Civil Engineering Gate 2017 Question

1. A soil sample is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure . The Mohr circle for any point in
the soil sample would be

(a) A circle of radius and center at the origin

(b) A circle of radius and center at a distance from the origin
(c) A point at a distance from the origin

(d) circle of diameter and center at the origin

Ans: (c)
EXP:
2
�sx - sy � 2
� �+ t
Radius of Mohr circle = � 2 �
Given : sx = s y =sz =s t = 0
2
�s - s � 0
R= � �+ 0 = 0
�2 �
s + sy s + s
Centre = x = =s
2 2

Mohr circle a point at a distance of form origin.

2. An elastic bar of length L, uniform cross sectional area A, coefficient of thermal

expansion and Young’s modulus E is fixed at the two ends. The temperature of the bar is
increased by T, resulting in an axial stress. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, if
the length of the bar is doubled, the axial stress would be

(a) s (b) 2s
(c) 0.5s (d) 0.25as

Ans: (a)
EXP:
 From compatibility
d T = dR = 0
RL
=D L޵ T
AE
R
� s= = stress
A
= E �DT

Hence stress is independent of length of bar

3. A simply Suppotred beam is subjected to a uniformly distribution load . which one of

the following statement is true 3

(a) maximum or minimum shear force occurs where the curvature is zero
(b) Maximum or minimum bending moment occurs where the shear force is zero
(c) Maximum or minimum bending moment occurs where the curvature is zero
(d) Maximum bending moment and maximum shear force occur at the same section

Ans: 90. (b)

EXP:

For section AB
 For equilibrium
�M0 = 0
Dx
M + VDx + Wx Dx - (M + DM) = 0
2
( Dx )
2

DM = VDx + Wx
2

lim
DM
= lim �
�
V + Wx
( Dx ) �
Dx �0 Dx
�
Dx �0
� 2 �
dM
� =V
dx
and we know that for any function to the maximum or minimum it’s differential
should be equal to zero.
Hence is equation (i) for bending moment (M) to be maximum or minimum �
dM
=0
dx
dM
=0 V =0
Hence dx

4. Consider the stepped bar made with a linear elastic material and subjected to an axial
load of 1 kN as shown in the figure/
. Segments 1 and 2 have cross sectional area of 100 mm 2 young’s modulus of 2 x 105
MPa and 3 x 105 MPa and length of 400 mm and 900 mm respectively. The strain energy
in N-mm up to one decimal place in the bar due to the axial load is S_________

Ans. 43-35

5. Consider two axially loaded columns namely 1 and 2, made of linear elastic material
with section with side 10 mm and length 1 m. For column 1. One end is fixed and the
other end is free. For column 2 one end is fixed and the other end is pinned. Based on
the Euler’s theory the ratio (up to one decimal place) of the buckling load of column 2 to
the buckling load of column 1 is

Ans: 92. Ans. 8

EXP:
pEI
Euler’s Bukling load = ie
2

ieffective for column 1 = 2i

i
ieffective for column 1 =
2
2
� �
P2 �i1 � �2i �
=� � =� �
P1 �i2 �
effective �i �
� �
�2 �

( )
2
= 2 2 =8
6. In a material under a state of plane strain a 10 x 10 mm square centered at a point
gets deformed as shown in the figure

g xy
If the shear strain at this point is expressed as 0.001 k (in rad) the value of k is

(a) 0.50 (b) 0.25

(c) -0.25 (d) -0.50

Ans: (d)
EXP:
Shear strain in an element is positive when the angle between two positive faces (or two
negative faces) is reduced. The strain is negative when the angle between two positive
(or two negative) faces increase.

\ g xy = - 0.0005 = 0.001 k
Q K = - -0.5

7. Two prismatic beams having the same flexural rigidity of 1000 kN-m 2 are shown in
the figures
If the mid span deflections of these beams are denoted by d1 and d2 (as indicated in the
figures) the correct option is

(a) d1 =d 2 (b) d1 < d2

(c) d1 > d2 (d) d1 >>d2

Ans: (a)
EXP:

5 wL4
d1 =
384 EI
5 6 �4 4
= �
384 10000 m
= 20 mm
P = 120 kN

PL
dL =
48EI
120 �23
=
48 �10000 m
= 20 mm
\ d1 = d2
8. Consider the three prismatic beams with the clamped supports, P, Q and R as shown
in the figures.

Given that the modulus of elasticity. E is 2.5 x 10 4 MPa. and the moment of inertia. I is 8 *
108 mm4, the correct comparison of the magnitudes of the shear force S and the bending
moment M developed at the supports is
(a) SP < SQ < SR, MP = MQ = MR

(b) SP = SQ > SR, MP = MQ > MR

(c) SP < SQ > SR, MP = MQ = MR

(d) SP < SQ < SR, MP < MQ < MR

Ans: (c)
EXP:

For
 �fv = 0
� V = 80 N

\ shear force at support = Sp = 80 N

� moment at support = 80 x 8 = 640 Nm

� Mp = 640 Nm

For Q

�fv = 0
� V = 20 �8 = 160N
\ Shear force at support = SQ = 160 N
8
� moment at support = MQ = 20 �8 �
2
= 640 Nm

For = 0

�fv = 0
V = 0 = SR

Moment at support = MR = 640 Nm

Hence, by above value

SP , SQ > SR & MP = MQ = MR

9. A simply supported rectangular concrete beam of span 8 m has to be prestressed

with a force of 1600 kN. The tendon is of parabolic profile having zero eccentricity at the
supports. The beam has to carry an external uniformly dis-tributed load of intensity 30
kN/m. neglecting the self-weight of the beam, the maximum dip (in meters up to two
decimal place) of the ten- don at the mid-span to balance the external load should be
Ans: Sol. (0.15)
EXP:

Shape of tendon profile will follow the shape of bending moment diagram and for
equilibrium of the section having maximum bending moment

10. Following are the statements related to the stress paths in a triaxial testing of soils.
P. If s1 =s3 , the stress point lies at the origin of the p-q plot
Q. If s1 =s3 , the stress point lies on the p-axis o the p-q plot

R. If s1 =s3 , both the stress points p and q are positive. For the above statements, the
correct combination is

(a) P-False; Q-True; R-True

(b) P-True; Q-False; R-True
(c) P-False; Q-True; R-False
(d) P-True; Q-True; R-False

Ans: (a)

EXP:
 2s1
When s1 = s3 q = 0, p = 2 = s1
So stress point lies on p axis of p-q plot
If s1 >s3
s1 - s3
q= so q > 0
2
s + s3
p= 1 sop > 0
2

So, stress point p & q are positive

11. A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100 mm and inner diameter of 50
mm. If the allowable shear stress is 125 MPa, the maximum torque (in kN-m) that the
shaft can resist is_______

Ans. 23
EXP:
 Tmax tallowable
� =
J R
125 �p �
Tmax = �� �( 1004 - 504 ) �
50 �32 �
= 23009711.82N - mm
10 +6 N - mm
= 23.00 �
= 23 kN - m

12. A column is subjected to a load through a bracket as shown in the figure

The resultant force (in kN, up to one decimal place) in the bolt is _______

Ans. (5.99)
Exp:

P = 10 kN e =15 cm
r1 = r2 = r3 = r1 = 5 cm
P
direct load to bolt(1) =
4
10
F1 = = 2.5 kN
4
Force in bolt (1) due to moment
 per
=
�r12
10 �15 �5
F2 =
4 �52
= 7.5 kN

Angle between force

F1 and F2 = 1350
F 12 + F 22
R=
+2 F1 F2 cos (1350 )

2.5 + 7.52
= +2 �2.5
�7.5 �cos (1350 )
= 5.99kN

13. Two plates of 8 mm thickness each are connected by a fillet weld of 6 mm thickness
as shown in the figure

The permissible stresses in the plate and he weld are 150 MPa and 110 MPa
respectively assuming the length of the weld shown in the figure to be the effective
length he permissible load P (in kN) is

Ans. (60)
Maximum load taken by plate
= 150 x 50 x 8 = 60 kN
Maximum load taken by the weld
= KS Ieff t
= 0.7 x 6 x (100+50+100) x 110 = 115.5 kN
\ permissible load = minimum of above two 60 kN

13. Group I list the type of gain or loss of strength in soils, Group II lists the property or
process responsible for the loss or gain of strength in soils
Group I
P. Regain of strength with time
Q. Loss of strength due to cyclic loading
R. Loss of strength due to upward seepage
S. Loss of strength due to remolding

Group II
1. Boiling
2. Liquefaction
3. Thixotropy
4. Sensitivity
The correct match between Group I and Group II is
(a) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Exp:
Thixotropy is that property of soil due to which loss of strength on remoulding can be
regained if left undisturbed for some time.
If rate of loading is larger and soil is saturated +ve pore water pressure will develope.
This will reduces effective stress and hence strength. If effective stress reduces to zero.
The soil will loss all its shear strength. This is known as liquefaction. It occurs during
pile driving vibration of machine, explore blasting, earthquake shock.
There can be cumulative increase in pore water pressure under successive cycle of
loading.
When upward flow is taking place at critical hydraulic gradient a soil such as sand losses
all its shearing strength. This condition is called quick sand condition or boiling of sand.
Degree of disturbance achieved on remoulding is expressed by sensitivity.

