PROMETRIC 20142015 MCQs

1.

In the preparation of Premolar class I cavity what is the best

way of getting retention,
A. Slightly done undercut of the mesial and distal walls
B. Slightly done undercut of the buccal and
lingual walls C. The convergence of the cavity walls
2. In respect to Class V
A. it occurs on the buccal groove
(fissure) B. it occurs on the lingual
groove (fissure) C. it is a result of
bad oral hygiene
3.

After the placement of a class I amalgam the patient comes back to

you complaining of pain on masticating and biting; what is the first
thing you would look at,
A. Occlusal
height B.
Contacts areas
4.

Child comes to your clinic with a fractured incisor 3 mm supergingival, how would you treat the case,
A. Formocretasol
pulpotomy B. Calcium
hydroxide pulpotomy C.
Pulpectomy
D. Direct
capping E.
Indirect capping
5. What is Antes Law about,
A. The relation between the span of the bridge and the
poetics B. The periodontal area of the abutment teeth
C. The relation between the length of the root and the abutment.
6. What is the best way to cement
Maryland bridge, A. GIC
B. Resin
C. High compression restorative
resin D. Zinc Phosphate cement
E. Oxide Zinc and eugenol
7.

The ideal length of core in the fabrication of crown and core of

endodontically treated tooth is,
A. 1.5 of crown length
B. The length of the
crown C. 2/3
tooth/root length D.
root length
8.

If aesthetic is not a concern what is the first thing to do to treat

soreness under dentures,
A. Take the denture of for a
week B. Rinse the denture in
nystatin
C. Apply tissue conditioner
9.

While you finishing a class I cavity, the enamel is sound but you
noticed in the dentine and on the Dento-enamel junction a brown
line, what is your response,
A. You leave it and complete the final
restoration B. You extend you

preparation and clean it

C. You apply a cover of varnish
10. Dental caries of the proximal surfaces are
usually start at, A. Somewhere between the ridge and
the contact area
B. Just gingival to contact
areas C. Just about the
gingival margin
11. What is the property of high copper amalgam

A. Reduced physical
creep B. Higher retention
12. In regards to colours what is Chroma
stands for, A. Degree of saturation of hue
B.
Brightness C.
Value
D. Contrast
13. Frankfort plane extends
from, A.
horizontally from
Sella to nasion B. Sagittal from
.
C. Horizontally from point on superior aspect of external
auditory meatus to orbitale
14. Which of the following local anaesthetic is indicated in case of the
need to long acting one after a surgical operation,
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
15. In respect to Lidocaine 2% with 1:100000
vasoconstrictor, A. The toxic threshold is 22ml
B. 8.8 ml is the maximum you can give in one session
16. Which one of this restorative method will be LEAST
compromised by a core, A. Amalgam
B.
Composite C.
GIC
D. Cast gold
17. In preparing a very small proximal amalgam cavity on a molar
tooth what would consider,
A. Extend the cavity to the gingival margin
B. Extend the cavity beyond the contacts
areas C. Achieve at least 2mm in dentine
D. Extend cavity just beyond dento enamel junction
18. What is true about partial dentures,
A. They cause an immediate changes in the oral plaque
behaviour B. Night wearing of dentures reduces plaque
accumulation
C. Relieving the gingival area reduces the gingival enlargement.
19. The biting load of denture base to tissues compared to
teeth are, A. Ten times more
B. Ten times
less C. Equal
20. Compound is,
A. Very accurate compression
material B. Thermoplastic
material
21. the different between normal stone and the
dye stone is, A. In the particles size
B. The amount of water
22. What sort of reaction happens in the GIC
restorations, A. Acid Base reaction

23. A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled with
Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks, what your initial
management will be,
A. Remove the restorative material and start an Endontic treatment
B. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative
temporary material C. Place a coat of bonding material on the old
composite

