. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a product, factor of
production or financial security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mall
Market
Store
Office
59. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer
60. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or consumer in
exchange of monetary consideration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer
61. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no goods
substitute?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
62. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Bilateral oligopoly
Bilateral Oligopsony
63. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monopsony
Monopoly
Bilateral monopsony
Bilateral monopoly
64. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perfect compettion
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly
65. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .
A.
B.
C.
D.
Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly
66. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ .
A.
B.
C.
D.
Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly
67. Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Few sellers and few buyers

Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers
68. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers
B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

69. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Few sellers and few buyers

Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers
70. What is another term for perfect competition?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomistic competition
No-limit competition
Free-for-all competition
Heterogeneous market
71. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very large number of
vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the market?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perfect competition
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly
72. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous product
Free market entry and exit
Perfect information and absence of all economic friction
All of the above
73. What is the opposite of perfect competition?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Monopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly
74. Perfect monopoly exists only if:

A.
B.
C.
D.
the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product
75. A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only minimized
when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single producer so that the supply costs are lower
under monopoly that under perfect competition.
A. Perfect monopoly
B. Bilateral monopoly
C. Natural monopoly
D. Ordinary monopoly
factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. This statement is known as
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Law of diminishing return

Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand
77. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supply
Demand
Product
Good
78. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supply
Demand
Product
Good
79. Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied and
purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal. This statement is known as
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of supply
Law of demand
80. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour, coffee, etc.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Utility
Necessity
Commodity
Stock
81. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of the loan or
principal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Effective rate of interest

Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest
82. Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300
360
365
366
83. One bankers year is equivalent to ______ days.

A.
B.
C.
D.
300
360
365
366
84. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning
power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Present worth factor

Interest rate
Time value of money
Yield
85. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Discount
Deduction
Inflation
Depletion
86. What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Total fair value

Total market value
Going concern value
Earning value
87. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interest
Rate of interest
Simple interest
Principal
88. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Return of investment
Interest rate
Yield
Rate of return
89. What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original amount of the
loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous accumulated interest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Effective rate of interest

Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest
90. What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yield rate
Rate of return
Rate of interest
Economic return
91. A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Annuity
Amortization
Depreciation
Bond
92. What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity certain
Annuity due
93. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from the first
period?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
94. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period starting from
the first period?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
95. What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or forever?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
96. What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in the cash flow?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
97. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The amounts of all payments are equal.

The payments are made at equal interval of time.
The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.
98. What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the government as a
means of borrowing long-term fund?
A.
B.
C.
D.
T-bills
Securities
Bond
Bank notes
99. What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his possession of the
bond?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Par value of bond

Face value of bond
Redeemed value of bond
Value of bond
100. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bond
T-bills
Stock
Promissory note
101. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bond
Bank note
Coupon
Check
102. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Tie-up bond
Trust bond
103. What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and passenger cars,
locomotives, etc.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Railroad bond
Equipment obligation bond
Equipment bond
Equipment trust bond
104. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is
to be paid is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Registered bond
Coupon bond
Mortgage bond
Collateral trust bond
105. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Registered bond
Mortgage bond
Debenture bond
106. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Joint bond
Debenture bond
Trust bond
Common bond
107. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or bonds of one
of its subsidiaries.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Security bond
108. What type of bond where the corporations owner name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to
the owners with their asking for it?
A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond
109. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Preferred bond
Registered bond
Incorporators bond
Callable bond
110. What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Return clause
Callability
Recall clause
Call calss
111. The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Par value
Call value
Face value
Redemption value
112. What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation
113. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly proportional
to the age of the equipment or asset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Straight line method

Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method
114. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is established in which
funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
115. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of depreciation is a fixed
percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method

D. Declining balance method
116. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the sum of
years digits?
A.
n(n1)
B.
[ n ( n+2 ) ] /2
C.
[ n ( n1 ) ] /2
D.
[ n ( n+1 ) ] /2
117. The declining balance method is also known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Double percentage method

Constant percentage method
Modified sinking fund method
Modified SYD method
118. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the equipment or asset
was designed to render?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation
119. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset to produce
results?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation
120. The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Demand depreciation
Adolescence
Life depreciation
Failure depreciation
121. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil, timber,
quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation
122. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge?

A. Rational method and irrational method
B. Conservative method and conventional method
C. Unit method and percentage method
D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method
123. Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal to either
______ whichever is smaller.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income
124. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unit method
Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method
125. What is another term for unit method for computing depletion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initial cost method

Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method
126. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:
A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total units in
property
B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property
127. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation period of the
asset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Asset recovery
Depreciation recovery
Period recovery
After-tax recovery
128. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Load factor
Demand factor
Sinking fund factor
129. The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither one is
under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fair value
Market value
Good will value
Book value
130. Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Scrap value
Going value
Junk value
Second-hand value
131. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller,
will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Book value
Market value
Fair value
Franchise value
132. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company to
provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Company value
Going value
Goodwill value
Franchise value
133. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand
dealer or some other business is called ______.
A. Material cost
B. Fixed cost
C. First cost
D. In-place value
134. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?
A. The original purchase price and freight charges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permit fees

D. All of the above
135. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Investment
Valuation
Economy
Depletion
136. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sunk cost
Economic life
In-place value
Annuity
137. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Annual cost
Increment cost
Capitalized cost
Operating cost
138. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Infinite cost
Life cycle cost
Life cost
Project cost
139. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have unequal lives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capitalized cost method

Present worth method
Annual cost method
MARR
140. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different
segments of the community?
A. Annual cost method
B. Benefit-cost ratio
C. Rate of return method
D. EUAC
141. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Opportunity cost
Ghost cost
Horizon cost
Null cost
142. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used in the
industry?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unstable economy
Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
The initial deprecation is high
The initial depreciation is low
143. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Uniform gradient future worth

Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Single payment compound amount
144. What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Uniform series sinking fund

Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Uniform gradient future worth
145. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own
profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sole proprietorship
Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Corporation
146. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes
and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Corporation
Property
Partnership
Organization
147. What is the simplest form of business organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Enterprise
Corporation
148. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
Enterprise
149. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the
liabilities
C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital
150. Which is true about partnership?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It has a perpetual life.

It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.
151. Which is true about corporation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It is worse type of business organization.

The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.
152. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a
fictitious person is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Partnership
Investors
Corporation
Stockholders
153. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Proprietorship
Corporation
154. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation
after all other claims have been settled?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Authorized capital stock

Preferred stock
Incorporator stock
Common stock
155. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?
A. Authorized stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporators stock
D. Presidential stock
156. The amount of companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to
ordinary shareholders is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dividend
Return
Share of stock
Equity
157. What refers to the residual value of a companys assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded)
have been allowed for?
A. Dividend
B. Equity
C. Return
D. Par value
158. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Proprietorship
Assets
Equity
Liability
159. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capital
Funds
Assets
Liabilities
160. What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Franchise
Partnership
Stock
Corporation
161. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial
contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yield
Economic return
Earning value
Gain
162. ______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and
patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations.
A. Status company
B. Big income
C. Known owners
D. Goodwill
163. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cash
Investment in subsidiary companies
Furnitures
Patents
164. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Current asset
Trade investment asset
Fixed asset
Intangible asset
165. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest
earned by an investment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Economic return
Yield
Rate of return
Return of investment
166. What is another term for current assets?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed assets
Non-liquid assets
Liquid assets
Ccash
167. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost of goods sold

Cost accounting
Standard cost
Overhead cost
168. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Variable cost
Incremental cost
Fixed cost
Supplemental cost
169. What is used to record historical financial transactions?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Bookkeeping system
Ledger system
Balance check
General journal system
170. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Balanced sheet
Ledger
Worksheet
Trial balance
171. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Work book
Journal
Ledger
Account book
172. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Net income
Gross income
Net revenue
Total sales
173. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inspection cost
Testing cost
Assembly cost
Supervision cost
174. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Current ratio
Quick ratio
Acid test ratio
Receivable turnover
175. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Current ratio
Inventory turnover
Profit margin ratio
Price-earnings ratio
176. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Due credit
Tax credit
Credible credit
Revenue credit
177. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed?
A. Rule of 48
B. Rule of 36
C. Rule of 24
D. Rule of 72
178. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit
Capital gain
Capital expenditure
Capital stock
179. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capital expenditure
Capital loss
Loss
Deficit
180. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time deposit
Bond
Capital gain certificate
Certificate of deposit
181. What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is usually
applies to the floating exchange rate.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float
182. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nations currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold,
American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float
183. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than
consumer really want to save?
A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving
C. Forced saving
D. All of the above

184. The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capital recovery
Cash flow
Economic return
Earning value
185. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in
depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged programs is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Annuity
Amortization
Capital recovery
Annuity factor
186. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

A.
B.
C.
D.
First cost + interest of first cost

Annual cost interest of first cost
First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
First cost + salvage value
187. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known
as ______.
A. Expected return
B. Nominal interest
C. Effective interest
D. Economic return
188. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Net income to owners equity

Market price per share to earnings per share
Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
Net credit sales to average net receivable
189. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Net sale
Owners equity
Inventory turnover
Quick assets
190. What is another term for acid-test ratio?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Current ratio
Quick ratio
Profit margin ratio
191. What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coupon
T-bill
Debenture
Consol
192. A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cooperative
Corporation
Enterprise
Partnership
193. What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of regulating the
price of that product?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stock pile
Hoard stock
Buffer stock
Withheld stock
194. The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solvency
Leverage
Insolvency
Liquidity
195. The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Solvency
Liquidity
Leverage
Insolvency
196. What is the basic accounting equation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Assets = liability + owners equity

Liability = assets + owners equity
Owners equity = assets + liability
Owners equity = liability assets
197. The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquidity
Solvency
Relative risk
All of the above
198. What is an index of short-term paying ability?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Current ratio
Profit margin ratio
Gross margin
199. The common ratio is the ratio of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Net credit sales to average net receivable

Current assets to current liabilities
Gross profit to net sales
Net income to owners equity
200. What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit margin ratio

Return of investment ratio
Quick ratio
201. What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit margin ratio

Quick ratio
202. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit margin ratio

Receivables turnover
Average age of receivables
203. Receivable turnover is the ratio of:

A. Net credit sales to average net receivables
B. Market price per share to earnings per share
C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
D. Common shareholders equity to number of outstanding shares
204. What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gross margin
Book value per share of common stock
Inventory turnover
205. What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gross margin
Inventory turnover
206. What is the profit margin ratio?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
207. What is a gross margin?

A.
B.
C.
D.
The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
208. Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?

A.
B.
C.
D.

209. What is an inventory turnover?

A.
B.
C.
D.

210. The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?

A.
B.
C.
D.
365 / receivable turnovers

365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand
211. What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the value of another?
A. Specific identification method
B. Average cost method
C. Break-even analysis
D. Incremental value method
212. The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula?
A.
B.
C.
D.
365 / receivable turnovers

365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand
213. What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to equal the initial
investment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Return of investment period

Turnover period
Break-even period
Payback period
214. What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Return of an investment
Value of an investment
Breakeven point of an investment
Term of an investment
215. Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Straight line method and sinking fund method

Straight line method and double declining balance method
Double declining balance method and SYD method
SYD method and sinking fund method
216. What is an accelerated depreciation method?

A.
B.
C.
D.
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount
217. What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in
the general price level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Deflation
Inflation
Devaluation
Depreciation
218. A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to
increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monopoly
Cartel
Corporation
Competitors
219. The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the countrys money supply is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
T-bills
Bank notes
Check
Coupon
factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of supply
Law of demand
221. What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inventory turnover
Price-earnings
Profit margin
222. What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Return on investment
Inventory turnover
Profit margin
Price-earnings
223. What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales?
A. Receivable turnover
B. Acid test ratio
C. Return on investment
D. Profit margin
224. What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or more markers in order to take profitable
advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cartel
Arbitrage
Black market
A priori
225. The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Moratorium
Escrow
Numeraire
Porcupine
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MATERIALS
Encoded by:
Vicente, Jan Paulo
Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds
2. What are the major classes of engineering materials?
A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors
B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites
3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids
4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?
A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal Matrix composites
5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?
A. Metalloids
B. Matrix Composite
C. Inert
D. Ceramic
6. Polymer comes from Greek words poly which means many and meros which means __________.
A. metal
B. material
C. part
D. plastic
7. The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called ____________.
A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers
8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components materials do not have
by themselves?
A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix
9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
A. Periodic Table
B. Truth Table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials
10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or
solidifies on cooling?
A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat
11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no
longer be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point
12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after
immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled environment?
A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity
13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous
material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to
area?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption
14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulting
material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown
through its bulk?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength
D. Electrical resistivity
15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1
degree.
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission
16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load
shows a specified amount of deflection?
A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity
17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant
load and constant temperature?
A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness
18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?
A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness
19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some
predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature
20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?
A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices
21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?
A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness
22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally
much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?
A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. surface finish
D. Out of flat
23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called
________.
A. plastic
B. lignin
C. mer
D. additive
24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different
monuments?
A. Copolymerization
B. Blending
C. Alloying
D. Cross-linking
25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as nylon?
A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester
26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is capable of
returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.
A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%
27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which the sheet is
clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled
while still in contact with the mold?
A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoformig
D. Solid phase forming
28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die?
A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithugraphy
D. Extrusion
29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or
electrochemical reactions with environment?
A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance
30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered, spatial, threedimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration
31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength
32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress?
A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture
33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and
strain?
A. Tensile strength
B. shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength
34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of stress
to strain is called _______.
A. Elongation
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. elastic limit
35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress
cycles?
A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. endurance strength
36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal
37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?
A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron
38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?
A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity
39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?
41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?
42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of
large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into
finished articles, can be shaped by flow?
A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic
43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called ________.
A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond
44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?
A. Homo polymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene
D. Copolymer
45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

A. monomer
B. elastomer
C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer
46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?
A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer
47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain concentration
limits?
A. Steel
B. Wrought Iron
C. Cast Iron
D. Tendons
48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel from the BOF
or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?
A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)
B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining
49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into an ingot
mold?
A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining
50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?
A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel
51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?
A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel
52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?
A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T
53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?
A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H
54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength are known as?
A. Medium-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel
C. Very high-carbon
D. High-carbon steel
55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel
56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?
A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674
57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?
A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732
58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?
A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638
59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?
A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674
60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural application is classified
as ____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Merchant quality
Commercial quality
Drawing quality
Special quality
61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tempering
Pickling
Machining
Galvanizing
62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To increase brittleness
To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.
To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
To increase corrosion and resistance
63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A.
B.
C.
D.
About 10% of the earths crust is iron.

Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)
Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct
reductions vessel.
64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E
H
X
B
65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B
66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?
A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxHxx
D. xxKxx
67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?
A. White plate
B. Tin Steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dechromate tin
68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at
red hear temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating?
A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico
69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 5%
70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Deoxifiers
71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?
A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron
72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?
A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron
73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?
A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. White iron
D. Malleable iron
74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?
A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron
75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
C. To dioxide molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?
A. To increase hardness above 0.5%
B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?
A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness above 0.5%
B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.
C. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid
and corrosion resistance above 13%
D. deoxidizes molten cast iron
78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earths crust is iron?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 8%
79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?
A. Improved strength
B. Hardness
C. Wear characteristics
80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?
A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat-treating
81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.
B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
A. Heating to the proper temperature
B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?
A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material Science
D. Metalgraphy
84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore
85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematite
86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickle
D. Aluminum
87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the surface of a part is
increased?
A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering
88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature,
followed by any desired rate of cooling?
A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering
89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and
a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?
A. Pearlite
B. Eutectoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution
90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?
A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese
91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined,
heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?
A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding
92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?
A. 10 mm ball
B. 120 diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20needle
93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar?
A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural Strength
94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?
A. Poissons ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation
95. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity
96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures, within the gage
length is called _______.
A. percent elongation
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. elongation
97. What impurity in steel can cause red shortness, which means the steel becomes unworkable at high
temperature?
A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus
98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond
to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?
A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening
99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?
A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber
100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid
101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?
A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion
102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?
A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying
103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting
104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
A. Stray current corrosion
B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100
m) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?
A. Stray current corrosion
B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conduction
of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.
107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______ percent.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.
109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
Iron, chromium, carbon and copper
110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon steel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
6
10
15
111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Casting
Molding
Forming
All of the choices
112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
A. Water-cooled metal cavities
B. machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)
113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?
A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron
114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-impregnated
glass stands through a die?
A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin transfer moulding
115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and
acids?
A. Alkaline
B. Alkydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde
116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?
A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX
117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX
118. What does AISI stands for?
A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute
119. What does SAE stands for?
A. Society of Automotive Engineers
B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers
120. What does ASTM stands for?
A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials
121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?
A. 12% to 18%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 16% to 20%
D. 20% to 24%
122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?
A. 600oC to 1100oC
B. 1000oC to 1500oC
C. 1100oC to 2000oC
D. 200oC to 800oC
123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:
A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium
124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?
A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40
125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30
B. 0.05 to 0.15
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60
126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?
A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18
127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the hardness is increased
greatly when the steel is cold worked.
A. cold harden
B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature
D. strain harden
128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?
A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21
129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become
hard?
A. Caburizing
B. Casehardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening
130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?
A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity
131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?
A. 1000o F
B. 1333o F
C. 1666o F
D. 1222o F
132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.
A. 770o C
B. 550o C
C. 660o C
D. 440o C
133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. Martensite
134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670o F?
A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron
135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000 o F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia
atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?
A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing
136. What is the chief ore of tin?
A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena
137. What is the chief ore of zinc?
A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Sphalerite
D. Ilmanite
138. What is the chief ore of titanium?
A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite
139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?
A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galera
D. Sphalerite
140. The term brass is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:
A. copper and zinc
B. aluminum and iron
C. copper and aluminum
D. zinc and nickel
141. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing:
A. copper and zinc
B. copper and aluminum
C. copper and nickel
D. copper and tin
142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit
indicates?
A. The purity of aluminum
B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy
143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?
A. The purity of aluminum
B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group
144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what
condition of the alloy?
A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged
145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:
A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys
146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?
A. 25000 lbf/in2
B. 35000 lbf/in2
C. 50000 lbf/in2
D. 100000 lbf/in2
147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?
A. less than 0.1 percent
B. exactly 0.1 percent
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent
148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?
A. 10%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%
149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called ______.
A. yellow brass
B. red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. white brass
150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 40%
152. Indicate the false statement.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
Tin is relatively soluble in copper.
153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper
154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.
A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.
B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.
155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.
B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability
156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
A. Increase strength up to about 12%
B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting
157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent
magnets?
A. Invar and Nilvar
B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Conife
158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:
A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt
159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stressstrain diagram?
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus
160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?
A. Jominy end-quench test
B. The lever rule
C. Gibbs phase test

D. Stress relief test
161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?
A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing
162. What is another term for tempering?
A. Recrystalization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening
163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing
164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is ________ in diameter.
A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm
165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.
A. high electric current
B. low electric current
C. high voltage
D. low voltage
166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors
B. Insulated conductors
C. Rounded flexible conductors
D. Flat flexible conductors
167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion resistance and
electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?
A. 65%
B. 35%
C. 55%
D. 45%
168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?
A. yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin Bronze
D. Phosphor bronze
169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in -cm?
A. 1.76
B. 1.71
C. 1.67
D. 3.10
170. What should be the resistivity in -cm of a resistor material?
A. 200 300
B. 100 200
C. 50 150
D. 10 50
171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?
A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above
172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic characteristics?
A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics
173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes, phenolics,
epoxies and variety of other plastics?
A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics
174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?
A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper
175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?
A. 6 to 12 MV/m
B. 8 to 14 MV/m
C. 10 to 16 MV/m
D. 12 to 18 MV/m
176. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. silicon carbide
177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500
178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?
A. 500 to 10,000
B. 1,000 to 10,000
C. 500 to 5,000
D. 100 to 1,000
179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?
A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls
180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube envelopes, hermetic
seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated circuits, etc.?
A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film
181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100oC below their softening point to form a very fine
network of crystalline phase?
A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass
182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging called the
____________.
A. aging index
B. aging factor
C. aging coefficient
D. aging point
183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called ____________.
A. magnetic anisotropy
B. magnetoresistance
C. magnetostriction
D. magnetizing factor
184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum
185. Which of the following is known as electrical steel?
A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast Steel
186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar
187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and injection
lasers?
A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallian Phosphide
188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red light?
A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide
189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which application?
A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature
B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above
190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?
A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube
191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test
192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?
A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep strain
193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?
A. High melting point
B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance

D. High thermal conductivity
194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to several thousand?
A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polemerization index
195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature and
contain 15 to 20% chromium?
A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar
196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 69%
197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc
198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?
A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon
199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?
A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum
200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
GENERAL ENGINEERING AND

APPLIED SCIENCES
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
THERMODYNAMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek words meaning
_________.
transformation of heat
transformation of energy
movement of heat
movement of matter
What is the Si unit for temperature?
Kelvin
Celsius
Fahrenheit
Rankine
The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object because of the
difference in temperature is called
heat
temperature
thermodynamics cycle
energy flow
The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a substance changes from one
phase to another.
specific heat
heat of expansion
latent heat
useful heat
The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.
intensive property
extensive property
volume expansion
thermal expansion
A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in response to a temperature
changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
elongation
thermal stress
expansion contraction
thermal expansion
The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.
Specific Energy
Molecular Energy
Internal Energy
Phase Energy
The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or removed to change the
temperature of a substance.
Specific Heat Capacity
Latent Heat
Heat of Transformation
Internal Heat
The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or solid phase.
Phase Pressure
Equilibrium Vapor Pressure

Specific Pressure
Equilibrium Phase Pressure
Vapor pressure depends only on _________.
pressure
force
volume
temperature
A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases possible for that
particular substance.
Phase diagram
P-T diagram
Wein Diagram
Histogram
_________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.
Internal Energy
Grand Energy
Atomic Energy
Elemental Energy
The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1
Celsius degree.
specific heat
latent heat
Joule
calorie
_________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
movement
temperature
heat
mass
_________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
internal KE
Atomic kinetic energy
Zero-Point Energy
Subliminal Energy
Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.
10 K
293 K
303 K
273 K
_________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable from a closed
thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
useful work
energy consumed
Helmholtz free energy
Kinetic Energy
How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the temperature varies from
-15C in winter to 41C in summer?
0.67 m
2.2 m
3.1 m
0.47 m
Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of house. How large a gap
should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the temperature can change by 55C?
0.21 m
0.18 m
0.31 in
0.18 in
What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is at right angles to
the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?
1400 J
6000 J
10000 J
800 J
_________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating work obtainable
from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
Du-Pont Potential
Gibbs free energy
Rabz-Eccles Energy
Claussius Energy
All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.
heat
depleted
exhausted
work
_________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the equilibrium vapor
pressure of water at the existing temperature.
vacuum pressure
relative humidity
absolute pressure
vapor pressure
_________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no intermediate liquid
stage.
Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Sublimation
A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Sublimation
In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a temperature
change.
expand
contract
change
increase
For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of linear expansion.
unrelated to
proportional to
twice
three times
The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from 4C to 0C.
decreases
increases
remains constant
none of the above
The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
no volume
no pressure
zero temperature at all scales
none of the above
On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the temperature rises?
the relative humidity increases
the relative humidity decreases
the relative humidity remains constant
the air would eventually become saturated
The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.
placidity
mass flow
convection current
heat transfer
An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.
elastic material
transponder material
Teflon
blackbody
A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the material.
Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Emission
Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.
mass
matter
gram-mole
volume
The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.
velocity of propagation
escape velocity
Maxwell speed Distribution
terminal velocity
A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the fluid flow.
Forced Convection
External Convection
Placid Convection
Thermionic Convection
A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process used to reach that
state.
cycle
path function
point function
process
A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular change in state.
path function
point function
process
cycle
The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
wall
boundary
interface
intersection
A closed system is also known as _________.
isolated system
closed container
control mass
control volume
Open system is also known as _________.
isolated system
closed container
control mass
control volume
Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

290
63
-120
-256
When a solid melts,
the temperature of the substance increases.
the temperature of the substance decreases.
heat leaves the substance.
heat enters the substance.
How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35C to 55C.
15
1500
1.5 x 10^4
6.3 x 10^4
Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
temperature
amount of material
type of material
shape of the object
Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?
liquids
gases
metals
solids other than metals
Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature. Which of the following
would least likely burn your hand if touched?
aluminium
brass
glass
concrete
As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume
increases
decreases
stays the same
none of the above
The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its
pressure
Celsius temperature
Kelvin temperature
Fahrenheit temperature
An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled, the volume is
increased fourfold
doubled
reduced by half
decreased by a quarter
If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the molecules in the
gas?
it increases by a factor of square root of 2
it increases by a factor of 2
it increases by factor of 4
none of the above
A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
enthalpy
entropy
law of diminishing return
Lenz Law
No volume changes occur during this type of process
Isobaric process
Isomillimetric process
Isocaloric process
Isochoric process
The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________ process.
adiabatic
isochoric
isobaric
zero work
When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water
increases
decreases
remains the same
none of the above
Only energy can cross the boundaries.
Closed system
Open system
Isolated system
Isoenergetic system
The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
boiling temperature
normal boiling point
triple point
point of infliction
Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation temperature.
dry steam
current steam
wet steam
aerosol
The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate receiver vents and
open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
dry steam
wet steam
phase steam
flash steam
Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
dryness fraction
Vaporization
fusion
super heated steam
What device measures infrared radiation below?
thermocouple
thermopile
thermodynamic device
thermos
When an object undergoes thermal expansion,
any holes in the object expand as well
any holes in the object remain the same
mass increases
molecular activities would cease
_________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1 F from 63 F to
64 F.
one Joule
one calorie
one watt
one BTU
Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.
volume
power
heat
pressure
Thermos was invented by _________.
Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
Sir Fredrich the Great
Thomas Edison
Sir James Dewar
Most cooking activities involve _________ process.
Isochoric
Isothermal
Isobaric
Isovolumic
Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________ respectively.
raising the temp and lowering the temp

maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
lowering the temp and raising the temp
The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed by _________.
the first law of thermodynamics
the second law of thermodynamics
the third law of thermodynamics
the zeroth law of thermodynamics
It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler to a hotter body
Carnots statement
Clausius statement
Rankine statement
Gauss statement
_________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another molecule.
mean free path
path allowance
compacting factor
molecular space
Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.
91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2
Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
1 x 10^5 tons
2 x 10^6 tons
6 x 10^15 tons
8 x 10^10 tons
_________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm long.
surface pressure
gage pressure
standard atmospheric pressure
isobaric pressure
If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at every point in the
fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
Torricellis law
Barometric law
Newtons Second law
Pascals law
What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law?
Atmospheric Pressure
Gauge Pressure
Surface Pressure
Isobaric Pressure
To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
62.4 lb
9.81 lb
76 lb
760 lb
The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
force per length
surface tension
Pressure
Density
The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by _________.
Archimedes Principle
Evangelistas Law
Torricellis Theorem
Bernoullis Equation
The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called _________.
diffusion
viscosity
streamline flow
solution
When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon centigrade and used
Celsius Instead?
1950
1936
1957
1948
_________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to produce saturation.
relative humidity
triple point temperature
dew point
critical point
_________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to its initial state.
process
system
equilibrium
cycle
Intensive properties of a system are called _________.
Bulk Properties
Innate Properties
Natural Properties
Inside Properties
In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic process where a
liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower pressure state.
Rankine Process
Carnot Cycle
Joule-Thomson process
Refrigeration process
Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
Otto Cycle
Burnign Cycle
Shikki Cycle
Shapa R Elli Cycle
Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g change in this
process?
30.5 J/K
24.6 J/K
21.3 J/K
15.7 J/K
The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
conservation of mass
the enthalpy-entropy relationship
action reaction
conservation of energy
If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in internal energy of
the system.
1400 J
1700 J
1900 J
1500 J
A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands
from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. Find the work done on the
system.
5 kJ
15 kJ
10 kJ
12 kJ
A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into the air at 100C.
What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
11.28 %
36.77 %
20.36 %
17.66 %
Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.
Latent heat
Sensible heat
Specific heat
Heat of Fusion
Who coined the term latent heat?
John Thompson
Studey Baker
Joe di Maggio
Joseph Black
Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?
Latent Heat
Sensible Heat
Specific Heat
Heat of Fusion
It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0 Kelvin it is impossible
actually to reach it.
First Law of thermodynamics
Second Law of thermodynamics
Third Law of thermodynamics
Zeroth Law of thermodynamics
One calorie is equal to _________.
1/180 W.h
1/860 W.h
1/360 W.h
1/250 W.h
A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place according to the
relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
Polytropic process
Entropy
Ideal Gas Law
Carnot Cycle
The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the system remain
constant with respect to time.
streamline flow
steady flow
constant flow
algebraic flow
The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is the _________.
Otto Cycle
Lazare Cycle
Isothermal Cycle
Carnot Cycle
The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine the pressure at this
point
733.33 kPa
833.33 kPa
933.33 kPa
633.33 kPa
100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?
a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
CHEMISTRY
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their individual relative
masses.
A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope
B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of reaction is
A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg
C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting
C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume
B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as:
A. The law of conservation of mass
B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between
atoms is greater than 2.0
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between
atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the charge on the
Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is called:
A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called
A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In precise
form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
A. the law of conservation of mass
B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the elements
in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass
C. The law of multiple proportion
D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:
A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by mass. This is
known as:
A. the law of constant composition
B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons.
A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum
B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an identification tag for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity
C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called Prousts Law is now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion
B. The law of definite proportion
C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind
D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called
A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group
B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period
B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram
D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to their group
number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a p orbital?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration
A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6
D. Group 7
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want
Necessity
Utility
Luxuries
Discount
It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the
dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.
Common stock
Voting stock
Pretend stock
Non par value stock
It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
Book value
Market value
Use value
Fair value
____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a difference in value
between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
Loss
Depreciation
Extracted
Gain
An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that one suppliers actions
significantly affect prices and supply.
Oligopoly
Monopsony
Monopoly
Perfect competition
A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute.
Monosony
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.
Salvage value
Price
Book value
Scrap value
Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level.
Devaluation
Deflation
Inflation
Depreciation
A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase
profit and block new comers from the industry.
Cartel
Monopoly
Corporation
Competitors
A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
Monopoly
Monophony
Oligopoly
Perfect competition
A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

Bilateral monopoly
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Bilateral Monopoly
Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price
level.
Deflation
Inflation
Devaluation
Depreciation
A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.
Annuity
Amortization
Depreciation
Bonds
The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
Interest
Amortization
Annuity
Bonds
The place where buyers and sellers come together.
Maker
Store
Bargain center
Port
The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate
Stock value
Par value
Interest
Maturity value
A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers.
Bilateral monopoly
Oligopoly
Duopsony
Duopoly
A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in one business
market or commodity.
Oligopoly
Duopoly
Duopsony
duopoly
The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the
payment.
Perpetuity
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
Tally
Par value
Check and balance
Break even
The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved.
Sunk cost
Fixed costs
Depletion cost
Construction cost
An obligation with no condition attach is called
Personal
Gratuitous
Concealed
Private
The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.
Operation costs
Construction cost
Depletion cost
Production cost
The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.
Marginal cost
Marginal revenue
Extra profit
Prime cost
The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.
Junk value
Salvage value
Scrap value
Book value
The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has been charged to
depreciation.
Scrap value
Salvage value
Book value
Market value
The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all materials that go
into production is called
Net cost
Maintenance cost
Prime cost
Operating cost
The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called
Market value
Net value
Discount
Interest
The addition cost of producing one more unit is
Prime cost
Marginal cost
Differential cost
Sunk cost
A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and pay a
certain sum periodically.
Annuity
Bond
Amortization
Collateral
Estimated value of the property at the useful life.
Market value
Fair value
Salvage value
Book value
Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