14. A triangular pipe network is shown in the figure.

The head loss in each pipe is given by h f = rQ1.8, with the variables expressed in a
consistent set of units. The value of r for the pipe AB is 1 and for the pipe BC is 2. If the
discharge supplied at the point A (i.e., 100) is equally divided between the pipes AB and
AC, the value of r (up to two decimal places) for the pipe AC should be _____

Ans. 0.62
Exp:

If the discharge supplied at point A is equally divided so Q AB 50 m3/s

QAC = 50 m3/s

Head loss in closed loop is zero

�rQ n = 0
�rQ1.8 = 0
1�501.8 - 2 �201.8 - r �501.8 = 0
1�501.8 = 703.833
r = 0.615
�0.62

15. For a steady incompressible laminar flow between two infinite parallel stationary
plates, the shear stress variation is
(a) linear with zero value at the plates
(b) linear with zero value at the center
(c) quadratic with zero value at the plates
(d) quadratic with zero value at the center

Ans: (d)
Exp:

quadratic with zero value at the center

16. A sluice gate used to control the flow in a horizontal channel of unit is shown in the
figure

It is observed that the depth of flow is 1.0 m upstream of the gate, while the depth is 0.2
m downstream of the gate. Assuming a smooth flow transition across the sluice gate, i.e.,
without any energy loss, and the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s 2, the discharge
(in m3/s, up to two decimal places) passing under the sluice gate is ________

Ans: (b)
Exp:

Velocity variation
 1 �-� p�
v= � �(By - y )
2

2m �� x �
Shear stress
du
t=m
dy
1 �� p�
= �� �(B - 2y)
2 �� x�
B
y = , t=0
2
y = 0, t = tmax

17. Water flows through a 900 bend in a horizontal plane as depical in the figure

A pressure of 140 kPa is measured t section 1-1. The inlet diameter marked at section
27 14
cm
1-1 is p cm. while the nozzle diameter marked as section 2-2 is p Assume the
flowing
(i) Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2
(ii) Weights of both the bent pipe segment as well as water are negligible
(iii) Friction across the bend is negligible
The magnitude of the force (in kN up to two decimal places) that would be required to
hold the pipe section

Ans. 0.82 m3/s per meter width

There is no energy loss so

E1 = E2
v12 v2
y1 + = y2 + 2
2g 2g
Q Q
1+ 2
= 0.2 +
2gA1 2gA 22
Q2 �1 1�
� 2 - 2 �= 1 - 02
2g �A 2 A1 �
Q 2 �1 1�
� 2
- 2 �= 0.8
2 �10 � 0.2 1 �
16
Q2 =
24
2
Q2 =
3
Q = 0.82 m3 / s

18. If a centrifugal pump has an impeller speed of N (in rpm) discharge Q (in m 3/s) and
the total head H (in m), the expression for the specific speed N s of the pump is given by

NQ 0.5
Ns =
(a) H0.5
NQ 0.5
Ns =
(b) H
NQ 0.5
Ns = 0.75
(c) H
NQ
Ns = 0.75
(d) H
Ans. 3.29
Exp:
Pressure at the exit of nozzle is taken as zero because water at the outlet of nozzle will
be discharging atmosphere
P1 V12 P2 V22
+ Z1 + = + Z2 +
lw g gw 2g
140 �103 Q2 �1 1 �
+0=0+0 �2 - 2 �
9810 2g �A 2 A1 �
� �
� �
2 � 1 1 �
280 = Q -
��p 0.14 �
2
�p 0.27 ��
2

�� � � �� ��
��4 p � �4 p ��
Q = 0.085 m3/s

In x direction momentum equation is given by

Q
P1A1 - Fx =rQ(V2 - V1 ), V2 = 0, V1 =
A1
p 0.27 2 1000 �0.0852
= 140 �103 � � +
4 p p 0.27
�
4 p
= 2.947 kN
In y - direction momentum
fy = rQV2
0.085
= 1000 �0.085 �
p 0.142
�
4 p
=1.47kN

Resultant force = 2.947 2 + 1.472

= 3.29 kN

19. Water is pupped at steady uniform flow rate of 0.01 m 3/s though a horizontal
smooth circular pipe of 100 mm diameter. Given that the Reynold number is 800 and g
is 9.81 m/s2, the head loss (in meters upto one decimal place) per km length due to
friction would be______

Ans: (c)
Exp:
 N Q NQ 0.5
NS = = 0.75
H3/ 4 H

48 Sol. (66.1)
Q = 0.01 m3 / s
d =100 mm
Re = 800
g = 9.81 m / s 2
fIV 2
hf =
2gd

Since Re is less 2000 the flow will be laminar

64
Hence f = Re
64
= = 0.08
800
fIQ 2
hf =
12.1d5
0.08 ��I (0.01)2
=
12.1�(0.1)5
= 0.0661I

Hence head loss per km length = 0.0661

X 1000 = 66.1I

20. The figure shows a U-tube having a 5 mm x 5 mm square cross-section filled with
mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) upto a height of 20 cm in each limb (open to the
atmosphere).

If 5 cm3 of water is added to the right limb, the new height (in cm up to two decimal
places) of mercury in the LEFT limb will be
Ans. 20.74
Exp:

Height of water column

5 cm3 �1000
5mm �5mm
= 20 cm = 0.2m

Since P2 = P1
Hence, 0.2 �g w + (0.2 - x) �13.6 �g w
= (0.2+x) �13.6 �= (0.2 + x) �13.6 �g w
� 0.2+13.6 x 0.2 – 13.6 x
= 13.6 x 0.2 x13.6 x
� 0.2 = 27.2x
� x = 7.35 x 10-3 m
= 0.735 cm

New height = 20.735

a b
21. The reaction rate involving reactions A and B is given by -k[A] [B] . Which one of
the following statements is valid for the reaction to be a first-order reaction?
energy. The subcritical depth is twice the supercritical depth. The subcritical depth (in
meters, up to two decimal places) is equal to

a = 0 and b = 0
(a)
a =1 and b = 0
(b)
(c)
a =1 and b = 1
a =1 and b = 2
(d)

Ans: (b)
Exp:

In chemical kinetics, the order of reaction with respect to a given substance (reactant,
catalyst or product) is defined as the index or exponent to which its concentration term
in the rate equation is raised. For typical rate equation of form
R = k [A]x [B]y overall reaction order = x + y so first order reaction
a + b=1

22. A particle mass 2 kg is traveling at a velocity of 1.5 m/s A force f (t0 = 30t 2 (in N) is
applied to it the direction of motion for a duration of 2 seconds. Where t denoted time in
seconds the velocity (in m/s up to one decimal place) of the particle immediately after
the removal of the force is _____

Ans. 5.5 m/s

f(t) = 3t2
mQ = 3t 2
dv
m = 3t 2
dt
v 2
2�dv = �3t2 dt
1.5 0

2(v - 1.5) = 8
v = 5.5 m / s
23. A 1m wide rectangular channel has a bed slope of 0.0016 and the Manning’s
roughness coefficient is 0.04. Uniform flow takes place in the channel at a flow depth of
0.5. At a particular section gradually varied flow GVF is observed and the flow depth is
measured as 0.6m. The GVF profile at that section is classified as

(a) S (b) S2
(c) M1 (d) M2

Ans: (c)
Exp:

Given depth ( gn ) = 0.5 m

1 2/3
AR S
2
2/3
1 � 1�0.5 �
= �0.5 �� � 0.0016
0.04 1 + 2 �0.5 �
�
= 0.198 m3 / s
1/ 3 1/ 3
�q2 � �0.198 �
yc = � � = � � = 0.1586 m
�g � �9.81 �

24. A 1m wide rectangular channel carries discharge of 2m3/s. The specific energy-
depth diagram is prepared for the channel. It is observed in this diagram that
corresponding to a particular specific energy. The subcritical depth is twice the sritical

Ans. 1.07
Exp:

Let, Subcritical depth = y

y
Then, super critical depth = 2
Q Specific energy at subcritical depth = specific energy at super critical depth
Q2 y Q2
� y+ = + 2
2gB2 y 2 2 �y �
2gB � �
�2 �
� y � Q �-1 4 �
2
�� y - �= 2 �2
+ 2�
� 2 � 2gB �y y �
y 22 3
� = 2
�2
2 2 �9.81�1 y
\ y =1.069 ; 1.07

25. The wastewater from a city, containing a high concentration of biodegradable

organics, is being steadily discharged into a flowing river at a location S. If the rate of
aeration of the river water is lower than the rate of degradation of the organics, then the
dissolved oxygen of the river water
(a) is lowest at the location S
(b) is lowest at a point upstream of the location S
(c) remains constant all along the length of the river
(d) is lowest at a point downstream of the location S

Ans. (d)

At (A) rate of reoxygenation is equal to rate of deoxygenation. Before (A) rate of

reoxygenation is less that rate of deoxygenation. The DO continuously decreases when
rate of deoxygenation > Rate of reoxygenation It reaches a minimum when the two
rates because equal in magnitude and after that when rate of reoxygenation > rate of
deoxygenation DO increases. In the figure, the point (S) is at upstream of minimum DO
location or minimum location is downstream of (S).

26. Which one of the following is not present in the acid rain

(a) HNO3 (b) H2 SO4

(c) H2 CO3 (d) CH3 COOH

Ans. (d)

Exp:
Acid rain result due to conversant of atmospheric gases into strong acidic compounds
NOx SOx and CO2 present in the atmospheric reacts with the water vapour and sunlight
forming HNO3, HSO4 and H2CO3 which are present in the acid rain

27. The wastewater having an organic concentration of 54 mg/l is flowing at a steady

rate of 0.8 m3/day through a detention tank of dimensions 2 m × 4 m × 2 m. If the
contents of the tank are well mixed and the decay constant is 0.1 per day, the outlet
concentration (in mg/l, up to one decimal place) is ____________
Ans. 0.54 mg/I
Exp:

mg
( L0 ) = 54
Given � intial concentration i
Q = 0.8 m3/day
V = 2 x 4 x 2 = 16 m3
16
( td ) = = 20 day
Detention Time 0. 5
Out concentration Lt = L0 = KTd
Note : if decay constan1 to 0.2 per dat then we take base as 10.
If decay constant is greater then 0.2 then we take base as e.

