111 P/292123 1

Set No - 1

1951

Question Booklet No ...................................... .

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I I I I I I I

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[~

f.rffi

if 3lf.<rJr 3fm1'I-'f"3" 11<: ~ ~ f I 1

Total No. of Printed Pages: 18

11P/292123

No. of Questions: 150

Time : 2'h Hours J

[ Full Marks: 450

Note: (i) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (three)

marks. 1 (One) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark
will be awarded for each unattempted question.
(ii) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct
answer choose the closest one.
I

1.

On what evidence did Aristotle hypothesize on spontaneous generation?

(1) animalcules
(2) experiments with broth
(3) his belief in magic
(4) observing living things seemingly arise from non-living matter

2.

John Snow made what important contribution to microbiology?

(1) discovered the vaccine to cure cholera
(2) was an English physician
(3) mapped cholera cases in London and found their source
(4) discovered how to stain bacteria so they could be studied

3.

Who developed postulates to demonstrate that microorganisms caused

disease?
(1) Semmelweis
(2) Metchnikoff
(3) Koch
(4) Chamberland

4.

Christian Gram solved what important problem faced by microbiologists?

(1) how to kill Gram + and Gram - microbes
(2) how to view microbes and distinguish between two main types
(3) how to prevent the spread of infectious disease
(4) how to make microbes more attractive through the use of colorful dyes

(1)

P.T.C.

11P/292123

5.

Endospores are:
(1) reproductive structures of fungus
(2) living vegetative cells of bacteria
(3) dormant structures produced by stressed bacteria
(4) a type of vaccine

6.

Genetic recombination occurs in bacteria through the transfer of

(1) pili
(2) plasmids
(3) endospores
(4)

autosp(ln'~
c:,-,~<..'~

7.

Any process that results in the integration of new combinations (It

together in a single cell is :
(1) genetic recombination
(2) fusion
(3) genetic fission
(4) allclotyping

8.

Gene transfer in bacteria by transformation has the following charactcri.:;tic,:.

(1) a majority of the donor genes arc transferred
(2) it involves a plasmid
(3) it depends on phage infection of the recipient cell
(4) it can be carried out using free DNA extracted from the donor

9.

A transducing phage:
(1) contains only viral DNA
(2) may contain viral and bacterial DNA
(3) is sensitive to DNase
(4) can never transfer extrachromosomal genes

10.

Which of the following statements is false concerning a mating between F-.;... a:l.d
F- cell ?
(1) the F- cell is converted to an F+ cell
(2) the F+ cell is converted to an F- cell
(3) chromosomal genes are rarely transferred
(4) cell-to-cell contact is always necessary

11.

A viroid is made of :
(1) protein only
(3) genetic material only

12.

(2) capsid and genetic material

(4) a capsid only

When a virus invades a bacterium, gets that bacterial cell to make more copies
of the virus that eventually burst out of and kill that same bacterial cell, this is
called:
(1) lysogeny
(2) lytic replication (3) murder
(4) a priem
(2 )

11P/292/23

13.

Which of the following is not an acellular infectjous agent?

(1) viroid
(2) bacteria
(3) virus
(4) prion

14.

When a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome, it is called a :

15.

(1) virulent virus

(2) lytic virus

(3) prophage

(4) transducing virus

The infectious substance of prions is :

(1) protein

(2) glycophosphate

(3) RNA

(4) DNA

16.

The only structural pattern that has been found among isometric viruses is:
(1) icosahedral
(2) spherical
(3) helical
(4) tetrahedral

17.

Viruses are considered to be :

18.

(1) non-living

(2) primitivC' prC'cursors of bacteria

(3) a link between life and non-life

(4) primitive organisms

Which of the following is the arrangement of organisms into groups or taxa?

(1) nomenclature

19.

(3) systematics

(4) classification

Deoxyribose is :
(1)

20.

(2) identification

C,H,oO S

An amino acid without asynunetrical carbon atom is :

(1) Histidine

(2) Threonine

(3) Phenylalanine

(4) Glycine

21.

Decreasing order concentration of minerals inside the cell is ;

(2) K-Ca-Na
(3) K-Na-Ca
(4) Na-K-Ca
(1) Ca-K-Na

22.

Which one is a lipid?

(1) Stachyose
(2) Lycopene

(3) Leucine

(4) Sterol

Anticodon occurs in :
(1) DNA
(2) tRNA

(3) mRNA

(4) rRNA

{3) Potassium

(4) Magnesium

23.
24.

