CSWIP 3.

1 (SET-5) EXAM - 5
GENERAL PAPER – 30 (MCQ’s)
(Please Don’t Mark your Answers on this Sheet)
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1. Prod is used in
a. PT
b. UT
c. RT
d. MT
2. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. 2. 3. 4.

a. For all joints RT is preferred to detect all type of defects.

b. For Joint #2 & Joint #3, UT can detect Lamellar tearing
c. For Joint #2 & Joint #3, RT can detect Lack of side wall fusion defects
d. For all joints Both RT & UT are best techniques to detect all types of defects
3. Which of the following procedures would be expected to produce least distortion in a 15mm
straight butt weld
a. TIG welding; single sided; Multipass
b. MMA welding; single sided; Multipass
c. MMA welding; double sided; Multipass
d. SAW welding ; single sided; Singlepass
4. The predominant structure of a hyper eutectoid steel that has been quenched at above its
upper critical point will be
a. Ferrite
b. Pearlite
c. Austenite
d. Martensitic
5. When weld refinement takes place in multi run deposit, it is known by term..
a. Weld Normalizing
b. Grain Refinement
c. Weld Tempering
d. Weld Annealing
6. Bend test Thickness:
a. For face bend / root bend / Longitudinal bend , Base metal thickness is 12mm
b. For side bend, Base metal thickness is 12mm
c. Former Size depends on Material Thickness
d. Both A & B are correct

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 7. For Aluminum welding the type of shielding gas preferred in GMAW is
a. Argon
b. Helium
c. Argon + Co₂
d. Both A & B
8. According to EN ISO 2560, Electrodes has a
a. minimum toughness at 47 joules
b. maximum toughness at 47 joules and minimum toughness at 28 joules based on flux
c. There is no minimum toughness required for electrodes
d. None of the above
9. Nick-Break test:
a. In the Weld metal
b. In the HAZ
c. In the Parent metal
d. All the above
10. Generally side-bend test requires beyond how much thickness?
a. 20mm
b. 24mm
c. 12mm
d. 22mm
11. If the Heat input at the interpass temperature exceeded, which type of properties effects most?
a. Hardness
b. Ductility
c. Toughness
d. Tensile strength
12. Which element has highest effect on Hardness
a. C
b. Cu
c. Cd
d. Cr
13. In manual welding which parameter is under control of welder
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Arc length
d. Travel speed
14. Which standard is helpful for visual inspection of welds?
a. EN ISO 17637
b. EN 287
c. Both a & b
d. En 2650

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 15. What is the magnification required for visual inspection?
a. 2 – 5
b. 5 – 10
c. 10 – 100
d. Indefinitely there is no limit
16. If the cooling rate was exceeded the specified rate, which type of microstructure will form?
a. Refine microstructure
b. Coarse microstructure
c. Fine microstructure
d. Susceptible microstructure
17. Argon and oxygen combinedly uses for which type of materials?
a. Steels
b. Stainless Steels
c. All materials
d. Both A & B
18. If T-Butt joint welded on30mm thickness, what is the effective/combined thickness?
a. 30mm
b. 45mm
c. 60mm
d. 90mm
19. You find on the shop floor, the Baking oven is damaged. What will be your action for welding by
using Basic electrodes?
a. Stop the welding until oven is repaired
b. No problem, continue the welding
c. Doesn’t care about the baking of basic electrodes
d. Report to higher officials and start the welding
20. Which of the following is true
a. UT is best for detecting defects less than 10mm
b. RT is best for detecting the Lamellar tearing
c. UT is best for detecting lack of sidewall fusion by using Compression probe
d. None of the above
21. 10HV indicates
a. Vickers Hardness
b. Brinell Hardness
c. Rockwell Hardness
d. Combined of all
22. 400 Square pyramid’s number indicates;
a. Toughness
b. Hardness
c. Ductility
d. Strength
23. Current in the welding process
a. Never be altered
b. It should be changed according to welder
c. It should be changed according to welding supervisor d. None of the above
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 24. Which of the following heat treatments will do below lower critical temperature
a. Normalizing
b. Annealing
c. Stress relieving
d. Quenching & Tempering
25. Welding process number 141 indicates
a. MMA
b. MIG
c. TIG
d. SAW
26. Generally, which dimension is taken into consideration for strength of weld
a. Leg length
b. Actual throat thickness
c. Design Throat thickness
d. All the above
27. In welding symbols, symmetric represents?
a. Same on Arrow side & other side
b. Different on Arrow side & other side
c. Only on Arrow side
d. Only on other side
28. To ensure correct Preheat, measure
a. After PWHT
b. After welding
c. Before welding
d. Before welding and at frequent intervals
29. Arc energy :
a. Is generally higher than heat input except SAW
b. It gives values of heat input, when it divides by thermal efficiency factor
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
30. Weld decay:
a. Occurs in HAZ
b. Occurs on longitudinal direction
c. Occurs in weld metal
d. Both a & b

