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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education
Advanced Subsidiary Level and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/01
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2009

1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
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READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This document consists of 13 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB09 06_9700_01/3RP
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1 What are the appropriate units for measuring diameters of alveoli, diameters of white blood cells
and the width of cell walls?

diameters of diameters of width of

alveoli white blood cells cell walls

A mm m m
B m mm m
C m m nm
D mm mm nm

2 Cells which do not have nucleoli die because they do not have

A centrioles and cannot divide.

B mitochondria and cannot release energy.
C mRNA and cannot transcribe DNA.
D ribosomes and cannot synthesise protein.

3 What describes the features of an electron microscope?

maximum
resolution / nm specimen
magnification

A 2.5 103 2.5 102 dead

B 2.5 104 5.0 101 living
C 2.5 105 5.0 101 dead
D 5.0 105 2.5 102 living

4 A plan diagram is made of a transverse section of a leaf.

Which features should be seen in the diagram?

1 the overall distribution of tissues

2 the relative thicknesses of the tissue layers
3 those cells which contain chloroplasts

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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5 The table shows some of the structural features present or absent in four different cell types.

Which identifies the cell type for each column of features?

key
= feature present
= feature absent

cell wall    
centrioles    
chloroplast    
Golgi apparatus    
large vacuole    
A ciliated epithelial prokaryotic cell root cortex cell spongy
cell mesophyll cell
B root cortex cell spongy prokaryotic cell ciliated epithelial
mesophyll cell cell
C prokaryotic cell ciliated epithelial spongy root cortex cell
cell mesophyll cell
D spongy root cortex cell ciliated epithelial prokaryotic cell
mesophyll cell cell

6 Which types of bonds maintain the tertiary structure of a protein molecule?

disulfide hydrogen ionic peptide

A    
B    
C    
D    

7 What is the general formula for starch?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n

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8 The hexose sugar molecule in the diagram has its six carbon atoms numbered.

6 CH2OH
5C O

4C 1C
OH
HO 2 OH
C C
3
OH

Which carbon atoms join by glycosidic bonds to form amylose and amylopectin?

amylose amylopectin

A 1 to 4 1 to 4 and 1 to 6
B 1 to 6 1 to 4 and 1 to 6
C 1 to 4 and 1 to 6 1 to 4
D 1 to 4 and 1 to 6 1 to 6

9 Which statement about triglycerides is correct?

A They are made up of three fatty acids combined with glycogen.

B They are more saturated with hydrogen compared with phospholipids.
C They form a bilayer in the membranes of cells.
D They have a lower ratio of oxygen to carbon compared with carbohydrates.

10 When a peptide bond is formed, which statement is correct?

A One amino acid loses a hydroxyl group from its amine group.
B One amino acid loses a hydroxyl group from its carboxyl group.
C Both amino acids lose a hydrogen atom from their amine group.
D Both amino acids lose a hydrogen atom from their carboxyl group.

11 Which sequence correctly identifies the change in colours during the Benedicts test?

A blue brown red green yellow

B blue green yellow brown red

C blue red green yellow brown

D blue yellow brown red green

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12 Lactose is a disaccharide present in the milk of mammals.

How will a baby mammal benefit from having this sugar, instead of a monosaccharide, in the
milk?

A Condensation of disaccharides enables rapid production of glycogen.

B Disaccharides can be transported across membranes for more rapid absorption.
C Disaccharides have a higher energy value than triglycerides.
D Hydrolysis of the glycosidic bond gives a gradual release of monosaccharide.

13 When investigating the rate of reaction of the enzyme lipase on the hydrolysis of triglycerides, the
pH must be maintained at an optimum to prevent the lipase denaturing.

What is the reason for this?

A The addition of water molecules produced by hydrolysis increases pH.

B The products of hydrolysis decrease the pH.
C The products of hydrolysis increase the pH.
D The removal of water molecules used in hydrolysis decreases pH.

14 Catalase was added to hydrogen peroxide solution. The volume of oxygen produced was
measured at intervals. The results are shown on the graph.

