CMA Part I PDF

CMA Part 2 – Financial Decision Making
Examination Practice Questions
© Copyright 2014 Institute of Certified Management Accountants

Examination Practice Questions
Section A: Financial Statement Analysis
1. CSO: 2A1a LOS: 2A1a

Gordon has had the following financial results for the last four years.
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4

Sales $1,250,000 $1,300,000 $1,359,000 $1,400,000
Cost of goods sold 750,000 785,000 825,000 850,000
Gross profit 500,000 515,000 534,000 550,000
Inflation factor 1.00 1.03 1.07 1.10
Gordon has analyzed these results using vertical common-size analysis to determine
trends. The performance of Gordon can best be characterized by which one of the
following statements?
a. The common-size gross profit percentage has decreased as a result of an

increasing common-size trend in cost of goods sold.
b. The common-size trend in sales is increasing and is resulting in an increasing
trend in the common-size gross profit margin.
c. The common-size trend in cost of goods sold is decreasing which is resulting in
an increasing trend in the common-size gross profit margin.
d. The increased trend in the common-size gross profit percentage is the result of
both the increasing trend in sales and the decreasing trend in cost of goods sold.
Broomall Corporation has decided to include certain financial ratios in its year-end
annual report to shareholders. Selected information relating to its most recent fiscal year
is provided below.
 Cash $10,000
 Accounts receivable 20,000
 Prepaid expenses 8,000
 Inventory 30,000
 Available-for-sale securities
-At cost 9,000
-Fair value at year end 12,000
 Accounts payable 15,000
 Notes payable (due in 90 days) 25,000
 Bonds payable (due in 10 years) 35,000
 Net credit sales for year 220,000
 Cost of goods sold 140,000
Broomall’s working capital at year end is
a. $40,000.
b. $37,000.
c. $28,000.
d. $10,000.
3. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

All of the following are affected when merchandise is purchased on credit except
a. total current assets.

b. net working capital.
c. total current liabilities.
d. current ratio.
Birch Products Inc. has the following current assets.
Cash $ 250,000
Marketable securities 100,000
Accounts receivable 800,000
Inventories 1,450,000
Total current assets $2,600,000
If Birch’s current liabilities are $1,300,000, the firm’s
a. current ratio will decrease if a payment of $100,000 cash is used to pay $100,000
of accounts payable.
b. current ratio will not change if a payment of $100,000 cash is used to pay
$100,000 of accounts payable.
c. quick ratio will decrease if a payment of $100,000 cash is used to purchase
inventory.
d. quick ratio will not change if a payment of $100,000 cash is used to purchase
inventory.

Shown below are beginning and ending balances for certain of Grimaldi Inc.’s accounts.
January 1 December 31
Cash $ 48,000 $ 62,000
Marketable securities 42,000 35,000
Accounts receivable 68,000 47,000
Inventory 125,000 138,000
Plant & equipment 325,000 424,000
Accounts payable 32,000 84,000
Accrued liabilities 14,000 11,000
7% bonds payable 95,000 77,000
Grimaldi’s acid test ratio or quick ratio at the end of the year is
a. 0.83.
b. 1.02.
c. 1.15.
d. 1.52.
Davis Retail Inc. has total assets of $7,500,000 and a current ratio of 2.3 times before
purchasing $750,000 of merchandise on credit for resale. After this purchase, the current
ratio will
a. remain at 2.3 times.

b. be higher than 2.3 times.
c. be lower than 2.3 times.
d. be exactly 2.53 times.}

Markowitz Company increased its allowance for uncollectable accounts. This adjustment
will
a. increase the acid test ratio.

b. increase working capital.
c. reduce debt-to-asset ratio.
d. reduce the current ratio.

Shown below are selected data from Fortune Company’s most recent financial
statements.
Marketable securities $10,000

Accounts receivable 60,000
Inventory 25,000
Supplies 5,000
Accounts payable 40,000
Short-term debt payable 10,000
Accruals 5,000
What is Fortune’s net working capital?
a. $35,000.
b. $45,000.
c. $50,000.
d. $80,000.
Garstka Auto Parts must increase its acid test ratio above the current 0.9 level in order to
comply with the terms of a loan agreement. Which one of the following actions is most
likely to produce the desired results?
a. Expediting collection of accounts receivable.

b. Selling auto parts on account.
c. Making a payment to trade accounts payable.
d. Purchasing marketable securities for cash.

The owner of a chain of grocery stores has bought a large supply of mangoes and paid for
the fruit with cash. This purchase will adversely impact which one of the following?
a. Working capital.
b. Current ratio.
c. Quick or acid test ratio.
d. Price earnings ratio.

Selected financial data for Boyd Corporation are shown below.
Cash $ 48,000 $ 62,000
Accounts receivable (net) 68,000 47,000
Trading securities 42,000 35,000
Inventory 125,000 138,000
Plant and equipment (net) 325,000 424,000
Deferred taxes 15,000 9,000
Long-term bonds payable 95,000 77,000
Boyd’s net income for the year was $96,000. Boyd’s current ratio at the end of the year
is
a. 1.55.
b. 1.71.
c. 2.71.
d. 2.97.
When reviewing a credit application, the credit manager should be most concerned with
the applicant’s
a. profit margin and return on assets.

b. price-earnings ratio and current ratio.
c. working capital and return on equity.
d. working capital and current ratio.

Both the current ratio and the quick ratio for Spartan Corporation have been slowly
decreasing. For the past two years, the current ratio has been 2.3 to 1 and 2.0 to 1.
During the same time period, the quick ratio has decreased from 1.2 to 1 to 1.0 to 1. The
disparity between the current and quick ratios can be explained by which one of the
following?
a. The current portion of long-term debt has been steadily increasing.

b. The cash balance is unusually low.
c. The accounts receivable balance has decreased.
d. The inventory balance is unusually high.

The acid test ratio shows the ability of a company to pay its current liabilities without
having to
a. reduce its cash balance.

b. borrow additional funds.
c. collect its receivables.
d. liquidate its inventory.

All of the following are included when calculating the acid test ratio except
a. six-month treasury bills.

b. prepaid insurance.
c. accounts receivable.
d. 60-day certificates of deposit.
Dedham Corporation has decided to include certain financial ratios in its year-end annual
report to shareholders. Selected information relating to its most recent fiscal year is
provided below.
 Cash $10,000
 Accounts receivable 20,000
 Prepaid expenses 8,000
 Inventory 30,000
 Available-for-sale securities
-At cost 9,000
-Fair value at year end 12,000
 Accounts payable 15,000
Dedham’s quick (acid-test) ratio at year end is
a. 2.00 to 1.
b. 1.925 to 1.
c. 1.80 to 1.
d. 1.05 to 1.

If a company has a current ratio of 2.1 and pays off a portion of its accounts payable with
cash, the current ratio will
a. decrease.
b. increase.
c. remain unchanged.
d. move closer to the quick ratio.
18. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2e
The capital structure of four corporations is as follows.
Corporation
Sterling Cooper Warwick Pane
Short-term debt 10% 10% 15% 10%
Long-term debt 40% 35% 30% 30%
Preferred stock 30% 30% 30% 30%
Common equity 20% 25% 25% 30%
Which corporation is the most highly leveraged?
a. Sterling.
b. Cooper.
c. Warwick.
d. Pane.
19. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2f

A summary of the Income Statement of Sahara Company is shown below.
Sales $15,000,000
Cost of sales 9,000,000
Operating expenses 3,000,000
Interest expense 800,000
Taxes 880,000
Net income $ 1,320,000
Based on the above information, Sahara’s degree of financial leverage is
a. 0.96.
b. 1.36.
c. 1.61.
d. 2.27.
20. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2f

A degree of operating leverage of 3 at 5,000 units means that a
a. 3% change in earnings before interest and taxes will cause a 3% change in sales.
b. 3% change in sales will cause a 3% change in earnings before interest and taxes.
c. 1% change in sales will cause a 3% change in earnings before interest and taxes.
d. 1% change in earnings before interest and taxes will cause a 3% change in sales.
Firms with high degrees of financial leverage would be best characterized as having
a. high debt-to-equity ratios.

b. zero coupon bonds in their capital structures.
c. low current ratios.
d. high fixed-charge coverage.

The use of debt in the capital structure of a firm
a. increases its financial leverage.

b. increases its operating leverage.
c. decreases its financial leverage.
d. decreases its operating leverage.
23. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2g

A financial analyst with Mineral Inc. calculated the company's degree of financial
leverage as 1.5. If net income before interest increases by 5%, earnings to shareholders
will increase by
a. 1.50%.
b. 3.33%.
c. 5.00%.
d. 7.50%.
24. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2g

Which one of the following statements concerning the effects of leverage on earnings
before interest and taxes (EBIT) and earnings per share (EPS) is correct?
a. For a firm using debt financing, a decrease in EBIT will result in a proportionally
larger decrease in EPS.
b. A decrease in the financial leverage of a firm will increase the beta value of the
firm.
c. If Firm A has a higher degree of operating leverage than Firm B, and Firm A
offsets this by using less financial leverage, then both firms will have the same
variability in EBIT.
d. Financial leverage affects both EPS and EBIT, while operating leverage only
effects EBIT.
25. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2i
The Liabilities and Shareholders’ Equity section of Mica Corporation’s Statement of
Financial Position is shown below.
Accounts payable $ 32,000 $ 84,000
7% bonds payable 95,000 77,000
Common stock ($10 par value) 300,000 300,000
Reserve for bond retirement 12,000 28,000
Retained earnings 155,000 206,000
Total liabilities and shareholders’ equity $608,000 $706,000
Mica’s debt/equity ratio is
a. 25.1%.
b. 25.6%.
c. 32.2%.
d. 33.9%.
26. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2y

Borglum Corporation is considering the acquisition of one of its parts suppliers and has
been reviewing the pertinent financial statements. Specific data, shown below, has been
selected from these statements for review and comparison with industry averages.
Bond Rockland Western Industry

Total sales (millions) $4.27 $3.91 $4.86 $4.30
Net profit margin 9.55% 9.85% 10.05% 9.65%
Current ratio 1.32 2.02 1.96 1.95
Return on assets 11.0% 12.6% 11.4% 12.4%
Debt/equity ratio 62.5% 44.6% 49.6% 48.3%
Financial leverage 1.40 1.02 1.86 1.33
Borglum’s objective for this acquisition is assuring a steady source of supply from a
stable company. Based on the information above, select the strategy that would fulfill
Borglum’s objective.
a. Borglum should not acquire any of these firms as none of them represents a good
risk.
b. Acquire Bond as both the debt/equity ratio and degree of financial leverage
exceed the industry average.
c. Acquire Rockland as both the debt/equity ratio and degree of financial leverage
are below the industry average.
d. Acquire Western as the company has the highest net profit margin and degree of
financial leverage.
Which one of the following is the best indicator of long-term debt paying ability?
a. Working capital turnover.

b. Asset turnover.
c. Current ratio.
d. Debt-to-total assets ratio.

Easton Bank has received loan applications from three companies in the computer service
business and will grant a loan to the company with the best prospect of fulfilling the loan
obligations. Specific data, shown below, has been selected from these applications for
review and comparison with industry averages.
CompGo Astor SysGen Industry

Current ratio 1.82 2.02 1.96 1.95
Return on assets 12.0% 12.6% 11.4% 12.4%
Based on the information above, select the strategy that would fulfill Easton’s objective.
a. Easton should not grant any loans as none of these companies represents a good
credit risk.
b. Grant the loan to CompGo as all the company’s data approximate the industry
average.
c. Grant the loan to Astor as both the debt/equity ratio and degree of financial
leverage are below the industry average.
d. Grant the loan to SysGen as the company has the highest net profit margin and
degree of financial leverage.
The following information has been derived from the financial statements of Boutwell
Company.
Current assets $640,000

Total assets 990,000
Long-term liabilities 130,000
Current ratio 3.2 Times
The company’s debt-to-equity ratio is
a. 0.50 to 1.
b. 0.37 to 1.
c. 0.33 to 1.
d. 0.13 to 1.
30. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2j

The interest expense for a company is equal to its earnings before interest and taxes
(EBIT). The company's tax rate is 40%. The company's times-interest earned ratio is
equal to
a. 2.0.
b. 1.0.
c. 0.6.
d. 1.2.
Marble Savings Bank has received loan applications from three companies in the auto
parts manufacturing business and currently has the funds to grant only one of these
requests. Specific data, shown below, has been selected from these applications for
review and comparison with industry averages.
Bailey Nutron Sonex Industry

Current ratio 1.82 2.02 1.96 1.95
Return on assets 12.0% 12.6% 11.4% 12.4%
Based on the information above, select the strategy that should be the most beneficial to
Marble Savings.
a. Marble Savings Bank should not grant any loans as none of these companies
represents a good credit risk.
b. Grant the loan to Bailey as all the company’s data approximate the industry
average.
c. Grant the loan to Nutron as both the debt/equity ratio and degree of financial
leverage are below the industry average.
d. Grant the loan to Sonex as the company has the highest net profit margin and
degree of financial leverage.
Marge Halifax, chief financial officer of Strickland Construction, has been tracking the
activities of the company’s nearest competitor for several years. Among other trends,
Halifax has noticed that this competitor is able to take advantage of new technology and
bring new products to market more quickly than Strickland. In order to determine the
reason for this, Halifax has been reviewing the following data regarding the two
companies.
Strickland Competitor
Accounts receivable turnover 6.85 7.35
Return on assets 15.34 14.74
Times interest earned 15.65 12.45
Current ratio 2.11 1.23
Debt/equity ratio 42.16 55.83
Degree of financial leverage 1.06 1.81
Price/earnings ratio 26.56 26.15
On the basis of this information, which one of the following is the best initial strategy for
Halifax to follow in attempting to improve the flexibility of Strickland?
a. Seek cost cutting measures that would increase Strickland’s profitability.

b. Investigate ways to improve asset efficiency and turnover times to improve
liquidity.
c. Seek additional sources of outside financing for new product introductions.
d. Increase Strickland’s investment in short-term securities to increase the current
ratio.
33. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2l
Lowell Corporation has decided to include certain financial ratios in its year-end annual
provided below.
 Cash $ 10,000
 Accounts receivable (end of year) 20,000
 Accounts receivable (beginning of year) 24,000
 Inventory (end of year) 30,000
 Inventory (beginning of year) 26,000
Using a 365-day year, compute Lowell’s accounts receivable turnover in days.
a. 26.1 days.
b. 33.2 days.
c. 36.5 days.
d. 39.8 days.

Maydale Inc.’s financial statements show the following information.
Accounts receivable, end of Year 1 $ 320,000

Credit sales for Year 2 3,600,000
Accounts receivable, end of Year 2 400,000
Maydale’s accounts receivable turnover ratio is
a. 0.10.
b. 9.00.
c. 10.00.
d. 11.25.
Zubin Corporation experiences a decrease in sales and the cost of good sold, an increase
in accounts receivable, and no change in inventory. If all else is held constant, what is
the total effect of these changes on the receivables turnover and inventory ratios?
Inventory Receivables
Turnover Turnover
a. Increased; Increased.
b. Increased; Decreased.
c. Decreased; Increased.
d. Decreased; Decreased.

Peggy Monahan, controller, has gathered the following information regarding Lampasso
Company.
Beginning of the year End of the year

Inventory $6,400 $7,600
Total sales for the year were $85,900, of which $62,400 were credit sales. The cost of
goods sold was $24,500.
Lampasso’s inventory turnover ratio for the year was
a. 3.2 times.
b. 3.5 times.
c. 8.2 times.
d. 8.9 times.
Garland Corporation’s Income Statement for the year just ended is shown below.
Net sales $900,000

Cost of goods sold
Inventory - beginning $125,000
Purchases 540,000
Goods available for sale 665,000
Inventory - ending 138,000
527,000
Gross profit 373,000
Operating expenses 175,000
Income from operations $198,000
Garland’s average inventory turnover ratio is
a. 6.84.
b. 6.52.
c. 4.01.
d. 3.82.

Makay Corporation has decided to include certain financial ratios in its year-end annual
provided below.
 Cash $ 10,000
 Accounts receivable (end of year) 20,000
 Accounts receivable (beginning of year) 24,000
 Inventory (end of year) 30,000
 Inventory (beginning of year) 26,000
Makay’s average inventory turnover for the year was
a. 4.7 times.
b. 5.0 times.
c. 5.4 times.
d. 7.9 times.
Globetrade is a retailer that buys virtually all of its merchandise from manufacturers in a
country experiencing significant inflation. Globetrade is considering changing its method
of inventory costing from first-in, first-out (FIFO) to last-in, first-out (LIFO). What
effect would the change from FIFO to LIFO have on Globetrade’s current ratio and
inventory turnover ratio?
a. Both the current ratio and the inventory turnover ratio would increase.
b. The current ratio would increase but the inventory turnover ratio would decrease.
c. The current ratio would decrease but the inventory turnover ratio would increase.
d. Both the current ratio and the inventory turnover ratio would decrease.

Lancaster Inc. had net accounts receivable of $168,000 and $147,000 at the beginning
and end of the year, respectively. The company’s net income for the year was $204,000
on $1,700,000 in total sales. Cash sales were 6% of total sales. Lancaster’s average
accounts receivable turnover ratio for the year is
a. 9.51.
b. 10.15.
c. 10.79.
d. 10.87.
41. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2m

Cornwall Corporation’s net accounts receivable were $68,000 and $47,000 at the
beginning and end of the year, respectively. Cornwall’s condensed Income Statement is
shown below.
Sales $900,000
Cost of goods sold 527,000
Operating expenses 175,000
Operating income 198,000
Income tax 79,000
Net income $119,000
Cornwall’s average number of days’ sales in accounts receivable (using a 360-day year)
is
a. 8 days.
b. 13 days.
c. 19 days.
d. 23 days.
42. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2m
The following financial information is given for Anjuli Corporation (in millions of
dollars).
Prior Year Current Year
Sales $10 $11
Cost of good sold 6 7
Current Assets
Cash 2 3
Accounts receivable 3 4
Inventory 4 5
Between the prior year and the current year, did the days sales in inventory and days sales
in receivables for Anjuli increase or decrease? Assume a 365-day year.
Days Sales Days Sales

in Inventory in Receivables
a. Increased; Increased.
b. Increased; Decreased.
c. Decreased; Increased.
d. Decreased; Decreased.
43. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2o

On its year-end financial statements, Caper Corporation showed sales of $3,000,000, net
fixed assets of $1,300,000, and total assets of $2,000,000. The company’s fixed asset
turnover is
a. 1.5 times.
b. 43.3%.
c. 2.3 times.
d. 65%.
The following information was obtained from a company’s financial statements.
Beginning of the year End of the year

Inventory $6,400 $7,600
Total sales for the year were $85,900, of which $62,400 were credit sales. The cost of
goods sold was $24,500. The company’s payable turnover was
a. 6.7 times.
b. 7.0 times.
c. 16.9 times.
d. 17.8 times.
45. CSO: 2A2d LOS: 2A2p

Douglas Company purchased 10,000 shares of its common stock at the beginning of the
year for cash. This transaction will affect all of the following except the
a. debt-to-equity ratio.
b. earnings per share.
c. net profit margin.
d. current ratio.
46. CSO: 2A2d LOS: 2A2q

For the year just ended, Beechwood Corporation had income from operations of
$198,000 and net income of $96,000. Additional financial information is given below.
7% bonds payable $95,000 $77,000
Common stock ($10 par value) 300,000 300,000
Reserve for bond retirement 12,000 28,000
Retained earnings 155,000 206,000
Beechwood has no other equity issues outstanding. Beechwood’s return on shareholders’

equity for the year just ended is
a. 19.2%.
b. 19.9%.
c. 32.0%.
d. 39.5%.
The assets of Moreland Corporation are presented below.
Cash $ 48,000 $ 62,000
Marketable securities 42,000 35,000
Inventory 125,000 138,000
Plant & equipment
(net of accumulated depreciation) 325,000 424,000
For the year just ended, Moreland had net income of $96,000 on $900,000 of sales.
Moreland’s total asset turnover ratio is
a. 1.27.
b. 1.37.
c. 1.48.
d. 1.50.

Interstate Motors has decided to make an additional investment in its operating assets
which are financed by debt. Assuming all other factors remain constant, this increase in
investment will have which one of the following effects?
Operating Return on
Income Operating Operating
Margin Asset Turnover Assets
a. Increase No change Increase.
b. No change Decrease Decrease.
c. No change Increase Decrease.
d. Decrease Decrease Decrease.

Colonie Inc. expects to report net income of at least $10 million annually for the
foreseeable future. Colonie could increase its return on equity by taking which of the
following actions with respect to its inventory turnover and the use of equity financing?
Inventory Turnover Use of Equity Financing

a. Increase; Increase.
b. Increase; Decrease.
c. Decrease; Increase.
d. Decrease; Decrease.
50. CSO: 2A2e LOS: 2A2s
At the end of its fiscal year on December 31, 2000, Merit Watches had total shareholders'
equity of $24,209,306. Of this total, $3,554,405 was preferred equity. During the 2001
fiscal year, Merit's net income after tax was $2,861,003. During 2001, Merit paid
preferred share dividends of $223,551 and common share dividends of $412,917. At
December 31, 2001, Merit had 12,195,799 common shares outstanding and the company
did not sell any common shares during the year. What was Merit Watch's book value per
share on December 31, 2001?
a. $1.88.
b. $2.17.
c. $1.91.
d. $2.20.
51. CSO: 2A2e LOS: 2A2s

Donovan Corporation recently declared and issued a 50% stock dividend. This
transaction will reduce the company’s
a. current ratio.
b. book value per common share.
c. debt-to-equity ratio.
d. return on operating assets.
52. CSO: 2A2e LOS: 2A2r

The following information concerning Arnold Company’s common stock was included in
the company’s financial reports for the last two years.
Year 2 Year 1
Market price per share on December 31 $60 $50
Par value per share 10 10
Earnings per share 3 3
Dividends per share 1 1
Book value per share on December 31 36 34
Based on the price-earnings information, investors would most likely consider Arnold’s
common stock to
a. be overvalued at the end of Year 2.

b. indicate inferior investment decisions by management in Year 2.
c. show a positive trend in growth opportunities in Year 2 compared to Year 1.
d. show a decline in growth opportunities in Year 2 compared to Year 1.
53. CSO: 2A2e LOS: 2A2v
Bull & Bear Investment Banking is working with the management of Clark Inc. in order
to take the company public in an initial public offering. Selected financial information
for Clark is as follows.
Long-term debt (8% interest rate) $10,000,000
Common equity: Par value ($1 per share) 3,000,000
Additional paid-in-capital 24,000,000
Retained earnings 6,000,000
Total assets 55,000,000
Net income 3,750,000
Dividend (annual) 1,500,000
If public companies in Clark’s industry are trading at twelve times earnings, what is the
estimated value per share of Clark?
a. $9.00.
b. $12.00.
c. $15.00.
d. $24.00.

Morton Starley Investment Banking is working with the management of Kell Inc. in order
to take the company public in an initial public offering. Selected information for the year
just ended for Kell is as follows.

Common equity: Par value ($1 per share) 3,000,000
Additional paid-in-capital 24,000,000
Retained earnings 6,000,000
Total assets 55,000,000
Net income 3,750,000
Dividend (annual) 1,500,000
If public companies in Kell’s industry are trading at a market to book ratio of 1.5, what is
the estimated value per share of Kell?
a. $13.50.
b. $16.50.
c. $21.50.
d. $27.50.
55. CSO: 2A2e LOS: 2A2u
At the beginning of the year, Lewis Corporation had 100,000 shares of common stock
outstanding. During the year, the following transactions occurred.
Date Transaction
April 1 Issued 10,000 shares in exchange for land
July 1 Declared and distributed a 10% stock dividend
October 1 Purchased 5,000 shares of treasury stock
The number of shares that Lewis should use when computing earnings per share at the
end of the year is
a. 117,000.
b. 116,000.
c. 111,750.
d. 106,250.

Selected financial data for ABC Company is presented below.
 For the year just ended ABC has net income of $5,300,000.
 $5,500,000 of 7% convertible bonds were issued in the prior year at a face value of
$1,000. Each bond is convertible into 50 shares of common stock. No bonds were
converted during the current year.
 50,000 shares of 10% cumulative preferred stock, par value $100, were issued in the
prior year. Preferred dividends were not declared in the current year, but were current
at the end of the prior year.
 At the beginning of the current year 1,060,000 shares of common stock were
outstanding.
 On June 1 of the current year 60,000 shares of common stock were issued and sold.
 ABC's average income tax rate is 40%.
ABC Company's basic earnings per share for the current fiscal year is
a. $3.67.
b. $4.29.
c. $4.38.
d. $4.73.
Devlin Inc. has 250,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding. For the
current year, Devlin paid a cash dividend of $3.50 per share and had earnings per share of
$4.80. The market price of Devlin’s stock is $34 per share. Devlin’s price/earnings ratio
is
a. 2.08.
b. 2.85.
c. 7.08.
d. 9.71.

At year-end, Appleseed Company reported net income of $588,000. The company has
10,000 shares of $100 par value, 6% preferred stock and 120,000 shares of $10 par value
common stock outstanding and 5,000 shares of common stock in treasury. There are no
dividend payments in arrears, and the market price per common share at the end of the
year was $40. Appleseed’s price-earnings ratio is
a. 9.47.
b. 9.09.
c. 8.50.
d. 8.16.

Archer Inc. has 500,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding. For the
current year, Archer paid a cash dividend of $4.00 per share and had earnings per share of
$3.20. The market price of Archer’s stock is $36 per share. The average price/earnings
ratio for Archer’s industry is 14.00. When compared to the industry average, Archer’s
stock appears to be
a. overvalued by approximately 25%.

b. overvalued by approximately 10%.
c. undervalued by approximately 10%.
d. undervalued by approximately 25%.

A steady drop in a firm’s price/earnings ratio could indicate that
a. earnings per share has been increasing while the market price of the stock has
held steady.
b. earnings per share has been steadily decreasing.
c. the market price of the stock has been steadily rising.
d. both earnings per share and the market price of the stock are rising.
Collins Company reported net income of $350,000 for the year. The company had
10,000 shares of $100 par value, non-cumulative, 6% preferred stock and 100,000 shares
of $10 par value common stock outstanding. There were also 5,000 shares of common
stock in treasury during the year. Collins declared and paid all preferred dividends as
well as a $1 per share dividend on common stock. Collins’ earnings per share of
common stock for the year was
a. $3.50.
b. $3.33.
c. $2.90.
d. $2.76.

Ray Company has 530,000 common shares outstanding at year-end. At December 31, for
basic earnings per share purposes, Ray computed its weighted average number of shares
as 500,000. Prior to issuing its annual financial statements, but after year-end, Ray split
its stock 2 for 1. Ray's weighted average number of shares to be used for computing
annual basic earnings per share is
a. 500,000.
b. 530,000.
c. 1,000,000.
d. 1,060,000.

On January 1, Esther Pharmaceuticals had a balance of 10,000 shares of common stock
outstanding. On June 1, the company issued an additional 2,000 shares of common stock
for cash. A total of 5,000 shares of 6%, $100 par, nonconvertible preferred stock was
outstanding all year. Esther’s net income was $120,000 for the year. The earnings per
share for the year were
a. $7.50.
b. $8.06.
c. $10.00.
d. $10.75.
Roy company had 120,000 common shares and 100,000 preferred shares outstanding at
the close of the prior year. During the current year Roy repurchased 12,000 common
shares on March 1, sold 30,000 common shares on June 1, and sold an additional 60,000
common shares on November 1. No change in preferred shares outstanding occurred
during the year. The number of shares of stock outstanding to be used in the calculation
of basic earnings per share at the end of the current year is
a. 100,000.
b. 137,500.
c. 198,000.
d. 298,000.

Selected information regarding Dyle Corporation’s outstanding equity is shown below.
Common stock, $10 par value,

350,000 shares outstanding $3,500,000
Preferred stock, $100 par value,
10,000 shares outstanding 1,000,000
Preferred stock dividend paid 60,000
Common stock dividend paid 700,000
Earnings per common share 3
Market price per common share 18
Dyle’s yield on common stock is
a. 11.11%.
b. 16.66%.
c. 16.88%.
d. 20.00%.

For the most recent fiscal period, Oakland Inc. paid a regular quarterly dividend of $0.20
per share and had earnings of $3.20 per share. The market price of Oakland stock at the
end of the period was $40.00 per share. Oakland’s dividend yield was
a. 0.50%.
b. 1.00%.
c. 2.00%.
d. 6.25%.
The dividend yield ratio is calculated by which one of the following methods?
a. Market price per share divided by dividends per share.

b. Earnings per share divided by dividends per share.
c. Dividends per share divided by market price per share.
d. Dividends per share divided by earnings per share.

Mayson Company reported net income of $350,000 for last year. The company had
100,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding and 5,000 shares of common
stock in treasury during the year. Mayson declared and paid $1 per share dividends on
common stock. The market price per common share at the end of last year was $30. The
company’s dividend yield for the year was
a. 30.03%.
b. 28.57%.
c. 11.11%.
d. 3.33%.

