t>HllOllO~H9V L!Ot':ua ll NV.

:>S
I

lntertek

Course : Gas,Vapour

Multi Choice Questions

for

Course Members

Sort'1d by Subject

Ver·: 3.4
 t'Hll01ZO!ll9V LIOz ';na II NV::>S

Part 0 Standards
0.1 In which IEC standard would we find the a) IEC 60079- 10
Inspection and Maintenance information b) IEC 60079 - 14 . ,
relating to hazardous areas? c) IEC 60079- 17 v
d) BS EN 60079 - 20

0.2 With the standard number 60079- 14 we a) The standards are completely identical.
can find two prefices BSEN or IEC, which b) BSEN is for gas and IEC is for dust.
of the following would be correct. c) BSEN is more up to date
d) They are considered identical apart from a
couple of annexes. ,_/

0.3 Which standard is referenced to when a) IEC 60079- 10 . /

performing an installation of electrical b) IEC 60079- 14 v
equipment in a potentially explosive c) IEC 60079- 17
atmosphere? d) IEC 60079- 20

0.4 IEC 60079-17 is the standard for a) British Standard

inspection and maintenance in hazardous b) European Standard
atmospheres. Which of the following is c) American Standard
appropriate to this standard? d) International Standard V
0.5 There are two ATEX Directives. Where a) Places with no hazards
do they equally apply to? b) Places with combustible dusts only
c) Places with flammable gas only
d) Places with both flammable gas and V
combustible dusts

0.6 What was ATEX 95 intended to do? a) Improve trade by removing technical V
barriers to trade for equipment
b) Ensure health and safety of workers at risk
from explosive atmospheres.
c) Prevent the misuse of equipment provided
for health and safety or welfare.
d) Employ competent people in explosive
atmospheres.

0. 7 The equipmen t marking of a Hexagon a) It is certified for use in a zone 0

inscribed with an "Ex", ind icates what b) It is not certified
about the equipment? c) It has been certified to EX 137 directive
d) It has been certified as conforming to the
A TEX equipment directive (ATEX 95) v
0.8 Which of the following standards are a) BS 229
technically identical to IEC 60079-14 b) BS EN 60079-1 4 V
except for some annexes in the c) BS EN 60079-17
standard? d) BS EN 50014

0.9 A company has a gas hazardous area a) IEC 60079-0

and is looking to create an area b) IEC 60079-10-1 V
classification for the area. What standard c) IEC 60079-10-2

Ver: 3.4 2
 t>Hll0ll0919V Ll0l'3a(l ll NV::>S

will they need to use to help them classify d) IEC 60079-14

this area?

0.10 Which of the following standards deal a) IEC 60079-0 (/'

with the general requirements for b) IEC 60079-10- 1
electrical equipment constructed for use c) IEC60079-10-2
in an explosive atmosphere? d) IEC 60079-14 ~

Part 1 General
1.1 "Ignition surfaces will not exceed the a) Lower Explosive Limit
temperature appropriate to the T rating in b) Flash point
normal or specified conditions of use". c) Upper Explosive Limit
What does this statement relate to? d) Temperature Classification -,/

1.2 An area where a gas is not likely to be a) Safe

present in normal operation, but if it does b) Zone 2 t/
it will persist for a short time only is c) Zone 1
defined as which of the following? d) Zone 0

1.3 How many T ratings are there? a) 1

b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

1.4 A piece of equipment marked T6 would

have a temperature rating of which one of
the following?

1.5 The lowest temperature at which a a) Flash Point

material, mixed with air will spontaneously b) lg nition Temperature
ignite is defined as? c) Lower explosive Limit
d) Upper Explosive Limit

1.6 To which gas group does Acetylene a) !I.A.

belong to? b) II.B. /
c) II.C. v
d) I

1.7 What zone would be identified if the a) Zone 0

Gas/Air mixture was present continuously b) Zone 1
or present for long periods or frequently? c) Zone 2
d) Non Hazardous Area

1.8 Which gas group is Ethylene associated a) Group I

with? b) Group II.A.
c) Group II.C.
d) Group II.B. V
1.9 What zone would be identified if the a) Zone 0
Gas/Air mixture was likely to occur in b) Zone 1 V

Ver: 3.4 3
 t>HllOllO~>I9V LlOZ'Ja<IllNV.:>S

normal operation occasionally? c) Zone 2

d) Non Hazardous Area

1.10 If Propane can be present in the area , a) Group I

what would be the gas group for this b) Group II.A. c./
area? c) Group II.B.
d) Group II.C.