What is a constituent of natural silk?

(1) Phosphorus

25.

(2) Nitrogen

Which enzyme can digest the plant proteins?

(1) Renin

(2) Erepsin

(3) Pepsin

(3)

(4) All the above"

P.T.G.

llP1292123
26.

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) that takes part in catalysis of pyruvate to lactate

is an example of :
(1) Isoenzyme
(2) Zymogen
(3) Coenzyme
(4) Apoenzyme

27.

Facultative anaerobes are:

(1) Strictly aerobes
(2) Aerobes which can respire anaerobically
(3) Strictly anaerobe
(4) Anaerobes which can respire anaerobically

28.

Term bacteria was coined by

(1) Pasteur
(2) Kotch

29.

(3) Whittakar

(4) Ethcmberg

Mycolic acid occurs in the wall of a pathogen which causes:

(1) Diptheria

(2) Tuberculosis

(3) Tetanus

30.

Which of the following is an antifungal drug?

(1) Metronidazole
(2) Streptomycin
(3) Amphotericin B
(4) Tobramycin

31.

Rifampicin acts by inhibiting:

(1) DNA synthesis
(3) RNA synthesis

(4) Cholera

(2) Protein synthesis

(4) Cell wall synthesis

32.

Biodiesel is produced from fats/ oil through a process known as :

(1) Esterification
(2) Hydrolysis
(3) Transesterification
(4) Condensation

33.

Prednisolon is :

(1) Antibiotic
34.

(2) Steroid

(3) Enzyme

(4) Vitamin

Enzyme immobilization is :
(1) Conversion of an active enzyme into inactive form
(2) Providing enzyme with protective covering
(3) Changing a soluble enzyme into insoluble state
(4) Changing pH so that enzyme is not able to carry out its function

35.

Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology for:

(1) Monoclonal antibodies
(2) Myelomas

(3) Immobilization of enzymes

(4) Lymphocytes

(4)

11P/292/23

36.

Which of the following is an anion exchanger:

(1) DEAE-Sephadex
(2) CM-Sephadex
(3) Cellulose
(4) Starch

37.

Subunits of ribosomes dissociates from each other, if:

(1) Mg'+ > 10-2 M

(2) Na+ > 10-3 M

(3) Mg'+ > 10-3 M

(4) Na+ > 10-2 M

38.

Gentle treatment of DNA with 1mM HClleads to :

(1) Disruption of sugar phosphate backbone
(2) No effect on sugar phosphate backbone
(3) Produce pyrimidine free polynucleotide
(4) No effect on DNA

39.

In a peptide nucleic acid (PNA) :

(1) Sugar is replaced by amino acid
(2) Phosphate group is replaced by amino acid
(3) Sugar- phosphate backbone is replaced by peptide
(4) N-bases are replaced by amino acids

40.

A solenoid in a chromosome represents:

(2) 6 nucleosomes/turn
(1) 10 nucleosomes/turn
(3) 8 nucleosomes/turn
(4) 12 nucleosomes/turn

41.

Toroidal state of supercoiling may exists in:

(1) negatively supercoiled DNA
(2) Positively supercoiled DNA

(3) either
42.

(4) None of the above

Tus protein:
(1) is contrahelicase
(2) inhibits ATP dependent DnaB helicase activity
(3) blocks progression of replication fork

(4) all olthe above

43.

RNase H has :
(1) exonuclease activity for DNA:RNAhybrids
(2) endonuclease activity for DNA:RNAhybrids
(3) exonuclease activity for RNA:RNAhybrids
(4) endonuclease activity for RNA:RNAhybrids

(5 )

P.T.D.

11 P/292123

44.

50S response can be activated by :

(1) purine dimmers
(2) misincorporation of bases in DNA

(3) methylated base

(4) quinolone antibiotic induced breaks in DNA
45.

46.

47.

In a type of DNA damage, cyclobutyl ring is formed. It is due to :

(1) bulging due to insertion

(2) UV irradiation

(3) breaks within deoxyribose ring

(4) breaks at phosphodiester bonds

Isoschizomers have the same:

(1) recognition site

(2) cleavage site

(3) both (1) & (2)

(4) Origin

Homopolymer tailing is useful in:

(1) ligation of blunt ends

(3) ligation of single stranded DNA
48.

50.

(2) screening of recombinants

52.