The following information concerning Arnold Company’s common stock was included in
the company’s financial reports for the last two years.
Year 2 Year 1
Market price per share on December 31 $60 $50
Par value per share 10 10
Earnings per share 3 3
Dividends per share 1 1
Book value per share on December 31 36 34
Arnold’s dividend yield in Year 2
a. has increased compared to Year 1.

b. is indicative of the company’s failure to provide a positive return to the investors.
c. is the same as Year 1.
d. has declined compared to Year 1.
70. CSO: 2A4a LOS: 2A4a.2
A firm’s functional currency should be
a. selected on the basis of several economic factors including cash flow, sales price,
and financing indicators.
b. the currency of the foreign environment in which the firm primarily generates and
expends cash.
c. selected on the basis of cost-benefit analysis and ease of preparing consolidated
financial statements.
d. the currency of the parent organization as the firm operates as an extension of the
parent’s operations.
71. CSO: 2A4a LOS: 2A4a.2

The functional currency of an entity is defined as the currency
a. of the entity’s parent company.

b. of the primary country in which the entity is physically located.
c. in which the books of record are maintained for all entity operations.
d. of the primary economic environment in which the entity operates.
72. CSO: 2A4c LOS: 2A4c.2

If a company uses off-balance-sheet financing, assets have been acquired
a. for cash.
b. with operating leases.
c. with financing leases.
d. with a line of credit.
73. CSO: 2A4e LOS: 2A4e

The concept of economic profit is best defined as total
a. revenue minus all accounting costs.

b. income minus the sum of total fixed and variable costs.
c. revenue minus the sum of total fixed and variable costs.
d. revenue minus all explicit and implicit costs.

“Economic costs” often differ from costs shown in a firm’s financial statements. For a
corporation, a major difference would arise due to
a. interest costs.
b. salary and wage costs.
c. opportunity costs.
d. state and local tax costs.
Which of the following costs, when subtracted from total revenue, yields economic
profit?
a. Variable costs.
b. Recurring operating costs.
c. Fixed and variable costs.
d. Opportunity costs of all inputs.

Williams makes $35,000 a year as an accounting clerk. He decides to quit his job to
enter an MBA program full-time. Assume Williams doesn’t work in the summer or hold
any part-time jobs. His tuition, books, living expenses, and fees total $25,000 a year.
Given this information, the annual total economic cost of Williams’ MBA studies is
a. $10,000.
b. $35,000.
c. $25,000.
d. $60,000.

The financial statements of Lark Inc. for last year are shown below.
Income Statement ($000)

Revenue $4,000
Cost of sales 2,900
Gross margin 1,100
General & administrative 500
Interest 100
Taxes 150
Net income $ 350
Balance Sheet ($000)

Current assets $ 800 Current liabilities $ 500
Plant & equipment 3,200 Long-term debt $1,000
Common equity 2,500
Totals $4,000 Totals $4,000
If Lark’s book values approximate market values and if the opportunity costs of debt and
equity are 10% and 15%, respectively, what was the economic profit for Lark last year?
a. ($125,000).
b. ($25,000).
c. $0.
d. $350,000.
Section B: Corporate Finance
78. CSO: 2B1b LOS: 2B1b

The systematic risk of an individual security is measured by the
a. standard deviation of the security’s rate of return.

b. covariance between the security’s returns and the general market.
c. security’s contribution to the portfolio risk.
d. standard deviation of the security’s returns and other similar securities.
79. CSO: 2B1b LOS: 2B1c

Which one of the following provides the best measure of interest rate risk for a corporate
bond?
a. Duration.
b. Yield to maturity.
c. Bond rating.
d. Maturity.
80. CSO: 2B1a LOS: 2B1h

Frasier Products has been growing at a rate of 10% per year and expects this growth to
continue and produce earnings per share of $4.00 next year. The firm has a dividend
payout ratio of 35% and a beta value of 1.25. If the risk-free rate is 7% and the return on
the market is 15%, what is the expected current market value of Frasier’s common stock?
a. $14.00.
b. $16.00.
c. $20.00.
d. $28.00.
81. CSO: 2B1a LOS: 2B1g

Which one of the following would have the least impact on a firm’s beta value?
a. Debt-to-equity ratio.
b. Industry characteristics.
c. Operating leverage.
d. Payout ratio.
82. CSO: 2B1a LOS: 2B1g
If Dexter Industries has a beta value of 1.0, then its
a. return should equal the risk-free rate.

b. price is relatively stable.
c. expected return should approximate the overall market.
d. volatility is low.
83. CSO: 2B4g LOS: 2B4ee

Buying a wheat futures contract to protect against price fluctuation of wheat would be
classified as a
a. fair value hedge.

b. cash flow hedge.
c. foreign currency hedge.
d. swap.

The call provision in some bond indentures allows
a. the issuer to exercise an option to redeem the bonds.

b. the bondholder to exchange the bond, at no additional cost, for common shares.
c. the bondholder to redeem the bond early by paying a call premium.
d. the issuer to pay a premium in order to prevent bondholders from redeeming bonds.

Protective clauses set forth in an indenture are known as
a. provisions.
b. requirements.
c. addenda.
d. covenants.

A requirement specified in an indenture agreement which states that a company cannot
acquire or sell major assets without prior creditor approval is known as a
a. protective covenant.
b. call provision.
c. warrant.
d. put option.
87. CSO: 2B2b LOS: 2b2c
Dorsy Manufacturing plans to issue mortgage bonds subject to an indenture. Which of
the following restrictions or requirements are likely to be contained in the indenture?
I. Receiving the trustee’s permission prior to selling the property.

II. Maintain the property in good operating condition.
III. Insuring plant and equipment at certain minimum levels.
IV. Including a negative pledge clause.
a. I and IV only.
b. II and III only.
c. I, III, and IV only.
d. I, II, III and IV.
88. CSO: 2B2c LOS: 2B2d

Which one of the following statements concerning debt instruments is correct?
a. The coupon rate and yield of an outstanding long-term bond will change over
time as economic factors change.
b. A 25-year bond with a coupon rate of 9% and one year to maturity has more
interest rate risk than a 10-year bond with a 9% coupon issued by the same firm
with one year to maturity.
c. For long-term bonds, price sensitivity to a given change in interest rates is greater
the longer the maturity of the bond.
d. A bond with one year to maturity would have more interest rate risk than a bond
with 15 years to maturity.
89. CSO: 2B2b LOS: 2B2d

Which one of the following situations would prompt a firm to issue debt, as opposed to
equity, the next time it raises external capital?
a. High breakeven point.

b. Significant percentage of assets under capital lease.
c. Low fixed-charge coverage.
d. High effective tax rate.

Which one of the following is a debt instrument that generally has a maturity of ten years
or more?
a. A bond.
b. A note.
c. A chattel mortgage.
d. A financial lease.
James Hemming, the chief financial officer of a mid-western machine parts
manufacturer, is considering splitting the company’s stock, which is currently selling at
$80.00 per share. The stock currently pays a $1.00 per share dividend. If the split is two-
for-one, Mr. Hemming may expect the post split price to be
a. exactly $40.00, regardless of dividend policy.

b. greater than $40.00, if the dividend is changed to $0.45 per new share.
c. greater than $40.00, if the dividend is changed to $0.55 per new share.
d. less than $40.00, regardless of dividend policy.

Which one of the following best describes the record date as it pertains to common
stock?
a. Four business days prior to the payment of a dividend.

b. The 52-week high for a stock published in the Wall Street Journal.
c. The date that is chosen to determine the ownership of shares.
d. The date on which a prospectus is declared effective by the Securities and
Exchange Commission.

Preferred stock may be retired through the use of any one of the following except a
a. conversion.
b. call provision.
c. refunding.
d. sinking fund.

All of the following are characteristics of preferred stock except that
a. it may be callable at the option of the corporation.

b. it may be converted into common stock.
c. its dividends are tax deductible to the issuer.
d. it usually has no voting rights.

Which one of the following describes a disadvantage to a firm that issues preferred
stock?
a. Preferred stock dividends are legal obligations of the corporation.

b. Preferred stock typically has no maturity date.
c. Preferred stock is usually sold on a higher yield basis than bonds.
d. Most preferred stock is owned by corporate investors.
96. COS: 2B2c LOS: 2B2q
Which of the following, when considered individually, would generally have the effect of
increasing a firm’s cost of capital?
I. The firm reduces its operating leverage.

II. The corporate tax rate is increased.
III. The firm pays off its only outstanding debt.
IV. The Treasury Bond yield increases.
a. I and III.
b. II and IV.
c. III and IV.
d. I, III and IV.
97. CSO: 2B2c LOS: 2B2r

An accountant for Stability Inc. must calculate the weighted average cost of capital of the
corporation using the following information.
Interest Rate
Accounts payable $35,000,000 -0-
Long-term debt 10,000,000 8%
Common stock 10,000,000 15%
Retained earnings 5,000,000 18%
What is the weighted average cost of capital of Stability?
a. 6.88%.
b. 8.00%.
c. 10.25%.
d. 12.80%.
98. CSO: 2B2c LOS:2B2r
Kielly Machines Inc. is planning an expansion program estimated to cost $100 million.
Kielly is going to raise funds according to its target capital structure shown below.
Debt .30
Preferred stock .24
Equity .46
Kielly had net income available to common shareholders of $184 million last year of
which 75% was paid out in dividends. The company has a marginal tax rate of 40%.
Additional data:
 The before-tax cost of debt is estimated to be 11%.

 The market yield of preferred stock is estimated to be 12%.
 The after-tax cost of common stock is estimated to be 16%.
What is Kielly’s weighted average cost of capital?
a. 12.22%.
b. 13.00%.
c. 13.54%.
d. 14.00%.

Following is an excerpt from Albion Corporation’s balance sheet.

Preferred stock (100,000 shares, 12% dividend) 10,000,000
Common stock (5,000,000 shares outstanding) 60,000,000
Albion’s bonds are currently trading at $1,083.34, reflecting a yield to maturity of 8%.
The preferred stock is trading at $125 per share. Common stock is selling at $16 per
share, and Albion’s treasurer estimates that the firm’s cost of equity is 17%. If Albion’s
effective income tax rate is 40%, what is the firm’s cost of capital?
a. 12.6%.
b. 13.1%.
c. 13.9%.
d. 14.1%.
Thomas Company’s capital structure consists of 30% long-term debt, 25% preferred
stock, and 45% common equity. The cost of capital for each component is shown below.
Long-term debt 8%
Preferred stock 11%
Common equity 15%
If Thomas pays taxes at the rate of 40%, what is the company’s after-tax weighted
average cost of capital?
a. 7.14%.
b. 9.84%.
c. 10.94%.
d. 11.90%.

Joint Products Inc., a corporation with a 40% marginal tax rate, plans to issue $1,000,000
of 8% preferred stock in exchange for $1,000,000 of its 8% bonds currently outstanding.
The firm’s total liabilities and equity are equal to $10,000,000. The effect of this
exchange on the firm’s weighted average cost of capital is likely to be
a. no change, since it involves equal amounts of capital in the exchange and both
instruments have the same rate.
b. a decrease, since a portion of the debt payments are tax deductible.
c. a decrease, since preferred stock payments do not need to be made each year,
whereas debt payments must be made.
d. an increase, since a portion of the debt payments are tax deductible.
102. COS: 2B2c LOS: 2B2r

Cox Company has sold 1,000 shares of $100 par, 8% preferred stock at an issue price of
$92 per share. Stock issue costs were $5 per share. Cox pays taxes at the rate of 40%.
What is Cox’s cost of preferred stock capital?
a. 8.00%.
b. 8.25%.
c. 8.70%.
d. 9.20%.
In calculating the component costs of long-term funds, the appropriate cost of retained
earnings, ignoring flotation costs, is equal to
a. the cost of common stock.

b. the same as the cost of preferred stock.
c. the weighted average cost of capital for the firm.
d. zero, or no cost.

The Hatch Sausage Company is projecting an annual growth rate for the foreseeable
future of 9%. The most recent dividend paid was $3.00 per share. New common stock
can be issued at $36 per share. Using the constant growth model, what is the
approximate cost of capital for retained earnings?
a. 9.08%.
b. 17.33%.
c. 18.08%
d. 19.88%.

The management of Old Fenske Company (OFC) has been reviewing the company’s
financing arrangements. The current financing mix is $750,000 of common stock,
$200,000 of preferred stock ($50 par) and $300,000 of debt. OFC currently pays a
common stock cash dividend of $2. The common stock sells for $38, and dividends have
been growing at about 10% per year. Debt currently provides a yield to maturity to the
investor of 12%, and preferred stock pays a dividend of 9% to yield 11%. Any new issue
of securities will have a flotation cost of approximately 3%. OFC has retained earnings
available for the equity requirement. The company’s effective income tax rate is 40%.
Based on this information, the cost of capital for retained earnings is
a. 9.5%.
b. 14.2%.
c. 15.8%.
d. 16.0%.
Angela Company’s capital structure consists entirely of long-term debt and common
equity. The cost of capital for each component is shown below.
Long-term debt 8%
Common equity 15%
Angela pays taxes at a rate of 40%. If Angela’s weighted average cost of capital is
10.41%, what proportion of the company’s capital structure is in the form of long-term
debt?
a. 34%.
b. 45%.
c. 55%.
d. 66%.
107. CSO: 2B4b LOS: 2B4e

A firm uses the following model to determine the optimal average cash balance (Q).
2 x annual cash disbursement

x cost per sale of T-Bill
Q=
interest rate
An increase in which one of the following would result in a decrease in the optimal cash
balance?
a. Uncertainty of cash outflows.

b. Cost of a security trade.
c. Return on marketable securities.
d. Cash requirements for the year.
108. CSO: 2B4b LOS: 2B4e
All of the following are reasons for holding cash except for the
a. precautionary motive.
b. transactions motive.
c. motive to make a profit.
d. motive to meet future needs.
109. CSO: 2B4b LOS: 2B4g

All of the following can be utilized by a firm in managing its cash outflows except
a. zero-balance accounts.
b. centralization of payables.
c. controlled disbursement accounts.
d. lock-box system.
110. CSO: 2B4b LOS: 2B4h
Powell Industries deals with customers throughout the country and is attempting to more
efficiently collect its accounts receivable. A major bank has offered to develop and
operate a lock-box system for Powell at a cost of $90,000 per year. Powell averages 300
receipts per day at an average of $2,500 each. Its short-term interest cost is 8% per year.
Using a 360-day year, what reduction in average collection time would be needed in
order to justify the lock-box system?
a. 0.67 days.
b. 1.20 days.
c. 1.25 days.
d. 1.50 days.

Mandel Inc. has a zero-balance account with a commercial bank. The bank sweeps any
excess cash into a commercial investment account earning interest at the rate of 4% per
year, payable monthly. When Mandel has a cash deficit, a line of credit is used which
has an interest rate of 8% per year, payable monthly based on the amount used. Mandel
expects to have a $2 million cash balance on January 1 of next year. Net cash flows for
the first half of the year, excluding the effects of interest received or paid, are forecasted
(in millions of dollars) as follows.
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun

Net cash inflows ($) +2 +1 -5 -3 -2 +6
Assuming all cash-flows occur at the end of each month, approximately how much
interest will Mandel incur for this period?
a. $20,000 net interest paid.

b. $53,000 net interest paid.
c. $76,000 net interest paid.
d. $195,000 net interest paid.

Dexter Products receives $25,000 worth of merchandise from its major supplier on the
15th and 30th of each month. The goods are sold on terms of 1/15, net 45, and Dexter
has been paying on the net due date and foregoing the discount. A local bank offered
Dexter a loan at an interest rate of 10%. What will be the net annual savings to Dexter if
it borrows from the bank and utilizes the funds to take advantage of the trade discount?
a. $525.
b. $1,050.
c. $1,575.
d. $2,250.
The Rolling Stone Corporation, an entertainment ticketing service, is considering the
following means of speeding cash flow for the corporation.
 Lock Box System. This would cost $25 per month for each of its 170 banks and
would result in interest savings of $5,240 per month.
 Drafts. Drafts would be used to pay for ticket refunds based on 4,000 refunds per
month at a cost of $2.00 per draft, which would result in interest savings of $6,500
per month.
 Bank Float. Bank float would be used for the $1,000,000 in checks written each
month. The bank would charge a 2% fee for this service, but the corporation will
earn $22,000 in interest on the float.
 Electronic Transfer. Items over $25,000 would be electronically transferred; it is
estimated that 700 items of this type would be made each month at a cost of $18
each, which would result in increased interest earnings of $14,000 per month.
Which of these methods of speeding cash flow should Rolling Stone Corporation adopt?
a. Lock box and electronic transfer only.

b. Bank float and electronic transfer only.
c. Lock box, drafts, and electronic transfer only.
d. Lock box, bank float, and electronic transfer only.

JKL Industries requires its branch offices to transfer cash balances once per week
to the central corporate account. A wire transfer costs $12 and assures the cash is
available the same day. A depository transfer check (DTC) costs $1.50 and
generally results in funds being available in 2 days. JKL’s cost of short-term
funds averages 9%, and they use a 360-day year in all calculations. What is the
minimum transfer amount that would justify the cost of a wire transfer as opposed
to a DTC?
a. $21,000.
b. $24,000.
c. $27,000.
d. $42,000.
115. CSO: 2B4b LOS: 2B4l

The establishment and maintenance of a zero-balance account (ZBA) typically reduces
all of the following except
a. the cost of cash management.

b. the disbursement float.
c. excess bank balances.
d. management time.
116. CSO: 2B4c LOS: 2B4o
Which one of the following instruments would be least appropriate for a corporate
treasurer to utilize for temporary investment of cash?
a. U.S. Treasury bills.

b. Money market mutual funds.
c. Commercial paper.
d. Municipal bonds.
117. CSO: 2B4c LOS: 2B4n

Which one of the following statements best characterizes U.S. Treasury bills?
a. They have no coupon rate, no interest rate risk, and are issued at par.
b. They have an active secondary market, one to twenty-four month maturities, and
monthly interest payments.
c. They have an active secondary market, the interest received is exempt from
federal income tax, and there is no interest rate risk.
d. They have no coupon rate, no default risk, and interest received is subject to
federal income tax.
118. CSO: 2B4c LOS: 2B42B4dn

The Duoplan Company is determining the most appropriate source of short-term funding.
Trade credit terms from suppliers are 2/30, net 90. The rate for borrowing at the bank is
12%. The company has also been approached by an investment banker offering to issue
Duoplan’s commercial paper. The commercial paper would be issued quarterly in
increments of $9.1 million with net proceeds of $8.8 million. Which option should the
firm select?
a. The trade discount, because it provides the lowest cost of funds.

b. Bank borrowing, because it provides the lowest cost of funds.
c. Commercial paper, because it provides the lowest cost of funds.
d. The costs are so similar that the decision is a matter of convenience.
119. CSO: 2B4d LOS: 2B4q

Clauson Inc. grants credit terms of 1/15, net 30 and projects gross sales for the year of
$2,000,000. The credit manager estimates that 40% of customers pay on the 15th day,
40% of the 30th day and 20% on the 45th day. Assuming uniform sales and a 360-day
year, what is the projected amount of overdue receivables?
a. $50,000.
b. $83,333.
c. $116,676.
d. $400,000.
120. CSO: 2B4d LOS: 2B4t
Northville Products is changing its credit terms from net 30 to 2/10, net 30. The least
likely effect of this change would be a(n)
a. increase in sales.
b. shortening of the cash conversion cycle.
c. increase in short-term borrowings.
d. lower number of days sales outstanding.

Snug-fit, a maker of bowling gloves, is investigating the possibility of liberalizing its
credit policy. Currently, payment is made on a cash-on-delivery basis. Under a new
program, sales would increase by $80,000. The company has a gross profit margin of
40%. The estimated bad debt loss rate on the incremental sales would be 6%. Ignoring
the cost of money, what would be the return on sales before taxes for the new sales?
a. 34.0%.
b. 36.2%.
c. 40.0%.
d. 42.5%.
122. CSO: 2B4d LOS:2B4r

A credit manager considering whether to grant trade credit to a new customer is most
likely to place primary emphasis on
a. profitability ratios.
b. valuation ratios.
c. growth ratios.
d. liquidity ratios.
123. CSO: 2B4d LOS: 2B4gg
Foster Products is reviewing its trade credit policy with respect to the small retailers to
which it sells. Four plans have been studied and the results are as follows.
Annual Bad Collection Accounts

Plan Revenue Debt Costs Receivable Inventory
A $200,000 $ 1,000 $1,000 $20,000 $40,000
B 250,000 3,000 2,000 40,000 50,000
C 300,000 6,000 5,000 60,000 60,000
D 350,000 12,000 8,000 80,000 70,000
The information shows how various annual expenses such as bad debts and the cost of
collections change as sales change. The average balance of accounts receivable and
inventory have also been projected. The cost of the product to Foster is 80% of the
selling price, after-tax cost of capital is 15%, and Foster’s effective income tax rate is
30%. What is the optimal plan for Foster to implement?
a. Plan A.
b. Plan B.
c. Plan C.
d. Plan D.

Consider the following factors affecting a company as it is reviewing its trade credit
policy.
I. Operating at full capacity.
II. Low cost of borrowing.
III. Opportunity for repeat sales.
IV. Low gross margin per unit.
Which of the above factors would indicate that the company should liberalize its credit
policy?
a. I and II only.
b. I, II and III only.
c. II and III only.
d. III and IV only.
Computer Services is an established firm that sells computer hardware, software and
services. The firm is considering a change in its credit policy. It has been determined
that such a change would not change the payment patterns of the current customers. To
determine whether such a change would be beneficial, the firm has identified the
proposed new credit terms, the expected additional sales, the expected contribution
margin on the sales, the expected bad debt losses, and the investment in additional
receivables and the period of the investment. What additional information, if any, does
the firm require to determine the profitability of the proposed new policy as compared to
the current credit policy?
a. The credit standards that presently exist.

b. The new credit standards.
c. The opportunity cost of funds.
d. No additional information is needed.
126. CSO: 2B4d LOS: 2B4gg

Harson Products currently has a conservative credit policy and is in the process of
reviewing three other credit policies. The current credit policy (Policy A) results in sales
of $12 million per year. Policies B and C involve higher sales, accounts receivable and
inventory balances, as well as higher bad debt and collection costs. Policy D grants
longer payment terms than Policy C, but charges customers interest if they take
advantage of the lengthy payment terms. The policies are outlined below.
P o l i c y (000)
A B C D
Sales $12,000 $13,000 $14,000 $14,000
Average accounts receivable 1,500 2,000 3,500 5,000
Average inventory 2,000 2,300 2,500 2,500
Interest income 0 0 0 500
Bad debt expense 100 125 300 400
Collection cost 100 125 250 350
If the direct cost of products is 80% of sales and the cost of short-term funds is 10%,
what is the optimal policy for Harson?
a. Policy A.
b. Policy B.
c. Policy C.
d. Policy D.
Global Manufacturing Company has a cost of borrowing of 12%. One of the firm’s
suppliers has just offered new terms for purchases. The old terms were cash on delivery
and the new terms are 2/10, net 45. Should Global pay within the first ten days?
a. Yes, the cost of not taking the trade discount exceeds the cost of borrowing.
b. No, the cost of trade credit exceeds the cost of borrowing.
c. No, the use of debt should be avoided if possible.
d. The answer depends on whether the firm borrows money.
128. CSO: 2B4d LOS: 2B2m2B4e

Locar Corporation had net sales last year of $18,600,000 (of which 20% were installment
sales). It also had an average accounts receivable balance of $1,380,000. Credit terms
are 2/10, net 30. Based on a 360-day year, Locar’s average collection period last year
was
a. 26.2 days.
b. 26.7 days.
c. 27.3 days.
d. 33.4 days.
129. CSO: 2B4e LOS: 2B4gg

Atlantic Distributors is expanding and wants to increase its level of inventory to support
an aggressive sales target. They would like to finance this expansion using debt.
Atlantic currently has loan covenants that require the working capital ratio to be at least
1.2. The average cost of the current liabilities is 12% and the cost of the long-term debt
is 8%. Below is the current balance sheet for Atlantic.
Current assets $200,000 Current liabilities $165,000

Fixed assets 100,000 Long-term debt 100,000
Total assets $300,000 Equity 35,000
Total debt & equity $300,000
Which one of the following alternatives will provide the resources to expand the
inventory while lowering the total cost of debt and satisfying the loan covenant?
a. Increase both accounts payable and inventory by $25,000.

b. Sell fixed assets with a book value of $20,000 for $25,000 and use the proceeds to
increase inventory.
c. Borrow short-term funds of $25,000, and purchase inventory of $25,000.
d. Collect $25,000 accounts receivable; use $10,000 to purchase inventory and use
the balance to reduce short-term debt.
130. CSO: 2B4e LOS: 2B4v
All of the following are carrying costs of inventory except
a. storage costs.
b. insurance.
c. shipping costs.
d. opportunity costs.

Valley Inc. uses 400 lbs. of a rare isotope per year. The isotope costs $500 per lb., but
the supplier is offering a quantity discount of 2% for order sizes between 30 and 79 lbs.,
and a 6% discount for order sizes of 80 lbs. or more. The ordering costs are $200.
Carrying costs are $100 per lb. of material and are not affected by the discounts. If the
purchasing manager places eight orders of 50 lbs. each, the total cost of ordering and
carrying inventory, including discounts lost, will be
a. $1,600.
b. $4,100.
c. $6,600.
d. $12,100.

A review of the inventories of Cedar Grove Company shows the following cost data for
entertainment centers.
Invoice price $400.00 per unit

Freight and insurance on shipment 20.00 per unit
Insurance on inventory 15.00 per unit
Unloading 140.00 per order
Cost of placing orders 10.00 per order
Cost of capital 25%
What are the total carrying costs of inventory for an entertainment center?
a. $105.
b. $115.
c. $120.
d. $420.
Paint Corporation expects to use 48,000 gallons of paint per year costing $12 per gallon.
Inventory carrying cost is equal to 20% of the purchase price. The company uses its
inventory at a constant rate. The lead time for placing the order is 3 days, and Paint
Corporation holds 2,400 gallons of paint as safety stock. If the company orders 2,000
gallons of paint per order, what is the cost of carrying inventory?
a. $2,400.
b. $5,280.
c. $5,760.
d. $8,160.
134. CSO: 2B4e LOS: 2B4w

James Smith is the new manager of inventory at American Electronics, a major retailer.
He is developing an inventory control system, and knows he should consider establishing
a safety stock level. The safety stock can protect against all of the following risks, except
for the possibility that
a. customers cannot find the merchandise they want, and they will go to the
competition.
b. shipments of merchandise from the manufacturers is delayed by as much as one
week.
c. the distribution of daily sales will have a large variance, due to holidays, weather,
advertising, and weekly shopping habits.
d. new competition may open in the company’s market area.
135. CSO: 2B4e LOS: 2B4y

Carnes Industries uses the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model as part of its
inventory control program. An increase in which one of the following variables would
increase the EOQ?
a. Carrying cost rate.

b. Purchase price per unit.
c. Ordering costs.
d. Safety stock level.

Which one of the following is not explicitly considered in the standard calculation of
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)?
a. Level of sales.
b. Fixed ordering costs.
c. Carrying costs.
d. Quantity discounts.
Which one of the following statements concerning the economic order quantity (EOQ) is
correct?
a. The EOQ results in the minimum ordering cost and minimum carrying cost.
b. Increasing the EOQ is the best way to avoid stockouts.
c. The EOQ model assumes constantly increasing usage over the year.
d. The EOQ model assumes that order delivery times are consistent.

Moss Products uses the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model as part of its inventory
management process. A decrease in which one of the following variables would
increase the EOQ?
a. Annual sales.
b. Cost per order.
c. Safety stock level.
d. Carrying costs.
139. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4ff

Burke Industries has a revolving credit arrangement with its bank which specifies that
Burke can borrow up to $5 million at an annual interest rate of 9% payable monthly. In
addition, Burke must pay a commitment fee of 0.25% per month on the unused portion of
the line, payable monthly. Burke expects to have a $2 million cash balance and no
borrowings against this line of credit on April 1, net cash inflows of $2 million in April,
net outflows of $7 million in May, and net inflows of $4 million in June. If all cash-
flows occur at the end of the month, approximately how much will Burke pay to the bank
during the second quarter related to this revolving credit arrangement?
a. $47,700.
b. $52,500.
c. $60,200.
d. $62,500.
140. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4z

Of the following, the working capital financing policy that would subject a firm to the
greatest level of risk is the one where the firm finances
a. fluctuating current assets with short-term debt.

b. permanent current assets with long-term debt.
c. fluctuating current assets with long-term debt.
d. permanent current assets with short-term debt.
141. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4bb
The Texas Corporation is considering the following opportunities to purchase an
investment at the following amounts and discounts.
Term Amount Discount

90 days $ 80,000 5%
180 days 75,000 6%
270 days 100,000 5%
360 days 60,000 10%
Which opportunity offers the Texas Corporation the highest annual yield?
a. 90-day investment.
b. 180-day investment.
c. 270-day investment.
d. 360-day investment.
142. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4aa

A manufacturer with seasonal sales would be most likely to obtain which one of the
following types of loans from a commercial bank to finance the need for a fixed amount
of additional capital during the busy season?
a. Transaction loan.
b. Insurance company term loan.
c. Installment loan.
d. Unsecured short-term loan.