1.1 1 What is the standard designed ambient a) -30 to +30 °C

temperature rating to be used to b) -1 0 to +30 °C
calculate the T Rating of equipment for c) -20 to +40°C V
use in Europe/UK? u) -20 to +60 "C

1.12 Which group of gases would be a) Group I

associated with the Gas "Hydrogen"? b) II.A.
c) II.B.
d) II.C. /

1.13 For combustion of a petroleum material a) Fuel, Oxygen & Enclosure

to occur we must have which of the b) Ignition, Fuel & Enclosure
following conditions? c) Fuel, Oxygen & Ignition V
d) Ignition, Oxygen & Enclosure

1.14 Which of the following temperatures a) 200°C V

denotes the temperature rating of T3? b) 135°C
c) 100°C
d) 85° c
1.15 What is the meaning of the IP rating a) Dust & Water Protection
codes for both first and second digits? b) Finger Protection & Vibration
c) Dust and High Pressure Water Protection
d) Solid objects & Water Protection v
1.16 The marking of a zone 2 area on an area a) 45° Crossed hatch marking
classification drawing, will be represented b) 45° Slanted lines
by? c) Markings shown in the key of the drawing V
d) Small circles

1.17 If equipment is marked Ex e II T6. In a) Equipment cannot be used with any gases
which area of gas group can the b) Equipment can only be used in IIA gas
equipment be used? area
c) Equipment can be used with all gases
above ground
v
d) Equipment can be used in IIA & liB gas
areas only.

1.18 The 'T' Rating of equipment has a a) Flash Point of gas

relationship to gas materials, which b) Gas group & subdivision
prope1iy creates this relationship? c) Ignition Temperature of gas V
d) Upper Explosive Limit of gas

1.19 Equipment being used in higher ambient a) Ex e IIC T6

temperatures above the Standard b) Ex ia IIC T4 Ta +80°C

Ve r: 3.4 4
 t'HllOllO!ll9V LIOz ';na II NV::>S

designed value, must be marked to show c) Ex d II T1

this. Which of the following is the correct d) Ex e II -40°C Tamb
marking?

Part 2 Ex Equipment
2.1 A component is cerlified for use by a a) X
notified body who will issue an ATEX b) B
certificate. The certificate number will end c) s
with which letter? d) u v
2.2 An item of certified apparatus has a a) Safe to use in any hazardous area
certificate number shown as b) Ingress protection has been applied.
12ATEX0056X. What does the X mean? c) Special installation conditions apply v
d) Component certified part

2.3 If we have equipment marked as ATEX a) Zone 0 only

category 2, which zone/s can this be used b) Zone 1 only
in. c) Zone 1&2 V
d) Zone 0, 1 & 2

2.4 The equipment marking of a Hexagon a) It is certified for use in a zone 0

inscribed with an "Ex", indicates what b) It is not certified
about the equipment? c) It has been certified to EX 137 directive
d) It has been certified as conforming to the
ATEX equipment directive (ATEX 95) V

2.5 What does EPL stand for? a) Equipment Permission Level

b) Equipment Protection Level ~
c) Equal Protection Limit
d) Explosive Protection Limit

2.6 The ATEX directives deal with equipment a) Group I & II t/

for use above and below ground, in areas b) Group I, II & Ill
where flammable gases are used. Which c) Group I only
one of the following is the appropriate d) Group I, II, Ill & 1111
number of groups?

2.7 The ATEX directive puts equipment a) Cat 1, 2, 3 & 4

above ground into categories for use in b) Cat 1 & 2
an area where flammable gases are c) Cat1 ,2 &3 v
used. Which one of tile following category d) Cat M1 & M2
statements is correct?

2.8 An area requires an EPL (Category) of a) Ga V

equipment for a zone 0, which of the b) Da
following would be correct to install? c) Gb
d) Gc

2.9 The ATEX directives introduced a) 66

categories of equipment. Which of the b) 2G ./
following is correct for a gas atmosphere? c) 3X
d) 40

2.10 Which International abbreviation is used a) IEC /

Ver: 3.4 5
 t>Hll0ll0919V Ll0l'3a(l ll NV::>S

that matches to the ATEX categories? b) BSEN

c) EPL
d) ATEX

2.11 If zones deal with the probability of the a) The risk assessment of the ignition and the t/
material to create a hazardous area. consequences.
What do EPL's deal with? b) The volume of material released into the
area.
c) The group of gasses released into t11e area
d) The temperature classification of the
materials in the area.

2.12 During the classification of the hazardous a) Zone 0 (2G/Gb) MfJJi

area it is determined as a zone 1 and due b) Zone 1 (2G/Gb) Ill'
to the consequences the risk assessment c) Zone 1 (1 G/Ga) ]./'
determines that need to increase the d) Zone 2 (3G/Gc)
level of equipment protection for the
area. Which would be the correct
statement?