L t = L 0 �100.1�20
= 54 �10-0.1�20
= 0.54 mg / i

Note that if decay constant is assumed to have been given at base ‘e’
L t = L 0 e-Kt = 54e-0.1�20 = 7.3 mg / i

28. The spherical grit particles having a radius of 0.01 mm and specific gravity of 3.0
need to be separated in a settling chamber it is given that g = 9.81 m/s 2The density of
the liquid in the settling chamber = 1000 kg/m 3The kinematic viscosity of the liquid in
the setting chamber = 10–6 m2/s Assuming laminar conditions the setting velocity on
mm/sec up to one decimal place

Ans. 0.436
Exp:
Setting velocity =
( gs - g ) d23
18m
m
= 10 -6 m/ s
r
m =10-3 N - s / m2
d = 0.02 mm = 2 �10-5 m
(3 �9810 - 9810) �(2 �10-5 )2
Vs =
18 �10-3
= 4.36 �10-4 m / s
= 0.436 mms
29. Two wastewater streams A and B having an identical ultimate BOD are getting
mixed to form the stream C. The temperature of the stream A is 20° C and the
temperature of the stream C is 10°C. It is given that
The 5-day BOD of the stream A measured at 20 0 C = 50 mg/I BOD rate constant (base
10) at 200 C = 0.115 per day Temperature coefficient = 1.135 The 5-day BOD (in mg/I
up to one decimal place) of the stream C. calculate at 100 C is _____

Ans. 21.2 mg/I

Exp:
In activated sludge process in the presence of food mass and oxygen hetetrophic
bacteria converts food mass into biomass

30. The most important type of species involved in the degradation of organic matter in
the case of activated sludge process is

(a) autotrophs
(b) heterotrophs
(c) prototrophs
(d) photo autotrophs

Ans. (d)
Exp:
Scope of construction work is well-defined with all its drawings, specification quantities
and estimates, then lump sum contract is used.

31. Following observations have been made for the elevation and temperature to
ascertain the stability of the atmosphere.

Elevation (in m) Temperature

(in °C)
10 15.5
 60 15.0
130 14.3

The atmosphere is classified as

(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) Natural
(d) Inverse

Ans. (b)

Exp:

Elevation (in m) Tem. (0C)

10 15.5
60 15.0
130 14.3

DT 15.5 - 15.0
ELR1 = = = 0.010 c / m
Dh 60 - 10
15.0 - 14.3
ELR2 = 0.01 0C / m
130 - 60
Q Adiabatic lapse rate (ALR) is 9.8 0C/km
For dry adiabatic and 6.c/km for wet adiabatic condition

ELR=0.01 �1000 = 100 C/km

Q ELR > ALR
Hence it is said to be super adiabatic and the atmosphere is said to be highly unstable

32. As per Noise pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time
noise limit for a residential zone expressed in dB (A) L eq is

(a) 55 (b) 65
(c) 75 (d) 85

Ans. (a)
Exp:
As per Noise pollution (Regulation and control) Rules 2000 of India
Area code Area / zone Limits in dB
L eg
day time
night time
 A Industrial 75
70
B Commercial 65
area 55
C Residential 55
area 45
D Silence zone 50
40

33. For a given water sample, the ratio between BOD5-day 20°C and the ultimate BOD is
0.68. The value of the reaction rate constant k (on base e) (in day-1, up to two decimal
places) is_______

Ans. 0.23
Exp:
Let BOD5day = L 0 (1 - e-5k )
Ultimate BOD = L 0
L 0 (1 - e-5k )
\ = 0.68
L0
� e-5k = 0.32
1 �1 �
\ K = in � �
5 �0.32 �
= 0.2279
; 0.23

34. The composition of a municipal solid waste sample is given below:

Component Percent by Moisture Content Energy Content
Mass (%) (kJ/kg. on as - discarded basis)
Food Waste 20 70 2500
Paper 10 4 10000
Cardboard 10 4 8000
Plastics 10 1 14000
Garden 40 60 3500
Trimmings
Wood 5 20 14000
Tin Cans 5 2 100

The difference between the energy content of the waste sample calculated
on dry basis and as discarded basis (in kJ/kg) would be
Ans. 3870
Exp:

Com % Mo dry ene To Tot

pon B ist rgy ta al
ent y ur l ene
e dr rgy
y
-1 m Co con as m as
a nte ten as
s nt t% s
s %
- -3 -4 dis -6 dis
2 car car
ded ded
97 -5 -7
(kJ
/kg
)
(2 (2)
)x x
(4 (5)
)
1 10
0 0
0
Foo 2 70 30 25 6 50
d 0 00 0
was
te
Pap 1 4 96 10 9. 10
er 0 00 6 00
0
Car 1 4 96 80 9. 80
d 0 00 6 0
boar
d
Plas 1 1 99 14 9. 14
tics 0 00 9 00
0
Gar 4 60 40 35 1 14
den 0 00 6 00
trim
min
 g
Woo 5 20 80 14 4 70
d 00 0
Tin 5 2 98 10 4. 5
Cars 9
6 =
0 58
05
kJ/
kg
Energy on dry basis it will be the total energy when whole mass is dry In current situation
only 60% mass is dry energy corresponding to 60% dry mass = 5805 kJ/kg

Energy corresponding to 100% dry mass

5805
= �100
60
= 9675 kJ / kg
So, energy as in dry basis = 9675 kJ/kg energy based on as discarded basis = 5805 = 3870
kJ/kg

35 A municipal corporation is required to treat 1000 m3/day of water. It is found that an

overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce a satisfactory removal of the discrete suspended
particles at a depth of 3m. The diameter (in meters, rounded to the nearest integer) of a
circular settling tank designed for the removal of these particles would be _____

Ans. 8m
Exp:
m3
Q = 1000
day
overflow rate = 20m / day
H = 3m
Surface Area of circular Tank
1000
=
20
= 50m2

Assume diameter to be ‘d’

p 2
�d = 50
Hence 4
50 �4
d=
p
= 7.978
�8m
36 The analysis of a water sample produces the following results

Ans. 300

Exp:
Hardness will be due to multivalent cations only

= (miliequivalent of Ca2+ + miliquivalent of mg2+) x equivalent weight of CaCO3

100
(3 + 3) �
= 2
= 300mg / L as CaCo3
Ca2+ + 60 mg / L �
equivalent weight = 20

Total harndness (mg/L as CaCO3)

mg 2+ = 36.6 mg / L � equivalent weight = 12.2 (given)
Millequivalent of
60
Ca2+ = =3
20
36.6
mg 2+ = =3
12.2
37. The number of spectral bands in the Enhanced Thematic Mapper sensor on the remote
sensing satellite Landsat-7 is
(a) 64 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 15

Ans: C
EXP:
Landsat enhanced Thematic Mapper sensor on the remote sensing satellite Landsat-7 has
8 number of spectral bands.
Band 1 – Blue
Band 2 – Green
Band 3 – Red
Band 4 – Near Infrared (NIR)
Band 5 – Shortwave Infrared (SWIR)1
Band 6 – Thermal
Band 7 – Shortwave Infrared (SWIR)2
Band 8 – Panchromatic

38. The accuracy of an Electronic Distance measuring Instruments (EDM) is specified as �

(a mm + b ppm). Which one of the following statement is correct

(a) Both a and b remain constant irrespective of the distance being measured
 (b) a remains to the distance being measured
(c) a varies in proportion to the distance being measured and b remains constant
(d) Both a and b very is proportionto the distance being measured

Ans: (b)

EXP:
Accuracy of EDMI is generally stated in terms of constants instruments error and
measuring error proportional to the distance being measured
�(a mm + b ppm)
The first part in this expression indicates a constant instrument error that is independent
of the length of line measured second component is distance related error

39. The observed bearings of a traverse are given below

Line Bearing Line Bearing
PQ 46°15 QP 226°15
QR 108°15 RQ 286°15
RS 201°15 SR 20°30
ST 321°45 TS 141°45

The station(s) most likely to be affected by the local attraction is/are

(a) only R (b) Only S
(c) R and S (d) P and Q

Ans: (a)
EXP:
Line Bearing Back Bearing Difference
PQ 46°15 226°15 180°
QR 108°15 286°15 178°
RS 201°15 20°15 181º
ST 321°45 141°45 180°

For bearing and back bearing difference for PQ, qr AND ST is 180 0 So, P, Q, S, T are free from
any local attraction

40. The VPI (vertical point of intersection) is100 m away (when measured along the
horizontal) from the VPC (vertical point of curvature). If the vertical curve is parabolic the
length of the curve (in meters along the horizontal is _______

Ans: (200)
EXP:
41. Two towers, A and B standing vertically on a horizontal ground appear in a vertical
aerial photograph as shown in the figure

The length of the image of the tower A on the photograph is 1.5 cm and of the tower B is 2.0
cm. The distance of the top of the tower A (as shown in the arrowhead is 4.0 cm and the
distance of the top of the tower B is 6.0 cm. as measured from the principal point p of the
photograph. If the height of the tower B is 80 m the height (in meters) of the tower A is

