400 151 100Q V2
400 151 100Q V2
400 151 100Q V2
Answer : D
2) Which three statements are true about redistribution of routes from L3Outs in an ACI Fabric?(Choose 3)
a) Routes are not redistributed to leaf switches where the same VRF is present
b) ACI fabric runs MP-BGP
c) Security import subnets control the forwarding of packets into and out o L3Out connections(data plane)
d) Routes learned from L3Outs on border leaf switches are not redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress lead.
e) Route control subnets control the exchange of routing information(Prefixes) into and out of the fibric (control place)
Answer BCE
3) Which cisco UCS Director features enables you to view the REST API URL for every report display in cisco UCS Director?
a) Orchestration features set
b) REST API Brower
c) Automation feature set
d) Report metadata
Answer: D
4) Refer to the exhibit
Which outcome of this configuration is true
a) All traffic ceases to flow through this fabric interconnect after a reboot
b) Servers ceases to use this fabric interconnect upon next reboot
c) Any newly created traffic flows do not use this fabric interconnect
d) All traffic ceases to flows through this fabric interconnect
Answer: D
5) Which three service request states are valid in cisco UCS director servce request execution state(choose 3)
a) Failed
b) Running
c) Schedules
d) Listening
e) Debugging
Answer: ABC
6) Which three editing options of cisco UCS director workflow are valid(choose 3)
a) Edit tasks in the workflow
b) Change an input from mandatory to optional
c) Reorder inputs
d) Rename a workflow
e) Delete inputs
Answer: ACD
7) Which three options are benefits of the VPC peers switch feature?(Choose 3)
a) It eliminates the recommendation to pin the STP root to the Vpc primary switch
b) It allows a pair of the vPC peer devices to appear as a single STP root in the layer 2
c) After the peer link comes up, it performs an ARP bulk sync over CFSoE to the peer switch
d) It improves convergences for layer 3 flows
e) It simplifies STP configuration by configuration both Vpcs with the same STP priority
Answer : ABE
8) Which protocol is best suited for wireless communication in an IoT deployment where sensors only have a power generating
element(and do not have a battery)
a) Bluetooth
b) ZigBee
c) WIFI
d) 3G/4G
Answer: B
9) WHICH THREE GUIDELINES and limitation of policy-based routing are true?(Choose3)
a) A match command can refer to more than one ACL in a route map used for policy-based routing
b) The same route map can be shared among different interfaces for policy-based routing as long as the interfaces belong to the same
VRF instance
c) Setting a tunnel interface or an IP address via a tunnel interface as a next hop in a policy-based routing policy is not supported
d) An ACL used in a policy-based routing route map cannot include a deny statement
e) A policy-based routing route mao can have multiple match or set statements per route-map statement
f) Policy-based routing and WCCPv2 are not supported on the same interface chaining is disabled
Answer : BCD
10) You configured an new appliance port, but the port has a pinning failure. Which option is a possible cause ?
a) The appliance port admin speed must be adjusted
b) Appliance VLASs are duplicated in global VLANS
c) The appliance is configure for NPV
d) Appliance VLAN are missing duplicate global VLANs
Answer : D
11) Which options is a consortium of service providers and vendors that address NFV architecture and orchestration for NFV?
A) IEEE
B) IETF
C) ONF
D) ETSI
Answer : D
Answer : AE
13)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer : A
14) Refer to the exhibit
An admin wants to bring online a new leaf node into their ACI fabric. Before registering the lead node, the admin checks the current
status and sees this output.
Which option is the reason for the admin to see this output?
a) The DHCP server running on the APIC has failed and this the leaf node has not been able to obtain an IP address
b) The lead node is yet to be physically connected to the fabric
c) This output is expected until the admin registers the leaf node and assigns it a role
d) This output is expected until the admin registers the lead node with an ID and name
e) This wrong catalog firmware is running on the APIC
Answer : E
Answer: AEF
16) Which options list the contents of the NSH header in service chaining?
a) base header, service path header, and context header
b) network header, service header, and transport header
c) Ethernet header, transport header, and application header
d) Base header, transport header, and optional header
Answer : A
17) Which 2 statement about cisco UCS director API access key are true? ( choose 2)
a) API access key is a shared secret that you must configure in Cisco UCS Director to enable REST API.