2.13 Equipment has a marking a) Only in areas between these temperatures

Ta -40°C to +40°C. b) Anywhere, they have no relevance to
This means the equipment is safe to safety
operate ... ? c) Only in a European country
d) Only in a country outside Europe

2.14 Which of the following types of a) EEx d II B

equipment would be installed into a Zone b) Ex nR.
1 IIC area c) EEx d II A
d) EExd IIC ~

Part 3 Ex d
3.1 With Ex d Equipment which of the following a) Equipment contains no flammable gas
statements is correct? b) No fire or explosion will enter the
equipment.
c) An internal explosion will not ignite the V
external atmosphere of the enclosure.
d) The enclosure will transmit an explosion
to the surrounding atmosphere

3.2 What is the purpose of a flamepath joint on a) To improve the strength to the enclosure ~
Ex d equipment? b) To stop the transmission of the internal V"'
explosion to the external atmosphere.
c) To stop water getting in and
contaminating electrical equipment.
d) To stop hazardous gas getting in and
contaminating electrical equipment.

3.3 What is the generally recomm ended a) All bolts to Torque tight (25kgfm)

Ver: 3.4 6
 tHll0ll0~19V LlOl';U (lHNV::>S

minimum procedure for bolting down b) 50% of the bolts are hand tight /
covers of Ex d equipment in a hazardous c) All cover bolts are spanner tight V
area? d) 50% of the bolts are hand tight + ~ turn
tool tight

3.4 Flameproof equipment can have different a) Spigot & Flanged V

types of flamepath joints. Which of the b) Flagged & Spigot
following are two names for flam epath c) Threaded & Clamped
joints? d) Crimped & Labyrinth

3.5 If performing a maintenance task on Ex d a) Fit all the bolts on the cover spanner ~
type of equipment in a zone 2 area and you tight and check gaps.
need to power up to test. What would be the b) Leave cover off and apply a danger
minimum requirements? notice.
c) Fit all the bolts on the cover hand tight
and apply danger signs.
d) Fit bolts in the corners tool tight.

3.6 What would cause an Ex d enclosure to a) Installing equipment outdoors.

have an unauthorised modification? b) Replacing the seal with a manufacturers
seal.
c) If the enclosure is an indirect entry. ,
d) Drill an additional gland entry hole. ; : /

3. 7 Ex d equipment is found with its original a) No gasket is required.

damaged gasket. What action should be b) Replacing the seal with any seal.
taken to keep equipment working safely? c) Replacing the seal with a manufacturers V
seal.
d) Use any grease on the outside of the
enclosure.

Ver: 3.4 7
 t'Hll01ZO!ll9V LIOz ';na II NV::>S

Part 4 Ex e
4. 1 If a motor rotor jams the time to a) 8 Seconds
disconnection for a stalled motor when b) tE time ~
resta1ied from hot is defined as? c) Start-up time
d) T rating

4.2 Which of the following is allowed in a (Zone a) EEx d. II.B. /

1 IIC.) area? b) EEx e. II v
c) Ex n.
d) EEx d II.A.

4.3 What is the purpose of the tE time on an a) To allow the motor to heat up above the
Ex e motor rating data plate? T rating.
b) To allow the motor time to start
c) To keep the motor temperature within in V
the T rating.
d) To show the motor will spark during
operation.

4.4 What does the manufacturing standard a) Not allowed in normal service. V
definition of increased safety say about b) Allowed in normal operation.
sparks and arcs within an Ex e enclosure? c) Allowed in specified abnormal conditions.
d) Will limit the energy of the spark/arc

4.5 According to the manufacturing standard Ex a) 4

e equipment has to be constructed and b) 45 . /
installed to a minimum IP standard. What is c) 54 V
the minimum rating for an enclosure with no d) 66
bare live parts?

4.6 Some Ex n & Ex e Certified luminares a) Fluorescent lamps are not permitted.
have limitations or restrictions for the b) Screw type lamps are not permitted.
fitting lamps. Of the following statements, c) Non-Conductive end caps are not
which is correct? permitted with equipment.
d) Non-Conductive end caps or pins with
conductive coating are not permitted
un 1ess tested with the equipment. ~

4.7 Which definition is the "shortest route a) Creepage Distance.

through air between two conductors? b) Clearance Distance. V"'
c) Arc Distance.
d) Long Distance.

Ver: 3.4 8
 t'HllOllO~>I9V LlOZ ':>a([ ll NV:JS

Part 5 Ex n
5.1 According the manufacturing standard, Ex n a) I.P. 66
equipment should maintain a minimum IP b) I.P. 54 V
rating where there are bare live conductors. c) I.P. 44
Which of the following is the correct rating? d) I.P. 20

5.2 Which of the following places can you install a) Place requiring EPL Ga, Gb & Gc
equipment marked as Ex n? (Cat 1G, 2G, 3G).
b) Place requiring EPL Gb & Gc (Cat 2G
& 3G).
c) Place requiring EPL Gc (Cat 3G). (./""
d) Place requiring EPL Ga & Gb (Cat
1G & 2G).

