Saudi Commission For Health Specialties

(Periodontology Exam)
1- Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly:
a. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately ***
b. Reassure the patient that it will disappear by it self.
c. To buy a new brush.

2- Which of the following statement is true regarding dental calculus:

a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material.
b. It is dens in nature and has a rough surface.
c. It is mineralized dental plaque.
d. All of the above.
e. B & C only. ***
f. None of the above.

3- Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:

a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.
b. It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss.
c. Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly.
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque control.
e. A & d. ***

4- Main use of dental floss

a. Remove calculus.
b. Remove over hang.
c. Remove bacterial plaque. ***
d. Remove food debris.

the goal of flossing your teeth is to scrub dental plaque , it can be done in primary and
permanent

5- What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:

a. Plaque removal
b. calculus removal
c. washing the food debris. ***

6- What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water

a. Plaque removal
b. Prevent the formation of plaque
c. Dilute the concentration of bacteria

7- The water reins devices for periodontal therapy has a main goal which is :
a. remove plaque
b. prevent plaque attachment

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 c. dilute bacterial toxin
d. remove dental pocket

8- Calculus induce further periodontal lesion due to:

a. Directly stimulates inflammation
b. more plaque adhere to it. ***
c. irritate the gingival

9- Floss used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque. ***
b. Remove overhangs
c. Stimulate gingival

10- Plaque consists of:

a. Bacteria
b. Inorganic material
c. Food

11- To prevent perio problem MOST effective method is:

a. Community program.
b. Removal of plaque. ***
c. Patient education.

12- Caries consist of:

d. Bacteria. ***
e. Fluid.
f. Epithelial cells.

13- Use of miswak and toothbrush:

a. Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of
home.*
b. Miswak and toothbrush must be used together.
c. Use the miswak only when they can not afford to buy the toothbrush and
toothpaste.
d. Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush instead.

14- Acute periodontal abscess:

a. Fistula present.
b. Swelling enlargement in tooth site. ***
c. None of the above.

15- Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by:

a. Gracey Curette. ***
b. Hoe.
c. Chisel.

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16- Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal disesse (apart
from limited use of antiseptic solutions) is:
a. Regular and rough removal of dental plaque. ***
b. Salt flouridation
c. Dental health education.

17- Periodontal ligament fibers in the middle third of the root is:
a. Oblique. ***
b. Horizontal.
c. Transeptal.

18- Which of the following statement is true for the reported relationship of
periodontal disease and diabetes mellitus:
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease in the diabetes is less than that
for nondiabetic.
a. Pts with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal
disease destruction than those with history of longer than 10 years.
b. The prevalence of periodontal disease increase with the advancing age of
the diabetic. ***
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease increase with the better metabolic
coronal of the diabetic state

19- Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the concentration of:

a. 0.1-0.2% ***
b. 1-2%
c. 5-10%
d. 20%

20- Cementum in cervical 2/3 have:

a. Acellular intrinsic fiber.
b. Acellular extrinsic fiber. ***
c. Cellular mixed fibers.
d. Intermediate cementum

21- Supra calculus all true EXCEPT:

a. Hard and rough ***
b. Easy to detach
c. Has component of saliva

22- Important factor in long term success of perio treatment:

a. Skill of the operator
b. Perio maintenance

23- All of the following cause gingival enlargement EXCEPT?

a. Cyclosporine
b. Phenyntion

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 c. Nifedipine
d. Aspirin

24- Which of the following drugs includes gingival hyperplasia?

a. Phenytoin
b. Cyclosporine = immunosuppressants
c. Nifedipine(Nitrendipine) = (calcium channel blocker)
d. All of the following

25- Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is:

a. Most common on lingual surface.
b. Most common in older Pt.
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage.
d. Strongly related to poor oral hygiene. ***

26- Which causes gingival enlargement:

a. Cyclosporines

Gingival Overgrowth Most commonly caused by medications such as phenytoin

(Dilantin(, cyclosporine A, and nifedipine

27- Cementum is formed from

a. Cementoblasts ***
b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementicles

28- Teeth have convexity in buccal and lingual

a. Upper premolars. ***

29- Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine:

a. Staining. ***
b. Burning sensation.
c. Altered taste.

chlorohexidine has several disadvantages. One of the most important disadvantages is

that if a patient rinses his mouth with chlorohexidine compositions regularly, his teeth
and tongue obtain a brownish colour. This is off course a major disadvantage.
Another disadvantage of chlorohexidine is that it has no significant anti-bacterial
effect on gram positive bacteria at relatively low concentrations. This means that
gram positive bacteria will not be effected by the rinse composition and may thus still
cause periodontitis or produce the volatile sulphur compounds that cause the
malodour.

30- probe used to detect furcation:

a. nabers probe. ***

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31- The best method for brushing
a. vertical
b. horizontal
c. bass sulcular method
d. all of the above

32- The best method for tooth brush is Bass method because:
a. It enter to interproximal area
b. Can be used by patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to all
types of patients.
c. The both sentences are correct. ***
d. The first sentence is correct and the second is wrong.

33- Bass brushing has the advantage of the bristles enters in the cervical area , and it
is recommended for all patients:
a. both statements are true. ***
b. both statements are false
c. first is true ,second is wrong
d. first is wrong , second is true

Bass method advantages:

- It concentrates the cleaning action on the cervical and interproximal portions of
the teeth.
- The Bass technique is efficient and can be recommended for any patient with or
without periodontal involvement.

34- Patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss of gingival contour
and recession, what's the best tooth brushing technique?
a. Modified bass
b. Modified stillman. ***
c. Charter
d. Scrub

The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is

Charter . The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with
progression gingival recession is modified stilman.

.
135 .
.

35- The best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure from
fracture?
a. Full crown. ***
b. Splint with composite
c. Orthodontic splint

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36- sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at angle:
a. 50-60
b. 70-80. ***
c. 80-90
d. 60-70

37- The aim of treatment maintenance is:

a. Prevent secondary infection.. ***
b. Check tissue response.

38- To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival Sulcus :

a. Schwartz Periotriever. ***

39- An 18 years old Pt present complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival.
This began over the weakened while studying for the final exam. The Pt may have
which of the following conditions:
a. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis ***
b. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c. Desquamative gingivitis.
d. Acute periodontal cyst.

Thus, the former term, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is

summed up in necrotising gingivitis (NG(
NG is a relatively rare disease and is generally described as existing in young
adults between the ages of 18 and 30 years.
It tends to emerge more frequently when the patient is under conditions of both
physical and psychological stress.
The disease is characterized by pain, bleeding and papillary necrosis with
tendency to relapse Abrupt onset. If the patient has had prior outbreaks, he/ she is
capable of reporting prodromal symptoms; for instance, a burning sensation in the
gums.
Poor general health status and low-grade fever Halitosis. ; it varies in terms of
both intensity and degree.

