1.Of the many ways to lubricate a Freon-12 compressor, which of the following is not used?

Answer:
D
A. Splash
B. Pump
C. Chain and loop
D. Drop cup
2.A circulation oil system in a centrifugal compressor system must have at least: Answer: B
A. A reservoir, a filter, and distribution lines
B. A reservoir, a pump, and distribution lines
C. A heater, a filter, and distribution lines
D. A filter, a centrifuge, and a reservoir
3.Which of the following is incorrect? Answer: A
A. Refrigerants oils have a low flash point and fire point
B. Refrigerant oils should have a high resistance to the flow of electricity
C. Refrigerant oils should have a pour point low enough to flow at low temperatures.
D. Refrigerant oil should not contain sulphur components.
4.A refrigerant oil is electronically tested to have a low neutralization number. A low neutralization
number indicates: Answer: B
A. An unstable oil with corrosive acids present
B. Stable oil with few corrosive acids present
C. Undesirable refrigerant oil
D. Uncertain composition of organic acids
5.Define flash point of refrigerant oil: Answer: A
A. The temperature at which oil vapor will flash when exposed to a flame
B. The temperature at which oil will continue to burn
C. The temperature in which an oil will burn below 100o
D. All of the above
6.Define fire point of a refrigerant oil: Answer: B
A. The temperature at which oil vapor will flash when exposed to a flame
B. The temperature at which oil will continue to burn
C. The temperature in which an oil will burn below 100o
D. The temperature at which wax first separates from the oil
7.Define viscosity: Answer: A
A. A coefficient of internal friction
B. A coefficient of external friction
C. The temperature at which max first separates from the oil
D. All of the above
8.Define floc point: Answer: B
A. The temperature at which oil vapor will flash when exposed to a flame
B. The temperature which max first is noticed separating from the oil
C. The temperature at which oil is carbonized when it contacts hot surfaces
D. The temperature at which oil ceases to flow

9.Define pour point: Answer: B

A. The temperature at which oil vapor will flash when exposed to flame
B. The temperature at which oil ceases to flow
C. The temperature at which oil should resist separation
D. The temperature at which an oil will continue to burn
10.Define the dielectric property of an oil: Answer: A
A. The amount of moisture in a refrigerant oil, which may be measured by its resistance to
the flow of electric current
B. Compounds in the oil that can absorb or release heat with little or no change in
temperature
C. The highest temperature at which free water is liberated, on the cooling of the oil
D. The temperature at which an oil will continue to burn
11.Which of the following is true? Answer: D
A. Ammonia does not mix with oil, and floats on top of oil
B. Carbon dioxide will not mix with oil, and will float on top of oil
C. Oil floats on top of sulfur dioxide, and the two do not mix
D. All of the above
12.Reducing suction pressure lowers evaporated temperature, but: Answer: A
A. More power is needed per ton of refrigeration and compression capacity falls because
vapor is lighter and piston displace less weight per stroke
B. Less power is needed per ton of refrigeration, because vapor is lighter and the piston
displace less weight per stroke
C. Power is not a factor when reducing evaporator temperature
D. None of the above
13.Raising head pressure raises discharge temperature and: Answer: B
A. More power is needed per ton of refrigeration
B. Less power is needed per ton of refrigeration
C. Suction temperature is decreased
D. None of the above

14.To reduce power input and conserve capacity, keep head pressure as low as possible and keep:
Answer: A
A. Suction pressure as high as needed to produce the desired evaporation
B. Suction pressure as low as low as needed to produce the desired evaporation
C. Suction pressure stable at low evaporator temperature
D. None of the above (pressure and temperature have no effect on system capacity)
15.Assuming all other conditions remain constant, the horsepower per ton of refrigeration:
C
A. Decreases as the head pressure increases
B. Increases as the head pressure decreases
C. Decreases as the suction pressure increases
D. Increases as the suction pressure increases

Answer:

16. Assuming all other conditions remain constant in a refrigerating plant, the statement about
operating characteristics that is most correct is: Answer: A
A. As load decreases, low side pressure fails
B. As head pressure rises, plant capacity increases
C. As low side pressure falls, compressor capacity increases
D. None of the above ( low side pressure is not affected by the load change)
17. When suction pressure is decreased, horsepower: Answer: A
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. decreases due to evaporator load
18.As suction pressure in drops in a Freon 22 system, compressor capacity: Answer: B
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. increases, then decreases
19.If tonnage increased as the suction pressure increased, horsepower would : Answer: B
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. increases, then decreases

