CheckPoint Firewall Questions

Checkpoint 156-315.
77
Check Point Certified Security Expert

Version: 6.0
Checkpoint 156-315.77 Exam
Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when
sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?
A. sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP.
B. sglondon_2 because sglondon_1 has highest IP.
C. sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot.
D. sglondon_2 because it has highest priority.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object.
What are possible reasons for that?
1) fw2 is a member in a VPN community.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

2) ClusterXL software blade is not enabled on fw2.
3) fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.
A. 2 or 3
B. 1 or 2
C. 1 or 3
D. All
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Review the Rule Base displayed.
For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL?
A. Rules 2 and 5
B. Rules 2 through 5
C. Rule 2 only
D. All rules except Rule 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column
does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window. What must
you enable to see the Directional Match?

Exhibit:
A. directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server

B. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway objects VPN tab
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties
D. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new
Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?
A. Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.
B. Use already installed Migration Tool.
C. Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO
D. Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint

website
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with
R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the
administrator do first?
A. Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.

B. Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.
C. Upgrade every unit directly to R77.
D. Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
MicroCorp experienced a security appliance failure. (LEDs of all NICs are off.) The age of the unit
required that the RMA-unit be a different model. Will a revert to an existing snapshot bring the new
unit up and running?
A. There is no dynamic update at reboot.

B. No. The revert will most probably not match to hard disk.
C. Yes. Everything is dynamically updated at reboot.
D. No. At installation the necessary hardware support is selected. The snapshot saves this state.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?
A. R65

B. S71
C. R55
D. R60A
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Can you implement a complete R77 IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?
A. No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.

B. Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.
C. Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.
D. No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.
A. There is no limit.
B. 16
C. 6
D. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Select the command set best used to verify proper failover function of a new ClusterXL
configuration.
A. reboot
B. cphaprob -d failDevice -s problem -t 0 register / cphaprob -d failDevice unregister

C. clusterXL_admin down / clusterXL_admin up
D. cpstop/cpstart
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
You are troubleshooting a HTTP connection problem. You've started fw monitor -o http.pcap.
When you open http.pcap with Wireshark there is only one line. What is the most likely reason?
A. fw monitor was restricted to the wrong interface.

B. Like SmartView Tracker only the first packet of a connection will be captured by fw monitor.
C. By default only SYN pakets are captured.
D. Acceleration was turned on and therefore fw monitor sees only SYN.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?
A. pdp and lad

B. pdp and pdp-11
C. pep and lad
D. pdp and pep
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?
1) same operating systems
2) same Check Point version

3) same appliance model
4) same policy
A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank. You can set Acceleration to ON or OFF using command syntax ___________ .
Answer: fwaccel off/on
QUESTION NO: 16
You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN
mean?
A. The cluster link is down.

B. The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.
C. The physical interface is down.
D. CCP pakets couldn't be sent to or didn't arrive from neighbor member.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which three of the following components are required to get a SmartEvent up and running?
1) SmartEvent SIC
2) SmartEvent Correlation Unit
3) SmartEvent Server

4) SmartEvent Analyzer
5) SmartEvent Client
A. 2, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 3, 4, and 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a
heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent
Server to their SmartCenter Server?
A. No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

B. No. If SmartCenter is already under stress, the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is
recommended.
C. No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.
D. Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fill in the blank. To verify that a VPN Tunnel is properly established, use the command _________
Answer: vpn tunnelutil
MultiCorp is located in Atlanta. It has a branch office in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Each location
has its own AD controller for local user login. How many ADqueries have to be configured?
Answer: 4

Fill in the blank. The command that typically generates the firewall application, operating system,
and hardware specific drivers is _________ .
Answer: snapshot
Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you
would use the command and syntax __ ___ __ __________ __ .
Answer: fw tab -t connections -s
Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through core 0 on the
firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ __ _ ___ __ ___________ __ .
Answer: fw -i 0 tab -t connections -s
QUESTION NO: 24
Which Check Point tool allows you to open a debug file and see the VPN packet exchange details.
A. PacketDebug.exe
B. VPNDebugger.exe
C. IkeView.exe
D. IPSECDebug.exe
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
When a packet is flowing through the security gateway, which one of the following is a valid

inspection path?
A. Acceleration Path
B. Small Path
C. Firewall Path
D. Medium Path
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
To run GAiA in 64bit mode, which of the following is true?
1) Run set edition default 64-bit.
2) Install more than 4 GB RAM.
3) Install more than 4 TB of Hard Disk.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
If your firewall is performing a lot of IPS inspection and the CPUs assigned to fw_worker_thread
are at or near 100%, which of the following could you do to improve performance?
A. Add more RAM to the system.

B. Add more Disk Drives.
C. Assign more CPU cores to CoreXL
D. Assign more CPU cores to SecureXL.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following CLISH commands would you use to set the admin user's shell to bash?
A. set user admin shell bash

B. set user admin shell /bin/bash
C. set user admin shell = /bin/bash
D. set user admin /bin/bash
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
What is Check Point's CoreXL?
A. A way to synchronize connections across cluster members

B. TCP-18190
C. Multiple core interfaces on the device to accelerate traffic
D. Multi Core support for Firewall Inspection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fill in the blank. What is the correct command and syntax used to view a connection table
summary on a Check Point Firewall?
Answer: fw tab -t connections -s
QUESTION NO: 31
Does Check Point recommend generating an upgrade_export on standby SmartCenters?
A. Yes. This is the only way to get the upgrade_export

B. No. All Check Point processes are stopped.
C. No. There is no way to verify the actual configuration.
D. Yes. All information is available at both SmartCenters.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
The challenges to IT involve deployment, security, management, and what else?
A. Assessments
B. Maintenance
C. Transparency
D. Compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
What is the correct policy installation process order?
1.Verification
2.Code generation and compilation
3.Initiation
4.Commit
5. Conversion
6. CPTA
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4
C. 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 1
D. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
What is the offline CPSIZEME upload procedure?
A. Find the cpsizeme_of_<gwname>.pdf, attach it to an e-mail and send it to

cpsizeme_upload@checkpoint.com
B. Use the webbrowser version of cpsizeme and fax it to Check Point.
C. Find the cpsizeme_of_<gwname>.xml, attach it to an e-mail and send it to
cpsizeme_upload@checkpoint.com
D. There is no offline upload method.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How frequently does CPSIZEME run by default?
A. weekly
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 1 hour
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
How do you run CPSIZEME on SPLAT?
A. [expert@HostName]#>./cpsizeme -h
B. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme -R
C. This is not possible on SPLAT
D. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
How do you check the version of CPSIZEME on GAiA?
A. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme.exe v
B. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme.exe version
C. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme V
D. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme version
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
How do you upload the results of CPSIZEME to Check Point when using a PROXY server with
authentication?
A. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme.exe a username:password@proxy_address:port

B. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme p username:password@proxy_address:port
C. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme a username:password@proxy_address:port
D. [expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme.exe p username:password@proxy_address:port
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
By default, what happens to the existing connections on a firewall when a new policy is installed?
A. All existing data connections will be kept open until the connections have ended.
B. Existing connections are always allowed
C. All existing control and data connections will be kept open until the connections have ended.
D. All existing connections not allowed under the new policy will be terminated.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
Which protocol can be used to provide logs to third-party reporting?
A. CPMI (Check Point Management Interface)

B. LEA (Log Export API)
C. AMON (Application Monitoring)
D. ELA (Event Logging API)
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Can the smallest appliance handle all Blades simultaneously?
A. Depends on the number of protected clients and throughput.

B. Depends on number of concurrent sessions.
C. Firewall throughput is the only relevant factor.
D. It depends on required SPU for customer environment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
The process _______ provides service to access the GAIA configuration database.
A. configdbd
B. confd
C. fwm
D. ipsrd
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?
A. fw stat
B. fw ctl sync
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob stat
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
The connection to the ClusterXL member A breaks. The ClusterXL member A status is now
down. Afterwards the switch admin set a port to ClusterXL member B to down. What will
happen?
A. ClusterXL member B also left the cluster.

B. ClusterXL member B stays active as last member.
C. Both ClusterXL members share load equally.
D. ClusterXL member A is asked to come back to cluster.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which command will only show the number of entries in the connection table?
A. fw tab -t connections -s
B. fw tab -t connections -u
C. fw tab -t connections
D. fw tab
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which statements about Management HA are correct?
1) Primary SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter
2) Active SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole
3) Active SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter
4) Primary SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Which process should you debug if SmartDashboard login fails?
A. sdm
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates
a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries
to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Pauls IP address is predefined on the security
management server?
A. Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Pauls IP address
is listed.
B. Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option GUI client List to see if Pauls

IP address is listed.
C. Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to
verify whether Pauls IP address is listed.
D. Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Pauls IP address is listed as a
GUI client.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you
deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?
A. You must run an ADquery for every domain.

B. Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.
C. Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.
D. Only Captive Portal can be used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in GAiA?
A. In the CLI with the command route add

B. In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes
C. In the CLI via sysconfig
D. In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which command will erase all CRLs?

A. vpn crladmin
B. cpstop/cpstart
C. vpn crl_zap
D. vpn flush
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of SmartLog?
A. SmartLog has a Top Results pane showing things like top sources, rules, and users.
B. SmartLog displays query results across multiple log files, reducing the need to open previous
files to view results.
C. SmartLog requires less disk space by consolidating log entries into fewer records.
D. SmartLog creates an index of log entries, increasing query speed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Write the full fw command and syntax that you would use to troubleshoot ClusterXL sync issues.
Answer: fw tab -s -t connections
Type the full cphaprob command and syntax that will show full synchronization status.
Answer: cphaprob -i list
Type the full fw command and syntax that will show full synchronization status.

Answer: fw ctl pstat
Type the full fw command and syntax that allows you to disable only sync on a cluster firewall
member.
Answer: fw ctl setsync off
Type the command and syntax you would use to verify that your Check Point cluster is functioning
correctly.
Answer: cphaprob state
Type the command and syntax that you would use to view the virtual cluster interfaces of a
ClusterXL environment.
Answer: cphaprob -a if
Type the command and syntax to view critical devices on a cluster member in a ClusterXL
environment.
Answer: cphaprob -ia list
Type the command and syntax to configure the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) to use Broadcast.
Answer: cphaconf set_ccp broadcast

Fill in the blank. In New Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. The internal
interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2 Internal host 10.4.8.108 pings 10.4.8.3, and
receives replies.
Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. According to the output, which
member is the standby machine?
Answer: 10.4.8.1
Fill in the blank. In New Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. An internal host
10.4.8.108 successfully pings its Cluster and receives replies.
Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. Based on this information, what
is the active cluster members IP address?

Answer: 10.4.8.2
Fill in the blank. In Load Sharing Unicast mode, the internal cluster IP address is 10.4.8.3. The
internal interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2. Internal host 10.4.8.108 Pings
10.4.8.3, and receives replies. The following is the ARP table from the internal Windows host
10.4.8.108.
Review the exhibit and type the IP address of the member serving as the pivot machine in the
space below.
Answer: 10.4.8.2
To stop acceleration on a GAiA Security Gateway, enter command:
Answer: fwaccel off
To bind a NIC to a single processor when using CoreXL on GAiA, you would use the command

Answer: sim affinity
Fill in the blank. To verify SecureXL statistics, you would use the command ________ .
Answer: fwaccel stats
Fill in the blank. To verify the SecureXL status, you would enter command _____________ .
Answer: fwaccel stat
Fill in the blank. To enter the router shell, use command __________ .
Answer: cligated
Fill in the blank. To save your OSPF configuration in GAiA, enter the command ___________ .
Answer: save config
Fill in the blank. To remove site-to-site IKE and IPSEC keys you would enter command ____ ___
and select the option to delete all IKE and IPSec SAs.
Answer: vpn tu
QUESTION NO: 71
How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server? Run cpconfig and

select:
Exhibit:
A. the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint.

B. the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint.
C. the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.
D. the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not
encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are not secured.

B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
D. They are secured by PPTP

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum
number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. Three
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would
David use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartLSM
D. SmartProvisioning
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Exhibit:

From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. Unicast mode
B. Multicast mode
C. New mode
D. Legacy mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Transparent upgrades
B. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
C. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
D. Transparent failover in case of device failures
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Balancing - Forward

B. High Availability
C. Load Sharing - Multicast
D. Load Sharing - Unicast
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and

the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP
traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 100%
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What
command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge active
B. fw purge policy
C. fw fetch policy
D. fw unloadlocal
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ver -k
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw ctl get kernel
D. fw kernel
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81

The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fwd
B. fw gen
C. cpd
D. fwm
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Initiation
B. Validation
C. Code compilation
D. Code generation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. Immediately after fwm load runs on the SmartCenter.

B. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
C. It is the last task during policy installation.
D. It is the first task during policy installation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from SmartCenter to the Gateway?

A. CPD
B. FWM
C. CPRID
D. FWD
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. NAT_alloc
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side? In
SmartDashboard under:
A. Gateway Setting
B. NAT Rules
C. Global Properties > NAT definition
D. Implied Rules
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the
Gateway.

A. CPD
B. FWM
C. FWD
D. FWSSD
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
The process ________ is responsible for GUIClient communication with the SmartCenter.
A. CPGUI
B. CPD
C. FWD
D. FWM
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
A. FWM
B. CPD
C. FWCMP
D. CPLMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
A. CPD
B. FWSYNC

C. CPLMD
D. FWM
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
_________ is the called process that starts when opening SmartView Tracker application.
A. FWM
B. CPLMD
C. logtrackerd
D. fwlogd
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process
using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
A. FWSD
B. FWD
C. In.httpd
D. FWSSD
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
B. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf

D. $FWDIR/conf/Fwauth.c
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
User definitions are stored in ________________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/users.NDB
B. $FWDIR/conf/fwmuser.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwusers.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwauth.NDB
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Jon is explaining how the inspection module works to a colleague. If a new connection passes
through the inspection module and the packet matches the rule, what is the next step in the
process?
A. Verify if another rule exists.

B. Verify if any logging or alerts are defined.
C. Verify if the packet should be moved through the TCP/IP stack.
D. Verify if the packet should be rejected.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object

databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway.
C. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
D. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
What step should you take before running migrate_export?
A. Install policy and exit SmartDashboard.

B. Disconnect all GUI clients.
C. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server.
D. Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
A snapshot delivers a complete backup of GAiA. How do you restore a local snapshot named
MySnapshot.tgz?
A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select option Snapshot Management, provide the
Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.
B. As Expert user, type command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the
correct file name.
C. As Expert user, type command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz.
D. As Expert user, type command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
What is the primary benefit of using upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot?

A. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where
backup and snapshot will not.
B. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is
not available.
C. upgrade_export has an option to backup the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup
and snapshot will not.
D. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will
take a much shorter amount of time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 100
Your R7x-series Enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows

Server 2008 R2. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to
try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security
Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep
its critical configuration?
A. 1. Insert the R77 CD-ROM and select the option to export the configuration using the latest
upgrade utilities.
2. Follow steps suggested by upgrade_verification and re-export the configuration if needed.
3. Save the exported file *.tgz to a local directory c:/temp.
4. Uninstall all packages using Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
5. Install again using the R77 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot.
6. Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
B. 1. Create a data base revision control back up using SmartDashboard.
2. Create a compressed archive of the directories %FWDIR%/conf and %FWDIR%/lib and copy
them to another networked machine.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R77 CD-ROM.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to
overwrite existing files.
C. 1. Download the latest utility upgrade_export and run from a local directory c:/temp to export
the configuration into a *.tgz file.
2. Skip any upgrade_verification warnings since you are not upgrading.
3. Transfer the file *.tgz to another networked machine.
4. Download and run the utility cpclean and reboot.
5. Use the R77 CD-ROM to select option upgrade_import to import the configuration.
D. 1. Download the latest utility upgrade_export and run from directory c:/temp to export the
configuration into a *.tgz file.
2. Follow steps suggested by upgrade_verification.

4. Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot.
5. Transfer file *.tgz back to local directory /temp.
6. Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 101
Your primary Security Management Server runs on GAiA. What is the fastest way to back up your
Security Gateway R77 configuration, including routing and network configuration files?
A. Copying the directories $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib to another location.

B. Use the command snapshot.
C. Using the command upgrade_export.
D. Using the native GAiA back up utility from command line or in the Web-based user interface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102
You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R77
GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use?
A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf

B. GAiA back up utilities
C. Database Revision Control
D. Commands upgrade_export and upgrade_import
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103
Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R77 configuration?

A. Database Revision Control
B. Policy Package Management
C. The command migrate_export
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 104
When restoring R77 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT
restored?
A. Route tables
B. Gateway topology
C. Licenses
D. User db
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105
You are running a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What backup method could be
used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. backup
B. snapshot
C. migrate_import
D. manual backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106
An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating
a backup file. A large number of routes were added or modified, causing network problems. The

Check Point configuration has not been changed. What would be the most efficient way to revert
to a working configuration?
A. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.

B. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number
(version).
C. Select Snapshot Management from the SecurePlatform boot menu.
D. Use the command restore and select the appropriate backup file.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107
Your R77 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008
Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping
the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies,
databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its
critical configuration?
A. 1. Insert the R77 CD-ROM and select the option to export the configuration using the latest
upgrade utilities.
2. Complete steps suggested by upgrade_verification and re-export the configuration if needed.
3. Save the exported file *.tgz to a local directory c:/temp.
5. Install again using the R77 CD-ROM as a primary Security Managment Server and reboot.
6. Run upgrade_import to import configuration.
B. 1. Download the latest utility upgrade_export and run from directory c:\temp to export the
configuration to a *.tgz file.
2. Complete steps suggested by upgrade_verification.
4. Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot.
5. Transfer file *.tgz back to local directory /temp.
6. Run upgrade_import to import configuration.
C. 1. Download the latest utility upgrade_export and run from directory c:\temp to export the
configuration to a *.tgz file.
2. Skip upgrade_verification warnings since you are not upgrading.
3. Transfer file *.tgz to another networked machine.
4. Download and run utility cpclean and reboot.
5. Use the R77 CD-ROM to select option upgrade_import to import the configuration.
D. 1. Create a data base revision control back up using SmartDashboard.
2. Create a compressed archive of the directories %FWDIR%/conf and %FWDIR%/lib and copy
them to another networked machine.

4. Install again using the R77 CD-ROM as a primary Security Managment Server and reboot.
5. Restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite
existing files.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back
ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and
simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major
changes, such as upgrades?
A. upgrade_export
B. migrate export
C. snapshot
D. backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109
ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify
time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months,
depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. migrate export
B. upgrade_export
C. snapshot
D. backup
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110
ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify
time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a
maintenance window?
A. snapshot
B. backup
C. backup_export
D. migrate export
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 111
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded.

B. A device having exactly the same Operating System and hardware as the device that created
the file.
C. Individual members of a cluster configuration.
D. Windows Server class systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of
the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration

B. State, SecurePlatform version, and patch level
C. State, SecurePlatform version, and objects database
D. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 113
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be
retrieved from which source?
A. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk

B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included
in the migration?
A. System interface configuration

B. SmartEvent database
C. classes.C file
D. SmartReporter database
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh
R77 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine.
When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh
R77 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine.
What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
B. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
C. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
D. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartEvent database.

B. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
C. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
D. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartReporter database.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the
system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/backups
B. /var/CPbackup/backups
C. /var/opt/backups
D. /var/tmp/backups
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Fast path Upgrade

B. Minimal Effort Upgrade
C. Full Connectivity Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R77. John knows that you can verify the upgrade
process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he
sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R77. If
the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R77 Security Gateways.
B. R77 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before
upgrade process to complete it successfully.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will

be aborted.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 121
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA
Gateway?
A. ipconfig a > [filename].txt

B. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
C. netstat rn > [filename].txt
D. ifconfig > [filename].txt
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122
Which command would you use to save the IP address and routing information before upgrading a
GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt

B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123
Which command would you use to save the routing information before upgrading a Windows
Gateway?
A. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
B. ifconfig > [filename].txt

C. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
D. netstat rn > [filename].txt
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124
When upgrading a cluster in Full Connectivity Mode, the first thing you must do is see if all cluster
members have the same products installed. Which command should you run?
A. fw fcu
B. cpconfig
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. fw ctl conn a
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125
A Minimal Effort Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R77).

B. Requires breaking the cluster and upgrading members independently.
C. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
D. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126
A Zero Downtime Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.

B. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R77).
C. Requires breaking the cluster and upgrading members independently.

D. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127
A Full Connectivity Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.

B. Requires breaking the cluster and upgrading members independently.
C. Is only supported in minor version upgrades (R70 to R71, R71 to R77).
D. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128
How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways?
A. Use a dedicated sync network.

B. Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ.
C. Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint.
D. Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129
How would you set the debug buffer size to 1024?
A. Run fw ctl kdebug 1024

B. Run fw ctl set buf 1024
C. Run fw ctl set int print_cons 1024
D. Run fw ctl debug -buf 1024

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130
Steve is troubleshooting a connection problem with an internal application. If he knows the source
IP address is 192.168.4.125, how could he filter this traffic?
A. Run fw monitor -e "accept src-ip=192.168.4.125;"

B. Run fw monitor -e "accept src=192.168.4.125;"
C. Run fw monitor -e "accept dst-ip=192.168.4.125;"
D. Run fw monitor -e "accept ip=192.168.4.125;"
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131
Check Point support has asked Tony for a firewall capture of accepted packets. What would be
the correct syntax to create a capture file to a filename called monitor.out?
A. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -f monitor.out

B. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -c monitor.out
C. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -o monitor.out
D. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -m monitor.out
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132
What is NOT a valid LDAP use in Check Point SmartDirectory?
A. Retrieve gateway CRLs

B. Enforce user access to internal resources
C. External users management
D. Provide user authentication information for the Security Management Server

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133
There are several SmartDirectory (LDAP) features that can be applied to further enhance
SmartDirectory (LDAP) functionality, which of the following is NOT one of those features?
A. Support many Domains under the same account unit

B. Support multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers on which many user databases are distributed
C. High Availability, where user information can be duplicated across several servers
D. Encrypted or non-encrypted SmartDirectory (LDAP) Connections usage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an
LDAP server.
A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.
B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP
Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.
C. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and
create an LDAP resource object.
D. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and
configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with a R77 Security
Gateway?
A. UserAuthority server

B. RADIUS server
C. Account Management Client server
D. LDAP server
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a
Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule
in R77?
A. LDAP group
B. All Users
C. External-user group
D. A group with a generic user
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137
Which of the following commands do you run on the AD server to identify the DN name before
configuring LDAP integration with the Security Gateway?
A. dsquery user name administrator

B. query ldap name administrator
C. ldapquery name administrator
D. cpquery name administrator
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
In SmartDirectory, what is each LDAP server called?

A. Account Server
B. LDAP Unit
C. Account Unit
D. LDAP Server
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139
When defining SmartDirectory for High Availability (HA), which of the following should you do?
A. Configure Secure Internal Communications with each server and fetch branches from each.
B. Replicate the same information on multiple Active Directory servers.
C. Configure a SmartDirectory Cluster object.
D. Configure the SmartDirectory as a single object using the LDAP cluster IP. Actual HA
functionality is configured on the servers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140
The set of rules that governs the types of objects in the directory and their associated attributes is
called the:
A. Schema
B. SmartDatabase
C. Access Control List
D. LDAP Policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141
When using SmartDashboard to manage existing users in SmartDirectory, when are the changes
applied?

A. At database synchronization
B. Instantaneously
C. Never, you cannot manage users through SmartDashboard
D. At policy installation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142
Where multiple SmartDirectory servers exist in an organization, a query from one of the clients for
user information is made to the servers based on a priority. By what category can this priority be
defined?
A. Location or Account Unit

B. Gateway or Domain
C. Gateway or Account Unit
D. Location or Domain
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143
Each entry in SmartDirectory has a unique _______________ ?
A. Container
B. Distinguished Name
C. Organizational Unit
D. Schema
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144
With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R77 user definitions on a(n) _________
Server.

A. RSA ACE/Authentication Manager
B. Radius
C. NT Domain
D. LDAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145
Which describes the function of the account unit?
A. An Account Unit is the Check Point account that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP)
server
B. An Account Unit is a system account on the Check Point gateway that SmartDirectory uses to
access an (LDAP) server
C. An Account Unit is the administration account on the LDAP server that SmartDirectory uses to
access to (LDAP) server
D. An Account Unit is the interface which allows interaction between the Security Management
server and Security Gateways, and the SmartDirectory (LDAP) server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146
An organization may be distributed across several SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers. What provision
do you make to enable a Gateway to use all available resources? Each SmartDirectory (LDAP)
server must be:
A. a member in the LDAP group.