40- Gingival condition occur in young adult has good oral hygiene was weakened
a. ANUG
b. desqumative gingivitis
c. Periodontitis
d. Gingivitis

"Tyldesley's oral medicine"

The influence of poor oral hygiene in the initiation of ANUG has been often
stressed, but there is no doubt that there are some patients whose standard of
hygiene must be considered by normal criteria to be good.

41- Differences between ANUG and AHGS is:

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 a. ANUG occur in dental papilla while AHGS diffuse erythematous inflamed
gingival.
b. ANUG occur during young adult and AHGS in children.
c. All of the above. ***

42- Student came to clinic with severe pain, interdental papilla is inflamed, student
has exams, heavy smoker, poor nutrition.
a. Gingivitis
b. ANUG
c. Periodontitis

43- Which of the following is a common factor for most patients with acute
necrotizing ulcerative periodontal diseases?
a. Obesity b. Diabetes
c. Decreased host resistance d. Cardiovascular problems

44- proxy brush with which type of furcation:

a. Furcation Grade 1-1
b. Furcation Grade 2-2
c. Furcation Grade 3-3. ***
d. Furcation Grade 4-4

45- Contraindication of gingivectomy

a. periodontal abscess

46- sharping of hand instrument mounted air driven better than unmounted due to
a. fine grit. ***
b. sterilization
c. ability to curve instrument

The mounted-stone technique.. They have a fine grit and are used with the
straight handpiece. The stones permit rapid sharpening, but without extreme care,
will remove too much metal and may overheat the instrument. Overheating the
instrument will destroy the temper, thereby causing the instrument to no longer
hold a sharp edge.

47- Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted because:

a. has finer grains
b. don't alter the bevel of the instrument
c. easier to sterilize
d. less particles of the instruments are removed. *** = cut less of the plade.

Unmounted stones are customarly preferred as they are kinder on instrument by

removing less metal in the sharpening process

48- Electro surgery rate:

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 a. 1.5 7.5 million cycle per seconds. ***
b. 7.5 10 million cycle per seconds.
c. 10 25 million cycle per seconds.
d. 30 million cycle per seconds.

49- Main reason for surgical pocket therapy:

a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning
b. Remove supragingival calculus

50- Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to:

a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
b. Remove the necrotic cementum.
c. Change the root surface to become biocompatible
d. All of the above.
e. A & b only. ***

51- Main aim of root planning is to remove?

a. Plaque
b. Calculus
c. Necrotic cementum
d. All of the above

52- The purpose of subgingivally scaling?

a. To remove calculus
b. To remove nicotine cementum
c. To make root surface biocompatible
d. A+B

53- Best measurement of periodontitis by:

a. Pocket depth.
b. Bleeding. ***
c. Attachment level.

Probing to elicit bleeding (which is the single most useful indicator of disease
activity), measuring pocket depth attachment levels, and detecting subgingival
calculus.

54- The tissue response to oral hygiene instruction is detected by:

a. Probe pocket depth.
b. Less bleeding. ***

Both the MBI and PlI can be expressed as bleeding or plaque-free scores in this way
obtaining a high score is a good thing, which may be both easier for the patient to
understand and a more positive motivational approach.

55- After scaling and root planning healing occur by:

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 a. Long junctional epithelium. ***
b. New attachment.
c. New bone and connective tissue formation.
d. New attached periodontal ligament fibers.

56- During examination 34 show gingival recession buccally, the least correct reason
is:
a. Frenum attachment.
b. Pt is right hand brushee.
c. Occlusal force. ***
d. Inadequate gingival.

57- Periodontal pocket differ most significantly from gingival pocket with respect to:
a. Depth.
b. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing.
c. The location of the bone of the pocket. ***
d. All of the above.

Chronic gingivitis is, as the name suggests, inflammation of the gingival tissues. It is
not associated with alveolar bone resorption or apical migration of the junctional
epithelium. Pockets > 2 mm can occur in chronic gingivitis due to an increase in
gingival size because of oedema or hyperplasia (false pockets).

58- All of these are right ways to handle the instrument EXCEPT .
a. Modified pen handle
b. Inverted pen
c. Pen handle. ***
d. Palm and thumb

There are four grasps used with the hand instruments: Modified pen. Inverted pen.
Palm and thumb. Modified palm and thumb.

59- What is the dominant type of fibers found in Cementum:

a. longitudinal
b. Circular
c. Sharpey's fiber.. ***

60- Fibers which completely embedded in cementation and pass from cementation of
one tooth to the cementation of adjacent tooth is:
a. Sharpey's fiber.
b. Transceptal fibers. ***
c. Longitudinal fibers.

61- Dental plaque is formed after

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours

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 c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

62- colour of normal gingiva in interplay between :

a. Keratin- vascularity melanin- epithelial thickness ***

63- Amputation means :

a. surgical removal of the apical portion of the root
b. removal of one or more roots***
c. the root and the crown are cut lengthwise
d. none

64- Hemisection means :

a. surgical removal of the apical portion of the root
b. removal of one or more roots
c. the root and the crown are cut lengthwise ***
d. none

65- For treatment of pericoronitis :

a. extraction of the tooth
b. analgesic + sterility + antibiotic
c. cleaning with concentrated phenol
d. none ***

66- Outline of pericoronitis (operculitis) treatment may include?

a. Mouth wash and irrigation
b. Extraction of the opposing tooth
c. Surgical removal of causative tooth
d. All of the above

67- Chronic pericoronitis:

a. Difficult mouth opening
b. Halitosis
c. all of the above. ***

68- Attrition may be caused by

a. friction due to pipe
b. friction during sleep ***
c. gastric acid
d. none

69- What is the name of the instument used to diagnose halitosis

e. Halometer ***

70- Difference between Gracey and universal curette:

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 a. Section of gracey is hemicircular and in universal triangular.
b. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two.
c. Gracey Used for cutting in specific area while universal is in any area.
d. Universal 90 not offset, gracey 60 offset.
e. A and d
f. A, b and c.
g. B, c and d.