20. Assuming all other conditions remain the same, the horsepower per ton of refrigeration :
Answer: D
A. Increases as the suction pressure decreases
B. Increases as the suction pressure increases
C. Decreases as the suction pressure increases
D. Both (A) and (C)
21.To produce the desired evaporator temperature, power input is reduced, conserving capacity by:
Answer: C
A. Keeping head pressure as low as possible, and suction pressure as low as needed
B. Keeping head pressure as high as possible, and suction pressure as high as needed
C. Keeping head pressure as low as possible, and suction pressure as high as needed
D. Keeping head pressure as high as possible, and suction pressure as low as needed
22.The temperature on a wet bulb thermometer equals the dry bulb temperature: Answer: B
A. The air is below freezing
B. The air is saturated with moisture
C. The air has no moisture
D. This can never happen

23.Relative humidity refers to the total moisture content of air. This statement is: Answer: B
A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. defines absolute humidity
24.The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb temperature is: Answer: D
A. Dry bulb refers to the air temperature od evaporation
B. Wet bulb refers to ambient temperature of a thermometer
C. Wet and dry bulb temperature are directly proportional to the gauge pressure below
atmospheric
D. Dry bulb refers to the ambient temperature. Wet bulb refers to the air temperature of
evaporation
25.List the physical properties of air: Answer: A
A. Weight, density, temperature, specific heat, and heat conductivity
B. Enthalpy, entropy, specific heat, and density
C. Weight, temperature, enthalpy, and conductivity
D. Weight, enthalpy, density, specific heat, temperature, and conductivity

26.The index of performance of a refrigeration system is the: Answer: B

A. Refrigerant performance factor
B. Coefficient of performance
C. efficiency
D. pressure ratio
27.If compression ratio and horsepower increase, tonnage: Answer: B
A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not change
D. none of the above
28.The capacity of a refrigeration reciprocating compressor increases as: Answer: D
A. Suction pressure decreases
B. Volumetric efficiency decreases
C. Discharge pressure decreases
D. Compression ratio decreases
29.The capacity of refrigeration rotary compressor decreases as: Answer: A
A. Volumetric efficiency decreases
B. Horsepower decreases
C. Compression decreases
D. Suction pressure increases
30.If the capacity of a refrigeration system increases and horsepower decreases: Answer: C
A. Head pressure increases

B. Volumetric efficiency decreases

C. The head pressure decreases
D. None of the above
31.What can happen on a centrifugal compression if suction pressure decreases to 30 Hg of lower?
Answer: C
A. Capacity can increase
B. Rupture disc can burst
C. Tubes can freeze
D. All of the above
32.Volumetric efficiency is defined as: Answer: B
A. The amount of pressure change a compressor is required to create in a system
B. The relationship between the actual performance of a compressor and its calculated
performance
C. Transfer of heat that occurs by direct contact between two objects at different
temperature
D. Increase in horsepower with an increase in capacity
33.An overcharge of refrigerant would result in: Answer: C
A. Increase in capacity with an increase in head pressure
B. Increase in capacity with an increase in suction pressure
C. Decrease in capacity with an increase in head pressure
D. Increase in horsepower with an increase in capacity
34.A sling psychrometer is read in units of: Answer: C
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. temperature
D. inches of mercury absolute
35.Pressure relief valves installed in a reciprocating compressor handling R 12 refrigerant are
normally set at: Answer: B
A. The same pressure as the high pressure cutoff device
B. Higher pressure than the high pressure cutoff device
C. A pressure equal to twice the oil pressure
D. Lower pressure than the high pressure cutoff device
36.The vacuum indicating instrument used to measure pressure of 1,000 micros or less is: Answer:
A
A. Electronic vacuum gauge
B. Compound gauge
C. Wet bulb vacuum indicator
D. U tube manometer
37.On a compound pressure gauge, units of vacuum are read in inches of: Answer: C
A. ammonia
B. water
C. mercury
D. air pressure

38.In a multi temperature system, the two temperature valve is located: Answer: A
A. In the suction line of the warmer evaporator
B. In the suction line of the colder evaporator
C. In the common suction line
D. None of the above