Physical inventory
Counting principle
Stock assessment
Periodic material update
This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other material which will be
sold.
Fixed assets
Deferred charges
Current asset
Liability
A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by the injured party to
recover damages.
Fraud
Tort
Libel
Scam
A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time
Depletion
Capitalized cost
Perpetuity
Inflation
These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will be purchased in
somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably.
Commodities
Necessities
Demands
Luxury
The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.
Utility
Supply
Stocks
Goods
It is sometimes called the second hand value
Scrap value
Salvage value
Book value
Par value
Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
Deflation
Depletion
Declination
Depreciation
An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.
Single proprietorship
Party
Corporation
Partnership
The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one person.
Partnership
Proprietorship
Corporation
Joint venture
Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.
Dummy person
Minors
Demented persons
Convict
It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
Satisfaction
Luxury
Necessity
Utility
This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is
nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
Perfect competition
Monophony
Monopoly
Cartel
These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after
the required necessities have been obtained.
Commodities
Necessities
Luxuries
Supplies
Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
Authorized capital
Paid off capital
Subscribed capital
Investment
It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.
Ledger
Spreadsheet
Journal
Logbook
The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
Life span
Economic life
Operating life
Profitable life
The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region.
Permit
Royalty
License
Franchise
The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
Fair value
Par value
Market value
Book value
ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an
organizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
Management
Planning
Organizing
Supervision
Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker
power, materials, machinery, and money.
Engineering Materials
Engineering Organization
Engineering Club
The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
Testing
Construction
Sales
Physical Education
A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and
codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
Research
Design and Development
Testing
Manufacturing
A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a
finished physical term.
Research
Manufacturing
Testing
A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for
workability.
Research
Testing
Manufacturing
A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes
responsibility for the product.
Research
Testing
Manufacturing
A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or
may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
Construction
Sales
Consulting
Government
A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet their needs,
especially those that require technical expertise.
Construction
Government
Consulting
Sales
A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization
requiring his services.
Construction
Sales
Consulting
Government
A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of
the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or
private.
Construction
Sales
Government
Consulting
A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of
engineering courses.
Teaching
Government
Management
Consulting
A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific
tasks.
Teaching
Government
Management
Consulting
Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to
the demands of the situation.
Decision Making
Initiative
Problem solving
The first step in Decision making process is to
Analyze environment
Diagnose problem
Make a choice
Articulate problem or opportunity
The last step in decision making process is to
Analyze environment
Make a choice
Diagnose problem
Evaluate and adapt decision results
Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
Quantitative evaluation
Qualitative evaluation
Relative evaluation
Subjective evaluation
Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical.
Quantitative evaluation
Qualitative evaluation
Relative evaluation
Subjective evaluation
Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best
strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
Management
Planning
Organizing
Supervision
Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for
obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
Operational Planning
Intermediate Planning
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources.
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available
resources.
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
Strategic planning
Secondary Planning
This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organizations marketing
activities related to particular marketing strategy.
Marketing Plan
Financial Plan
Production Plan
Short-range plans
This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by
product family.
Marketing Plan
Financial Plan
Production Plan
Short-range plans
It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and
recommends a direction for financial activities.
Marketing Plan
Financial Plan
Production Plan
Short-range plans
It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and
quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.
Marketing Plan
Financial Plan
Production Plan
Human Resource Management Plan
These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned
with these planes.
Short-range plans
Long-range plans
Standing Plans
Single-Use Plans
These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top
management.
Short-range plans
Long-range plans
Standing Plans
Single-Use Plans
Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
Short-range plans
Long-range plans
Standing Plans
Single-Use Plans
These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or
function.
Policies
Procedures
Guidelines
Rules
These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
Policies
Procedures
Guidelines
Rules
These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
Policies
Procedures
Guidelines
Rules
Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be
repeated.
Short-range plans
Long-range plans
Standing Plans
Single-Use Plans
A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
Project
Budget
Program
Financial Statement
A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
Project
Budget
Program
Financial Statement
A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program.
Project
Budget
Program
Financial Statement
A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives
in an efficient and effective manner.
Organizing
Planning
Supervising
Structure
The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
Organizing
Planning
Supervising
Structure
This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as
engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
Functional Organization
Product or Market Organization
Matrix Organization
Divisible Organization
This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business firms where key
activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.
Matrix Organization
This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a
certain type of product or customer.
Matrix Organization
This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
Matrix Organization
An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a
project or group manager.
Matrix Organization
Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
Line authority
Staff authority
Head authority
A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior.
Line authority
Staff authority
Head authority
A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the
personnel are in the organization.
Line authority
Staff authority
Head authority
A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
Ad hoc committee
Standing committee
Sinking committee
Midget committee
A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
Ad hoc committee
Standing committee
Sinking committee
Midget committee
Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and
develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
Resourcing
Recruitment
Hiring
Staffing
An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization.
Forecasting
Control
Programming
Recruitment
Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.
Forecasting
Control
Programming
Recruitment
This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
Forecasting
Evaluation and Control
Programming
Recruitment
Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best
suited to serve the company may be selected.
Forecasting
Programming
Recruitment
Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job.
Forecasting
Selection
Training
In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company
and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers.
Performance Appraisal
Induction and Orientation
Training and Development
Monetary Rewards
Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.
Performance Appraisal
Induction and Orientation
Training and Development
Monetary Rewards
Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is
given as a reward for competence and ambition.
Monetary reward
Promotion
Demotion
Transfer
The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization.
Monetary reward
Promotion
Demotion
Transfer
The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a
form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position.
Separation
Promotion
Demotion
Transfer
Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
Separation
Transfer
Termination
Demotion
A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.
Counseling
Communication
Hypnotism
Language
Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization.
Information Function
Emotive Function
Motivation Function
Control Function
A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the
organizations objectives.
Emotive Function
Motivation Function
Control Function
Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are
affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.
Emotive Function
Motivation Function
Control Function
A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
Verbal
Oral
Written
Nonverbal
A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing,
appearance and aesthetic elements.
Verbal
Oral
Written
Nonverbal
Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
Suppression
Motivation
Praising
Unification
The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
Willingness to do a job
Self-confidence in carrying out a task
Needs satisfaction
Inferiority complex
The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theory
Expectancy Theory
Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory
Gagarins Theory
It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to
reach organizational goals.
Sales talk
Motivation
Leading
Commanding
A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization.
This describes:
Legitimate power
Referent power
Coercive power
Reward power
When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
Legitimate power
Referent power
Coercive power
Reward power
When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
Legitimate power
Referent power
Coercive power
Reward power
When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the
former.
Legitimate power
Referent power
Coercive power
Reward power
Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
A high level of personal drive
Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
Charisma
Greedy
Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining
what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.
Planning
Controlling
Evaluation
Inspection
A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
Feed forward control
Preventive control
Concurrent control
Feedback control
A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made.
Preventive control
Concurrent control
Feedback control
A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation
and steps for improvement are derived.
Preventive control
Concurrent control
Feedback control
Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
Operation
Production
Construction
Creation
The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and
effectively.
Planning
Operations management
Evaluation management
Backboning
A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.
Product Design
Blueprinting
Product planning
Conceptualizing
Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it
generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
Product Design
Blueprinting
Product planning
Conceptualizing
The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in
the production process takes.
Plotting
Scheduling
Timetable
Anticipating
Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition,
movement, and storage activities in the firm.
Work
Quality Control
Inventory Control
Purchasing and Materials Management
The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
Work-Flow Layout
Quality Control
Inventory Control
The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
Work-Flow Layout
Quality Control
Inventory Control
Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
Work-Flow Layout
Quality Control
Inventory Control
A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
Advertisement
Commercial
Marketing
Sales
The four Ps of marketing are the following except:
Product
Price
Promotion
Publicity
It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
Product
Price
Promotion
Place
Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or
service.
Product
Price
Promotion
Place
An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers.
Product
Price
Promotion
Place
Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and
behavior.
Product
Price
Promotion
Place
A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or
persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.
Advertising
Publicity
Sales promotion
Personal selling
The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a
sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
Advertising
Publicity
Sales promotion
Personal selling
A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
Advertising
Publicity
Sales promotion
Personal selling
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above
2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.
A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1
A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity
5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.
A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar
6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is used.
A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum
7. It is sometimes called the vector product.
A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector
8. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The cross product is commutative.
B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.
9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the ________.
A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action
10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.
A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional
11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.
A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.
A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force
13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.
A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components about P.
A. Cavalieris Theorem
B. Pascals Theorem
C. Varignons Theorem
D. Torricellis Theorem
15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.
A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion
16. A couple is composed of two forces that are
A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action
17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?
A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.
B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.
18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is
__________.
A. w sin
B. w cos
C. w tan
D. w cot
19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to
A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf
22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is called
A. ground reflected force
B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force
23. The gravity in the moon is about
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point called
A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure
25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?
A. mass of the load
B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above
26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is called
A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C
27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted by the force
___________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero
28. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero.
B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.

D. all of the above
29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when acting in given
directions.
A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces
30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell
31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.
A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics
32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?
A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.
A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction
34. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if pulled with a
force of 3 N.
A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.
B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.
36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform accelerations are
often referred to as
A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above
37. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of
change of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of motion.
A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law
38. It is also known as quantity of motion.
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely fills the space
it occupies.
A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum
40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be made.
A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number
41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles of the moving
continuum body.
A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative
42. Material derivative is also known as __________.
A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above
43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed configuration is called the
________.
A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field
44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.
A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.
A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics
46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.
A. Particle Image Velocimetry
B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry
47. A fluid at rest has no
A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.
A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity
49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the external pressure and
internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.
A. Navier Stokes Equations
B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations
50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow
A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid
51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?
A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint
52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then
A. no forces are acting on the object.
B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above
53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.
A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force
54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is
A.18 N at 246
B. 18 N at 66
C. 25 N at -114
D. 25 N at 66
55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act
A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will
A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry
B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry
57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also be called
moment of inertia.
A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal axis to another
parallel axis.
A. moment of axis theorem
B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C
59. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero
B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above
60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is
A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2
61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is
A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2
62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is distributed
about the reference axis.
A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area
63. It is the materials ability to resist twisting
A. mass moment of inertia
B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area
64. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoullis Principle
B. Torricellis Principle
C. Archimedes Principle
D. Pascals Principle
65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or partially
immersed.
A. Archimedes force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction
66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of weight 3 N.
Determine the tension in the string.
A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N
67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.
A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
68. It is the rate of change of velocity
A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse
69. Impulse is equal to ________.
A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are known as
__________.
A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions
71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the momentum change
of the object?
A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s
72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the magnitude of the
impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?
A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s
73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.
A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration
74. The SI unit for angular velocity is
A. degrees per second
B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second
75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula
A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity
B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity
76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called
A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque
77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system can be known
at once.
A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohrs uncertainty principle
78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is
A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2
79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for determining the
internal forces and reactions on that structure.
A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate
80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant acceleration without
having a known time interval.
A. Bernoullis equation
B. Torricellis equation
C. Newtons equation
D. Cavendishs equation
81. Torricellis equation of motion is
A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as
82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?
A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.
B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
84. Tangential acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic force manifest.
A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce
86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N
87. The gravitational force constant has the units
A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1
88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is
A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N
89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is
A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2
90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg, determine the acceleration due to
gravity on the moon.
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat surface.
A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above
92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?
A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as
A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant
94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is
A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3
95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is
A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.1 0.2
C. 0.01 0.015
D. 0.05 0.06
96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.
A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient
97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.
A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics
98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).
A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N
99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j
3k. Determine the component Ux.
A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
PHYSICS
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the potential
energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the same value. The concept is
known as
Bernoullis Energy Principles
Fluid theorem
Pascals theorem
Hydraulic theorem
The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of the system.
Total mechanical energy
Total potential energy
Total kinetic energy
Total momentum
When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions are
superimposed,
the phase difference is always zero
distractive waves are produced
standing waves are produced
constructive interference always results to zero
According to this law, The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude of each charge and
inversely as the square of the distance between them.
Law of Universal Gravitation
Newtons Law
Inverse Square Law
Coulombs Law
It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per square meter.
Illuminance
Luminance
Luminous Intensity
Radiance
The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
Pascals Principle
Bernoullis Theorem
Ideal Fluid Principle
Archimedes Principle
The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
condensation
cold fusion
latent heat of fusion
solid fusion
At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure

is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
is greater than the atmospheric pressure
is less than the atmospheric pressure
can have any value
Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly 1500oC?
Gas thermometer
Platinum resistance thermometer
Thermo couple thermometer
Mercury thermometer
The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
Mechanical energy
Elastic potential energy
Internal energy
Kinetic energy
In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively, which of the following
equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid?
Q = -mif
Q = -miv
Q = mif
Q = miv
Which of the following is true? The density of water
Is maximum at 4oC
Decreases as the temperature is increased
Is minimum at 4oC
Increases with temperature
When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
frequency decreases
wavelength is increased
frequency increases
None of the above is true
Cohesion is the attraction between like
atom
element
compound
molecule
The quality known as specific heat is based on:
the increase in temperature due to induction
the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one degree Celsius
the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
increase
remain unaffected
decrease
may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
increases
remains unaffected
decreases
Any of the above is possible
Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
conduction
convection
radiation
none of the above
When salt is added to water, its boiling point
increases
decreases
remains unaffected
may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
The sound waves
The heat waves
The shock waves
The Beta rays
Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
They transmit the energy
They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
They travel faster in air than in solids
They produce interference
Sound waves in air are
longitudinal
neither longitudinal nor transverse
transverse
stationary
Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
Less than 20 Hz
More than 25,000 Hz
20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
All of these
The loudness of sound depends upon its
Wavelength
Frequency
Amplitude
All of the above
Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called
Supersonic sound
Intrasonic sound
Hypersonic sound
Ultrasonic sound
The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
conduction
radiation
convection
vaporization
Water starts boiling when
Its temperature reaches 100oC
Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements is correct?
It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC

Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
mass
specific mass
density
temperature
The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without rise in its
temperature is called its
Specific heat
Latent heat
Water equivalent
The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was
Joule
Boltzmann
Faraday
Kelvin
On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is due to the difference
in of water and sand.
density
specific heat
depth
thermal conductivity
The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called
thermopile
thermometer
pyrometer
hydrometer
When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
the potential energy of molecules increases
the potential energy of molecules decreases
the kinetic energy of molecules increases
the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
independent of its pressure P
directly proportional to square root of P
directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
proportional to T
At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same reading?
-38oC
-40oC
-42oC
-50oC
A mercury thermometer is constructed at
room temperature
a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
atmospheric pressure
The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be

100oC
Less than 100oC
More than 100oC
May be any of the above
It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
convection of heat
conduction of heat
radiation of heat
convection, conduction and radiation of heat
The density of water is
same at all temperature
maximum at 4oC
minimum at 4oC
maximum at 0oC
When a substance is heated, its

molecules move more slowly
molecules move more rapidly
there is no change in the speed of its molecules
its temperature always increases
When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
increases
decreases
remains unchanged
none of these
The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
0oC
-273oC
-39oC
-143oC
A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from left is called a
Longitudinal wave
Transverse wave
Standing wave
None of these
When waves go from one place to another they transport
Energy and matter
Wavelength and matter
Frequency only
Energy only
The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
frequency
velocity
wavelength
amplitude
Echo is formed as a result of
refraction of sound
diffraction of sound
interference of sound
reflection of sound
The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the same frequency
and loudness is called
pitch
intensity
timber
decibel
Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?

electromagnetic waves
a sound wave in air
a water wave
waves on vibrating string
A Decibel is a
musical instrument
highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
a measure of intensity level
a measure of clarity of sound
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
Strength of materials can most aptly be described as statics of deformable _______ bodies.
elastic
rigid
compressible
thermal
It states that the elongation is proportional to the force
Pascals Law
Hookes Law
Youngs Theorem
Farrells Law
The modulus of elasticity is also known as
Youngs modulus
Modulus of rigidity
Hookes ratio
Yield strength
A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of rupture
malleable
brittle
conductible
ductile
A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture
brittle
malleable
ductile
conductible
The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a linear function of
strain.
elastic limit
proportional limit
yield point
rupture point
The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is no permanent or
residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
elastic limit
proportional limit
yield point
rupture point
The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is called
rigid range
malleable range
elastic range
plastic range
The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of rupture is called
rigid range
malleable range
elastic range
plastic range
The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress is known as
elastic limit
proportional limit
yield point
rupture point
The maximum ordinate to the curve
yield strength
ultimate strength
tensile strength
both B and C are correct
The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
Pascals Number
Factor of Safety
Youngs Modulus
Poissons ratio
Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
Specific Strength
Specific Rigidity
Specific Modulus
Specific Gravity
Defined as the ratio of the Youngs modulus to the specific weight
Specific Strength
Specific Rigidity
Specific Modulus
Specific Gravity
One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
heterogeneous material
multistate material
homogenous material
monostate material
One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
Orthotropic
Isotropic
Anisotropic
Monotropic
Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
Orthotropic
Isotropic
Anisotropic
Monotropic
Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
Orthotropic
Isotropic
Anisotropic
Monotropic
The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the
Convection
Dilatation
Expansion
Mutation
A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or form
Youngs modulus
Modulus of rigidity
Bulk modulus
Shear modulus
Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
Kelvin stress
Thermal stress
Hydraulic stress
Humid stress
The typical Youngs modulus of steel is
145-170 GPa
195-210 GPa
225-240 GPa
275-310 GPa
Poissons ratio of glass
0.16
0.19
0.23
0.27
The yield strength of pure aluminum is
7-11 MPa
7-11 GPa
2-5 MPa
2-5 GPa
One Newton per square meter is one