71- Streptococci detected by which biochemically tests?

a. Catalase test
b. Carbohydrate fermentation test
c. Gram stain

72- Which of the most likely cause of periodontal cyst ( lateral- perapical ) ?
a. Cell rests of malassez
b. Cell crest of series
c. Cell of Hertwigs sheath

73- What is the most factors encouraging dental caries?

a. Xerostomia
b. Hypocalcification
c. Smoking

74- Which of the following enhance caries in adult?

a. Saliva
b. Pregnancy
c. Xerostomia

75- Scale to measure marginal deterioration ?

a. Mahler scale
b. Color analogues scale

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76- Periodontal pocket prevent ?
a. Vertical tooth fracture
b. Palate gingival grooves
c. Endo origin lesion
d. All of the above

77- isolated pocket in:

a. vertical root fracture
b. palato gingival groove
c. endo origine lesion
d. all. ***

78- You should treat ANUG until the disease completely removed .. Otherwise, it
will change to necrotic ulcerative gingivitis .
a. 1st T , 2nd F
b. 1st F , 2nd T

79- Each of the following is correct EXCEPT which one?

a. Bad breath appears to be bacterial in origin
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common
c. Self perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable
d. Fear of having bad breath may be sever problem from some people

80- Which are the ways in which the proximal contact can be checked?
a. Use a pencil
b. Use a shim stock = thin occlusal registration strips = articulating paper
c. Use a silicone checker
d. Use dental floss
e. B+D
f. C+D

81- In persons with normal healthy gingiva, the proper device for cleaning
Interproximal surface is the?
a. Dental floss
b. Interproximal brush
c. Powered (electric) toothbrush
d. Hand toothbrush
e. Water irrigation device

82- Bone graft material site to another site in the same person?
a. Allograft
b. Autograft
c. Alloplast
d. Xenograft

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83- Which statement best describes plaque?
a. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and cannot be rinsed off the
teeth
b. It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria and can be rinsed off the teeth
c. It is a soft film composed mainly of bacteria and cant be rinsed off the teeth

84- The best method for plaque control is?

a. through mechanical tooth cleaning
b. by the use of chemical agents once/day
c. by the use effective chemical agent

85- what dose plaque comprises?

a. Epithelium
b. Mucus
c. Bacteria

86- What is the microorganism that cause caries?

a. Streptococcus mutant
b. SL. Viridian
c. Spirochetes + actinomicites

87- Tooth brushing and dental floss in community preventive of periodontal disease?
a. True
b. False

88- Cementum contain cell like bone and it is yellow in color in vital, extraxted or
avulsed tooth but in non vital its colored dark?
a. True
b. False

89- Radiotherapy increase caries by decrease salivary secretion?

a. True
b. False

90- Cell of chronic inflammation?

a. Lymphocytes
b. PMN
c. Neutrophils

91- The major connection between the pulp and the periodontal is though?
a. apical foramen
b. lat accessory canal
c. dentinal tubules
d. periodontal ligament

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92- The periodontal tissues comprise which of the following tissues:
a. Gingiva and the PDL.
b. Gingival, PDL, and alveolar bone. ***
c. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, and cementum.
d. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and enamel.

The periodontal tissues are:

- Gums (also called gingiva). Gums consist of soft, pink tissue, which covers
the alveolar bone. The gum line is where the tooth meets the gum.
- Bone (alveolar bone). This is the bone in which the roots of teeth are
embedded.
- Periodontal membrane or ligament. This connects and attaches the root of the
tooth to the bone

93- The periodontium comprise which of the following tissues:

a. Gingiva and the PDL.
b. Gingival, PDL, and alveolar bone.
c. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, and cementum. ***
d. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and enamel.

The following four tissues make up the periodontium:

- Alveolar bone
- Cementum
- Gingiva or gums
- Periodontal ligament

94- A tooth very painful to percussion, doesnt respond to heat, cold or the electric
pulp tester. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Reversible pulpitis.
b. Irreversible pulpitis.
c. Acute apical periodontitis. ***

95- Chronic suppurative periodontitis

a. PT complains from moderate pain.
b. Fistula with drain. ***
c. Pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion.

96- Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and circumscribed
radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis. ***
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
d. Abscess.

97- A Pt with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and

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circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis. ***
d. Abscess.

98- A Pt present in severe pain. The periapical area over the involved tooth is
inflamed and swollen. The tooth is mobile and depressible in its socket with a
diffused radiolucency. The diagnosis is:
a. Acute apical periodontitis.
b. Chronic apical periodontitis.
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
d. Abscess. ***

99- Pt with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination positive pulp
test , percussion test, no radiographic abnormality, rt side have recent fpd upper:
a. Chronic apical periodontits
b. Actue apical periodontitis ***
c. Apical abcess
d. None of the above.

100- One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries:

a. Obes malnourished
b. Pt has xerostomia
c. Less plaque score. ***

101- In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:

a. Make the tooth form good at gingival one third. ***1/3
b. Make the tooth form good at gingival one fifth.
c. Make the tooth form good at gingival one half.
Dental Decks - page 466

102- The function of the periodontal ligament include

a. Mechanical function
b. Formative function
c. Nutritive function
d. Sensory function
e. All of the above. ***
clinical periodontology 9th edition page 39

103- We distinguish between periapical and periodontal abscess:

a. X-ray examination
b. Clinical examination
c. Vitality of the pulp. ***

104- Biological width

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 a. 1 mm
b. 2mm ***
c. 3mm
d. 4mm

.)(
1.07 + 97.0(
) 2.04 =
0.69 ( )
. 0.5 ( )

105- Biological depth:

a. Crestal bone to gingival sulcus

106- Periodontal attachment contain:

a. Epithilum, sulcus, connective tissue. ***

107- Child with late primary dentition has calculus and gingival recession related to
upper molar what is the diagnosis:
a. Periodontitis.
b. Local aggressive Periodontitis.
c. Viral infection.

108- if calculs is not detected and removed the periodontal disese process will
continu because the calculus?
a. is the primary eatolgical egent*****
b. irritates the tissues
c. Degeneration the tissues

Harbors bactirial plaque on its surface

dental deck 2004 perio page 171

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109- Gracey 13/14 :
d. Mesial posterior
e. Distal posterior

- gracy curret 13_14 used in distal surface of posterior teeth

- gracy curret 11_12 used in mesial surface of posterior teeth
- gracy curret 5_6 used in anterior surface teeth
- gracy 7_8 used in posterior wide surface....when there is no contact present
betwwen the teeth
- The Gracey 1/2 3/4 is used for the removal of subgingival plaque, calculus
and rootplaning in the upper and lower anterior areas.
- The curette 11/12 is used for the removal of subgingival plaque, calculus and
rootplaning of the mesial surfaces in the premolar and molar areas.
- The curette 13/14 is used for the removal of subgingival plaque, calculus and
rootplaning of the distal surfaces in the (pre)molar areas.
- 5/6 anti & bicusp
- 7/8 9/10 post buccal & lingual

110- GCF often collected by :

A- micro syringe B-filter paper C-strip paper

111- All of the following antibiotics may increase the anticoagulant effect of
warfarin(Coumadin) EXCEPT:
a. Doxycycline (Doryx) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
c. Clindamycin (Cleocin) d. Metronidazole (Flagyl

112- All of the following drugs enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin
(Coumadin) EXCEPT:
a. nafcillin (Unipen). b. ibuprofen (Motrin).
c. metronidazole (Flagyl). d. cephalosporin (Keflex).