39.If a two temperature valve froze open: Answer: B

A. The system would overload and cut out
B. The warmer evaporator would cool to the temperature of the colder evaporator the
temperature in the warmer evaporator would rise
C. In the common suction line
D. None of the above
40. The check valve of a two temperature system is located on: Answer: C
A. The suction line of the high temperature evaporator
B. The liquid line of the high temperature evaporator
C. The suction line of the low temperature evaporator
D. The liquid line of the low temperature evaporator
41.Where is the low pressure control connected on a two temperature system: Answer: B
A. In the discharge line
B. In the liquid line
C. In the suction line
D. In the pressure line
42.Cascade systems are sometimes necessary for: Answer: D
A. Low temperature applications in hospitals
B. Industrial processes requiring cooling below -50 F
C. Cooling two or more compartments that are at the same or different temperatures
D. All of the above
43.What is the main advantage of a cascade system? Answer: A
A. It is capable of reaching very low temperatures
B. It does not deplete the ozone layer
C. Low cost and low maintenance
D. All of the above
44.Cascade and two stage booster refrigeration systems are used for: Answer: A
A. Low temperature applications
B. Air conditioning operation
C. Any application
D. Ice making only
45.The booster compressor of a two stage refrigeration system is located: Answer: D
A. Between the main compressor and condenser

B. Between the intercooler and main compressor

C. Between the condenser and metering device
D. Between the evaporator and intercooler
46. A water cooled condenser with one of more assemblies of two tubes, one inside the other, is
called: Answer: D
A. atmospheric
B. shell and tube
C. shell and coil
D. double pipe
47.What is the pressure at the intercooler outlet? Answer: A
A. The same as the evaporator
B. The same as the main compressor suction line
C. 86 F
D. 120 F
48.In a booster system, the booster compressor should be: Answer: B
A. At the high side
B. At the low side
C. For Freon 11 only
D. For

CO2

49.Which of the following could be termed a cascade system? Answer: A

A. An ammonia system cooling the condenser of a carbon dioxide system
B. An ammonia system cooling the brine tank ready to be circulated
C. A Freon system cooling brine for a brine spray
D. A methyl chloride system used as a heat pump
50.In carbon dioxide system the oil system is usually: Answer: D
A. A splash system for vertical compressors
B. A high pressure system for horizontal compressors
C. A low pressure system for horizontal compressors
D. Both (A) and (B)
51.What is the main refrigeration principle used in the steam jet system? Answer: A
A. If you reduce the pressure of water, the boiling point will be lowered
B. Heat always flows from a warmer to a cooler substance
C. Heated surfaces lose heat to cooler surrounding surfaces
D. The total pressure of a confined mixture of gases is the sum of the pressure of each gas in
the mixture
52.Where is the hot water heat exchange in the ice field system? Answer: B
A. Between the evaporator and the condenser
B. Between the discharge line of the compressor and the condenser
C. Between the liquid line of the condenser and the metering device
D. Between the suction line of the evaporator and the condenser
53.If an ice field is stopped during the freezing process, what should the operator do? Answer: D

A. Send the defrosted ice to a holding room and return the cans to the dip tank
B. Agitate the defrosted ice and reuse it immediately
C. Reset the thermostat, turn on the defrost mechanism, and return the water to the brine
cooler
D. Empty all ice cans and refill with fresh water
54. If a defrosted can were refrozen: Answer: A and B
A. Initial freezing would occur across the top of the can, causing bulging and damage to the
can
B. Lifting of ice in the can would prevent air flow through the can
C. Initial freezing would make the ice brittle and hard to handle
D. None of the above
55.Ideal ice making temperature is: Answer: A
A. Between 14 and 21 F
B. Between 4 and 14 F
C. Between 14 and 29F
D. Anywhere below 32F
56.What factor causes cloudy ice, mistakenly called ammonia ice, to form? Answer: C
A. Impurities of ice
B. The inability to filter out NH3
C. Lack of air and agitation while the hollow center freeze
D. Water was frozen too quickly
57.With proper frequency, operating limitations are: Answer: A
A. 10% plus or minus voltage
B. 15% plus and minus voltage
C. 5% plus of minus voltage
D. None of the above
58.One characteristics of a synchronous motor is that it operates at: Answer: B
A. High starting torque
B. Constant speed
C. Causes lagging power factor
D. All of the above
59.If a synchronous motor drives a refrigeration compressor: Answer: C
A. The speed of the compressor will change the load
B. DC is required
C. The compressor will run at constant speed
D. The refrigerant must be SO2
60.A system using a squirrel cage induction motor can operate at: Answer: A
A. One speed only
B. Either of two speeds
C. Any of three speeds
D. Variable speeds
61. Since the synchronous motor is used for constant speed, the rheostat is used for: Answer: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