Joule
Watt
Pascal
Kelvin
Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
less than
greater than
The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
Shearing stress
Tangential stress
Torsion
Simple stress
Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which they act
perpendicular
parallel
angled
skew
Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?
Circumferential stress
Hoop stress
Girth stress
All of the above
The maximum safe stress a material can carry
Optimum stress
Working stress
Differential stress
Partial stress
It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a displacement between an
initial and a deformed configuration
Deformation
Distortion
Deflection
Dilation
Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body in which forces are
being applied.
Elasticity
Dislocation
Stress
Strain
Engineering strain is also known as
Hooke strain
Cauchy strain
Couch strain
Pascal strain
When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the Poissons ratio is
Positive
Negative
Zero
Cannot be determined
When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the Poissons ratio is
Positive
Negative
Zero
Cannot be determined
Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in the other
direction?
Cast iron
Sand
Auxetics
Cork
Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when stretched in the other
direction?
Cast iron
Sand
Auxetics
Cork
Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.
Torsion
Radial distortion
Circumferential shear
Centrifugal force
The angle of twist is measured in
Mils
Gradians
Radians
Degrees
It is the rotational force down a shaft
Pressure
Torque
Torsion
Tangential load
It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural length when
unloaded
Autumn
Spring
Spiral
Beam
The form of deformation of a spring is
Twisting
Volume expansion
Elongation
None of the above
A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
333.33 MPa
70.74 MPa
435.34 MPa
43.30 MPa
If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum axial load can it
handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
4973.59 N
4932.43 N
4901.53 N
4892.43 N
What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate stress is 140 MPa
2.43 mm
4.24 mm
6.34 mm
7.69 mm
A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is 3mm, what should
the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
4.34 mm
8.53 mm
7.41 mm
5.34 mm
Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa.
Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
104 mm
113 mm
134 mm
153 mm
A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm 2 is subjected to a tensile force without exceeding its
ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should the diameter be?
4.34 mm
8.32 mm
3.39 mm
1.24 mm
Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are secured by two
bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
4.23 MPa
3.21 MPa
2.26 MPa
1.28 MPa
Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately. What pulling force
is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175 MPa?
434 kN
242 kN
495 kN
272 kN
What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate punching stress is
200 MPa?
15.53 kN
17.45 kN
14.43 kN
12.57 kN
A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If the compressive
stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum thickness of plate from which a hole,
100 mm in diameter can be punched.
33.3 mm
17.9 mm
13.4 mm
26.9 mm
A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30 MPa. If the thickness
is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
150 MPa
125 MPa
100 MPa
75 MPa
What is the tangential stress in question 51?
150 MPa
125 MPa
100 MPa
75 MPa
If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum thickness allowed if its
inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?
2.06 mm
4.12 mm
6.24 mm
8.75 mm
What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a bolt 8 mm in
diameter?
453.32 MPa
321.43 MPa
431.43 MPa
208.33 MPa
What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of 17 oC? Use = 11.7 x
10-6 / Co.
1.34 mm
13.44 mm
134.44 mm
1.34 m
By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a tensile load of 26
kN. Use E=200 GPa
293.34 mm
67.34 mm
275.87 mm
69.34 mm
At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24 kN. At what
temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use = 13.8 x 10 -6 / Co and E = 180
GPa.
115 oC
217 oC
245 oC
287 oC
A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could be expected if it
has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
75.023 m
75.104 m
75.184 m
75.245 m
A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on its lower end,
what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.
46.78 mm
45.34 mm
48.33 mm
52.23 mm
A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting the weight of the
wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation is
not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
4.26 mm
3.12 mm
5.05 mm
2.46 mm
A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm 2 and length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one
end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of steel is 5120 kg/m 3 and E=200 GPa,
find the total elongation of the rod.
33.45 mm
54.33 mm
53.44 mm
35.33 mm
What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a rotational force of 27
N-m?
434.31 MPa
542.46 MPa
255.44 MPa
636.62 MPa
What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa only?
13.57 N-m
15.34 N-m
18.34 N-m
23.43 N-m
How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8 mm in radius if it
subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
56.34o
35.62o
92.32o
43.53o
What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
8.342 kN-m
3.532 kN-m
7.453 kN-m
5.305 kN-m
A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum allowable power
transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
3.43 kW
5.23 kW
1.53 kW
2.89 kW
Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted through two complete
turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35 GPa.
6280 mm
3420 mm
1280 mm
1658 mm
A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4 o. Using G=83 GPa, compute the
power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
1.21 MW
1.67 MW
3.21 MW
1.26 MW
A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the shearing stress if
there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
325.32 MPa
231.54 MPa
432.43 MPa
154.67 MPa
Solve question 69 using the exact formula.
238.29 MPa
431.32 MPa
365.35 MPa
153.64 MPa
By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The wire diameter is 6
mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
64.35 mm
42.43 mm
26.02 mm
16.65 mm
A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming cylinder 150 mm in
diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation of 132 mm without exceeding a
shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
15.43 turns
13.83 turns
18.24 turns
12.36 turns
Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter
wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2kN. Use the exact formula.
120.6 MPa
117.9 MPa
132.4 MPa
126.9 MPa
ENGINEERING MATERIALS
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without being
ruptured is called
ductility
malleability
elasticity
hardness
Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is known
as
Friction
Cohesion
Adhesion
Viscosity
Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
Brittle
Ductile
Plastic
Malleable
The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I known as
Charge
Specific change
Nucleon interaction
The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called
Resistance
Permeance
Impedence
Conductance
When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
Thermoscopic
Thermotropic
Thermoduric
Thermoplastic
The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
Gummosity
Glutinosity
Viscidity
Viscosity
The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called
Elastance
Elasticity
Elastivity
Anelastivity
The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

Incandescence
Luminescence
Scintillation
Phosphorescence
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism?
The violet color travels faster than the red color
The violet color travels slower than the red color
All the colors of white light travels the same speed
Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called
Torpidity
Passivity
Inactivity
Inertia
The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
Capacitance
Conductance
Permeability
Accumulation
If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
Isodynamic
Isotropic
Isogonic
Isotopic
The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object is
called
Calidity
Pyxeria
Caloric
Temperature
The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called
Thermal capacity
Thermal radiation
Thermal convection
The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the crystals different
colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
dichroism
dichromatism
diastrophism
chromaticity
Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher frequency is called
illuminance
fluorescence
radioluminescence
incandescence
If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
diamagnetic
paramagnetic
ferromagnetic
ferromagnetic
The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
debility
rigidity
elastic deformation
fatigue
Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible to the flow
of an electric current is called
supercharging
supercooling
superfluidity
superconductivity
LAWS & ETHICS - 1

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

Contracts
Obligation
Quasi-delicts
Condition
Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
Obligum
Obligate
Obligare
Obligus
A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property, independent of contract.
Contracts
Obligation
Quasi-delicts
Condition
A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel
their performance.
Civil Obligations
Natural Obligation
Pure Obligation
Condition
A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience, they are not legally
demandable.
Civil Obligations
Natural Obligation
Pure Obligation
Condition
Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
Juridical or legal tie
Prestation
Active subject
Passive subject
Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
Prestation
Active subject
Passive subject
Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the obligation or known
as the creditor or oblige
Prestation
Active subject
Passive subject
Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or known as the debtor
or obligor
Prestation
Active subject
Passive subject
One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
Law
Contracts
Quai-delicts
Work
The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
An act or omission
Accompanied by fault or negligence
There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
Acts or omissions punished by law
An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its
fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
Pure obligation
Condition obligation
Reciprocal obligation
Alternative obligation
An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
Pure obligation
Condition
An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
Pure obligation
Condition obligation
A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the
condition.
Suspensive Condition
Resolutory obligation
A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the happening of the event.
Suspensive Condition
Resolutory Condition
An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration of said term.
Pure obligation
Obligations with a period
A borrowed money from B in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount as soon as possible.
If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of B is to go to court and ask
the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates:
Pure obligation
Obligations with a period
A kind of period with suspensive effect.
Ex die
In diem
Legal period
Voluntary period
A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date
Ex die
In diem
Legal period
Voluntary period
A period established by law.
Ex die
In diem
Legal period
Voluntary period
A period agreed to by the parties.
Judicial period
In diem
Legal period
Voluntary period
A period authorized by the court.
Judicial period
In diem
Legal period
Voluntary period
An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
Pure obligation
Condition
Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of the piano or the
refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a
part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates:
Pure obligation
Condition
An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is sufficient, determined by
the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
Pure obligation
Condition
One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt, and each one of the
creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
Joint obligation
Solidary obligation
Divisible obligation
Indivisible obligation
One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the creditors may demand
compliance of the entire obligation.
Joint obligation
Solidary obligation
A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
Active Solidarity
Passive Solidarity
Mixed Solidarity
Solo Solidarity
When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
Active Solidarity
Passive Solidarity
Mixed Solidarity
Solo Solidarity
When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this is called
Active Solidarity
Passive Solidarity
Mixed Solidarity
Solo Solidarity
An obligation which is capable of partial performance.

Joint obligation
Solidary obligation
Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice to be delivered by
Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00. Another three sacks of rice to be
delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
Joint obligation
Solidary obligation
A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
Qualitative
Quantitative
Ideal
Moral
A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
Qualitative
Quantitative
Ideal
Mental
A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
Qualitative
Quantitative
Ideal
All of the above
It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
Law
Penal clause
Stipulation
Preceding
A binds himself to deliver to B a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They agree in writing
that should A fail to deliver the car on a specified date, A shall pay B as penalty P10,000.00. A
fails to make the delivery. B could demand the payment of P10,000.00 against A. B, however
could not compel A to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of
penal clause:
Joint
Subsidiary
Solo
Partial
A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can be enforced.
Joint
Subsidiary
Solo
Partial
An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
By Payment or Performance
By the condition or remission of the debt
By altering the signature
By the loss of the thing due

An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
Joint obligation
Solidary obligation
A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced totally.
Partial
Complete
Express
Implied
A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
Partial
Complete
Express
Implied
A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
Partial
Complete
Express
Implied
A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
Partial
Complete
Express
Implied
A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts in their concurrent
amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial compensation
Legal compensation
Voluntary compensation
Judicial compensation
Partial compensation
A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the parties as in the
case of mutual set off of accounts.
Legal compensation
Voluntary compensation
A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the defendant as against
the claim of the plaintiff.
Legal compensation
Total compensation
A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different amounts and a balance
remains unextinguished after the compensation.
Legal compensation
Total compensation
A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and compensation
extinguishes the obligations entirely.
Legal compensation
Total compensation
A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
True novation
Real novation
Personal novation
Substitute novation
A obliged himself to deliver to B a car. Subsequently, they entered into another contract whereby
instead of A delivering a car, A would deliver a truck. This illustrates:
True novation
Real novation
Personal novation
Substitute novation
A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to the rights of the
creditor.
True novation
Real novation
Personal novation
Substitute novation
A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of principal
condition.
Mixed novation
Real novation
Personal novation
Substitute novation
It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give
something or to render some services.
Contracts
Obligation
Quasi-delicts
Condition
A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
Kontrus
contractus
Tractum
Contractumus
The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
consent of the parties
object or subject matter
cause or consideration
effects to the subject
An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is an
agreement to the contrary
Essential element
Natural elements
Accidental elements
Unnatural elements
Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions,
terms, etc.
Essential element
Natural elements
Accidental elements
Unnatural elements
A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of the
contract.
Preparation or Conception
Perfection or Birth
Consummation or Termination
Deliberation
A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the object
or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
Perfection or Birth
Deliberation
Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the amount. This refers
to what stage of the contract
Perfection or Birth
Deliberation
Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount P2,000.00 as purchase
price and the latter receives it.
Perfection or Birth
Deliberation
A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
Express contract
Implied contracts
Executed contracts
Executory contracts
A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
Express contract
Implied contracts
Executed contracts
Executory contracts
A contract that has already been performed.
Express contract
Implied contracts
Executed contracts
Executory contracts
A contract that has not yet performed.
Express contract
Implied contracts
Executed contracts
Executory contracts
A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
Consensual contract
Bilateral contract
Real contract
Unilateral contract
A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
Consensual contract
Bilateral contract
Real contract
Unilateral contract
A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or gratuitous deposit.
Consensual contract
Bilateral contract
Real contract
Unilateral contract
A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
Consensual contract
Bilateral contract
Real contract
Unilateral contract
A, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with B whereby the latter agreed to
murder C. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
Contrary to law
Against moral
Contrary to good customs
Contrary to public order
A entered into a contract with B whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the latter agrees to
live with A without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
Contrary to law
Against moral
Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed and distributed to
relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked out
of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
Contrary to law
Against moral
A entered into a contract with B whereby A will not enter into any enterprise whatever in the
Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
Contrary to law
Against moral
The following are requisites of contracts except
Consent
Object of contract
Cause of contract
Effect of contract
A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the pure liberality of the giver.
Gratuitous Contract
Remunetory Contract
Onerous Contrary
Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the service or benefit for which the
remuneration is given.
Gratuitous Contract
Remunetory Contract
Onerous Contract
Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the mutual undertaking or promise of either
of the contracting parties.
Gratuitous Contract
Remunetory Contract
Onerous Contract
Liberation Contract
Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to express or
confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed.
Reformation
Novation
Defect
Erroneous
Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
There is a valid contract;
The contract is in writing;
The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual mistake, fraud,
inequitable conduct, or accident.
A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons, such as creditors,
the contract may be rescinded.
Rescissible Contract
Voidable Contract
Unenforced Contracts
Void or Inexistent Contracts
A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or
inadequate.
damage
effect
lesion
payment
A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely, consent, object and cause
or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
Void or Inexistent Contract
Unenforceable Contract
Voidable Contract
Negotiorum Gestio
A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
Voidable Contract
Negotiorum Gestio
When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
Voidable Contract
Negotiorum Gestio
It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without the
consent of the latter.
Voidable Contract
Negotiorum Contract
It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation, recompense, or
satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual
obligation or a tortuous act.
Payment
Injury
Damages
Compensation
Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical expenses, lost wages and
the repair or replacement of property.
Actual or Compensatory Damages
Nominal Damages
Moral Damages
Temperate and Moderate Damages
Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation,
wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar injury.
Nominal Damages
Moral Damages
Temperate or Moderate Damages
Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a violation of some legal
right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right.
Nominal Damages
Moral Damages
Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
Nominal Damages
Moral Damages
Damages where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of a
competent court.
Liquidated Damages
Exemplary Damages
Corrective Damages
Compensatory Damages
Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton, reckless,
malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
Nominal Damages
Moral Damages
Exemplary or Corrective Damages
Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants, mariners and
business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the
world.
Law of merchants
Law of businessmen
Law of mariners
Law of people
LAWS & ETHICS - 2

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
Thunder
Lightning
Corona
Aurora
Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from minor discomfort to
serious injury.
Electrical Shock
Super Sonic
Acoustic Shock
Sonic Boom
The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
Current
Voltage
Resistance
Conductance
The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
10,000 ohms
100,000 ohms
1,000,000 ohms
100 ohms
Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________ amperes and above passes
through ones chest cavity.
0.010
0.11
0.030
0.33
The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
45V RMS AC
12V RMS AC
24V RMS AC
50V RMS AC
The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
150V DC
45V DC
135V DC
160V DC
The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface separated by a distance
of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than
__________.
45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign potential will be
intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage to plant equipment possible.
Grounding
Shielding
Bonding
Current Limiting
Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct bonding, when
permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which operate under abnormal
voltage condition.
Current limiting
Resistance limiting
Grounding
Voltage limiting
The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a fuse in series with
a circuit.
Current limiting
Resistance limiting
Grounding
Voltage limiting
This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected and often are
installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
Current limiting
Resistance limiting
Grounding
Voltage limiting
It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its connection to ground
electrode.
Ground Resistance
Grounde Electrode
Ground Path
Resistance Path
For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance must never
exceed __________.
25 ohms
3 ohms
43 ohms
5 ohms
For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground resistance must
never exceed __________.
25 ohms
3 ohms
43 ohms
5 ohms
It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance electrical contact with
the earth.
Ground pole
Lightning Rods
Guy
Made Ground
It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to protect tall or isolated
structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage.
Ground pole
Lightning Rods
Guy
Made Ground
A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
fuse
Lightning rod
Surge arrester
Grounding
These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal operating potentials.
fuse
Lightning rod
Surge arrester
Grounding
Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
fuse
Lightning rod
Surge arrester
Bonding or Grounding
The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
Direct Method or two terminal test
Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
Triangulation Method
Three terminal test
It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-centimeter.
Ground resistance
Earth resistivity
Cubic resistance
Earth density
The following are ways to improve grounds except:
Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
Use multiple rods
Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
Place stones near the rod
Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least __________ during the
dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE
RULE REQUIRED.
3 times per year
twice a year
once a year
12 times a year
All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________ to be sure they
are tight.
3 times per year
twice a year
once a year
12 times a year
This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240 kph wind velocity.
Heavy Loading Zone
Medium Loading Zone
Light Loading Zone
Extra Heavy Loading Zone
This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200 kph wind velocity.
Heavy Loading Zone
Medium Loading Zone
Light Loading Zone
This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160 kph wind velocity.
Heavy Loading Zone
Medium Loading Zone
Light Loading Zone
Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees Celsius.
12.5 and 25.2
15.5 and 32.2
15.2 and 52.2