113- TB suspicious pt to confirm dignosis by :

A-chest x-ray B-skin test (mantoux test)*** C- culture bactria

114- Prognosis according reasonable degree of accuracy is :

A-excellent,good,fair B-excellent,good,hopeless***

115- The finding of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) in a serologic test is strongly

suggestive of :
a. pancreatitis.
b. osteoarthritis.
c. diabetes mellitus.
d. systemic lupus erythematosus.

116- The MOST common manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus is:

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a. skin disease. b. heart disease.
c. kidney disease. d. joint involvement ( polyarthralgia ).

117- Which of the following disorders are characterized by the presence of

photosensitive skin lesions and circulating autoantibodies to nucleoproteins?
a. Psoriasis b. Pemphigus vulgaris
c. Erythema multiforme d. Lupus erythematosus

118- Intraepithelial vesiculation is a characteristic of:

A. bullous pemphigoid.
B. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
C. lichen planus.
D. pemphigus.

119- 40 age pt w refractory periodontitis & smoking 15 cigratte in day which

bactria present :
A- p.gingvals B-fusiform bact
C- Bacteroides forsythus *** D-denti cola

120- Van Winkelhoff et al. (2001) demonstrated that _________ occurs more
frequently in smokers than non-smokers.
a. F. nucleatum b. P. gingivalis
c. P. micros d. A. actinomycetemcomitans

121- Zambon et al. (1996) reported that A. actinomycetemcomitans, B. forsythus,

and P. gingivalis were identified _______ in smokers when compared to nonsmokers.
a. more frequently b. less frequently
c. at a similar frequency

122- which antibiotic combination is good to treat refractory perio :

A-amoxil+metro*** B-cipro+metro

123- the most effective combination therapy for elimination of A.

actinomycetemcomitans is metronidazole and:
a. amoxicillin. b. tetracycline.
c. clindamycin. d. ciprofloxacin.

124- Metro aginst which bactria : anaerobic bacteria

A-gram +ve B-gram -ve anaerobic***

125- Metro aginst which bactria

A-motile + rod B-non motil +cocus
C-motile cocus D-non motile -ve rod***

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126- A. actinomycetemcomitans can be characterized as a:
a. motile, gram-negative rod.
b. motile, gram-positive coccus.
c. non-motile, gram-negative rod.
d. non-motile, gram-positive coccus.

Notice:
A.A bactria is: facultative anaerobes, spherical or rod shape non motile, its
capnophylic but not haemolytic

127- ___% of A. actinomycetemcomitans strains isolated from localized aggressive

(juvenile) periodontitis produce leukotoxin.
a. 16 b. 36 c. 56 d. 76

128- Haraszthy et al. (2000) reported that a highly leukotoxic A.

actinomycetemcomitans was associated with:
a. periodontal health.
b. chronic (adult) periodontitis.
c. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis.
d. post-localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis..

129- rotery tooth brushing compared to conventional tooth brushing :

A-more plaque & bleeding B-more plaque less bleeding
C-less plaue more bleeding D-less plaque less bleeding***

130- McCracken et al. (2004) conducted a 16-month comparison of an

oscillating/rotating powered toothbrush and a manual toothbrush, and found that:
a. powered toothbrushing resulted in greater probing depth reduction.
b. manual toothbrushing resulted in greater plaque removal.
c. manual toothbrushing was associated with less gingival bleeding.

131- Haffajee et al. (2001) compared the efficacy of manual and powered
toothbrushes and reported that the greatest benefit of the powered brush was seen at
_____ surfaces.
a. maxillary facial b. maxillary lingual
c. mandibular facial d. mandibular lingual

132- Greenwell et al. (2000) examined existing root coverage techniques using a
new approach to data analysis comparing % defect coverage versus % root coverage
and found the _______ technique to be the most effective and predictable method.
a. free gingival graft b. connective tissue graft
c. laterally positioned flap d. coronally positioned flap

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133- In a review of the modalities used for treating gingival recession by Bouchard
et al. (2001), the most successful technique for achieving complete root coverage was
a:
a. laterally positioned flap only.
b. coronally advanced flap only.
c. connective tissue graft + laterally positioned flap.
d. connective tissue graft + coronally advanced flap

134- Camargo et al. (2001) noted that the most predictable modality for achieving
complete root coverage is the:
a. free gingival graft. b. connective tissue graft.
c. coronally advanced flap. d. guided tissue regeneration.

135- Horning et al (2008) found that the ______________was the most predictable
technique for achieving gains in root coverage:
a. free gingival graft b. connective tissue graft
c. pedicle graft d. combined technique

136- According to Horning et al. (2008), ______________were the most

predictable techniques for gingival augmentation.
a. free gingival grafts b. connective tissue grafts
c. pedicle grafts d. combined techniques

137- In order to minimize the loss of vertical crestal bone between implants, what is
the minimum distance apart the implants should be placed?
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm c. 3 mm d. 4 mm

138- Plaque & calculas in implant compared to tooth:

A-highly attached B-loosely attached***!!! C-different in component

Plaque and calculus accumulate on implants similarly to teeth , they attach strongly to
teeth and there is no significant difference between the accumulation of bacteria and
calculus on implants and teeth

139- Plaque and calculus:

A. Do not attach on implants
B. Attach loosely to implants
C. Have a different composition on implants
D. Accumulate on implants similarly to teeth

140- Horizental radiographic line between implant & abutment indicate is :

A-normal implant B-periimplantites

20
C-fail implant D-loose component***

141- In the Miller (Mobility) Index, movement of the crown up to 1 mm in any

direction is scored as:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3.

