SHA SHIB AVIATION ACADEMY,COCHIN

Q1. Approval of cat. F is not required in

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
Q2. Who can raise log book in respect of newly manufactured A/C
1. Manufacture 2. A/W authority of country of manufacture
3. Owner of A/C with prior approval of competent authority
Q3. AO changes its location of maintenance facilities
1. Within 15 days 2. With in 1 month 3. Immediate 4. At earliest opportunity
Q4. Special inspection schedule of A/C MTOW above 5700 kg
1. QCM of operator 2. RAO /SRAO 3. DGCA Hq.
Q5. Authorization will not be issued in case of inspection failure is recorded in
1. 3 month 2. 6 month 3. 12 month 4. 24 month
Q6. Modification is
1. Change incorporated in A/C during major inspection schedule 2. In consultation with RAO
3. Change to type certificated A/C 4. All
Q7. Modification is issued by manufacture on type certificate A/C
1. Require approval of DAGC Hq. 2. Require approval of RAO
3. Deemed to be approved modification 4. 1 & 2
Q8. Approval granted to BAMEL required approval of
1. 6 month in year 2. 3 month in year
3. 3 month in year 4. 6 month in year at least 20 transit /day over inspection
Q9. MTCS ( ETOPS)
1. Fly abroad 2. Fly over water more than 120 NM 3. Fly beyond 120 min. from airport
Q10. MTCS
1. Minimum deviation from normal operation 2. Values are acceptable
3. For reference to indicate corrective action require 4. Fixed in consultation with QC department
Q11. Storage /self life of other than gyro instrument shall not exceed beyond
1. 1yr. 2. 2yr. 3. 3yr. 4. 4yr.
Q12. increase in service life require prior approval of
1. RAO 2. DGCA 3. Both 1 & 2
Q13. ACC 4 of 1998
1. Approval of foreign organization 2. Approval of Indian organization 3. Both 4. None
Q14. Electrostatic device
1. ACC 6 of 2004 2. ACC 6 of 2000 3. ACC 6 of 2001 4. ACC 6 of 2005
Q15. If the A/C does not leave the vicinity of the departing aerodrome require
1. FRC 2. Air operation permit 3. C of A 4. C of R
Q16. Class III aeronautical product does not require
1. A/W Approval tag 2. Compliance with FAR /JAR 21
3. Statement of AD complied with 4. 1&2
Q17. ETOPS manual does not contain
1. A/C serial NO. 2. World fleet 3. Registration No.. 4. APU
Q18. According to CAR 145 uninstalled component excluding engine /APU
1. Class A 2. Class B 3. Class C
Q19. In helicopter when technical unit fails, force landing must be required
1. Class I 2. Class II 3. Class III
Q20. For issue of Cof A
1. CA 28 2. CA 25 3. CA 2001 4. CA 23
Q21. History card contain
1. Hard time 2. On condition 3. condition monitoring 4. 1&2
Q22. Weight and balance
1. Rule 55 2. Rule 56 3. Rule 57 4. Rule 58
Q23. Load and trim sheet is prepared by
1.All operator 2. Schedule operator 3. Non schedule operator 4. All operator excluding private operator
Q24. Section 4 of flight manual
1. Normal 2. Emergency 3. General 4. Limitation
Q25. Refresher course
1. ACC 8 of 2001 2. AAC 5 of 2001 3. ACC 8 of 2000
Q26. refresher course is not require
1. Instructor 2. Flying crew 3. Welders 4. All
Q27. QAR /PMR
1. 50hrs. of operation 2. 30 hrs. of operation 3. 30 days of operation 4. 30 min of operation
Q28. For Mode S address operator will apply
1. DGCA Hq. 2. RAO 3. RAO/SRAO 4. Non e
Q29. Good maintenance practices are not required for
1. Technicians 2. Manger 3. Supervisor 4. All
Q30. When intruder is in potential thread
1. RA 2. TA 3. SSR 4. ACAS
Q31. Flight test is not require in
1. When engine change 2. C of A renewal
3. Any repair which does not affect its flight characteristics 4. All
Q32. Operational check for non radiation load in ELT is done every
1. 12 month 2. 36 month 3. 6month 4. 24 month
Q33. Log book of private A/C is maintained by
1. Owner 2. Operator 3. manufacture 4. All
Q34. Calibration of dipstick is done by
1. DGCA 2. Owner 3. PIC
Q35. Light A/C
1. A/C weight less than 5700 kg or less 2. A/C weight less than 3000kg 3. A/C used for training purpose
Q36. MTCS ( alert Value)
1. Piston engine parameter are recorded every 100 hrs 2. Alert value not for acceptance
4. DGCA office must be inform when alert value is reach
Q37. Detoiration of item is acceptable in
1. Hard time 2. On condition 3. Condition monitoring
Q38. ACAS certification
1. Cat . I 2. Any avionics engineer 3. Cat. R and QCM certification
Q39. If A/C is imported from outside the country its C of A validity will start from
1. Date of issue export C of A 2. As in 1and restricted to validity of export C of A 3. 1&2 correct
Q40. When C of A lapse in the foreign ground
1. Normal procedure for renewal of c of a will be followed 2. Its validity will be extended till it comes back by dgca hq.