55.5 and 60.3
Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds __________ 5
kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the equipment room or location
where people are staying.
5 kW
10 kW
1 kW
15 kW
Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and NO SMOKING signs
should be posted ___________.
inside the room only
before entering battery rooms
outside the room only
Both A and C
An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery rooms for use in
accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
oil
kerosene
flour
Caustic soda
A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground connections or
between similar parts of two circuits.
Bond
Short
Fuse
Guy
The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for linemen to
equipment and conductors located thereon.
Stairway
Climbing Space
Guy
Pole
Insulated wires, used to run a subscribers line from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the house or
building.
main line
main cable
dropline
dropwire
a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in a required manner.
damaged
hazard
fault
short
A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any abnormal
connection (including an arc) between the two.
Fault current
Dark current
Leakage current
Dead short
An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured readily when subjected
to flame.
Flame Proof
Flame Retarding
Burn Proof
Anti Flame
A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to burn for longer
times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
Flame Proof
Flame Retarding
Burn Proof
Anti Flame
A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between parts of
different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown path
becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
Aurora
Corona
Washover
Arc
A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit or equipment is
connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent that serves in place of the earth.
short
jumper
ground
ink
A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced force on a pole or
other overhead line structures.
Bond
Short
Fuse
Guy
A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
Overhead guy
Anchor guy
Bla guy
Guy post
An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
Manhole
Rathole
Handhole
Finger hole
A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge current to ground and
capable of repeating this function as specified.
Lightning ball
Lightning Arrester
Fuse
Lightning Protector
A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more conduit runs, and
affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors, cables and any associated
apparatus.
Manhole
Rathole
Handhole
Finger hole
Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its primary function
being to support wires or cables of the system.
guy
support
conduit
messenger
A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a communication company which
contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
zone
area
plant
division
A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
Lightning rod
Ground rod
Drop ground
Radials
A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to earth by a heavy
copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
Lightning arrester
Lightning rod
Breaker
Lightning gap
The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customers premises.
Service drop
Subscribers loop
Main line
Local drop
The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at that elevation.
Tower displacement
Tower sway
Tower twist
Tower bend
The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind load position at
that elevation
Tower displacement
Tower sway
Tower twist
Tower bend
The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that elevation
Tower displacement
Tower sway
Tower twist
Tower bend
Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
underneath
underground
earth mat
under earth
LAWS & ETHICS - 3

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point within the
building from the nearest telephone facility.
drop wire
local loop
service entrance
subscribers loop
A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a pole to a building.
Aerial entrance
Underground entrance
Overhead entrance
Handhole
The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
20mm
30mm
40mm
50mm
The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should be ___________.
20m
30m
40m
50m
In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power entrance must be
__________ radial distance.
2m
3m
4m
1m
In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street must be
___________.
4.4m
3.3m
5.5m
6.6m
In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must be __________.
3.5m
5.5m
4.5m
6.1m
A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the need for possible
subsequent repairs to the property.
Aerial entrance
Underground entrance
Overhead entrance
Handhole
An underground entrances minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic inside private property
is
800 mm
600 mm
900 mm
700 mm
For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than
__________ in well-tamped earth:
300 mm
100 mm
50 mm
150 mm
For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than
__________ of concrete.
300 mm
100 mm
50 mm
150 mm
The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller than __________
in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a service box.
50 mm
75 mm
65 mm
45 mm
The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________ pairs.
20
40
30
50
The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________ pairs. The minimum
size for service box is
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
The minimum size for service-box is
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
20mm
30mm
40mm
50mm
The minimum number of entrance conduit is
1
2
3
4
It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are terminated.
drop wire
terminal wire
main terminals
service box
The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and located at a minimum
distance of __________ above floor finish.
1.3 m
2.3 m
1.6 m
2.6 m
The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all terminations.
Normally __________ away from all hazards.
800 mm
800 mm
1000 mm
700 mm
A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal blocks.
Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
Riser System
Service Box
The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other special services is:
white
yellow
black
blue
The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an entrance is:
white
yellow
black
blue
The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers is:
white
yellow
black
blue
A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300 pairs.
Riser System
Service Box
Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines between two or
more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building generally originating at or near the
cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
Riser System
Service Box
A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor separation to
a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless placed in metallic conduit.
Open Riser
Elevated Riser
Closed Riser
Underground Riser
A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets vertically or non-vertically
aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the building.
Open Riser
Elevated Riser
Closed Riser
Underground Riser
LAWS & ETHICS - 4

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
RA 9292 is known as
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines

The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of
electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in
semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications
involving optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic
signals.
Electronics
Communications
Electricity
Physics
A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics
Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters PECE.
Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
Professional Electronics Engineer
Electronics Engineer
Electronics and Communications Engineer
A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Engineer
under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECE.
A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Technician
under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECT.
Electronics Technician
A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics and
Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or instructions,
executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results.
Computer
ICT
ATM
Laptop
The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by
electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the
theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information.
Information and Communications Technology
Communications
Telecommunications
Information Technology
The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or more
points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium.
Communications
Telecommunications
Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter,
fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any
information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or format and for any purpose, by wire,
radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
Communications
Telecommunications
An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for
reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means.
Communications
Broadcasting
Transmission
Paging
Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where electronic or electronicallycontrolled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
Industrial Plant
Commercial Establishment
Production Area
Power Plant
Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, condominiums, stores,
apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas, memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft
used for business or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or
electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained,
assembled, manufactured or operated.
Industrial Plant
Commercial Establishment
Production Area
Power Plant
Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional capability in
undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction,
supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field
of electronics engineering.
Consulting services
Primary services
Secondary services
Technical services
The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics
Engineers and Electronics Technician.
IECEP
Accredited Professional Organization
PIECEP
Organization of PECE
To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at
least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
7 years
10 years
5 years
3 years
The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of appointment or
until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another
term.
7
10
5
3
To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must
obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
50%
60%
70%
80%
One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has failed to obtain the
passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the
subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
Below 70% but not lower than 60%
Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in government service or in the
private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies
worked for, description of specific responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of
immediate supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date
applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer.
10 years; 3 years
7 years; 2 years
5 years; 2 years
10 years; 2 years
RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
5224; 2683
5447; 458
5734; 109
5533; 4552
RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
February 2, 2004
March 2, 2007
April 17,2004
March 5, 2005
RA 9292 was approved on
April 17, 2004
April 27, 2004
March 17, 2005
March 27, 2004
The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
April 17, 2004
April 27, 2004
May 24, 2004
May 28, 2004
To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s signed by
__________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the applicant is factual.
1; 3
1; 2
3; 3
2; 2
Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No. 9292 those who
have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act
No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as
PECE.
5
10
3
7
Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start within __________
years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
5
3
10
7
To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least ___________ years
(inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment either in the Government or private
sector.
5
3
10
7
To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s from at least
__________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character
of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the Board.
5
3
10
7
The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for reasons deemed proper and
sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification
Card, subject to compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
1
2
3
4
Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the Philippines
A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are temporarily employed
by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the Philippines
A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the Philippines
The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the
outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
28 mm
45 mm
48 mm
32 mm
The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the
inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
28 mm
45 mm
48 mm
32 mm
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
NAME OF THE MEMBER
LICENSE NO.
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the words
NAME OF THE MEMBER
LICENSE NO.
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
atom
electron
radar transceiver
computer
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
1 electron
2 electrons
3 electrons
4 electrons
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
1 nucleus
2 nuclei
3 nuclei
4 nuclei
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
grey with boundaries in black color
orange with boundaries in navy color
white with boundaries in black color
yellow with boundaries in black color
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is

black with white background
white with black background
black with grey background
white with grey background
in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
orange background
navy blue background
black background
white background
In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the nucleus and electrons in
__________ color.
Black ; red
White; orange
White; red
Black; orange
The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA No. 9292 shall
be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the outer circle measuring __________ in
diameter.
28 mm
45 mm
48 mm
32 mm
The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner circle measuring ___________ in
diameter.
28 mm
35 mm
48 mm
32 mm
The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the upper part of the inner circle
atom
electron
radar transceiver
computer
The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
NAME OF THE MEMBER
LICENSE NO.
In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
license number
the word PHILIPPINES
name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the diametral space
shall bear
license number
In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space bear
license number
In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space bear
license number
LAWS & ETHICS - 3

By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________ of news per day
(from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
30 min.
60 min.
45 min.
75 min.
The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
1 minute
5 minutes
10 minutes or 15 minutes
All of the above
A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding intro, extro, headline
and commercial load.
Newsbreak
Flash report
Newscast
all of the above
A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
Primary source
Secondary source
1st person source
2nd person source
A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of news is extracted or
attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
primary source
secondary source
1st person source
2nd person source
The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and recommendation for expulsion
from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC for the cancellation of permit to operate the
station, for improper placement of advertisement shall be given for:
first offense
third offense
second offense
fourth offense
These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the KBP or directly with
the broadcast station.
Public Service Announcements
Private Announcements
Private Service Announcements
Public Announcements
All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio stations are
encouraged to schedule _________ OPMs every clockhour.
1
2
3
4
The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial broadcasting is:
Advertising
Donation
Fund
All of the above
A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
cow-catcher
hitch-hiker
lead commercial
sweeper
A commercial following the close of the program is called:
cow-catcher
hitch-hiker
lead commercial
sweeper
Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro Manila
15 min
17 min
18 min
20 min
A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
15
7 minutes and 30 sec
1 minute and 15 sec
A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
15
1 minute and 15 sec
A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
15
1 minute and 15 sec
Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside Metro Manila
15 min
17 min
18 min
20 min
17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
17
8 min and 30 sec
4 min
1 min and 30 sec
A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
17
8 min and 30 sec
4 min
1 min and 30 sec
A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
17
8 min and 30 sec
4 min
1 min and 30 sec
Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in
every program hour
5
7
6
8
Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed __________
breaks in every program hour
5
7
6
8
In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of the Board of
Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per hour.
20 min
15 min
30 min
25 min
Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
shall not be placed within the same cluster
can be placed in the same time cluster
can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
A and B
The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading expressions
Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these acts
Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and grammar
All of the above
Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
Local product
Local account
Local merchandise
Local goods
The following are considered local accounts except:

Bowling Alleys
Painting shops
Barber shops
Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
9:00 PM to 12 midnight
12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
12 midnight to 5:00 AM
Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
12 noon to 2:00 PM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
all of the above
Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
9:00 AM to 12 noon
7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
All of the above
In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
12 noon to 2:00 PM
all of the above
For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be allowed for block
time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
1
2
3
4
In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast (aggregate total
including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
30 min
60 min
45 min
75 min
Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
news bulletins
last minute program changes
advisories in the public interest
advertisements
Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes per hour in foreign or
local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
15
18
17
20
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN
Engineering Economy and Accounting

Jaime R. Tiong
Encoded by:
Mercado, Jose Carlo A.
A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this book be sold so
that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%
P200.00
P300.00
P400.00
P500.00
A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available
investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes,
must the investment offer to be justified?
13.02%
12.07%
10.89%
11.08%
A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for
the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum
production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand?
1 hour
1 hour and 10 minutes
Dalisay Corporations gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and administration are
15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent of sales is their profit after taxes?
21%
20%
19%
18%
In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the following data have
been gathered:
Direct material
Direct labor
Testing set-up
- P0.30 per unit

- P0.50 per unit
- P300.00 per set-up
It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For an order of 100
units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?
P3.80
P4.00
P4.10
P4.20
By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by 12.5%. If he sells at the
same price as before, find his new gain in %.
6.89%
6.67%
6.58%
6.12%
An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8 hour/day work, with
50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the mechanical engineer contractor decided to
add 15 men on the job, overtime not being permitted.
If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day, how much
money would he save with the additional workers?
P43,450
P43,750
P44,250
P44,750
In a certain department store, the monthly salary of a saleslady is partly constant and partly varies as the
value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the month is P10,000.00, her salary for
the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to
P1,000.00. What must be the value of her sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?
P30,000
P31,000
P32,000
P33,000
Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%. Rudy then sold the
VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for
the unit?
P4,100
P3,900
P4,000
P4,200
The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a customer at a profit of
25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the customer?
37.5%
37.9%
38.2%
38.5%
A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the machineries of an oil mill failed
to finish the work on time. As provided for in the contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to
one fourth of one per cent per day for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one
per cent per day for everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?
26 days
27 days
28 days
29 days
The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing plant each is P2,400.00
per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00 per square meter and that of the granite
into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.
If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells P400 per square
meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per cubic meter of block and sells at
P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to be the same, the granite is more profitable than
the marble by how much?
P12,000 per cubic meter
A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an overall annual return
of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will give an annual return of 4.5% and
the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock
investment to minimum in order to reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.
165
166
167
168
A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per
kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so on until a minimum of P2.50 per kwhr is reached. How much does it cost to run this motor continuously for 7 days?
P800
P820
P840
P860
An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a well-compacted
gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on both sides. In order to put the
subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of sand filling is necessary, over which the 10
inch concrete pavement will be placed?
Assume the following data:
Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220 per sq. Meter
Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter
How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?
P1,207,000
P1,207,500
P1,208,000
P1,208,500
An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric energy from National Power
Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after deducting distribution losses of
20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy be sold to break even if the following are
other monthly expenses in its operation:
Taxes
Salaries
Depreciation
Interest
Maintenance
Miscellaneous
P4.90
P5.20
P5.90
P6.30
2.5 % of gross revenue

P750,000
P2,250,000
P700,000
P300,000
P200,000
An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a problem of choosing
between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing machine.
Average hauling distance
Monthly rental
Installing and dismantling of machine
Site A
2.5 km
P35,000
P20,000
Site B
2.75 km
P6,500
P10,000
At Site A, it would be necessary to hire 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job can be completed
in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requires 16,670 cubic meter of asphalt mix per
kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of
haul. How much is site B more expensive than site A?
P949,645
P962,101
P956,807
P974,090
A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing plant and an estimated
working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated to be 10% of the fixed capital
investment. Determine the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.
28.33%
29.34%
30.12%
30.78%
A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a transmission line from
a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is 5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized
timber electrical posts must be placed at an interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long,
8 inches in diameter at the tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the
first electric post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost for
the project using the following data:
Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including delivery to the site. Labourer at
P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at P250 per day and 4
electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only
5 laborers and 4 electricians for the project and is supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per
day. Contingency is 10% and profit is 25%.
P745,890.23
P817,692.00
P789,120.80
P829,592.50
Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was able to get a retirement
lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she decided to use a part of it invested in real
state at Pagadian City and the remainder were invested as follows:
30% in T-bills earning 12% interest
35% in money market placement earning 14%

35% in blue chip stock earning 13%
If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
invests in real estate?
did she
P2,091,639.12
P1,916,858.24
P1,856,120.53
P1,790,274.78
The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces. With a manual operated
guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to
Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the
cost of money, how many months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he
decides to buy now?
10 months
11 months
12 months
13 months
In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten ounces of gold per ton.
Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:
Processing Method
A
B
C
Cost per ton