10
9
8
7
oxygen 6
produced / 5
cm3 4
3
2
1
0 30 60 90 120 150 180
time / seconds

What was the initial rate of reaction?

A 0.05 cm3 s1 B 0.10 cm3 s1 C 1.00 cm3 s1 D 10.0 cm3 s1

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15 Some viruses are able to bind to the cell surface membrane before entering the host cell.

Which sequence of events will lead to a virus invading a cell?

A binding to a cholesterol molecule, followed by endocytosis

B binding to a glycoprotein receptor, followed by exocytosis
C binding to a protein receptor, followed by endocytosis
D binding to the hydrophilic portion of a phospholipid, followed by exocytosis

16 Which statement about the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure is correct?

A The less unsaturated the fatty acid tails of the phospholipid, the more fluid the membrane.
B The more unsaturated the fatty acid tails of the phospholipid, the more fluid the membrane.
C The higher the temperature, the less fluid the membrane.
D The lower the temperature, the more fluid the membrane.

17 Which pair of factors is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion?

A concentration gradient and surface area over which diffusion occurs

B distance over which diffusion occurs and size of diffusing molecule
C size of diffusing molecule and concentration gradient
D surface area over which diffusion occurs and distance over which diffusion occurs

18 For organisms undergoing sexual reproduction, a reduction division occurs before fertilisation.

Which reasons explain why this is necessary?

1 increase genetic variation

2 prevent doubling of the chromosome number
3 reduce the chances of mutation

A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

19 Colchicine is a chemical that stops chromatids from separating during mitosis.

Which phase will the cell reach and then stop dividing?

A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase

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20 In the DNA sequence for sickle cell anaemia, adenine replaces thymine in a CTT triplet, forming
the triplet CAT. During synthesis of the sickle cell haemoglobin molecule, the amino acid valine is
incorporated instead of glutamic acid.

What is the anticodon in the transfer RNA molecule carrying this valine?

A CAU B CUA C GAU D GUA

21 Which statements are correct about DNA transcription and translation?

transcription translation

A is semi-conservative produces mRNA

B produces mRNA is semi-conservative
C occurs at the surface of ribosomes produces mRNA
D produces mRNA occurs at the surface of ribosomes

22 Bacteria were cultured in a medium containing heavy nitrogen (15N) until all the DNA was
labelled. These bacteria were then grown in a medium containing only normal nitrogen (14N) for
five generations. The percentage of cells containing 15N in each generation was estimated.

Which curve provides evidence that DNA replication is semi-conservative?

100

75

% of cells
containing 50 B
15
N

25

C
0 D
0 1 2 3 4 5
generations

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23 The table shows the sugars and some bases found in RNA and DNA.

Which is correct?

RNA DNA

A ribose thymine
B ribose uracil
C thymine deoxyribose
D uracil ribose

24 What is transpiration and which advantage does it give to the plant?

transpiration advantage to the plant

A evaporation of water maintains the

from leaf surfaces water potential
B evaporation of water stomata are open
from leaf surfaces for gas exchange
C loss of water vapour maintains the
from leaves water potential
D loss of water vapour stomata are open
from leaves for gas exchange

25 Which statement explains why the circumference (girth) of a tree is less at midday and increases
at night?

A Mineral uptake by the root hair cells decreases during the night because root pressure has
decreased.
B Stomata close during the night and there is a build-up of water in the vascular tissue within
the stem.
C The phloem sieve tubes fill with dissolved solutes because the translocation rate reduces
during the night.
D There is less tension in the xylem vessels during the night because the rate of transpiration
is at a minimum.

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26 Different substances, such as sucrose and amino acids, can move in different directions in the
phloem sieve tubes.

Which statement explains this?

A Active transport occurs in some phloem sieve tubes and mass flow in other phloem sieve
tubes.
B Both active transport and mass flow occur in each individual phloem sieve tube.
C Mass flow occurs in both directions at once in each individual phloem sieve tube.
D Mass flow occurs in different directions in different phloem sieve tubes at the same time.