Which of the following financing vehicles would a commercial bank be likely to offer to
its customers?
I. Discounted notes
II. Term loans
III. Lines of credit
IV. Self-liquidating loans
a. I and II.
b. III and IV.
c. I, III and IV.
d. I, II, III and IV.
144. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4gg
Megatech Inc. is a large publicly-held firm. The treasurer is making an analysis of the
short-term financing options available for the third quarter, as the company will need an
average of $8 million for the month of July, $12 million for August, and $10 million for
September. The following options are available.
I. Issue commercial paper on July 1 in an amount sufficient to net

Megatech $12 million at an effective rate of 7% per year. Any
temporarily excess funds will be deposited in Megatech’s investment
account at First City Bank and earn interest at an annual rate of 4%.
II. Utilize a line of credit from First City Bank with interest accruing
monthly on the amount utilized at the prime rate, which is estimated
to be 8% in July and August and 8.5% in September.
Based on this information, which one of the following actions should the treasurer take?
a. Issue commercial paper, since it is approximately $35,000 less expensive than the
line of credit.
b. Issue commercial paper, since it is approximately $14,200 less expensive than the
line of credit.
c. Use the line of credit, since it is approximately $15,000 less expensive than
issuing commercial paper.
d. Use the line of credit, since it is approximately $5,800 less expensive than issuing
commercial paper.

Dudley Products is given terms of 2/10, net 45 by its suppliers. If Dudley forgoes the
cash discount and instead pays the suppliers 5 days after the net due date, what is the
annual interest rate cost (using a 360-day year)?
a. 18.0%.
b. 18.4%.
c. 21.0%.
d. 24.5%.
146. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4bb

A firm is given payment terms of 3/10, net 90 and forgoes the discount paying on the net
due date. Using a 360-day year and ignoring the effects of compounding, what is the
effective annual interest rate cost?
a. 12.0%.
b. 12.4%.
c. 13.5%.
d. 13.9%.
147. CSO: 2B4f LOS: 2B4cc
Lang National Bank offered a one-year loan to a commercial customer. The instrument
is a discounted note with a nominal rate of 12%. What is the effective interest rate to the
borrower?
a. 10.71%.
b. 12.00%.
c. 13.20%.
d. 13.64%.

Gates Inc. has been offered a one-year loan by its commercial bank. The instrument is a
discounted note with a stated interest rate of 9%. If Gates needs $300,000 for use in the
business, what should the face value of the note be?
a. $275,229.
b. $327,000.
c. $327,154.
d. $329,670.

Keller Products needs $150,000 of additional funds over the next year in order to satisfy a
significant increase in demand. A commercial bank has offered Keller a one-year loan at
a nominal rate of 8%, which requires a 15% compensating balance. How much would
Keller have to borrow, assuming it would need to cover the compensating balance with
the loan proceeds?
a. $130,435.
b. $172,500.
c. $176,471.
d. $194,805.

Approximately what amount of compensating balance would be required for a stated
interest rate of 10% to equal an effective interest rate of 10.31% on a $100,000,000 one-
year loan?
a. $310,000.
b. $3,000,000.
c. $3,100,000.
d. Not enough information is given.
The effective annual interest rate to the borrower of a $100,000 one-year loan with a
stated rate of 7% and a 20% compensating balance is
a. 7.0%.
b. 8.4%.
c. 8.75%.
d. 13.0%.

Todd Manufacturing Company needs a $100 million loan for one year. Todd’s banker
has presented two alternatives as follows:
Option #1 - Loan with a stated interest rate of 10.25%. No compensating balance

required.
Option #2 - Loan with a stated interest rate of 10.00%. Non-interest bearing

compensating balance required.
Which of the following compensating balances, withheld from the loan proceeds, would
result in Option #2 having an effective interest rate equal to the 10.25% rate of Option
#1?
a. $250,000.
b. $2,440,000.
c. $2,500,000.
d. $10,250,000.
Frame Industries has arranged a revolving line of credit for the upcoming year with a
commercial bank. The arrangement is for $20 million, with interest payable monthly on
the amount utilized at the bank’s prime rate and an annual commitment fee of one-half of
1 percent, computed and payable monthly on the unused portion of the line. Frame
estimates that the prime rate for the upcoming year will be 8%, and expects the following
average amount to be borrowed by quarter.
Quarter Amount Borrowed
First $10,000,000
Second 20,000,000
Third 20,000,000
Fourth 5,000,000
How much will Frame pay to the bank next year in interest and fees?
a. $1,118,750.
b. $1,131,250.
c. $1,168,750.
d. $1,200,000.

What is the effective annual interest rate for a one-year $100 million loan with a stated
interest rate of 8.00%, if the lending bank requires a non-interest bearing compensating
balance in the amount of $5 million?
a. 7.62%
b. 8.00%
c. 8.42%
d. 13.00%
155. CSO: 2B3e LOS: 2B3i

The residual theory of dividends argues that dividends
a. are necessary to maintain the market price of the common stock.

b. are irrelevant.
c. can be foregone unless there is an excess demand for cash dividends.
d. can be paid if there is income remaining after funding all attractive investment
opportunities.
156. CSO: 2B3e LOS:2B3j
Mason Inc. is considering four alternative opportunities. Required investment outlays
and expected rates of return for these investments are given below.
Project Investment Cost IRR

A $200,000 12.5
B $350,000 14.2
C $570,000 16.5
D $390,000 10.6
The investments will be financed through 40% debt and 60% common equity. Internally
generated funds totaling $1,000,000 are available for reinvestment. If the cost of capital
is 11%, and Mason strictly follows the residual dividend policy, how much in dividends
would the company likely pay?
a. $120,000.
b. $328,000.
c. $430,000.
d. $650,000.
157. CSO: 2B3e LOS: 2B3j

When determining the amount of dividends to be declared, the most important factor to
consider is the
a. expectations of the shareholders.

b. future planned uses of retained earnings.
c. impact of inflation on replacement costs.
d. future planned uses of cash.
158. CSO: 2B3e LOS: 2B3i

Underhall Inc.’s common stock is currently selling for $108 per share. Underhall is
planning a new stock issue in the near future and would like to stimulate interest in the
company. The Board, however, does not want to distribute capital at this time.
Therefore, Underhall is considering whether to offer a 2-for-1 common stock split or a
100% stock dividend on its common stock. The best reason for opting for the stock split
is that
a. it will not decrease shareholders’ equity.

b. it will not impair the company’s ability to pay dividends in the future.
c. the impact on earnings per share will not be as great.
d. the par value per share will remain unchanged.
159. CSO: 2B3e LOS: 2B3j
Kalamazoo Inc. has issued 25,000 shares of its authorized 50,000 shares of common
stock. There are 5,000 shares of common stock that have been repurchased and are
classified as treasury stock. Kalamazoo has 10,000 shares of preferred stock. If a $0.60
per share dividend has been authorized on its common stock, what will be the total
common stock dividend payment?
a. $12,000.
b. $15,000.
c. $21,000.
d. $30,000.
160. CSO: 2B6a LOS: 2B6b

Under a floating exchange rate system, which one of the following should result in a
depreciation of the Swiss franc?
a. U.S. inflation declines relative to the Swiss inflation.

b. U.S. income levels improve relative to the Swiss.
c. Swiss interest rate rise relative to the U.S. rates.
d. Decrease in outflows of Swiss capital to the U.S.

If the U.S. dollar appreciated against the British pound, other things being equal, we
would expect that
a. the British demand for U.S. products would increase.

b. U.S. demand for British products would decrease.
c. U.S. demand for British products would increase.
d. trade between the U.S. and Britain would decrease.

Country A’s currency would tend to appreciate relative to Country B’s currency when
a. Country A has a higher rate of inflation than Country B.

b. Country B has real interest rates that are greater than real interest rates in Country A.
c. Country A has a slower rate of growth in income that causes its imports to lag
behind its exports.
d. Country B switches to a more restrictive monetary policy.

Country R’s currency would tend to depreciate relative to Country T’s currency when
a. Country R switches to a more restrictive monetary policy.
b. Country T has a rapid rate of growth in income that causes imports to lag behind
exports.
c. Country R has a rate of inflation that is lower than the rate of inflation in Country T.
d. Country R has real interest rates that are lower than real interest rates in Country T.
Section C: Decision Analysis
164. CSO: 2C1a LOS: 2C1f

Garner Products is considering a new accounts payable and cash disbursement process
which is projected to add 3 days to the disbursement schedule without having significant
negative effects on supplier relations. Daily cash outflows average $1,500,000. Garner
is in a short-term borrowing position for 8 months of the year and in an investment
position for 4 months. On an annual basis, bank lending rates are expected to average 7%
and marketable securities yields are expected to average 4%. What is the maximum
annual expense that Garner could incur for this new process and still break even?
a. $90,000.
b. $180,000.
c. $270,000.
d. $315,000.

Bolger and Co. manufactures large gaskets for the turbine industry. Bolger’s per unit
sales price and variable costs for the current year are as follows.
Sales price per unit $300

Variable costs per unit 210
Bolger’s total fixed costs aggregate $360,000. As Bolger’s labor agreement is expiring at
the end of the year, management is concerned about the effect a new agreement will have
on its unit breakeven point. The controller performed a sensitivity analysis to ascertain
the estimated effect of a $10 per unit direct labor increase and a $10,000 reduction in
fixed costs. Based on these data, it was determined that the breakeven point would
a. decrease by 1,000 units.

b. decrease by 125 units.
c. increase by 375 units.
d. increase by 500 units.
166. CSO: 2C1a LOS: 2C1b
Phillips & Company produces educational software. Its unit cost structure, based upon
an anticipated production volume of 150,000 units, is as follows.
Sales price $160

Variable costs 60
Fixed costs 55
The marketing department has estimated sales for the coming year at 175,000 units,
which is within the relevant range of Phillip’s cost structure. Phillip’s break-even volume
(in units) and anticipated operating income for the coming year would amount to
a. 82,500 units and $7,875,000 of operating income.

b. 82,500 units and $9,250,000 of operating income.
c. 96,250 units and $3,543,750 of operating income.
d. 96,250 units and $7,875,000 of operating income.
167. CSO: 2C1a LOS: 2C1a

All of the following are assumptions of cost-volume-profit analysis except
a. total fixed costs do not change with a change in volume.

b. revenues change proportionately with volume.
c. variable costs per unit change proportionately with volume.
d. sales mix for multi-product situations do not vary with volume changes.

Ace Manufacturing plans to produce two products, Product C and Product F, during the
next year, with the following characteristics.
Product C Product F
Selling price per unit $10 $15
Variable cost per unit $ 8 $10
Expected sales (units) 20,000 5,000
Total projected fixed costs for the company are $30,000. Assume that the product mix
would be the same at the breakeven point as at the expected level of sales of both
products. What is the projected number of units (rounded) of Product C to be sold at the
breakeven point?
a. 2,308 units.
b. 9,231 units.
c. 11,538 units.
d. 15,000 units.
Starlight Theater stages a number of summer musicals at its theater in northern Ohio.
Preliminary planning has just begun for the upcoming season, and Starlight has
developed the following estimated data.
Average
Number of Attendance per Ticket Variable Fixed
Production Performances Performance Price Costs 1 Costs 2
Mr. Wonderful 12 3,500 $18 $3 $165,000
That’s Life 20 3,000 15 1 249,000
All That Jazz 12 4,000 20 0 316,000
1
Represent payments to production companies and are based on tickets sold.
2
Costs directly associated with the entire run of each production for
costumes, sets, and artist fees.
Starlight will also incur $565,000 of common fixed operating charges (administrative
overhead, facility costs, and advertising) for the entire season, and is subject to a 30%
income tax rate. These common charges are allocated based on total attendance for each
production.
If Starlight’s schedule of musicals is held, as planned, how many patrons would have to
attend for Starlight to break even during the summer season?
a. 77,918.
b. 79,302.
c. 79,938.
d. 81,344.

Carson Inc. manufactures only one product and is preparing its budget for next year
based on the following information.
Selling price per unit $ 100

Variable costs per unit 75
Fixed costs 250,000
Effective tax rate 35%
If Carson wants to achieve a net income of $1.3 million next year, its sales must be
a. 62,000 units.
b. 70,200 units.
c. 80,000 units.
d. 90,000 units.
MetalCraft produces three inexpensive socket wrench sets that are popular with do-it-
yourselfers. Budgeted information for the upcoming year is as follows.
Estimated
Model Selling Price Variable Cost Sales Volume
No. 109 $10.00 $ 5.50 30,000 sets
No. 145 15.00 8.00 75,000 sets
No. 153 20.00 14.00 45,000 sets
Total fixed costs for the socket wrench product line is $961,000. If the company’s actual
experience remains consistent with the estimated sales volume percentage distribution,
and the firm desires to generate total operating income of $161,200, how many Model
No. 153 socket sets will MetalCraft have to sell?
a. 26,000.
b. 54,300.
c. 155,000.
d. 181,000.

Starlight Theater stages a number of summer musicals at its theater in northern Ohio.
Preliminary planning has just begun for the upcoming season, and Starlight has
developed the following estimated data.
Average
Number of Attendance per Ticket Variable Fixed
Production Performances Performance Price Costs1 Costs 2
Mr. Wonderful 12 3,500 $18 $3 $165,000
That’s Life 20 3,000 15 1 249,000
All That Jazz 12 4,000 20 0 316,000
1
Represent payments to production companies and are based on tickets sold.
2
Costs directly associated with the entire run of each production for costumes,
sets, and artist fees.
Starlight will also incur $565,000 of common fixed operating charges (administrative
overhead, facility costs, and advertising) for the entire season, and is subject to a 30%
income tax rate.
If management desires Mr. Wonderful to produce an after-tax contribution of $210,000

toward the firm’s overall operating income for the year, total attendance for the
production would have to be
a. 20,800.
b. 25,000.
c. 25,833.
d. 31,000.
Robin Company wants to earn a 6% return on sales after taxes. The company’s effective
income tax rate is 40%, and its contribution margin is 30%. If Robin has fixed costs of
$240,000, the amount of sales required to earn the desired return is
a. $375,000.
b. $400,000.
c. $1,000,000.
d. $1,200,000.

Bargain Press is considering publishing a new textbook. The publisher has developed the
following cost data related to a production run of 6,000, the minimum possible
production run. Bargain Press will sell the textbook for $45 per copy.
Estimated cost
Development (reviews, class testing, editing) $35,000
Typesetting 18,500
Depreciation on Equipment 9,320
General and Administrative 7,500
Miscellaneous Fixed Costs 4,400
Printing and Binding 30,000
Sales staff commissions (2% of selling price) 5,400
Bookstore commissions (25% of selling price) 67,500
Author’s Royalties (10% of selling price) 27,000
Total costs at production of 6,000 copies $204,620
How many textbooks must Bargain Press sell in order to generate operating earnings
(earnings before interest and taxes) of 20% on sales? (Round your answer up to the
nearest whole textbook.)
a. 2,076 copies.
b. 5,207 copies.
c. 5,412 copies.
d. 6,199 copies.
Zipper Company invested $300,000 in a new machine to produce cones for the textile
industry. Zipper’s variable costs are 30% of the selling price, and its fixed costs are
$600,000. Zipper has an effective income tax rate of 40%. The amount of sales required
to earn an 8% after-tax return on its investment would be
a. $891,429.
b. $914,286.
c. $2,080,000.
d. $2,133,333.

Breakeven quantity is defined as the volume of output at which revenues are equal to
a. marginal costs.
b. total costs.
c. variable costs.
d. fixed costs.

Eagle Brand Inc. produces two products. Data regarding these products are presented
below.
Product X Product Y
Variable costs per unit $80 $100
Raw materials used per unit 4 lbs. 10 lbs.
Eagle Brand has 1,000 lbs. of raw materials which can be used to produce Products X and
Y.
Which one of the alternatives below should Eagle Brand accept in order to maximize
contribution margin?
a. 100 units of product Y.

b. 250 units of product X.
c. 200 units of product X and 20 units of product Y.
d. 200 units of product X and 50 units of product Y.
178. CSO: 2C1b LOS: 2C1b
For the year just ended, Silverstone Company’s sales revenue was $450,000.
Silverstone’s fixed costs were $120,000 and its variable costs amounted to $270,000. For
the current year sales are forecasted at $500,000. If the fixed costs do not change,
Silverstone’s profits this year will be
a. $60,000.
b. $80,000.
c. $110,000.
d. $200,000.
179. CSO: 2C1b LOS: 2C1e

Breeze Company has a contribution margin of $4,000 and fixed costs of $1,000. If the
total contribution margin increases by $1,000, operating profit would
a. decrease by $1,000.
b. increase by more than $1,000.
c. increase by $1,000.
d. remain unchanged.
180. CSO: 2C1b LOS: 2C1b

Wilkinson Company sells its single product for $30 per unit. The contribution margin
ratio is 45% and Wilkinson has fixed costs of $10,000 per month. If 3,000 units are sold
in the current month, Wilkinson’s income would be
a. $30,500.
b. $49,500.
c. $40,500.
d. $90,000.
181. CSO: 2C1c LOS: 2C1h
Cervine Corporation makes motors for various products. Operating data and unit cost
information for its products are presented below.
Product A Product B
Annual unit capacity 10,000 20,000
Annual unit demand 10,000 20,000
Selling price $100 $80

Variable manufacturing cost 53 45
Fixed manufacturing cost 10 10
Variable selling & administrative 10 11
Fixed selling & administrative 5 4
Fixed other administrative 2 -
Unit operating profit $ 20 $10
Machine hours per unit 2.0 1.5
Cervine has 40,000 productive machine hours available. What is the maximum total
contribution margin that Cervine can generate in the coming year?
a. $665,000.
b. $689,992.
c. $850,000.
d. $980,000.

Specialty Cakes Inc. produces two types of cakes, a 2 lbs. round cake and a 3 lbs. heart-
shaped cake. Total fixed costs for the firm are $94,000. Variable costs and sales data for
the two types of cakes are presented below.
2 lbs. 3 lbs.
Round Cake Heart-shape Cake
Variable cost per unit $8 $15
Current sales (units) 10,000 15,000
If the product sales mix were to change to three heart-shaped cakes for each round cake,
the breakeven volume for each of these products would be
a. 8,174 round cakes, 12,261 heart-shaped cakes.

b. 12,261 round cakes, 8,174 heart-shaped cakes.
c. 4,947 round cakes, 14,842 heart-shaped cakes.
d. 15,326 round cakes, 8,109 heart-shaped cakes.
183. CSO: 2C1c LOS: 2C1e
Lazar Industries produces two products, Crates and Boxes. Per unit selling prices, costs,
and resource utilization for these products are as follows.
Crates Boxes
Direct material costs $ 5 $ 5
Direct labor costs 8 10
Variable overhead costs 3 5
Variable selling costs 1 2
Machine hours per unit 2 4
Production of Crates and Boxes involves joint processes and use of the same facilities.
The total fixed factory overhead cost is $2,000,000 and total fixed selling and
administrative costs are $840,000. Production and sales are scheduled for 500,000 units
of Crates and 700,000 units of Boxes. Lazar maintains no direct materials, work-in-
process, or finished goods inventory.
Lazar can reduce direct material costs for Crates by 50% per unit, with no change in
direct labor costs. However, it would increase machine-hour production time by 1-1/2
hours per unit. For Crates, variable overhead costs are allocated based on machine hours.
What would be the effect on the total contribution margin if this change was
implemented?
a. $125,000 increase.
b. $250,000 decrease.
c. $300,000 increase.
d. $1,250,000 increase.
184. CSO: 2C1c LOS: 2C1g

Ticker Company sells two products. Product A provides a contribution margin of $3 per
unit, and Product B provides a contribution margin of $4 per unit. If Ticker’s sales mix
shifts toward Product A, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The total number of units necessary to break even will decrease.

b. The overall contribution margin ratio will increase.
c. Operating income will decrease if the total number of units sold remains constant.
d. The contribution margin ratios for Products A and B will change.
Lazar Industries produces two products, Crates and Trunks. Per unit selling prices, costs,
and resource utilization for these products are as follows.
Crates Trunks
Direct material costs $ 5 $ 5
Direct labor costs 8 10
Variable overhead costs 3 5
Variable selling costs 1 2
Machine hours per unit 2 4
Production of Crates and Trunks involves joint processes and use of the same facilities.
The total fixed factory overhead cost is $2,000,000 and total fixed selling and
administrative costs are $840,000. Production and sales are scheduled for 500,000 Crates
and 700,000 Trunks. Lazar has a normal capacity to produce a total of 2,000,000 units in
any combination of Crates and Trunks, and maintains no direct materials, work-in-
process, or finished goods inventory.
Due to plant renovations Lazar Industries will be limited to 1,000,000 machine hours.
What is the maximum amount of contribution margin Lazar can generate during the
renovation period?
a. $1,500,000.
b. $2,000,000.
c. $3,000,000.
d. $7,000,000.
186. CSO: 2C2a LOS: 2C2c

Johnson waits two hours in line to buy a ticket to an NCAA Final Four Tournament. The
opportunity cost of buying the $200 ticket is
a. Johnson’s best alternative use of the $200.

b. Johnson’s best alternative use of the two hours it took to wait in line.
c. the value of the $200 to the ticket agent.
d. Johnson’s best alternative use of both the $200 and the two hours spent in line.

In a management decision process, the cost measurement of the benefits sacrificed due to
selecting an alternative use of resources is most often referred to as a(n)
a. relevant cost.
b. sunk cost.
c. opportunity cost.
d. differential cost.
In order to avoid pitfalls in relevant-cost analysis, management should focus on
a. variable cost items that differ for each alternative.

b. long-run fixed costs of each alternative.
c. anticipated fixed costs and variable costs of all alternatives.
d. anticipated revenues and costs that differ for each alternative.

In a joint manufacturing process, joint costs incurred prior to a decision as to whether to
process the products after the split-off point should be viewed as
a. sunk costs.
b. relevant costs.
c. standard costs.
d. differential costs.

Jack Blaze wants to rent store space in a new shopping mall for the three month holiday
shopping season. Blaze believes he has a new product available which has the potential
for good sales. The product can be obtained on consignment at the cost of $20 per unit
and he expects to sell the item for $100 per unit. Due to other business ventures, Blaze’s
risk tolerance is low. He recognizes that, as the product is entirely new, there is an
element of risk. The mall management has offered Blaze three rental options: (1) a fixed
fee of $8,000 per month, (2) a fixed fee of $3,990 per month plus 10% of Blaze’s
revenue, or (3) 30% of Blaze’s revenues. Which one of the following actions would you
recommend to Jack Blaze?
a. Choose the first option no matter what Blaze expects the revenues to be.
b. Choose the second option no matter what Blaze expects the revenues to be.
c. Choose the second option only if Blaze expects revenues to exceed $5,700.
d. Choose the third option no matter what Blaze expects the revenues to be.

Profits that are lost by moving an input from one use to another are referred to as
a. out-of-pocket costs.
b. cannibalization charges.
c. replacement costs.
d. opportunity costs.
In differential cost analysis, which one of the following best fits the description of a sunk
cost?
a. Direct materials required in the manufacture of a table.

b. Purchasing department costs incurred in acquiring material.
c. Cost of the forklift driver to move the material to the manufacturing floor.
d. Cost of a large crane used to move materials.
193. CSO: 2C2a LOS: 2C2d

Refrigerator Company manufactures ice-makers for installation in refrigerators. The
costs per unit, for 20,000 units of ice-makers, are as follows.
Direct materials $ 7
Direct labor 12
Variable overhead 5
Fixed overhead 10
Total costs $34
Cool Compartments Inc. has offered to sell 20,000 ice-makers to Refrigerator Company
for $28 per unit. If Refrigerator accepts Cool Compartments’ offer the plant would be
idled and fixed overhead amounting to $6 per unit could be eliminated. The total relevant
costs associated with the manufacture of ice-makers amount to
a. $480,000.
b. $560,000.
c. $600,000.
d. $680,000.
Edwards Products has just developed a new product with a manufacturing cost of $30.
The Marketing Director has identified three marketing approaches for this new product.
Approach X Set a selling price of $36 and have the firm’s sales staff sell the
product at a 10% commission with no advertising program.
Estimated annual sales would be 10,000 units.
Approach Y Set a selling price of $38, have the firm’s sales staff sell the
product at a 10% commission, and back them up with a $30,000
advertising program. Estimated annual sales would be 12,000
units.
Approach Z Rely on wholesalers to handle the product. Edwards would sell the
new product to the wholesalers at $32 per unit and incur no selling
expenses. Estimated annual sales would be 14,000 units.
Rank the three alternatives in order of net profit, from highest net profit to lowest.
a. X, Y, Z.
b. Y, Z, X.
c. Z, X, Y.
d. Z, Y, X.
195. CSO: 2C2b LOS: 2C2f

Auburn Products Inc. has compiled the following daily cost information for its
manufacturing operation.
Output (units) Fixed Cost Variable Cost

0 $2,000 $0
1 2,000 200
2 2,000 380
3 2,000 550
4 2,000 700
5 2,000 860
6 2,000 1,040
7 2,000 1,250
8 2,000 1,500
Auburn’s average total cost at an output level of 3 units is
a. $667.
b. $850.
c. $1,217.
d. $2,550.
Daily costs for Kelso Manufacturing include $1,000 of fixed costs and total variable costs
are shown below.
Unit Output 10 11 12 13 14 15
Cost $125 $250 $400 $525 $700 $825
The average total cost at an output level of 11 units is
a. $113.64.
b. $125.00.
c. $215.91.
d. $250.00.

Harper Products’ cost information for the normal range of output in a month is shown
below.
Output in units Total Cost

20,000 $3,000,000
22,500 3,325,000
25,000 3,650,000
What is Harper’s short-run marginal cost?
a. $26.
b. $130.
c. $146.
d. $150.
Auburn Products Inc. has compiled the following daily cost information for its
manufacturing operation.
Output (units) Fixed Cost Variable Cost

0 $2,000 $ 0
1 2,000 200
2 2,000 380
3 2,000 550
4 2,000 700
5 2,000 860
6 2,000 1,040
7 2,000 1,250
8 2,000 1,500
Auburn’s marginal cost for the 7th unit is
a. $179.
b. $210.
c. $286.
d. $464.

Daily costs for Kelso Manufacturing include $1,250 in fixed costs and total variable costs
are shown below.
Unit Output 10 11 12 13 14 15
Cost $150 $300 $480 $620 $750 $900
The marginal cost of the 12th unit is
a. $180.00.
b. $140.00.
c. $104.16.
d. $40.00.

The total cost of producing 100 units of a good is $800. If a firm’s average variable cost
is $5 per unit, then the firm’s
a. average fixed cost is $3.

b. total variable cost is $300.
c. marginal cost is $3.
d. marginal cost is $8.
Daily sales and cost data for Crawford Industries are shown below.
Sales Total
Units $ Costs
20 $2,000 $1,200
21 2,090 1,250
22 2,170 1,290
23 2,240 1,330
24 2,300 1,380
25 2,350 1,440
The marginal cost of the 23rd unit is
a. $30.00.
b. $40.00.
c. $50.00.
d. $57.83.

Parker Manufacturing is analyzing the market potential for its specialty turbines. Parker
developed its pricing and cost structures for their specialty turbines over various relevant
ranges. The pricing and cost data for each relevant range are presented below.
Units produced and sold 1 - 5 6 - 10 11 - 15 16 - 20

Total fixed costs $200,000 $400,000 $600,000 $800,000
Unit variable cost 50,000 50,000 45,000 45,000
Unit selling price 100,000 100,000 100,000 100,000
Which one of the following production/sales levels would produce the highest operating
income for Parker?
a. 8 units.
b. 10 units.
c. 14 units.
d. 17 units.
Johnson Company manufactures a variety of shoes, and has received a special one-time-
only order directly from a wholesaler. Johnson has sufficient idle capacity to accept the
special order to manufacture 15,000 pairs of sneakers at a price of $7.50 per pair.
Johnson’s normal selling price is $11.50 per pair of sneakers. Variable manufacturing
costs are $5.00 per pair and fixed manufacturing costs are $3.00 a pair. Johnson’s
variable selling expense for its normal line of sneakers is $1.00 per pair. What would the
effect on Johnson’s operating income be if the company accepted the special order?
a. Decrease by $60,000.
b. Increase by $22,500.
c. Increase by $37,500.
d. Increase by $52,500.