P5,500
P2,500
P400
% Recovery
90
80
70
If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest return?
Processing method A
Processing method B
Processing method C
Either of the processing methods B or C
JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the necessary crating of the
engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of 40 tons, regardless of whether or not the
container is completely filled with engines. Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has
shipped only 30 tons per container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.
If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred kilograms with
the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of crating would be P50 per
engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg to 1520 kg per engine. How much more
economical shipping the engine in crates than in containers?
P670 per engine
P630 per engine
P650 per engine
P610 per engine
A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an output of 100 liters per
hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and
is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic
grinding media is offered to this paint company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand
mill, but guarantees an output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If
profit on paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a difference in profit between the two media?
P436,900
P462,000
P473,000
P498,200
If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what is the rate of
interest?
14.12%
15.89%
16.67%
16.97%
You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the interest was
deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, you have to pay
the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
23.5%
24.7%
25.0%
25.8%
A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future amount is
due at the end of the loan period?
P5,937.50
P5,873.20
P5,712.40
P5,690.12
If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present worth of P50,000,
which is due at the end of 7 months.
P46,728.97
P47,098.12
P47,890.12
P48,090.21
Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised to repay
P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
12.19%
12.03%
11.54%
10.29%
If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total amount to be repaid at
the end of one year?
P10,900
P11,200
P11,800
P12,000
A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3% discount. Find the
rate of interest.
35.45%
35.89%
36.18%
37.11%
A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the
amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of
discount?
3.67%
4.00%
4.15%
4.25%
A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the
amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of interest
that the bank collected in advance?
4.00%
4.07%
4.17%
4.25%
What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is invested today at simple
interest rate of 1% per year?
P25,168
P25,175
P25,189
P25,250
What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is invested today at simple
interest rate of 1% per month?
P28,000
P28,165
P28,289
P28,250
It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest for one year
is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of money to a borrower. Let us
therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest
rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have
to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?
16.02%
16.28%
16.32%
16.47%
A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is
P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
11.50%
11.75%
11.95%
12.32%
P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the end of 75
days?
P5,066.67
P5,133.33
P5,050.00
P5,166.67
A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available
investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of
taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
12.07%
12.34%
12.67%
12.87%
A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of 16% but the interest
is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was borrowed and the loan is payable at the
end of one year. How much is the actual rate of interest?
19.05%
19.34%
19.67%
19.87%
P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the end of 75
days?
P4,033.33
P4,333.33
P4,133.33
P4,666.67
Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial Fabricator and Construction
Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance. The
corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at
once, find the proceeds of the note.
P18,800
P18,900
P19,000
P19,100
If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present worth of P20,000 which
is due at the end of nine months.
P18,992.08
P18,782.18
P18,348.62
P18,120.45
A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of P25,000.00 for a
period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after the bank collected the advance
interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that
the bank collected in advance?
13.05%
13.22%
13.46%
13.64%
Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay
P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple interest.
15.92%
15.75%
15.45%
15.08%
Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay
P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the
bankers discount.
13.15%
13.32%
13.46%
13.73%
Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days. Annie wishes to pay
immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on the assumption that money is worth
8% simple interest. What is the cash price?
P1,124.67
P1,233.55
P1,289.08
P1,302.67
A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount of P1,342.00 and
promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the simple interest rate?
15.47%
15.69%
15.80%
15.96%
Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January 15,1996 to October
12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.
P664.23
P664.89
P665.21
P666.39
The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995 is P100. What is the
rate of interest?
3.90%
3.92%
3.95%
3.98%
On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum of money as birthday
present. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact simple interest. If the account will mature
on Christmas day at an amount of P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her
birthday?
P8,807.92
P8,827.56
P8,832.17
P8,845.78
What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
P39.01
P39.45
P39.82
P39.99
Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1, 2006 at 7% interest.
How much is the interest using the Bankers Rule?
P972.12
P970.78
P973.12
P971.83
The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum. Determine the total
amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during this period?
P30,890.22
P30,980.22
P31,079.73
P31,179.37
A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective rate of money?
9.01%
9.14%
9.31%
9.41%
The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per annum. Determine the
total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during the period.
P71,781.47
P71,187.47
P71,817.47
P71,718.47
Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an interest of 12%
compounded annually.
P40,540.49
P40,450.49
P40,350.49
P40,530.49
What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days.
19.61%
19.44%
19.31%
19.72%
What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16% compounded quarterly?
16.09%
16.32%
16.45%
16.78%
What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly?
8.07%
8.12%
8.16%
8.24%
Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12% compounded semiannually.
11.83%
11.09%
11.65%
11.25%
Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
11.90% compounded semi-annually
12.20% compounded quarterly
11.60% compounded monthly
Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5 years and 6 months.
P3,864.95
P3,846.59
P3,889.95
P3,844.95
An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest.
11.89%
12.00%
12.08%
12.32%
If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the compound interest at
the end of 10 years?
P6,080.40
P6,020.40
P6,040.20
P6,060.20
What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?
19.24%
19.48%
19.84%
19.92%
Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an interest of 12%
compounded quarterly.
P30,555.68
P30,656.86
P30,556.86
P30,655.68
In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12% compounded semiannually?
7.86 years
7.65 years
7.23 years
8.12 years
The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per annum. Determine the
total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during the period.
P215,344.40
P213,544.40
P234,153.40
P255.443.10
How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
13.7 years
14.2 years
14.7 years
15.3 years
What is the corresponding effective interest rate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?
19.35%
19.84%
19.48%
19.64%
What is the effective rate of 14% compounded semi-annually?
14.49%
14.59%
14.69%
14.79%
At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be in 15 years?
P6,265.87
P6,256.78
P6,526.87
P6,652.78
A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now considering interest at
8% compounded quarterly?
P13,256.83
P13,655.28
P13,625.83
P13,265.83
About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the interest rate is 9%
compounded quarterly?
4 years
5 years
6 years
7 years
Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded quarterly.
5.12%
5.96%
5.78%
6.12%
What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?
P15,461.59
P15,146.95
P15,641.59
P15,614.59
By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it
amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded
quarterly?
11.23 years
11.46 years
11.57 years
11.87 years
If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the compounded interest at the
end of 10 years.
P2,333.32
P2,444.32
P2,555.32
P2,666.32
A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The
interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will
be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year.
P693.12
P700.12
P702.15
P705.42
P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00. Interest is paid semiannually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.
2.9%
3.0%
3.2%
3.5%
A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a given interest rate on
the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much will he collect at the end of the
sixth year?
P4,626.12
P4,262.12
P4,383.12
P4,444.12
A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded quarterly. What is the
effective rate?
12.75%
12.55%
12.45%
12.35%
Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is
compounded.
Monthly
Bimonthly
Quarterly
Annually
When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?
9 years
10 years
11 years
12 years
A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the next 2 years. If he plans
to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what
will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest
rate is 10%.
P1,549.64
P1,459.64
P1,345.98
P1,945.64
How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on January 1, 2003? Money
is worth 6%.
P1,509.34
P1,249.64
P1,378.98
P1,494.52
A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is the accumulated
amount of P10,000 after 10 years?
P13,498.59
P13,489.59
P13,789.98
P13,494.52
A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at the end of 10 years.
If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be the initial deposit?
P6,176.35
P6,761.35
P6,716.53
P6,167.35
Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the initial amount that
must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?
P4,196.30
P4,721.39
P4,796.03
P4,631.93
If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the compounded interest after
7 years and 9 montths.
P690,848.73
P670,651.23
P680,649.56
P685,781.25
An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective annual interest rate?
7.91%
7.51%
7.71%
7.31%
You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a
loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money
from the bank?
P53.89
P54.66
P53.78
P54.98
A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. Approximately
how much money will be in the account after 10 years?
P2,187.39
P2,145.78
P2,176.45
P2,158.92
Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth P2,370.00. The bank
pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this account?
5.72%
5.78%
5.84%
5.90%
P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. How
much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?
P631,627.78
P612,890.76
P621,169.64
P611,672.18
What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual
interest rate is 8%.
P150.56
P152.88
P153.89
P151.09
Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate of interest, i% per
year compounded annually such that the net present worth of the investment is positive? Assume i 0.
16.50%
16.75%
16.33%
16.67%
A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus
P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
P3,260.34
P3,280.34
P3,270.34
P3,250.34
A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine will retire at the end
of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of P2,000.00 based on current prices. The
machine will then be replaced with an exact duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds
to accumulate the capital needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?
P18,854.38
P18,548.38
P18,458.38
P18,845,38
What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360 days.
17.35%
17.45%
17.55%
17.65%
By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund by her guardian until
it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded
quarterly?
7.42 years
7.67 years
7.85 years
7.98 years
P200,000 was deposited at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After how many years will
the sum be P621,170?
4 years
5 years
6 years
7 years
In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual
inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity?
P15,030.03
P20,113.57
P18,289.05
P16,892.34
A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12% compounded annually.
How much profit in present day pesos is realized?
P7,563.29
P7,498.20
P7,340.12
P7,623.42
How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded semi-annually?
20 years
18 years
21 years
19 years
How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in five years?
P6,216.21
P6,212.12
P6,218.21
P6,209.21
A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now considering interest at
6% compounded quarterly?
P11,042.89
P11,035.12
P11,025.25
P11,012.52
P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-annually. How much is
the sum now?
P2,000,033.33
P2,000,166.28
P2,001,450.23
P2,002,820.12
A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the effective annual interest
rate?
4.06%
4.12%
4.16%
4.28%
Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He agrees to pay P50,000.00
today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at the end of two years if money is worth 5%
compounded semi-annually?
P39,015.23
P39,026.25
P39,056.21
P39,089/78
Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit of P50,000 at 10%
per annum for 3 years.
P1,510
P1,530
P1,550
P1,570
If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of P150,000 due in 1
year and P280,000 due in 2 years.
1.52 years
1.64 years
1.69 years
1.72 years
For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The interest was computed at
18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed amount?
P27,367.28
P27,278.36
P27,782.36
P27,872.63
A couple decided that for every child that will be born to them they will place a deposit in the bank so that
on the childs 18th birthday, the child will receive the amount of P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an
interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a
child to them?
P15,367.18
P15,249.13
P15,722.16
P15,482.64
On his 6th birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump sum of P10,000 on his
21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of the boys 6th birthday, if the interest is
compounded annually? Assume i = 4%.
P5,552.64
P5,549.10
P5,522.12
P5,582.63
A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust fund for the college
education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year compounded quarterly, how much will the
man have at the end of 10 years when his son will be starting his college education?
P593,120.12
P593,452.12
P592,739.96
P593,888.96
If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded quarterly, what will be
the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?
P18,302.85
P18,450.89
P18,512.83
P18,638.29
The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being
considered are:
The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.
The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension
to be added to cost P200,000.
By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation
is to be neglected?
P19,122.15
P19,423.69
P19,518.03
P19,624.49
A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.
42.21%
42.30%
42.41%
42.57%
A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is the effective interest
rate per year?
19.23%
19.45%
19.56%
19.65%
A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6% compounded quarterly, how
much is it worth today?
P11,025.25
P11,035.25
P11,045.25
P11,055.25
Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a child but will be held in
trust by the childs mother until it amounts to $45 million. If the amount is invested and earns 8%
compounded quarterly, when will the child receive the money?
8.11 years
7.90 years
7.42 years
7.24 years
Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the first year, P3,000 at
the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the third year and P5,000 at the end of the fourth year,
if money is worth 10% compounded annually.
P11,411.10
P11,530.98
P11,621.67
P11,717.85
How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?
14.27 years
14.56 years
14.78 years
14.98 years
Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings account. Today, the
bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How much is the account today if it earns
8% per annum?
P4,002,450.78
P4,102,405.90
P4,838,949.58
P4,909,289.45
What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with an interest of 10%
P76,901.21
P77,108.66
P78,109.32
P79,667.32
A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. How much
money will be in the account after 10 years?
P2,374.21
P2,158.92
P2,734.12
P2,400.12
What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?
41.42%
40.81%
41.79%
40.45%
Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000. What is your annual rate
of appreciation?
8.12%
8.00%
7.92%
8.32%
Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for 2 years. If the
accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of interest.
10.12%
10.00%
10.92%
10.32%
An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would terminate at the end of
the 5th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value of P25,000 at that time. What is the
rate of interest for this project to break even?
5.74%
5.43%
5.91%
5.67%
Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value is P3,200. What is
the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?
P2,795.00
P2,975.00
P2,579.00
P2,759.00
Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny borrowed again from
Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993 and discharged his balance by paying
P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8%
P1,511.61
P1,611.51
P1,711.41
P1,811.31
Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement 30 years from now.
If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at maturity in terms of todays peso.
P201,689.91
P201,571.91
P201,345.91
P201,869.91
First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded annually, how much profit, in todays
pesos, is realized over the five-year period?
P44,512.89
P44,672.10
P44,851.64
P44,901.23
A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002. The new machine to
replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000. This expense will be partially
defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the
required capital, the firm will deposit the following sum in an account earning interest at 5%
compounded quarterly:
P60,000 at the end of 1999

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new machine?
P155,890.12
P153,085.56
P154,200.12
P156,930.38
On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a total cost of P144,000.
She then received the following semiannual dividends:
P4,200 on December 1, 1998
P4,400 on June 1, 1999
P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000
After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after deduction of
brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her investment?
4.26%
4.54%
4.87%
4.91%
Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His estimates of the year-byyear receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in the tabulation below:
Year
0
4
5
6
7
Receipts
0
P5,000
P6,200
P7,500
P8,800
Disbursements
- P13,760
+ P1,000
+ P1,200
+ P1,500
+ P1,800
He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful life. Find the
rate of return of the prospective equipment.
10.11%
11.80%
11.10%
10.51%
What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?
9.45%
9.26%
9.65%
9.56%
Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to build a school building
on this land. However, since the school building is not an immediate requirement, the institute is
considering whether it should purchase this land and build the building now or defer this action for 3
years. The current costs are as follows:
Land: P800,000
Building: P12,000,000
The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to appreciate at the rate
of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total cost of the land and structure 3 years
hence?
P14,520,120
P14,715,068
P14,902,189
P15,021,781
Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:
P40,000 due 2 years hence
Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If the two parties
agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?
P147,520.20
P147,346.02
P147,902.89
P147,021.81
Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines at the end of 2001. He
established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded deposits and withdrawals.
January 1, 1995
January 1, 1997
July 1, 1997
July 1, 1998
January 1, 1999
Deposit of P40,000
Deposit of P80,000
Withdrawal of P12,000
Deposit of P64,000
Withdrawal of P48,000
His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of 1997. At that
date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What will be the principal in the
fund at the end of 2001?
P146,323.08
P146,992.99
P146,846.92
P146,022.82
JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a choice between two
different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated
repair costs for each model are as follows:
Model A:
Model B:
P60,000 at the end of 5th year

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of its capital,
which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the publisher will purchase
the more economical model?
P8,769.18
P8,918.23
P9,012.53
P9,341.11
What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of this investment is
1.23%
P61,700
P61,900
P61,200
P61,500
An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for n years. If the interest
rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of n.
4
5
6
7
Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What is the single payment
present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was invested for 5 years, what is the rate of
interest?
3.1%
3.3%
3.5%
3.7%
Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded continuously. If the balance
doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?
11.55%
11.66%
11.77%
11.88%
On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine Islands with an initial
deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays
12% interest compounded monthly, how much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?
P2,180,968.95
P2,190,968.95
P2,160,968.95
P2,170,968.95
The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the countrys money supply.
T-bills
Bank note
Check
Coupon
Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in the general price
level.
Devaluation
Deflation
Inflation
Depreciation
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.
Annuity
Debt
Amortization
Deposit
The place where buyers and sellers come together.
Market
Business
Recreation center
Buy and sell section
A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute
Monopsony
Oligopoly
Monopoly
Oligopsony
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after
several periods, after the beginning of the payment.
Perpetuity
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
The total income equals the total operating cost.