B. represented by a separate Account Unit.
C. represented by a separate Account Unit that is a member in the LDAP group.
D. a member in a group that is associated with one Account Unit.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147
Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?
A. AD Query
B. Group Policy
C. Identity Agent
D. Captive Portal
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 148
If using AD Query for seamless identity data reception from Microsoft Active Directory (AD), which
of the following methods is NOT Check Point recommended?
A. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

B. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
C. Leveraging identity in Internet application control
D. Identity-based auditing and logging
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149
When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of
the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. For deployment of Identity Agents

B. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
C. Leveraging identity in Internet application control
D. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 150
Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On
(SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. Leveraging machine name or identity

B. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial
C. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
D. Protecting highly sensitive servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151
Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. From the Internet

B. Through all interfaces
C. Through internal interfaces
D. Through the Firewall policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 152
Where do you verify that SmartDirectory is enabled?
A. Global properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is

checked
B. Gateway properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security
Gateways is checked
C. Gateway properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is
checked
D. Global properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security
Gateways is checked
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 153
Remote clients are using IPSec VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the
organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. fwm
B. fwd
C. vpnd
D. cvpnd
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154
Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization.
Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. vpnd
B. cvpnd
C. fwm
D. fwd
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155
Which of the following is NOT a LDAP server option in SmartDirectory?
A. Standard_DS
B. Novell_DS
C. Netscape_DS
D. OPSEC_DS
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156
An Account Unit is the interface between the __________ and the __________.
A. System, Database
B. Clients, Server
C. Users, Domain
D. Gateway, Resources
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157
Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user John Doe in the Sales
department of AcmeCorp.com?
A. Cn=john_doe,ca=Sales,ou=acmecorp,dc=com
B. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acmecorp,dc=com
C. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
D. Cn=john_doe,ca=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158
Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user Jane Doe in the MIS
department of AcmeCorp.com?
A. Cn=jane_doe,ou=MIS,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
B. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acmecorp,dc=com
C. Cn= jane_doe,ca=MIS,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
D. Cn= jane_doe,ca=MIS,cn=acmecorp,dc=com
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 159
You can NOT use SmartDashboards SmartDirectory features to connect to the LDAP server.
What should you investigate?
1. Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.
2. Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard's User Manager from connecting to
the LDAP server.
3. Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has at least write permission in the
access control configuration of the LDAP server.
A. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Domain name resolution

B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. Connectivity between the Gateway and LDAP server
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 161
How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a Security Gateway?
A. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard

B. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out
C. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap
D. By installing a Security Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162
When an Endpoint user is able to authenticate but receives a message from the client that it is
unable to enforce the desktop policy, what is the most likely scenario?
A. The gateway could not locate the user in SmartDirectory and is allowing the connection with
limitations based on a generic profile.
B. The users rights prevent access to the protected network.
C. A Desktop Policy is not configured.
D. The user is attempting to connect with the wrong Endpoint client.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 163
When using a template to define a user in SmartDirectory, the users password should be defined
in the ______________ object.
A. VPN Community
B. LDAP
C. Template
D. User
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164
When configuring an LDAP Group object, select the option ____________ if you want the gateway
to reference all groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes.

A. Only Sub Tree
B. Only Group in Branch
C. OU Accept and select appropriate domain
D. All Account-Units Users
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165
When configuring an LDAP Group object, select option _______________ if you want the gateway
to reference a specific group defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes.
A. Group Agnostic
B. All Account-Unit's Users
C. Only Sub Tree
D. Only Group in Branch
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166
The process _______ executes the authentication for logging in to SmartDashboard.
A. fwm
B. vpnd
C. cpd
D. cvpnd
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167
The process __________ is responsible for the authentication for Remote Access clients.
A. fwm

B. vpnd
C. cvpnd
D. cpd
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168
The process that performs the authentication for SSL VPN Users is:
A. cpd
B. cvpnd
C. fwm
D. vpnd
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 169
The process that performs the authentication for legacy session authentication is:
A. cvpnd
B. fwm
C. vpnd
D. fwssd
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 170
While authorization for users managed by SmartDirectory is performed by the gateway, the
authentication mostly occurs in __________.
A. ldapauth
B. cpauth

C. ldapd
D. cpShared
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 171
When troubleshooting user authentication, you may see the following entries in a debug of the
user authentication process. In which order are these messages likely to appear?
A. make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck, cpLdapGetUser

B. make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, cpLdapGetUser, cpLdapCheck, au_auth_auth
C. cpLdapGetUser, au_fetchuser, cpLdapCheck, make_au, au_auth, au_auth_auth
D. au_fetchuser, make_au, au_auth, cpLdapGetUser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 172
__________ is NOT a ClusterXL mode.
A. Legacy
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. New
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173
In a Cluster, some features such as VPN only function properly when:
A. all cluster members have the same number of interfaces configured.

B. all cluster members clocks are synchronized.
C. all cluster members have the same policy.

D. all cluster members have the same Hot Fix Accumulator pack installed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 174
What is the supported ClusterXL configuration when configuring a cluster synchronization network
on a VLAN interface?
A. It is supported on the lowest VLAN tag of the VLAN interface.

B. It is not supported on a VLAN tag.
C. It is supported on VLAN tag 4095.
D. It is supported on VLAN tag 4096.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 175
Which process is responsible for delta synchronization in ClusterXL?
A. fwd on the Security Gateway

B. fw kernel on the Security Gateway
C. Clustering on the Security Gateway
D. cpd on the Security Gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176
Which process is responsible for full synchronization in ClusterXL?
A. cpd on the Security Gateway

B. fwd on the Security Gateway
C. fw kernel on the Security Gateway
D. Clustering on the Security Gateway

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177
Which process is responsible for kernel table information sharing across all cluster members?
A. cpd
B. fwd daemon
C. CPHA
D. fw kernel
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178
By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active

Security Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is installed.

B. The user data base is installed.
C. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
D. The Security Policy is saved.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179
The ________ Check Point ClusterXL mode must synchronize the virtual IP and MAC addresses
on all clustered interfaces.
A. HA Mode Legacy
B. HA Mode New
C. Mode Unicast Load Sharing
D. Mode Multicast Load Sharing

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180
__________ is a proprietary Check Point protocol. It is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-
module communication.
A. CPP
B. CPHA
C. CKPP
D. CCP
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 181
After you add new interfaces to a cluster, how can you check if the new interfaces and the
associated virtual IP address are recognized by ClusterXL?
Exhibit:

A. By running the command cphaprob -I list on both members
B. By running the command cphaprob -a if on both members
C. By running the command cpconfig on both members
D. By running the command cphaprob state on both members
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 182
Which of the following is a supported Sticky Decision Function of Sticky Connections for Load
Sharing?
A. Support for SecureClient/SecuRemote/SSL Network Extender encrypted connections

B. Multi-connection support for VPN-1 cluster members
C. Support for all VPN deployments (except those with third-party VPN peers)
D. Support for Performance Pack acceleration
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183
Included in the customers network are some firewall systems with the Performance Pack in use.
The customer wishes to use these firewall systems in a cluster (Load Sharing mode). He is not
sure if he can use the Sticky Decision Function in this cluster. Explain the situation to him.
A. The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should
support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to configure it with the
clusterXL_SDF_enable command.
B. ClusterXL always supports the Sticky Decision Function in the Load Sharing mode.
C. The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should
support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to enable the Sticky Decision Function in
the SmartDashboard cluster object in the ClusterXL page, Advanced Load Sharing Configuration
window.
D. Sticky Decision Function is not supported when employing either Performance Pack or a
hardware-based accelerator card. Enabling the Sticky Decision Function disables these
acceleration products.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184
A connection is said to be Sticky when:
A. A copy of each packet in the connection sticks in the connection table until a corresponding
reply packet is received from the other side.
B. A connection is not terminated by either side by FIN or RST packet.
C. All the connection packets are handled, in either direction, by a single cluster member.
D. The connection information sticks in the connection table even after the connection has ended.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 185
How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Gratuitous ARP
B. Broadcast storm
C. arp -s
D. Ping the sync interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 186
Check Point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 18184
B. TCP 8116
C. UDP 8116
D. TCP 18184
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 187
A customer called to report one cluster members status as Down. What command should you use
to identify the possible cause?
A. tcpdump/snoop
B. cphaprob list
C. fw ctl pstat
D. fw ctl debug -m cluster + forward
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 188
A customer calls saying that a Load Sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is not
SYN. Complete the following sentence. You will recommend:
A. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function).

B. switch to Multicast Mode.
C. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function).
D. configuring flush and ack.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 189
In ClusterXL, _______ is defined by default as a critical device.
A. fwm
B. assld
C. cpp
D. fwd
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 190
In ClusterXL, _______ is defined by default as a critical device.
A. fw.d
B. vpnd
C. Filter
D. cpd
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 191
When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be

lost if the cluster member fails.
B. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite
properly working synchronization.
C. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. The state of connections using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so these
connections cannot be synchronized.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 192
When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a
properly working synchronization.
B. An SMTP resource connection using CVP will be maintained by the cluster.
C. User Authentication connections will be lost by the cluster.
D. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 193
When a failed cluster member recovers, which of the following actions is NOT taken by the
recovering member?
A. It will not check for any updated policy and load the last installed policy with a warning message
indicating that the Security Policy needs to be installed from the Security Management Server.
B. It will try to take the policy from one of the other cluster members.
C. It compares its local policy to the one on the Security Management Server.
D. If the Security Management Server has a newer policy, it will be retrieved, else the local policy
will be loaded.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194
Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different
geographic locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers
whose location is widely separated for disaster recovery purposes. What are the restrictions of
this solution?
A. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than
100ms latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only
include switches and hubs.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms
latency (ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms
latency.
D. There are no restrictions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195

You are the MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of
two cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is
behaving strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster
synchronization link (cross-over cable). Which of the following commands is the BEST for testing
the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. ifconfig -a
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
D. ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196
You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration. Machines are not synchronized. What
happens to connections on failover?
A. Open connections are lost but can be reestablished.