Adjusting the AC to the exciter

Varying the power factor to load conditions
Shutting off AC to the fields
Shutting down the motor

62.A wound rotor induction motor with external resistance is a: Answer: A

A. Excessive heat or amperage
B. High head pressure in the condenser
C. An activated rupture disk
D. An overloaded fusible plug
63.What causes an overload protection device to function? Answer: A
A. Excessive heat or amperage
B. High head pressure in the condenser
C. An activated rupture disk
D. An overloaded fusible plug
64.A common fan motor used for condenser and evaporator blower motors is the: Answer: B
A. Repulsion start, induction tun
B. Squirrel cage
C. Capacitor start, induction run
D. synchronous
65.What cools the motor in a semi hermetic reciprocating compressor? Answer: C
A. The squirrel cage tan
B. The water cooling jacket
C. The refrigerant suction gas
D. The cooling tower
66.Why does a hermetic compressor and special materials? Answer: D
A. Its construction requires a start capacitor due to the high starting torque
B. It is an open type system
C. The compressor is connected to the shaft, and the motor requires high torque
D. The motor runs in a refrigerant atmosphere

67. Name of two methods to cool most hermetic compressors: Answer: D

A. Water cooled and pressure cooled
B. Air cooled and sub cooled
C. Refrigerant cooled by absorption
D. Refrigerant cooled and air cooled
68.If purging does not occur in a refrigerating system, what is the result? Answer: A
A. High head pressure
B. Low condenser pressure
C. Low head pressure
D. None of these
69.The purger has a refrigerated coil in it. This coil: Answer: B
A. Prevents operator injury

B. Reclaims refrigerant usually lost

C. Saves the operator from manually purging
D. Removes the water
70.The main reason for purging a Freon centrifugal refrigerating system is to remove: Answer: C
A. Water lubricating oil
B. Gaseous lubricating oil
C. Non - condensable gas
D. Water vapor
71.What reclaims refrigerant after it is condensed in an automatic purger: Answer: A
A. Aqua ammonia
B. Anhydrous ammonia
C. Cold brine
D. None of the above
72.The best time to purging an ammonia plant with 250 pounds of ammonia is: Answer: C
A. During shut down because you will lose ammonia
B. While charging the plant
C. During operation
D. None of the above
73.Purging a double pipe condenser should be done from the: Answer: C
A. Bottom, bear the liquid refrigerant outlet
B. Middle, on one of the bands
C. Top, near the gas inlet
D. Relief valve by the outlet of the liquid line

74.The liquid in the bottle of an ammonia purger is: Answer: A

A. water
B. weak liquor
C. anhydrous ammonia
D. strong liquor
75.In an
A.
B.
C.
D.

NH 3 absorption system, ammonia goes directly from: Answer: A

Evaporator to absorber
Condenser to rectifier
Absorber to analyzer
Analyzer to generator

76.The rectifier is between the: Answer: D

A. Generator and expansion valve
B. Weak liquor cooler and generator
C. Analyzer and generator
D. Condenser and analyzer
77.In an NH3 absorption system, the ammonia pump drives: Answer: A
A. Strong liquor to generator

B. Weak liquor to heat exchanger

C. Weak liquor to absorber
D. Heat exchanger to absorber
78.A lantern on an ammonia compressor should be: Answer: A
A. Placed in the center of the gland between the packing
B. Directly under the oil line to the gland
C. Eliminated if the system is changed to Freon
D. Lighted while the compressor is running
79.In an NH3 absorption system, the mixing chamber has a lead pipe. Inside the pipes end should be:
Answer: D
A. Diverging nozzles
B. A strainer
C. An open end
D. A lead plug
80.An oil interceptor is placed in a 300 ton ammonia plant: Answer: B
A. So it returns to the pump
B. On the discharge line between the compressor and condenser
C. As an oil strainer before the pump
D. None of the above
81.The intercooler in an ammonia booster system would be: Answer: C
A. Placed after the high pressure compressor
B. Placed after the condenser
C. Installed to cool booster discharge gas
D. .installed for cooling the jacket water
82.The flow of weak liquor to the absorber is controlled by: Answer: B
A. Gas pressure
B. Throttling device
C. Float valve
D. Pressure of the strong liquor pump
83.What will make the strong liquor in the absorber decrease? Answer: B
A. Expansion valve open too much
B. A decrease in evaporator load
C. An increase in evaporator load
D. Too much steam on the generator
84.In an ammonia absorption system, the analyzer can be best described as a(n): Answer: B
A. Closed type heat exchanger
B. Open type heat exchanger
C. Bubbling type heat exchanger
D. Device different from a heat exchanger
85.For ammonia burns, linseed oil is mixed with carrene oil and: Answer: D
A. lanolin
B. nicotine