Balanced sheet
In-place value
Check and balance
Break even no gain no loss
Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.
Analytic
Pure
Gratuitous
Private
Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all materials that go into
production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:
GS and A expenses
Operating and maintenance costs
Prime cost
O and M costs
An index of short term paying ability is called:
Receivable turn-over
Profit margin ratio
Current ratio
Acid-test ratio
Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a number of years.
Depreciation
Sinking fund
Amnesty
Bond
Estimated value at the end of the useful life.
Market value
Fair value
Salvage value
Book value
Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given
date.
Physical inventory
Material update
Technological assessment
Material count
Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding date.
Delict
Escalatory
Technological assessment
Bid bulletin
A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.
Depreciation
Annuity
Perpetuity
Inflation
What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of
the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?
P727.17
P717.17
P714.71
P731.17
Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10 quarters. If the interest rate is
10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is P2,000, how much did he borrow?
P17,304.78
P17,404.12
P17,504.13
P17,604.34
What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000? Assume i = 6% annually.
P1,290.34
P1,185.54
P1,107.34
P1,205.74
Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12% interest annually.
P2,324.62
P2,234.26
P2,432.26
P2,342.26
A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover the yearly operating
expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a stamping machine used in making radio
chassis as model changes for a period of 10 years.
Operating cost per year
Cost of dye
Salvage value of dye
=
=
=
P500.00
P1,200.00
P600.00
The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine the sum of
money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.
P8,626.02
P8,662.02
P8,226.02
P8,666.22
A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum at
the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel
the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
P2,500.57
P2,544.45
P2,540.56
P2,504.57
A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the 90% balance on
monthly installment for 60 months at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. Compute the
amount of the monthly payment.
P42,821.86
P42,128.67
P42,218.57
P42,812.68
What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8%
P7,654.04
P7,731.29
P7,420.89
P7,590.12
What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each year, with interest at
15% compounded annually?
P40,519.21
P40,681.29
P40,454.29
P40,329.10
A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by semi-annual payment
over the next 5 years. The first due in 6 months. Determine the semi-annual payment.
P1,234.09
P1,255.90
P1,275.68
P1,295.05
A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years at an interest rate of
12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how much should he deposit to a bank
monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?
P5,174.23
P5,162.89
P5,190.12
P5,194.23
A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his
obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the
annual payments.
P43,600.10
P43,489.47
P43,263.91
P43,763.20
Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the interest is 12%
compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly payment is P2,000.00?
P10,834.38
P10,278.12
P10,450.00
P10,672.90
A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P8,000
each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is
12% compounded semi-annually?
P142,999.08
P143,104.89
P142,189.67
P143,999.08
How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if the interest rate is
9%?
P12,835.32
P12,992.22
P12,562.09
P12,004.59
How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order to accumulate
P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?
P728.99
P742.09
P716.81
P702.00
A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and payments of P750 per year
for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time payments?
4.61%
4.71%
4.41%
4.51%
A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years to
accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm established a sinking fund consisting of
annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of
the 12th year?
P38,120.00
P37,520.34
P37,250.34
P37,002.00
A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment of P100,000 at the
end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5 years from the date of purchase. If
money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is the cash price of the property?
P806,899.33
P807,100.12
P807,778.12
P808,835.92
A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to be paid into an
account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to withdraw P20,000 each on the childs
18th, 19th, 20th and 21st birthdays. How much is the lump sum amount?
P30,119.73
P30,941.73
P30,149.37
P30,419.73
An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him P25,000 a year for the
next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate, what is the amount he would need to
deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15 years).
P242,860.22
P242,680.22
P242,608.22
P242,806.22
A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest
monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly, so that each employee will
receive a P2,000 bonus?
P12,615.80
P12,516.80
P12,611.80
P12,510.80
A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is 12% nominal and
payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?
P1,101.08
P1,202.08
P1,303.08
P1,404.08
A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What
does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?
P6,999.39
P6,292.93
P6,222.39
P6,922.93
An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000 each year for 3 years.
What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?
32.7%
33.8%
33.2%
33.6%
Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4 years and P80,000 at the
end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be set aside for this equipment. Money
worth 10% compounded annually.
P7,425.72
P7,329.67
P7,245.89
P7,178.89
Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of each month for 10
years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that will be available in two years is:
P13,100.60
P13,589.50
P13,982.80
P13,486.70
A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of 10 years. If your cost
of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is P9,000, what is the approximate rate of
return (ROR) on the investment?
24.2%
24.8%
25.1%
25.4%
An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years. One year prior to
the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the interest rate is 6%, what proceeds
will he obtain?
P1,298.00
P1,231.09
P1,221.62
P1,263.71
The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a holiday bonus. How
much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate compounded monthly, so that each
employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?
P3,942.44
P3,271.22
P3,600.12
P3,080.32
Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest,
compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2 years?
P13,941.44
P13,272.22
P13,486.73
P13,089.32
Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest for 10 years with
uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How much principal does he still owe?
P13,841.34
P13,472.22
P13,286.63
P13,023.52
A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for 10 years. However, he may
choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How much is this lump sum of the cost
of money is 14% compounded quarterly?
P3,702,939.73
P3,607,562.16
P3,799,801.23
P3,676,590.12
A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the balance on monthly
instalments for x years at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. If the monthly instalment
was P42,821.87, find the value of x?
3
4
5
6
You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000 in 7% account for
your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the end of your 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th
birthday, how much will be left in the account at the end of the 21st year?
P1,666.98
P1,699.86
P1,623.89
P1,645.67
Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the loan over 30 years with
uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?
P839.19
P842.38
P807.16
P814.75
A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is P25,000.00. Each year it
operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00. Given the effective annual interest rate of
18%, what is the discounted payback period, in years, on the investment of the machine?
3.15
1.75
2.15
2.75
A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after 8 years. Inflation is
2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money invested is 8%. How much money
needs to be set aside each year to replace the machine with an identical model 8 years from now?
P3,345.77
P3,389.32
P3,489.11
P3,573.99
Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the loan over 30 years
with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each month. What does Engr. Sison pay each
month?
P838.86
P849.12
P850.12
P840.21
Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each year for the next 10
years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at
6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00 of the rent saved and earn 18% annual interest on that
amount. What will be the difference between the firms annual revenue and expenses?
P10,200.12
P10,205.13
P10,210.67
P10,215.56
A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of P162,000 and monthly
instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of interest if compounded monthly?
20%
24%
21%
23%
What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate P100,000.00 at the end
of the 5th annual deposit if money earns 10% interest?
P16,002.18
P15,890.12
P16,379.75
P15,980.12
In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to generate this sum, a
sinking fund consisting of three annual payments is established now. For tax purposes, no further
payment will be made after three years. What payments are necessary if money worth 15% per
annum?
P3,919.52
P3,871.23
P3,781.32
P3,199.52
Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if money is worth 8%
compounded quarterly.
P371,719.52
P371,287.13
P371,670.34
P371,802.63
If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of 7%, what is the total
peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?
P3,671.71
P3,712.87
P3,450.12
P3,576.64
How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10 years if the interest
rate is 12%?
P5,467.12
P5,560.22
P5,650.22
P5,780.12
A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the balance on monthly
instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. What was the monthly
instalment in pesos?
P42,821.87
P42,980.00
P43,102.23
P43,189.03
A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x years. However, he may
choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of 4 years. If the rate of interest was 14%
compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?
10
11
12
13
If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a house, how much
must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10 years?
P13,994.17
P14,801.12
P13,720.15
P14,078.78
Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of calamity loan, with
interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly instalments for 10 years. Find the
quarterly payments.
P1,590.83
P1.609.23
P1,778.17
P1,827.79
For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor a yearly gratuity pay
of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one year after his retirement. The
supervisor, instead, requested that he be paid a lump sum on the date of his retirement less interact that
the company would have earned if the gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%,
what is the equivalently lump sum that he could get?
P100,357.37
P100,537.73
P100,375.37
P100,735.37
In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 years, a fabrication company purchased an
adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a building projected to cost
P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To provide the required capital expense, it
plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose. How much must the company deposit each year if
interest to be earned is computed at 15%?
P194,089.17
P195,780.12
P196,801.56
P197,008.25
A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the seller to allow him
to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in equal 48 end of the month instalment at
1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment.
How much is his monthly payment?
P8,929.29
P8,225.00
P8,552.00
P8,008.20
A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the seller to allow him
to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in equal 48 end of the month instalment at
1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment.
What is the remaining balance that he paid?
P186,927.24
P188,225.00
P187,701.26
P185,900.20
A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to have a salvage value
of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much yearly deposit must the company
deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest, compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed
fund to purchase the new machine at the end of the 10th year economic life of the machine it purchased
if a new machine will cost 75% more by that time?
P34,859.78
P35,890.12
P35,074.58
P34,074.85
A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If purchased on instalment, the
regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18 equal monthly instalments at an interest rate
of 1.5% per month. How much will be required monthly payments?
P15,185.78
P15,289.12
P15,783.90
P15,632.11
A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the balance payable in
equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under this arrangement, the price is
pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the machine would only cost P195,000. What is
the equivalent interest rate that is being charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded
quarterly?
18.47%
19.21%
19.47%
19.74%
A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company will shoulder 25% of
the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing company in 48 equal end of the
month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine
the amount each officer has to pay the financing company per month?
P7,523.90
P7,619.22
P7,190.00
P7,710.94
If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get annually from the bank
every year for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is made. Cost of money is 14%.
P34,467.21
P34,567.81
P34,675.18
P34,867.37
An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which will require a
downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more than 30% of his monthly salary.
What should be the maximum cash value of a car he can purchase if the seller will agree to a
downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance payable in four years at 18% per year payable on
monthly basis? The first payment will be due at the end of the first month?
P135,267.21
P135,507.42
P135,605.48
P135,807.30
A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to purchase shares of stocks
of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when the companys thought to have gained
stability already. The stock has a par value of P100.00 per share.
Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank the amount of
P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest, compounded annually.
How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his yearly
deposits?
476
478
480
482
Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to repay the loan in twenty
equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is still unpaid after he has made the tenth
payment?
P69,890.42
P72,000.80
P72,173.90
P72,311.44
A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by equal semi-annual
payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How much is the semi-annual payments?
P2,775.50
P2,662.89
P2,590.04
P2,409.78
A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE students. The fund
will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next five years and P10,000 each year
thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the fund is established. If the fund earns 8%
interest, what is the amount of the donation?
P99,490.00
P99,507.35
P99,601.71
P99,723.54
If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500 per month for 25
years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing balance?
0.492%
4.92%
0.0492%
49.2%
The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located along Butuanon river
is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the area from the floods, would cost
P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance cost of P20,000. With interest at 8%
compounded annually, how many years will it take for the dam to pay for itself?
4.0 years
4.5 years
5.0 years
5.5 years
A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00 per annum for the
first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay-off the loan?
P6,812.54
P6,782.31
P6,917.72
P6,660.90
Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank in six annual end-ofthe-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum compounded annually and is included in
the yearly amount he will be paying the bank. How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the
bank?
P250,000
P260,000
P270,000
P280,000
Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance Center an amount of
P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the balance payable in 24 equal monthly
instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each year computed on the total balance to be paid by
instalment and interest rate 12%, how much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV?
What will be the actual cost of the money?
36.71%
36.21%
35.89%
35.23%
Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used for their
refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The useful life of the machine is
estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as based on current prices. The average annual
rate of inflation during the next 5 years will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and
the firm will accumulate the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund
that earns 6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.
P277,189.56
P278,664.54
P279,180.00
P280,673.12
Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used for their
refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The useful life of the machine is
estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as based on current prices. The average annual
rate of inflation during the next 5 years will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and
the firm will accumulate the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund.
If money is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.
P367,890.12
P366,062.33
P365,089.34
P364,890.43
Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a finance company
instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as downpayment and P4,000 each
month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on the diminishing balance?
35.28%
35.82%
34.89%
34.29%
Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He can raise the building
by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year and repay the face amount at
maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being
due one year from now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax,
what is the difference between buying the building and leasing the building?
P233,779.27
P233,070.12
P234,070.34
P234,560.12
JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for construction works. There
were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids for the heavy equipments. The bids are as
follows:
Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable P1,000,000 annually for
8 years. Buyer B offers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down payment, the balance payable P500,000
semi-annually for 7 years.
How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?
P346,520.05
P346,980.12
P347,019.45
P347,733.29
Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting 2001. The program
requires the following estimated expenditures:
P1,000,000 at the end of 2001
P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003
To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform annual
deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of the fund is 2% per
annum. Calculate the annual deposit.
P217,520.05
P216,980.12
P217,679.01
P216,733.29
Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting 2001. The program
requires the following estimated expenditures:
P1,000,000 at the end of 2001
P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003
To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform annual
deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of the fund is 2% per
annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.
P2,185,902.11
P2,195,600.03
P2,165,399.54
P2,175,380.00
J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the following arrangements:
Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price
Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in equal annual
instalments for the next 4 years.
If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference between
buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.
P40.76
P41.90
P43.54
P45.95
Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offered for sale its two-storey building in the commercial district of
Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor and a number of offices on the second
floor.
A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10 years. He
estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be P350,000.00 and the
average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership and operation (maintenance and
repairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold
for a net of P2,000,000 at the end of the 10th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%,
determine the cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.
P2,526,768.61
P2,490,156.34
P2,390,189.00
P2,230,120.56
LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool. According to Jun Ramos
who is introducing the power tool, the new product will require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price
strategy. The product will generate cash proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years.
With a high price strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of
only one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value of the low
price strategy.
P34,389.12
P34,490.10
P34,518.89
P34,710.74
LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool. According to Jun Ramos
who is introducing the power tool, the new product will require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price
strategy. The product will generate cash proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years.
With a high price strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of
only one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value of the high
price strategy.
P32,727.27
P33,737.34
P33,747.20
P33,757.89
Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the building by issuing a 10%,
20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year and repay the face amount at maturity.
Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the
first payment due one year from now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge
for leasing is 12%, which of the following is true?
Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.
Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.
Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of P100,000 will be
required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that sales will be P150,000 per year and
that annual operating expenses will be as follows:
Materials
Labor
Overhead
Selling expenses
P40,000
P70,000
P10,000 + 10% of sales
P5,000
Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full time to the
operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by P10,000 per year, material cost
by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his
capital, is investing in this business a sound idea?
Yes, it is a sound idea
No, it is not a sound idea
Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
It depends on the current demand of the market.
A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash. However, she can
purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is worth 8% compounded annually,
what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to be made at the beginning of each year?
P2,617.65
P2,782.93
P2,890.13
P2,589.90
A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his senior year. He
promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-annual instalments, the first payment
to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How much will this payment be?
P252.12
P261.89
P273.90
P280.94
A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his sons 21st birthday. How much should he deposit every
6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded semi-annually, if the first deposit was
made when the son was 3 years old?
P829.68
P815.80
P830.12
P846.10
A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to invest P8,000,000 in
either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic operation. It is estimated that this
investment would return a net year end cash flow of P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end
of that time, the physical assets, which would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The
alternative opportunity would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This
operation would involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning
with the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running through the
end of the 10th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and facilities might be
expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of the following is true?
Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.
Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic operation.
A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of 2 years and a
sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4 years, to discharge all his
liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded annually. Find the annual payment which
must be made for 6 years.
P66,204.14
P65,701.67
P67,901.34
P68,900.12
Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in advance, with option to
renew the rent for another years by payment of P15,000 annually at the start of each year for the
renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be
paid annually in the renewed 5 years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the
fair prepayment to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?
P51,843.90
P51,346.58
P52,002.45
P52,740.20
NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an estimated cost of
P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end deposits in a fund earning 13%.
However, at the end of the 5th year, it was decided to have a larger building that originally intended to
an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00. What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?
P734,391.48
P742,890.10
P738,900.45
P740,010.86
The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.
Demand
Supply
Stocks
Goods
Work-in process is classified as:
An asset
A liability
An expenses
An owners equity
What is the highest position in the corporation?
President
Board of Directors
Chairman of the Board
Stockholders
Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.
Equitable
Public
Private
Pure
Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
Inflation
Depletion
Recession
Depreciation
An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-owners for profit.
Sole proprietorship
Company
Partnership
Corporation
We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as:
Nominal rate
Rate of return
Exact interest rate
Effective rate
It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
Discount
Luxury
Necessity
Utility
It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
Fair value
Market value
Book value
Salvage value
This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is
nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
Perfect competition
Oligopoly
Monopoly
Elastic demand
These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after
the required necessities have been obtained.
Utilities
Necessities
Luxuries
Products, goods and services
These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities, that will be purchased
in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably.
Utilities
Necessities
Luxuries
Products, goods and services
A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to
almost the same action of the others.
Oligopoly
Semi-monopoly
Monopoly
Perfect competition
Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
Authorized capital
Investment
Subscribed capital
Money market
The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.
Scrap value
Face value
Market value
Book value
Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
Discount
Credit
Interest
Profit
Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts
receivable and merchandise are called:
Total assets
Fixed assets
Current assets
None of the above
The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.
Physical life
Economic life
Operating life
All of the above
The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost.
Secondary cause
Escalatory clause
Contingency clause
Main clause
The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called
Book value
Capital recovery
Depreciation recovery
Sinking fund
Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called:
Profit margin
Gross margin
Net income
Rate of return
Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
Fair value
Market value
Salvage value
Book value
Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.
Initial investment
Current accounts
Working capital
Subscribed capital
A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
Monopoly
Monopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Bilateral oligopoly
Bilateral oligopsony
A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
Monopoly
Monopsony
Bilateral monopoly
Bilateral monopsony
A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.
Duopoly
Oligopoly
Duopsony
Oligopsony
The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning power of
equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