The Robo Division, a decentralized division of GMT Industries, has been approached to
submit a bid for a potential project for the RSP Company. Robo Division has been
informed by RSP that they will not consider bids over $8,000,000. Robo Division
purchases its materials from the Cross Division of GMT Industries. There would be no
additional fixed costs for either the Robo or Cross Divisions. Information regarding this
project is as follows.
Cross Division Robo Division

Variable Costs $1,500,000 $4,800,000
Transfer Price 3,700,000 -
If Robo Division submits a bid for $8,000,000, the amount of contribution margin
recognized by the Robo Division and GMT Industries, respectively, is
a. $(500,000) and $(2,000,000).

b. $3,200,000 and $(500,000).
c. $(500,000) and $1,700,000.
d. $3,200,000 and $1,700.000.
Basic Computer Company (BCC) sells its micro-computers using bid pricing. It
develops bids on a full cost basis. Full cost includes estimated material, labor, variable
overheads, fixed manufacturing overheads, and reasonable incremental computer
assembly administrative costs, plus a 10% return on full cost. BCC believes bids in
excess of $925 per computer are not likely to be considered.
BCC’s current cost structure, based on its normal production levels, is $500 for materials
per computer and $20 per labor hour. Assembly and testing of each computer requires 12
labor hours. BCC’s variable manufacturing overhead is $2 per labor hour, fixed
manufacturing overhead is $3 per labor hour, and incremental administrative costs are $8
per computer assembled.
The company has received a request from the School Board for 500 computers. BCC’s
management expects heavy competition in bidding for this job. As this is a very large
order for BCC, and could lead to other educational institution orders, management is
extremely interested in submitting a bid which would win the job, but at a price high
enough so that current net income will not be unfavorably impacted. Management
believes this order can be absorbed within its current manufacturing facility. Which one
of the following bid prices should be recommended to BCC’s management?
a. $764.00.
b. $772.00.
c. $849.20.
d. $888.80.

The loss of a key customer has temporarily caused Bedford Machining to have some
excess manufacturing capacity. Bedford is considering the acceptance of a special order,
one that involves Bedford’s most popular product. Consider the following types of costs.
I. Variable costs of the product

II. Fixed costs of the product
III. Direct fixed costs associated with the order
IV. Opportunity cost of the temporarily idle capacity
Which one of the following combinations of cost types should be considered in the
special order acceptance decision?
a. I and II.
b. I and IV.
c. II and III.
d. I, III, and IV.
Raymund Inc. currently sells its only product to Mall-Stores. Raymund has received a
one-time-only order for 2,000 units from another buyer. Sale of the special order items
will not require any additional selling effort. Raymund has a manufacturing capacity to
produce 7,000 units. Raymund has an effective income tax rate of 40%. Raymund’s
Income Statement, before consideration of the one-time-only order, is as follows.
Sales (5,000 units at $20 per unit) $100,000

Variable manufacturing costs $50,000
Variable selling costs 15,000 65,000
Contribution margin 35,000
Fixed manufacturing costs 16,000

Fixed selling costs 4,000 20,000
Operating income 15,000
Income taxes 6,000

Net income $ 9,000
In negotiating a price for the special order, Raymund should set the minimum per unit
selling price at
a. $10.
b. $13.
c. $17.
d. $18.
208. CSO: 2C2c LOS: 2C2d

Two months ago, Hickory Corporation purchased 4,500 pounds of Kaylene at a cost of
$15,300. The market for this product has become very strong, with the price jumping to
$4.05 per pound. Because of the demand, Hickory can buy or sell Kaylene at this price.
Hickory recently received a special order inquiry that would require the use of 4,200
pounds of Kaylene. In deciding whether to accept the order, management must evaluate
a number of decision factors. Without regard to income taxes, which one of the
following combination of factors correctly depicts relevant and irrelevant decision
factors, respectively?
Relevant Decision Factor Irrelevant Decision Factor

a. Remaining 300 pounds of Kaylene Market price of $4.05 per lb.
b. Market price of $4.05 per lb. Purchase price of $3.40 per lb.
c. Purchase price of $3.40 per lb. Market price of $4.05 per lb.
d. 4,500 pounds of Kaylene Remaining 300 pounds of Kaylene.
Gardener Company currently is using its full capacity of 25,000 machine hours to
manufacture product XR-2000. LJB Corporation placed an order with Gardener for the
manufacture of 1,000 units of KT-6500. LJB would normally manufacture this
component. However, due to a fire at its plant, LJB needs to purchase these units to
continue manufacturing other products. This is a one time special order. The following
reflects unit cost data, and selling prices.
KT-6500 XR-2000
Material $27 $24
Direct labor 12 10
Variable overhead 6 5
Fixed overhead 48 40
Normal selling price $125 $105
Machine hours required 3 4
What is the minimum unit price that Gardener should charge LJB to manufacture 1,000
units of KT-6500?
a. $93.00.
b. $96.50.
c. $110.00.
d. $125.00.
210. CSO: 2C2c LOS: 2C2n
Green Corporation builds custom-designed machinery. A review of selected data and the
company’s pricing policies revealed the following.
 A 10% commission is paid on all sales orders.

 Variable and fixed factory overheads total 40% and 20%, respectively, of
direct labor.
 Corporate administrative costs amount to 10% of direct labor.
 When bidding on jobs, Green adds a 25% markup to the total of all factory
and administrative costs to cover income taxes and produce a profit.
 The firm’s income tax rate is 40%.
The company expects to operate at a maximum of 80% of practical capacity.
Green recently received an invitation to bid on the manufacture of some custom

machinery for Kennendale, Inc. For this project, Green’s production accountants
estimate the material and labor costs will be $66,000 and $120,000, respectively.
Accordingly, Green submitted a bid to Kennendale in the amount of $375,000. Feeling
Green’s bid was too high, Kennendale countered with a price of $280,000. Which one of
the following options should be recommended to Green’s management?
a. Accept the counteroffer because the order will increase operating income.
b. Accept the counteroffer even though the order will decrease operating income.
c. Reject the counteroffer even though the order will increase operating income.
d. Reject the counteroffer because the order will decrease operating income.
211. CSO: 2C2d LOS: 2C2n
Synergy Inc. produces a component that is popular in many refrigeration systems. Data
on three of the five different models of this component are as follows.
Model
A B C
Volume needed (units) 5,000 6,000 3,000
Manufacturing costs
Variable direct costs $10 $24 $20
Variable overhead 5 10 15
Fixed overhead 11 20 17
Total manufacturing costs $26 $54 $52
Cost if purchased $21 $42 $39
Synergy applies variable overhead on the basis of machine hours at the rate of $2.50 per
hour. Models A and B are manufactured in the Freezer Department, which has a
capacity of 28,000 machine processing hours. Which one of the following options should
be recommended to Synergy's management?
a. Purchase all three products in the quantities required.

b. Manufacture all three products in the quantities required.
c. The Freezer Department's manufacturing plan should include 5,000 units of
Model A and 4,500 units of Model B.
d. The Freezer Department's manufacturing plan should include 2,000 units of
Model A and 6,000 units of Model B.
212. CSO: 2C2d LOS: 2C2d
Refrigerator Company manufactures ice-makers for installation in refrigerators. The
costs per unit, for 20,000 units of ice-makers, are as follows.
Direct materials $ 7
Direct labor 12
Variable overhead 5
Fixed overhead 10
Total costs $34
Cool Compartments Inc. has offered to sell 20,000 ice-makers to Refrigerator Company
for $28 per unit. If Refrigerator accepts Cool Compartments’ offer, the facilities used to
manufacture ice-makers could be used to produce water filtration units. Revenues from
the sale of water filtration units are estimated at $80,000, with variable costs amounting
to 60% of sales. In addition, $6 per unit of the fixed overhead associated with the
manufacture of ice-makers could be eliminated.
For Refrigerator Company to determine the most appropriate action to take in this
situation, the total relevant costs of make vs. buy, respectively, are
a. $600,000 vs. $560,000.

b. $648,000 vs. $528,000.
c. $600,000 vs. $528,000.
d. $680,000 vs. $440,000.
213. CSO: 2C2d LOS: 2C2d

Sunshine Corporation is considering the purchase of a new machine for $800,000. The
machine is capable of producing 1.6 million units of product over its useful life. The
manufacturer’s engineering specifications state that the machine-related cost of
producing each unit of product should be $.50. Sunshine’s total anticipated demand over
the asset’s useful life is 1.2 million units. The average cost of materials and labor for
each unit is $.40. In considering whether to buy the new machine, would you
recommend that Sunshine use the manufacturer’s engineering specification of machine-
related unit production cost?
a. No, the machine-related cost of producing each unit is $2.00.

b. No, the machine-related cost of producing each unit is $.67.
c. No, the machine-related cost of producing each unit is $.90.
d. Yes, the machine-related cost of producing each unit is $.50.
214. CSO: 2C2d LOS: 2C2g
Aril Industries is a multiproduct company that currently manufactures 30,000 units of
Part 730 each month for use in production. The facilities now being used to produce Part
730 have fixed monthly overhead costs of $150,000, and a theoretical capacity to produce
60,000 units per month. If Aril were to buy Part 730 from an outside supplier, the
facilities would be idle and 40% of fixed costs would continue to be incurred. There are
no alternative uses for the facilities. The variable production costs of Part 730 are $11
per unit. Fixed overhead is allocated based on planned production levels.
If Aril Industries continues to use 30,000 units of Part 730 each month, it would realize a
net benefit by purchasing Part 730 from an outside supplier only if the supplier’s unit
price is less than
a. $12.00.
b. $12.50.
c. $13.00.
d. $14.00.
215. CSO: 2C2d LOS: 2C2a

Verla Industries is trying to decide which one of the following two options to pursue.
Either option will take effect on January 1st of the next year.
Option One - Acquire a New Finishing Machine.

The cost of the machine is $1,000,000 and will have a useful life of five years. Net pre-
tax cash flows arising from savings in labor costs will amount to $100,000 per year for
five years. Depreciation expense will be calculated using the straight-line method for
both financial and tax reporting purposes. As an incentive to purchase, Verla will receive
a trade-in allowance of $50,000 on their current fully depreciated finishing machine.
Option Two - Outsource the Finishing Work.

Verla can outsource the work to LM Inc. at a cost of $200,000 per year for five years. If
they outsource, Verla will scrap their current fully depreciated finishing machine.
Verla’s effective income tax rate is 40%. The weighted-average cost of capital is 10%.
When comparing the two options, the $50,000 trade-in allowance would be considered
a. irrelevant because it does not affect taxes.

b. relevant because it is a decrease in cash outflow.
c. irrelevant because it does not affect cash.
d. relevant because it is an increase in cash outflows.
216. CSO: 2C2e LOS: 2C2n
Jones Enterprises manufactures 3 products, A, B, and C. During the month of May
Jones’ production, costs, and sales data were as follows.
Products
A B C Totals
Units of production 30,000 20,000 70,000 120,000
Joint production costs
to split-off point $480,000
Further processing costs $ - $60,000 $140,000
Unit sales price
At split-off 3.75 5.50 10.25
After further processing - 8.00 12.50
Based on the above information, which one of the following alternatives should be
recommended to Jones’ management?
a. Sell both Product B and Product C at the split-off point.

b. Process Product B further but sell Product C at the split-off point.
c. Process Product C further but sell Product B at the split-off point.
d. Process both Products B and C further.
217. CSO: 2C2e LOS: 2C2k

Oakes Inc. manufactured 40,000 gallons of Mononate and 60,000 gallons of Beracyl in a
joint production process, incurring $250,000 of joint costs. Oakes allocates joint costs
based on the physical volume of each product produced. Mononate and Beracyl can each
be sold at the split-off point in a semifinished state or, alternatively, processed further.
Additional data about the two products are as follows.
Mononate Beracyl
Sales price per gallon at split-off $7 $15
Sales price per gallon if processed further $10 $18
Variable production costs if processed further $125,000 $115,000
An assistant in the company’s cost accounting department was overheard saying “....that
when both joint and separable costs are considered, the firm has no business processing
either product beyond the split-off point. The extra revenue is simply not worth the
effort.” Which of the following strategies should be recommended for Oakes?
Mononate Beracyl
a. Sell at split-off Sell at split-off.
b. Sell at split-off Process further.
c. Process further Sell at split-off.
d. Process further Process further.
218. CSO: 2C2f LOS: 2C2k
Current business segment operations for Whitman, a mass retailer, are presented below.
Merchandise Automotive Restaurant Total
Sales $500,000 $400,000 $100,000 $1,000,000
Variable costs 300,000 200,000 70,000 570,000
Fixed costs 100,000 100,000 50,000 250,000
Operating income (loss) $100,000 $100,000 $(20,000) $ 180,000
Management is contemplating the discontinuance of the Restaurant segment since “it is

losing money.” If this segment is discontinued, $30,000 of its fixed costs will be
eliminated. In addition, Merchandise and Automotive sales will decrease 5% from their
current levels. What will Whitman’s total contribution margin be if the Restaurant
segment is discontinued?
a. $160,000.
b. $220,000.
c. $367,650.
d. $380,000.
219. CSO: 2C2f LOS: 2C2g

Current business segment operations for Whitman, a mass retailer, are presented below.
Merchandise Automotive Restaurant Total
Sales $500,000 $400,000 $100,000 $1,000,000
Variable costs 300,000 200,000 70,000 570,000
Fixed costs 100,000 100,000 50,000 250,000
Operating income (loss) $100,000 $100,000 $ (20,000) $ 180,000
Management is contemplating the discontinuance of the Restaurant segment since “it is

losing money.” If this segment is discontinued, $30,000 of its fixed costs will be
eliminated. In addition, Merchandise and Automotive sales will decrease 5% from their
current levels. When considering the decision, Whitman’s controller advised that one of
the financial aspects Whitman should review is contribution margin. Which one of the
following options reflects the current contribution margin ratios for each of Whitman’s
business segments?
Retailing Automotive Restaurant

a. 60% 50% 30%.
b. 60% 50% 70%.
c. 40% 50% 70%.
d. 40% 50% 30%.
220. CSO: 2C2f LOS: 2C2d
Capital Company has decided to discontinue a product produced on a machine purchased
four years ago at a cost of $70,000. The machine has a current book value of $30,000.
Due to technologically improved machinery now available in the marketplace the
existing machine has no current salvage value. The company is reviewing the various
aspects involved in the production of a new product. The engineering staff advised that
the existing machine can be used to produce the new product. Other costs involved in the
production of the new product will be materials of $20,000 and labor priced at $5,000.
Ignoring income taxes, the costs relevant to the decision to produce or not to produce the
new product would be
a. $25,000.
b. $30,000.
c. $55,000.
d. $95,000.

Reynolds Inc. manufactures several different products, including a premium lawn
fertilizer and weed killer that is popular in hot, dry climates. Reynolds is currently
operating at less than full capacity because of market saturation for lawn fertilizer. Sales
and cost data for a 40-pound bag of Reynolds lawn fertilizer is as follows.
Selling price $18.50

Production cost
Materials and labor $12.25
Variable overhead 3.75
Allocated fixed overhead 4.00 20.00
Income (loss) per bag $(1.50)
On the basis of this information, which one of the following alternatives should be
recommended to Reynolds management?
a. Select a different cost driver to allocate its overhead.

b. Drop this product from its product line.
c. Continue to produce and market this product.
d. Increase output and spread fixed overhead over a larger volume base.
Following are the operating results of the two segments of Parklin Corporation.
Segment A Segment B Total

Sales $10,000 $15,000 $25,000
Variable costs of goods sold 4,000 8,500 12,500
Fixed costs of goods sold 1,500 2,500 4,000
Gross margin 4,500 4,000 8,500
Variable selling and administrative 2,000 3,000 5,000
Fixed selling and administrative 1,500 1,500 3,000
Operating income (loss) $ 1,000 $ (500) $ 500
Variable costs of goods sold are directly related to the operating segments. Fixed costs of
goods sold are allocated to each segment based on the number of employees. Fixed
selling and administrative expenses are allocated equally. If Segment B is eliminated,
$1,500 of fixed costs of goods sold would be eliminated. Assuming Segment B is closed,
the effect on operating income would be
a. an increase of $500.
b. an increase of $2,000.
c. a decrease of $2,000.
d. a decrease of $2,500.
Grapevine Corporation produces two joint products, JP-1 and JP-2, and a single by-
product, BP-1, in Department 2 of its manufacturing plant. JP-1 is subsequently
transferred to Department 3 where it is refined into a more expensive, higher-priced
product, JP-1R, and a by-product known as BP-2. Recently, Santa Fe Company
introduced a product that would compete directly with JP-1R and, as a result, Grapevine
must reevaluate its decision to process JP-1 further. The market for JP-1 will not be
affected by Santa Fe’s product, and Grapevine plans to continue production of JP-1, even
if further processing is terminated. Should this latter action be necessary, Department 3
will be dismantled.
Which of the following items should Grapevine consider in its decision to continue or
terminate Department 3 operations?
1. The selling price per pound of JP-1.

2. The total hourly direct labor cost in Department 3.
3. Unit marketing and packaging costs for BP-2.
4. Supervisory salaries of Department 3 personnel who will be
transferred elsewhere in the plant, if processing is terminated.
5. Department 2 joint cost allocated to JP-1 and transferred to
Department 3.
6. The cost of existing JP-1R inventory.
a. 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 2, 3, 5 ,6.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

The Doll House, a very profitable company, plans to introduce a new type of doll to its
product line. The sales price and costs for the new dolls are as follows.
Selling price per doll $100

Variable cost per doll $60
Incremental annual fixed costs $456,000
Income tax rate 30%
If 10,000 new dolls are produced and sold, the effect on Doll House’s profit (loss) would
be
a. $(176,000).
b. $(56,000).
c. $(39,200).
d. $280,000.
225. CSO: 2C2f LOS: 2C2n
The Furniture Company currently has three divisions: Maple, Oak, and Cherry. The oak
furniture line does not seem to be doing well and the president of the company is
considering dropping this line. If it is dropped, the revenues associated with the Oak
Division will be lost and the related variable costs saved. Also, 50% of the fixed costs
allocated to the oak furniture line would be eliminated. The income statements, by
divisions, are as follows.
Maple Oak Cherry

Sales $55,000 $85,000 $100,000
Variable Costs 40,000 72,000 82,000
Contribution Margin 15,000 13,000 18,000
Fixed costs 10,000 14,000 10,200
Operating profit (loss) $ 5,000 $(1,000) $ 7,800
Which one of the following options should be recommended to the president of the
company?
a. Continue operating the Oak Division as discontinuance would result in a total

operating loss of $1,200.
b. Continue operating the Oak Division as discontinuance would result in a $6,000
decline in operating profits.
c. Discontinue the Oak Division which would result in a $1,000 increase in
operating profits.
d. Discontinue the Oak Division which would result in a $7,000 increase in
operating profits.
226. CSO: 2C2g LOS: 2C2l

Milton Manufacturing occasionally has capacity problems in its metal shaping division,
where the chief cost driver is machine hours. In evaluating the attractiveness of its
individual products for decision-making purposes, which measurement tool should the
firm select?
If machine hours do not If machine hours

constrain the number constrain the number
of units to be produced of units to be produced
a. Contribution margin Contribution margin per machine hour.
b. Gross profit Contribution margin.
c. Contribution margin Contribution margin ratio.
d. Contribution margin per Contribution margin.
machine hour
Elgers Company produces valves for the plumbing industry. Elgers’ per unit sales price
and variable costs are as follows.
Sales price $12

Variable costs 8
Elgers’ practical plant capacity is 40,000 units. Elgers’ total fixed costs aggregate $48,000
and it has a 40% effective tax rate. The maximum net profit that Elger can earn is
a. $48,000.
b. $67,200.
c. $96,000.
d. $112,000.

Dayton Corporation manufactures pipe elbows for the plumbing industry. Dayton’s per
unit sales price and variable costs are as follows.
Sales price $10

Variable costs 7
Dayton’s practical plant capacity is 35,000 units. Dayton’s total fixed costs amount to
$42,000, and the company has a 50% effective tax rate. If Dayton produced and sold
30,000 units, net income would be
a. $24,000.
b. $45,000.
c. $48,000.
d. $90,000.
Raymund Inc., a bearings manufacturer, has the capacity to produce 7,000 bearings per
month. The company is planning to replace a portion of its labor intensive production
process with a highly automated process, which would increase Raymund’s fixed
manufacturing costs by $30,000 per month and reduce its variable costs by $5 per unit.
Raymund’s Income Statement for an average month is as follows.
Sales (5,000 units at $20 per unit) $100,000

Variable manufacturing costs $50,000
Variable selling costs 15,000 65,000
Contribution margin 35,000
Fixed manufacturing costs 16,000

Fixed selling costs 4,000 20,000
Operating income $ 15,000
If Raymund installs the automated process, the company’s monthly operating income
would be
a. $5,000.
b. $10,000.
c. $30,000.
d. $40,000.

Phillips and Company produces educational software. Its current unit cost, based upon
an anticipated volume of 150,000 units, is as follows.
Selling price $150

Variable costs 60
Contribution margin 90
Fixed costs 60
Operating income 30
Sales for the coming year are estimated at 175,000 units, which is within the relevant
range of Phillip’s cost structure. Cost management initiatives are expected to yield a
20% reduction in variable costs and a reduction of $750,000 in fixed costs. Phillip’s cost
structure for the coming year will include a
a. per unit contribution margin of $72 and fixed costs of $55.

b. total contribution margin of $15,300,000 and fixed costs of $8,250,000.
c. variable cost ratio of 32% and operating income of $9,600,000.
d. contribution margin ratio of 68% and operating income of $7,050,000.
231. CSO: 2C2g LOS: 2C2d
Cervine Corporation makes two types of motors for use in various products. Operating
data and unit cost information for its products are presented below.
Product A Product B
Annual unit capacity 10,000 20,000
Annual unit demand 10,000 20,000

Variable manufacturing cost 53 45
Fixed manufacturing cost 10 10
Fixed other administrative 2 0
Unit operating profit $ 20 $10
Machine hours per unit 2.0 1.5
Cervine has 40,000 productive machine hours available. The relevant contribution
margins, per machine hour for each product, to be utilized in making a decision on
product priorities for the coming year, are
Product A Product B
a. $17.00 $14.00.
b. $18.50 $16.00.
c. $20.00 $10.00.
d. $37.00 $24.00.
232. CSO: 2C2g LOS: 2C2n
Lark Industries accepted a contract to provide 30,000 units of Product A and 20,000 units
of Product B. Lark’s staff developed the following information with regard to meeting
this contract.
Product A Product B Total

Selling Price $75 $125
Variable costs $30 $48
Fixed overhead $1,600,000
Machine hours required 3 5
Machine hours available 160,000
Cost if outsourced $45 $60
Lark’s operations manager has identified the following alternatives. Which alternative
should be recommended to Lark’s management?
a. Make 30,000 units of Product A, utilize the remaining capacity to make Product
B, and outsource the remainder.
b. Make 25,000 units of Product A, utilize the remaining capacity to make Product
c. Make 20,000 units of Product A, utilize the remaining capacity to make Product
d. Rent additional capacity of 30,000 machine hours which will increase fixed costs
by $150,000.
233. CSO: 2C2g LOS: 2C2n

Aspen Company plans to sell 12,000 units of product XT and 8,000 units of product RP.
Aspen has a capacity of 12,000 productive machine hours. The unit cost structure and
machine hours required for each product is as follows.
Unit Costs XT RP
Materials $37 $24
Direct labor 12 13
Variable overhead 6 3
Fixed overhead 37 38
Machine hours required 1.0 1.5

Aspen can purchase 12,000 units of XT at $60 and/or 8,000 units of RP at $45. Based on
the above, which one of the following actions should be recommended to Aspen's
management?
a. Produce XT internally and purchase RP.

b. Produce RP internally and purchase XT.
c. Purchase both XT and RP.
d. Produce both XT and RP.
Which one of the following would cause the demand curve for bagels to shift to the left?
a. A decrease in the cost of muffins.

b. An increase in the population.
c. A decrease in the price of bagels.
d. An increase in the supply of bagels.

Which one of the following would cause the demand curve for prepared meals sold in
supermarkets to shift to the right?
a. An increase in the price of prepared meals.

b. An increase in consumer income.
c. A decrease in the price of restaurant meals.
d. An increase in the supply of prepared meals.
236. CSO: 2C3a LOS: 2C3n

If the demand for a product is elastic, a price increase will result in
a. no change in total revenue.

b. an increase in total revenue.
c. a decrease in total revenue.
d. an indeterminate change in revenue.

The advantages of incorporating full product costs in pricing decisions include all the
following except
a. ease in identifying unit fixed costs with individual products.

b. full product cost recovery.
c. the promotion of price stability.
d. a pricing formula that meets the cost-benefit test; i.e., simplicity.
238. CSO: 2C3a LOS: 2C3p
An economist determined the following market data for a commodity.
Price Quantity Supplied Quantity Demanded

$25 250 750
50 500 500
75 750 250
100 1,000 0
Based on this information, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. In the short-term, there would be excess supply at a price of $40.

b. In the long-run, if producers’ costs per unit decline, then a reasonable market
clearing price could be $65.
c. In the short-term, there would be excess demand at a price of $70.
d. In the long-run, if producers’ costs per unit increase, then a reasonable market
clearing price could be $70.
239. CSO: 2C3a LOS: 2C3m

If a product’s price elasticity of demand is greater than one, then a 1% price increase will
cause the quantity demanded to
a. increase by more than 1%.

b. increase by less than 1%.
c. decrease by less than 1%.
d. decrease by more than 1%.
240. CSO: 2C3a LOS: 2C3o

If the demand for a good is elastic, then a(n)
a. decrease in price will increase total revenue.

b. increase in price will increase total revenue.
c. decrease in price will decrease total revenue.
d. increase in price will have no effect on total revenue.
Leader Industries is planning to introduce a new product, DMA. It is expected that
10,000 units of DMA will be sold. The full product cost per unit is $300. Invested
capital for this product amounts to $20 million. Leader’s target rate of return on
investment is 20%. The markup percentage for this product, based on operating income
as a percentage of full product cost, will be
a. 42.9%.
b. 57.1%.
c. 133.3%.
d. 233.7%.

Which one of the following situations best lends itself to a cost-based pricing approach?
a. A paper manufacturer negotiating the price for supplying copy paper to a new
mass merchandiser of office products.
b. An industrial equipment fabricator negotiating pricing for one of its standard
models with a major steel manufacturer.
c. A computer component manufacturer debating pricing terms with a customer in a
new channel of distribution.
d. A computer component manufacturer debating pricing with a new customer for a
made to order, state of the art application.
243. CSO: 2C3a LOS: 2C3r

Basic Computer Company (BCC) sells its microcomputers using bid pricing. It develops
its bids on a full cost basis. Full cost includes estimated material, labor, variable
overheads, fixed manufacturing overheads, and reasonable incremental computer
assembly administrative costs, plus a 10% return on full cost. BCC believes bids in
excess of $1,050 per computer are not likely to be considered.
BCC’s current cost structure, based on its normal production levels, is $500 for materials
per computer and $20 per labor hour. Assembly and testing of each computer requires 17
labor hours. BCC expects to incur variable manufacturing overhead of $2 per labor hour,
fixed manufacturing overhead of $3 per labor hour, and incremental administrative costs
of $8 per computer assembled.
BCC has received a request from a school board for 200 computers. Using the full-cost
criteria and desired level of return, which one of the following prices should be
recommended to BCC’s management for bidding purposes?
a. $874.00.
b. $882.00.
c. $961.40.
d. $1,026.30.
Companies that manufacture made-to-order industrial equipment typically use which one
of the following?
a. Cost-based pricing.
b. Market-based pricing.
c. Material-based pricing.
d. Price discrimination.

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of market-based costing?
a. It has a customer-driven external focus.

b. It is used by companies facing stiff competition.
c. It is used by companies facing minimal competition.
d. It starts with a target selling price and target profit.

Almelo Manpower Inc. provides contracted bookkeeping services. Almelo has annual
fixed costs of $100,000 and variable costs of $6 per hour. This year the company
budgeted 50,000 hours of bookkeeping services. Almelo prices its services at full cost
and uses a cost-plus pricing approach. The company developed a billing price of $9 per
hour. The company’s mark-up level would be
a. 12.5%.
b. 33.3%.
c. 50.0%.
d. 66.6%.
247. CSO: 2C3b LOS: 2C3j

Fennel Products is using cost-based pricing to determine the selling price for its new
product based on the following information.
Annual volume 25,000 units

Fixed costs $700,000 per year
Variable costs $200 per unit
Plant investment $3,000,000
Working capital $1,000,000
The target price that Fennell needs to set for the new product to achieve a 15% after-tax
return on investment (ROI) would be
a. $228.
b. $238.
c. $258.
d. $268.
248. CSO: 2C3e LOS: 2C3f
A monopoly will maximize profits if it produces an output where marginal cost is
a. less than marginal revenue.

b. greater than marginal revenue.
c. equal to marginal revenue.
d. equal to price.
249. CSO: 2C3e LOS: 2C3f

At the long-run profit maximizing equilibrium of a firm in a perfectly competitive
market, all of the following are correct except that
a. price equals marginal cost.

b. price equals average total cost.
c. economic profits are positive.
d. marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
Section D: Risk Management
250. CSO: 2D1b LOS: 2D1f

A firm is constructing a risk analysis to quantify the exposure of its data center to various
types of threats. Which one of the following situations would represent the highest
annual loss exposure after adjustment for insurance proceeds?
Frequency of
Occurrence Loss Insurance
(years) Amount (% coverage)
a. 1 $ 15,000 85.
b. 8 75,000 80.
c. 20 200,000 80.
d. 100 400,000 50.
Section E: Investment Decisions
251. CSO: 2E1a LOS: 2E1a

Capital investment projects include proposals for all of the following except
a. the acquisition of government mandated pollution control equipment.

b. the expansion of existing product offerings.
c. additional research and development facilities.
d. refinancing existing working capital agreements.
Which one of the following items is least likely to directly impact an equipment
replacement capital expenditure decision?
a. The net present value of the equipment that is being replaced.

b. The depreciation rate that will be used for tax purposes on the new asset.
c. The amount of additional accounts receivable that will be generated from
increased production and sales.
d. The sales value of the asset that is being replaced.