24. Throbbing pain increases with heat and cold stimuli, the
MOST probable diagnosis is,
A. Cyst
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Advanced pulpitis
25. In making your custom trays which of the
following is true, A. A uniform thickness is required
B. Perforation is better
C. Only adhesive is better than perforation
26. The beam that leaves the target is
called, A. The primary X-ray
B. The electrons
C. The secondary
rays D. X-rays
photons
27. The most common cause of caries in
children is, A. Soft diet
B. High intake of
carbohydrate C. Poor oral
hygiene
28. The best storage media for avulsed
tooth is, A. Saline
B. Milk
C.
Water D.
Saliva
29. An occlusal approaching clasp TIP,
A. Should occupy a predetermined
undercut B. Contact the tooth under
the survey line C. Rigid
30. In the construction of partial denture the surveyor is
not used to, A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication
of the working cast
B. Locate the guide planes
C. Determine the location of indirect
retainers D. Identify any undesirable
undercuts
31. The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over
.. rubber is, A. Retains high flow
B. Prevents the colonization of Candida
albicans C. Resilient in long run
D. Better bond strength
32. The main purpose of finishing the enamel
walls is, A. Remove loose enamel rods
B. Provide a better surface for the adoption of restorative material
33. A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent pain in
heavily restored central incisor; you suspect pulpitis and you have
been told that she is in transit leaving by plane next day. Your
treatment will be,
A. Remove flling and place a sedative dressings
B. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix
dressings C. Prescribe analgesics and systemic
antibiotic
34. which of the following is true regarding TMJ dysfunction,
A. It is always due to arthritis, should be treated with NSAIDS before

attempting surgery B. Raising bite increases the space in the joint and
should be attempted before
surgery
C. It is mostly due to the medial movement of the condylar head over the glenoid fossa
35. the location of Class V
is in, A. The buccal pit
/fissure/
B. The occlusal
surface C. The
cervical third

36. Occlusal cavity with extension of the buccal fissure is

classified as, A. Class II
B. Class
III C.
Class I
37. Which of the following does not afect the elasticity of
retentive clasp? A. Length of the arm
B. The cross section
shape C. The material
used
D. The undercut area
38. Following calcium hydroxide pulpotomy, the dentist would
expect dentine bridge to form at,
A. The exact level of amputation
B. Level some where below the
amputation C. Half way between
amputation and apex
D. At the apical region of the tooth
39. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future
recession of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least
minimised by,
A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice
B. Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one third
of the crown C. Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one
fifth of the crown
D. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown
40. A partial denture that seats on the master cast but fails to seat
correctly in the mouth is a result of,
A. Contraction of the metal framework during
casting B. Insuficient expansion of the
investment material C. Distortion of
impression
D. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts
41. Which of the following muscles may afect the borders of
mandibular complete denture?
A. Mentalis
B.
Lateral
pterygoid
C.
Orbicularis oris
D. Levator oris
E. Temporalis
42. Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been established. The
maxillary cast has been mounted on the articulator without facebow and you decided to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by
4 mm. this will necessitate,
A. Opening the articulator 4
mm B. A new centric
relation record
C. Changes in the condylar guide
settings D. Increase in the vertical
dimension
43. What is correct in regards to high copper amalgam,
A. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its dispersion properties
B. Reacts to form copper-tin phase thereby eliminating the tinmercury phase C. Reacts to form copper-silver phase thereby
eliminating the silver mercury phase D. Reacts and strengthens the

amalgam by its grain diffusion

44. What is the best way to get optimum adoption of
ceramic to metal, A. Slow firing
B. High compression
45. What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal
obturation material?
A. For their antibiotic action
B. For their antiinflammatory
action C. To relief pulp pressure

46. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

Smokers Keratosis? A. Typically affects the hard palate
B. Minor mucous glands are swollen with red
orifices C. There is a little regression if
smoking is stopped

S e p te m b e r 2 0 0 4
Paper 2 MCQs
1. The blood supply to the denture bearing areas of
the maxilla A. Superior Maxillary artery
B. Grand/greater palatine artery
2. What could be MOST cariogenic,
A. Consuming a lot of carbohydrate with meals
B. Consuming a lot of elective sweets during
meals C. Excessive consumption of sugar soft
drinks all day D. Consumption of elective
sweets between meals
3.

13 years old boy comes to you with excessive hyperplasia of the

gingiva as a result of Phenytoin what is your management,
A. Stop the medication
B. Force a strict oral hygiene and surgical removal of excess
gingival tissues C. Debridement and conservative approach
4.