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CSWIP 3.1 (SET-5) EXAM-5
TECHNICAL - 60 (MCQ’s)
(Please Don’t Mark your Answers on this Sheet)
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1. Which Electrode has higher deposition rate, whose core rod diameter is 5mm?
a. Basic
b. Rutile
c. Cellulose
d. Iron Powder
2. What is the temperature of SMAW (MMA) process?
a. Above 2600°C
b. Above 4000°C
c. Above 5400°C
d. Above 6000°C
3. If travel speed increases then
a. Hardness Increases
b. Hardness Decreases
c. Toughness Increases
d. Toughness Decreases
4. As per BSEN 22553 the following welding symbol indicates
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a. Single bevel at left side of the material on other side

b. Single bevel at right side of the material on other side
c. Single bevel at left side of the material on Arrow side
d. Single bevel at right side of the material on Arrow side
5. Pinch Effect
a. Detachment of material from filler wire due to Gravity
b. Detachment of material from filler wire due to Ultraviolet radiation
c. Detachment of material from filler wire due to Electromagnetic effect
d. All the above
6. Toughness is achieved or improved by which alloying element?
a. Carbon
b. Manganese
c. Molybdenum
d. Vanadium
7. Which element has more effect on Weld ability?
a. Carbon
b. Chromium
c. Manganese
d. Molybdenum

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 8. In TIG welding process which is not true?
a. Slope out device prevents weld pool contamination
b. Slope in device prevents weld pool contamination
c. Slope down not prevent weld pool contamination
d. Post flow will prevent weld pool contamination
9. Nick Break test
a. Can give results in Joints
b. Can give results in HAZ
c. Can give results in Weld metal
d. None of the Above
10. In GTAW for Aluminum
a. DCEN (Straight polarity)
b. DCEP (Reverse polarity)
c. AC polarity
d. All the above is preferred
11. EN 2560 refers to which of the following..?
a. Welding Terms & Symbols
b. Flux covered Electrodes
c. Flux wires for GTAW
d. SAW flux types
12. Symbol Z in welding process…?
a. Used for intermittent staggered fillet welds
b. Is mentioned right hand side of the symbol
c. Is used to control distortion
d. All the above are correct
13. As per EN 2560, the first two digits after ‘E’ represents…
a. Yield strength
b. Tensile strength
c. Toughness
d. Polarity & Metal recovery
14. Post cleaning is not required for
a. PT
b. MT
c. UT
d. RT
15. Which of the following is True in NDT ?
a. DPT cannot repeatedly perform to a joint
b. RT cannot reveal root concavity
c. UT (0° probe) cannot detect Lamination
d. MT cannot detect surface defects in C-Mn steels