5.3 Ex n equipment has various additional a) Ex nA, Ex nC, Ex nR v

protection measures, which of the following b) Ex na, Ex nb, Ex nc
markings are correct? c) Ex NA, Ex NC, Ex NR
d) Ex nP, Ex nL, Ex nC,

5.4 Which of the following areas can Ex n a) Zone 0

equipment be installed into? b) Zone 1
c) Zone 2
d) EPL requirement of Gb area.

5.5 VVhich of the following markings are suitable a) Ex e

to install to the minimum standard in a place b) Ex nR V
that requires EPL Gc (Cat 3G)? c) Ex d
d) Ex px

5.6 Which of the following protection types are a) Ex ia and Ex d . ./

practically identical? b) Ex ic and Ex nL v
c) Ex ib and Ex px
d) Ex nR and Ex e

5.7 With Ex nR fittings it is important to keep the a) Fit an additional rubber seal to the t,/
integrity of the fitting of restricted breathing. cover.
Which of the following is used to achieve the b) Fit metal washer to gland with no seal
requirement? washer.
c) Apply glue to the gland thread before
tightening entry.
d) Fit a metal washer the rubber seal
washer before tightening the gland to
the entry.

5.8 Some luminaries are fitted with non- a) Do not fit lamps.
conductive lamp pins with conductive coating. b) Lamps must be over rated.
What does the standard suggest about the
lamps to be fitted?
c) Lamps
equipment.
must be tested with v
d) Lamps must be de-rated for
equipment.

Ver: 3.4 9
 tHll0ll0~19V LlOl';U (lHNV::>S

Part 6 Ex p
6.1 Ex p enclosure can be used in an explosive a) Equipment can be pressurised using
atmosphere. Which statement correctly 100% oxygen. /
describes this method of protection? b) The safe/protective gas, air will be drawn V '/
from a defined non-hazardous area
c) The safe gas pressure inside will be 0.5
Bar grea ter than the external pressure of
the enclosure.
d) The purge will last for 5 minutes before ~
power can be applied to internal ~
components.

6.2 There are three types of Ex p protection a) pa, pb, pc

sub divided into levels of protection. Which b) po, pq, pm
of the following is correct for pressurisation. c) pu, pv, pw
d) px, py, pz /

6.3 Where I have the protection type Ex px a) No purge is required during start up. V
using continuous flow of the safe/protective b) A warning label is required on doors with
gas which is Nitrogen. Which of the Nitrogen filled enclosures
following statements which is correct? c) No locks are required on doors with
Nitrogen filled enclosures.
d) When the purge is complete the exhaust
damper will close. v
6.4 The method of protection Ex d is very a) Keep flammable gas inside the enclosure
different to Ex p. What is the purpose of an from the external atmosphere.
Ex p enclosure? b) Stop the transmission of an internal
explosion to the external atmosphere.
c) Not to allow arcs or sparks inside the
enclosure.
d) Stop flammable gas from getting inside ~
the enclosure from the external
atmosphere.

6.5 Which of the following Pressurisation a) Ex px

markings will reduce the internal b) Ex py V
atmosphere of the enclosure to a potential c) Ex pz
Zone 2, from the external atmosphere of d) Ex nA
Zone 1?

6.6 Where an Ex p system contains ignition a) Ex py only

capable equipment and the enclosure is in b) Ex px or Ex pz
a place requiring EPL Gb (Cat 2G). Which c) Ex px only
of the following types of protection may be d) Ex pz only
used?

Ver: 3.4 10
 tHllOUO~H9V LIOZ'H<I li NV:JS

Part 7 Other Types

7.1 Which of the following types of protection a) Ex mb
may be used based on the EPL/Category b) Ex ma &/'
requirements of EPL "Ga" (Cat 1G)? c) Ex ic
d) Ex d

7.2 Which of the following markings would a) "d"

represent encapsulated concept b) "p"
c) "q"
d) "m" ~
7.3 Which letter on equipment defines a) "q" v
"Powder Filled" type of protection? b) "p"
c) usn
d) "m"

7.4 Which of the following markings would a) "i" /

represent the type of protection where b) "o" V
equipment will be immersed in oil, such c) "q"
that any ignition capable products do not d) "p"
reach the surface?

Part 8 Installation
2
8.1 With the exception of IS circuits aluminium a) 10mm
cable should be avoided , but if used its b) 6mm 2
Cross Sectional Area CSA must be greater c) 4mm 2
than or equal? d) 16mm
2
V
8.2 From the IEC 60079- 14 standard, what is a) To understand the basic requirements V"
consider essential for all workers to have an for working in a hazardous area.
understanding of for working in a hazardous b) No knowledge is required of hazardous
area. Which of the following is correct? areas.
c) To have a vast knowledge of hazardous
areas.
d) To have had a company induction for the
electrical safety.

8.3 Fine stranded or multi-stranded cables a) Soldering only.

require protection against separation of the b) Cable lugs/crimps or soldering only.
strands, how can this be done to maintain c) Cable lugs/crimps or core end sleeves .
the standard? d) Twisted ends and soldered.