Interest rate
Time value of money
Yield
Defined as the future value minus the present value.
Interest
Rate of return
Discount
Capital
The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:
Capital recovery
Cash flow
Economic return
Earning value
An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd
year and 4th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the equivalent present worth of the
investment?
P3,129.89
P3,319.45
P3,372.12
P3,490.09
Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year,
respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end
of the 4th year?
P4,880.00
P4,820.00
P4,860.00
P4,840.00
Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year,
respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is the equivalent uniform
deposit for the uniform gradient only?
P670.81
P690.58
P660.53
P680.12
An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years, P4,500 on the second
year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year. What is the equivalent present worth of
the debt if interest is 5%?
P15,093.28
P15,178.34
P15,890.12
P15,389.82
An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year, P4,500 on the second
year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. Determine future amount of the amortization
if interest is 5%.
P18,030.56
P18,290.12
P18,621.89
P18,449.37
An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year, P4,500 on the second
year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is the equivalent uniform periodic
payment if interest is 5%?
P4,280.47
P4,378.17
P4,259.68
P4,325.12
An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average annual salary of
$5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire his services as a replacement of
the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the
rate of $400,000 annually. If he can still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which
one is true?
Chicago Bulls offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers
Chicago Bulls offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers
Chicago Bulls offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers
Chicago Bulls offer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers
John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel The Chamber sold its copyright to Warner Bros. for the
rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grishams has options between the following Warner Bros.
proposals:
An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.
An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movies gross receipts for the next 5 years which is
forecasted as follows:
End of
year
1
2
3
4
5
Gross receipt
4% of Gross Receipt
$10,000,000.00
$8,000,000.00
$6,000,000.00
$4,000,000.00
$2,000,000.00
$400,000.00
$320,000.00
$240,000.00
$160,000.00
$80,000.00
If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year of exhibition
of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?
P1,532,630
P1,390,090
P1,478,100
P1,289,450
Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14% compounded annually but on
different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year,
P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the third year and so on increasing the next years deposit by
10% of the deposit in the preceding year until the end of the 10th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just
making an equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10 years
and by how much bigger compared to the other sister?
Jocelyn, P671.18
Jocelyn, P763.27
Joan, P671.18
Joan, P763.27
Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at age 40. He wishes to
have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21st birthday, he deposited a certain amount
and increased his deposit by 15% each year until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super
savings account which earns 15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?
P17,253.18
P17,566.33
P17,672.77
P17,490.21
A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the annual maintenance
cost is increased by 20% each year every year for 10 years, what is the estimated present worth of the
maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?
P105,712.33
P106,101.37
P107,490.12
P108,890.11
The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial
contributors or claims of other based on profit.
Economic return
Yield
Earning value
Expected yield
The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:
Loan
Maturity value
Interest
Principal
The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an
investment.
Effective rate
Nominal rate
Rate of return
Yield
The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as a
percentage of the principal.
Interest
Interest rate
Investment
All of the above
The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known
as:
Expected return
Interest
Nominal interest
Effective interest
The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or service
in a stated region of the country.
Market value
Book value
Goodwill value
Franchise value
The recorded current value of an asset is known as:
Scrap value
Salvage value
Book value
Present worth
Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:
Book value
Salvage value
Replacement value
Future value
What is sometimes called second-hand value?
Scrap value
Salvage value
Book value
Going value
An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.
Book value
Fair value
Goodwill value
Going value
A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years. To
accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a sinking fund consisting of annual
deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of the
12th year?
P37,002.54
P37,520.34
P38,010.23
P38,782.34
A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient capital to retire its
outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years and their maturity value is
P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?
P13,084.58
P13,048.85
P13,408.58
P13,480.58
A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment?
3.0%
3.4%
3.7%
4.0%
A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is bearing interest of 6%
per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to earn 8% semiannually, how much
must he pay the certificate?
P90,123.09
P90,614.93
P90,590.12
P90,333.25
A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable annually is to be
redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030. Determine the yield at this price.
7.56%
7.65%
7.75%
7.86%
You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for P5,050 at the end of 10
years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?
3.56%
3.85%
3.75%
3.68%
A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 2004. It is
bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
P1,122.70
P1,144.81
P1,133.78
P1,155.06
The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to
establish a price acceptable to both parties.
Market value
Goodwill value
Fair value
Franchise value
A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period starting from the first
period.
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Perpetuity
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after
several periods, after the beginning of the payment.
Deferred annuity
Delayed annuity
Progressive annuity
Simple annuity
A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period.
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Perpetuity
Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?
The amounts of all payments are equal.
The payments are made at equal interval of time.
The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =
Ai
Ain
An/i
A/i
A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called
Load factor
Demand factor
Sinking fund factor
As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in
depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called
Annuity
Capital recovery
Annuity factor
Amortization
The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.
Scrap value
Depletion
Depreciation
Book value
A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciated
book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation applies.
Sinking fund method
SYD method
A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum due
to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
P222.67
P212.90
P236.20
P231.56
A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500. What is its book
value after 8 years using straight line method?
P2,000.00
P2,100.00
P2,200.00
P2,300.00
A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight and installation
charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will be depreciated over a period of
10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the depreciation cost during the 5th year using SYD.
P626,269.09
P623,209.09
P625,129.09
P624,069.89
ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost
should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of
service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
7 years
8 years
9 years
10 years
A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the salvage value is zero
at the end of the 20th year, what is the depreciation in the third year? Use SYD method.
P857.14
P862.19
P871.11
P880.00
An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00. What is the total
depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?
P45,000.00
P46,000.00
P47,000.00
P48,000.00
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years. What is the book
value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?
P30,000.00
P31,000.00
P30,500.00
P31,500.00
An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P1,000.00.
Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is used.
P7,545.45
P7,320.11
P7,490.00
P7,690.12
The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage value is 10% of the
cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at the end of the fourth year. Use
straight-line method.
P146,320.50
P146,000.00
P146,230.50
P146,023.50
An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be sold for
P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.
P1,545.45
P1,454.54
P1,344.21
P1,245.45
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years. Find the book value
after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.
P31,000.00
P31,500.00
P30,000.00
P30,500.00
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10 years. What is the
straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial cost?
10%
8%
7%
9%
A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at the end of 6 years.
Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value. What is the
annual rate of depreciation in %?
32.50%
32.25%
32.00%
32.75%
An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will be sold for
P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-years digit method.
P17,578.13
P17,412.43
P17,344.67
P17,672.73
A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when retired at the end of 10
years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value. What is
the annual rate of depreciation in %?
25%
26%
27%
28%
An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for
P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight line method.
P2,400.00
P2,412.34
P2,250.00
P2,450.00
An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of P30,000 for installation
and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of
the first cost. Using the straight line method of depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will
be P291,500. What is the value of x?
0.2
0.4
0.3
0.1
The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR approved life of this
machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value of the mill is P50,000 and the cost
of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the annual
depreciation charge?
P75,500.00
P76,000.00
P76,500.00
P77,000.00
The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR approved life of this
machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value of the mill is P50,000 and the cost
of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of
the machine at the end of six years?
P341,000.00
P343,000.00
P340,000.00
P342,000.00
A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage value is P2,500. Find
its depreciation rate by straight-line method.
18.89%
19.21%
19.58%
19.89%
A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost P360,000.00. Bank charges
arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and installation costs were P25,000.00. Other
incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00. Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after
20 years. Find the appraisal value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.
P234,000.00
P235,000.00
P234,500.00
P235,500.00
An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years. Calculate the annual
depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.
P791.26
P792.61
P726.17
P771.26
A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at the beginning of
that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.
P6,710.89
P6,400.89
P6,666.89
P6,512.78
A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the purchase and installation of
fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a total cost of P960 million. This amount
includes freight and installation charges estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable
shall be depreciated over a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per
annum, what is the annual depreciation charge?
P41,044,903.40
P41,211,158.40
P41,254,000.40
P41,244,253.40
An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for
P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit method.
P3,279.27
P3,927.27
P3,729.27
P3,792.72
A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5th year of the useful life
is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method, determine the depreciation charge
for the second year.
P99,658.41
P99,128.45
P99,290.00
P99,378.45
Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of P50,000,000.
The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P18,500,000. What is the
allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as
22%.
P9,358.41
P9,228.45
P9,250.00
P9,308.45
The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil
at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion charge during the year where it produces halfmillion barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion.
$500,000,000
$510,000,000
$525,000,000
$550,000,000
The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the end of its life of 4
years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the capitalized cost.
P540,090.34
P541,033.66
P540,589.12
P541,320.99
An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%, what is the
capitalized cost of perpetual service?
P310,000
P315,000
P320,000
P325,000
A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final salvage value of P800.
How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type of motor of the same purpose whose
life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of P1,000. Money is worth 4%.
P7,892.13
P7,157.40
P7,489.21
P7,300.12
A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is estimated to be
P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the appropriate rate of return on the
investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?
12.12%
12.54%
12.72%
12.99%
At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if the bridge must be
partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.
P297,308,323.10
P298,308,323.10
P296,308,323.10
P295,308,323.10
A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected to have a useful life of
15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a salvage value of P30,000. Determine its
capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded annually.
P323,500.33
P322,549.33
P332,509.33
P341,240.33
A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual maintenance cost is
estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the capitalized cost of the house?
P666,000.00
P666,666.67
P633,333.33
P650,000.00
An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil condition, costs P1,200.00. If
a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum justifiable amount that can be paid for the
treated pole, if the maximum return on investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance
amount to be 1% of the first cost.
P1,612.01
P1,559.50
P1,789.23
P1,409.38
A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4 years. If the resale
value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to yield an investment rate of 12%? Use
a sinking fund rate of 3%.
P550,540.57
P551,540.57
P552,540.57
P553,540.57
A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost per unit is P100,
variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995, how many units must be
manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if the monthly overhead is P461,600?
782
800
806
812
The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a forging is P56 per unit
and its selling price is P135 per forged unit, find the number of units to be forged to break-even.
892
870
886
862
A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of P76 each and variable
cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how many units must be manufactured each
month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000.
1,033
1,037
1,043
1,053
Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum manufactured cost
$160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturers break-even sales volume in drums per
year?
5,031
5,017
5,043
5,000
XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ corporation P35,000 per
year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on equipment, and salary
payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for
XYZ to avoid taking a loss?
2,334
2,443
2,223
2,322
A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200 motors a month. The
variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs
of the company amount to P20,000 per month which includes taxes. Find the number of motors that
must be sold each month to breakeven.
160
157
153
163
The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is P56 and its selling
price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged to breakeven.
1,000
1,012
1,015
1,018
A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for
the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the
maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand?
1.0 hours per unit
1.2 hours per unit
1.4 hours per unit
1.6 hours per unit
Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break even based on the
following data:
Cost of electricity per block- P20.00
Tax to be paid per block
- P2.00
Real Estate Tax
- P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages
Others
Selling price of ice
- P55.00 per block
1,220
1,224
1,228
1,302
JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per unit and material cost
of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are P15,000 per month and the variable costs
are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many
units must be produced and sold per month to breakeven?
120
124
128
130
General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of producing 150 motors a
month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the average selling price of the motor is P750.00
per motor. Fixed costs of the company amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes.
Determine the number of motors to be produced per month to breakeven.
100
104
110
112
A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or tinned wire. There
will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enamelled wire will be
P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55
per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of
cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be the same.
1,000 feet
1,040 feet
1,100 feet
1,120 feet
A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at P1,800 each.
Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The fixed operating cost per month
is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units were produced a month, determine the profit
or loss.
Profit of P121,666.67
Profit of P21,666.67
Loss of P121,666.67
Loss of P21,666.67
Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00 a pair and a material
cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P5,000,000 a month and the variable
costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at
P5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?
2,590
2,632
2,712
2,890
In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be made in structural
members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on the members and using a drill
press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An
alternative method is by the use of the multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage
rate is P20.00 per hour and he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes
to set the multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the same,
for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay for itself?
9,601
9,592
9,581
9,566
A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20 per piece, material
cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The fixed charge on the business is
P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be
manufactured in each month to breakeven?
3,045
3,035
3,030
3,040
The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales volume is 500,000 units
per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit. Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year.
What is the present total profit for a year?
P168,000
P170,000
P172,000
P174,000
The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales volume is 500,000 units
per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit. Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year.
What is the present breakeven point in units?
160,000
162,000
165,000
170,000
A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity of 700,000 units per
year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of the necessary foreign currency to
finance the importation of their raw materials. The annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs
are P190,000.00 and the variable costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?
P87,450
P88,960
P88,450
P87,960
A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity of 700,000 units per
year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of the necessary foreign currency to
finance the importation of their raw materials. The annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs
are P190,000.00 and the variable costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
294,560
291,000
290,780
295,490
A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At present, it is operating at
62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and
the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit of product. What is the firms annual profit or loss?
P814,320
P815,230
P816,567
P817,239
A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At present, it is operating at
62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and
the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit of product. What volume of sales does the firm
breakeven?
P3,354,680
P3,534,880
P3,155,690
P3,254,680
A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The shop can produce each
thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for each unit is P2,500.00. The variable
costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the
portable threshers are sold at P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per
annum to breakeven?
28
25
26
27
The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit, respectively. Fixed
charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100 per unit. If the product is sold at
P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold to breakeven?
280
250
260
270
The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company which manufactures and
sells a single automotive product line:
Unit selling price
Unit variable cost
Unit contribution margin
Total fixed costs
- P40.00
- P20.00
- P20.00
- P200,000.00
What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

10,000
10,100
10,050
10,200
The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and P370.00 for material.
The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per month. The variable cost is P10.00 per
set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each. Determine how many sets must be produced per month
to breakeven.
7,123
7,133
7,143
7,153
An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the following cost data:
Labor cost
Material cost
Fixed charges
Variable cost
- P10.00 per unit

- P15.00 per unit
- P10,000.00
- P8.00 per unit
What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of every 10 units produced is defective and is
rejected with only full recovery on materials?
P25,011
P25,111
P25,121
P25,132
A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of the
asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
Sinking fund method
SYD method
Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?
Sinking fund method
SYD method
A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real
or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the
end of the assets estimated life.
Sinking fund method
SYD method
The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting
from specific periodic deposits.
Sinking fund factor
Capacity factor
Demand factor
The first cost of any property includes:
The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges

Installation expenses
Initial taxes and permits fee
All of the above
In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n = number of useful years of
the equipment.
n(n1)
2
n(n+1)
2
n(n+1)
n(n-1)
Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:
Annual cost
First cost + Interest of the first cost
First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
First cost + Salvage value
The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available (referring to the natural
resources, coal, oil, etc).
Depreciation
Depletion
Inflation
Incremental cost
Is the simplest form of business organization.
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Enterprise
Corporation
An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business.
Sole proprietorship
Enterprise
Partnership
Corporation
A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do.
Sole proprietorship
Enterprise
Partnership
Corporation
Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
Enterprise
Which is NOT a type of business organization?
Sole proprietorship
Corporation
Enterprise
Partnership
What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?
3
5
10
7
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,
The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities.
The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.

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What are the different types of business organizations discussed in the document?

What are the different types of business organizations discussed in the document?

What are some factors that determine the breakeven point?

What are some factors that determine the breakeven point?

MULTIPLE CHOICE

VILLAMAYOR, DON RYAN M.

d. The force couple must be going on the same direction

1. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

Eledctrions and Protons

2. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?

3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?

4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge?

7. Who discovered the electron?

Joseph John Thomson

8. Who discovered the proton?

9. Who discovered the neutron?

10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?

12. How are substances classified?

19. How are elements classified?

Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids

20. What are the three states of matter?

Solid, Liquid and Gas

21. Compounds are mostly classified as:

Homogeneous and Heterogeneous

24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

Metals are neither malleable nor ductile.

26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

Feel slippery on the skin

28. An acid can react with base to produce a __________.

29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?

30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?

Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate

34. What is another term for chemical change?

39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?

40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?

Graham Law of diffusion

A. Law of multiple proportion

Atomic mass unit (amu)

48. What is the unit for a charge of a particle?

49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb?

50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?

51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?

52. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?

53. What is the mass of an electron in gram?

54. What is the mass of an electron in amu?

55. What is the mass of a proton in gram?

56. What is the mass of a proton in amu?

58. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?

60. The atomic number of an element is:

the sum of number of protons and electrons

62. What is an atom specific isotope called?

D. protons and electrons

68. What is density number of an atom?

C. The periodic law

Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich Mendeleev

73. What are the rows in the periodic table called?

74. Elements in Gropu1A in the periodic table are ______.