Ans. (90)
EXP:

s
For Tower ,
Radial distance of top of tower – r = 6cm
Length of image = d = 2 cm
Height tower = 80 m = H2
\ Flying height above datum = H – h1 = 240 m
d �H - h1 1.5 �240
h2 = =
r 4
h2 = 90 m
42. A strip footing is resting on the ground surface of a pure clay bed having an
undrained cohesion cu. The ultimate bearing capacity of the footing is equal to

2pcu pcu
(a) (b)
( p + 1)cu ( p + 2)cu
(c) (d)

Ans: (d)

Ultimate bearing capacity on pure clay

= cuNc
= 5.14 cu
= ( p + 2) cu

43. A 3 m thick clay layer is subjected to an initial uniform pore pressure of 145 kPa as
shown in the figure.

For the given ground condition the time (in days, rounded to the nearest integer) required
for 90 % consolidation would be ______

Ans: (b)

Flow is normal flame

�zi 20 + 30 + 10
K avg = =
z 20 30 10
�i + +
ki 3 3 1
= 2 m / day
Head difference 15 - 10 5 1
i= = = =
Length 60 60 12
1
K avg ��
i A = 2 � �3 �1 = 0.5 m3 / day / m
Seepage discharge q = 12
44. A uniformly distributed line load of 500 kN-m is acting on the ground surface based
on Boussinesq’s theory, the ratio of vertical stress at a depth 2 m to that at 4 m right below
the limit of loading is

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.4

(c) 2.0 (d) 44.0

Ans: 1771
It is one way drainage case so H = 3 m = 3000 mm

cv t
Tv =
H2
0.85 �30002
t= = 225000 minutes
3
= 1770.83 days
�1771 days

45. The laboratory tests on a soil sample yields the following results: natural moisture
content = 18%, liquid limit = 60%, plastic limit = 25%, percentage of clay sized fraction =
25%. The liquidity index and activity (as per the expression proposed by Skempton) of the
soil, respectively, are

(a) – 0.2 and 1.4 (b) 0.2 and 1.4

(c) -1.2 and 0.714 (d) 1.2 and 0.714

Ans: (c)

Due to uniformly distributed line load vertical stress

2
� �
� �
2q � 1 �
= � 2�
pz �x �
�1 + � ��
�
� �z �� �
Vertically below line load x = 0
2q
sz =
pz
s1 z 2 4
= = =2
s2 z1 2
46. A consolidated undrained CU triaxial compression test is conducted on a normally
consolidated clay at a confining pressure of 100 kPa. The deviator stress at failure is 80 kPa,
and the pore-water pressure measured at failure is 50 kPa. The effective angle of internal
friction (in degrees, up to one decimal place) of the soil is ___________

Ans: (a)

Given � WLL = 60% - 0.6

WPL = 25% = 0.25
% of clay size fraction 25% = 0.25
Wn = 18% = 0.18
W - WPL
IL = n
WLL - WLP
0.18 - 0.25
= = - 0.2
0.6 - 0.25
IP
Activity =
% of clay sized fraction
W - WPL 0.6 - 0.25
= LL = = 1.4
0.25 0.25

47. It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth of 7 m at a construction site. The

average surface area of the H-pile is 3 m 2 per meter length. The soil at the site is
homogeneous sand, having an effective friction angle of 32°. The ground water table (GWT)
is at a depth of 2 m below the ground surface. The unit weights of the soil above the below
the GWT are 16 kN/ m3 and 19 kN/m3, respectively. Assume the earth pressure coefficient,
K = 1.0, and the angle of wall friction, 23 . The total axial frictional resistance (in kN, up to
one decimal place) mobilized on the pile against the driving is______

Ans: 926.4)

Confining pressure = s3 = 100kPa

Deviator stress = s1 - s3 = 80 kPa
s1 = 80 + s3
= 180 kPa
Pore pressure = u = 50 kPa
 s1 = s1 - u
= 180 - 50
= 130kPa
s3 = s3 - u
= 100 - 50
= 50 kPa

For NC soil C’ = 0
�1 + sin f �
s1 = s 3 � �
�1 - sin f �
�1 + sin f �
130 = 50 � �
�1 - sin f �
� �
8
sin f =
18
f = 26.380
du
= 3t 2 + 1 with u = 0
Consider the equation dt

WPL = 25% = 0.25

% of clay size fraction 25% = 0.25
Wn = 18% = 0.18
W - WPL
IL = n
WLL - WLP
0.18 - 0.25
= = - 0. 2
0.6 - 0.25
IP
Activity =
% of clay sized fraction
W - WPL 0.6 - 0.25
= LL = = 1. 4
0.25 0.25

48. Consider a rigid retaining wall with partially submerged cohesionless backfill with a
surcharge. Which one of the following diagrams closely represents the Rankine's active
earth pressure distribution against this wall?

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

Ans:390.8

Stress o f B level = 16 � 2 = 32 kN-m2 Average stress in AB = 16 kN/m 2 Axial

frictional resistance
(
AB = Ksavg tan d A AB)
A AB = Area of AB
= 3 �2 = 6 m2
= (Ksavg tan d) �6
= (1 �16 �tan 230 ) �6
= 40.75 kN

In part BC

Effective vertical stress variation

32 + 77.95
savg =
2
= 54.975
ABC = 3 �5
=15 m2
 Axial frictional resistance in part BC

= (Ksavg tan d)A

= (1 �54.975 �tan 230 ) �15
= 350.03 kN
Total axial frictional resistance
= 350.03 + 40.75
= 390.78 kN

49. Let G be the specific gravity of soil solids, w the water content in the soil sample, g w
the
unit weight of water, and g d the dry unit weight of the soil. The equation for the zero air
voids line in a compaction test plot is
Gg w Gg
gd = gd = w
(a) 1 + Gw (b) Gw
Gw Gw
gd = gd =
(c) 1 + gw (d) 1 - gw

Ans: (b)

Pressure diagram for partially submerged soil with surcharge soil with surcharge

But no option is matching if the water table is at ground table then

50. Consider the following statements related to the pore pressure parameters. A and B:
P. A always lies between 0 and 1.0
Q. A can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0
R. B always lies between 0 and 1.0
S B can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0
For these statements, which one of the following options is correct

(a) P and R (b) P and S

(c) Q and R (d) Q and S

Ans: (a)
(1 - ha ) Gs g w
Q gd =
1+ e
For zero air voids � ha = 0
And S + ac =1
Where ac = air content
For zero air voids � ac = 0
Hence S = 1
(1 - 0) Gs g w
gd =
wGs
1+
S
Gs g w
gd =
1 + wGs

Option b can be the answer

51. The plate load test was conducted on a clayey stratum by using a plate of 0.3m x
0.3m dimensions, and the ultimate load per unit area for the plate was found to be 180 kPa.
The ultimate bearing capacity (in kPa) of a 2m wide square footing would be

(a) 27 (b) 180

(c) 1200 (d) 2000

Ans: (c)
Value of B lies between 0 and 1.0
for completely saturated soi, B = 1
for completely dry soil, B = 0
 Value of A may be as large as 2 to 3 for very loose saturated fine sand and it can be
less than zero for over consolidated clay.

52. Two identical concrete piles having the plan dimensions 50 cm x 50 cm are driven
into a homogeneous sandy layer as shown in the figure consider the bearing capacity factor
nq for f = 30 as 24
0

If QP1 and QP2 represent the ultimate point bearing resistances of the piles under dry and
submerged conditions, respectively, which one of the following statements is correct?
QP1 > QP2 by about 100%
QP1 < QP2 by about 100%
QP1 > QP2 by about 5%
QP1 < QP2 by about 5%

Ans: (b)

In plate load test bearing capacity of clay does not depend upon size of footing
qup = quf (for clay)
\ Ultimate bearing capacity of a 2m wide square footing = 180 kPa

53. For the construction of a highway a cut is to be made as shown in the figure The soil
exhibits c' = 20 kPa , (' = 18°, and the undrained shear strength = 80 kPa. The unit weight of
water is 9.81 kN/m3. The unit weights of the soil above and below the ground water table
are 18 and 20 kN/m3, respectively. If the shear stress at Point A is 50 kPa, the factors of
safety against the shear failure at this point, considering the undrained and drained
conditions respectively, would be
(a) 1.6 and 0.9
(b) 0.9 and 1.6
(c) 0.6 and 1.2
(d) 1.2 and 0.6
Ans: (a)
QP1 = qNq + 0.4BgNg
= 18x 20xNq + 0.4x0.5x18xNg
= 18( 20 Nq + 0.2Ng )
QP 2 = qNq + 0.4B gNg
= (19 - 10) x 20xNq + 0.4x0.5
x (19 - 10)Ng
= 9( 20 Nq + 0.2 Ng )
(Assuming g w = 10 kN / m3 )
QP1
=2
QP 2
Hence QP1 > QP 2 by about 100%

54. Consider a square-shaped area ABCD on the ground with tis centre at M as shown in
the figure. Four concentrated vertical loads of P = 5000 kN are applied on this area, one at
each corner

The vertical stress increment (in kPa up to one decimal place) due to these loads ac-
cording to the Boussinesq's equation at a point 5 m right below M is

Ans: (a)
Case –I untrained condition
resisting shear strenght
F.o.S =
Acting shear stress
80
= = 1.6
50
Case II Drained condition
 s tan f '+ c'
F.o.S =
Acting shear stress
[ 2 �18 + 4( 20 - 9.81)]�180 + 20
=
50
= 0.9
55. A sheet pile has an embedment depth of 12 m in a homogeneous soil stratum. The
coefficient of permeability of soils is 10 -6 m/s. Difference in the water levels between the
two sides of the sheet pile is 4m. The flow net is constructed with five number of flow lines
and eleven number of equipotential lines. The quantity of seepage (in cm 3/s per m. up to
one decimal place) under the sheet pile is

Ans. (190.84)

Due to one corner load

5/2
� �
� �
3P � 1 �
s2 = 2 � 2 �
3pz � �r ��
�1 + � ��
� �z ��
r = 22 + 22 = 2 2 m
z=5 m
P = 5000 kN
5/ 2
� �
� �
3 �5000 � 1 �
s2 = � �
2p �55 � �2 2 �
2
�
1+ �
� ��
� � 5 ��
� � ��
= 47.709 kN / m 2

so due to four load vertical stress

= 9s z
= 4x 47.709
= 190.84 kN / m2

56. The ordinates of a 2-hour unit hydrograph for a catchment are given as

Time (h) 0 1 2 3 4
Ordinate (m /s) 0 5
3
12 25 41
The ordinate (in m3/s) of a 4-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment at the time of 3 h
would be ________

Ans: 15

Lagging 2-hr ordinate unit hydrograph by 2-hr and adding it with 2-hr unit hydrograph.