B. It is not possible to configure High Availability that is not synchronized.
C. Connections cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Open connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 197
When using ClusterXL in Load Sharing, what is the default sharing method based on?
A. IPs
B. IPs, SPIs
C. IPs, Ports
D. IPs, Ports, SPIs
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 198
If ClusterXL Load Sharing is enabled with state synchronization enabled, what will happen if one
member goes down?
A. The processing of all connections handled by the faulty machine is immediately taken over by
the other member(s).
B. The processing of all connections handled by the faulty machine is dropped, so all connections
need to be re-established through the other machine(s).
C. There is no state synchronization on Load Sharing, only on High Availability.
D. The connections are dropped as Load Sharing does not support High Availability.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199
What is a Sticky Connection?
A. A Sticky Connection is one in which a reply packet returns through the same gateway as the
original packet.
B. A Sticky Connection is a connection that remains the same.
C. A Sticky Connection is a VPN connection that remains up until you manually bring it down.
D. A Sticky Connection is a connection that always chooses the same gateway to set up the initial
connection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 200
Review the R77 configuration. Is it correct for Management High Availability?
Exhibit:

A. No, the Security Management Servers must reside on the same network.
B. No, the Security Management Servers do not have the same number of NICs.
C. No, the Security Management Servers must be installed on the same operating system.
D. No, a R77 Security Management Server cannot run on Red Hat Linux 9.0.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 201
Check Point New Mode HA is a(n) _________ solution.
A. primary-domain
B. hot-standby
C. acceleration
D. load-balancing
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202
What is the behavior of ClusterXL in a High Availability environment?
A. The active member responds to the virtual address and is the only member that passes traffic.

B. Both members respond to the virtual address and both members pass traffic.
C. Both members respond to the virtual address but only the active member is able to pass traffic.
D. The active member responds to the virtual address and, using sync network forwarding, both
members pass traffic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 203
Review the cphaprob state command output from one New Mode High Availability ClusterXL
member.
Which member will be active after member 192.168.1.2 fails over and is rebooted?
A. Both members state will be in collision.

B. Both members state will be active.
C. 192.168.1.1
D. 192.168.1.2
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204
Review the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
Exhibit:

A. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
B. 192.168.1.1, because it is <local>
C. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active
D. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205
By default Check Point High Availability components send updates about their state every:
A. 0.5 second.
B. 1 second.
C. 5 seconds.
D. 0.1 second.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 206
You have just upgraded your Load Sharing gateway cluster (both members) from NGX R65 to
R77. cphaprob stat shows:
Cluster Mode: New High Availability (Active Up)
Member Unique Address Assigned Load State
1 (local) 172.16.185.21 100% Active
2 172.16.185.22 0% Ready
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of this?

A. Member 1 is at a lower version than member 2
B. You have not run cpconfig on member 2 yet.
C. You have a different number of cores defined for CoreXL between the two members
D. Member 1 has CoreXL disabled and member 2 does not
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207
In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS?
A. Active Security Master Server

B. Active Smart Master Server
C. Active Smart Management Server
D. Active Security Management Server
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 208
For Management High Availability, if an Active SMS goes down, does the Standby SMS
automatically take over?
A. Yes, if you set up VRRP

B. Yes, if you set up ClusterXL
C. No, the transition should be initiated manually
D. Yes, if you set up SecureXL
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 209
For Management High Availability synchronization, what does the Advance status mean?
A. The peer SMS has not been synchronized properly.

B. The peer SMS is properly synchronized.
C. The peer SMS is more up-to-date.
D. The active SMS and its peer have different installed policies and databases.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210
Which of the following would be a result of having more than one active Security Management
Server in a Management High Availability (HA) configuration?
A. An error notification will popup during SmartDashboard login if the two machines can
communicate indicating Collision status.
B. The need to manually synchronize the secondary Security Management Server with the
Primary Security Management Server is eliminated.
C. Allows for faster seamless failover: from active-to-active instead of standby-to-active.
D. Creates a High Availability implementation between the Gateways installed on the Security
Management Servers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 211
When Load Sharing Multicast mode is defined in a ClusterXL cluster object, how are packets
being handled by cluster members?
A. Only one member at a time is active. The active cluster member processes all packets.
B. All members receive all packets. All members run an algorithm which determines which
member processes packets further and which members delete the packet from memory.
C. The pivot machine will handle it.
D. All cluster members process all packets and members synchronize with each other.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 212

Which of the following does NOT happen when using Pivot Mode in ClusterXL?
A. The Pivot forwards the packet to the appropriate cluster member.

B. The Pivots Load Sharing decision function decides which cluster member should handle the
packet.
C. The Security Gateway analyzes the packet and forwards it to the Pivot.
D. The packet is forwarded through the same physical interface from which it originally came, not
on the sync interface.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 213
When distributing IPSec packets to gateways in a Load Sharing Multicast mode cluster, which
valid Load Sharing method will consider VPN information?
A. Load Sharing based on SPIs

B. Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and serial peripheral interfaces
C. Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and security parameter indexes
D. Load Sharing based on ports, VTI, and IP addresses
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214
By default, the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) uses this to send delta sync messages to other
cluster members.
A. Multicast
B. Unicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 215
Exhibit:
What cluster mode is represented in this case?
A. HA (New mode).
B. 3rd party cluster
C. Load Sharing (multicast mode)
D. Load Sharing Unicast (Pivot) mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 216
Exhibit:
What cluster mode is represented in this case?
A. 3rd party cluster

B. HA (New mode)
C. Load Sharing Unicast (Pivot) mode
D. Load Sharing (multicast mode)
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217
Which load-balancing method below is NOT valid?

A. Domain
B. They are all valid
C. Round Trip
D. Random
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 218
Which method of load balancing describes Round Robin?
A. Assigns service requests to servers at random.

B. Ensures that incoming requests are handled by the server with the fastest response time.
C. Measures the load on each server to determine which server has the most available resources.
D. Assigns service requests to the next server in a series.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 219
State Synchronization is enabled on both members in a cluster, and the Security Policy is
successfully installed. No protocols or services have been unselected for selective sync.
Review the fw tab -t connections -s output from both members. Is State Synchronization working
properly between the two members?
A. Members A and B are synchronized, because ID for both members is identical in the
connections table.
B. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #VALS in the connections table are not

close.
C. Members A and B are synchronized, because #SLINKS are identical in the connections table.
D. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #PEAK for both members is not close in the
connections table.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220
You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to R77. The Security Management Server and
both members are version NGX R65, with the latest Hotfix Accumulator. What is the correct
upgrade procedure?
1. Change the version in the General Properties of the Gateway-cluster object.
2. Upgrade the Security Management Server, and reboot.
3. Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at
a time and reboot after upgrade.
4. Install the Security Policy.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 2, 3, 1, 4
D. 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 221
Included in the clients network are some switches, which rely on IGMP snooping. You must find a
solution to work with these switches. Which of the following answers does NOT lead to a
successful solution?
A. Set the value of fwha_enable_igmp_snooping module configuration parameter to 1.

B. Disable IGMP registration in switches that rely on IGMP packets
C. ClusterXL supports IGMP snooping by default. There is no need to configure anything.
D. Configure static CAMs to allow multicast traffic on specific ports.

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 222
The customer wishes to install a cluster. In his network, there is a switch which is incapable of
forwarding multicast. Is it possible to install a cluster in this situation?
A. No, the customer needs to replace the switch with a new switch, which supports multicast
forwarding.
B. Yes, you can toggle on ClusterXL between broadcast and multicast using the command
cphaconf set_ccp broadcast/multicast.
C. Yes, the ClusterXL changes automatically to the broadcast mode if the multicast is not
forwarded.
D. Yes, you can toggle on ClusterXL between broadcast and multicast by setting the multicast
mode using the command cphaconf set_ccp multicast onoff. The default setting is broadcast.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223
What could be a reason why synchronization between primary and secondary Security
Management Servers does not occur?
A. If the set of installed products differ from each other, the Security Management Servers do not
synchronize the database to each other.
B. You have installed both Security Management Servers on different server systems (e. g. one
machine on HP hardware and the other one on DELL).
C. You are using different time zones.
D. You did not activate synchronization within Global Properties.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224
What is the proper command for importing users into the R77 User Database?