All of the following are methods used to evaluate investments for capital budgeting
decisions except
a. accounting rate of return.

b. internal rate of return.
c. excess present value (profitability) index.
d. required rate of return.
254. CSO: 2E1b LOS: 2E1b

Cora Lewis is performing an analysis to determine if her firm should invest in new
equipment to produce a product recently developed by her firm. The other option would
be to abandon the product. She uses the net present value (NPV) method and discounts at
the firm’s cost of capital. Lewis is contemplating how to handle the following items.
I. The book value of warehouse space currently used by another division.

II. Interest payments on debt to finance the equipment.
III. Increased levels of accounts payable and inventory.
IV. R&D spent in prior years and treated as a deferred asset for book and tax
purposes.
Which of the above items are relevant for Lewis to consider in determining the cash
flows for her NPV calculation?
a. I, II, III and IV.

b. II and III only.
c. III only.
d. IV only.
Wilcox Corporation won a settlement in a law suit and was offered four different
payment alternatives by the defendant’s insurance company. A review of interest rates
indicates that 8% is appropriate for analyzing this situation. Ignoring any tax
considerations, which one of the following four alternatives should the controller
recommend to Wilcox management?
a. $135,000 now.
b. $40,000 per year at the end of each of the next four years.
c. $5,000 now and $20,000 per year at the end of each of the next ten years.
d. $5,000 now and $5,000 per year at the end of each of the next nine years, plus a
lump-sum payment of $200,000 at the end of the tenth year.

Calvin Inc. is considering the purchase of a new state-of-art machine to replace its hand-
operated machine. Calvin’s effective tax rate is 40%, and its cost of capital is 12%. Data
regarding the existing and new machines are presented below.
Existing New
Machine Machine
Original cost $50,000 $90,000
Installation costs 0 4,000
Freight and insurance 0 6,000
Expected end salvage value 0 0
Depreciation method straight-line straight-line
Expected useful life 10 years 5 years
The existing machine has been in service for seven years and could be sold currently for
$25,000. Calvin expects to realize a before-tax annual reduction in labor costs of
$30,000 if the new machine is purchased and placed in service.
If the new machine is purchased, the incremental cash flows for the fifth year would
amount to
a. $18,000.
b. $24,000.
c. $26,000.
d. $30,000.
Olson Industries needs to add a small plant to accommodate a special contract to supply
building materials over a five year period. The required initial cash outlays at Time 0 are
as follows.
Land $ 500,000
New building 2,000,000
Equipment 3,000,000
Olson uses straight-line depreciation for tax purposes and will depreciate the building
over 10 years and the equipment over 5 years. Olson’s effective tax rate is 40%.
Revenues from the special contract are estimated at $1.2 million annually, and cash
expenses are estimated at $300,000 annually. At the end of the fifth year, the assumed
sales values of the land and building are $800,000 and $500,000, respectively. It is
further assumed the equipment will be removed at a cost of $50,000 and sold for
$300,000.
As Olson utilizes the net present value (NPV) method to analyze investments, the net
cash flow for period 3 would be
a. $60,000.
b. $860,000.
c. $880,000.
d. $940,000.
The following schedule reflects the incremental costs and revenues for a capital project.
The company uses straight-line depreciation. The interest expense reflects an allocation
of interest on the amount of this investment, based on the company’s weighted average
cost of capital.
Revenues $650,000
Direct costs $270,000
Variable overhead 50,000
Fixed overhead 20,000
Depreciation 70,000
General & administrative 40,000
Interest expense 8,000
Total costs 458,000
Net profit before taxes $192,000
The annual cash flow from this investment, before tax considerations, would be
a. $192,000.
b. $200,000.
c. $262,000.
d. $270,000.

Kell Inc. is analyzing an investment for a new product expected to have annual sales of
100,000 units for the next 5 years and then be discontinued. New equipment will be
purchased for $1,200,000 and cost $300,000 to install. The equipment will be
depreciated on a straight-line basis over 5 years for financial reporting purposes and 3
years for tax purposes. At the end of the fifth year, it will cost $100,000 to remove the
equipment, which can be sold for $300,000. Additional working capital of $400,000 will
be required immediately and needed for the life of the product. The product will sell for
$80, with direct labor and material costs of $65 per unit. Annual indirect costs will
increase by $500,000. Kell’s effective tax rate is 40%.
In a capital budgeting analysis, what is the expected cash flow at time = 5 (fifth year of
operations) that Kell should use to compute the net present value?
a. $720,000.
b. $800,000.
c. $1,120,000.
d. $1,240,000.
In a capital budgeting analysis, what is the cash outflow at time 0 (initial investment) that
Kell should use to compute the net present value?
a. $1,300,000.
b. $1,500,000.
c. $1,700,000.
d. $1,900,000.

Colvern Corporation is considering the acquisition of a new computer-aided machine tool
to replace an existing, outdated model. Relevant information includes the following.
Projected annual cash savings $28,400

Annual depreciation - new machine 16,000
Annual depreciation - old machine 1,600
Income tax rate 40%
Annual after-tax cash flows for the project would amount to
a. $5,600.
b. $7,440.
c. $17,040.
d. $22,800.
Skytop Industries is analyzing a capital investment project using discounted cash flow
(DCF) analysis. The new equipment will cost $250,000. Installation and transportation
costs aggregating $25,000 will be capitalized. A five year MACRS depreciation schedule
(20%, 32%, 19.2%, 11.52%, 11.52%, 5.76%) with the half-year convention will be
employed. Existing equipment, with a book value of $100,000 and an estimated market
value of $80,000, will be sold immediately after installation of the new equipment.
Annual incremental pre-tax cash inflows are estimated at $75,000. Skytop’s effective
income tax rate is 40%. After-tax cash flow for the first year of the project would amount
to
a. $45,000.
b. $52,000.
c. $67,000.
d. $75,000.

costs aggregating $25,000 will be capitalized. Existing equipment will be sold
immediately after installation of the new equipment. The existing equipment has a tax
basis of $100,000 and an estimated market value of $80,000. Skytop estimates that the
new equipment’s capacity will generate additional receivables and inventory of $30,000,
while payables will increase by $15,000. Annual incremental pre-tax cash inflows are
estimated at $75,000. Skytop’s effective income tax rate is 40%. Total after-tax cash
outflows occurring in Year 0 would be
a. $177,000.
b. $182,000.
c. $198,000.
d. $202,000.
Mintz Corporation is considering the acquisition of a new technologically efficient
packaging machine at a cost of $300,000. The equipment requires an immediate, fully
recoverable, investment in working capital of $40,000. Mintz plans to use the machine
for five years, is subject to a 40% income tax rate, and uses a 12% hurdle rate when
analyzing capital investments. The company employs the net present value method
(NPV) to analyze projects.
The overall impact of the working capital investment on Mintz’s NPV analysis is
a. $(10,392).
b. $(13,040).
c. $(17,320).
d. $(40,000).

In estimating "after-tax incremental cash flows," under discounted cash flow analyses for
capital project evaluations, which one of the following options reflects the items that
should be included in the analyses?
Project related changes Estimated impacts

Sunk Costs in net working capital of inflation
a. No No Yes
b. No Yes Yes
c. No Yes No
d. Yes No No
AGC Company is considering an equipment upgrade. AGC uses discounted cash flow
(DCF) analysis in evaluating capital investments and has an effective tax rate of 40%.
Selected data developed by AGC is as follows.
Existing New
Equipment Equipment
Accumulated depreciation 45,000 -
Current market value 3,000 95,000
Based on this information, what is the initial investment for a DCF analysis of this
proposed upgrade?
a. $92,400.
b. $92,800.
c. $95,800.
d. $96,200.

operated machine. Calvin's effective tax rate is 40%, and its cost of capital is 12%. Data
Existing New
Machine Machine
Installation cost 0 4,000
The existing machine has been in service for seven years and could be sold currently for
$25,000. If the new machine is purchased Calvin expects to realize a $30,000 before-tax
annual reduction in labor costs.
If the new machine is purchased, what is the net amount of the initial cash outflow at
Time 0 for net present value calculation purposes?
a. $65,000.
b. $75,000.
c. $79,000.
d. $100,000.
Olson Industries needs to add a small plant to accommodate a special contract to supply
building materials over a five year period. The required initial cash outlays at Time 0 are
as follows.
Land $ 500,000
New building 2,000,000
Equipment 3,000,000
Olson uses straight-line depreciation for tax purposes and will depreciate the building
over 10 years and the equipment over 5 years. Olson’s effective tax rate is 40%.
Revenues from the special contract are estimated at $1.2 million annually and cash
expenses are estimated at $300,000 annually. At the end of the fifth year, the assumed
sales values of the land and building are $800,000 and $500,000, respectively. It is
further assumed the equipment will be removed at a cost of $50,000 and sold for
$300,000.
As Olson utilizes the net present value (NPV) method to analyze investments, the net
cash flow for period 5 would be`
a. $1,710,000.
b. $2,070,000.
c. $2,230,000.
d. $2,390,000.

In discounted cash flow techniques, which one of the following alternatives best reflects
the items to be incorporated in the initial net cash investment?
Net proceeds
Capitalized from sale of Impact of
expenditures old asset in spontaneous
(e.g., shipping Changes in net a replacement changes in
costs) working capital decision current liabilities
a. No Yes Yes Yes.
b. Yes No No No.
c. No Yes No No.
d. Yes Yes Yes Yes.
operated machine. Calvin's effective tax rate is 40%, and its cost of capital is 12%. Data
Existing New
Machine Machine
Installation costs 0 4,000
The existing machine has been in service for five years and could be sold currently for
$25,000. Calvin expects to realize annual before-tax reductions in labor costs of $30,000
if the new machine is purchased and placed in service.
If the new machine is purchased, the incremental cash flows for the first year would
amount to
a. $18,000.
b. $24,000.
c. $30,000.
d. $45,000.
271. CSO: 2E1b LOS: 2E2E1c1f

The owner of Woofie’s Video Rental cannot decide how to project the real costs of
opening a rental store in a new shopping mall. The owner knows the capital investment
required but is not sure of the returns from a store in a new mall. Historically, the video
rental industry has had an inflation rate equal to the economic norm. The owner requires
a real internal rate of return of 10%. Inflation is expected to be 3% during the next few
years. The industry expects a new store to show a growth rate, without inflation, of 8%.
First year revenues at the new store are expected to be $400,000.
The revenues for the second year, using both the real rate approach and the nominal rate
approach, respectively, would be
a. $432,000 real and $444,960 nominal.

b. $432,000 real and $452,000 nominal.
c. $440,000 real and $452,000 nominal.
d. $440,000 real and $453,200 nominal.
In a capital budgeting analysis, what is the expected cash flow at time = 3 (3rd year of
operation) that Kell should use to compute the net present value?
a. $300,000.
b. $720,000.
c. $760,000.
d. $800,000.
273. CSO: 2E1c LOS: 2E1c

Sarah Birdsong has prepared a net present value (NPV) analysis for a 15-year equipment
modernization program. Her initial calculations include a series of depreciation tax
savings, which are then discounted. Birdsong is now considering the incorporation of
inflation into the NPV analysis. If the depreciation tax savings were based on original
equipment cost, which of the following options correctly shows how she should handle
the program's cash operating costs and the firm's required rate return, respectively?
Cash Operating Costs Required Rate of Return

a. Adjust for inflation Adjust for inflation.
b. Adjust for inflation Do not adjust for inflation.
c. Do not adjust for inflation Adjust for inflation.
d. Do not adjust for inflation Do not adjust for inflation.
Regis Company, which is subject to an effective income tax rate of 30%, is evaluating a
proposed capital project. Relevant information for the proposed project is summarized
below.
Initial investment $500,000

Annual operating cash inflows
for the first three years.
Year 1 185,000
Year 2 175,000
Year 3 152,000
Depreciation will be calculated under the straight-line method using an 8-year estimated
service life and a terminal value of $50,000. In determining the estimated total after-tax
cash flow in Year 2 of the project, Regis should consider the after-tax operating cash
a. inflow only.
b. inflow plus annual depreciation expense.
c. inflow plus annual depreciation tax shield.
d. inflow plus the net impact of the annual depreciation expense and depreciation tax
shield.
For each of the next six years Atlantic Motors anticipates net income of $10,000, straight-
line tax depreciation of $20,000, a 40% tax rate, a discount rate of 10%, and cash sales of
$100,000. The depreciable assets are all being acquired at the beginning of year 1 and
will have a salvage value of zero at the end of six years.
The present value of the total depreciation tax savings would be
a. $8,000.
b. $27, 072.
c. $34,840.
d. $87,100.
Webster Products is performing a capital budgeting analysis on a new product it is
considering. Annual sales are expected to be 50,000 units in the first year, 100,000 units
in the second year, and 125,000 units the year thereafter. Selling price will be $80 in the
first year and is expected to decrease by 5% per year. Annual costs are forecasted as
follows.
Fixed costs $300,000 each year

Labor cost per unit $20 in year 1, increasing 5% per year, thereafter
Material cost per unit $30 in year 1, increasing 10% per year, thereafter
The investment of $2 million will be depreciated on a straight-line basis over 4 years for
financial reporting and tax purposes. Webster’s effective tax rate is 40%. When
calculating net present value (NPV), the net cash flow for year 3 would be
a. $558,750.
b. $858,750.
c. $1,058,750.
d. $1,070,000.

costs aggregating $25,000 will be capitalized. The appropriate five year depreciation
schedule (20%, 32%, 19%, 14.5%, 14.5%) will be employed with no terminal value
factored into the computations. Annual incremental pre-tax cash inflows are estimated at
$75,000. Skytop’s effective income tax rate is 40%. Assuming the machine is sold at the
end of Year 5 for $30,000, the after-tax cash flow for Year 5 of the project would amount
to
a. $63,950.
b. $72,950.
c. $78,950.
d. $86,925.
Fuller Industries is considering a $1 million investment in stamping equipment to
produce a new product. The equipment is expected to last nine years, produce revenue of
$700,000 per year, and have related cash expenses of $450,000 per year. At the end of
the 9th year, the equipment is expected to have a salvage value of $100,000 and cost
$50,000 to remove. The IRS categorizes this as 5-year Modified Accelerated Cost
Recovery System (MACRS) property subject to the following depreciation rates.
Year Rate
1 20.00%
2 32.00%
3 19.20%
4 11.52%
5 11.52%
6 5.76%
Fuller’s effective income tax rate is 40% and Fuller expects, on an overall company basis,
to continue to be profitable and have significant taxable income. If Fuller uses the net
present value method to analyze investments, what is the expected net tax impact on cash
flow in Year 2 before discounting?
a. Tax benefit of $28,000.

b. $0.
c. Negative $100,000.
d. Negative $128,000.

The net present value of an investment project represents the
a. total actual cash inflows minus the total actual cash outflows.
b. excess of the discounted cash inflows over the discounted cash outflows.
c. total after-tax cash flow including the tax shield from depreciation.
d. cumulative accounting profit over the life of the project.
280. CSO: 2E2a LOS: 2E2b
Kunkle Products is analyzing whether or not to invest in equipment to manufacture a new
product. The equipment will cost $1 million, is expected to last 10 years, and will be
depreciated on a straight-line basis for both financial reporting and tax purposes.
Kunkle’s effective tax rate is 40%, and its hurdle rate is 14%. Other information
concerning the project is as follows.
Sales per year = 10,000 units

Selling price = $100 per unit
Variable cost = $70 per unit
A 10% reduction in variable costs would result in the net present value increasing by
approximately
a. $156.000.
b. $219,000.
c. $365,000.
d. $367,000.

Allstar Company invests in a project with expected cash inflows of $9,000 per year for
four years. All cash flows occur at year-end. The required return on investment is 9%.
If the project generates a net present value (NPV) of $3,000, what is the amount of the
initial investment in the project?
a. $11,253.
b. $13,236.
c. $26,160.
d. $29,160.
Smithco is considering the acquisition of scanning equipment to mechanize its
procurement process. The equipment will require extensive testing and debugging, as
well as user training prior to its operational use. Projected after-tax cash flows are shown
below.
Time Period After-Tax Cash
Year Inflow/(Outflow)
0 $(550,000)
1 $(500,000)
2 $450,000
3 $350,000
4 $350,000
5 $350,000
Management anticipates the equipment will be sold at the beginning of year 6 for
$50,000 when its book value is zero. Smithco’s internal hurdle and effective tax rates are
14% and 40%, respectively. The project’s net present value would be
a. $(1,780).
b. $(6,970).
c. $(17,350).
d. $8,600.

An investment decision is acceptable if the
a. net present value is greater than or equal to $0.

b. present value of cash inflows is less than the present value of cash outflows.
c. present value of cash outflows is greater than or equal to $0.
d. present value of cash inflows is greater than or equal to $0.


The net present value of outsourcing the finishing work is
a. $303,280 net cash outflow.

b. $404,920 net cash outflow.
c. $454,920 net cash outflow.
d. $758,200 net cash outflow.

Long Inc. is analyzing a $1 million investment in new equipment to produce a product
with a $5 per unit margin. The equipment will last 5 years, be depreciated on a straight-
line basis for tax purposes, and have no value at the end of its life. A study of unit sales
produced the following data.
Annual
Unit Sales Probability
80,000 .10
85,000 .20
90,000 .30
95,000 .20
100,000 .10
110,000 .10
If Long utilizes a 12% hurdle rate and is subject to a 40% effective income tax rate, the
expected net present value of the project would be
a. $261,750.
b. $283,380.
c. $297,800.
d. $427,580.
Fred Kratz just completed a capital investment analysis for the acquisition of new
material handling equipment. The equipment is expected to cost $1,000,000 and be used
for eight years. Kratz reviewed the net present value (NPV) analysis with Bill Dolan,
Vice President of Finance. The analysis shows that the tax shield for this investment has
a positive NPV of $200,000, using the firm’s hurdle rate of 20%. Dolan noticed that 8
year straight-line depreciation was used for tax purposes but, since this equipment
qualifies for 3-year MACRS treatment, the tax shield analysis should be revised. The
company has an effective tax rate of 40%. The MACRS rates for 3-year property are as
follows.
Year Rate
1 33.33%
2 44.45%
3 14.81%
4 7.41%
Accordingly, the revised NPV for the tax shield (rounded to the nearest thousand) should
be
a. $109,000.
b. $192,000.
c. $283,000.
d. $425,000.
287. CSO: 2E2a LOS: 2E2c

Dobson Corp. is analyzing a capital investment requiring a cash outflow at Time 0 of
$2.5 million and net cash inflows of $800,000 per year for 5 years. The net present value
(NPV) was calculated to be $384,000 at a 12% discount rate. Since several managers felt
this was a risky project, three separate scenarios were analyzed, as follows.
 Scenario R - The annual cash inflows were reduced by 10%.

 Scenario S - The discount rate was changed to 18%.
 Scenario T - The cash inflow in year 5 was reduced to zero.
Rank the three individual scenarios in the order of the effect on NPV, from least effect to
greatest effect.
a. R, S, T.
b. R, T, S.
c. S, T, R.
d. T, S, R.
288. CSO: 2E2a LOS: 2E2g
Ironside Products is considering two independent projects, each requiring a cash outlay of
$500,000 and having an expected life of 10 years. The forecasted annual net cash
inflows for each project and the probability distributions for these cash inflows are as
follows.
Project R Project S
Probabilities Cash Inflows Probabilities Cash Inflows
0.10 $ 75,000 0.25 $ 70,000
0.80 95,000 0.50 110,000
0.10 115,000 0.25 150,000
Ironside has decided that the project with the greatest relative risk should meet a hurdle
rate of 16% and the project with less risk should meet a hurdle rate of 12%. Given these
parameters, which of the following actions should be recommended for Ironside to
undertake?
a. Reject both projects.

b. Accept Project R and reject Project S.
c. Reject Project R and accept Project S.
d. Accept both projects.

Logan Enterprises is at a critical decision point and must decide whether to go out of
business or continue to operate for five more years. Logan has a labor contract with five
years remaining which calls for $1.5 million in severance pay if Logan’s plant shuts
down. The firm also has a contract to supply 150,000 units per year, at a price of $100
each, to Dill Inc. for the next five years. Dill is Logan’s only remaining customer.
Logan must pay Dill $500,000 immediately if it defaults on the contract. The plant has a
net book value of $600,000, and appraisers estimate the facility would sell for $750,000
today but would have no market value if operated for another five years. Logan’s fixed
costs are $4 million per year, and variable costs are $75 per unit. Logan’s appropriate
discount rate is 12%. Ignoring taxes, the optimal decision is to
a. shut down because the annual cash flow is negative $250,000 per year.
b. keep operating to avoid the severance pay of $1,500,000.
c. shut down since the breakeven point is 160,000 units while annual sales are
150,000 units.
d. keep operating since the incremental net present value is approximately $350,000.
Foster Manufacturing is analyzing a capital investment project that is forecasted to
produce the following cash flows and net income.
After-Tax Net
Years Cash Flows Income
0 $(20,000) $ 0
1 6,000 2,000
2 6,000 2,000
3 8,000 2,000
4 8,000 2,000
If Foster’s cost of capital is 12%, the net present value for this project is
a. $(1,600).
b. $924.
c. $6,074.
d. $6,998.

Lunar Inc. is considering the purchase of a machine for $500,000 which will last 5 years.
A financial analysis is being developed using the following information.
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Unit sales 10,000 10,000 20,000 20,000 20,000
Selling price per unit $ 100 $ 100 $ 100 $ 100 $ 100

Variable cost per unit 65 65 65 65 65
Fixed costs 300,000 300,000 300,000 300,000 300,000
Pre-tax cash flow 50,000 50,000 400,000 400,000 400,000
The machine will be depreciated over 5 years on a straight-line basis for tax purposes and
Lunar is subject to a 40% effective income tax rate. Assuming Lunar will have
significant taxable income from other lines of business, and using a 20% discount rate,
the net present value of the project would be
a. $(282,470).
b. $(103,070).
c. $(14,010).
d. $16,530.
Parker Industries is analyzing a $200,000 equipment investment to produce a new
product for the next 5 years. A study of expected annual after-tax cash flows from the
project produced the following data.
Annual
After-Tax
Cash Flow Probability
$45,000 .10
50,000 .20
55,000 .30
60,000 .20
65,000 .10
70,000 .10
If Parker utilizes a 14% hurdle rate, the probability of achieving a positive net present
value is
a. 20%.
b. 30%.
c. 40%.
d. 60%.

Staten Corporation is considering two mutually exclusive projects. Both require an initial
outlay of $150,000 and will operate for five years. The cash flows associated with these
projects are as follows.
Year Project X Project Y

1 $ 47,000 $ 0
2 47,000 0
3 47,000 0
4 47,000 0
5 47,000 280,000
Total $235,000 $280,000
Staten’s required rate of return is 10 percent. Using the net present value method, which
one of the following actions would you recommend to Staten?
a. Accept Project X, and reject Project Y.

b. Accept Project Y, and reject Project X.
c. Accept Projects X and Y.
d. Reject Projects X and Y.


The net present value of acquiring the new finishing machine is
a. $229,710 net cash outflow.

b. $267,620 net cash outflow.
c. $369,260 net cash outflow.
d. $434,424 net cash outflow.
Stennet Company is considering two mutually exclusive projects. The company’s cost of
capital is 10%. The net present value (NPV) profiles of the two projects are as follows.
Discount Rate Net Present Value $(000)

(percent) Project A Project B
0 $2,220 $1,240
10 681 507
12 495 411
14 335 327
16 197 252
18 77 186
20 (26) 128
22 (115) 76
24 (193) 30
26 (260) (11)
28 (318) (47)
The company president is of the view that Project B should be accepted because it has the
higher internal rate of return (IRR). The president requested John Mack, the CFO, to
make a recommendation. Which one of the following options should Mack recommend
to the president?
a. Agree with the president.

b. Accept Project A because it has an IRR higher than that of Project B.
c. Accept both Projects A and B as the IRR for each project is greater than cost of
capital.
d. Accept Project A because at a 10% discount rate it has an NPV that is greater than
that of Project B.

Winston Corporation is subject to a 30% effective income tax rate and uses the net
present value method to evaluate capital budgeting proposals. Harry Ralston, the capital
budget manager, desires to improve the appeal of a marginally attractive proposal. To
accomplish his goal, which one of the following actions should be recommended to
Ralston?
a. Postpone a fully-deductible major overhaul from year 4 to year 5.

b. Decrease the project’s estimated terminal salvage value.
c. Immediately pay the proposal’s marketing program in its entirety rather than pay
in five equal installments.
d. Adjust the project’s discount rate to reflect movement of the project from a “low
risk” category to an “average risk” category.
297. CSO: 2E2b LOS: 2E2d
Which of the following is not a shortcoming of the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
method?
a. IRR assumes that funds generated from a project will be reinvested at an interest
rate equal to the project’s IRR.
b. IRR does not take into account the difference in the scale of investment
alternatives.
c. IRR is easier to visualize and interpret than net present value (NPV).
d. Sign changes in the cash flow stream can generate more than one IRR.
298. CSO: 2E2b LOS: 2E2a

A company is in the process of evaluating a major product line expansion. Using a 14%
discount rate, the firm has calculated the present value of both the project’s cash inflows
and cash outflows to be $15.8 million. The company will likely evaluate this project
further by
a. taking a closer look at the expansion’s contribution margin.

b. comparing the internal rate of return versus the accounting rate of return.
c. comparing the internal rate of return versus the company’s cost of capital.
d. comparing the internal rate of return versus the company’s cost of capital and
hurdle rate.
299. CSO: 2E2b LOS: 2E2g

Hobart Corporation evaluates capital projects using a variety of performance screens;
including a hurdle rate of 16%, payback period of 3 years or less, and an accounting rate
of return of 20% or more. Management is completing review of a project on the basis of
the following projections.
 Capital investment $200,000

 Annual cash flows $74,000
 Straight-line depreciation 5 years
 Terminal value $20,000
The projected internal rate of return is 20%. Which one of the following alternatives
reflects the appropriate conclusions for the indicated evaluative measures?
Internal Rate
of Return Payback
a. Accept Reject.
b. Reject Reject.
c. Accept Accept.
d. Reject Accept.
300. CSO: 2E2b LOS: 2E2g
Diane Harper, Vice President of Finance for BGN Industries, is reviewing material
prepared by her staff prior to the board of directors meeting at which she must
recommend one of four mutually exclusive options for a new product line. The summary
information below indicates the initial investment required, the present value of cash
inflows (excluding the initial investment) at BGN’s hurdle rate of 16%, and the internal
rate of return (IRR) for each of the four options.
Present Value of
Option Investment Cash Inflows at 16% IRR
X $3,950,000 $3,800,000 15.5%
Y 3,000,000 3,750,000 19.0%
Z 2,000,000 2,825,000 17.5%
W 800,000 1,100,000 18.0%
If there are no capital rationing constraints, which option should Harper recommend?
a. Option X.
b. Option Y.
c. Option Z.
d. Option W.

If the present value of expected cash inflows from a project equals the present value of
expected cash outflows, the discount rate is the
a. payback rate.
b. internal rate of return.
c. accounting rate of return.
d. net present value rate.
The net present value profiles of projects A and B are as follows.
Discount Rate Net Present Value $(000)

(percent) Project A Project B
0 $2,220 $1,240
10 681 507
12 495 411
14 335 327
16 197 252
18 77 186
20 (26) 128
22 (115) 76
24 (193) 30
26 (260) (11)
28 (318) (47)
The approximate internal rates of return for Projects A and B, respectively, are
a. 0% and 0%.
b. 19.0% and 21.5%.
c. 19.5% and 25.5%.
d. 20.5% and 26.5%.

For a given investment project, the interest rate at which the present value of the cash
inflows equals the present value of the cash outflows is called the
a. hurdle rate.
b. payback rate.
c. internal rate of return.
d. cost of capital.
Two mutually exclusive capital expenditure projects have the following characteristics.
Project A Project B
Investment $100,000 $150,000
Net cash inflow - Year 1 40,000 80,000
Year 2 50,000 70,000
Year 3 60,000 60,000
All cash flows are received at the end of the year. Based on this information, which one
of the following statements is not correct?
a. The net present value of Project A at a cost of capital of 10% is $22,720.

b. The net present value of Project B at a cost of capital of 12% is $19,950.
c. The internal rate of return of Project B is greater than the internal rate of return of
Project A.
d. The payback years for Project A is greater than the payback years for Project B.