Hence ordinate of resulting hydrograph at 3hrs would be = 15 m3/s

57. Group I contains three broad classes of irrigation supply canal outlets. Group II
presents hydraulic performance attributes.

Group-I Group-II
P Non- 1 Outlet discharge depends
. .
modular on the water levels in both
outlet the supply canal as well as
the receiving water course
Q Semi- 2 Outlet discharge is fixed
. .
modular and is independent of the
outlet water levels in both the
supply canal as well as the
receiving water course
R Modular 3 Outlet discharge depends
. .
outlet only on the water level in the
supply canal.

The correct match of the item in group I with the items in Group II is
(a) P-1; Q-2; R-3
(b) P-2; Q-3; R-1
(c) P-3; Q-1; R-2
(d) P-1; Q-3; R-2

Ans: (d)
Non modulor outlet : These are outlets through which the discharge depends upon the
difference of head between the distributary and the water course. Semi modulator outlet :
These are outlets through which the discharge is independent of the distribitary so long as
a minimum working head is available and depends upond distributary water surface level.
Modular outlet : these are outlets through which discharge is constant and fixed within
limits irrespective of the fluctuations of the water levels of either the distributary or of the
water course or of both.

58. An effective rainfall of 2 hour duration produced a flood hydrograph peak of 200 m 3/s.
The flood hygrograph has a base flow of 20 m 3/s if the spatial average rainfall in the
watershed for the duration of storm is 2 cm and the average loss rate is 0.4 cm/hour the
peak of 2-hour unit hygrograph (in m3/s-cm up to one decimal place 0 is _____

Ans: 150

Flood hydrograph peak = 200 m3/s

Base flow = 20 m3/s
Excess rainfall = 2 cm
f= 0.4 cm / hr
Effective rainfall = 2 – 0.4 x 2 = 1.2 cm
Peak of DRH = 200 – 20 = 180 m3/s
Peak of 2-h unit hydrograph
Peak of DRH
= Effective Rainf all

180
= 150 m3 / s
= 1 .2

59. The infiltration capacity of a soil follows the horton’s exponential model f = c 1 + c2 e-kt
During an experiment, the intial infiltration capacity was observed to be 200 mm/hr. After a
long time the infiltration capacity was reduced to 25 mm/h, if the infiltration capacity after
1 hour was 90 mm/h the value of the decay rate constant k (in h -1 up to two decimal places)
is ____
Ans: (0.99)

C1 = f0 C 2 = ff1 - 0
= 25 m / hr = 200 - 25
=175

F = 90 mm/hr after 1 hr
Hence 90 = 25 + 175 �e-kx1
90 - 25
e -k = = 0.3715
175
Taking loge on both side
-x log e e = log e (0.3714)
� - x = -0.990
� x = 0.99
60. During a stom event in a certain period, the rainfall intensity is 3.5 cm/hour and the f -
index is 1.5 cm/hour. The intensity of effective rainfall (in cm/hour up to one decimal
place ) for this period is _______

Ans: 2.0

Rainfall intensity = 3.5 cm/hr

f - index = 1.5 cm/hr
Intensity of effective rainfall = 3.5-1.5
= 2 cm /hr

61. The culturable command area of a canal is 10,000 ha. The area grows only two crops-
rice
in the Kharif season and wheat in the Rabi season. The design discharge of the canalis
based on the rice requirements, which has an irrigated area of 2500 ha, base period of 150
days and delta of 130 cm. The maximum
Ans: 5199.97

For Rice,
CCA = 10000 ha
B.P = 150 days
D =130 cm = 1.3 m
B.P �8.64
D= D
150 �8.64
=
1.3
= 996.923 ha/m3/s
Area irrigated = 2500 ha
\ Design Discharge
2500
996.923
= 2.5077
For, wheat
B.P = 120 days
D = 50 cm
8.64 �120
D=
0.5
= 2073.6 hect. / m3 / s
Area irrigated = Duty x Design Discharge (Q)
= 2073.6 x 2.5077
= 5199.97 ha.

62. A runway is being constructed in a new airport as per the International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO) recommendations. The elevation and the airport reference
temperature of the airport are 535 m above the mean sea level and 22.65°C, respectively.
Consider the effective gradient of runway as 1%. The length of runway required for a
design-aircraft under the standard condition is 2000 m. Within the framework of applying
sequential corrections as per the ICAO recommendations, the length of runway corrected
for the temperature is
(a) 2223 m (b) 2250 m
(c) 2500 m (d) 2750 m

Ans: (c)
Solution
Correction for elevation
7% increase per 300 m
7 535
� �2000
So, correction = 100 300
= 249.66 m
Corrected length = 2000+249.66
= 2249.66 m
Correction for temperature standard atmosphere temperature
=15 - 0.0065 �535 = 11.52250 C
Rise of temp = 22.650C – 11.523 0C
2249.66
Correction = �11.127 = 250.320
100
Correct length = 2249.66+250.320 = 2499.98m
Check for total correction for elevation plus temperature
2299.98 - 2000
�100 = 24.99%
Total correction % = 2000
According to ICAO, this should not exceed by 35%

63. A super-elevation e is provided on a circular horizontal curve such that a vehicle can be
stopped on the curve without sliding. Assuming a design speed v and maximum coefficient
of side friction fmax, which one of the following criteria should be satisfied?

(a) e �fmax
(b) e > fmax
no limit of e can be set 3
(c)
1 - (fmax )2
e=
(d) fmax

Ans: (a)
Sol.

Let the weight of vehicle = W in stopping condition the friction force F should be greater
than w sinto prevent the sliding
F > w sin q
For smaller value of Q
Tan
q= e = sin q
F=wxf
W x f �w x e
F>e

64. Vehicles arriving at an intersection from one of the approach roads follow the Poisson
distribution. The mean rate of arrival is 900 vehicles per hour. If a gap is defined as the time
difference between two successive vehicle arrivals (with vehicles assumed to be points), the
probability (up to four decimal places) that the gap is greater than 8 seconds is __

Ans:0.1353
Solution
Probability of time headway being greater than 8 sec.
900
-8
P (h �8) = e -8 l = e 3600

= e-2 = 0.1353

65. The following observations are made while testing aggregate for its suitability in
pavement construction:
(i) Mass of oven-dry aggregate in air = 1000g
(II) Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate in air = 1025g
(III) Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate under water = 625 g
Based on the above observations, the correct statement is
(a) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5%
(b) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4%
(c) apparent specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5%
(d) apparent specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4%

Ans: (a)
Solution
Mass of oven dry aggregate = Wa = 1000 g
Aggregate = Ww
Mass of saturated surface dry aggregate = 1025g = Wa + Ww
\ Ww = 1025 – 1000 = 25g
Mass of saturated surface dry aggregate under water
= 625 g
� Wa - (Va ) rw = 625 (Va = volume of aggregate)
 1000 - 625
� Va = = 375 CC.
1
volume of void (Vv ) = volume of water = Vw =
Ww 25
= = 25 CC
rw 1
Wa
\ Bulk density of aggregate = rba =
Va + Vv
1000
= g / CC
375 + 25
\ Bulk specific gravity of aggregate
r 2.5
= ba = = 2.5
rw 1
W 25
water absorption = w �100 = �100
Wa 100
= 2.5%

66. The radius of a horizontal circular curve on a highway is 120 m. The design speed is 60
km/hour, and the design coefficient of lateral friction between the tyre and the road surface
is 0.15. The estimated value of super elevation required (if full lateral friction is assumed to
develop), and the value of coefficient of friction needed (if no super elevation is provided)
will, respectively, be

1 1
and 0.10 and 0.37
(a) 11.6 (b) 10.5
1 1
and 0.24 and 0.24
(c) 11.6 (d) 12.9

Ans: (c)
Solution
Given � R = 120m
km
Vdesign = 60
hr
f = 0.15
v2
e+f =
gR
( 60 �5 / 18)
2

� e + 0.15 =
9.81 �120
(60 �5 / 18)2 1
e= - 0.15 =
9.81�120 11.6
2
v
e+f =
gR
�e =0
(60 �5 / 15)2
�f=
9.81 �120
= 0.2359 = 0.24

67. The queue length (in number of vehicles) versus time (in seconds) plot for an approach
to a signalized intersection with the cycle length of 96 seconds is shown in the figure (not
drawn to scale).