3. It will be renewed on the ground where it has lapsed 4. None
Q41. Defect register should be
1. Kept at normal base 2. Carried on board and pilot will enter al defect init 3. Both
Q42. MEL is applicable
1. where manufacture has issue MMEL 2. Scheduled operator 3. General aviation operator 4. All
Q43. When Mel is invoked by AME then AME will
1. Inform the pilot and make all record in the technical log 2. Inform pilot and QCM 3. Both
Q44. For life development program of engine or its accessories then operator will follow
1. Manufacture recommendation 2. TBO 3. Both
45 For fixation of TBO / COSL
1. Manufacture recommendation and operating experience 2. Whether the A/C is for which type 3. All
46 Maintenance control by reliability method
1. QCM 2. QCM/MSM 3.MSM 4. All
47 Procedure for in-house audit
1. QCM 2. QCM/MSM 3.MSM 4. All
48 Weight and balance sheet is prepared by
1. All operator 2. scheduled operator 3. Non scheduled operator 4. All
49 Guidance installation of A/C radio equipment
1. A/C rules 1937 2. BCR section R AC 4313 3. R –I 4. Both 1&2
50 When MEL is prepared schedule operator will inform about forward carried defect to
1. Monthly to concerned RAO 2. 3 month to DGCA 3. Monthly to manufacture 4. Any of the above
51 MTCS
1. Damage tolerant 2. If it does not sustain remaining parts damage 3. Both
52 If A/C sustains damage outside country ferry flight permit is given by
1. A/w authority when a/c is on base 2. DGCA Hq. 3. Regulatory authority of country of
manufacture
53 MTCS hoses
1. Periodic inspection of hoses is done once a yr. 2. Hose pressure to be tested 1 ½ workly pressure 3. 1&2 4.
None
54 when any operator is importing any a/c with document he will carry history card for inspection for such components to
carrying out the maintenance
1. Hard maintenance and on condition 2. Hard time maintenance 3. Condition monitoring 4, All
55 Form CA 25 is for
1. C of R 2. C of A 3. Flight manual 4. All
56 which of the following radially accessible to pilot
1. Flight manual 2. Operation manual 3. Log book 4. All
57 If a/c is not living its vicinity area the documents required on the board
1. C of A 2. Air operator permit 3. JLB 4. FRC
58 Responsibility for log book of private a/c
1. Operator 2. QCM 3. Organization
59 When Cof A of an A/c is ceased at out side of India
1. A/C will be brought to India with ferry flight 2. Procedure will be completed at the station where A/C is grounded
60 When any operator changes its location than he will notify DGCA
1. With in 15 days of change 2. With in 30 days 3. Immediately 4. At earliest
opportunity
61 Which organization need separating approval for cat. F
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
62 The operator can change from one maintenance process to another e.g from Hard time maintenance to on condition or on
condition to condition or vise versa such as a program will have to be approved by
1. RAO 2. DGCA 3. QCM 4. All
63 Light A/C means
1. AUW 5700 kg or less 2. AUW 3000kg or above 3. AUW 7000 kg 4. All
64 The maintenance program to which the a/c has been previously maintained including
1. Previous check cycle 2. Future check cycle 3. Compliance with Indian mandatory 4. All
65 Maintenance control by reliability method is a part of which manual
1. QC manual 2. MS manual 3. operator manual 4. ALL
66 Special inspection schedule of an a/c over 5700kg auw will be approved by
1. QCM 2. RAO 3. DGCA
67 If instrument of indicating fuel quantity is not satisfactory than it is whose responsibility to carry dipstick
1. pilot 2. AME 3. Flight crew 3. ALL
68 After duplicate inspection if any part is disturbed than
1. A/ C will release with QCM permission 2. A/ C will be released with invoking MEL 3. The disturbed part will be
inspected in duplicate by a person authorized for it
69 A/ C fitted with PMR /QMR its retaining period will be of
1. 30 hrs. 2. 30 days 3. 50 days 4. 50 hrs .