b) API access key is a unique security access key code that is associated with a specific Cisco UCS Director user account
c) API access key is unique for each API request
d) API access key is required for Cisco UCS Director to authenticate API request
Answer : BD
18)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Answer: BEF
19) Refer to the exhibit
Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit?
a) Bach script
b) Python
c) NETCONF
d) REST
e) Cisco EEM
Answer : B
20) Which 3 benefits do VXLANs offer to VLANs?(choose 3)
a) It provide better utilization of available paths in the overlay infrastructure
b) VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 vlan scale limitation
c) VXLAN uses a 16-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 vlan scale limitation
d) It provide a solution to extent layer 2 segment over a single layer 2 VLAN
e) It provides a solution to extent layer 2 segments over a shared layer 3 routed network
f) It provides better utilization of available network paths in the underlay infrastructure
Answer : BEF
21) According to cisco, which 2 options are benefits of ITD compared to WCCP?(CHOOSE 2)
a) Require less TCAM entries
b) Transparent for service mode
c) Much less configuration
d) Does not require authentication or certificates
e) Weighted load distribution
Answer : AE
22) Refer to the exhibit.
Your application has reduced health score. Upon inspection, you find fault that impacts the health score. The fault currently is the
soaking lifecycle state. Which 2 options are possible next steps while in this state( choose 2)
a) The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking- cleaning state
b) The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised severity level
c) Acknowledge the fault, which immediately clears it from the system
d) The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
Answer : AB
Answer : A
24)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer : A
25) Which platform support ITD?
a) NEXUS 7000, NEXUS 9000, NEXUS 6000, NEXUS 5000
b) NEXUS 7000, NEXUS 9000 ONLY
c) NEXUS 7000, NEXUS 9000, and NEXUS 6000 only
D. Nexus 700 with F3 line cards only.
E. Nexus 7000, Nexus 9000, and Nexus 5000 Only
Answer: A
26. After VTEP devices are established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with internal BGP route reflector, which three pieces of
information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose 3)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Layer 3 VNI
VPNv4 prefixes
Router MAC address
VTEP peer list
VTEP address
Answer: ACE
27. Which three statements about IP source guard are true (choose 3)
a) IP source Guard is dependent upon DHCP snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC-Address binding table or upon manual
maintenance of static IP-source entries.
b) IP source guard requires that CHCP snooping is disabled.
c) By default, IP source guard is enabled on all interfaces.
d) IP source guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP=MAC address binding table entry or static IP source
entry.
e) When you first enable IP source guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on the interface receive
an new IP address from a DHCP server.
Answer: ADE
28. Which three PVLAN port models are supported on Cisco necus 9000? (Choose 3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Isolated host
FEX port
Port Channels
Isolated host trunk
Virtual port channels
Community host
Answer: ADF
29. Which two statements about policing, queuing, and scheduling are true? (Choose 2)
a) You can schedule traffic by imposing a maximum data rate on a class of traffic so that excess packets are dropped.
b) Policing is the monitoring of data rates for a particular class of traffic. The device can also monitor associated burst sizes.
c) You can apply weighted random early detection to a class of traffic, which allows packets to be dropped to be dropped based on the CoS
field.
d) The WRED algorithm is reactive approach only to traffic congestion.
Answer: BC
30. Which three main functions are provided by OTC to achieve failure isolation? (Choose 3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ARP optimization
Use of multiple ORC overlays
Unknown unicast traffic suppression
Spanning tree isolation
Optimal outbound routing
Answer: ACD
31. Which IETF standard is the most efficient messaging protocol used in an IoT network?
a)
b)
c)
d)
CoAP
SNMP
HTTP
MQTT
Answer: A
32. How do your preprovision a Cisco UCS chassis?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: C
33. Refer to the Exhibit
If you inspect a CXLAN packet at point 2, which teo opitons about the outer fielfs in the VXLAn header are true? (Choose 2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Answer: DF
34. Refer to the exhibit
After you deploy a service profile form a template, you encounter these two errors. Which action is needed to resolve this issue?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Answer: B
Answer: C
36. Which description of how to enable the Flex Flash Controller auto-sync function on the B200M4 blade is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: B
37. Which two options are functions of the 6LowWPAN header? (Choose 2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Answer: AE
38. refer to the exhibit.