(4) translation

DpnI is the restriction enzyme which recognizes:

(1) two GC dinucleotides

(2) octanucleotide sequence

(3) hexanucleotide sequence

(4) methylated A residues

Rare cutters for mammalian DNA is :

(1) Eco RI

51.

(4) None of the above

Insertional inactivation is related to :

(1) DNA damage and repair

(3) termination of DNA replication

49.

(2) ligation of cohesive ends

(3) Bss HIT

(2) Bam HI

(4) Pst I

Which one of the following is the requirement for restriction by a restriction

endonuclease type II :
(1) ATP

(2) Mg2+

(3) A TP & Mg2+

(4) ATP, Mg2+ & SAM

DNA fragments obtained by direct chemical synthesis can be joined to vectn

suitably by :

(1) Homopolymer tailing

(3) linker molecules

(2) blunt end ligation

(4) ligation of cohesive termini

(6 )

11 P/292f23

53.

Required number of recombinants, to achieve 95% probability of including any

particular sequence in a random human genomic DNA library of 20kb
fragment size is (size of human genome = 2.8 x 106 kb) :
(1) 4.2 x 10'

54.

(3) 4.5 x 106

(2) 6.5 x 106

(4) 1.4 x 105

Which one of the following is not a limitation for eDNA cloning?

(1) larger mRNA are difficult to deal
(2) all RNAs do not possess 3 'poly(A) tail
(3) eDNA libraries are rich in 3' -terminal sequence
(4) presence of poly (A) tails in mRNAs

55.

DNA chimaeras is a term corresponding to :

(1) multiple copies of DNA

(2) DNA:RNA hybrids

(3) gene manipulation

(4) circular DNA

56.

Stringency control during hybridization of nucleic acids on membrane is

commonly controlled by :
(1) temperature
(2) time
(3) concentration of probe
(4) length of probe

57.

Organisms growing under high pressure have increased proportion in their

cytoplasmic membrane of :
(2) Saturated fatty acids
(1) Protein
(3) lipids
(4) Unsaturated fatty acids

58.

OmpH protein is synthesized in :

(2) Thermophiles
(1) Barophiles

(3) Acidophiles

(4) Alkalophiles

59.

Trophosome tissue of tube worm living near thermal vents harbour symbiotic:
(1) Hydrogen oxidizing bacteria
(2) Sulfur oxidizing bacteria
(3) Nitrifying bacteria
(4) Iron oxidizing bacteria

60.

Which one of the following plays role in "e-cycle" under anoxic conditions:

61.

(1) Homoacetogen

(2) methanotrophs

(3) Chemolithotrophs

(4) Green algae

.6. G for overall reaction of methanogenesis (4H z + CO2 -t CH4 + 2H20) is :

(1) 130.7 kJ/reaction

(2) -130.7 kJ/reaction

(3) 143.8 kJ/reaction

(4) -143.8 kJ/reaction

(7)

p.T.a.

11P1292123

62.

bacterial fermentation of glucose released through cellulose hydrolysis in

rumen produces:
(1) Unsaturated fatty acids
(2) CO,
(4) Volatile fatty acids

(3) Alcohol

63.

Conversion of NOi to N 20/NO under anoxic conditions is carried out by:

(1) Pseudomonas

64.

(2) Nitrobacter

(3) Nitrosomonas

(4) Rhizobium

Which one of the following herbicides has longest persistence in soil:

(1) 2,4 D

(2) Dalapin

(3) Simazine

(4) Atrazine

65.

Protein that play role in attachment of rhizobium to plant root is :

(2) Rhicadhesin
(3) Rhizobin
(4) Lecithin
(1) Adhesin

66.

Microorganism attached to opaque surface such as soil can be seen by :

(1) Light microscopy
(2) Phase contrast microscopy
(3) Nomarskyeffect
(4) Scanning electron microscoPY

67.

Which of the following control measures is designated to break the connectior

between the source of the infection and susceptible individuals?
(1) Quarantine and isolation of cases and/or carrier
(2) Destruction of an animal reservoir of infection
(3) Treatment of sewage to reduce water contamination
(4) Destruction of vectors by spraying with insecticides

68.

In relation to bacterium's optimal growth requirements, which group woul,

you expect to be most likely involved in decomposition of compost piles?
(1) Acidophiles
(2) Psychrophiles (3) Mesophiles
(4) Thermophile,

69.