70 ACAS should be installed by
1. Cat. A &C 2. Any avionic cat. 3. Cat. R and authorized
71 Guidance for ESDS is in
1. AAC 6 of 2000 2. ACC 2 of 2006
72 operation check of non radiating load EIT
1. With in 12 months 2. within 6 month 3. With in 3 month 4. none
73 Who can raise the log book of newly manufactured a/c
1. Manufacture 2. regulatory authority 3. owner in consultation with competent authority
74 Schedule operator will analyze all defects related to MEL will be submitted to
1. RAO every month 2. DGCA 3 month
75 Modification means
1. Change of design 2. Change in type certified product 3. Modification is carried out during major
inspection schedule 4. All
76 When operator do any modification to he will inform
1. Manufacture 2. DGCA hq. 3. RAO 4. All
77 MTCS
1. Minimum deviation from normal operating range 2. Acceptable limit 3. For reference only for piston
engine that corrective action is required
78 When component of the propeller is removed from engine entry should be made
1. Propeller and engine log book 2. As in 1 also in a/c log book 3. Components own log book
79 Authorization will not be renewed to a person it has failed in inspection record in last
1. 3month 2. 6month 3. 12 month
80 A/C defect register shall be
1. Kept on board 2. At the normal base 3. As in 1 and all abnormal occurrence like heavy landing will be entered by
flight crew
81 In case a/c sustain damage outside the country application for special flight permit is given to
1. A/w office where a/c is based 2. DGCA 3. Where a/c sustain damage
82 In which case flight test is not required
1. When engine is changed 2. Any modification which does not effect flight safety 3. Major modification
83 Preparation of MEL is mandatory for
1. For whom MMEL is issued 2. General aviation 3. Non schedule 4. All
84 When AME invoke MEL
1. Inform to pilot 2. As in 1mentaion technical log
85 For approval of sub base the inspection schedule should be less than
1. 50 hrs. 2. 100hrs, 3. 200hrs. 4. None
86 Approval granted to BAMEL require
 1. 6monthly in 1yr. 2. 3 month in 6 month 3. 3 month in 1 yr4. 6 month in 1 yr at least 20 transit/ lay over

HUMAN FACTOR

1 The study of efficiency of person in their working environment and human machine system design
issues is called
1. Agronomics 2. Economics 3. Ergonomics 4. All
02 An error or violation which has an immediate adverse effect is called
1. Active failure 2. Passive failure 3. Latent failure 4. None
03 A result of action or decision made wall before an accident the consequence which may remain dormant for a log time is
known as
1. Active failure 2. safety failure 3. Latent failure 4. All
04 The error may have been caused by latent failure such as deficient training, poor allocation of resources time pressure etc.
they may also have been caused by
1. Poor design of tool /equipment 2. Poor maintenance 3. Poor training
05 Knob and lever which are poorly located or lack of proper coding creates mismatch interface between
1. Live ware 2. Software 3. Hardware 4. 1&3 both
06 The difference between personality and attitude is
1. relevant 2. irrelevant 3. As in 1 and it is unrealistic to expect a change in personality through routine training
4. As in 2 and attitude are less susceptible to change through training
07 The difference between what a person can do what he will actually do is called
1. Motivation 2. Co- ordination 3. Inspiration 4. De-motivation
08 The factor that determines whether a person will do so in a given situation is called
1. Co- ordination 2. Motivation 3. Co- operation
09 A person whose ideas and action influence the thought and the behavior of other is known as
1. politician 2. Leader 3. Commander
10 A condition reflecting inadequate rest as well as collection of symptoms associated with displaced or disturbed biological
rhythms is called
1. Jet log 2. Circadian rhythms 3. Fatigue
11 The use of drugs such as hypnotics, sedatives and tranquilizers to induce sleep is usually
1. appropriate 2. Inappropriate 3. as in 2 and they have adverse effect on performance 4. As in 1 and should be
taken with advise of medical practitioner
12 Caffeine in coffee, tea and various soft drinks increases alertness and
1. Keep awaking 2. Reduces reaction times 3. Health in sleep 4. Both 1&3
13 Sleep has a restorative function and is essential for mental performance. Sleep deprivation and disturbance can
1. Increase alertness and attention 2. Increase performance 3. Reduce alertness and attention 4. None
14 Faulty maintenance work which contributed to the accident was performed
1. During night sift only 2. during inspection in day light 3. Inducing L-E interface flaw 4. 1&3
15 Climbing over wings and horizontal stabilizer and working in uncomfortable position are common and generally engineers
performance in this situation may be related to
1. Fitness and health 2. Mental situation of individual 3. Good performance as he is alone on work
16 Glare may produces discomfort or annoyance and
1. Helps in working environment to see object 2. May inter fare with visual performance
17 Vibration in any form of oscillating motion that changes its magnitude periodically and is of operational significance in
aviation because
 1. It does not impair visual acuity 2. It may impair visual acuity 3. Interfere with neuromuscular control and lead to