C. vaseline
D. lime water
86.What refrigerant has the same test pressures of an ammonia system? Answer: C
A. R - 11
B. R - 12
C. R - 22
D. R - 30
87. If brine becomes saturated with ammonia in a small compression plant, the proper thing to do is:
Answer: C
A. Run in the brine through the cooling tower and treat if with lime
B. Treat the brine with lime
C. Run it to the sewer and make a new batch
D. Pay no attention to the problem since it will correct itself
88.
89.In case of an accident with an ammonia absorption system: Answer: C
A. The ammonia pump should immediately be shut down
B. The water supply to the condenser should be increased
C. The steam to the generator should be shut off
D. The absorber pressure should be removed or reduced by discharging it to the sewer
90.The balance in an absorption system is maintained by: Answer: C
A. The governor on the ammonia pump
B. The steam pressure to the generator
C. The liquid regulating valve on the weak liquor line to the absorber
D. The temperature on the heat exchanger
91.In an ammonia plant, a manometer measuring the amount of refrigerant circulating would
normally be located between the: Answer: D
A. Compressor and the condenser
B. Condenser and the receiver
C. Expansion valve and the evaporator
D. Receiver and the expansion valve
92.In order to vary the capacity of an absorption refrigerating plant, an operating engineer should
regulate the: Answer: A
A. Flow of steam to the generator, and adjust the expansion valve
B. Relief valves on the generator, and the speed of NH 3 pump
C. Speed of the absorber pump
D. Flow of water to the condenser
93.The flash gas loss at the expansion valve of an ammonia system is approximately: Answer: D
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 22%
D. 12%

94.On a bare pipe ammonia system with evaporator coils in the 28 to 33F range, you notice that the
lower two coils are not frosted. This indicates that: Answer: B
A. The compressor is inefficient
B. The evaporator is starved
C. The evaporator is flooded
D. None of the above

95.Where is the strong liquor and where is the weak liquor in an ammonia absorption system?
Answer: D
A. Strong liquor is in the rectifier and weak liquor is in the receiver
B. Strong liquor is in the generator and weak liquor is in the exchanger
C. Strong liquor is in the generator and weak liquor is in the analyzer
D. Strong liquor is in the rectifier and weak liquor is in the absorber
96.What is the absorbent in an ammonia absorption system? Answer: B
A. Lithium bromide
B. water
C. aqua ammonia
D. 10% oil solution
97.In an ammonia absorption system the: Answer: A
A. Weak liquor heats the strong liquor
B. Strong liquor heat the weak liquor
C. Anhydrous ammonia is in the shell
D. Anhydrous ammonia is in the tubes
98.The scale trap of an ammonia system is located: Answer: C
A. In the liquid between the receiver and the expansion valve
B. In the discharge line between the compressor and the condenser
C. In the suction line between the compressor and the chiller
D. None of the above
99.Anhydrous ammonia is: Answer: B
A. 28% ammonia
B. 100% ammonia
C. Aqua ammonia
D. Strong liquor
100.In an aqua ammonia system: Answer: A
A. Refrigerant is the ammonia, absorbent is the water
B. Lithium bromide is the absorber, refrigerant is the water
C. Anhydrous ammonia is 100%, aqua solution is the refrigerant
D. None of the above

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENNGINNERING

SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING AND ARCHITECTURE
SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY

ELEMENTS
IN
POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Copyright 2002 by:
RONNIE S. ALCORCON

SUBMITTED TO:
ENGR. MIKE CARULLA

SUBMITTED BY:
MARK ANTHONY D. MAALA

DATE SUBMITTED:
MAY 2, 2013