Assuming no traffic engineering has been configured, what is the link speed of port channel 200?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8 Gbps
4 Gbps
1 Gbps
6 Gbps
Answer: A
39. Refer to the exhibit.
SwichA and SwicthB have these zonesets currently active and are connected by an ISL that is configured to the transport VSAN3. Enhanced
zoning is configured for VSAN 3, and merge-control is set to restrict. Which statement about this configuration is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Enhanced zoning is configured, so the user is prompted on the CLI to permit or deny Zone2 into the active zone set.
Zone merge fails because the currently active zone sets are not identical.
Zone merge successes and the resulting zone set matches switch.
Zone merge fails because merge-control set to restrict, which means that merges are never permitted.
Zone merge succeeds but Zone2 is dropped from the active zone set because it is not currently included in the active zone set in switchA
Answer: E
40. Which two options are different ways to extend the layer 3 domain beyond the ACI Fabric? (Choose 2).
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: AC
41. Refer to the exhibit
Within an ACI fabric, routing protocol is need to assist with router redistribution between the outside networks and the internal fabric. Which
routing protocol is needed to run in the fabric at location 1 to allow the VM access to the networks advertised by the external layer 3 network?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
MP-BGP
EBGP
iBGP
OSPF
IS-IS
Answer: A
42. Which two statement about import and export route control an ACL fabric are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf.
Prefixed learned from BGP l3 outs cannot be fileted inbound.
Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L3 outs are never permitted inbound by default.
Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BP at the ingress leaf.
Answer: AD
43. Which two options does ITD replace? (Choose 3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Policy-based routing.
WCCP
Access lists
Layer 7 load balancer
Layer 4 Load balancer
IP SLA
Answer: AB
44. Which two security features are supported by NX-API? (Choose 2)
Answer: BD
45. Which three statements about ACI border leaf are true? (Choose 3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Answer: BCE
46. In which EPG is the consumer interface of an L4-L7 device places?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: B
47. Which three statements are considered best practice when configuring an NFS appliance port on Cisco UCS? (Choose 3)
a) If storage is configured in active/passive mode and both fabric interconnects require communication to the same controller, then the
appliance port VLANs should be allowed on the upstream switches.
b) Cisco UCS supports static and link aggregation control protocol port channels for appliance port configuration. However, no virtual port
channel support.
c) If storage and servers are located are located in the same subnets, then the appliance port VLSNA should be allowed on the upstream
switch.
d) Use of the same VLAN for multiple storage protocol traffic is highly recommended to conserve VCLAN namespace use.
e) If storage must be accessed outside of the cisco UCS domain, then the appliance port VLANs should be allowed on the upstream switch.
f) Configuration of the VLAN tagging on the storage side and on the Cisco UCS side simultaneously is recommended.
Answer: ACE
48. Which OpenStack project, whose data can be used to provide customer billing, resource tracking, and alarming capabilities across all
OpenStack core components, is a component of the telemetry project?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Trove
Ceilometer
Heat
Ceph
Answer: B
49. Which three limitations or requirements do MP-BGP-Based EVPN addresses have compared to the initial IETF VXLAN standard (RFC 7348)?
(Choose 3)
a) Scalability limitation due to data-driver flood-and-learn behavior.
b) Control-Plane learning of end-host layer 2 and layer 3 reachability information, which provides integrated bridging and routing in VXLAN
overlay networks
c) Network flooding through protocol-based host MAC/IP router distribution and ARP suppression on the local VTEPs.
d) Active-passive multihoming at layer 2
e) Requirement to disable multicast for underlay forwarding.