27 The photograph shows a type of blood cell.

Which statements about these cells are correct?

1 Oxygen diffuses through the phospholipid bilayer.

2 Sodium ions diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
3 Water passes in and out of these cells by osmosis.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

28 When one molecule of oxygen combines with haemoglobin it makes it easier for the next oxygen
molecule to bind, which makes it easier for the next molecule of oxygen to bind.

Which orders of protein structure change to allow this to happen?

A primary and quaternary

B primary and secondary
C secondary and tertiary
D tertiary and quaternary

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29 The graphs show changes in the percentage saturation of haemoglobin in the blood of humans
and of another vertebrate animal. The partial pressure of CO2 remains constant at 1.0 kPa and
the temperature is constant at 25 C.

human
100

vertebrate X

% saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen

partial pressure of oxygen

Which conclusion is justified from the graph?

A At the temperature of 25 C the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases more in humans
than in vertebrate X.
B Haemoglobin does not become fully saturated in the lungs of vertebrate X.
C Oxygen is more easily released from haemoglobin in the muscle of vertebrate X than in
human muscle.
D The Bohr effect in the haemoglobin of vertebrate X is greater than in human haemoglobin.

30 Which component of cigarette smoke makes blood platelets more sticky and therefore increases
the risk of blood clot formation?

A carbon monoxide
B carcinogens
C nicotine
D tar

31 When a person suffers an asthma attack, the tubes of the gas exchange system narrow and extra
mucus is produced.

Which of these changes occur during an asthma attack?

1 Activity of ciliated epithelium increases.

2 Endocytosis in goblet cells increases.
3 Smooth muscles respire faster.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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32 A person inhales minute particles from a very dusty environment.

Which effect will this have on B-lymphocytes and goblet cells?

B-lymphocytes goblet cells

A less active less active

B less active more active
C more active less active
D more active more active

33 Four ways of being immune are

1 having memory cells after an infection

2 having memory cells after being injected with dead bacteria
3 being injected with antibodies
4 receiving antibodies from breast milk

Which row in the table correctly shows the types of immunity?

natural artificial natural artificial

active active passive passive

A 1 2 3 4
B 1 2 4 3
C 2 1 3 4
D 2 1 4 3

34 A graft of tissue, such as skin, from a different person is usually rejected by the body.

Which statement about graft rejection is correct?

A The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because they circulate in the blood and can gather at
the graft site.
B The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because they make and release antibodies which
react with the surface antigens on the graft cells.
C The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because T-lymphocytes are not stimulated to produce
antibodies.
D The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because the graft tissue causes T-lymphocytes to
release antibodies.

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35 Which statement about both B- and T-lymphocytes is correct?

A They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor.
B They divide to form clones when meeting an antitoxin in a cell.
C They produce memory cells to respond to an antigen when exposed in the future.
D They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate release of antibodies.

36 Why is it necessary for a person with a bacterial infection to be told to take antibiotics at evenly
spaced time intervals?

A to increase the concentration of antibiotic slowly to a level which is lethal to the bacteria
B to maintain concentration of antibiotic in the body which is lethal to the bacteria
C to prevent the development of resistant strains of bacteria
D to select and kill the resistant strains of bacteria

37 How are the diseases cholera, malaria and HIV / AIDS transmitted?

cholera malaria HIV / AIDS

A air body fluid insect

B body fluid water air
C insect air water
D water insect body fluid

38 A farmer grows a different crop in a field each year for three years.

In the fourth year he grows a leguminous crop, such as clover, and then ploughs this into the soil.
The next year he starts the rotation again.

How does the fourth year crop add mineral ions to the soil?

decomposition nitrification nitrogen fixation

A no yes yes
B yes no yes
C yes yes no
D yes yes yes

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39 At which stage of a food chain of tropical grassland is the energy transfer least efficient?

A B C
sun producer primary secondary
consumer consumer

D
decomposer

40 Which soil would have the smallest number of denitrifying bacteria?

A compressed agricultural soil

B poorly drained forest soil
C water-logged clay soil
D well-aerated garden soil

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