Jenson Copying Company is planning to buy a coping machine costing $25,310. The net
present values (NPV) of this investment, at various discount rates, are as follows.
Discount Rate NPV

4% $2,440
6% $1,420
8% $ 460
10% ($ 440)
Jenson’s approximate internal rate of return on this investment is
a. 6%.
b. 8%.
c. 9%.
d. 10%.
After Tax Net

Year Cash-Flows Income
0 $(20,000) $ 0
1 6,000 2,000
2 6,000 2,000
3 8,000 2,000
4 8,000 2,000
The internal rate of return (rounded to the nearest whole percentage) is
a. 5%.
b. 12%.
c. 14%.
d. 40%.
307. CSO: 2E2c LOS: 2E2a

The following methods are used to evaluate capital investment projects.
 Internal rate of return

 Average rate of return
 Payback
 Net present value
Which one of the following correctly identifies the methods that utilize discounted cash-
flow (DCF) techniques?
Internal Rate Average Rate Net Present

of Return of Return Payback Value
a. Yes Yes No No.
b. No No Yes Yes.
c. Yes No Yes No.
d. Yes No No Yes.
Molar Inc. is evaluating three independent projects for the expansion of different product
lines. The Finance Department has performed an extensive analysis of each project and
the chief financial officer has indicated that there is no capital rationing in effect. Which
of the following statements are correct?
I. Reject any project with a payback period which is shorter than the
company standard.
II. The project with the highest internal rate of return (IRR) exceeding the
hurdle rate should be selected and the others rejected.
III. All projects with positive net present values should be selected.
IV. Molar should reject any projects with negative IRRs.
a. I, II and IV only.
b. I, II, III and IV.
c. II and III only.
d. III and IV only.

Jones & Company is considering the acquisition of scanning equipment to mechanize its
procurement process. The equipment will require extensive testing and debugging as
well as user training prior to its operational use. Projected after-tax cash flows are as
follows.
0 $(600,000)
1 (500,000)
2 450,000
3 450,000
4 350,000
5 250,000
Management anticipates the equipment will be sold at the beginning of Year 6 for
$50,000 and its book value will be zero. Jones’ internal hurdle and effective income tax
rates are 14% and 40%, respectively. Based on this information, a negative net present
value was computed for the project. Accordingly, it can be concluded that
a. the project has an internal rate of return (IRR) less than 14% since IRR is the
interest rate at which net present value is equal to zero.
b. Jones should examine the determinants of its hurdle rate further before analyzing
any other potential projects.
c. Jones should calculate the project payback to determine if it is consistent with the
net present value calculation.
d. the project has an IRR greater than 14% since IRR is the interest rate at which net
present value is equal to zero.
Foggy Products is evaluating two mutually exclusive projects, one requiring a $4 million
initial outlay and the other a $6 million outlay. The Finance Department has performed
an extensive analysis of each project. The chief financial officer has indicated that there
is no capital rationing in effect. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Both projects should be rejected if their payback periods are longer than the
company standard.
II. The project with the highest Internal Rate of Return (IRR) should be selected
(assuming both IRRs exceed the hurdle rate).
III. The project with the highest positive net present value should be selected.
IV. Select the project with the smaller initial investment, regardless of which
evaluation method is used.
a. I, II, and IV only.

b. I, II and III only.
c. I and III only.
d. II and III only.

Despite its shortcomings, the traditional payback period continues to be a popular method
to evaluate investments because, in part, it
a. provides some insight into the risk associated with a project.

b. ignores the time value of money.
c. focuses on income rather than cash flow.
d. furnishes information about an investment’s lifetime performance.

Which one of the following is not a shortcoming of the payback method?
a. It offers no consideration of cash flows beyond the expiration of the payback

period.
b. It ignores the time value of money.
c. It offers no indication of a project’s liquidity.
d. It encourages establishing a short payback period.
Quint Company uses the payback method as part of its analysis of capital investments.
One of its projects requires a $140,000 investment and has the following projected
before-tax cash flows.
Year 1 $60,000
Year 2 60,000
Year 3 60,000
Year 4 80,000
Year 5 80,000
Quint has an effective 40% tax rate. Based on these data, the after-tax payback period is
a. 1.5.
b. 2.3.
c. 3.4.
d. 3.7.

After-Tax Net
Year Cash flow Income
0 ($20,000) $ 0
1 6,000 2,000
2 6,000 2,000
3 8,000 2,000
4 8,000 2,000
The payback period of this project will be
a. 2.5 years.
b. 2.6 years.
c. 3.0 years.
d. 3.3 years.
Smithco is considering the acquisition of scanning equipment to mechanize its
procurement process. The equipment will require extensive testing and debugging, as
well as user training prior to its operational use. Projected after-tax cash flows are shown
below.

0 $(550,000)
1 $(500,000)
2 $450,000
3 $350,000
4 $250,000
5 $150,000
Management anticipates the equipment will be sold at the beginning of year 6 for
$50,000 when its book value is zero. Smithco’s internal hurdle and effective tax rates are
14% and 40%, respectively. The project’s payback period will be
a. 2.3 years.
b. 3.0 years.
c. 3.5 years.
d. 4.0 years.

Susan Hines has developed an estimate of the earnings per share for her firm for the next
year using the following parameters.
Sales $20 million

Cost of goods sold 70% of sales
General & administrative expenses $300,000
Selling expense $100,000 plus 10% of sales
Debt outstanding $5 million @ 8% interest rate
Common shares outstanding 2 million
She is now interested in the sensitivity of earnings per share to sales forecast changes. A
10% sales increase would increase earnings per share by
a. 7.0 cents per share.

b. 10.4 cents per share.
c. 13.0 cents per share.
d. 20.0 cents per share.
The modeling technique that should be used in a complex situation involving uncertainty
is a(n)
a. expected value analysis.

b. program evaluation review technique.
c. Monte Carlo simulation.
d. Markov process.

Janet Jones, an analyst with All Purpose Heater Company, plans to use a Monte Carlo
experiment to estimate the simulated daily demand for All Purpose’s heaters. The
probability distribution for the daily demand for heaters is as follows.
Daily demand Random number

for heaters Probability intervals
0 .10 00-09
1 .15 10-24
2 .20 25-44
3 .20 45-64
4 .25
5 .10
Jones is trying to assign random number intervals for each of the demand levels. She has
done so for the first four levels. If a total of 100 two-digit numbers are used in a
simulation, what random number intervals should Jones assign to the 4 and 5 heaters
demand levels, respectively?
a. 65-69; 70-88.
b. 65-84; 85-99.
c. 65-84; 85-99.
d. 65-89; 90-99.

All of the following are advantages of a simulation model except that it
a. allows what-if type of questions.

b. does not interfere with the real world systems.
c. generates optimal solutions to problems.
d. allows the study of the interactive effect of variables.
Logan Corporation, located in Boston, has experienced major distribution problems in
supplying key Los Angeles-based customers. Delivery times have been as follows over
the last four months.
Delivery Time Number of Times

in Days Occurring
5 12
6 18
7 15
8 9
9 6
The company’s marketing manager wants to simulate the distribution process by

assigning random numbers to delivery times and to other random variables. If the
marketing manager uses 100 different random numbers to simulate the process, an
appropriate assignment of random numbers to a 6-day delivery time would be
a. 09-14.
b. 30-60.
c. 45-74.
d. 00-18.
Section F: Professional Ethics
321. CSO: 2F1a LOS: 2F1c

Recently Fan Club Inc. submitted a budget for the coming year to management. Included
in the budget were the plans for a new product, a rechargeable fan. The new fan will not
only last longer than the competitor’s product but is also more quiet. While not yet
approved, the budget called for aggressive advertising to support its sales targets, as the
business community was not yet aware that Fan Club was close to production of a new
fan. A member of the management accounting staff “shared” the budget with a
distributor. In accordance with IMA’s “Statement of Ethical Professional Practice,”
which one of the following would best represent an ethical conflict in this situation?
a. The budget has not been approved and therefore is not for publication.
b. The price has not been established, so expectations must be managed.
c. The staff member exposed the company to a potential lawsuit.
d. The employee should refrain from disclosing confidential information.
Answers to Examination Questions for Practice
Section A: Financial Statement Analysis
1. Correct answer a. Gordon’s common-size gross profit percentage has decreased as a

result of an increasing common-size trend in cost of goods sold as shown below.
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4
Sales 100% 100% 100% 100%

Cost of goods sold (÷ Sales) 60.0% 60.3% 60.7% 60.7%
Gross profit (÷ Sales) 40.0% 39.6% 39.2% 39.2%
2. Correct answer a. Broomall’s working capital is $40,000 calculated as follows.
Current assets – Current liabilities = Net working capital

$10,000 + $20,000 + $8,000 + $30,000 + $12,000 = $80,000 current assets
$15,000 + $25,000 = $40,000 current liabilities
$80,000 - $40,000 = $40,000 net working capital
3. Correct answer b. When merchandise is purchased on credit, accounts receivable

increases and inventory decreases by the same amount so net working capital remains
unchanged.
4. Correct answer c. If $100,000 is used to purchase inventory, the firm’s quick ratio will
decrease. Since inventory is not included in the calculation of current assets for the quick
ratio, current assets will decrease while liabilities remain unchanged.
5. Correct answer d. Grimaldi’s quick ratio at the end of the year is 1.52 as shown below.
(Current assets – Inventory) ÷ Current liabilities = Quick ratio

($62,000 + $35,000 + $47,000) ÷ ($84,000 + $11,000) = 1.52
6. Correct answer c. Davis’ current ratio will be lower than 2.3 times as shown below.
Before purchase: $7,500,000 ÷ X = 2.3

X = $3,260,870
After purchase: ($7,500,000 + $750,000) ÷ ($3,260,870 + $750,000) = 2.05
7. Correct answer d. Markowitz’s current ratio will be reduced as an increase in the

allowance for uncollectible accounts will reduce total current assets while current
liabilities remain unchanged.
8. Correct answer b. Fortune’s net working capital is $45,000 as shown below.
($10,000 + $60,000 + $25,000 +5,000) – ($40,000 + $10,000 + $5,000) = $45,000
9. Correct answer b. To increase its acid test ratio, Gratska should sell auto parts on
account. This transaction will increase accounts receivable and thus the numerator of the
ratio. Inventory is not included in the ratio so the change in inventory will not affect the
ratio.
10. Correct answer c. The purchase will adversely affect the quick ratio by reducing the cash
balance. Since inventory is not included in the quick ratio, the change in inventory will
not offset the reduction in cash.
11. Correct answer d. Boyd’s current ratio is 2.97 as calculated below.
Current assets ÷ Current liabilities = Current ratio

($62,000 + $47,000 + $35,000 + $138,000) ÷ ($84,000 + $11,000) = 2.97
12. Correct answer d. A comparison of current assets with current liabilities gives an
indication of the short-term debt-paying ability of a firm. Both working capital and the
current ratio compare current assets with current liabilities and, therefore, measure credit
worthiness.
13. Correct answer d. The current ratio and the quick ratio both compare current assets with
current liabilities, however, the quick ratio eliminates inventory from current assets as it
may not be readily converted into cash. Therefore, the disparity between the ratios is
caused by the high level of inventory.
14. Correct answer d. The acid test (quick) ratio does not include inventory in the calculation
of current assets and, therefore, measures debt-paying ability without liquidating
inventory.
15. Correct answer b. The purpose of the acid test ratio is to measure debt-paying ability
using highly liquid assets. Items such as prepaid insurance may be excluded as they do
not represent current cash flow.
16. Correct answer d. Dedham’s acid test ratio is 1.05 as shown below.
($10,000 + $20,000 + $12,000) ÷ ($15,000 + $25,000) = 1.05
17. Correct answer b. Because the payment will have a proportionally greater affect on
current liabilities than on current assets, the company’s current ratio will increase.
18. Correct answer a. Sterling is the most highly leveraged corporation because it has the
greatest percentage of debt or financing with a fixed charge, e.g., interest.
19. Correct answer b. Sahara’s degree of financial leverage is 1.36 as shown below.
Degree of financial leverage = EBIT ÷ EBT

= ($1,320,000 + $880,000 + $800,000) ÷ ($1,320,000 + $880,000)
= $3,000,000 ÷ $2,200,000
= 1.36
20. Correct answer c. The degree of operating leverage measures the percent change in EBIT
caused by a percent change in sales. Therefore, a degree of operating leverage of 3
indicates that a 1% change in sales will cause a 3% change in EBIT.
21. Correct answer a. Financial leverage is defined as the use of financing with a fixed
charge such as interest. Firms with a high degree of financial leverage make significant
use of debt and, therefore, have high debt-to-equity ratios.
22. Correct answer a. Financial leverage is defined as the use of financing with a fixed
charge such as interest. Since debt is financing with a fixed charge, the use of debt
increases financial leverage.
23. Correct answer d. Earnings to Mineral’s shareholders will increase by 7.5% as shown below.
Degree of financial leverage = % change in net income ÷ % change in EBIT

1.5 = X ÷ 5%
X = 7.5%
24. Correct answer a. Because of the magnification of financial leverage, a decrease in earnings
before interest and taxes will result in a proportionally larger decrease in earnings per share.
25. Correct answer c. Mica’s debt-to-equity ratio is 32.2% as shown below.
Debt-to-equity ratio = Total debt ÷ Equity

= ($84,000 + $11,000 + $77,000) ÷ ($300,000 + $28,000 + $206,000)
= $172,000 ÷ $534,000
= 32.2%
26. Correct answer c. Since Borglum is seeking a supplier that is stable, it should select
Rockland as this supplier has a relatively low level of financial risk indicated by its
debt/equity ratio and degree of financial leverage, both of which are below the industry
average, and a current ratio that is above the industry average.
27. Correct answer d. The debt-to-total assets ratio indicates the percentage of assets
financed by creditors and helps to determine how well creditors are protected in case of
insolvency. From the perspective of debt-paying ability, the lower this ratio, the better.
28. Correct answer c. Since Easton Bank is seeking the company that is most likely to meet
its loan obligations, the bank should select Astor. Both the degree of financial leverage
and the debt/equity ratio are measures of debt-paying ability; Astor is below the industry
average for both measures, indicating a low level of financial risk.
29. Correct answer a. The company’s debt/equity ratio is .5 to 1 as shown below.
Current liabilities = $640,000 ÷ 3.2

= $200,000
Equity = $990,000 – ($200,000 + $130,000)
= $660,000
Debt/equity ratio = ($130,000 + $200,000) ÷ $660,000
= .5 to 1
30. Correct answer b. The company’s times-interest earned ratio is 1.0. The ratio is
calculated as EBIT ÷ interest expense. Since interest expense is equal to EBIT, the ratio
is 1.0.
31. Correct answer c. Since Marble Savings Bank is seeking the company that is most likely
to meet its loan obligations, the bank should select Nutron. Both the degree of financial
leverage and the debt/equity ratio are measures of debt-paying ability; Nutron is below
the industry average for both measures, indicating a low level of financial risk.
32. Correct answer c. As shown by the data, Strickland’s competitor has a greater degree of
financial leverage and a higher debt/equity ratio. The two measures indicate that the
competitor makes greater use of outside financing than Strickland. Strickland should,
therefore, consider increased outside borrowing to increase flexibility and fund research
and development.
33. Correct answer c. Lowell’s accounts receivable turnover in days is 36.5 as shown below.
Accts receivable turnover (days) = 365 ÷ (Credit sales ÷ Average accounts receivable)
= 365 ÷ [$220,000 ÷ ($20,000 + $24,000) ÷ 2]
= 365 ÷ ($220,000 ÷ $22,000)
= 365 ÷ 10
= 36.5 days
34. Correct answer c. Maydale’s accounts receivable turnover ratio is 10.00 as shown below.
Accts receivable turnover ratio = Credit sales ÷ Average accounts receivable

= $3,600,000 ÷ [($320,000 + $400,000) ÷ 2]
= $3,600,000 ÷ $360,000
= 10.00
35. Correct answer d. Both Zubin’s inventory turnover and accounts receivable turnover ratios
will decrease under these circumstances. The numerator values of these are cost of goods
sold and credit sales, respectively. If these values both decline, the value of both ratios will
decline.
36. Correct answer b. Lampasso’s inventory turnover ratio is 3.5 times as shown below.
Inventory turnover ratio = Cost of goods sold ÷ Average inventory

= $24,500 ÷ [($6,400 + $7,600) ÷ 2]
= $24,500 ÷ $7,000
= 3.5 times
37. Correct answer c. Garland’s inventory turnover ratio is 4.01 as shown below.

= $527,000 ÷ [($125,000 + $138,000) ÷ 2]
= $527,000 ÷ $131,500
= 4.01
38. Correct answer b. Makay’s inventory turnover ratio is 5.0 times as shown below.

= $140,000 ÷ [($30,000 + $26,000) ÷ 2]
= $140,000 ÷ $28,000
= 5.0 times
39. Correct answer c. Globetrade’s current ratio would decrease as a result of the change to
LIFO because the value of ending inventory would be lower thus decreasing the firm’s
current assets. Globetrade’s inventory turnover ratio would increase as a result of the
change to LIFO because the cost of goods sold would increase.
40. Correct answer b. Lancaster’s accounts receivable turnover ratio is 10.15 as shown below.
Accts. receivable turnover = Credit sales ÷ Average accounts receivable

= [$1,700,000 x (1-.06)] ÷ [($168,000 + $147,000) ÷ 2]
= $1,598,000 ÷ $157,500
= 10.15
41. Correct answer d.Cornwall’s days’ sales in accounts receivable is 23 as shown below.
Days’ sales in Accts. Rec. = Average accounts receivable ÷ (Credit sales ÷ 360)
= [($68,000 + $47,000) ÷ 2] ÷ ($900,000 ÷ 360)
= $57,500 ÷ $2,500
= 23 days
42. Correct answer a. Both measures have increased because both sales and cost of goods sold
have increased while average accounts receivable and average inventory have remained the
same.
43. Correct answer c. Caper’s fixed asset turnover is 2.3 times calculated as follows.
Fixed asset turnover = Sales ÷ Average net property, plant, & equipment
= $3,000,000 ÷ $1,300,000
= 2.3 times
44. Correct answer b. The accounts payable turnover is 7.0 times as shown below.
Accounts payable turnover = Credit purchases ÷ Average accounts payable

= $24,500* ÷ [($3,320 + $3,680) ÷ 2]
= $24,500 ÷ $3,500
= 7.0 times
*COGS used as credit purchases
45. Correct answer c. The only measure not affected by the purchase of its own common stock
is Douglas’ net profit margin. Both the debt/equity ratio and the earnings per share are
affected by the number of outstanding shares of common stock while the current ratio is
affected by the amount of cash held.
46. Correct answer a. Beechwood’s return on shareholders’ equity is 19.2% as shown below.
ROE = Net income ÷ Average equity

= $96,000 ÷ [($300,000 + $12,000 + $155,000 + $300,000 +$28,000 + $206,000) ÷ 2]
= $96,000 ÷ $496,000
= 19.2%
47. Correct answer b. Moreland’s total asset turnover is 1.37 as calculated below.
Total asset turnover = Sales ÷ Average total assets

= $900,000 ÷ [($48,000 + $68,000 + $125,000 + $325,000 + $62,000
+ $35,000 + $47,000 + $138,000 + $424,000) ÷ 2]
= $900,000 ÷ $657,000
= 1.37
48. Correct answer b. Interstate’s additional investment in operating assets will increase the total
value of the firm’s net property, plant, and equipment and will, therefore, decrease the operating
asset turnover and the return on operating assets. The firm’s operating income margin will be
unaffected by this investment.
49. Correct answer b. If Colonie increases its inventory turnover, the value of inventory will likely
be lower which will lower the firm’s total assets. Decreasing the use of equity financing will
stabilize (or reduce) the amount of equity outstanding. Both lower total assets and lower total
equity would result in an increase in Colonie’s return on equity.
50. Correct answer a. Merit’s book value per share is $1.88 as calculated below.
Book value per share = (Total equity – Preferred equity) ÷ Common shares outstanding
= ($26, 433,841* - $3,554,405) ÷ 12,195,799
= $22,879,436 ÷ 12,195,799
= $1.88
*$24,209,306 + $2,861,003 - $223,551 - $412,917
51. Correct answer b. Because a stock dividend increases the number of common shares
outstanding, Donovan’s book value per common share will decrease.
52. Correct answer c. Because the market price per share has increased while earnings per share
remained the same, Arnold’s price/earnings ratio has increased showing a positive trend in
growth opportunities in Year 2.
53. Correct answer c. The estimated per share value of Clark’s common stock is $15.00 as
calculated below.
Estimated value per share = (Net income ÷ Shares outstanding) x Price/earnings ratio
= ($3,750,000 ÷ 3,000,000) x 12
= $15.00
54. Correct answer b. The value per share of Kell’s common stock is $16.50 as shown below.
Market to book ratio = Current price ÷ Book value per share

1.5 = X ÷ [($3,000,000 + $24,000,000 + $6,000,000) ÷ 3,000,000]
1.5X = $11.00
X = $16.50
55. Correct answer a.
Beg. Balance 100,000 x 3/12 x 1.1 27,500
April 1st 110,000 x 3/12 x 1.1 30,250
July 1st 121,000 x 3/12 30,250
October 1st 116,000 x 3/12 29,000
117,000
56. Correct answer c. ABC’s earnings per share is $4.38 as shown below.
Weighted average shares 1,060,000 x 5/12 441,667

1,120,000 x 7/12 653,333
1,095,000
Earnings per share = (Net income – Preferred dividends) ÷ Weighted average shares
= [$5,300,000 – (10% x $100 x 50,000)] ÷ 1,095,000
= $4,800,000 ÷ 1,095,000
= $4.38
57. Correct answer c. Devlin’s price/earnings ratio is 7.08 as shown below.
Price/earnings ratio = Market price per share ÷ Earnings per share

= $34 ÷ $4.80
= 7.08
58. Correct answer b. Appleseed’s price/earnings ration is 9.09 as shown below.
Earnings per share = (Net income – Preferred dividends) ÷ Common shares outstanding
= [$588,000 – ($6 x 10,000)] ÷ 120,000
= $528,000 ÷ 120,000
= $4.40
Price/earnings ratio = Market price per share ÷ Earnings per share
= $40 ÷ $4.40
= 9.09
59. Correct answer d. Archer’s stock is undervalued by approximately 25% as calculated below.
Estimated market value = Industry average P/E ratio x Archer earnings per share
= 14.00 x $3.20
= $44.80
Archer market difference = $44.80 - $36.00
= $8.80
Percentage difference = $8.80 ÷ $36.00
= 24.4%
60. Correct answer a. The price/earnings (P/E) ratio expresses the relationship between the market
price of a stock and the stock’s earnings per share. A steady drop in a firm’s P/E ratio could,
therefore, indicate that earnings per share has been increasing while the market price of the stock
has held steady.
61. Correct answer c. Collins earnings per share is $2.90 as shown below.
= ($350,000 - $60,000*) ÷ 100,000
= $2.90
*Preferred dividends = ($100 x .06) x 10,000 = $60,000
62. Correct answer c. When the common shares outstanding increase as the result of a stock
dividend or a stock split, retroactive recognition must be given to these events for all
comparative earnings per share presentations. Therefore, Ray Company would 1,000,000 shares
for computing earnings per share.
63. Correct answer b. Esther’s earnings per share was $8.06 as shown below.
Weighted average shares Shares Months Weighted Average

10,000 5/12 4,170
12,000 7/12 6,996
11,166
Preferred dividends = ($100 x .06) x 5,000
= $30,000
= ($120,000 - $30,000) ÷ 11,166
= $8.06
64. Correct answer b. Ray Company’s weighted average number of shares for calculating earnings
per share is 137,500 calculated as follows.
Weighted average shares Shares Months Weighted Average

120,000 2/12 20,000
108,000 3/12 27,000
138,000 5/12 57,500
198,000 2/12 33,000
137,500
65. Correct answer a. Dyle’s yield on common stock is 11.11% as shown below.
Dividend yield = Dividends per common share ÷ Market price per common share
= ($700,000 ÷ 350,000) ÷ $18
= 11.11%
66. Correct answer c. Oakland’s dividend yield was 2.00% calculated as follows.
= (4 x $.20) ÷ $40.00
= 2.00%
67. Correct answer c. Dividend yield indicates the relationship between the dividends per common
share and the market price per common share and is calculated by dividing the dividends by the
market price.
68. Correct answer d. Mayson’s dividend yield was 3.33% as shown below.
= $1 ÷ $30
= 3.33%
69. Correct answer d. Arnold’s dividend yield has declined when compared to Year 1.
Year 1 = $1 ÷ $50 = 2.00%
Year 2 = $1 ÷ $60 = 1.67%
70. Correct answer a. A firm’s functional should be the currency of the primary economic
environment in which the firm operates and should be selected on the basis of several economic
factors including cash flow, sales price, and financing indicators.
71. Correct answer d. A firm’s functional should be the currency of the primary economic
environment in which the firm operates and should be selected on the basis of several economic
factors including cash flow, sales price, and financing indicators.
72. Correct answer b. Assets acquired for cash, with financing leases, or with a line of credit must
all be presented on a firm’s balance sheet while assets acquired with operating leases are not
included on the balance sheet (e.g., off-balance-sheet financing).
73. Correct answer d. Economic profit is defined as revenue minus all explicit and implicit
costs. The implicit costs are generally referred to as opportunity costs.
74. Correct answer c. Economic profit is defined as revenue minus all explicit and implicit costs.
The implicit costs are generally referred to as opportunity costs.
75. Correct answer d. Economic profit is defined as revenue minus all explicit and implicit
costs. The implicit costs are generally referred to as opportunity costs.
76. Correct answer d. The economic cost of Williams’ MBA studies is $60,000.
Opportunity cost of quitting job $35,000

Explicit cost of studies 25,000
Economic cost $60,000
77. Correct answer b. Lark’s economic profit was ($25,000) as shown below.
Economic profit = (Net income + interest) – (Debt + Equity Opportunity Cost)

= ($350,000 + $100,000) – [($1,000,000 x .1) + ($2,500,000 x .15)]
= $450,000 - $475,000
= ($25,000)
Section B: Corporate Finance
78. Correct answer b. Systematic risk is the variability of return on stocks or portfolios
associated with changes in return on the market as a whole and is measured by the covariance
between the security’s return and the general market.
79. Correct answer a. Interest rate risk is the variation in the market price of a bond caused by
changes in interest rates. The longer the maturity (duration) of the bond, the greater the price
fluctuation associated with the given change in market required return.
80. Correct answer c. The expected current value of Frasier’s common stock in $20 as shown below.
Dividend = Payout ratio x Earnings per share

= .35 x $4.00
= $1.40
Required return = Risk-free rate + Beta (Market rate – Risk-free rate)
= .07 + 1.25 (.15 - .07)
= .17
Value of stock = Dividend ÷ (Required return – Dividend growth rate)
= $1.40 ÷ (.17 - .10)
= $20.00
81. Correct answer d. Beta is an index of systematic risk and measures the sensitivity of a
stock’s returns to changes in returns on the market portfolio. A firm’s beta is determined by
the risk characteristics of the firm. Of the options given, the payout ratio has the least impact
on the firm’s riskiness and therefore its beta value.
82. Correct answer c. If a firm has a beta value of 1.0, the stock has the same systematic risk as
the market as a whole and should rise and fall with the market.
83. Correct answer b. A futures contract provides for delivery of a commodity at a specified
price on a stipulated future date. If the price of wheat is expected to rise, the contract
protects future cash flow.
84. Correct answer a. A call provision is a feature in an indenture that permits the issuer to
repurchase securities at a fixed price before maturity.
85. Correct answer d. Protective clauses or restrictions in bond indentures and loan agreements
are known as covenants and can include items such as working capital requirements and
capital expenditure limitations.
86. Correct answer a. Protective clauses or restrictions in bond indentures and loan agreements
are known as covenants and can include items such as working capital requirements and
capital expenditure limitations.
87. Correct answer d. All of the restrictions listed are likely to be included as protective
covenants in the indenture.
88. Correct answer c. The longer the maturity (duration) of the bond, the greater the price
fluctuation associated with a given change in market required return.
89. Correct answer d. A firm would be inclined to issue debt rather than equity when the
effective tax rate is high as the interest expense associated with debt reduces income and
therefore reduces tax expense.
90. Correct answer a. A bond is a long-term debt instrument with a final maturity generally
being 10 years or more. If the security has a final maturity shorter than 10 years, it is
generally called a note.
91. Correct answer c. The post split price of the stock should be greater that $40.00 if the
dividend changed to $.55 as the dividend yield will have increased.
92. Correct answer c. The record date, set when a dividend is declared, is the date on which an
investor must be a shareholder in order to be entitled to receive the upcoming dividend.
93. Correct answer c. Refunding is replacing an old debt issue with a new one, usually to lower
interest cost. Therefore, refunding is not a method for retiring preferred stock.
94. Correct answer c. Unlike interest expense, dividends are not tax deductible to the issuer.
95. Correct answer c. A disadvantage of preferred stock to the issuer is that it generally sells on
a higher yield basis than bonds.
96. Correct answer c. If a firm pays off its only outstanding debt, the cost of capital is likely to
increase because the cost of equity is greater than the cost of debt. If the Treasury Bond
yield increases, the overall required rate of return will likely increase causing an increase in
the cost of capital.
97. Correct answer d. Stability’s cost of capital is 12.80% as calculated below.
Long-term debt $10,000,000 40% x 8% 3.20%

Common stock 10,000,000 40% x 15% 6.00%
Retained earnings 5,000,000 20% x 18% 3.60%
$25,000,000 12.80%
98. Correct answer a. Kielly’s cost of capital is 12.22% as shown below.
Debt 30% x [11% (1 - .4)] 1.98%

Preferred stock 24% x 12% 2.88%
Equity 46% x 16% 7.36%
12.22%
99. Correct answer b. Albion’s cost of capital is 13.1% as calculated below.
Capital Market Proportion of Market Return Weighted

Value Total Cost
(‘000) Financing
Long-term debt (30,000 bonds x $32,500 26% [.08 x (1 - .4)] = 1.25%
$1,083.34) .048
Preferred stock (100,000 shares 12,500 10% 1,200(dividend)/ 0.96%
x $125) 12,500 (market
value) = .096
Common stock (5,000,000 80,000 64% .17 10.88%
shares x $16)
125,000 100% 13.09%
100. Correct answer c. Thomas’ cost of capital is 10.95% as shown below.
Long-term debt [.08 x (1 - .4)] x .30 1.44%

Preferred stock .11 x .25 2.75%
Common stock .15 x .45 6.75%
10.94%
101. Correct answer d. If Joint Products exchanges debt for equity, the firm’s cost of capital is
likely to increase as the cost equity is greater than the cost of debt due to the tax deductibility
of interest expense.
102. Correct answer d. Cox’s cost of preferred stock capital is 9.20% as shown below.
Cost of preferred stock = Stated annual dividend ÷ Market price – cost of issue
= $8 ÷ ($92 - $5)
= 9.20%
103. Correct answer a. Since common stock equity is the sum total of common stock at par,
additional paid-in capital, and retained earnings, the appropriate cost retained earnings is the
cost of common stock.
104. Correct answer c. The cost of capital for Hatch’s retained earnings is equal to the required
rate of return on the company’s common stock or 18.08% as calculated below using the
constant growth model.
Required rate of return = (Dividend next period ÷ Value) + Growth rate

= [($3 x 1.09) ÷ $36] + .09
= .0908 + .09
= 18.08%
105. Correct answer c. The cost of capital for OFC’s retained earnings is equal to the required
rate of return on the company’s common stock or 15.8% as shown below.
Required rate of return = (Dividend next period ÷ Value) + Growth rate

= [($2 x 1.10) ÷ $35] + .10
= 15.8%
106. Correct answer b. Angela’s long-term debt is 45% of its capital structure as shown below.
Cost of debt = .08 x (1 - .4)

= .048
WACC .15X + .048 (1-X) = .1041
.102X = .0561
Preferred equity X = .55
Debt 1–X = .45
107. Correct answer c. An increase in the return on marketable securities would cause a
decrease in the optimal cash balance. The higher the denominator value, the lower the
resulting solution.
108. Correct answer c. The reasons for holding cash do not include the motive to make a profit
while the other three options are appropriate reasons for holding cash.
109. Correct answer d. A lock-box system is used for managing cash inflows rather than cash
outflows.
110. Correct answer d. Powell would need to reduce its average collection time by 1.5 days in
order to justify the use of the lockbox as shown below.
Daily collections: 300 x $2,500 = $750,000

Daily interest: $750,000 x .08 = $60,000
Reduction in days: $90,000 ÷ $60,000 = 1.5 days
111. Correct answer a.
Opening balance: $2,000,000

January +2,000,000 = $4,000,000 x .04 = +160,000
February +1,000,000 = $5,000,000 x .04 = +200,000
March -5,000,000 = 0
April -3,000,000 = $3,000,000 x .08 = -240,000
May -2,000,000 = $5,000,000 x .08 = -400,000
June +6,000,000 = $1,000,000 x .04 = + 40,000
-240,000 ÷ 12 = 20,000
112. Correct answer b.