8.4 Gland markings may include, E1W. What a) MICC

cable can be fitted to this type of gland? b) Twi n and earth
c) Steel Wire Armour
d) Non Armoured

Ver: 3.4 11
 tHll0ll0~19V L lOl';U (ll[ NV::>S

8.5 From the IEC 60079-1 4 standard, a) Detailed knowledge of the principles
Technicians installing equipment in employed in the selection & erection of
hazardous areas must have minimum equipment.
requirements of knowledge. Which of the b) To have familiarity with particular
following is correct? techniques employed in the selection & ~
erection of equipment
c) The practical skills for the inspection &
maintenance of the types of protection.
d) Detailed knowledge for the design of
protection types and systems.

8.6 The !EC Standard states plastic covered a) The plastic covering can have an
cable tray can build up static electricity. How insulation resistance greater than 1G-
can this effect be reduced? ohm.
b) Earth the cable tray.
c) Increase the surface area of the plastic
coated cable tray.
d) Reduce the surface area of the plastic
coated cable tray. v
8.7 If an E1 W gland has an 'X' on the certificate a) The gland is not certified and can be
number what does this mean? used on portable equipment only.
b) The gland is only for use on fixed
equipment and requires additional
clamping to support the cable.
c) The gland is made from plastic materia l.
d) The gland is certified for use with other
equipment which must also have an X

8.8 a) EEx e
What would be the minimum gland b) EEx d Barrier
selection for an EEx d liB T6, Junction box? c) EEx n.
d) EEx d Universal v
8.9 a) Square, extruded bedding.
Generally cables are requ ired to be b) Circular, compact extruded bedding,
appropriate for the environment they are fillers if any are to be hygroscopic.
installed into. For Ex d equipment, which of c) Circular, compact extruded bedding,
the following would also apply? Cable to be fillers if any are to be non-hygroscopic.
d) Any type or shape t/
8. 10 If you are to test electrical equipment in a a) EEx d certified equipment.
hazardous area, what must you have b) EEx e certified equipment.
before starting work? c) Valid gas free certificatev
d) No tools that spark .

8. 11 What knowledge or information is the

most important for an installer to have
a) A basic understanding of the various
protection types and installation
v
before working in any hazardous area? practices for working in Zones.
b) To have understood equipment
producers information
c) An Understanding of th e equipment
d) To have read wiring diagrams

Ver: 3.4 12
 t5lll0ll0~19V LlOZ'Ja<I 11 NV::>S

8.12 Where work is required to be performed on a a) Disconnect the live conductor.

circuit rated at 250V ac, what precaution b) Isolate the Live conductor.
would be taken to ensure safety? c) Isolate the Live and the Neutral v
conductors.
d) Isolate the Neutral conductor.

8.13 To improve the ingress protection of the a) Apply non setting grease to flange gap V
flanged flameproof equipment, various b) Apply grease tape into flange gap.
methods can be employed. Which of the c) Make and apply a rubber seal to gap.
following is correct method? d) Apply glue to flange gap.

8.14 With flameproof equipment, if an ignition in a) Explosion purge

one part of the enclosure causes a higher b) Pressure purging
explosion pressure in another part, what is c) Pressure piling /
this condition called? d) Ambient pressure

8.15 The l.P. rating can be improved on EEx d a) Non hardening tape in the flange gap.
flange joint equipment by the installer. Out b) Paint the flange face surfaces.
of the following methods which would be c) Apply non setting grease to flange face V
correct to apply? surfaces.
d) The addition of a rubber gasket
material.

8.16 Flameproof equipment with a flange joint a) 10mm

installed in a IIC atmosphere shall have no b) 30mm
solid obstructions within which of the c) 40mm
following minimum distance? d) 50mm

8.17 Pressure piling is caused by which of the a) Not fitting all of the cover bolts.
following? b) Applying a higher than rated Voltage or
current.
c) Unauthorised inlerna l modification to the /
interior layout of Ex d equipment
d) Drilling a hole in the enclosure base.

8.18 Which gland should be fitted on an EEx "d" a) EEx d barrier gland V
svvitch in a Zone 2 area where Acetylene b) Non-certified Gland
(IIC) may be present? c) EEx d gland
d) EEx e gland

8.19 What would be the minimum threads of a) 5 full threads ~

engagement required for flameproof b) 6 full threads
equipment? c) 7 full threads
d) 8 full t11reads

8.20 When fitting an Ex nA junction box to meet the a) EEx d Barrier

current minimum standard today, which gland b) Non-certified Gland
must be used? c) EEx d flameproof
d) EExeorExnR V

Ver: 3.4 13
 t>Hll0ll0919V Ll0l'3a(l ll NV::>S

8.21 Glands entering unthreaded or threaded a) An IP washer on the outside.

holes less than 6mm thread length will
require what1 - · ---=;:oo
b) An IP washer on the outside and locknut
on the inside.
v
c) An IP washer on the inside and locknut
on the outside.
d) No IP washer or locknut.