Miller 1950 mobility index

Grade I: first distinguishable sign of movement greater than normal
Grade II: movement of the crown up to 1 mm in any direction
Grade III: movement of the crown more than 1 mm in any direction and/or vertical
depression or rotation of the crown in its socket

142- Miller classification extended beyond MGJ but no interproxemal defect is:
A-1 B-2*** C-3 D-4

143- Warferin in treatment pt the index to diagnosis bleeding is by:

A-INR*** B-bleeding time C-PPT

144- According to loe&sliness mild to moderate plauqe viseable by naked classfied

as:
A-0 B-1 C-2*** D-3

145- which of the follow not cause gingival resscion :

A-mechincal truama B-devlopmental C-acute luckemia*** D-

146- Which of the following forms of leukemia most frequently demonstrates

gingival enlargement?
a. Acute monocytic
b. Chronic myeloid
c. Acute lymphocytic
d. Chronic lymphocytic

147- Which of the following hematologic diseases is most likely to be associated

with generalized gingival enlargement?
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Acute myelogenous leukemia
d. Langerhans' cell tumors

148- Which of the following cell types is predominant in chronic (adult)

periodontitis lesions?
a. Neutrophil
b. Plasma cell
c. Macrophage

21
d. T lymphocyte

149- Figure show incision in gingiva which type of incision :

A-modefied widman flap*** B-gingivctomy***!!! C-coronally RF D-apically RF

150- Radiograph show accurate & more crest of bone in severe periodontitis is :
A-periapcal B-panoramic C-vertical bitwing*** D-horizental bitwing

151- How many days need to re establish vascularaization in lateral repostional flap
:
A-3 days B- (3----11 days true)*** C-14---21 days D-

152- Which of the following is a COMMON FEATURE of localized and

generalized forms of aggressive periodontitis?
a. Circumpubertal onset
b. Abundant plaque deposits
c. Patients who are otherwise healthy
d. Poor serum antibody response to infecting organisms

153- Agreesive periodontitis occur in pt :

A-diabtic B-decrease host resisteance***!!! C-normal host***!!! D-

154- The pathogenesis of the periodontal abscess includes all of the following
factors EXCEPT:
b. obstruction of the pocket orifice.
c. lower tissue resistance.
d. an acute inflammatory infiltrate.
e. the presence of spirochetes.

155- According to Herrera et al. (2000), all of the following microorganisms are
characteristic of periodontal abscesses EXCEPT:
a. P. intermedia.
b. P. gingivalis.
c. F. nucleatum.
d. A. actinomycetemcomitans.

156- which of the following bacteria was cultured in the highest proportions at sites
of periodontal abscesses?
a. C. rectus
b. F. nucleatum
c. P. gingivalis
d. A. actinomycetemcomitans

157- All of the following are associated with onset of periodontitis at an early age
EXCEPT:

22
a. Down's Syndrome.
b. hypophosphatasia.
c. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
d. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Type VIII.

158- Several alloplastic bone replacement graft materials are sintered. "Sinter"
means to:
a. rapidly thaw.
b. freeze rapidly.
c. heat without melting.
d. connect to hydroxyapatite.

159- which of following act as scaffold in bone graft :

A-ossteoindaction B-ossteocondaction*** C-ossteogensis D-

160- which of follow produce new bone cells from bony graft :
A-osteoindcation B-osteocondaction C-osteogensis*** d-

161- Bony graft from dissemilar members & same species :

A-autograft B-allograft*** C-alloplast D-xenograft

162- Adjacent bone to sharpey's fibers is :

A-lamellar bone B-cortical bone C-spongy bone D-bundle bone***

163- Lamina Dura is:

A-cortical bone B-alveolar bone proper*** C- D-

164- During the progression of destructive periodontitis, which of the gingival fiber
groups usually remains and can be easily visualized in mesio-distal histological
sections?
A. Circular
B. Transseptal
C. Dentogingival
D. Alveologingival

165- McGuire (1991) compared the final prognoses of 2,484 teeth during long-term
periodontal maintenance to the the original prognoses given and found that teeth in
which prognostic category changed the least?
a. good b.fair c. poor d.questionable

166- most accurate & less complicated technique for gingivctomy is:
A-electrosurgery B-scalpel*** C-laser D-chemosurgery

167- Mavrogiannis et al. (2006) studied the efficacy of different surgical techniques

23
for drug-induced gingival enlargement and found that:
A. scalpel gingivectomy results in the lowest rate of recurrence.
B. laser gingivectomy results in the lowest rate of recurrence.
C. flap surgery results in the lowest rate of recurrence.
D. there were no significant differences between therapies.

168- Which of the following dyes has been used to identify the mucogingival
junction in clinical studies?
a. Erythrocin
b. Schiller's iodine
c. Gentian violet
d. Bismarck brown

169- The major cause of increased oral melanin pigmentation has been shown to be:
a. smoking.
b. genetic factors.
c. systemic medication.
d. pathological conditions.

170- The most factor associated W increase perio disease is:

A-pt age B-diabetic duration C-diabetic control*** D-

171- The superficial zone in ANUG is:

A-bacterial*** B-necrotic C-neterophile D-sperichete infiltration

ANUG zones : Superficial to deep 1) Bacterial Zone. 2) Neutrophil rich zone. 3)

Necrosis 4) Spirochete infiltration into CT.

172- The facial/lingual plate of the teeth is:

A-non supporting bone B-supporting bone*** C- D-

173- scaling and root planing procedures induce loss of attachment if performed in
pockets shallower than what "critical probing depth"?
A. 1.9 mm
B. 2.9 mm
C. 3.9 mm
D. 4.9 mm

174- The procedure which aims at the removal of plaque and calculus from tooth
surfaces is:
A. prophylaxis.
B. debridement.
C. scaling.
D. root planing.

24
175- which of following stage PL fiber destractive occur is in:
A-early stage##### B-establish stage
C-advance***!!! D-progressive(mosh mogodah)***!!!

176- According to Page and Schroeder (1976), which of the following lesions is
present after 2-3 weeks of plaque accumulation?
a. Initial
b. Early
c. Established
d. Advanced

177- The most common dental/oral finding in patients with scleroderma is:
a. lip rigidity.
b. mucosal petechiae.
c. advanced bone loss.
d. gingival enlargement.

178- lukodema characteristic from other lesion is:

A-disappear when stretching*** B- C- D-

179- after scaling and root planing buccal surfaces < 3.5mm, which sites exhibited
the greatest attachment loss at 3 months?
A. Thin gingiva, non-bleeding
B. Thick gingiva, non-bleeding
C. Thin gingiva, bleeding
D. Thick gingiva, bleeding

180- Tarnow and Fletcher (1984) described a furcation classification system that
measures the _____ of the defect.
a. width b. vertical component c. horizontal component

181- 1gram of plaque is contain more than:

A-1000 bacteria B-1011 bacteria **** C-10(8) D-10(3)

182- PT W perio surgery W mild pain & stomach upset &he take anta acide drug
what is the analgesic we can give:
A-burfen B-codine C-Acetamenphin*** D-actelactic acide

183- Palatal region in incisor area innervated by:

A-greater plantain B-supieror anterior C- nasopalatine nerve***

184- salivary glands originate from

A-Endoderm B-oral epithelium #### C- mesenchymal

25
Derive from oral mucosa???
Parotid from ectoderm
submand and subling endoderm

185- most significant factor when select implant is:

A-length***!!! B-width
C-implant surface is important in osstiointegration***!!!
D-1--2mm is important around implant bcually & lingully***

186- In a retrospective analysis of factors affecting late implant bone loss by Chung
et al. (2007), which was found to be the most critical factor in the maintenance of
dental implants?
A. Surface characteristics
B. Implant length
C. Amount of keratinzed mucosa
D. Type of opposing dentition

187- how many mm push implant apically when put immediate implant in
extraction socket to achieve stability:
A-1mm***!!! B-3mm***!!! C-4mm D.6mm

188- Excessive force on implant crowns results in:

A. Trauma to bone
B. Immediate fracture of implant components
C. Fatigue of implant components, leading to fracture
D. No damage to implants because of their high resistance to force

189- coronal positioning of a previously placed free gingival graft should be

delayed for at least ___ weeks to allow revascularization of the graft.
a. 2 b. 6 c. 10 d. 14

190- compared distractive perodontities to normal perio which types of collagen

will increase:
A-I B-II C-III***!!! D-V***!!!