. ......... is the process in which microorganisms are us~d as a food soure

resulting in nitrogen and phosphorous mineralization.
(2) Ammonification
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Microbivory
(4) Eutrophication

70.

A microbial community that develops in puddles in low areas and retained c

the soil surface is called a :
(1) Zooglea
(2) Desert crust
(3) Mychorrhizae (4) Microfilm

71.

The nitrogen~fixation form of the Rhizobium bacterium is called a :

(1) Bacteroid
(2) Symbiosome
(3) Infection thread
(4) T-plasmid

(8 )

11 P1292123

72.

One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is :

(1) Burning
(2) Dumping
(3) Burying
(4) Recycling

73.

In nutrient cycles in general, minerals tend to be dispersed through .......... .

(1) Plant action
(2) Surface and subsurface runoff
(4) Assimilation
(3) Evaporation

74.

. ........... fixes carbon in green plants as simple sugars.

(1) Denitrification
(3) Carbonation
75.

(2) Photosynthesis
(4) Hydrolysis

Microbial diversity is reflected as variation in :

(1) Adaptation to environments

(3) Metabolic strategies

76.

(2) Cell size and morphology

(4) All of the above

Benthic plants are:

(1) Too small to be seen with the naked eye
(2) Terrestrial plants living adjacent to lakes and waterways
(3) Also called cyanobacteria or blue-green algae
(4) Aquatic plants rooted in the river or lake bottom

77. The exponential phase in the growth curve in hatch culture is as; dx/dt=)..lx
where )..l represents:
(1) concentration of microbial biomass (2) specific growth rate per hour

(3) Refractive index

(4) naturallogarithrn

78. Substrate accelerated death occurs when a cell is transferred into:

(2) acidic medium
(1) nutrient deficient medium
(4) nutrient rich medium

(3) basic medium

79. Zinc is an :
(1) essential element

(2) trace element

(3) micro element

(4) macro element

80. One mole of glucose via oxidative phosphorylation liberates:

(1) 40ATP

(2) 30ATP

(3) 25 ATP

(4) 20 ATP

81. The destruction of micro-organisms is described as a :

(1) Zero Order Reaction
(2) First Order Reaction

(3) Second Order Reaction

(4) Third Order Reaction

(9)

P.T.D.

11 P1292123

82.

83.

Baker's Yeast is:

(1) Saccharomyces ludwigi
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisae

(2) Saccharomyces mycoides

(4) Saccharomyces ellipsoids

Active innoculum will give:

(1) Log phase
(3) Stationary phase

(2) Lag phase

(4) Death phase

84.

Increase in the population number of cells in a culture is known as :

(1) Biomass growth
(2) Population growth
(3) Cen growth
(4) Tissue growth

85.

The Waldhof type Fermenter is made up of:

(1) Carbon steel and cladin stainless steel
(2) Silicon and stainless steel
(3) Pyrex glass
(4) Mica and stainless steel

86.

Which can be used as antifoaming agent?

(1) Media
(2) Oils
(3) Nutrient

87.

Penicillin is derived from:

(1) Penicillium notatum
(3) Perticillium chrysogenum

(4) Amino acid

(2) Penicillium claviforme

(4) Perticillium glaucum

88.

Microbial population maintained in which phase for long time usmg

continuous culture system:
(1) Lag
(2) Exponential
(3) Death
(4) Stationary

89.

Cell density in .......... . is controlled by increasing and decreasing flow of

culture medium:
(1) Chemostat
(2) Turbidostat
(3) Continuous culture
(4) Synchronous culture

90.

Animal cell media contains:

(1) RBC
(2) WBC

91.

(4) Serum

The common cause of foarning in formation in fermentation is due to :

(1) Carbohydrate
92.

(3) Platelet

(2) Lipids

(3) Proteins

(4) Vitamins

The process of fermentation is carried out in the absence of :

(1) Vitamins

(2) Sugars

(3) Oxygen

( 10 )

(4) Amino acids

11 P/292f23
93.

Beer is most accurately defined as :

(1) A beverage containing alcohol and made from cereals and hops
(2) A carbonated, alcoholic beverage flavoured with hop compounds
(3) A beverage made by fermenting sugars derived from barley, adjuncts and
hops
(4) A beverage made by fermenting sugars extracted from malted barley and
flavoured with hops

94.

Which one of the following is being measured to determine the bitterness level
in beer?
(1) Hop oil

95.