Answer: ABC
50) Which Cisco UCS Director feature Provides API Information and API code generation capabilities that make it easy to see and work with all
the available APIs, including the REST APIs and the JAVA API?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
Answer A
52. Which Four options are part of Cisco ONE Enterprise cloud suite product portfolio?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Answer: CDEF
Java
Python
Ruby
C++
Answer: B
54. Refer to the Exhibit
Which Two CLI actions are appropriate to try to resolve the enhanced zoning lock problem? Choose-2
A. Use the show zone internal vsan 16 command to determine the ip address of the user and the MDS switch where the lock is currently
held.
B. Use the no zone commit vsan command on the switch that holds the lock to release the lock if you are the holder of the lock.
C. Use the no zone commit vsan <vsan id> force command on the switch that holds the lock to release the lock if another user holds the
lock.
D. Use the clear zone lock command to remove the lock. Use this command on each switch in the fabric for vsan 16 only.
E. Using either cisco fabric manager or the CLI, reactivate the existing zone set for VSAN 16. Be careful to only reactivate and not deactivate
to avoid a disruption in service.
Answer: BC
55) which three statements are considered best practice when directly connecting converged network adapters to the fabric?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cisco Unified fabric links must be configured as access ports and FCoE VLAN must not be configured as a native VLAN.
A shared VLAn can be used to carry traffic for each virtual fabric in the SAN (for example, vlan 1002 for VSAN1, VSAN2, and so on)
Separate FCoE VLANS must be used for FCOE in SAN-A and SAN-B.
If the converged access switches (in the same SAN fabric or in the other) must be connected to each over Ethernet Links for the purposes
of LAN alternate pathing, then such links must explicitly be configured to include all FCOE vlans. This configuration ensures to extend the
scope of the spanning tree protocol for FCOE vlans to cisco unified fabric and non cisco unified fabric links.
E. Cisco UF links must be configured as spanning-tree edge ports.
F. If MSTP is enabled, a separate MST instance must be used for FCOE vlans.
Answer: CEF
56. How do you manually configure a VNIC MAC address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D
57. Cisco UCS Director provides an option to offer the report metadata and REST API Browser for developers. Which configuration step is needed
in Cisco UCS Director to enable this feature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
58. In which location can device package logs be found?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: D
59: Which statement about VTP bombing is true?
A. It occurs when switches with different VTP versions are connected together. This situation may occur when a new switch is plugged into
a stable VTP domain. The MAC address table of the new switch overrides the MAC address table of stable switches causing interruption
of service.
B. It occurs when a client connects to a switch and launches distributed denial of service attack against the VTP domain. This attack is
possible only if the client knows the VTP password.
C. It occurs when a server with a higher revision number and a wrong VTP database is inserted into the VTP domain. This situation may
occur when a new switch is plugged into a stable VTP domain. The incorrect database is propagated to the domain and the earlier state
database is overwritten.
D. It occurs because of configuration mismatch on VTPv3 switches. This problem can be avoided using a confirmation management tool.
Answer: C
Answer: D
61. which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose-2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: BC
62. which two statements about IP-directed broadcast are true? (Choose-2)
A. The destination address in the IP header of the packet is rewritten to the configured IP broadcast address for the subnet, and the packet
is sent as a link-layer broadacast.
B. All switches in the network forward an ip-directed broadcast in the same way they forward multicast IP packets.
C. An IP-directed broadcast is an IP packet whose destination address is a valid broadcasts address, and it originates from a node that is
also part of the same subnet.
D. A switch that is not directly connected to its destination subnet forwards an ip-directed broadcast in the same way it forwards unicast IP
packets destined to a host on that subnet.
Answer: AC
63. in an ACI fabric, which three types of interface are supported on border leaf switches to connect to an external router? (Choose 3)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: BCE
64. Which standard REST API method allows you to create a managed object?
A.
B.
C.
D.
POST
GET
PATCH
SET
Answer: A
Answer: B
66. which four products are part of the cisco virtual application container service? (choose 4)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Answer: BCEF
67. Which two statement about Cisco UCS Director Workflow are true? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
You build workflows using a drag-and-drop user interface called workflow designer.
Each task in workflow designer is built using python script.
Looping and conditional branching cannot be implemented.
You arrange tasks in sequence and define inputs and outputs t othose tasks. Outputs from earlier tasks are available to use as inputs to
any subsequent task.