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 16. Why surface cleaning is required before performing DPT..?
a. It will consume / required more amount of penetrant
b. Reduce level of false indication
c. To improve viscosity of the penetrant
d. None of the above
17. Lamellar tearing is best detected by
a. RT
b. UT
c. MT
d. PT
18. All type of cracks/Lack of fusion/Laminations is best detected by
a. PT
b. RT
c. UT
d. MT
19. What is the main difference between ASME & BSEN codes?
a. DT
b. NDT
c. WPS
d. Welding symbols
20. As per EN standard:
a. EN ISO 17637 for WPS & EN 287 for WQT
b. EN 287 for WPS & EN 499 for WQT
c. EN 15614 for both WPS & WQT
d. EN 287 for WQT & EN ISO 15614 for WPS
21. If the Environment is full of Humidity. Who will decide to weld or not..?
a. Welding Supervisor
b. Welding Engineer
c. Welding Inspector
d. Third Party Inspector
22. MMA welding more advantage because;
a. Cleaning between the runs is critical
b. Welder Skill
c. Easy deposition
d. Control of Arc length
23. Calculate the Arc Energy & Heat Input for C=145A; V=24v; ROL=12cm/min
a. SAW; Arc Energy=1.74Kj/mm; Heat Input=1.39Kj/mm.
b. MMA; Arc Energy=1.74Kj/mm; Heat Input=1.39Kj/mm.
c. TIG; Arc Energy=1.74Kj/mm; Heat Input=1.40Kj/mm.
d. It is always not necessary to calculate both Arc Energy & Heat input.

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 24. Why Thoriated electrodes are not preferred in TIG welding
a. High Cost & Low melting Point
b. High Radiation (emits - radiation)
c. It always causes Tungsten Inclusions
d. None of the above
25. Preheat is applied
a. to removal of residual stresses
b. to slow cooling & reduce the carbon content
c. to reduce the chance of a brittle grain structure and chance of hydrogen entrapment
d. to increase Ultimate Tensile Strength & increase weld ability
26. Pulse transfer mode in MIG/MAG welding process
e. To control penetration in dissimilar metals
f. Suitable for all positional welding
g. Frequency based process
h. All the above
27. Probe relates to which type of NDT
a. PT
b. UT
c. MT
d. RT
28. As per EN ISO 2560, Which of the following statement is correct
a. All electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 47 Joules (min.) & Yield Strength.
b. All electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 28 Joules (min.) & Tensile Strength.
c. Some Electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 47 Joules (min.) & Yield Strength and
Some Electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 28 Joules (min.) & Tensile Strength.
d. Some Electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 47 Joules (Avg.) & Yield Strength and
Some Electrodes are classified by Toughness @ 27 Joules (Avg.) & Tensile Strength.
29. Stick out length
a. The distance from Contact tip to work piece
b. The distance from Nozzle surface to work piece
c. The distance from Nozzle surface to Electrode tip
d. The distance from Contact tip to Electrode tip
30. Weld decay is
a. Galvanic corrosion
b. Galvanic erosion
c. Inter-granular corrosion
d. Inter-granular erosion
31. After welding, during Hardness test 400BHN recorded. Then it signifies
a. To control hydrogen to avoid cold cracking
b. To control hydrogen to avoid weld decay
c. To control solidification cracking
d. To control lamellar tearing

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 32. For a T-Butt joint whose thickness is 30mm. As per BSEN 1011, the measurement of total
thickness is
a. 20mm
b. 30mm
c. 60mm
d. 90mm
33. If Heat input increases
a. Hardness increases and width increases
b. Hardness decreases and width increases
c. Toughness increases and width increases
d. Toughness decreases and width increases
34. Hydrogen cracking
a. Can be avoided if the welding done in vacuum
b. Can be avoided by low H₂ process welding
c. Only can stop by TIG welding
d. By using Basic electrode it can be discarded
35. In C-Mn steel s if heat input is excessive from WPS, then microstructure changes to
a. Bainite
b. Perlite
c. Cementite
d. Martensitic
36. Solidification cracking occurs in which welding process
a. MMA - No & SAW - Yes
b. SAW – Yes (Only in PB position)
c. ‘A’ is correct but in ‘MMA’ also possible
d. None of the above
37. For the purpose of Grain refinement, which element is added?
a. Carbon
b. Chromium
c. Manganese
d. Aluminum
38. Tensile test Units
a. Joules
b. KJ/mm
c. MPa
d. Newtons
39. Sensitization
a. 500°C - 650°C
b. 600°C - 850°C
c. 650°C - 800°C
d. 700°C - 950°C