191- Hematopoietic marrow is MOST likely to be located in the ___ area of the
maxillary tuberosity.
a. anterior and inferior
b. anterior and superior
c. posterior and inferior
d. posterior and superior

192- bone graft materials are benefit when we use in:

A-vertical bone loss b-horizontal loss
c-only 2mm or less we can achive benfite d-does not worke

26
193- After revaluation phase of pt with site of bleeding on probing >5mm in
refractory disease what we do :
A-residual open surgery*** B-full mouth scaling/RP
C-site scaling/RP D-local antibiotic

194- What type of cementum is most commonly found in direct contact with
enamel?
a. Cellular, fibrillar
b. Cellular, afibrillar
c. Acellular, fibrillar
d. Acellular, afibrillar

195- which antibiotic is not route from kidney & safe to kidney transplant pt :
A-doxycicline*** B-tetracycline C-metronidazole D-ciproflexcin

196- In a diabetic patient with suspected nephropathy, which antibiotic is preferred?

A. Tetracycline
B. Minocycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Demeclocycline

197- The antibiotic __ is not metabolized in the liver and is safe for patients with
impaired liver function.
a. Cephalexin (Keflex)
b. Ampicillin (Omnipen)
c. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
d. Tetracycline (Achromycin)

198- probing attachment loss is:

A-from CEJ to crest of bone B-from CEJ to base of pocket***
C-from gingival margin to crest of bone D-from gingival margin to base of pocket

199- which is attack epithelial cells:

A-gingivalis*** B-Orechum C-nucelutum D-salivalis

200- The major shift from residual plaque to disease is related to :

A-kochs postulates B-specific plaque theory C-non specific plaque theory

201- Miller classIV 1986, do coronally advance flap follow by free ging .graft what
is predactbillaty to caverage :
A-60% B-70% C-80% D-90%

202- Boltchi et al. (2000) combined a bioabsorbable barrier and coronally advanced
flaps to treat 100 consecutive Miller class I, II and III gingival recession defects and

27
reported mean root coverage of:
a. 32.7% b. 52.7% c. 72.7% d. 92.7%

203- Lu (1992) evaluated the relationship between molar root trunks and barrier
membranes and found that barrier placement 1-2mm apical to the CEJ resulted in:
a. exposure of mesial and distal furcations.
b. complete adaptation of the barrier membrane.
c. incomplete adaptation of the barrier membrane.
d. clinical exposure and plaque colonization of the barrier membrane.

204- which of bone graft is only osteogenic :

A-DFDBA B-frezz human allograft*** C-frezze bovin bone

Autogenous graft is the only type of graft with osteogenic ability

DFDBA has osteogenic ability

205- periodontal pocket is 8mm & gingival over growth is 4mm,how much is
attachment loss :
A-8mm B-4mm C-12mm***

206- the histological healing of full thickness flaps, reported that resorption of the
alveolar bone peaked between _____ days.
A. 2 and 4
B. 6 and 14
C. 17 and 21
D. 22 and 28

207- After bone exposure in periodontal surgery, bone resorption can first be
histologically observed within ______days postoperatively.
A. 0-2
B. 4-8
C. 9-12
D. 14-21

208- Following a gingivectomy, surface epithelialization is generally complete

within:
A. 5-14 days.
B. 21-28 days.
C. 35-42 days

209- During the process of healing after external bevel gingivectomy, surface
epithelialization is complete no sooner than _____ days.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4

28
 D. 5

210- The long last bone reasorption after osseous surgery is:
A- B- C-17-21 days D-21-45 days***

211- which not routinely use after maintenance of supportive perio therapy:
A- Plaque & gingival index B-bleeding site C-supprative pus site
D-full mouth perapical radiograph***

212- Gher et al. (1987), reported that root fracture was most often associated with:
endodontic therapy

213- which of the following is the most common cause of failure in molars treated by
tunnel technique?
Root caries

214- Mouthrinses containing ____are MOST likely to cause black hairy tongue.
a. sanguinarine
b. essential oils
c. chlorhexidine
d. oxygenating agents

215- Mouthrinses containing ____are MOST likely to cause black hairy tongue.
a. sanguinarine
b. essential oils
c. chlorhexidine
D. ALCOHOL

216- Stiffness & pain in TMJ when wake up from sleeping in morning &normal in
remaining time in the day which diagnosis :
A- nocturnal bruxism *** B- TMD C- D-

217- which cells produce more IL-6 & IL-8 :

A-fibroblast*** B-neutrophil C-macrophage D-endothelial

218- Dongari-Bagtzoglou and Ebersole (1998) reported which cell type as the major
producer of IL-6 and IL-8 within the gingival connective tissue?
Fibroblast

219- With cytokine which of following is mediator:

A-histamine B-PGE2*** C-complement

220- Which mediator exerts a major stimulatory influence on collagen and other
matrix components synthesized by fibroblasts?

29
a. Interleukin-1
b. Prostaglandin E2
c. Tumor necrosis factor
d. Transforming growth factor

221- Which of the following cytokines is considered to be anti-inflammatory?

A. TNF
B. IL-1
C. IL-6
D. IL-11

222- According to langer, When 5 time reevaluation bleeding site 3-5months What
percentage of attachment loss:
A-50% B-60% C- D-90%

223- Osseous surgery to remove a two-wall interdental osseous defect involves

removal of:
a. the interdental osseous defect, but not buccal bone.
b. buccal bone to a level below the depth of the interdental defect.
c. non-supporting bone without removal of buccal supporting bone.
d. buccal bone to the same level as the depth of the interdental defect.

224- The PRIMARY goal of osseous resective surgery is to reshape:

marginal bone.