During swallowing, a) suprahyoid muscles relax b) masseter

contract c) tongue touches the palate
A. a and
b B.
a
and c C.
b and c
D. none of the
above E. all of
the above
5.

White man 56 years old comes to you with a brown spot on his
gingiva and another one on his oral mucosa, when taking the
history he mentioned a weight and memory lost. He as well
complains of headaches. What is your most probable diagnosis,
A. Addisons
disease B.
Hyperthyroidism
6.

While removing the second primary molar of 9 years old child,

the apical of the root fracture and stay in the socket,
A. You will just leave it and
observe it B. You take surgically by
a lingual flap
C. You try to take out by using a root apex
elevator D. You use a fine end forceps to take
it out
7. Subgingival plaque changes
from, A. gram positive to gram
negative
B. gram negative to gram positive

8. What is the most important factor to reduces dental

irradiation, A. Speed of flm
B.
Collimation C.
Filtration
D. Cone shape and length
9. With view to Nitrous Oxide what is the major
pharmacological problem? A. Contraindicated in pregnancy
B. Contra indicated in cardiac dysrhythmias

C. Diffusion hypoxia at the end of the case due to slow solubility of

the agent in blood
10. Which of the following is an expansile lesion of the
oral mucosa, A. Keratocyte
B. Radicular
cyst C.
Cementoma
11. the initial therapy in HIV patient is,
A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth
rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach
12. The concentration of Fluoride in the
topical NaF A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D.
10%
13. Which of the following most probable does not exist in the kids
acute gingivitis, A. Spirochetes
B. Streptococcus
C.
Staphylococcus
14. Which of the following is true about
warfarin, A. INR of 3 is enough to start
any extraction
15. What is not true about tobacco smoking,
A. Redox potential is reduced resulting in anaerobic
bacteria B. It is immuno-suppressive
C. It is adrenergic
16. patient in your dental chair shows chest pain, weak pulse and
dysponea, what is your initial management,
A. Give a nitro-glycerine tablet and keep the patient up seated /This
answers is for any of the angina symptoms
B. Put the patient in supine position
C. Do nothing and wait until the symptoms go
17. What are two teeth connected at the cementum called,
A.
Concrescence
B. Dilaceration
C.
Gemination D.
Fusion
18. Developer contaminated with other chemical and was not mixed
properly. What is the effect on the X-ray film?
A. Too dark
film B. Light
film
C. Foggy
19. Which part of the cranium is considered as the most
stable area, A. Frankfort plane
B. Occlusal plane
C. Anterior cranial plane
D. Anterior nasal to gnathion.
20. the difficulty of placing matrices on deciduous dentition is a result of,

A. The small mouth of kids which result in problem keeping the matrices in
their mouths B. The occlusal convergence of the deciduous teeth
21. What would you expect to see a year after Auto- transplantation
of tooth in a prepared socket,
A. New well formed periodontal ligament
B. Degree of external resorption and fibrous
tissues C. New well formatted lamina dura

22. Which muscle will keep the fractured segment of the jaw
I can not remember this question
A. Lateral
pterygoid B.
Medial pterygoid C.
Masseter
D.
Temporalis E.
Mylohyoid
23. What is INR used for,
A. 3 or more is the target prothrombin time to start a safe extraction
24. Branchial Cleft cyst is
located , A. Medial to the neck
B. On anterior border of the
Sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Shows when
swallowing
25. the most common way of oral carcinomas to other
tissues is/are A. Lymphatic
B. Invasion and blood
C. Lymphatic and
invasion D. Blood and
lymphatic
26. What is true about
smokers, A. Causes
immunosuppression
B. Increase redox potential of smokers fibrous growth of anaerobic
organisms C. Defects neutrophil function and characteristics
D. Can produce smokers palate but rarely metaplasia
27. The main purpose of periodontal
treatment is, A. Elimination of plaque and
calculus
B. Elimination of periodontal pockets
C. Reformation of all the periodontal
ligaments D. The elimination of all
occlusal trauma
28. What is the approximate unstimulated salivary
flow rate, A. 2 ml/min
B. 0.2
ml/min C.
0.02 ml/min
D. 20 ml/min
29. Why is it dificult to use matrices on
deciduous teeth, A. It hurts the kids parents
B. The small mouth opening of kids in that age range makes it difficult to
keep matrices in mouth.
C. The occlusal concavity of deciduous teeth
30. The thermal and electric pulp tests will,
A. Give an accurate indications of the pulp status
B. The patients response will be either pain or
no pain C. The patient can differentiate between
cold or hot stimuli
31. Immediately after the extraction of lower molar the patient
complains of post operation bleeding and pain, how would
manage this,