Savings from trade discount = 1% x $25,000 x 24 = $6,000
Interest to bank = 10% x $24,750 / 12 x 24 = $4,950
Net savings = $6,000 – $4,950 = $1,050
113. Correct answer d. Rolling Stone should use of the methods presented except the use of drafts
as shown below.
Lockbox cost: $25 x 170 = $4,250

Savings $5,240 - $4,250 = $990
Drafts cost: 4,000 x $2 = $8,000
Loss $6,500 - $8,000 = $(1,500)
Bank Float: $1,000,000 x .02 = $20,000
Savings $22,000 - $20,000 = $2,000
Electronic Trans. 700 x $18 = $12,600
Savings $14,000 - $12,600 = $1,400
114. Correct answer a. In order to justify the cost of a wire transfer, the transfer amount should be
at least $21,000 as shown below.
Transfer amount .09A x (2 ÷ 360) = $10.50

.09A = $1,890
A = $21,000
115. Correct answer b. The use of a zero balance account can reduce all of the options presented
except the disbursement float. Disbursement float refers to the period between the payment of
an invoice and the clearing of the payment through the company’s bank. This time period is
unaffected by the use of a zero balance account.
116. Correct answer d. Typically, municipal bonds are tailored for the long-term investor while T-
bills, money market funds, and commercial paper are primarily used for short-term investing.
117. Correct answer d. Treasury bills are direct obligations of the U.S. government (no default
risk), sold at discount (carry no coupon rate), and are redeemed at full face value at maturity.
The interest income on these securities is taxed at the federal level but is exempt from state and
local taxes.
118. Correct answer b. At 12%, the bank borrowing represents the lowest cost of funds as shown
below.
Trade discount: (.02 ÷ .98) x (360 ÷ 60) = 12.24%

Commercial paper: $9.1 - $8.8 = $.3
($.3 ÷ $9.1) x 4 = 13.1%
119. Correct answer a. $2,000 x 20% + $400,000 / 360 = 1,111.11 x 45 = $50,000.
120. Correct answer c. Because Northville’s change in credit terms will most likely shorten the
cash conversion cycle, it is least likely that the company will need to increase short-term
borrowing.
121. Correct answer a. Snug-fit’s return on the incremental sales would be 34.0% as shown below.
Estimated bad debt loss = $80,000 x .06

= $4,800
Gross profit = $80,000 x .4
= $32,000
Return on sales = ($32,000 - $4,800) ÷ $80,000
= 34.0%
122. Correct answer d. A credit manager would be most interested in liquidity ratios as these
measure a firm’s ability to convert assets to cash and thereby pay financial obligations.
123. Correct answer b. Foster should implement Plan B as this plan results in the highest gross
profit as shown below.
Plan B: = Gross profit – Bad debt/Collection costs – Incremental cost of capital

= ($250,000 x .2) – ($3,000 + $2,000) – [($90,000 - $60,000) x .15]
= $50,000 - $5,000 - $4,500
= $40,500
Results for other plans: Plan A $30,000; Plan C $40,000; Plan D $36,500
124. Correct answer c. A company should consider liberalizing its credit policy if it has a low cost
of borrowing and the opportunity for repeat sales. Steady customers would be attracted by a
liberal credit policy and if the company needs to borrow funds because of slower than expected
payments, the cost would not be too high. Factors I and IV have no relationship to credit
policy.
125. Correct answer c. Computer Services would need to know the cost of the investment in
additional receivables or the opportunity cost of funds.
126. Correct answer b. $13,000 x 20% = $2,600 CM
Less (2,000 + 2,300) x 10% = 430
Less 125
Less 125
1,920
Options a,b,c produce lower amounts, as follows: $1,850, $1,650, $1,300.
127. Correct answer a. The cost of not taking the trade discount (20.98%) is greater that the 12%
cost of borrowing so Global should pay within the first 10 days.
Trade discount = (.02 ÷ .98) x (360 ÷ 35) = 20.98%
128. Correct answer b. Locar’s average collection period was 26.7 days as shown below.
Average collection period = (Receivables x Annual days) ÷ Credit sales

= ($1,380,000 x 360) ÷ $18,600,000
= 26.7 days
129. Correct answer d. Atlantic should collect $25,000 of receivables, purchase $10,000 of
inventory and reduce current liabilities by $15,000. This is the only option that reduces short-
term debt and thus lowers the cost of debt while satisfying the loan covenant.
130. Correct answer c. Storage costs, insurance, and opportunity cost of funds invested in inventory
are all costs of carrying inventory while shipping costs are related to sales of inventory.
131. Correct answer d. The total cost that Valley will incur is $12,100 as shown below.
Ordering cost 8 x $200 $ 1,600

Carrying average inventory (50 ÷ 2) x $100 2,500
Lost discounts (400 x $500) x .04 8,000
$12,100
132. Correct answer c. The carrying cost per unit is $120 as shown below.
Carrying cost = ($400 + $20) x 25% + $15

= $120
133. Correct answer d. The carrying cost of inventory is $8,160 as shown below.
Carrying cost = [2,400 + (2,000 ÷ 2)] x ($12 x .20)

= $8,160
134. Correct answer d. If new competition opens in the company’s market area, the company’s
sales are likely to decline and safety stock cannot protect against this event.
135. Correct answer c. If ordering costs increase, the EOQ model would increase the order
quantity. If the carrying cost increased, the EOQ model would decrease the order quantity.
Purchase price and safety stock do not affect the EOQ model.
136. Correct answer d. Quantity discounts are not explicitly considered in the EOQ model as
purchase price does not affect the model.
137. Correct answer d. The EOQ model assumes that order delivery times are consistent and that
lead times do not vary. The other statements about EOQ are false.
138. Correct answer d. A decrease in carrying costs would result in an increase in the EOQ as it
would be less costly to store units. A decrease in sales or ordering costs would decrease EOQ
while the EOQ is unaffected by safety stock.
139. Correct answer b. Burke will pay the bank $52,500 as shown below.
4/1 4/30 5/31 6/30

Balance $2 mil. $4 mil. ($3 mil.) $4 mil.
2 mths. unused credit line 2 x ($5,000,000 x .0025) $25,000

1 mth. $3 mil. borrowed $3,000,000 x (.09 ÷ 12) 22,500
1 mth. $2 mil. unused $2,000,000 x .0025 5,000
$52,500
140. Correct answer d. Ideally, permanent assets are financed with long-term debt of matching
maturities. The greater the portion of assets financed by short-term debt, the greater the risk
that the firm will not be able to meet these obligations.
141. Correct answer a. Texas Corporation should purchase the 90-day investment as it has the
highest annual yield as shown below.
90-day: $80,000 x .95 = $76,000; ($80,000 - $76,000) ÷ $76,000 = .05 x 4 = 20%

180-day: $75,000 x .94 = $70,500; ($75,000 - $70,500) ÷ $70,500 = .06 x 2 = 12%
270-day: $100,000 x .95= $95,000; $5,000 ÷ $95,000 = (.05 ÷ 3) x 4 = 7%
360-day: $60,000 x .90 = $54,000; $6,000 ÷ $54,000 = .11 x 1 = 11%
142. Correct answer d. The firm should seek an unsecured short-term loan to finance additional
capital needs during the busy season. A transaction loan is generally for one specific purpose
like completing a specific contract while term and installment loans are generally one year or
greater.
143. Correct answer d. A commercial bank would likely be able to provide its customers with all of
these financing vehicles.
144. Correct answer b.
Cost of commercial paper financing: $12,000,000 x 3/12 x 7% = $210,000 expense

July investment: $4,000,000 x 4% / 12 = $13,333 income.
No investment in August
September: $2,000,000 x 4% / 12 = $6,667 income. Net cost: $210,000 - $13,333 - $6.667 =
$190,000
Line of credit financing: July $8,000,000 x 8% / 12 = $53,333

Aug 12,000,000 x 8% / 12 = 80,000
Sep 10,000,000 x 8.5% / 12 = 78,833
Total $204,166
$204,166 - $190,000 = $14,166 advantage to commercial paper
145. Correct answer b. The cost of foregoing the trade discount is 18.4% as shown below.
Trade discount = (.02 ÷ .98) x (360 ÷ 40)

= 18.4%
146. Correct answer d. The effective annual interest rate cost is 13.9% as shown below.
Effective interest rate = (.03 ÷ .97) x (360 ÷ 80)

= 13.9%
147. Correct answer d. The effective interest rate to the borrower is 13.64% as shown below.
Effective interest rate = .12 ÷ (1 - .12)

= 13.64%
148. Correct answer d. The face value of the note should be $329,670 as shown below.
Effective interest rate = .09 ÷ .91

= .0989
Face value of note = $300,000 x 1.0989
= $329,670
149. Correct answer c. Keller would need to borrow $176,471 as shown below.
Interest rate = ($150,000 x .08) ÷ [$150,000 – ($150,000 x .15)]

= $12,000 ÷ $127,500
= .0943875
Funds required = $150,000 + [($150,000 x .15) ÷ 2]
= $161,250 x 1.0943875
= $176,471
150. Correct answer b. The compensating balance required is $3,000,000 as shown below.
Effective interest rate = ($100,000,000 x .10) ÷ X = 10.31

X = $97,000,000
Compensating balance = $100,000,000 - $97,000,000
= $3,000,000
151. Correct answer c. The effective interest rate is 8.75% as shown below.
Effective interest rate = ($100,000 x .07) ÷ [$100,000 – ($100,000 x .20)]

= $7,000 ÷ $80,000
= 8.75%
152. Correct answer b. The compensating balance required is $2,440,000 as shown below.
Effective interest rate = ($100,000,000 x .10) ÷ X = 10.25

X = $97,560,000
Compensating balance = $100,000,000 - $97,560,000
= $2,440,000
153. Correct answer b. Frame will pay $1,131,250 as shown below.
Interest = ($10,000,000 x .02) + ($20,000,000 x .04) + ($5,000,000 x .02)

= $1,100,000
Fees = [$10,000,000 x (.005 ÷ 12 x 3)] + [$15,000,000 x (.005 ÷ 12 x 3)]
= $31,250
Total = $1,100,000 + $31,250
= $1,131,250
154. Correct answer c. The effective interest rate is 8.42% as shown below.
Effective interest rate = ($100,000,000 x .08) ÷ ($100,000,000 - $5,000,000)

= $8,000 ÷ $95,000,000
= 8.42%
155. Correct answer d. The residual theory of dividends treats dividends as strictly a financing
decision with the payment of cash dividends determined solely by the availability of acceptable
investment proposals.
156. Correct answer b. Mason should invest in all projects that have an IRR greater than the cost of
capital. In this case, that means A + B + C = $200k + $350k + $570k = $1,120,000. This will
be financed 40% debt and 60% equity, or $1,120,000 x 60% = $672,000 equity. Since the $1
million is available internally, $1,000,000 – $672,000 = $328,000 will not be need for projects,
$328,000 can be paid as dividends under the residual dividend policy.
157. Correct answer d. The liquidity of a company is a prime consideration in dividend decisions
because dividends represent a cash outflow. A growing company may be profitable but not
liquid or a company may wish a liquidity cushion to provide flexibility.
158. Correct answer b. After a stock-split, a company rarely maintains the same per share dividend
but usually reduces to half or slightly about half. Therefore, total dividend payouts remain
approximately the same.
159. Correct answer a. The company will pay $12,000 in common stock dividends on the 20,000
shares outstanding (25,000 issued – 5,000 treasury stock) at $.60 per share.
160. Correct answer a. If the U.S. inflation rate declines relative to the Swiss inflation rate, the U.S.
dollar will purchase a greater number of Swiss francs resulting in the depreciation of the Swiss
franc.
161. Correct answer c. If the U.S. dollar appreciates against the British pound, it will take fewer
dollars to purchase British goods thus increasing the demand for these products.
162. Correct answer c. If Country A has more exports than imports, its demand for foreign currency
will diminish resulting in the appreciation of A’s currency.
163. Correct answer d. If R’s real interest rates are lower than the real interest rates in T, there will
be lower demand for R currency investments resulting in the depreciation of R’s currency
relative to T’s currency.
Section C: Decision Analysis
164. Correct answer c. Garner could incur up to $270,000 of expense and still break even due to
savings of $270,000 as shown below.
Interest expense avoided = (3 x $1,500,000) x [(.07 ÷ 12) x 8]

= $4,500,000 x .046666
= $210,000
Additional income earned = (3 x $1,500,000) x [(.04 ÷ 12) x 4]
= $4,500,000 x .013333
= $60,000
Total savings = $210,000 + $60,000
= $270,000
165. Correct answer c. Bolger’s breakeven point would increase by 375 units as shown below.
Current breakeven point: ($300 - $210)X = $360,000

$90 X = $360,000
X = 4,000 units
Future breakeven point: ($300 - $220)X = $350,000
$80X = $350,000
X = 4,375 units
Difference 4,375 – 4,000 = 375 units
166. Correct answer b. Phillips breakeven volume is 82,500 units, and the company’s anticipated
operating income is $9,250,000 as calculated below.
Breakeven point: ($160 - $60) X = ($55 x 150,000)

$100X = $8,250,000
X = 82,500 units
Operating income = [($160 - $60) x 175,000] - $8,250,000
= $9,250,000
167. Correct answer c. Cost-volume-profit analysis assumes that variable costs do not change with
a change in volume; therefore, option C is the correct response. All other assumptions
presented are correct.
168. Correct answer b. At the breakeven point, Ace would sell 9,231 units of Product C based on a
sales mix of 80% Product C.
Breakeven point: 80% C contribution + 20% F contribution = Fixed costs

[(.8 x $2) + (.2 x $5)] x A = $30,000
$2.60A = $30,000
A = 22,538.46
Product C breakeven point: 11,538.46 x 80% = 9,231 units
169. Correct answer c. 12 x 3,500 = 42,000 .28

20 x 3,000 = 60,000 .40
12 x 4,000 = 48,000 .32
150,000
.28 x (18-3) = 4.2

.40 x (15-1) = 5.6
.32 x (20-0) = 6.4
16.2 weighted CM
Fixed: 165,000 + 249,000 + 316,000 + 565,000 = 1,295,000 / 16.2 = 79,938

170. Correct answer d. In order to achieve a net income of $1.3 million, Carson will need to sell
90,000 units as shown below.
$100x - $75x - $250,000 = $1,300,000 ÷ (1 - .35)

$25x - $250,000 = $2,000,000
$25x = $2,250,000
x = 90,000 units
171. Correct answer b. Metal Craft would need to sell 54,300 Model No. 153 socket sets in order to
generate $161,200 in operating income based on the following calculation.
Sales mix: Model 109: 20%; Model 145: 50%; Model 153: 30%
Breakeven: (.2 x $10 - $5.50)A + (.5 x $15 - $8)A + (.3 x $20 - $14)A = $161,200
$.90A + $3.50A + $1.80A = $1,122,200
$6.20A = $1,122,200
A = 181,000 sets
Model 153 breakeven: 181,000 sets x 30% = 54,300 sets
172. Correct answer d. The total attendance for “Mr. Wonderful” would need to be 31,000 to
product an after-tax contribution of $210,000 as shown below.
($18 - $3)A - $165,000 = $210,000 ÷ (1 - .3)

$15 A = $465,000
A = 31,000
173. Correct answer d. Robin Company’s required sales would be $1,200,000 as shown below.
(1 – tax rate) x (Contribution – Fixed costs) = Return on sales

(1 - .4) x (.30A - $240,000) = .06A
.12A = $144,000
A = $1,200,000
174. Correct answer c. Selling price: $45

Variable cost = 37% (2% + 25% + 10%)
Contribution margin % = 63%
Contribution margin $ = 45 x 63% = $28.35
28.35X – 104,720* = .2 x 45X

28.35X = 9X + 104,720
19.35X = 104,720
X = 5,412
* FIXED: 35,000 + 18,500 + 9,320 + 7,500 + 4,400 + 30,000 = 104,720

175. Correct answer b. To earn an 8% after-tax return on the $300,000 investment, Zipper
Company would require sales totaling $914,286 as shown below.
Contribution – Fixed costs = 8% of investment ÷ (1 – tax rate)

.7A - $600,000 = (.08 x $300,000) ÷ ( 1 - .4)
.7A - $600,000 = $24,000 ÷ .6
.7A = $600,000 + $40,000
A = $914,286
176. Correct answer b. Breakeven quantity can be defined as the point where operating income is
equal to zero. Therefore, revenue must equal total costs.
177. Correct answer b. To maximize contribution, Eagle Brand should produce 250 units of
Product X at $20 contribution per unit for a total of $5,000. Option D provides a higher
contribution but Eagle does not have enough raw material to produce all these units.
178. Correct answer b. Silverstone’s profits this will be $80,000 as shown below.
Contribution margin = 1 – ($270,000 ÷ $450,000)

= 40%
Profit = (.4 x $500,000) - $120,000
= $80,000
179. Correct answer c. Breeze’s operating profit would increase by $1,000. Operating profit equals
contribution minus fixed costs. If contribution increases while fixed costs remain the same,
operating profit will increase by the same amount.
180. Correct answer a. Wilkinson’s income would be $30,500 as shown below.
Income = (Contribution margin x selling price x units) – Fixed costs

= (.45 x $30 x 3,000) - $10,000
= $30,500
181. Correct answer b. The maximum contribution margin that Cervine can generate is $689,992 as
shown below.
Contribution Product A = $100 - $53 - $10 = $37

Contribution Product B = $80 - $45 - $11 = $24
Hours Product A = 10,000 units x 2 hours = 20,000 hours
Units Product B = (40,000 hrs. – 20,000 hrs.) ÷ 1.5 = 13,000 units
Contribution = ($37 x 10,000) + ($24 x 13,333) = $689,992
182. Correct answer c. Specialty Cakes will break even by producing 4,947 round cakes and 14,842
heart-shaped cakes as shown below.
Breakeven: (.25 x $4A) + (.75 x $5A) = $94,000

$4.75A = $94,000
A = 19,789 units
Round cakes: .25 x 19,789 = 4,947
Heart-shaped cakes: .75 x 19,789 = 14,842
183. Correct answer a. If the change is implemented, Lazar’s total contribution margin would
increase by $125,000 as shown below.
Decrease in direct material: .5 x $5 = $2.50

Increase in variable overhead: ($3 ÷ 2 hrs.) x 3.5 hrs. - $3 = $2.25
Reduction in cost: $2.50 - $2.25 = $.25
Increase in contribution: $.25 x 500,000 units = $125,000
184. Correct answer c. If Ticker’s sales mix shifts toward Product A, operating income will
decrease of the number of units sold remains constant. Since A’s contribution margin is lower
than Product B’s, there will be less contribution toward covering fixed costs resulting in lower
operating income.
185. Correct answer b. The maximum contribution that Lazar can generate is $2,000,000 by
producing 250,000 trunks. Since the contribution margin for trunks ($8) is more than twice the
contribution margin for crates ($3), the fact that trunks utilizes twice the machine hours is
negated.
186. Correct answer d. The opportunity cost is Johnson’s best alternative use of both the $200 and
the two hours. Opportunity cost is the contribution foregone by not using a limited resource in
its next best alternative use.
187. Correct answer c. The benefits sacrificed by selecting an alternative use of resources is
opportunity cost. Opportunity cost is the contribution foregone by not using a limited resource
in its next best alternative use.
188. Correct answer d. Relevant costs and relevant revenues are those costs and revenues expected
in the future that differ among alternative courses of action being considered. These are the
items that affect decision making.
189. Correct answer a. A sunk cost is a past cost that cannot be changed no matter what action is
taken. Therefore, joint costs incurred prior to a decision would be considered sunk.
190. Correct answer d. Since Blaze is uncertain what the sales of the new product will be and his
risk tolerance is low, he should choose to pay 30% of his revenue to the mall management. As
a consequence, his expenses will match his revenues and the project risk will be low.
191. Correct answer d. Benefits lost by choosing one alternative over another are referred to as
opportunity costs.
192. Correct answer d. The cost of the crane to move materials would most likely be treated as a
sunk cost in differential cost analysis as this cost is not likely to differ among alternatives.
193. Correct answer c. The relevant unit cost to manufacture the ice-makers is $30 each for a total
relevant cost of $600,000. Under either alternative, there would be $4 per unit of fixed cost
remaining, therefore, this $4 becomes irrelevant to the decision and can be deducted from the
total unit cost of $34 leaving $30 of relevant cost.
194. Correct answer c. Plan Z is the most profitable ($28,000), Plan X is next ($24,000) with Plan
Y the least profitable ($20,400).
Plan Z: ($32 - $30) x 14,000 = $28,000

Plan X: [$36 - $3 – ($36 x .1)] x 10,000 = $24,000
Plan Y: [$38 - $30 – ($38 x .1)] x 12,000 = A + $30,000
$50,400 = A + $30,000
A = $20,400
195. Correct answer b. Auburn’s average total cost at an output level of three units is $850 as
shown below.
Average total cost = ($2,000 ÷ 3) + ($550 ÷ 3)

= $850
196. Correct answer a. Kelso’s average total cost at an output level of 11 units is $113.64 as shown
below.
Average total cost = ($1,000 ÷ 11) + ($250 ÷ 11)

= $113.64
197. Correct answer b. Harper’s short-run marginal cost is $130 per unit as calculated below.
Marginal cost = ($3,325,000 - $3,000,000) ÷ (22,500 – 20,000)

= $130
198. Correct answer b. Auburn’s marginal cost for the 7th unit is $210 as shown below.
Marginal cost = $1,250 - $1,040

= $210
199. Correct answer a. Kelso’s marginal cost for the 12th unit is $180 as shown below.
Marginal cost = $480 - $300

= $180
200. Correct answer a. If the total cost is $800 and average variable cost is $5 per unit, the average
fixed cost is $3 per unit.
($5 x 100 units) + (A x 100 units) = $800

100A = $300
A = $3
201. Correct answer b. Crawford’s marginal cost of the 23rd unit is $40 as shown below.
Marginal cost = $1,330 - $1,290

= $40
202. Correct answer c. The level that would produce the highest operating income for Parker is 14
units as shown below.
8 units: 8($100,000 - $50,000) - $400,000 = 0

10 units: 10($100,000 - $50,000) - $400,000 = $100,000
14 units: 14($100,000 - $45,000) - $600,000 = $170,000
17 units: 17($100,000 - $45,000) - $800,000 = $135,000
203. Correct answer c. If Johnson accepted the special order, the company’s operating income
would increase by $37,500 as shown below.
Special order price $2.50

Less variable cost* 5.00
Contribution margin $2.50
Contribution to operating income: 15,000 x $2.50 = $37,500
*Fixed costs and selling costs are not relevant
204. Correct answer c. If the Robo Division submits a bid for $8,000,000, the division will lose
$500,000 but GMT will gain $1,700,000 as the transfer price is nor relevant to GMT.
Robo Division: $8,000,000 - $3,700,000 - $4,800,000 = ($500,000)

GMT Industries: $8,000,000 - $1,500,000 - $4,800,000 = $1,700,000
205. Correct answer b. BCC should submit a bid of $772 per unit as this price covers all
incremental costs.
Material $500
Direct labor 240 ($20 x 12)
Variable overhead 24 ($2 x 12)
Administrative costs 8
Bid price $772
206. Correct answer d. When making a special order decision, Bedford would need to cover
incremental costs which include variable costs of the product (I) and direct fixed costs of the
order (III). In addition, Bedford should consider if there is a more beneficial use of the idle
capacity, the opportunity cost of the decision (IV).
207. Correct answer a. Since Raymund has idle capacity, the company needs to cover only the
incremental variable costs of $10 ($50,000 ÷ 5,000) per unit so this should be the bid price to
gain a new customer.
208. Correct answer b. The price that Hickory paid for the 4,500 pounds of Kaylene ($3.40/lb.) is
irrelevant; it is a sunk cost. The future price of Kaylene ($4.05/lb.) is relevant to future
operations.
209. Correct answer b. The minimum price that Gardner should charge for the special order is
$96.50 per unit. This price covers the variable cost of KT-6500 plus the forgone contribution
from Product XR-2000 as shown below.
Hours required for 1,000 units of KT-6500 3,000 hours

Units of XR-2000 not produced: 3,000 hours ÷ 4 750 units
XR-2000 contribution: $105 - $24 - $10 - $5 - $4 $62 per unit
KT-6500 bid price: = [(750 x $62) ÷ 1m000] + $27 +12 +$6 + $5
= $46.50 + $27 + $12 + $6 + $5
= $96.50
210. Correct answer a. Green should accept the offer of $280,000 as it will cover all incremental
costs and increase operating profit.
Selling price $280,000

Direct material 66,000
Direct labor 120,000
Variable overhead 48,000 (.4 x $120,000)
Administrative costs 12,000 (.1 x $120,000)
Contribution $ 34,000
211. Correct answer c. The option (a) of purchasing externally is more costly the manufacturing
internally, because Fixed OH costs are not avoidable. The option (b) is not possible due to the
capacity restrictions. This leaves options (c) and (d), with option (d) being more costly than (c).
212. Correct answer c. The relevant cost to make the ice-makers is $600,000; to buy the units, the
relevant cost is $528,000 as shown below.
Make: 20,000 x ($34 - $4*) = $600,000

Buy: ($28 x 20,000) – ($80,000 x .4) = $528,000
*The $4 of remaining fixed overhead applies to both alternatives and there irrelevant to the decision.
213. Correct answer b. Sunshine should not use the manufacturer’s machine cost of $.50 as it is
based on 1.6 million units. Since Sunshine plans to produce 1.2 million units, the relevant cost
is $.67 ($800,000 ÷ 1.2 million).
214. Correct answer d. For Aril to benefit from purchasing the units rather than making the units,
the purchase price must be less than $14 as shown below.
Remaining fixed cost/unit = ($150,000 x .6) ÷ 30,000