(2) Beta acids

(3) Iso-alpha acids (4) Alpha acids

Medical Microbiology is :
(1) A branch of medicine
(2) A branch of microbiology
(3) A branch of medicine & microbiology
(4) None of above

96.

97.

Which is not a Gram positive bacteria?

(1) Staphylococcus

(2) Lactococcus

(3) Mycobacterium

(4) Escherichia

Which of the following is rod shaped bacterium?

(1) Neisseria

98.

(2) Enterococcus

(3) Clostridium

(4) None of above

What is pathogen?
(1) A biological agent causes disease to the host
(2) A biological agent provide support to the host
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of above

99.

What is commensal?
(1) A relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits but the
other is unaffected
(2) A pathogen
(3) relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits but the
other one is harmed
(4) None of above

( 11 )

P.T.D.

11P/292123

100.
101.

Which is a commensal ?
(1) Staphylococcus (2) Clostridium

(3) Neisseria

What is pyrogens ?
(1) A class of bacteria
(3) Toxins produced by pathogen

(2) A disease
(4) None of above

102.

What is a opportunistic infection ?

(1) Infections in ill person
(2) Infection in healthy person
(3) Infection caused by other than pathogens
(4) A disease

103.

Reason of immunodeficiency is :
(1) Recurrent infections
(3) Cancer chemotherapy

104.

(4) E. Coli in gut

(2) Malnutrition
(4) All of above

Which is a waterborne disease?

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Trichomoniasis (3) Leishmaniasis

(4) None of above

105.

African sleeping sickness is caused by :

(2) Giardia lamblia
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(4) Toxoplasma Gondii
(3) Trypanosoma brucei

106.

Which is not a protozoal disease?

(1) Malaria
(2) Amoebiasis

(3) Gingivitis

Method for viral diagnosis is:

(1) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Sequencing of genome

(2) Polymerase chain reaction

(4) All of above

107.

108.

109.

110.

(4) None of above

Which is not belong to same class?

(1) Bacteriophage (2) Staphylococcus (3) Clostridium

(4) None of above

A protozoal disease caused by sexual contact:

(1) Trichomoniasis (2) Leishmaniasis (3) Babesiosis

(4) None of above

Which is not related term with SID ?

(1) Sexually transmissible diseases
(2) Sexually transmitted infection
(3) Venereal disease
(4) All of above
( 12 )

11P1292123

111.

Which is not a antimicrobial agent?

(1) Antibiotic

112.

113.

114.

115.

(2) Analgesic

(3) Antifungal

(4) Antiparasitics

Which class of antimicrobial is not used in living object ?

(1) Antibiotics

(2) Disinfectant

(3) antiviral

(4) All of the above

What is the reason of drug resistance?

(1) Excessive use of drug

(2) Prescribing low doses

(3) Self medication

(4) All of above

What is the meaning of term refractory?

(1) reflex action

(2) reference drug

(3) patient fail to respond to a drug

(4) Response of a drug

The term 'rhizosphere was coined by :

(1) Kloepper

(2) Weller

(3) Lister

(4) Hiltner

116.

Which of the following microorganism can be used as biofertilizer ?

(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Salmonella
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Lactococcus

117.

PGI'R is:
(1) Plant Growth Preventing Rhizobacteria
(2) Popular Growth-hormone Producing Rhizohactcria'
(3) Plant Growth Promoting Rhizobacteria
(4) Popular Growth Promoting Rhizobacteria

"8.

"9.

120.

Bacteriocins are produced from species of ?

(1) Pseudomonas

(2) Lactobacillus

(3) Agrobacterium

(4) Clostridium

The nitrogenase enzyme complex is comprised of :

(2) Dinitrogenase reductase
(1) Dinitrogenase
(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Nitrogenase carboxylase

VAMi"
(1) Ectomycorrhizae

(2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Actinomycetes

(4) Endomycorrhizae
(13)

P.T.O.

11P1292123
121.

Pesticides include:
(1) Fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, nematicides, and rodenticides
(2) Insecticides only
(3) Herbicides, insecticides and nernaticides
(4) Insecticides, nematicides and rodenticides

122.

The common mode of action of most insecticides is through the attack on :

(1) Respiratory system
(2) Nervous system
(3) Muscular system
(4) Circulatory system

123.

A carbamate pesticide is :
(1) Propoxur
(3) Atrazine

(2) Simazine
(4) Tetraethyl pyrophosphate

124.