225- In a 5-year study, Olsen et al. (1985) found that osseous resective surgery
resulted in _____ probing depth reduction compared to open flap curettage.
(greater)

226- According to Becker et al. (1988), which procedure resulted in the greatest loss
of clinical attachment in shallow (1-3 mm) pockets?
A. Scaling
B. Root planning
C. Osseous resective surgery
D. Modified Widman flap surgery

227- According to Kerry et al. (1982), approximately when does tooth mobility
following osseous resective surgery typically return to pre-surgical levels?
(1 year)

228- Twelve months following osseous resective surgery, tooth mobility is usually (---
-----) the mobility prior to surgery.
A. less than
B. greater than
C. the same as

30
229- Contraindications for osseous resective surgery include all of the following
EXCEPT:
pocket elimination.

230- What is the main disadvantage of osseous resective surgery?

Loss of attachment.

231- According to Selipsky (1976), when performing osseous resective surgery, the
MAXIMUM supporting bone lost around a single root surface was _____ mm.
(3.0)

232- According to Selipsky (1976), how much circumferential supporting bone is

removed on average following properly performed osseous resective surgery?
0.6 mm.

233- According to Galler et al. (1979), mobility following osseous resective surgery
was ______in the splinted group compared to the non-splinted group.
(similar)

234- According to Kaldahl et al. (1996), the incidence of periodontal breakdown in

the maintenance phase of periodontal therapy is lowest for sites treated with:
A. Coronal scaling.
B. Modified Widman flap.
C. Scaling and root planing.
D. Osseous resective surgery

235- According to several longitudinal studies, which procedure resulted in the

greatest gain of clinical attachment?
A. Coronal scaling
B. Modified Widman flap surgery
C. Osseous resective surgery

236- Osseous resective surgery for pocket elimination is best applied under which of
the following conditions?
A. Severe attachment loss
B. Deep intrabony defects
C. Teeth with short root trunks
D. Early-to-moderate bone loss

237- according to Hamp & Newman after surgery when marginal gingival is1mm
apical to CEJ after 10 years the productive average of marginal gingiva is :
A-move 2mm apical to it position
B-move 1mm apical to it position
C-move 1mm coronal to it position***!!!
D-does not change it position

31
238- According to loe & silnees gingival index when eliciting bleeding is :
A-0 B-1 C-2*** D-3

239- The technique of instrumentation by which softened or diseased cementum is

removed and the root surface is made hard and smooth is refered to as:
A. scaling. B.curettage. C.prophylaxis. D.root planing.

240- Which test or finding is most likely abnormal as a result of prior aspirin use?
A. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time
C. Prothrombin time
D. INR (International Normalized Ratio)

Pleomorphic adenomas (benign mixed tumors) are the most common benign SGTs,
comprising 85% of all salivary gland neoplasms.

241- Which is administered first in the treatment of anaphylaxis?

a. oxygen
b. aminophylline
c. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
d. diphenhydramine (Benadry)

242- Remove of non resorbable membrane is after :

A-2-3 weeks B-4-6 weeks*** C-4 months

243- Currete # 11---12 is for :

A-M&D molars B-Mesial molar*** C-D premolar

244- precursor cell for osteoclast is :

A-monocyte*** B-osteoblast C- D-

245- Cell which regulate & modulate osteoclast activity is :

A-epithiel B-neural C-osteobast***

246- RANK is present on which cell surface?

A. Fibroblast B. Osteoclast |C. Neutrophil D. Osteoblast

247- Agressive perio distractive disease occur in:

A-primery teeth
B-sever bone loss&attachment***!!!
C-commesal oral flora
D-normal host response

32
248- % of localized chronic periodontitis is not exceed :
A-20 % B-25% C-30%*** D-35%

249- Left lateral maxillary incisor communicated to cavernous sinus through :

A-deep facial vein B-ptergiod plexus C-ophthalmic vein***

250- When do crown lengthing to mandibular 2nd molar we should consider :

A-sub mandibular fossa B-mental nerve
C-external oblique ridge*** D-mandbular canal

251- Two important wound healing principles for guided tissue regeneration are:
A. space creation and wound stabilization.
B. space creation and intramarrow penetration.
C. wound stabilization and intramarrow penetration.
D. wound stabilization and root surface biomodification.

252- The principles of guided tissue regeneration include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. space creation. b. clot stabilization.
c. wound protection. d. intramarrow penetration.

253- which mechanism of drug causes gingival enlargement:

A-Ca++ channels blocker***
inhibit intracellular calcium influx

254- Neutrophils cells found in capsule wall lesion of which of the following :
A-granuloma B-periodontal abscess*** C-periodontal lateral cyste

255- Which is monofilament suture :

A-silk B-vicryl C-Gore-Tex***!!!

GORE-TEX Suture, is a unique, microporous, nonabsorbable monofilament made

of expanded polytetrafluoroethylene (ePTFE),
Also the monofilament sutures include: nylon, plain gut, chromic gut, polyglyconate
and polyglecaprone

256- During initial stage of gingivitis which of the following will occurs :
A-vascular vasodilatation*** B-vascular proliferation

The first manifestations of gingival inflammation are vascular changes consisting

essentially of dilation of capillaries and increased blood flow.

257- Compared smoking pt to non smoking which is correct when him have same
degree of inflammation :

33
A-less bleeding*** B-more bleeding

258- The supporting tissues of the tooth are derived from the dental:
a. organ. b. lamina. c. papilla. d. follicle.

259- The treatment of choice for adenoid cystic carcinoma is:

A. cryotherapy. B. chemotherapy.
C. radiation therapy. D. surgical excision

260- Contraindication of apicaly positioned flap ?

Esthetic crown lengthening in anterior

261- Disadvantage of apically positioned flap ?

Esthetic in anterior***

262- produced maximal bone regeneration in mandibular window defects in baboons

by redhydrating FDBA with:
a. sterile saline. b. citric acid solution.
c. tetracycline solution. d. hydroxyapatite slurry.

263- Typical periodontal manifestations of histiocytosis syndromes include all of the

following EXCEPT:
a. tooth mobility. b. root resorption.
c. severe bone loss. d. necrotic gingival ulcers.

264- Gingival bleeding as a clinical parameter for predicting disease activity has:
A. low specificity and low sensitivity.
B. low specificity and high sensitivity.
C. high specificity and low sensitivity.
D. high specificity and high sensitivity.

265- Which of the following is considered the gold standard, against which all other
periodontal diagnostic tests are compared?
A. Mobility B. Pocket depth
C. Bleeding on probing D. Clinical attachment loss

266- Which of the following is a resorbable suture?

A. silk. B. nylon. C. ePTFE. D. polyglycolic.

267- What is a major function of bradykinin in the inflammatory response?

a. Initiate angiogenesis b. Promote histamine release
c. Increase vascular permeability d. Stimulate mast cell degranulation

268- The most common type of bony lesion seen in patients with periodontitis is the:

34
A. hemiseptum. B. 3-wall defect.
C. interdental crater. D. circumferential defect.

269- According to Danser et al. (1998), end-rounding of toothbrush bristles resulted in

increased plaque removal and _____ gingival abrasion.
A. increased B. comparable C. decreased

270- Much of the melanin in gingival tissues is contained within:

a. Langerhans cells.
b. keratinocytes of the basal layer.
c. epithelial cells of the granular layer.
d. fibroblasts adjacent to small blood vessels.