= $3
Relevant cost to make unit = $3 + $11
= $14
215. Correct answer b. The $50,000 trade-in allowance is relevant to Verla’s decision as it
decreases the cash outflow at time zero when the machine is purchased.
216. Correct answer c. Jones should process Product C further because the incremental revenue
exceeds the incremental cost. Product B should be sold at split-off as the incremental revenue
is less than the incremental cost.
Product C: [70,000 x ($12.50 - $10.25)] - $140,000 = $17,500

Product B: [20,000 x ($8.00 - $5.50)] - $60,000 = ($10,000)
217. Correct answer b. Oakes should continue to process Beracyl as the incremental revenue
exceeds the incremental cost of processing; Mononate should be sold at split-off as the
incremental revenue is less than the incremental cost of further processing.
Beracyl: [60,000 x ($18 - $15)] - $115,000 = $65,000

Mononate: [40,000 x ($10 - $7)] - $125,000 = ($5,000)
218. Correct answer d. Whitman’s contribution margin will be $380,000 if the Restaurant segment
is discontinued as shown below.
Contribution: = [.95 x ($400,000 + $500,000)] – [.95 x ($300,000 + $200,000)}

= $855,000 - $475,000
= $380,000
219. Correct answer d. Whitman’s segments have the following contribution margin rations:
Merchandising $500,000 - $300,000 = $200,000 ÷ $500,000 = 40%

Automotive $400,000 - $200,000 = $200,000 ÷ $400,000 = 50%
Restaurant $100,000 - $70,000 = $30,000 ÷ $100,000 = 30%
220. Correct answer a. The costs relevant to this decision are the incremental costs of production of
$20,000 material and $5,000 labor. The cost of the machinery is a sunk cost and therefore
irrelevant.
221. Correct answer c. Reynolds should continue to produce and sell the fertilizer as it contributes
$2.50 ($18.50 - $12.25 - $3.75) per bag toward coverage of fixed costs.
222. Correct answer c. Parklin’s operating income will go from $500 to ($1,500) if Segment B is
closed, a decrease of $2,000.
Sales $10,000
Variable cost of goods sold 4,000
Fixed cost of goods sold 2,500 (+$1,000 from Segment B)
Gross margin 3,500
Variable selling & admin. 2,000
Fixed selling & admin. 3,000 ($1,500 from Segment B)
Operating loss ($1,500)
223. Correct answer b. Grapevine should consider items 1, 2, and 3. Item 1 will affect future
revenue. Items 2 and 3 will be eliminated and lower Grapevine’s future costs. Item 4 will
continue and is irrelevant. Items 5 and 6 are sunk costs and also irrelevant.
224. Correct answer c. The production and sale of the new dolls would decrease the company’s
profit by $39,200 as shown below.
Contribution $400,000 [10,000 x ($100 - $60)]

Fixed costs 456,000
Operating income -56,000
Tax savings @30% 16,800
Net loss -$39,000
225. Correct answer b. The company should continue the Oak Division as it is currently covering
$13,000 of its $14,000 fixed costs. If the division is eliminated, $7,000 of fixed costs will
remain causing a $6,000 decline in the company’s operating profit ($7,000 - $1,000).
226. Correct answer a. If the company can produce all the units required (no constraint), the
prime consideration should be the product’s contribution margin. If production is
constrained by the number of machine hours, the company should focus on the contribution
margin per machine hour.
227. Correct answer b. The maximum net profit Elgers can earn is $67,200 as shown below.
Contribution $160,000 [40,000 x ($12 - $8)]

Fixed costs 48,000
Operating profit 112,000
Tax @ 40% 44,800
Net profit $ 67,200
228. Correct answer a. If Dayton sold 30,000 units, the net income would be $24,000.
Contribution $90,000 [30,000 x ($10 - $7)]

Fixed costs 42,000
Gross profit 48,000
Tax @50% 24,000
Net income $24,000
229. Correct answer b. If Raymund installs the automated process, the monthly operating income
would be $10,000 as shown below.
Reduction in variable costs: ($50,000 ÷ 5,000) = $10 - $5 = $5

Sales $100,000
Variable manufacturing 25,000 ($5 x 5,000)
Variable selling 15,000
Contribution 60,000
Fixed manufacturing 46,000
Fixed selling 4,000
Operating income $ 10,000
230. Correct answer c. The only combination of factors that is correct is a variable cost ratio of
32% and operating income of $9,600,000.
Variable cost ratio: $60 – ($60 x .2) = $48 ÷ $150 = 32%

Contribution margin $17,850,000 [175,000 x ($150 - $48)]
Fixed costs* 8,250,000
Operating income $ 9,600,000
*Current fixed costs $9,000 ($60 x 150,000) - $750,000 eliminated
231. Correct answer b. The relevant contribution margins per machine hour are Product A $18.50
and Product B $16.00 as shown below.
Product A: $100 - $53 - $10 = $37 ÷ 2 hours = $18.50

Product B: $80 - $45 - $11 = $24 ÷ 1.5 hours = $16.00
232. Correct answer a. Lark should make 30,000 units of Product A, 14,000 units of Product B
(utilizing the remaining machine hours), and outsource 6,000 units of Product B because this
alternative makes the greatest contribution as shown below.
Hours: (30,000 A units x 3 hours) = 90,000 hours

160,000 hours – 90,000 hours = 70,000 hours remaining
70,000 ÷ 5 hours for B unit = 14,000 units of Product B
Contribution: = [($75 - $30) x 30,000] + [($125 - $48) x 14,000] + [($125 - $60) x 6,000]
= $1,350,000 + $1,078,000 + $390,000
= $2,818,000
233. Correct answer a. Aspen should utilize the internal hours to manufacture 12,000 units of
Product XT because the total contribution is greater than the contribution for Product RP.
Product XT: ($60 - $37 - $12 - $6) x 12,000 = $60,000

Product RP: ($45 - $24 - $13 - $3) x 8,000 = $40,000
234. Correct answer a. The demand curve would shift to the left (fewer bagels demanded) if the
cost of muffins decreased making muffins more desirable.
235. Correct answer b. An increase in consumer income would increase demand and cause a shift
to the right. An increase in price is movement along the curve to a higher price.
236. Correct answer c. If the demand for a product is elastic, a percentage change in price results
in a larger percentage change in demand. If the product price is increased, the demand will
decrease by a larger percentage resulting in a decrease in total revenue.
237. Correct answer a. Full costing does not simplify the identification of unit fixed costs with
specific products. No matter what the costing method, fixed costs are generally arbitrarily
allocated to products on a basis such as direct labor hours or machine hours.
238. Correct answer d. The market-clearing (equilibrium) price is the price where quantity
demanded equals quantity supplied. The current market-clearing price is $50; if prices
increase in the long-run, $70 is a reasonable equilibrium price.
239. Correct answer d. If the demand for a product is elastic, a percentage change in price results
in a larger percentage change in demand. If the product price is increased by 1%, the
demand will decrease by more than 1%.
240. Correct answer a. If the demand for a product is elastic, a percentage change in price results
in a larger percentage change in demand. If the product price is decreased, the demand will
increase by a larger percentage resulting in an increase in total revenue.
241. Correct answer c. Leader’s markup percentage would be 133.3% as shown below.
Per unit return on investment = ($20,000,000 x .2) ÷ 10,000

= $400
Markup percentage = $400 ÷ $300
= 133.3%
242. Correct answer d. Cost-based pricing is particularly suited to suppliers who provide unique
services and products. Therefore, the best situation presented is the make-to-order, state-of-
the-art application.
243. Correct answer d. Bcc should bid $1,026.30 per unit as shown below.
Direct material $ 500.00

Direct labor 340.00 ($20 x 17)
Variable overhead 34.00 ($2 x 17)
Fixed overhead 51.00 ($3 x 17)
Administrative cost 8.00
Subtotal $ 933.00
10% return 93.30
Total $1,026.30
244. Correct answer a. Cost-based pricing is particularly suited to suppliers who provide unique
products and services.
245. Correct answer c. Market-based costing is particularly suited to companies operating in a

competitive environment. Therefore, option c is not characteristic.
246. Correct answer a. Almelo’s mark-up level is 12.5% as shown below.
Markup: $9 - $6 cost - $2 Fixed overhead = $1

Markup %: $1 ÷ $8 = 12.5%
247. Correct answer d. Fennell’s target price is $268 as shown below.
15% after-tax ROI = [($3,000,000 + $1,000,000) x .15]

= $600,000
Per unit ROI = $600,000 ÷ 25,000
= $24
Target price = $200 + ($700,000 ÷ 25,000) + [$24 x (1 - .4)]
= $200 + $28 + $40
= $268
248. Correct answer c. A monopolist seeking to maximize total profit will produce up to the
output at which marginal revenue equals marginal cost. To sell beyond this point, the price
would need to be lowered and marginal cost would exceed marginal revenue.
249. Correct answer c. Economic profit is revenue minus both explicit and implicit costs, e.g.,
opportunity costs. Therefore, in purely competitive markets, economic profits are not likely
to be positive.
Section D: Risk Management
250. Correct answer a. The situation that occurs annually with an exposure of $2,250 ($15,000 x
.15) represents the highest loss exposure. The exposure of the other situations are $1,875
($75,000 x .2 ÷ 8), $2,000 ($200,000 x .2 ÷ 20) and $2,000 ($400,000 x .5 ÷ 100).
Section E: Investment Decisions
251. Correct answer d. Capital investments generally provide benefits into the future and,
therefore, the expenditure is allocated over a period of time (depreciation). Refinancing
existing working capital agreements supports current operations and is not generally treated
as capital investment project.
252. Correct answer a. The net present value of the equipment being replaced is least likely to
impact the investment decision. This is a sunk cost and does not affect future decisions.
253. Correct answer d. The required rate of return is not a method for evaluating investment
projects but is the minimum acceptable return on an investment (discount rate, hurdle rate).
254. Correct answer b. The interest payments on the debt to finance the equipment and the
increased levels of accounts payable and inventory represent incremental changes that affect
future cash flows and are, therefore, relevant.
255. Correct answer c. The controller should recommend option c as the present value of this
option is the highest as shown below.
Option c: ($20,000 x 6.710) + $5,000 = $139,200

Option a: $135,000
Option b: $40,000 x 3.312 = $132,480
Option d: ($5,000 x 6.247) + ($200,000 x .463) + $5,000 = $128,835
256. Correct answer c. Calvin’s incremental cash flows in Year 5 are $26,000 as shown below.
Reduction in labor cost after tax: $30,000 x .6 = $18,000

Depreciation tax shield ($100,000 ÷ 5) x .4 = 8,000
$26,000
257. Correct answer b. Olson’s net cash flow for period 3 is $860,000 calculated as follows.
Cash inflow after tax: ($1,200,000 - $300,000) x .6 = $540,000

Tax shield Building: ($2,000,000 ÷ 10) x .4 = 80,000
Tax shield Equipment ($3,000,000 ÷ 5) x .4 = 240,000
$860,000
258. Correct answer d. The annual cash flow is $270,000 as shown below.
From operations: $650,000 - $270,000 - $50,000 - $40,000 - $8,000 = $242,000

Depreciation tax shield: $70,000 x .4 = 28,000
$270,000
259. Correct answer c. Kell’s 5th year cash flow is $1,120,000 as shown below.
Revenue $8,000,000 (100,000 x $80)

Direct costs -6,500,000 (100,000 x $65)
Indirect costs - 500,000
Return of working capital + 400,000
Salvage value + 300,000
Equipment removal - 100,000
Cash flow $1,600,000
Cash flow after tax (x .6) $ 960,000
Tax shield [($1,500,000 - $300,000) ÷ 3] x .4 160,000
$1,120,000
260. Correct answer d. Kell’s initial investment is $1,900,000 as shown below.
Equipment $1,200,000
Installation 300,000
Working capital 400,000
Initial investment $1,900,000
261. Correct answer d. Colvern’s cash flow is $22,800 as shown below.
After-tax cash savings: $28,400 x .6 = $17,040

Depreciation tax shield: $16,000 x .4 = 6,400
Loss of depreciation tax shield: $1,600 x .4 = 640
$22,800
262. Correct answer c. The first year cash flow for Skytop’s project is $67,000 as shown below.
Incremental cash inflows $75,000 x .6 = $45,000

Depreciation tax shield ($275,000 x .2) x .4 = 22,000
$67,000
263. Correct answer d. Year 0 cash outflows for Skytop total $202,000 as shown below.
Sale of old equipment $ 80,000

New equipment and installation -275,000
Additional A/R and inventory - 30,000
Additional accounts payable + 15,000
Tax shield/loss on old equipment + 8,000 ($100K - $80K) x .4
Cash outflow $202,000
264. Correct answer c. The overall impact of Mintz’s working capital investment is a net outflow
of $17,040 as shown below.
Working capital outflow at Time 0 $40,000

Working capital inflow at Time 5 22,680 ($40,000 x .567)
Net outflow $17,040
265. Correct answer b. A discounted cash flow analysis should not include sunk costs as they will
not change and are not relevant. Changes in working capital and inflation affect future costs
and should be included.
266. Correct answer b. AGC’s initial investment is $92,800 as shown below.

New equipment -95,000
Increase in accounts receivable - 2,000
Increase in accounts payable + 400
Tax shield/Loss on sale + 800 ($50,000 - $45,000 - $3,000) x .4
267. Correct answer c. Calvin’s initial cash outflow is $79,000 as shown below.

Purchase new equipment -100,000
Tax on gain from sale - 4,000 ($25,000 - $15,000*) x .4
Cash outflow $ 79,000
*Accumulated depreciation ($50,000 ÷ 10) x 7 = $35,000

Book value $50,000 - $35,000 = $15,000
268. Correct answer d.

Revenue $ 1,200,000
Cash exp. -300,000
Depreciation - 800,000
Pretax Income $ 100,000
Tax at 40% -40,000
Add back depreciation 800,000
860,000
Sell land 800,000

Tax on gain /land -120,000
Sell building 500,000
Tax on loss/building 200,000
Sell equipment 250,000
Tax on on gain /equipment -100,000
2,390,000
269. Correct answer d. All of these items should be included in the initial investment as they all
impact the cash flow of the project.
270. Correct answer b. Calvin’s first year cash flow is $24,000 as shown below.
After-tax cash savings $30,000 x .6 $18,000

Tax shield/new equipment ($100,000 ÷ 5) x .4 8,000
Loss of old tax shield ($50,000 ÷ 10) x .4 2,000
271. Correct answer a. Using the real rate of 8%, the revenues are $432,000. Using the nominal
rate approach (8% + 3%) + (.03 x .08), the revenues are $444,960.
272. Correct answer d. Kell’s 3rd year cash flows are $800,000 as shown below.
After tax cash inflows ($8,000,000 - $6,500,000 - $500,000) x .6 $600,000

Depreciation tax shield ($1,500,000 ÷ 3) x .4 200,000
Cash inflow $800,000
273. Correct answer a. Both the operating costs and the required rate of return should be adjusted
for inflation as inflation will as inflation will affect both in the future.
274. Correct answer c. Regis would include the operating cash inflows plus the tax shield
provided by the depreciation expense. The depreciation expense does not represent a cash
transaction and, therefore, is not included.
275. Correct answer c. Atlantic would include the present value of the depreciation tax shield
totaling $34,840 as shown below.
Annual tax shield $20,000 x .4 $8,000

Present value @10% $8,000 x 4.355 $34,840
276. Correct answer c. Webster’s net cash flow for Year 3 totals $1,058,750 as shown below.
Unit price: $80 x .95 = $76 x .95 = $72.20

Labor cost: $20 x 1.05 = $21 x 1.05 = $22.05
Material cost: $30 x 1.1 = $33 x 1.1 = $36.30
Cash inflow: [125,000 x ($72.20 - $22.05 - $36.30) - $300,000] x .6 $ 858,750
Depreciation tax shield: ($2,000,000 ÷ 4) x .4 200,000
Net cash flow for Year 3 $1,058,750
277. Correct answer c. Skytop’s after-tax cash flow for Year 5 is $78,950 as shown below.
Cash inflow after tax $75,000 x .6 $45,000

Depreciation tax shield ($275,000 x .145) x .4 15,950
Sale of equipment 30,000
Less tax on $30,000 gain @ 40% 12,000
Net cash flow $78,950
278. Correct answer a. $1,000,000 x .32 = $320,000 x .4 = $128,000
279. Correct answer b. The net present value method calculates the expected monetary gain or
loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the
present point in time.
280. Correct answer b. The net present value of Kunkle’s project will increase approximately
$219,000 as shown below.
Present value of current cash flow = 10,000 x ($100 - $70) x .6

= $180,000 x 5.216
= $938,880
Present value of reduced cash flow = 10,000 x ($100 - $63) x .6
= $222,000 x 5.216
= $1,157,952
Increase in net present value = $1,157,952 - $938,880
= $219,072
281. Correct answer c. Allstar’s initial investment is $26,160 as shown below.
Present value of cash inflows $9,000 x 3.24 = $29,160

Initial investment $29,160 - $3,000 = $26,160
282. Correct answer a. Smithco’s project has a net present value of $(1,780) as shown below.
Year 0 $(550,000)
Year 1 $(500,000) x .877 (438,500)
Year 2 $450,000 x .769 346,050
Year 3 $350,000 x .675 236,250
Year 4 $350,000 x .592 207,200
Year 5 $380,000* x .519 197,220
Net present value $ (1,780)
*Includes $30,000 from sale of old equipment

$50,000 – ($50,000 x .4) = $30,000
283. Correct answer a. An investment decision is acceptable if the net present value is equal to or
greater than zero because the return from the decision is equal to or exceeds the cost of
capital.
284. Correct answer c. If Verla outsources the work, the net present value of the cash outflows is
$454,920 [($200,000 x .6) x 3.791 = $454,920].
285. Correct answer b. The net present value of Long’s project is $283,380 as shown below.
Expected annual sales: (80,000 x .1) + (85,000 x .2) + (90,000 x .3) + (95,000 x .2) +
(100,000 x .1) + (110,000 x .1) = 92,000
Annual after-tax cash flow: (92,000 x $5) x .6 = $276,000
Annual depreciation tax shield: ($1,000,000 ÷ 5) x .4 = $80,000
Net present value: = [($276,000 + $80,000) x 3.605] - $1,000,000
= $1,283,380 - $1,000,000
= $283,380
286. Correct answer c. The revised net present value for the tax shield is $283,000 as shown below.
Year 1: [($1,000,000 x .3333) x .4] x .833 $111,056

Year 2: [($1,000,000 x .4445) x .4] x .694 123,379
Year 3: [($1,000,000 x .1481) x .4] x .579 34,300
Year 4: [($1,000,000 x .0741) x .4] x .482 14,286
Net present value (to nearest thousand) $283,000
287. Correct answer a. The ranking of the scenarios from least effect on the net present value to
the greatest effect is R, S, and T as shown below.
R: [($800,000 x .9) x 3.605] - $2,500,000 $95,000

S: ($800,000 x 3.127) - $2,500,000 $1,600
T: ($800,000 x 3.037) - $2,500,000 $(70,400)
288. Correct answer d. Ironside should accept both projects as Project R (less risk – more stable
sales) at 12% has a positive net present value while Project S has a positive net present value
at both hurdle rates.
Project R @12% = [($75,000 x .1) + ($95,000 x .8) + ($115,000 x .1)] x 5.650

= $536,750 - $500,000
= $36,750
Project S @16% = [($70,000 x .25) + ($110,000 x .5) + ($150,000 x .25) x 4.833
= $531,630 - $500,000
= $31,630
289. Correct answer d. Logan should continue to operate as the company would suffer a greater
loss by shutting down.
Net present value of cash flow = [$150,000 c ($100 - $75)] - $4,000,000

= ($250,000) x 3.605
= ($901,250)
Cost of shutting down = $750,000 - $1,500,000 - $500,000
= ($1,250,000)
290. Correct answer b. The net present value of Foster’s project is $924 as shown below.
Discounted cash flow = ($6,000 x .893) + ($6,000 x .797) + ($8,000 x .712) + ($8,000 x .636)
= $20,924
Less investment 20,000
$ 924
291. Correct answer d. The net present value of Lunar’s project is $16,600 as shown below.
After-tax cash flow (x .6) $30,000 $30,000 $240,000 $240,000 $240,000

Tax shield ($500,000 ÷ 5) x .4 40,000 40,000 40,000 40,000 40,000
$70,000 $70,000 $280,000 $280,000 $280,000
Net present value = ($70,000 x 1.528) + [$280,000 x (2.991 – 1.528)] - $500,000

= $106,960 + $409,640 - $500,000
= $16,600 ≈ $16,530
292. Correct answer c. Using a 14% hurdle rate, Parker’s project will not have a positive net
present value until the annual cash flows are $60,000 or higher ($60,000 x 3.433 = $205,980
- $200,000 = $5,980). As shown, the probability of the cash flows reaching $60,000 or
higher is 40%.
293. Correct answer a. Since the projects are mutually exclusive, Staten should accept Project X
(higher net present value) and reject Project Y.
Net present value Project X = ($47,000 x 3.791) - $150,000

= $28,177
Net present value Project Y = ($280,000 x .621) - $150,000
= $23,880
294. Correct answer d. The net present value of Verla acquiring the new equipment is $434,424
net cash outflow as shown below.
Labor savings ($100,000 x .6) x 3.791 $227,460

Tax shield [($1,000,000-$50,000) ÷ 5] x .4 x 3.791 288,116
Cash inflow $515,576
Cash outflow ($1,000,000 - $50,000) 950,000
Net cash outflow $434,424
295. Correct answer d. Since Stennet’s cost of capital is 10% and Project A has a higher net
present value at a discount rate of 10%, Mack should recommend Project A. Since the
projects are mutually exclusive, only one can be accepted.
296. Correct answer a. Delaying the cash outflow for a major overhaul from Year 4 to Year 5 will
decrease its present value and result in an increase in the net present value of the project. All
of the other options would result in a decrease the net present value.
297. Correct answer c. The internal rate of return method is easier to understand (interpret) than
the net present value method. All of the other options are disadvantages of the internal rate
of return method.
298. Correct answer d. Since the company has already evaluated the cash flows (net present
value) of the project using a hurdle rate of 14%, the next logical step would be to compare
the internal rate of return to the hurdle and the cost of capital.
299. Correct answer c. Hobart would accept the project under both the internal rate of return of
20% which exceeds the hurdle rate of 15% and the payback period of 2.7 years ($200,000 ÷
$74,000) which is less than the company’s 3-year benchmark.
300. Correct answer c. BGN Industries should select Option Z as it has the highest net present
value ($2,825,000 - $2,000,000) and the internal rate of return is greater than the hurdle rate.
301. Correct answer b. The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present
value of future net cash flows from an investment project with project’s initial cash outflow.
302. Correct answer c. The approximate internal rates of return are 19.5% and 25.5% as shown.
Project A: 77 + 26 = 103; 77 ÷ 103 = .75%; .75% x 2 = 1.5%; 18% + 1.5% = 19.5%

Project B: 30 + 11 = 41; 30 ÷ 41 - .73%: .73% x 2 = 1.5%; 24% + 1.5% = 25.5%
303. Correct answer c. The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present
value of future net cash flows from an investment project with project’s initial cash outflow.
304. Correct answer c. Options a, b, and d are correct as shown below.
NPV Project A: $100,000 – ($40,000 x .909) + ($50,000 x .826) + ($60,000 x .751) = $22,720
NPV Project B: $150,000 – ($80,000 x .893) + ($70,000 x .797) + ($40,000 x .712) = $19,950
Payback Project A: $100,000 - $40,000 - $50,000 = $10,000 ÷ $65,000 - .167
.167 years + 2 years ≈ 2.2 years
Payback Project B: $150,000 - $80,000 - $70,000 = 0
Payback = 2 years
305. Correct answer c. The approximate internal rate of return is 9%. A net present value of zero is
approximately half way between $460 and ($440) and 9% is half way between 8% and 10%.
306. Correct answer c. An internal rate of return equates Foster’s cash flows to the initial
investment as shown below.
($6,000 x .877) + ($6,000 x .769) + ($8,000 x .675) + ($8,000 x .592) = $20,012

Initial cash outflow of $20,000 ≈ $20,012
307. Correct answer d. Both the internal rate of return method and the net present value method
utilize discounted flow techniques taking into consideration the time value of money. Payback
and average rate of return do not consider the time value of money.
308. Correct answer d. Statements III and IV are correct. Since the company has no capital
rationing, all projects with positive net present values will enhance the value of Molar.
Projects with negative internal rates of return will cost more than they will return to the
company and should be rejected.
309. Correct answer a. Since the net present value of the project is negative using a discount rate of
14%, it can be concluded that the internal rate of return is something less than 14%.
310. Correct answer c. Since the projects are mutually exclusive, Foggy Products can select only
one, and the one selected should have the highest net present value. If both projects exceed the
company’s benchmark for payback period, they should both be rejected.
311. Correct answer a. The payback period does provide some insight into the risk of a project – the
longer the payback period, the riskier the project. The other options are either incorrect or
disadvantages of the payback method.
312. Correct answer c. Because the payback method calculates the time to return the project’s
initial investment, it does evaluate the project’s liquidity. The other options are all drawbacks
of the payback method.
313. Correct answer d. Quant’s payback period is 3.7 years as shown below.
After-tax cash flow Investment less cash flow

Year 1 $60,000 x .6 = $36,000 $104,000
Year 2 $60,000 x .6 = $36,000 68,000
Year 3 $60,000 x .6 = $36,000 32,000
Year 4 $80,000 x .6 = $48,000 $32,000 ÷ $48,000 = .667
Payback period = 3.7 years
314. Correct answer c. The payback period for Foster’s project is 3.0 years ($20,000 - $6,000 -
$6,000 - $8,000 = 0).
315. Correct answer d. Smithco’s payback period is 4.0 years ($550,000 + $500,000 - $450,000 -
$350,000 - $250,000 = 0).
316. Correct answer c. Earnings per share would increase $.13 per share as shown below.
Sales $20,000,000 $22,000,000 (increase 10%)

Contribution (30%) 6,000,000 6,600,000
Less administrative 300,000 300,000
Less commission (10%) 2,000,000 2,200,000
Operating profit 3,600,000 4,000,000
Interest expense 400,000 400,000
Profit before tax 3,200,000 3,600,000
Tax @35% 1,120,000 1,260,000
Net income $ 2,080,000 $ 2,340,000
Earnings per share $1.04 $1.17 (NI ÷ 2,000,000)
317. Correct answer c. Monte Carlo simulation is a quantitative technique that accounts for risk in
decision making by generating a range of outcomes and associated probabilities.
318. Correct answer d. Start with the next available #; 25 multiples for demand of 4 and 10
multiples for demand of 5.
319. Correct answer c. The purpose of the simulation is not to generate an optimal solution. Rather
it allows the analyst to model the behavior of a system and generates a range of different
outcomes.
320. Correct answer c. 45-74 = interval of 30
12 20
18 30 (18-12= 6 days / interval of 30)
15 25
9 15
6 10
60
Section F: Professional Ethics
321. Correct answer d. In accordance with IMA’s “Statement of Ethical Professional Practice”,
a member’s failure to comply with the standards of competence, confidentiality, integrity
and credibility may result in disciplinary action. Disclosing company’s internal budget to
an outside party is a breach of the ethical standard of confidentiality.

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CMA Part 2 – Financial Decision Making

Examination Practice Questions

© Copyright 2014 Institute of Certified Management Accountants

1. CSO: 2A1a LOS: 2A1a

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4

Inflation factor 1.00 1.03 1.07 1.10

a. The common-size gross profit percentage has decreased as a result of an

Broomall’s working capital at year end is

3. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

a. total current assets.

If Birch’s current liabilities are $1,300,000, the firm’s

5. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2a

a. remain at 2.3 times.

7. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

a. increase the acid test ratio.

8. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2a

Marketable securities $10,000

What is Fortune’s net working capital?

a. Expediting collection of accounts receivable.

10. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

11. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2a

a. profit margin and return on assets.

13. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

a. The current portion of long-term debt has been steadily increasing.

14. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2a

a. reduce its cash balance.

15. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2a

a. six-month treasury bills.

Dedham’s quick (acid-test) ratio at year end is

17. CSO: 2A2a LOS: 2A2b

Which corporation is the most highly leveraged?

19. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2f

Based on the above information, Sahara’s degree of financial leverage is

20. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2f

a. high debt-to-equity ratios.

22. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2e

a. increases its financial leverage.

23. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2g

24. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2g

Mica’s debt/equity ratio is

26. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2y

Bond Rockland Western Industry

a. Working capital turnover.

28. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2y

CompGo Astor SysGen Industry

Current assets $640,000

The company’s debt-to-equity ratio is

30. CSO: 2A2b LOS: 2A2j

Bailey Nutron Sonex Industry

a. Seek cost cutting measures that would increase Strickland’s profitability.

Using a 365-day year, compute Lowell’s accounts receivable turnover in days.

34. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2l

Accounts receivable, end of Year 1 $ 320,000

Maydale’s accounts receivable turnover ratio is

36. CSO: 2A2c LOS: 2A2l

Beginning of the year End of the year

Lampasso’s inventory turnover ratio for the year was

Net sales $900,000

Garland’s average inventory turnover ratio is