A. fwm importusrs
B. fwm dbimport
C. fwm import
D. fwm importdb
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 225
In a R75 Management High Availability (HA) configuration, you can configure synchronization to
occur automatically, when:
1. The Security Policy is installed.
2. The Security Policy is saved.
3. The Security Administrator logs in to the seconday Security Management Server and changes
its status to Active.
4. A scheduled event occurs.
5. The user data base is installed.
Select the BEST response for the synchronization trigger.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226
What is a requirement for setting up R77 Management High Availability?
A. All Security Management Servers must reside in the same LAN.

B. State synchronization must be enabled on the secondary Security Management Server.
C. All Security Management Servers must have the same operating system.
D. All Security Management Servers must have the same number of NICs.

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 227
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
three machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS - GAiA; NICs - QuadCard; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway - version:
R71 and primary Security Management Server installed, version: R77
Cluster Member 2: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 Intel 3Com; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway only,
version: R77
Cluster Member 3: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 other manufacturers; Memory - 512 MB; Security Gateway
only, version: R77
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.

B. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
C. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
D. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 228
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS - GAiA; NICs - QuadCard; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway only, version:
R77
Cluster Member 2: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 Intel 3Com; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway only,
version: R77
Cluster Member 3: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 other manufacturers; Memory: 512 MB; Security Gateway
only, version: R77
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2008; NIC - Intel NIC (1); Security Gateway and

primary Security Management Server installed, version: R77
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.

B. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
C. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
D. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 229
You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology:
VIP internal cluster IP = 172.16.10.3; VIP external cluster IP = 192.168.10.3
Cluster Member 1: 4 NICs, 3 enableD. hme0: 192.168.10.1/24, hme1: 10.10.10.1/24, qfe2:

172.16.10.1/24
Cluster Member 2: 5 NICs, 3 enabled; hme3: 192.168.10.2/24, hme1: 10.10.10.2/24, hme2:

172.16.10.2/24
External interfaces 192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream
router connects to the same VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16.10.1 and 172.16.10.2
connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the synchronization network. The Security Management Server is
located on the internal network with IP 172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
B. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
C. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the
internal network.
D. There is an IP address conflict.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 230
What is the reason for the following error?

Exhibit:
A. A third-party cluster solution is implemented.

B. Cluster membership is not enabled on the gateway.
C. Device Name contains non-ASCII characters.
D. Objects.C does not contain a cluster object.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 231
In which ClusterXL Load Sharing mode, does the pivot machine get chosen automatically by
ClusterXL?
A. Hot Standby Load Sharing

B. Multicast Load Sharing
C. Unicast Load Sharing
D. CCP Load Sharing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 232
What configuration change must you make to change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from

Multicast to Unicast mode?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object. Reinstall the Security Policy.
B. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on each of the cluster-member objects.
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to re-enable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in
cpconfig.
D. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the
Security Policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 233
In a R77 ClusterXL Load Sharing configuration, which type of ARP related problem can force the
use of Unicast Mode (Pivot) configuration due to incompatibility on some adjacent routers and
switches?
A. MGCP MAC address response to a Multicast IP request

B. Multicast MAC address response to a Unicast IP request
C. Unicast MAC address response to a Multicast IP request
D. Multicast MAC address response to a RARP request
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 234
How do new connections get established through a Security Gateway with SecureXL enabled?
A. New connections are always inspected by the firewall and if they are accepted, the subsequent
packets of the same connection will be passed through SecureXL
B. New connection packets never reach the SecureXL module.
C. The new connection will be first inspected by SecureXL and if it does not match the drop table
of SecureXL, then it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match.
D. If the connection matches a connection or drop template in SecureXL, it will either be
established or dropped without performing a rule match, else it will be passed to the firewall
module for a rule match.
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 235
Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack. You explain to him that a Performance
Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the performance of the Security Gateway.
You may enable or disable this acceleration by either:
1) the command: cpconfig
2) the command: fwaccel onoff
What is the difference between these two commands?
A. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically
change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
B. Both commands function identically.
C. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be

used on all platforms.
D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change
the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236
Your customer complains of the weak performance of his systems. He has heard that Connection
Templates accelerate traffic. How do you explain to the customer about template restrictions and
how to verify that they are enabled?
A. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together"

all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the
source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.
B. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together"
source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwaccel stat.
C. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together"
destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwacel templates.
D. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together"
destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 237
Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway
does not have the Performance Pack running. What would Frank need to perform in order
configure those settings?
A. Edit affinity.conf and change the settings.

B. Run fw affinity and change the settings.
C. Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings.
D. Run sim affinity and change the settings.
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 238
You are concerned that the processor for your firewall running R71 SecurePlatform may be
overloaded. What file would you view to determine the speed of your processor(s)?
A. cat /etc/sysconfig/cpuinfo
B. cat /proc/cpuinfo
C. cat /etc/cpuinfo
D. cat /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf/cpuinfo
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 239
Which of the following is NOT a restriction for connection template generation?
A. SYN Defender
B. UDP services with no protocol type or source port mentioned in advanced properties
C. ISN Spoofing
D. VPN Connections
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 240
In CoreXL, what process is responsible for processing incoming traffic from the network interfaces,
securely accelerating authorized packets, and distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel
instances?
A. NAD (Network Accelerator Daemon)

B. SNP (System Networking Process)
C. SND (Secure Network Distributor)
D. SSD (Secure System Distributor)

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241
Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your
firewall. If you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.

B. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling
R75.
C. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel Instances.
D. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration
is needed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 242
Which of the following is NOT supported by CoreXL?
A. Route-based VPN
B. SmartView Tracker
C. IPS
D. IPV4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 243
If the number of kernel instances for CoreXL shown is 6, how many cores are in the physical
machine?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 3

D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 244
Which of the following is NOT accelerated by SecureXL?
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. Telnet
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 245
How can you disable SecureXL via the command line (it does not need to survive a reboot)?
A. fw ctl accel off

B. securexl off
C. fwaccel off
D. fw xl off
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 246
Which of these is a type of acceleration in SecureXL?
A. QoS
B. FTP
C. connection rate
D. GRE

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 247
The CoreXL SND (Secure Network Distributor) is responsible for:
A. distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances.

B. accelerating VPN traffic.
C. shutting down cores when they are not needed.
D. changing routes to distribute the load across multiple firewalls.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following services will cause SecureXL templates to be disabled?
A. HTTPS
B. LDAP
C. FTP
D. TELNET
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 249
How do you enable SecureXL (command line) on GAiA?
A. fwaccel on
B. fw securexl on
C. fw accel on
D. fwsecurexl on
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 250
The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on GAiA?
Exhibit:
A. fwsecurexl stats
B. fwaccel stats
C. fw securexl stats
D. fw accel stats
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 251
After Travis added new processing cores on his server, CoreXL did not use them. What would be
the most plausible reason why? Travis did not:
A. edit Gateway Properties and increase the kernel instances.

B. edit Gateway Properties and increase the number of CPU cores.
C. run cpconfig to increase the firewall instances.
D. run cpconfig to increase the number of CPU cores.
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 252
A SmartProvisioning Gateway could be a member of which VPN communities?
1) Center in Star Topology
2) Satellite in Star Topology
3) Center in Remote Access Community
4) Meshed Community
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. All
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253
What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on GAiA?
A. gated
B. There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
C. routerd
D. arouted
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 254
Which statement is TRUE for route-based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each Gateway.

B. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required.
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain.
D. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 255
VPN routing can also be configured by editing which file?
A. $FWDIR/VPN/route_conf.c
B. $FWDIR/conf/vpn_route.conf
C. $FWDIR/bin/vpn_route.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/vpn_route.c
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256
If both domain-based and route-based VPNs are configured, which will take precedence?
A. Route-based
B. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the Policy > Global Properties
C. Domain-based
D. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the VPN community object
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 257
Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. They are supported on the GAiA Operating System.

B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.

D. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 258
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.

B. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform.
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 259
A. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured

B. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
C. VTI specific additional local and remote IP addresses are not configured
D. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 260
Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses

B. VTIs cannot share IP addresses
C. VTIs are only supported on IPSO
D. VTIs cannot use an already existing physical-interface IP address

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 261
Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs can use an already existing physical-interface IP address

B. VTIs cannot share IP addresses
C. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses
D. VTIs are supported on SecurePlatform Pro
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 262
When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what
issues need to be considered?
1) Each member must have a unique source IP address.
2) Every interface on each member requires a unique IP address.
3) All VTI's going to the same remote peer must have the same name.
4) Cluster IP addresses are required.
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 263
How do you verify a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is configured properly?