A. Prescribe analgesics and ask the patient to follow a strict oral hygiene
B. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anastatic, prescribe analgesics and pack
the socket with alvogyl
C. Administer 5% Marcaine Local Anastatic, suture the socket
and prescribe analgesics
D. Suture and give pressure packs
32. Gracey curette is characterized by,
A. The blade and the shank form 90
angle B. Can be used on both sides
C. Can be used on any tooth surface

D. It is specific for each surface of the tooth

33. The removable partial denture requires relining what is would
be the most appropriate action,
A. take a new impression by asking the patient to occlude on it
B. Provide equal space (may be it was thickness) between denture and
gingival tissues. C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated
in place before taking
impression
34. Why do we use Corticosteroid material in pulp
obturation, A. To prevent the inflammatory process
B. As an Antibiotic
C. To minimize pressure on the periapical tissues
35. As a result of wrong use of tooth brush the patient MOST
probable complaint will be when,
A. Spontaneous pain or discomfort
B. Occasional pain during brushing of the teeth
C. Occasional pain during consumption of sweets
36. In regards to dentine strength, which is the right
sequence, A. Afected dentine> Sound dentine> Infected
dentine
B. Sound dentine> Afected dentine> Infected dentine
37. Symptoms free patient comes to you after four weeks of an
endodontic treatment and you find on radiograph the canal is over
filled with what it seems to be a cone of Gutta Percha 1mm beyond
the apex with a radiolucent small area. What is your initial
management?,
A. Start apiectomy through a flap and
surgery B. Obturate the root canal
C. Ask for a recall and observe in three
months time D. Seal the pulp chamber and
keep it under observation
38. After obturation and on X-ray you notice the obturation
materials are 1mm beyond apex. What is your first
management?
A. Refill the canal
B. Pull the GP cone about 1mm out and take a
new X-ray C. Leave it as it
39. 2.21mg NaF
contains, A. 1mg
fluoride
B. 2 mg
C. 0.5
mg
40. The requirement for root and crown
length is, A. 2:3
B.
1:1 C.
1:2
41. Stiffness of material are
measured by, A. Proportional unit
B. Modules of
elasticity C. Stress/
strain
42. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and

what function does it serve after it is made?

A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal
guidance. B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the
inclination of the incisal
guidance.
C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar
guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the
condylar paths of the patient.
This is the answer of the American board, to aid in establishing the
occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator
so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient

43. Four years kid shows at your clinic with open bite as a result of
thumb sucking, you notice a delayed speech ability what would be
your first management,
A. Refer to a speech therapist
B. Apply a removable habit inhibitor denture
C. Apply a removable habit inhibitor denture and educate the parents about it
so the kid will not be taking it off so often
44. Two central incisors on a radiograph are showing with what looks
like eye drop radiolucency. You decided to start endodontic
treatment on these teeth but you tried to open access to the root
canal you find clearly closed orifices with what look like secondary
dentine. What is your initial management?
A. Leave as it and start a permanent
restoration. B. Start systemic antibiotic
C. Try to ream and file canals
45. A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The
moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should
you do?
A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened
B. Check patients blood for Hepatitis B antibody
HBsAb C. Check patients blood for Hepatitis B
antigen HBsAg
D. Check dentists blood for Hepatitis B antibody HBsAb and HIV
antigen HIVAg E. Check dentists blood for Hepatitis B antigen HBsAg
and HIV antibody HIVAb F. Dentist should go and take a HBsAb vaccine
46. when probing for periodontal disease the tip of the
probe will be, A. At the coronal end of junctional
epithelium
B. At the top of the gingival calculus
47. After the initial development stage and in the absence of
pathology, a the size of the pulp chamber has been reduced by,
A. Deposition of primary dentine
B. Deposition of secondary
dentine C. Reparative dentine
D. Pulp fibrosis
E. Deposition of reparative dentine
48. The most desirable outcome of endodontic
treatment is, A. The healing of the alveolar bone
B. The deposition of cementum at the
apex C. Formation of fibrous capsule
around the apex
49. What is NOT related to the normal aging
process? A. Progressive bone loss
B. Reduced elasticity of
muscles C. Decreased
elasticity of the skin D. Lower
pain threshold
50. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the
following is true?
A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar
B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the
incidence. C. Excessive fbrinolysis is the likely aetiology
D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is
mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a
rapid bone growth
51. The most accurate finding of pulpal