271- What is the maximum percentage of sites that can exhibit attachment loss in
LOCALIZED chronic periodontitis?
A. 20% B. 25% C. 30% D. 35%

272- The muscle most likely to be penetrated when correctly administering a posterior
superior alveolar nerve block is the:
a. masseter. b. buccinator.
c. zygomaticus. d. lateral pterygoid.

273- Which of the following is the MOST common clinical feature of HIV infection?
a. Kaposi's sarcoma b. Oral candidiasis
c. Necrotizing stomatitis d. Hairy leukoplakia

274- In their meta-analysis of treatment of intrabony defects by different regenerative

procedures, Laurell et al. (1998) stated that the intrabony defect has to be at least
____mm deep to obtain a therapeutic benefit.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

275- The 10-year study by Langer et al. (1981) showed loss of root-resected molars
occurred most often on mandibular molars because of:
a. root fracture. b. endodontic failure.
c. periodontal failure. d. prosthodontic failure

276- root fracture was most often associated with

a. bruxism. b. endodontic therapy.
c. traumatic occlusion. d. dowel and core crowns.

277- The position of the sublingual artery should be considered when dental implant
are planned for:
a. all mandibular sites. b. the posterior mandible.
c. the mandibular premolars. d. the mental interforaminal region.

35
278- The attached gingiva of adult permanent teeth is widest over:
a. mandibular canines. b. maxillary premolars.
c. mandibular premolars. d. maxillary lateral incisors.

279- the greatest widths of lingual attached gingiva were recorded on the:
a. canine. b. incisors. c. first molar. d. first premolar.

280- Width of attached gingiva in maxillary central incisor is :

A-2.5-3.5mm B-3.5-4.5mm*** C-4.5-5.5mm D-1.5-2.5mm

281- The space is entered when administering inferior alveolar nerve block
anesthesia.
a. submental b. sublingual
c. submandibular d. pterygomandibular

282- According to Paolantonio et al. (2001), when screw type implants are
immediately placed in fresh extraction sites, the bone-to-implant gap should be no
greater than _____ mm for optimal healing.
a. 2.0 b. 2.5 c. 3.0 d. 3.5

283- Balshi (1996) retrospectively evaluated 4,045 implant fixtures over a 5-year
period and found an incidence of fractured fixtures to be 0.2%. He recommended
ways to prevent fracture which included all of the following EXCEPT:
a. additional countersinking.
b. treat parafunctional habits.
c. not using posterior cantilevers.
d. avoid straight line configuration of implants

284- According to Romanos et al. (2001), the success of immediately loaded implants
was dependent on:
a. a splinted prosthesis. b. implant surface coating.
c. systematic oral hygiene. d. primary implant stability.

285- The most common medical emergency likely to be encountered during dental
treatment of the well-controlled diabetic patient is:
a. ketoacidosis. b. hypoglycemia.
c. hyperglycemia. d. Kussmaul breathing.

local antibiotics helps in nonsurgical procedures

286- Connecting implants and teeth:

a. Is forbidden
b. Is useful for consolidating teeth with reduced periodontal support
c. Can be performed in all cases
d. Should be avoided whenever possible, but can be performed with careful

36
 consideration

287- Loss of tooth substance by biomechanical occlusal loading forces :

a. Abrasion
b. Attrition
c. Erosion
d. Abfraction

Wasting diseases of the teeth include erosion (corrosion; may be caused by acidic
beverages), abrasion (caused by mechanical wear as with toothbrushing with abrasive
dentifrice), attrition (due to functional contact with opposing teeth), and abfraction
(flexure due to occlusal loading).

288- What the Figure refer to :

A. modefied widman flap***

B. gingivctomy
C. oronally RF
D. apically RF

289- The deep zone in ANUG is:

A-bacterial*** B-necrotic C-neterophile D-sperichete infiltration

290- Which of the following is a synthetic resorbable suture?

A. silk. B. plain gut. C. Gore Tex . D. Vicryl.

291- interdental crater :

A. 1-wall defect. B. 2-wall defect.
C. 3-wall defect. D. Compiend 3-wall and 1-wall defect .!!!

292- The muscle most likely to be penetrated when correctly administering a

mandible nerve block Anesthesia is the:
a. Midal pterygoid . b. buccinator.
c.lateral pterygoid. d. ,,,,,,,

293- Absent Stippling Of gingiva:

1. Always with inflammation .
2. With inflammation if it was present before inflammation .
3.

37
 4.
294- In Healthy cases , the alveolar bone is parallel to :
1. Gingival margin .
2. Periodontal ligament fibers .
3. CEJ .
4. .

295- :

1.

296- :

1.
2.
3.
4.

297- Implants are most often made of:

1. Titanium
2. Hydroxyapatite
3. Stainless steel
4. Titanium alloy

298- Connective tissue fibers around the implant neck are:

1. Perpendicular to the implant surface
2. Not present because there is no connective tissue
3. Parallel to the implant surface
4. Multidirectional

299- Implant survival:

1. Is synonymous with implant success
2. Means that an implant is still present in the mouth after a period of time
3. Means that an implant is present and clinically satisfactory after a period of
time
4. Means that the implant required some form of treatment to avoid failure

300- :

1.
2. .......
3. ..... ) (
4. ....... ( )

301-

1. %5
2. %20
3. %30
4. %50

38
302- , :

1. Absent of spirochetes
2. Present of gram negative ..
3. Present of gram positive ..
4. Absent A. A. actinomycetemcomitans

303- ,
, , :

1. ( )
2. .
3.
4. .

304- 43 , 7-6 , 5 ,
:

1. Mild chronic gingivitis with induced drug gingival inlargment

2. Moderate chronic gingivitis with induced drug gingival inlargment
3. Mild aggressive gingivitis with induced drug gingival inlargment
4. Moderate aggressive gingivitis with induced drug gingival inlargment

-305 ( ) ,
( ) :
.1

-306
:
.1
.2
.3
.4

-307 :
.1
.2
..... .3
....., .4

-308 :
.1
. .2
. .3
.4

-309
:

-310 0.5

39
 2

-311

HBA1c

----?-- immunological cellular system -312

Pmn+ lymphocytes
-313

ss
-314

-315 :

-316 :

-317
.1
.2
.3
.4

-318 ()signaling system

-319 :

((glycosic hemoglobolin
-320

-321

ss .1
Av .2
Pi .3
Pg .4

-322 :

-323

-324 CPITN
3

40
 MMPS -325

41