8.22 Which of the following statements would a) Use any sealants in flame paths
be authorised to be performed on Ex d b) Change the layout of components V
equipment? internally
c) Drill a hole on any part of the Ex d
Equipment.
d) Fit an Ex d threaded adaptor to a non
'•'
metric (NPT) screw entry hole.

8.23 How many different Cross Sectional Area a) 1 Only V

(CSA) conductors can be fitted normally to b) 1 unless permitted by ceriification
an Ex e terminal? documentation.
c) 2 Only
d) As many as is reasonably practical.

8.24 Which of the following would be to a) Fit an I.P. washer.

minimum standard when fitting an Ex e b) Fit a Locknut.
gland into a threaded Ex e enclosure with c) Fit a locknut and star washer. v--
a thickness of greater than 6mm with an d) Fit an Earth tag and IP washer.
internal earth continuity plate?

8.25 An Ex nA Motor is installed today, which a) A non-certified gland

one of the following glands should be fitted b) A non-certified gland that meeting the IP
to achieve the minimum requirements? and impact tests.
c) A certified Ex d barrier gland
d) A certified gland that meets IEC 60079-0
standard. v
8.26 When i!1stalling a gland into an Ex nR light a) Locknut only
fitting, what gland accessories are likely to b) Earth tag and lock nut.
be fitted to maintain the restricted c) A restricted breathing washer. V
breathing integri ty? d) A restricted brea thing washer and metal
washer.

8.27 For installation in hazardous areas a) Have practical skills necessary for the J
technicians are required to have a level of installation of the relevant concepts of
competency. Which statement is correct? protection.
b) Have skills to inspect electrical
equipment.
c) Have detailed knowledge of all the
concepts of protection.
d) Have some practical skills.

Ver: 3.4 14
 t!illl01ZOD19V LlOZ'33 «llNV:>S

8.28 During a loss in pressure where the a) No action required.

enclosure is in a Zone 2 (Gc/3G) area and b) Alarm with immediate response. V
the internal equipment is capable of c) Alarm and switch off of components
igniting this atmosphere, what action/s will causing ignition.
occur? d) Alarm wi th response within one hour.

8.29 During a loss in pressure where the a) No action required.

enclosure is in a Zone 1 (Gb/2G) area and b) Alarm with immediate response.
the internal equipment is capable of c) Alarm and switch off of components
igniting this atmosphere, what action/s will causing ignition. V
occur? d) /\lnrm vvith response within one hour.

8.30 With an Ex p system used in a place a) Alarm and immediate action taken to
requiring EPL Gb (Cat 2G) what would be restore the integrity of the system.
considered safe action if the enclosure b) Internal pressurisation is not required.
contained ignition capable apparatus c) Alarm only.
when it lost pressure. d) Alarm and automatic switch off for
internal apparatus. v-
8.31 With an Ex p system used in a place a) Alarm and immediate action taken to
requiring EPL Gc (Cat 3G) what would be restore the integrity of the system.
considered safe action if the enclosure b) v
Internal pressurisation is not required.
contained no ignition capable apparatus c) Alarm only.
when it lost pressure. d) Alarm and automatic switch off for
interna l apparatus.

8.32 Where an Ex p system contains no ignition a) Spark particle barrier is not required.
capable equipment and the enclosure is in b) Spark particle barrier is required.
a place requiring EPL Gc (Cat 3G). If the c) Exhaust into an area where there is no
exhaust duct is located in the hazardous ignition source.
area, Which statement is correct? d) Exhaust into safe area can only be
performed.

Part 9 IS
9.1 What is the minimum clearance distance a) 3 mm
between an IS circuit conductor and an b) 6 mm
earth conductor? c) 4 mm
d) 2 mm

9.2 What is the purpose of safety barriers, a) To allow high currents in the hazardous
such as a zener barrier in an IS circuit for a area.
hazardous area? b) To limit the energy transferred into the
hazardous area.
c) To stop high voltages entering the
hazardous area only.
d) To stop flammable gas entering into the
hazardous area.

Ver: 3.4 15
 t>Hll0ll0~19V LlOz ';n<IllNV::>S

9.3 How many installation faults are a) 3

acceptable on I.S . circuits with Ex ia b) 2
equipment during !landover? c) 1
d) 0

9.4 Intrinsically safe cables are contained a) Both cables must to be armoured
on the same cable tray as non- b) IS and Non-IS cables cannot travel on the
intrinsically safe cables, what can be same cable tray
done to maintain safety to the minimum c) No cables need to be armoured.
standard? d) Only one of the cables needs to be
armoured, metal sheathed or screened.