A. vpn shell display interface detailed <VTI name>
B. vpn shell show <VTI name> detailed
C. vpn shell display <VTI name> detailed
D. vpn shell show interface detailed <VTI name>
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 264
What is used to validate a digital certificate?
A. IPsec
B. CRL
C. PKCS
D. S/MIME
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 265
Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided:
A. by authentication.
B. via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
C. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 266
You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an
external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first?
A. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your

partners Certificate Authority (CA).
B. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partners CA.
C. Manually import your partners Access Control List.
D. Manually import your partners Certificate Revocation List.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 267
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access
Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. internal_clear > All_communities

B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Communities > Communities
D. internal_clear > All_GwToGw
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 268
If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST
choice?
A. Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in
Quick Mode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.
B. When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPNs are a better choice.
C. Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, and use ESP
protocol.
D. Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on
all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH
and ESP as protocols.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 269
Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R75 can take when it controls packets.
The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below that
includes the available actions:
A. Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop

B. Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy
C. Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth
D. Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 270
Your organization maintains several IKE VPNs. Executives in your organization want to know
which mechanism Security Gateway R77 uses to guarantee the authenticity and integrity of
messages. Which technology should you explain to the executives?
A. Certificate Revocation Lists

B. Application Intelligence
C. Key-exchange protocols
D. Digital signatures
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271
There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections.
With Link Selection you can:
A. Assign links to specific VPN communities.

B. Probe links for availability.
C. Use links based on authentication method.
D. Use links based on Day/Time.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 272
A. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

B. Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic.
C. Use links based on Day/Time.
D. Use links based on authentication method.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273

B. Use links based on services.
C. Prohibit Dynamic DNS.
D. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 274

B. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.
C. Set up links for Remote Access.
D. Use links based on Day/Time.
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 275
What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN?
A. Star VPN Community

B. Any VPN Community
C. Mesh VPN Community
D. Remote Access VPN Community
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 276
MEP VPNs use the Proprietary Probing Protocol to send special UDP RDP packets to port ____
to discover if an IP is accessible.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 264
D. 201
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 277
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPNs?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
B. MEP VPNs are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
D. State synchronization between Security Gateways is required.
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 278
A. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.

B. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
C. State synchronization between Security Gateways is required.
D. MEP VPNs are restricted to the location of the gateways.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 279
A. State synchronization between Security Gateways is NOT required.

B. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
C. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
D. MEP VPNs are restricted to the location of the gateways.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 280
A. The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail.
B. MEP VPNs are restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. State synchronization betweened Security Gateways is required.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
Answer: A

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 281
At what router prompt would you save your OSPF configuration?
A. localhost.localdomain(config-router-ospf)#
B. localhost.localdomain(config-if)#
C. localhost.localdomain(config)#
D. localhost.localdomain#
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 282
What is the command to show OSPF adjacencies?
A. show ospf summary-address

B. show ospf interface
C. show ospf neighbors
D. show running-config
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283
A VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is defined on GAiA as:
vpn shell interface add numbered 10.10.0.1 10.10.0.2 madrid.cp
What do you know about this VTI?
A. 10.10.0.1 is the local Gateways internal interface, and 10.10.0.2 is the internal interface of the
remote Gateway.
B. The peer Security Gateways name is madrid.cp.
C. The VTI name is madrid.cp.

D. The local Gateway's object name is madrid.cp.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 284
Which type of VPN routing relies on a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) to route traffic?
A. Host-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Domain-based VPN
D. Subnet-based VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 285
You have three Gateways in a mesh community. Each gateways VPN Domain is their internal
network as defined on the Topology tab setting All IP Addresses behind Gateway based on
Topology information.
You want to test the route-based VPN, so you created VTIs among the Gateways and created
static route entries for the VTIs. However, when you test the VPN, you find out the VPN still go
through the regular domain IPsec tunnels instead of the routed VTI tunnels.
What is the problem and how do you make the VPN use the VTI tunnels?
A. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI,
remove the Gateways out of the mesh community and replace with a star community
B. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI,
use an empty group object as each Gateways VPN Domain
C. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. To make the VPN go through VTI,
use dynamic-routing protocol like OSPF or BGP to route the VTI address to the peer instead of
static routes
D. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. Troubleshoot the static route entries
to insure that they are correctly pointing to the VTI gateway IP.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 286
When configuring a Permanent Tunnel between two gateways in a Meshed VPN community, in
what object is the tunnel managed?
A. VPN Community object

B. Only the local Security Gateway object
C. Each participating Security Gateway object
D. Security Management Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 287
Which of the following log files contains only information about the negotiation process for
encryption?
A. iked.elg
B. ike.elg
C. vpn.elg
D. vpnd.elg
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 288
Which of the following log files contains verbose information regarding the negotiation process and
other encryption failures?
A. ike.elg
B. vpn.elg
C. iked.elg
D. vpnd.elg
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289
What is the most common cause for a Quick mode packet 1 failing with the error No Proposal
Chosen error?
A. The encryption strength and hash settings of one peer does not match the other.
B. The previously established Permanent Tunnel has failed.
C. There is a network connectivity issue.
D. The OS and patch level of one gateway does not match the other.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 290
Which component receives events and assigns severity levels to the events; invokes any defined
automatic reactions, and adds the events to the Events Data Base?
A. SmartEvent Correlation Unit

B. SmartEvent Server
C. SmartEvent Analysis DataServer
D. SmartEvent Client
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 291
The ______________ contains the Events Data Base.
A. SmartEvent Server
B. SmartEvent DataServer
C. SmartEvent Client
D. SmartEvent Correlation Unit
Answer: A

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292
The SmartEvent Correlation Unit:
A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.

B. assigns a severity level to an event.
C. adds events to the events database.
D. displays the received events.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 293
The SmartEvent Server:
A. assigns a severity level to an event.

B. forwards what is known as an event to the SmartEvent Server.
C. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 294
The SmartEvent Client:
A. adds events to the events database.

B. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
C. assigns a severity level to an event.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 295
A. looks for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.

B. assigns a severity level to an event.
C. adds events to the events database.
D. displaysthe received events.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 296
A. forwards what is identified as an event to the SmartEvent server.

B. adds events to the events database.
C. assigns a severity level to an event.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297
The SmartEvent Server:
A. displays the received events

B. deletes events from the events database
C. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server
D. invokes defined automatic reactions
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 298
What are the 3 main components of the SmartEvent Software Blade?
1) Correlation Unit
2) Correlation Client
3) Correlation Server
4) Analyzer Server
5) Analyzer Client
6) Analyzer Unit
A. 1, 3, 4
B. 1, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 4, 5, 6
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 299
How many Events can be shown at one time in the Event preview pane?
A. 5,000
B. 15,000
C. 30,000
D. 1,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 300
You are reviewing computer information collected in ClientInfo. You can NOT:
A. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell.

B. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information.
C. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file.
D. Copy the contents of the selected cells.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 301
Which of the following is NOT a SmartEvent Permission Profile type?
A. No Access
B. Events Database
C. View
D. Read/Write
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 302
What is the SmartEvent Correlation Units function?
A. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.

B. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
C. Assign severity levels to events.
D. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 303
What is the SmartEvent Analyzer's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.

B. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
C. Assign severity levels to events.

D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 304
What is the SmartEvent Clients function?
A. Assign severity levels to events.

B. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database.
C. Generate a threat analysis report from the Reporter database.
D. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 305
A tracked SmartEvent Candidate in a Candidate Pool becomes an Event. What does NOT happen
in the Analyzer Server?
A. SmartEvent provides the beginning and end time of the Event.

B. The Event is kept open, but condenses many instances into one Event.
C. The Correlation Unit keeps adding matching logs to the Event.
D. SmartEvent stops tracking logs related to the Candidate.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 306
How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R77 as part of the
product installation?
A. 5
B. 0
C. 10

D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 307
What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R77?
A. To allow SmartEvent R77 to function properly with all other R71 devices.
B. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may
occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.
C. As a base for starting and building exclusions.
D. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 308
What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode?
A. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode

B. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
C. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes
D. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 309
______________ is NOT an SmartEvent event-triggered Automatic Reaction.
A. SNMP Trap
B. Block Access
C. Mail
D. External Script

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 310
What access level cannot be assigned to an Administrator in SmartEvent?
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. No Access
D. Events Database
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 311
_______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartReporter Database
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 312
_____________ generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database.
A. Security Management Server

B. SmartReporter
C. SmartEvent Client
D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 313
Which SmartReporter report type is generated from the SmartView Monitor history file?
A. Standard
B. Traditional
C. Express
D. Custom
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 314
Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartEvent Server
B. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C. SmartReporter Client
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 315
Which Check Point product implements a Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartLSM
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartReporter
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 316
You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event
when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from
a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.

B. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each
other.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 317
When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?
A. As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.

B. When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.
C. When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.
D. When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 318
To back up all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which
folder(s)?
A. $FWDIR/distrib
B. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
C. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
D. $RTDIR/events_db
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 319
To clean the system of all SmartEvent events, you should delete the files in which folder(s)?
A. $RTDIR/events_db
B. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
C. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
D. $FWDIR/distrib
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 320
What SmartConsole application allows you to change the SmartReporter Policy?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartEvent Server
D. SmartUpdate
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 321
Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express

reports in SmartReporter?
A. In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the R77 Security Gateway object
B. In SmartReporter, under Express > Network Activity
C. In SmartReporter, under Standard > Custom
D. In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 322
In a UNIX environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in:
A. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C
B. $RTDIR/Database/conf/my.cnf
C. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf
D. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 323
In a Windows environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in:
A. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C
B. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf
C. %RTDIR%\Database\conf\my.ini
D. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 324
Which specific R77 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 325
SmartReporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the
following examples, EXCEPT:
A. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.

B. Possible worm/malware activity.
C. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
D. Tracking attempted port scans.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 326
What is the best tool to produce a report which represents historical system information?
A. SmartReporter-Standard Reports
C. Smartview Monitor
D. SmartReporter-Express Reports
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 327
If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter
system, which policy would he need to modify?
A. Log Sequence Policy

B. Report Policy
C. Log Consolidator Policy
D. Consolidation Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 328
Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate
view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be
taken to achieve that?
1) Use same hard drive for database directory, log files, and temporary directory.
2) Use Consolidation Rules.
3) Limit logging to blocked traffic only.
4) Use Multiple Database Tables.
A. 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 329
To help organize events, SmartReporter uses filtered queries. Which of the following is NOT an
SmartEvent event property you can query?
A. Event: Critical, Suspect, False Alarm

B. TimE. Last Hour, Last Day, Last Week
C. TypE. Scans, Denial of Service, Unauthorized Entry
D. StatE. Open, Closed, False Alarm
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 330
When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the first step is to back up
the files on the original server. Which of the following commands should you run to back up the
SmartEvent data base?
A. migrate export

B. eva_db_backup
C. snapshot
D. backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 331
When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the
files on the new server. Which of the following commands should you run to save the SmartEvent
data base files on the new server?
A. cp
B. restore
C. migrate import
D. eva_db_restore
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 332
Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default
value)?
A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C
C. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C
D. $FWDIR/conf/table.C
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 333
Match the ClusterXL modes with their configurations.
Exhibit:

A. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

B. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5
C. A-3, B-5, C-1, D-4
D. A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 334
Your expanding network currently includes ClusterXL running Multicast mode on two members, as
shown in this topology:

A. You need to add interfaces: 10.10.10.1/24 on Member A, and 10.10.10.2/24 on Member B. The
virtual IP address for these interfaces is 10.10.10.3/24. Both cluster gateways have a Quad card
with an available eth3 interface. What is the correct procedure to add these interfaces?
B. 1. Disable "Cluster membership" from one Gateway via cpconfig.
2. Configure the new interface via sysconfig from the "non-member" Gateway.
3. Re-enable "Cluster membership" on the Gateway.
4. Perform the same steps on the other Gateway.
5. Update the topology in the cluster object.
C. 1. Configure the new interface on both members using WebUI.
2. Update the new topology in the cluster object from SmartDashboard.
3. Define virtual IP in the Dashboard
D. 1. Use WebUI to configure the new interfaces on both member.
2. Update the topology in the cluster object.
3. Reboot both gateways.
E. 1. Use the command ifconfig to configure and enable the new interface on both members.
2. Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members.
4. Reboot the gateway.

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 335
Use the table to match the BEST Management High Availability synchronication-status
descriptions for your Security Management Server (SMS).
A. A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2

B. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
C. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4
D. A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 336
MegaCorps' disaster recovery plan is past due for an update to the backup and restore section to
enjoy the benefits of the new distributed R77 installation. You must propose a plan that meets the
following required and desired objectives:
Required: Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.
Desired: Back up R77 components enforcing the Security Policies at least once a week.
Desired: Back up R77 logs at least once a week.
You develop a disaster recovery plan proposing the following:
* Use the utility cron to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management
Servers.

* Configure the organization's routine backup software to back up files created by the command
upgrade_export.
* Configure GAiA back up utility to back up Security Gateways every Saturday night.
* Use the utility cron to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.
* Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.
* Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.
The corporate IT change review committee decides your plan:
A. meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B. meets the required objective and both desired objectives.
C. meets the rquired objective but does not meet either deisred objective.
D. does not meet the required objective.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 337
Match the VPN-related terms with their definitions. Each correct term is only used once.
Exhibit:
A. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5

B. A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2
C. A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer: B
Explanation:

To provide full connectivity upgrade status, use command
Answer: cphaprob fcustat
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment, what command syntax do you run to avoid
switching problems around the cluster for command cphaconf?
Answer: set_ccp broadcast
In a zero downtime scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are
upgraded?
Answer: cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Complete this statement. To save interface information before upgrading a Windows Gateway,
use command
Answer: ipconfig -a > [filename].txt
Fill in the blank with a numeric value. The default port number for standard TCP connections with
the LDAP server is
Answer: 389
Fill in the blank with a numeric value. The default port number for Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
connections with the LDAP Server is

Answer: 636
The command useful for debugging by capturing packet information, including verifying LDAP
authentication on all Check Point platforms is
Answer: fw monitor
QUESTION NO: 345
John is configuring a new R77 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party
IP Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties. Whats
happening?
Exhibit:

A. Third Party Clustering is not available for R77 Security Gateways.
B. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
C. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Points IP Appliance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 346
Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. B.Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Management
Server.
B. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
C. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 347
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA
Gateway?
A. save configuration
B. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
C. netstat rn > [filename].txt
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 348
A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.

A. 16
B. 8
C. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 349
What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on GAiA?
A. There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
B. routerd
C. arouted
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 350
You are running a R77.10 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What backup method could
you use to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. snapshot
B. migrate_import
C. manual backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 351
When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the first step is to back up
the files on the original server. Which of the following commands should you run to back up the
SmartEvent data base?

A. B.evas_backup
B. C.snapshot
C. D.backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 352
Check Point New Mode HA is a(n) _________ solution.
A. B.active-standby
B. C.acceleration
C. D.load-balancing
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 353
If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter
system, which policy would he need to modify?
A. Smartreporter Policy
B. Log Consolidator Policy
C. Consolidation Policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 354
Where do you verify that SmartDirectory is enabled?
A. Global properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is

checked
B. Gateway properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security
Gateways is checked

C. Gateway properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is
checked
D. Global properties > User Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways
is checked
Answer: D

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What are some possible reasons a gateway cannot be added to a cluster object?

What are some possible reasons a gateway cannot be added to a cluster object?

For which rules will connection templates be generated in SecureXL?

For which rules will connection templates be generated in SecureXL?

Checkpoint 156-315.

Check Point Certified Security Expert

What are possible reasons for that?

1) fw2 is a member in a VPN community.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

3) fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.

Review the Rule Base displayed.

For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 3

A. directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4

A. Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.

A. There is no dynamic update at reboot.

Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 5

A. No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.

A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 6

A. fw monitor was restricted to the wrong interface.

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

A. pdp and lad

Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?

1) same operating systems

2) same Check Point version

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 7

QUESTION NO: 15 CORRECT TEXT

Answer: fwaccel off/on

A. The cluster link is down.

2) SmartEvent Correlation Unit

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 8

A. No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

QUESTION NO: 19 CORRECT TEXT

Answer: vpn tunnelutil

QUESTION NO: 20 CORRECT TEXT

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 9

QUESTION NO: 21 CORRECT TEXT

QUESTION NO: 22 CORRECT TEXT

Answer: fw tab -t connections -s

QUESTION NO: 23 CORRECT TEXT

Answer: fw -i 0 tab -t connections -s

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 10

To run GAiA in 64bit mode, which of the following is true?

1) Run set edition default 64-bit.

2) Install more than 4 GB RAM.

3) Install more than 4 TB of Hard Disk.

A. Add more RAM to the system.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 11

A. set user admin shell bash

What is Check Point's CoreXL?

A. A way to synchronize connections across cluster members

QUESTION NO: 30 CORRECT TEXT

Answer: fw tab -t connections -s

Does Check Point recommend generating an upgrade_export on standby SmartCenters?

A. Yes. This is the only way to get the upgrade_export