pathology A. Radiolucency on the apical

region
B. Pain on hot or cold drinks
C. The absence of response to pulp testing
52. for dental caries to progress in
dentine, the dentine must contain
soluble collagen
A. enamel must contain glycoproteins
B. diet must contain simple
carbohydrate C. diet must contain
polysaccharides

D. pulp must contain complement

53. A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest which is INCORRECT,
A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high
importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions
achieve 30-40% of cardiac
output
C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce
the chances of cerebral hypoxia
D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has
been given at the same rate.
54. Which of the following is true in regards to smoking,
A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not
recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic
bacteria
C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection
55. A 9 year old boy has a small white discolouration on his
maxillary central incisor. The lesion is most probably,
A. Hypocalcification due to trauma of the primary
predecessor B. Hypoplasia due to acute systemic infection
when 6-12 months old C. Defect during the histo
differentiation stage of development
D. Defect during the morho differentiation stage of development
56. The best method to take X-ray of the maxillary
sinus is, A. Periapical radiograph
B. Panoramic view
C.
Lateral
cephaloghraph
D.
Occipitomental
view
E.
Reverse
Townes view
57. Which of the following is not a part of the fully formed enamel organ,
A. Outer enamel
epithelium B. Inner
enamel epithelium
58. 18 years old female her weight is 52Kg and she is 163cm tall. On
dental examination erosion of teeth on the most of her lingual
surfaces is clearly showing. Dietary history revealed a daily rate of
5000 to 7000 Kcal/day. What is most probable would be her case?
A. Alcoholism
B. Drug
abuse C.
Bulimia
D. Excessive smoking
E. Diabetic mellitus type I
59. Which one of the following is true in regards t osseointegration
implants in dentistry?
A. Fibrous tissues are formed and integrated directly between
titanium and bone B. Following insertion, implants can be immediately
loaded without problem
C. The success of the implants is directly proportional to its area of contact
with bone D. The success of the implants depends mostly on low torque
preparation and insertion
of the fixture
E. The success of integration is accurately investigated by immediate
radiographic examination
60. Generalised lost of tooth structure by chemical

means called, A.
B. Attrition

Erosion

61. On X-ray, the buccal roots of 16 is considerably elongated; this is

a result of, A. Too great vertical angulation
B. Inadequate vertical
angulation C. Excessive object
film distance
62. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the
mouth is, F. Mylohyoid

G. Anterior
temporal H.
Posterior temporal
I. Anterior belly of digastric
63. Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with,
A. The continuous wearing of removable orthodontic appliances in
otherwise healthy patient
B. The proliferation of hypertrophic tissue at the denture periphery
C. The overgrowth of some constituents of oral normal
microflora D. Allergy to denture base material
64. Which is NOT usually related to gingival inflammation in
children? A. Endocrine disturbance
B. Viral infection
C. Mouth
breathing
D. Spirochetal
infection E.
Streptococcal infection
65. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Downs
syndrome? A. Decreased neutrophil function
B.
Macroglossia C.
Macrodontia
D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal
disease E. Congenitally missing teeth
66. Which of the following is the best evidence that a previous
periodontal treatment is successful?
A. The patient keeps a 3 month recall
appointment B. There is no extrinsic stain
C. The patient demonstrates good understanding of brushing
and flossing techniques
D. There is no bleeding on probing