9.5 What is the mmrmum clearance distance a) 10 mm

between IS circuit conductor connections? b) 6 mm
c) 4mm
d) 2 mm

9.6 According to the standard the high integrity a) 1 conductor 1.5 mm 2

(IS) earill conductor/s should have a b) 1 conductor 4.0 mm 2
minimum size cross sectional area (CSA) c) 2 conductors 2 mm 2
which value is correct? d) 2 conductors 4.0 mm 2

9.7 What is the minimum separation distance a) 20 mm

of IS and Non 1/S circuit terminations in an b) 30 mm
IS sys tem. c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm

9.8 According to the standard the high integrity a) 0.1 .0

(IS) earth conductor/s should not have a b) 1.0 n
resistance greater than which of the c) 2.0 n
following? d) 5.0 n

9.9 All IS installation cables using zener a) 750V ac

protection should be able to withstand an b) 500V ac and 750V de.
insulation resistance (IR) test voltage of c) 500V ac or 750V de.
which of the following? d) 1OOOV de.

9.10 If an IS earth bar is fitted with a single a) 10 mm 2

copper core earth cable, what should be b) 6 mm 2
the minimum Cross Sectional Area c) 4 mm 2
2
(C.S.A.) of the cable? d) 16 mm

9.11 In general, when installing a n IS circuit a) Connect IS earth to any earthed location
using a galvanic barrier, what are the b) Connect IS earth to Dirty (Cabinet) earth.
requirements for the IS dedicated earth, c) Does not require an IS dedicated Earth.
unless otherwise directed? d) Connect 1/S earth at both ends

9.12 IS circuits can have simple apparatus, a) LED's

which of the following is simple? b) Electronic equipment
c) 5V battery
d) Motor

Ver: 3.4 16
 t>HllOllO~H9V LlOt ':u a ll NV.:>S

9.13 Associated equipment such as a zener a) IS circuits

or galvanic barrier contains what b) Non IS circuits
circuits? c) Safe IS circuits
d) Both IS and Non IS circuits

9.14 The value Um (maximum input voltage) a) As discussed by designer.

to an IS circuit, is which of the following? b) As shown in the documentation or the
system drawings.
c) 120V RMS.
d) 250V RMS.

9.15 There is a junction box in a hazardous a) To have fitted certified glands

area which contains IS circuits. What b) To have a red voltage warning label
would be expected? c) To have a label showing "Contains IS
circuits"
d) Blue colour of box.

9. 16 If equipment of EEx ia and EEx ib are a) Safe Loop

used on the same circuit then the whole b) Simple Loop
"LOOP" must be considered as c) ia Loop
d) ib Loop

9.17 Which of the following would be a) EEx s

identified as Intrinsically Safe b) EEx o
equipment? c) EEx ic
d) EEx d

9.18 Which of the following equipment a) EEx ib

markings would be suitable for an area b) EEx e
requiring an EPL Ga (Cat 1G)? c) EEx ia
d) EEx mb

9.19 As a designer of an Intrinsically Safe a) lnductance(L) and Capacitance(C)

circuit where long lengths of cables b) Inductance only
are fitted. What must be considered c) Capacitance only
during the design stage of the circuit? d) lnductance( L) or Capacitance(C)

9.20 Where we have an IS circui t, what a) Earth screen at one end only.
must be done to the screens within a b) Connect screen to earth as per
junction box which has a th roug h documentation .
connection of the screens? c) Do not through connect screen.
d) Connect screen to armour of cable.

9.21 If we have a power supply module, a) Ex e

supplying IS barriers contained in a b) Ex nA
hazardous area EPL Gb/Cat 2G. What c) Ex p
type of protection can be used? d) Ex q

Ver: 3.4 17
 t>Hll0ll0~)19V LlOt ':u a ll NV.:>S

9.22 Which type of Ex n equipment can be a) Ex nA

used as identical to an Ex ic part? b) Ex nC
c) Ex nl
d) Ex nR

9.23 If there is zener barrier equipment a) Remove and test continuity between input
marked [Ex ia] IIC supplying a and output.
hazardous area. If the equipment is b) Measure the between input & output of the
considered faulty how should it be barrier.
tested safely? c) Measure the input to the barrier.
d) Perform an ln::;ulation Resistance test on
the Barrier.

9.24 If we are performing live maintenance a) Proved dead before beginning work.
on an IS circuit/loop by measuring a b) Use a non-certified multimeter.
voltage. What statement is safe and c) Use a certified multimeter.
correct for this situation? d) Use an authorised, certified multimeter..

9.25 Which of the following equipment can a) Ex d

live maintenance be pe1iormed on? b) Ex e
c) Ex ia
d) Ex nR

9.26 If we have an Ex d enclosure in a zone a) Ex e Gland

2 area with equipment inside the b) Ex dGiand
enclosure marked [Ex ia] II C. Wl1at c) Ex d Barrier Gland
gland would be fitted to the enclosure to d) Non Certified Gland
meet the minimum standard?