At time t = 0, the light has just turned red. The effective green time is 36 second during
which
Vehicles discharge at the saturation flow rate s (in vph). Vehicles arrive at a uniform rate v
(in vph), throughout the cycle which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(a) V = 600 VPH, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 30
(b) s = 1800 vph, and for this cycle the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125
second
(c) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle the average stopped delay per vehicle = 45 second
(d) s = 1200 vph, and for this ctcle the aveage stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 second
Ans: (a)
Stopped time delay to defined as the time a vehicle is stopped in queue while to pass
through the intersection. It begins when the vehicle is fully stopped and ends when the
vehicles begins to accelerate. Average stopped time delay is the average for all vehicles
during a specified time period

10 10 �3600
v= veh/ sec = veh / hr
60 60
= 600 vph
10 10 �3600
S= veh / sec = = 1200 vph
30 30
Sincearrival and discharge is uniform
The aggregate delay for all vehicle passing through he signal is the area between the arrival
and departure curves
1 1
�10 �90 - �10 �30 = 300 veh sec
Aggregate delay = 2 2
300 veh sec
= 30 sec
\ Average stopped delay per vehicle 10 veh

68 While aligning a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of radius 50 m
is encountered. The grade compensation (in percentage up two equal places) to be
provided
for this case would be_____

Ans:1.5

69. The safety within a roundabout and the efficiency of a roundabout can be increased
respectively by increasing the entry radius and increasing the exit radius increasing the
entry radius and decreasing the exit radius. decreasing the entry radius and increasing the
exit radius. decreasing the entry radius and decreasing the exit radius.

Ans: (c)

70. According to IS 456–2000, which one of the following statements about the depth of
neutral axis xu,bal for a balanced reinforced concrete section is correct?
 (a) xu,bal depends on the grade of concrete only
(b) xu,bal depends on the grade of steel only
(c) xu,bal depends on both the grade of concrete and grade of steel
(d) xu,bal does not depend on the grade of concrete and grade of steel

Ans: (b)

71. A pre-tensional rectangular beam 150mm wide and 300 mm depth is prestressed with
three straight tendons each having a cross-sectional area of 50 mm 2 to an initial stress of
1200 N/ mm2. The tendons are located at 100 mm from the soffit of the beam if the
modular ratio is 6 the loss of prestressing force (in kN up to one decimal place) due to the
elastic deformation of concrete is ______

Ans: 4.8

Loss due to elastic deformation =

mffc = 6 c
P Pe2
f0 = +
A 1
P 1200 �3 �50 N
A = 150 �300
e = 50 mm
1200 �3 �50 1200 �3 �50 �50 2
fc = +
150 �300 150 �3003
12
4 16
=4 + = N / mm2
3 3
16
Loss = 6 � = 32 N / mm2
3
Loss in force = 32 �3 �50
= 4800 N = 4.8 kN

72. Let the characteristic strength be defined as that value, below which not more than
50% of the results are expected to fall. Assuming a standard deviation of 4 MPa, the target
mean strength (in MPa) to be considered in the mix design of a M25 concrete would be
(a) 18.42 (b) 21.00
(c) 25.00 (d) 31.58

Ans: (c)

73. The figure shows a two-hinged parabolic arch of span L subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of intensity q per unit length

The maximum bending moment in the arch is equal to

qL2 qL2
(a) 8 (b) 12
qL2
(c) zero (d) 10
Ans: (c)
EXP:
If two-hinged parabolic is subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity q per unit
length. The bending moment at every where in the arch is zero. So, Maximum bending
moment in arch is equal to zero.

74. A planar truss tower structure is shown in tee figure

Consider the following statements about the external and internal deteminacies of the truss
p. Extermally determinate
Q. External static indeterminacy = 1
R. External static indeterminacy = 2
S. internally determinate
T. internal static indertminacy = 1
U. internal static indeterminacy = 2 which one of the following option is correct?
(a) P – Flase ; Q true ; Rfalase ; S flase ; T False ; U true
(b) P – False ; Q True ; R False ; S false T true; U false
(c) P false ; Q false ; R true ; S false ; T false U – True
(d) P – True; Q True ; R false ; S True ; False U – True

Ans: (a)

For truss external indeterminacy = r – 3

R = no of support reactions
External indeterminacy = 4 – 3 = 1
Internal indeterminacy = no of panel of double diagonal = 1 + 1 = 2

75. Consider the beam ABCD shown in the figure

For a moving concentrated load of 50 kN on the beam, the magnitude of the maximum
bending moment (in kN-m) obtained at the support C will be equal to ____

Ans: 200
EXP:
� According to Muller Breslu principle ILD for moment at C

For maximum bending moment

76. The value of M in the beam ABC shown in the figure is such that the joint B does not
rotate. The value of support reaction (in kN) at B should be equal to
Ans: 60
EXP:

D = 0, qB = 0,MFBC = 0, MBC = 0
M = MBA + MBC
�M = MBA = 40
wi4 wi2 RB �i3
� + =
8EI 2EI 3EI
30 �4 40 RB
+ =
8 2 �4 3
R
15 + 5 = B
3
RB = 60 kN

77. Consider the frame shown in figure

If the axial and shear deformations in different members of the frame are assumed to be
negligible the reduction in the degree of kinematical indeterminacy would be equal to

(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8

Ans: (b)

EXP:

Hence, reduction in degree of kinematical indeterminacy = 14-8 = 6

78. Consider the portal frame shown in the figure and assume the modulus of elasticity, E =
2.5 x 104 MPa and the moment of mertia, I = 8 x 108 mm4 for all the members of the frame.

The rotation (in degrees, up to one decimal place) at the rigid joint Q would be

Ans: 1.0
EXP:
22
Moment at Q = MQ = 2000 x 2 – 1650 x 2
 4EI EI 4EI EI
KQR = = KQR = =
4 1m 4 1m
2EI
\ KQ = KQR + KQs =
1m
\MQ = KQ qQ
MQ 700 �106 �1000
\qQ = =
KQ 2 �2.5 �104 �8 �108
= 0.0175 rad
180
= 0.0175 �
p
=1.003
=1.0

79. Consider the following statements:

P. Walls of one brick thick are measured in square meters.
Q. Walls of one brick thick are measured in cubic meters.
R. No deduction in the brickwork quantity is made for openings in walls up to 0.1m 2 area.
S. For the measurement of excavation from the borrow pit in a fairly uniform ground,
deadmen are left at suitable intervals.
For the above statements, the correct option is
(a) P - False; Q - True: R - False: S - True
(b) P - False; Q - True: R - False: S -False
(c) P - True; Q - False: R - True: S - False
(d) P - True; Q - False: R - True: S – True

Ans: (d)
Exp:
� Brick masanry is measured in volume for thickness more than single bricks. For
masonry with single bricks it is measured in square metres.
� No deduction is made for following.
Opening each up to 1000 sq. cm (0.1 sq. meter).
Ends of beams rafters etc up to 500 sq. cm or 0.05 sq. m in section.
Bed plata wall plate bearing of balcony and the like up to 10cm depth bearing of floor and
roof slabs an not deducted from masonry.
� When the ground is not uniform levels shall be taken before the start, after site
clearance and after the completion of the work and the quantity of excavation in cutting
computed from these levels.

80. Group I gives a list of test methods and test apparatus for evaluating some of the
properties of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) and concrete Group II gives the list of these
properties.

Group I
P. Le Chatelier test
Q. Vee-Bee test
R. Blaine air permeability test
S. The Vicat apparatus

Group-II
1. Soundness of OPC
2. Consistency and setting time of OPC
3. Consistency or workability of concrete
4. Fineness of OPC
The correct match of the items in Group I with items in Group II is
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(c)P-4, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(d) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Ans: (a)
Exp:
(1) le chatelier test : this test is used to measure the soundness of OPC due to lime. Lime
and magnesia are two primary compounds responsible for soundness of cement

(2) Vee Bee test it is one of the methods of measuring the workability of concrete
(3) Blaine Air permeability: it is used measure fineness of cement

(4) The Vicat apparatus it is used to measure setting time and consistency of concrete

81. The activity details of a project are given below

Activity Depends Duration

on (in days)

P — 6
Q P 15
R Q, T 12
S R 16
T P 10
U Q, T 14
V U 16

The estimate minimum time (in days) for the completion of the project will be _______

Ans: 51
Activity on Arrow ()AOA) diagram

Time along path 1 – 2 – 4 – 5 7

= 6 + 15 + 12 + 16 = 49 days
Time along path 1-2-3-4-6-7 = 6+10+14+16 = 46 days
Time along path 1-2-4-6-7= 6+15+14+16 = 51 days

Minimum time for the completion of the project will be = 51 days

82. Given that the scope of the construction work is well-defined with all its drawings,
specifications, quantities and estimates. Which one of the following types of contract would
be most preferred?
(a) EPC contract
(b) Percentage rate contract
(c) Item rate contract
(d) Lump sum contract

Ans: (d)
Scope of construction work is well-defined with all its drawings, specification quantities
and estimates, then lump sum contract is used.