fatigue 4. Both 2&3
18 The success of communication program depends on
1. Non verbal /gesture communication 2. The degree to which the intended massage is understood by the receiver
3. Background noise problem
19 For the study of information related to the investigation human factors issues are obtained from
1. Advisory circular 2. Information circular 3. Maps
4. Chart/navigation (check list)
20 error tolerance refers to
1. Error reduction strategies which includes improving access to part 2. The ability of a system to accept en error with
out catastrophic consequences
21 study of efficiency of a person, study of human machine system design is
1. Agronomics 2. Ergonomics 3. Human factor 4. None
22 Factor that effect the human performance
1. noise 2. Environment 3. As in 1&2 light and darkness 4. None
23 The difference between what a person can do and what he will do
1. Motivation 2. Communication 3. Culture
24 the frequency of vibration, acceleration changes which effect
1. Visual acuity 2. Neuromuscular system 3. Fatigue 4. Any of the above
25 A condition reflecting inadequate rest is called
1. Circadian rhythm disturbance 2. Fatigue 3. None
26 The difference between attitude and personality is
1. Relevant 2. irrelevant 3. As in 1 and attitude can be changed through training 4. As in 2and
personality can be changed through training
27 A person whose ideas and act’s influence thought and behavior of other
1. Leader 2. Supervisor 3. Co ordination 4. Manager
28 The stress due to noise, temp., humidity is called
1. Environmental stress 2. Mental stress 3. Cognitive stress
29 Coffin in coffee and tea has effect
1. Reduces the reaction time 2. Increases the reaction time 3. As in 1 nad disturb sleep
30 Transequilizers and sleeping tablets
1. Adequate and doctor advice 2. Inadequate 3. As in 2 and affect human performance
31 Glare produces causes
1. Discomfort and annoyance 2. As in 1 and may interfere with visual performance
32 When inspection is carried out over fuselage and wing the performance of AME depends
1. Mental status of AME 2. Health and physical status of AME 3. Social status of AME
33 Error tolerance means
1. The ability of a system to accept an error with out catastrophic consequences
34 Factor affecting training
1. Discomfort 2. As in 1 and low motivation
35 Training program of an organization is for
1. To develop interpersonal relationship 2. Increase group decision making 3. As in 2 and develop interpersonal skill
36 To eliminate error completely is unrealistic so the design of a/c should be
1. Fail safe 2.Error tolerant 3. Safe failure 4. Damage tolerant
37 Errors are caused due to carelessness negligence or poor judgment and other are caused
1. Poorly designed equipment 2. As in 1 and normal reaction of a person to a particular situation
38 Knobs and levers which are poorly located or lack of proper coding create mismatch at
1. Live ware and hard ware 2. Live ware and live ware 3. Live ware and software
39 A good communication is ensured when
1. When massage of sender is understood by recipient 2. Message of sender isn’t understood by recipient
40 Human factor training on communication is to
1. Prevent communication error 2. Explanation of common communication problem 3. Ambiguous, Misleading,
inappropriate combined with expect 4. All
41 Failures are of two types the failure which are error and violation having an immediate adverse effect is called
1. Latent failure 2. Active failure 3. Active and latent failure
42 The failure which may remain dormant for a long time is called
1. Latent Failure 2. Active failure
43 Knob and levers poorly located or lack of proper coding create mismatch at
1. Live ware interface 2. Soft ware interface 3. Hard ware interface 4. As in 1&3
44 Well designed team result in
1. Improvement in work performance 2. As in 1 and employees satisfaction 3. Low productivity
45 there should be a mechanism in team
1. To identify individual performance 2. As in 1 and individual contribution to team
46 Which of the following has pathogenic effect impaired hearing change in blood pressure headaches, gastrointestinal
problem such as ulcers
 1. Illumination 2. Sickness 3. Noise
47 Sleep deprivation and disturbance has affect on
1. Weaken our body 2. Reduce alertness and attention
48 Work team should have
1. Various skills 2. No. of task 3. As in 1 &2 such as hydraulic, electrical and rigging skills
49 What determine whether a person will do so in a given situation
1. Communication 2. Motivation 3. Co ordination 4. All
50 potential for worker satisfaction and improved out can be achieved by
1. Regard system 2. Selection and staffing 3. Training 4. All
51 Faulty maintenance work which contribute to the accident was performed during
1. Night shift 2. Day shift 3. Shift hand over and as in 1
52 Errors are mainly caused due to
1. Deficient training to maintenance person 2. Poor allocation of resources and maintenance tool 3. Time pressure 4. As
in 1,2,and 3 and poor ergonomics design of tool
53 While some error may be due to carelessness negligence or poor judgment many are induced by
1. Poorly designed equipment 2. Time pressure 3. Poor training 4. None
54 Errors due to poor equipment design or stressful are likely to be remedied by
1. Proper training to engineer 2. Practicing ergonomics 3. None