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 40. In SMAW, Voltage is controlled by
a. Welder controls Arc length/ Arc voltage
b. Current varies voltage varies
c. Travel speed
d. Welding Machine
41. ‘MAP’ is a term related to
a. RT
b. UT
c. MT
d. PT
42. Penetration will be effected by
a. Electrode Orientation
b. Polarity
c. Amperes
d. All of the Above
43. Slope-in used to
a. Initiate the Arc
b. To avoid crater porosity
c. Aids arc
d. To avoid thermal shock
44. Visual Inspection to be carried out as per
a. ITP
b. QC Procedure
c. WPS
d. WPQR
45. In SMAW, deep penetration will be achieved by using
a. DCEP – Basic Electrode
b. DCEN – Cellulosic Electrode
c. DCEN – Basic Electrode
d. DCEP – Cellulosic Electrode
46. The recommended position for checking Preheat maintenance temperature on butt weld base
metal thickness above 50mm is
a. Maximum 50mm from both sides of the groove
b. Minimum 75mm from both sides of the groove
c. Minimum 4 times the thickness from both sides of the groove
d. Maximum 75mm from both sides of the groove
47. In- service Fracture occurred due to over loading , the type of failure is
a. Fatigue
b. Ductile
c. Brittle
d. None

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 48. Hardness test units
a. PSI
b. Joules
c. Newton/mm²
d. Vickers
49. Which is not a Qualitative test
a. Bend Test
b. Nick Break
c. Fillet Fracture
d. Macro Hardness
50. ‘Bleeding’ is term related to which NDT method
a. DPT
b. MPT
c. RT
d. UT
51. Hydrogen cracking is most likely to occur when welding
a. C-Mn steels
b. Cr-Mo steels
c. 316L steels
d. Aluminum alloys
52. GMAW/FCAW process Deep penetration will be achieved by
a. DCEP – cellulose
b. DCEN – cellulose
c. DCEP – Basic
d. DCEN – Basic
53. Exceeding the maximum inter-pass temperature will show
a. Lower the Toughness value
b. Higher the Toughness value
c. Lower the Hardness value
d. Higher the Hardness value
54. Strength of the fillet weld depends on
a. Design throat thickness
b. Actual throat thickness
c. Leg length
d. Excess weld metal
55. Duty cycle is
a. Working period of welder
b. Working period of welding machine
c. Burn-off rate
d. Operating factor
56. As a welding inspector, whom you will allow for production welds..?
a. A welder qualified in J - L045 position
b. An Skilled / Experienced welder
c. As per welding engineer decision
d. A qualified welder as per specification
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 57. Least amount of H₂ in which welding process
a. GTAW
b. SMAM
c. FCAW
d. SAW
58. If travel speed is slow, it results in..
a. High tensile strength
b. Low tensile strength
c. Low toughness
d. High toughness
59. In GTAW, which electrode is preferred for Aluminum welding
a. Thorium
b. Cerium
c. Lanthanum
d. Zirconium
60. A chance of solidification cracking effected by increase in
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Manganese
d. Silicon

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KEY for EXAM- 5 (TECHINCAL-60)

(GENERAL-30) 1. D 41. B
2. D 42. D
1. D 3. A 43. D
2. B 4. C 44. A
3. C 5. C 45. D
4. D 6. B 46. B
5. C 7. A 47. B
6. D 8. A 48. D
7. D 9. C 49. D
8. A 10. C 50. A
9. A 11. B 51. B
10. C 12. D 52. C
11. C 13. A 53. A
12. A 14. D 54. A
13. B 15. A 55. B
14. A 16. B 56. D
15. A 17. B 57. A
16. D 18. C 58. C
17. D 19. B 59. D
18. A 20. D 60. A
19. A 21. C
20. D 22. D
21. A 23. B
22. B 24. B
23. A 25. C
24. C 26. H
25. C 27. B
26. C 28. D
27. A 29. C
28. D 30. C
29. A 31. A
30. D 32. B
33. D
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. A

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