83. For a construction project the mean and standard deviation of the completion time are
200 days and 6.1 days respectively. Assume normal distribution and use the value of
standard normal deviate z = 1.67 for the 95% confidence level. The maximum time required
(in days) for the completion of the project would be ____

Ans: (210)
T -T
Z= s E
s
T 200
1.64 = s
6.1
Ts = 210 days

( -��
, )
-x
and f (x) = e - xe
84. Let x be a continuous variable defined over the interval the
g(x) = �
x(x) dx
integral is equal to
e- x - e- x
(a) e (b) e
-x
-x
ee (d) e
(c)

Ans: (b)
Exp:
g(x) = �
f(x) dx
-x
f(x) = e - x
x
g(x) = �
e- x -e dx
e-x
= �e- x dx
e
Substitde e-x = t
-e- x dx = dt
dt
g(x) = � - t
e
=� -t
-e = t
-e- x dx = dt
dt
g(x) = � - t
e
=� -e - t dt
g(x) = e - t
-x
g(x) = e - e

�2f �2 f �2f
3 2 +B + 3 2 + 4f = 0
85. Consider the following partial differential equation � x x y
�� �y
For the equation to be classified as parabolic the value of B 2 must be _____

Ans: 2: 36
Exp:
�2 f �2 f �2 f
3 2 +B + 3 2 + 4f = 0
�x x y
�� �y
�2f �2 f �2f
A + + C + Df = 0
Compare A �x 2 ��
x y �y2
A=3 B=? C=3
Equation to be parabolic
B 2 - 4AC = 0
B 2 - 4 ��
3 =
B 2 = 36

�tan x �
lim � 2 �is equal
x �0 x - x
86. � � _______
Ans: 1
Exp:
�tan x �
lim � 2 �
x �0 x - x
� �
0 sec 2 x 1
= lim = = -1
0 Form so applying L – Hospital’s Rule x �0 2x - 1 -1

87. The matrix P is the inverse of a matrix Q. If I denotes the identity matrix, which one of
the following options is correct?
(a) PQ = I but QP I
(b) QP = I but PQ I
(c) PQ = I and QP = I
(d) PQ – QP = I

Ans: (c)
Exp:
Given P = Q -1
Post multiply by Q
PQ = Q-1 (we know Q-1 Q = 1)
PQ = 1
Again premultiply by Q
QP= QQ-1
QP = 1 ((QQ-1 = 1)
So PQ = 1 and QP = 1

88 The number of parameters in the univariate exponential and Gaussian distributions,

respectively are

(a) 2 and 2 (b)) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 1 (d) 1 and 1

Ans: (b)
Exp:
Probability distribution function (PDF) of an exponential distribution is
le-lx
� x �0
f(x, l) = �
�0 x<0
Cumulative distribution function of an exponential distribution is
 1 - e-lx x �0
�
f(x, l) = �
� 0 x<0
Where l > 0 is the parameter of distribution. So only one parameter in exponential
distribtuion.
The normal (or Gaussion) distribution is a very common continuous probability
distribtuion. The probability density of normal distribution is
(x +m )2
�x � 1
d � , s2 �= e 2 s2

�m � 2ps
So there are two parameters i.e. ( and 2 ) in gaussian distribution.

f(x) = a + bx, 0 �x �1,

89. For the function to be a valid probability density function, which
one of the following statements is correct?

(a) a = 1, b = 4
(b) a = 0.5, b = 1
(c) a = 0, b = 1
(d) a = 1, b =-1

Ans: (b)
Exp:
For probability density function = f (x) to be
�
�f(x) = 1
-�
�
�a + bx = 1
-�
1
�9a + bx) dx = 1
0
1
bx 2 �
ax + =1
2 � �
0

b
a + =1
2
For equation to be satisfied a = 0.5 b = 1

90. At t = 0. This is numerically solved by using the forward Euler method with a step size,
Dt = 2 The absolute error in the solution at the end of the first time step is ______

Ans: (8)
Exp:
du
= 3t2 + 1
dt
Forward Eular method
y1 = y 0 + hf(t)
t = 0,u = 0
y1 = 0 + 2(3 �0 2 + 1)
u1 = 2
du
= 3t 2 + 1
dt
2

� +1
2
(3t
Du = 0

u1 = t]02
u1 =10
Absolute error = 10 – 2 = 8

dQ
+ Q =1
91. the solution of the equation dt with Q = 0 at = 0 is
(a) Q(t) = e-t – 1
(b) Q (t) = 1 + e-1
(c) Q (t) = 1-et
(d) Q (t) = 1-e-t

Ans:
dQ (d)
Exp:+ Q =1
dt
1.F = e� = e� = et
rdt 1.dt

Q (t)et = �
e dt
Q (t) et = �
e dt
Q(t)et = e + C

At t = 0 Q = 0
0 = 1+C
C = -1
Q (t) = 1- e-t
 5 -1�
�
�
4 1�
92. Consider the matrix � �which one of the following statement s is TRUE for the
eigenvalues and eigenvector of the matrix?
(a) Eighenvalues 3 has a multiplicity of 2 and only one independent eigenvector exists

(b) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2 and two independent eigenvectors exist

(c) Eigenvalue 3 has a multiplicity of 2 and no independent eigenvector exists

(d) Eigenvalues are 3 and -3 and two independent eigenvector exist

Ans: (a)
Exp:
�5 -1�
[ A ] = �4 1 �
� �
�5 - l -1 �
� A -l
For �= value
�
eigen �4
�
� 1- l�
�
(5 - l) (1 - l) + 4 = 0
5 - 5l - l + l 2 + 4 = 0
l 2 - 6l + 9 = 0
(l - 3)2 = 0
l =3

For eigen��xvector
�
�A-l � ��� =0
��y
�5 - 3 -1 ��� x
� 4 1 - 3��� =0
� y
���
2x - y = 0
x
�� 2
��
��= ��
y
�� 1
��
4x - 2 y = 0
x
�� 2
��
��= ��
y
�� 1
��.

So only one independent eigen vector

Gate 2017 Set 2

93. A two faced fair coin has its faces designated as head (H) and tail (T). This coin is
tossed three times in succession to record the following outcomes H.H.H if the coin is tossed
one more time the probability (up to one decimal place) of obtained H again given the
previous realization of H, H and H. would be _____

Ans: (0.5)
Exp:
1 1 1 1
� � =
Probability of getting (H.H.H) = 2 2 2 8
Probability of getting (H.H.H)
1 1 1 1 1
� � � =
= 2 2 2 2 16
\ Given condition is that (H.H.H) is already realized
Condition probability of getting next H after (H.H.H)
1
= 0.5
16
1
8

94. The divergence of the vector field V = x2 I + 2y3 j + z4 k at x = 1, y = 2, z = 3 is

Ans: (134)

Exp: 2
V = x ˆi + 2y 3 j + z 4kˆ
Divergence
� � �
( " ) = (x 2 )iˆ (2y3 )jˆ + (z 2 )kˆ
�x �y �x
= 2x + 6y 2 + 4z3
[Divergence (V)](x = 1, y = 2 z = 3) = 2 �1 +6 �22 +4 �33
= 134

95. Consider the following simultaneous equation (with c1 and c2 beings constant
3x1 + 2x 2 = c1
4x1 + x 2 = c 2
The characteristic equation for these simultaneous equaiton is
(a) l - 4l - 5 = 0
2

(b) l - 4l + 5 = 0
2

(c) l + 4l - 5 = 0
2

(d) l + 4l + 5 = 0
2

Ans: (a)
Exp:
3x1 + 2x 2 = c1
4x1 + x 2 = c2
�3 2�
� = [A]
�4 1� �
[A] - l[I] = 0
�3-l 4 �
�2 =0
� 1- l��
3 + l 2 - 4l - 8 = 0
l 2 - 4l - 5 = 0

96. The tangent to the curve represented by y = x ln x is required to have 45° inclination
with the x-axis. The coordinates of the tangent point would be

(a) 1,0) (b) 0,1)

(c) 1,1) (d)

( 2, 2 )
Ans: (a)

Exp:
Target is having inclination of 450 with x-axis
dy
= tan 450
dx
d(xInx)
� =1
dx
x
� Inx + =1
x
\At x =1,y =1xIn'1 = 0
(1, 0)

97. Consider the following second-order differential equation:

y" - 4y'+ 3y = 2t- 3 2
The particular is solution of the differential equation is

(a) -2-2t-t2 (b) -2t-t2

(c) 2t-3t2 (d) -2t-2t-3t3

Ans: (a)

Exp:
y" - 4y - +3y = 2t- 3 2

f(D) = D2 - 4D + 3
I
P.I. = (t- 3 2 )
f(D)
1
= 2 (2t- 3 2 )
D - 4D + 3
� �
�1 1 �� 3t 2 �
=� - ��t - �
�1- D � D� �� 2 �
3�1- �
�
� � 3� �
�
� 3t2 � 1 � D D2 �
(1 + D + D2 + ...) �t- �- �- + + ... �
� 2 �3 � 3 g �
� 32t � 2
�� t- �
� 2 �
� 3t2 �1� 3 2 1 1�
=� t- +1- 3 - 3�
- �1- + -8- �
� 2 � 3� 2 2 3�
= - 2 - 2t- 2
98. Consider the following definite integral
1
I= �
( sin-1 x )
dx
0 1- x2 The value of the integral is
p 3
p3
(a) 24 (b) 12
p3 p3
(c) 48 (d) 64

Ans: (a)
Exp:
1
(sin-1 x)2
I= � dx
0 1- x2
Put sin-1 x = t
dx
= dt
1 - x2
p/ 2
= �
2
t dt
0
p/ 2
t3 �
= �
3� 0

p3
=
24
1 5�
� �3 7�
� �and B = �
6 2 8 4�
99. Iif A = � � � �ABT is equal to
�38 28� �3 40 �
�32 56 �� �42 8�
(a) � (b) � �
43 27 �
� �38 32�
�
34 50 � � �28 56 �
(c) � (d) � �

Ans: (a)
Exp:
� 1 5� � 3 7�
� �[B] � �
6 2 8 4
A= � � � �
 �1 5 ��3 8�
AB T = � �� �
�6 2 ��7 4�
�3 + 35 8 + 20 �
=�
�18 + 14 48 + 8 �
�
�38 28 �
=�
�32 56 � �

dw
100. Let w = f (c, y), where x and y are functions of. Then according to the chain rule dt is
equal to
dw dx dw dt
+
(a) dx dt dy dt
�w� x �w� y
+
(b) �x �t �y �t
w dx �
� w dy
+
(c) �x dt �y dt
dw �
x dw �y
+
(d) dx �t dy �
t

Ans: (c)
Exp:
w = f(x,y)
dw � w dx �w dy
= +
dt �x dt dy dt

101. The following sequence of numbers is a, arranged in increasing order

1,x,x,x,y,y,9,16,18 given that the mean and median are equal and are also equal to twice the
mode, the value of y is

(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d)8

Ans: (d)
Exp.
Numbers in increase order , x, x, x, y, y, 9 16,18
 1 + x + x + x + y + y + 9 + 16 + 18
Mean = 9
3x + 2y + 44
=
9
meadian = y
mode = x
Given: mean = median
3x + 2y + 2y + 44
9
� 3x + 2y + 44 = 9y
� 3x - 7 y + 44 = 0
meadian = 2x mode
y = 2x
3x - 7x(2x) + 44 = 0
� - 11x = -44
�x = 4
Putting value x in equation
y = 2x 4 = 8

102. _____with someone else’s email account is now a very serious offence
Tampering with someone else’s email account is now a very serious enounce

(a) involving (b) Assisting

(c) tampering (d) Incubating

Ans: (c)
Exp.
Tampering with someone else’s email account is now a very serious enounce

103. If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by 50% its volume increase by

(a) 75% (b) 100%

(c) 125 % (d) 237.5%

Ans: (c)
Exp.
Percentage increase in volume
V1 - V
�100
V
1 2 1
pR H �2.25 - pR 2H
=3 3
1 2
pR H
3
2.25 - 1
= �100 = 125%
1

104. consider the following sentence All benches are beds No bed is a bulb
Some bulbs are lamps
Which of the following can be inferred?
(i) some beds are lamps
(ii) some lamps are beds

(a) only (i)

(b) only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Ans: (d)
Exp.
105. The bacterial in milk are destroyed when it ____ heated to 80 degree Celsius

(a) would be (b) will be

(c) is (d) was

Ans: (c)
Exp.
The bacteria in milk are destroyed when it is heated to 800C

106. The bar graph below shows the output of five carpenters over one month each of
whom made different items of furniture charis, tables and beds

Consider the following statements

(i) the number of beds made by carpenter 2 is exactly the same as the number of tables
made by carpenter c3
(i) the total number of chair by all carpenters is less than the total number of tables
Which one of the following is true
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither () nor (ii)

Ans: (c)
Exp.
No. of Beds by carpenter C2 = 20 – 12 = 8
No. of Tables by carpenter C3 = 13 – 2 = 8
Total no. of chairs made = 2+10+5+2+4=23
Total no of tables = 7 + 2+8+3+10 = 30 total no. tables > total no. chairs
(No of Beds) C2 = (No . of Tables) c3

107. The last digit of (2171)7 + (2172)9 + (2173)11 (2174)13 is

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
Ans: (b)

Exp.
(2171)7 + (2172)9 + (2173)11 + (2174)13 11 + 21+33+41
Last digit = 1+2+7+4 = 14
Last digit = 4

108. Students applying for hostel rooms are allotted rooms in order of seniority. Students
already staying in a room will move if they get a room in their preferred list. Preference of
lower ranked applicant are ignored during allocation.
Room
Studen Curre preferen
Names t nt ce
seniori
ty room List
Amar 1 P R, S,Q
Akbar 2 None R,S
Antho
ny 3 Q P
Ajit 4 S Q,P,R
Given the data below. Which room will Ajit stay in?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S

Ans: (b)
Exp.
Amar � R
Akbar � S
Anthony � P
Ajit � Q

109. Tow machines M1 and M2 are able to execute any of four jobs P, Q, R and S the
machines can perform one job on one object at a time jobs P, Q, R and S take 30 minutes 20
minutes 60 minutes and 15 minutes each respectively. There are 10 objects each requiring
exactly 1 job. Job P is to be performed on 2 objects. Job Q on 3 objects, job R on 1 object and
job S on 4 objects. What is the minimum time needed to complete all the jobs?

(a) 2 hours (b) 2.5 hours

(c) 3 hours (d) 3.5 hours

Ans: (b)
Exp.

Job P JobQ
M1 30 �2 + 20 �3 = 2 hrs
Jopb R Job S
M2 60 �1 + 15 �4 = 2 hrs
M1 and M2 both required 2 hrs
Hence, minimum time is 2 hrs

110. The old concert hall was demolished because of fears that the foundation would be
affected by the construction of the new metro line in the area. Modern technology for
underground metro construction tried to mitigate the impact of pressurized air pockets
created by the excavation of large amounts of soil but even with these safeguards. It was
feared that the soil below the concert hall would not be stable. From this, one can infer that

(a) The foundations of old buildings create pressurized air pockets underground.
which are difficult to handle during metro construction.
(b) Metro construction has to be done carefully considering its impact on the
foundations of existing buildings.
(c) Old buildings in an area form an impossible hurdle to metro construction as that
area
(d) Pressurized air can be used to excavate large amounts of soil form underground
areas.

Ans: (b)

111. What is the value of x when

x+2 2x+ 4
� 16 � �3 �
81�� � �� � = 144 ?
�25 � �5 �
(a) 1 (b) -1
(c) -2 (d) cannot be determined

Ans: (b)
Exp.
x+2 2x +4
�16 � �3 �
81�� � �� � =144
�25 � �5 �
2x +4 2 x +4
�4 � �5 � 144
޵� � ��
�5 � �3 � 81
2x +4
�4 � 144
��� =
�3 � 81
x+ 2
�4 � 144
�� � =
�3 � 81
�
�4 �16 12
��� =
�3 � 9 9
�
�4 � 3
� � �=
�3 � 4
� -1
�4 � �4 �
� � �= � �
�3 � �3 �
x = -1
112. There was no doubt that their work was thorough Which of the words is closest in
meaning to the underlined word above?

(a) pretty
(b) complete
(c) sloppy
(d) haphazard

Ans: (b)

113. Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on the one side and a color
on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red and blue.
Proposition. If a card has an even value on one side then its opposite face is red.
The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are
(a) 2, red
(b) 2, 3, red
(c) 2, blue
(d) 2, red, blue

Ans: (a)
Exp.

Card with visible face 2 should have red on the other side
Card with visible face 3 may have any color on other side
Card with visible face red should have even number on other side
Card with visible face blue may have any number on other side.
Hence, To verify the above proposition, cards with face 2 and Red must be turned.

114. The event would have been successful if you ____able to come.

(a) are
(b) had been
(c) have been
(d) would have been

Ans: (b)

115. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers
appear- ing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is
(a) 1/9 (b) 2/9
(c) 1/3 (d) 4/9

Ans: (b)
Exp.
Favourable outcomes = {(1, 1), (1, 4), (2, 2) (3, 3), (4, 1), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
No. of favourable outcomes = 8
Total outcomes = 36
8 2
=
\ Probability = 36 9

116. Bhaiclung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service
centre. There was a single window where customers where being served. He saw that
people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. however, the time
they spent inside seemed to vary a lot some people came out in a matter of minutes while
for others it took much longer
From this what can one conclude?
(a) The centre operates on a first-come-first-served basis., but with variable service
times depending on specific customer needs.
(b) Customers were served in an arbitrary order since they took varying amounts of
time for service completion in the centre.
(c) Since some people came out within a few minutes of entering the centre, the system
is likely to operate on a last-come-first-served basis.
(d) Entering the centre early ensured that one would have shorter service times and
most-people attempted to do this.

Ans: (a)

117. The points in the graph below represent the halls of a lift for duration of 1 minutes,
over a period of 1 hour
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) the elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground
floor over the one hour period.
(ii) The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period.

(a) only i
(b) only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) Neither i nor ii

Ans: (d)
Exp.
The elevators has moved from 2nd to 5th floor between time 25 min to 30 min.
Elevation stayed at 4th floor for
= 3 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 19
= 19 min
Elevation stayed at ground floor for = 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1
+ 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 +1 = 21 min
Hence, (i) and (ii) both are false.

118. A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, Pelling, and Siliguri
Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok
Pelling is at a higher elevation than Siliguri . Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than
Gangtok.
Which of the following statements can be infer red from the paragraph above?
(i) Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong
(ii)Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling
(iii) Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than Siliguri
(iv) Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok.

(a) Only ii
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only ii and iv
(d) Only iii and iv

Ans: (c)
Exp.
K < G, P < G, P > S, G < D
If K < G and G < D
Hence , K < D
If S < P and P < G
Hence S < G
Hence (ii) and (iv) are correct

119. P, Q, R, S, T and U are sealed around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right
of Q. P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch
seats which of the following must necessarily be true.
(a) P is immediately to the right of R
(b) T is immediately to the left of P.
(c) T is immediately to the left of P or P is immediately to other right of Q.
(d) U is immediately to the right of R or P is immediately to the left of T.

Ans: (c)

120. Budhan covers a distance of 19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and
walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and
walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in
km/h at which Budhan walks is

(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6

Ans: (d)
Exp.
Let C = speed by cycling (km/h)
W = speed of walking (km/h)
 2 3
C � + W �2 � = 19
4 4
� C + 3W = 38
2 2
And, C � + W � = 26
2 2
� C + W = 26
W = 6 km/h