Answer AD
It indicates that this subnet is advertised to the external router by the border leaf.
It indicates that this subnet is advertised to the border lead in ACI fabric.
It indicates that it must be leaked to one or more private networks within ACI fabric.
It indicates that this subnet is advertised to public internet and must be protected by a firewall.
Answer: A
69. For which two multicast distribution modes is RP configuration required? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
CFS distributes the local NTP configuration to master only which then forwards to all devices in network.
If CFS is used to distribute NTP, all devices in the network must have the different VRFs configured then as used for NTP.
You must manually distribute NTP authentication keys on the NTP server and Cisco NX-OS devices across the network.
After enabling CFS, a network-wide lock is applied to NTP whenever an NTP configuration is started and released once after the change
has been committed or discarded.
Answer: CD
71. Which two guidelines and limitations of netflow on Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose-2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
If you change a layer 2 interface to a layer 3 interface, the software converts the layer 2 netflow to layer 3 netflow automatically.
Valid record name is optional to configure.
The cisco nexus 2000 series fabric extender does not support bridged netflow.
Only layer 2 netflow is applied on layer 2 interfaces, and only layer 3 netflow is applied on layer 3 interfaces.
You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the exported remains in a disabled state.
Answer: CD
72. which two statement about NFS appliance port failover and network uplink failure on Cisco UCS are true? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
By Default, appliance ports are shutdown if the uplink that they are pinned to goes down.
Failover cannot be configured on the Cisco UCS side for appliance ports.
By design, Cisco UCS fabric interconnects operate as one large fabric.
Failover must be configured on the storage side and Cisco UCS side, and it must be implemented with the correct network design while
specific failover behaviors for storage controller are kept in mind.
E. To change default appliance port behavior, configure an appliance port failover policy and set the action to be taken upon uplink failure.
Answer: AB
73. Which two statements about VXLAN are true? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: CD
Managed object
Pod
Tenant
System
Answer: B
75. on a cluster with three APICs, on which APIC can you see actual device package logs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Depending on the deivce package, on the APIC that is a leader for that device package
APIC 1
Depending on the tenant, on the APIC that is a leader for the shard for that particular tenant
On the one that is a leader for device package service.
Answer: B
76. Which three statements about ASM and SSM are correct? (Choose 3)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
By Default, the SSM group range from PIM is 232.0.0.0/8 and for PIM6 is FF3X/96.
ASM mode requires that you configure an RP.
PIM ASM is not fully supported on a vPC.
If you want to use the default SSM group range, you must configure the SSM group range.
In ASM mode, only the last-hop router switches from the shared tree to the SPT.
Answer: ABE
77. On which two criteria can an endpoint be classified statically into an application EPG? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: BE
Many tools are available to troubleshoot an ACI fabric. Which tool is this sample output from?
Traffic map
iPing
traceroute
atomic counters
Answer: D
79: Refer to the exhibit.
Which cause of this error is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: A
80. Refer to the exhibit
Switch# configure terminal
Switch (config)# fcoe fcamp 0e.fc.2a
Which two statements about this configuration command sequence with regards to the cisco nexus 5500 are true? (choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It permits this node to form FCoE ISLs only with other nodes configured for the same FC-MAP.
It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the first 3 bytes of the FPMA.
It configures this node to use 0EFC2A as the last 3 bytes of the FPMA.
It reserves this FCID so only this node can use this FCID when communicating with other Fiber Channel entities.
It configures this node to use FCID 0EFC2A to forward the FDISC to when an endpoint is connected.
Answer: BE
81. on which two features does ITD depend? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
IP SLA
WCCP
Netflow
BFD
PBR
Interface-vlan
Answer: AE
82. You want to create two vHBAs per fabric for each server in a cisco UCS domain, which option lists the maximum number of servers that can
be utilized in this domain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
83. which definition of intelligent service card manager is true?
A. Management software to manage provisioning of RISE services on a cisco nexus switch
B. Part of the RISE service that resides on an appliance (for example, Citrix Netscaler) that is responsible for sending Route health injection
messages to a cisco nexus switch.