Part 10 Con1bined
10.1 Where newly purchased equipment shows a) Ex ed
the name tag as a flameproof motor with an b) Ex e
increased safety terminal box for the cable c) Ex de
connections. Which of the following would be d) Ex d
the correct marking?

10.2 If equipment is marked: a) It is older made equipment and wou ld

Ex edqm II T5 have other markings II 2G.
What does this tell us about the equipment? b) The equipment has only one protection
concept which is Ex e.
c) The Ex d tells us we must fit a barrier
gland to this equipment.
d) It is new equipment and would have
other markings II 3G.

Ver: 3.4 t8
 t>Hll0ll0~19V LlOl ';n<IllNV::>S

Part 11 Inspection
11. 1 Within which of the following time scales a) 1 Year
would the standard expect a periodic b) 2 Years
inspection on portable/transportable to be c) 3 Years
carried out? d) 4 Years

11.2 Which standard is referenced to when a) IEC 60079- 10

performing an inspection of electrical b) IEC 60079- 14
equipment in a potentia lly explosive c) IEC 60079- 17
atmospi1ere? d) IEC 60079- 20

11.3 When performing maintenance work (e.g. a) PPE Certificate

fault finding) in a hazardous location on b) Gas free certificate
electrica l equipment. What would you c) Documentation from the plant manager
normally require as a minimum? d) Soldering Iron

11.4 What grade of inspection describes finding a) Initial

faults as "identifies without the use of b) Close
access equipment or tools, those defects, c) Periodic
which will be apparent to the eye"? d) Visual

11.5 Where Ex e equipment is inspected to a a) Flange gap dimensions are within

DETAILED grade of inspection . Which maximum values permitted .
statement is correct? b) The equipment circuit identification is
correct.
c) Enclosed-break and hermetically sealed
devises are undamaged.
d) Stopping boxes and cable boxes are
correctly fitted.

11.6 Which of the following statements relates to a) Motor fans have sufficient clearance to
a DETAILED inspection on an Ex e piece of enclosure and/or covers.
equipment? b) There are no visible unauthorised
modifications.
c) Earth connections are visually tight and
conductors are of sufficient cross-
section
d) Restricted breathing enclosure is
satisfactory.

11.7 Which of the following statements relates to a) Motor fans have sufficient clearance to
a VISUAL inspection on an Ex e piece of enclosure and/or covers.
equipment? b) There are no visible unauthorised
modifications.
c) Flange face joints are clean and
undamaged and gaskets, if any, are
satisfactory
d) Restricted breathing enclosure is
satisfactory.

11.8 Which of the fo llowing statements relates to a) Motor fans have sufficient clearance to
a CLOSE inspection on an IS System? enclosure and/or covers.

Ver: 3.4 19
 "Hll0ll0Dl9V LlOl';n a ll NV::>S

b)Installation is clearly labelled.

c)Cable screens are earthed in local
earth terminals
d) Restricted breathing enclosure is
satisfactory.

11.9 The IEC60079-17 Inspection 'Ex i' table 2 a) Drawing/Equipment list

has the following statement which says: b) Standard
"Equipment installed is that specified in c) Documentation
the " What is the missing d) Toolbox Guide
word?

11.10 Which statement is appropriate for the a) An inspection which identifies, without
grade of inspection known as CLOSE? the use of access equipment or tools,
those defects which are apparent to the
eye.
b) An inspection implemented to verify
that the installation is being maintained
in an appropriate condition. Interval not
more than 3 years
c) An inspection carried out before the
equipment is brought into service.
d) An inspection which includes aspects
which are caved by visual inspection
and will be apparent only by the use of
access equipment and the use of some
tools.

11.11 Which statement is appropriate for the type a) An inspection which identifies, without
of inspection known as INITIAL? the use of access equipment or tools,
those defects which are apparent to the
eye.
b) An inspection implemented to verify
that the installation is being maintained
in an appropriate condition. Interval not
more than 3 years.
c) An inspection carried out during
equipment handover or from installer
before the equipment is brought into
service.
d) An inspection which includes aspects
which are coved by visual inspection
and will be apparent only by the use of
access equipment and the use of some
tools

Ver: 3.4 20
 17HIIOI'ZOD19V LIO'Z';n a 11 NV:JS
..

11.12 For inspection and maintenance the a) Detailed knowledge of IEC 60079-10.
standard defines levels of competence b) The practical skills necessary for the
required for a technician/operative. Which of inspection and maintenance of relevant
the following would apply? concepts of protection.
c) Familiarity with particular techniques
used in the selection and erection of
equipment.
d) l<nowledge about health and safety

11.13 During an inspection you are performing a) Close Inspection.

tests or. cables u::;ing an insulation b) Periodic inspection.
resistance meter. What type of inspection is c) Detailed Inspection.
being performed from the following list? d) Sampled Inspection.

Ver: 3.4 21