The chemical fertilizer required for better rhizobial nitrogen fixation is :

(1) Phosphorus
(2) Potassium
(3) Calcium
(4) Sodium

125.

A green manure is :
(1) Rice

126.

(2) Sorghum

(3) Maize

Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are:

(2) Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers

(1) Decomposers
(3) Symbiotic nitrogen fixers
127.

(4) Pathogenic bacteria

Triticale is man made cereal obtained through hybridization between:

(1) Wheat and rice

(3) Wheat and oat
128.

(2) Wheat and rye

(4) Wheat and gram

Producing new plants by cells instead of seeds is :

(1) Tissue culture

129.

(2) Biofertilizer

(4) Meromixis

(2) Genetic engineering

(4) Confusion technique

Source of Bt gene used for production of transgenic plants is :

(1) Pseudomonas
131.

(3) Amphimixis

The phenomenon of using a predator for controlling a pest is :

(1) Biological control

(3) Artificial control
130.

(4) Sesbania

(2) Brevibacillus

(3) Lactobacillus

(4) Bacillus

Genes for biodegradation of xenobiotics by Pseudomonas are located on :

(1) Plasmids

(2) Genome

(3) Transcriptome (4) Proteome

( 14 )

11P/292123

132.

133.

The first stable product of N2 fixation is :

(1) Nitrite
(2) Nitrate
(3) Ammonia

(4) Nitric oxide

Bread Mold is :
(2) Rhizopus stolonifer

(1) Saccharomyces cerevesiae

(3) Mucor rouzii

(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

134.

Which of the following is not used as a Food preservative?

(1) Citric acid
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Propionic acid
(4) Picric acid

135.

Microbial Quality of milk is generally estimated by :

(1) MBRT
(2) Culture techniques
(3) Turbidity test
(4) MPN test

136.

Ultra-High Temperature (UHT) milk is pasteurized at :

(1) 133"C for 2 sec
(2) 140-150"C for 1-5 sec
(3) 100"C for 5 min.
(4) 100"C for 10 min.

, 37.

Staphylococcal gastroenteritis is :
(1) Food Poisioning
(3) Infection

(2) Cancer
(4) Food disorder

138.

CI, C2, C3 are produced by Staphylococcus aureus. They are:

(2) Endotoxin
(1) Alfatoxins
(3) Enterotoxins
(4) Viral toxins

139.

HACCP system was developed by :

(1) NACMCF

140.

(3) WHO

(4) UNESCO

(2) 6.2

(3) 6.6

(4) 6.3

pH of milk is :
(1) 6.1

141.

(2) FDA

The Decomposition of animal proteins by anaerobic microorganisms is known

as:

(1) Ropiness

(2) Mouldiness
(4) Sliminess

(3) putrefaction
142.

Toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum is :

(1) enterotoxin

(2) exotoxin

(3) Neurotoxin

(4) Mycotoxin
(15)

P.T.O.

11P1292123
143.

The organism responsible for yoghurt formation is :

(1) Streptococcus salivarius
(2) Streptococcus salivarius ssp. thermophilus
(3) Lactobacillus thermophilus
(4) Streptococcus bulgaricus

144.

The most common qualitative test carried out for foods is:
(1) Aerobic Plate count
(2) Measurement of ATI'
(3) Using Direct filter technique
(4) Direct mK:rosmpic <DUD!

145.

Botulism is caused by :
(1) Staphylococcus aureus
(3) Clostridium batulinum

146.

147.

(2) Lactobacillus,.,.".".".
(4) Pediococcus trUblcti

Milk spoilage is caused by species of:

(2) Bacillus

(3) Leuconostoc

(4) Yeast

'Koji' process is used for the production of :

(1) Soy sauce

149.

(4) SaI~ typIri

Tempeh is produced from:

(1) Rhizopus oligosporus
(3) Pediococcus halophilus

(1) Mucor

148.

(2) Clostridium petftiA1A5

(2) Tempeh

(3) Cheese

(4) Sauerkraut

(3) 72'C for 15 s

(4) 8O"C for 20 s

Milk is pasteurized at :
(1) 70'C for 20 s

(2) 65"C for 10 s

150. In HACCP, P stands for:

(1) Hazard analysis critical control pasteurization
(2) Hazard analysis critical control points
(3) Hazard analysis critical control pressure
(4) Hazard analysis critical control product

( 16 )

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