C. Part of the RISE service that is responsible for establishing initial connectivity with remote appliances (for example, citrix netscaler)
D. Management software to manage cisco nexus devices
E. Part of the RISE service that resides on a cisco nexus switch that is responsible for handling tasks related to receiving Route health
injection messages from appliance and programming those routes in the universal routing information base.
Answer: C
84. while doing service insertion with vASA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose 2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 service Graph template is created.
The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.
Answer: AB
85) The OS team as requested that you expand the receive queues of an existing server. Which action accomplishes this change?
a) Reconfigure the vNIC to the requested queue size
b) Reconfigure the default Vnic behavior
c) Configure and apply a customer LAN connectivity policy
d) Configure and apply a customer adapter policy
Answer : D
86) You configured a Cisco usNIC connectivity policy, for a HPC environment. Which action also must be completed?
a) Download and compile the ring_c application
b) Install the Intel MPI library environment
c) Mount the MPI adapter in the operating system
d) Install an MPI environment in the operating system
Answer : A
87) Drag and drop the method from the left into the correct description on the right.
GET
POST
PUT
DELETE
Answer :
put
delete
get
post
88) Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on the right.
tename
context
Bridge domain
Application profile
EPG
Contracts
Answer :
Bridge domain
Application profile
context
EPG
Contracts
Tenant
89) Drag and drop terms of the cisco Prime service catalog from the left onto the definition on the right
Service group
requistion
authorization
permissions
review
Answer :
Authorization
persmissions
Review
Requistion
Service group
90) Drag and drop the concept of Cisco UCS director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right
Task
workflow
Service request
approval
Answer:
Workflow
task
approval
Service request
91) Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the right description on the right
ARP
Reverse ARP
PROXY arp
Gratuitous ARP
Answer
Gratutious ARP
PROXY ARP
ARP
REVERSE ARP
92. Drag and drop the term of the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left column onto the Correct definition on the right
Customer
Initiator
Performer
Service manager
Delivery plan
Answer:
Initiator
Delivery Plan
Service manager
Performer
Customer
93. Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Priority-Based Flow Control
IEEE 802.1 Qbb
Enhanced transmission selection
IEEE 802.1 Qaz
Congestion Notification
IEEE 802.1 Qau
Data center Bridging Exchange
DCBX
Answer:
Congestion Notification
IEEE 802.1 Qau
Data center Bridging Exchange
DCBX
Priority-Based Flow Control
IEEE 802.1 Qbb
Enhanced transmission selection
IEEE 802.1 Qaz
94. Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Root port
Designated port
Alternate port
Backup port
Disabled port
Answer:
Backup port
Disabled port
Root port
Alternate port
Designated port
The encap VLAN configured is not within the allowed range of VLANs as specified by the associated domain.
There is no fault. The fault is currently in the soaking state and the fault will automatically clear and everything will work as expected.
There is not enough information to determine the cause of the problem.
The admin incorrectly configured theis static path to have a deployment immediacy as immediate when it should have been
configured as on-demand
Answer: A*
Answer: (A)
97. Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes when this server reboots?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: A
98. You want to make 80 Gbps of bandwidth available to your Redhat Servers. Which tw0 statements are true? (Choose 2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Install 2204 IOMs, VIC1240 CNAs, fabric Extenders, and create four vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Install 2208 IOMs, VIC1280 CNAs, fabric Extenders, and create four vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Install 2208 IOMs, VIC1280 CNAs, fabric Extenders, and create eight vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Install 2204 IOMs, VIC1280 CNAs, fabric Extenders, and create four vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Install 2204 IOMs, VIC1280 CNAs, and create four vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Install 2204 IOMs, VIC1240 CNAs, and create four vNICs mapped to each fabric.
Answer: CF
99. Refer to the exhibit
Which two options are possible reasons for device being stuck in init mode? (Choose 2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Incorrect VM is selected
Incorrect Function type is selected.
No Chassis is selected.
Http service enable is not configured on the ASA
Incorrect credentials are provided.
No management interface is specified in cluster interfaces section
Answer: DE
100. Refer to the exhibit
After you upgrade Cisco UCS firmware, some of your blades have these eror messages. Which description of the problem is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: (D)