Mock Test Paper

(for Class IX Studying Students)

Test-4

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55
02
00
8O
01
T2
EM
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MM : 360
ANTHE Mock Test 2018 Time : 2 Hr.

(for Class IX Studying Students)

Test - 4

SCIENCE

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1. A truck is moving with uniform velocity of 40 m/s on 4. Which of the following velocity-time (v-t) graphs
a straight horizontal road. When this truck just shows an object moving with zero acceleration?
crosses another stationary bike, bike starts moving
in the same direction with uniform acceleration of
v v

02
20 m/s 2. They will again meet after covering a
distance of
(1) (2)
(1) 20 m 00 O t O t
(2) 160 m

(3) 40 m
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v v
(4) 120 m
(3) (4)
2. Choose the incorrect statement
01

(1) The ratio of distance to magnitude of O t O t

displacement is always greater than or equal to
one 5. The given velocity-time graph depicts the motion of
T2

an object moving in a straight line. If total distance

(2) The ratio of magnitude of average velocity to
average speed is always equal to or less than covered by object is 120 m, then the time duration
one for which the object has undergone retardation is
EM

(3) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have

Velocity (m/s)

zero acceleration
15
(4) A body can have constant speed but varying
TH

velocity

3. An object of mass m is falling freely from height h, O 4

near the earth’s surface. What will be constant for Time (s)
the object during its fall? (Ignore air resistance)
N

(1) 4 s
(1) Speed
A

(2) 12 s
(2) Acceleration
(3) 8 s
(3) Momentum

(4) Velocity (4) 10 s

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ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-4)
6. Starting from rest two spaceships, Alpha and Beta, 11. A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of
move towards each other with respective the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?
accelerations of 5 m/s2 and 3 m/s2. Alpha is directed
to flash a red laser signal the moment Beta crosses (a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis
past it. If initially, they are separated by a distance of Newton's third law of motion.
of 1.6 km, the time after which the laser signal will (b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater
be flashed is than that of bullet.
(1) 10 seconds (2) 20 seconds (c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater
(3) 30 seconds (4) 40 seconds than that of gun.

7. Which of the following is true for an object of given (d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that
mass moving with uniform velocity? of gun are equal.

(1) Forces must not be acting on it (1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b)
(2) Friction must be zero on the object (3) (a) & (c) (4) Only (b)
(3) The object must cover equal distance in unequal 12. A man, standing on a cliff at a height h from the
intervals of time

4
ground, pushes a block of mass m with a vertically
(4) The object’s momentum must be constant downward speed v as shown in the figure. The speed

55
8. Two balls, A and B, are moving towards each other with which the block hits the ground will be
with some constant velocities on a smooth horizontal (Take g as acceleration due to gravity)
floor towards each other as shown. If mass of A has

02
greater mass than B, then during collision v

Ball Ball 00 h
A B

Ground
(1) Rate of change of momentum of A is equal to
8O
rate of change of momentum of B in magnitude (1) v  2gh (2) v 2  2gh
(2) Change of momentum of A is greater than the
change of momentum of B in magnitude (3) 2gh (4) v 2  2gh
(3) Acceleration of A is always greater than
01

13. A metal ball of mass M and a rubber ball of mass

acceleration of B in magnitude 4M are dropped from height h in vacuum. If time
(4) Rate of change of momentum of A is greater than taken by metal ball to reach the ground is t1 and by
rate of change of momentum of B in magnitude rubber ball is t2, then
T2

9. An object is moving with speed of 18 km/h. If its

t2
mass is 6 kg, then its magnitude of momentum is (1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 =
4
(1) 54 Ns (2) 15 Ns
EM

t2
(3) 6 Ns (4) 30 Ns (3) t1 = (4) t1 = 2t2
2
10. An object of mass 3 kg is dropped from a certain 14. The mass of a planet is triple and its radius is double
height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises as compared to that of the earth. The acceleration
16
TH

due to gravity on the surface of this planet will be

vertically till th of its initial height. The ratio of
25 [Take gearth = 10 m/s2]
magnitude of momentum of the object just before
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) 7.5 m/s2
and after striking the ground is
(3) 15 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2
N

(1) 2: 5 15. A stone dropped from a tower covers 15 m in last

A

second. What is the height of tower?

(2) 5 : 4
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(3) 3: 5 (1) 20 m (2) 25 m
(4) 4 : 5 (3) 16 m (4) 30 m
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(Class IX Studying Test-4) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
16. Consider the given factors: 21. It is easy to compress a sponge because
(i) Humidity (ii) Wind speed (i) It has minute holes in which air is trapped.
(iii) Temperature (iv) Surface area (ii) Its particles are loosely packed.
The factor(s) that increase(s) the rate of evaporation (iii) Its particles have weak inter-particle forces of
with the increase in its/their magnitude is/are attraction.
(1) Only (i) (1) Only (iii) (2) Only (ii)

(2) Both (i) and (ii) (3) Only (ii) & (iii) (4) Only (i)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 22. Following are the readings of temperature noted in
different units (K and °C) by a surveyor on a
(4) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) particular day.
17. A gas completely occupies the space available to it
Temperature Temperature
because gaseous molecules have Time
in °C in K
(1) High kinetic energy and strong interparticle 6 am 10 P
forces of attraction
12 noon Q 306

4
(2) High kinetic energy and high viscosity 6 pm 30 R

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(3) Very less interparticle forces of attraction and 1 am 3 276
large interparticle spaces
The average temperature in °C and K respectively are
(4) High affinity towards the walls of the container

02
(1) 19.5 and 296 (2) 19 and 292
18. 'X' is a state of matter which is present in fluorescent
tube and neon sign bulbs. 'Y' is another state of matter (3) 23.25 and 296.25 (4) 19.5 and 292.5
formed by cooling a gas of extremely low density to 00
23. Two sugar solutions of 100 g each having
super low temperature. States 'X' and 'Y' are concentration (w/w) 10% and 20% respectively are
(1) X  Gaseous state, Y  BEC mixed together. If 20 g from this mixture is separated
out then what will be the amount of sugar in this
(2) X  Plasma, Y  Solid
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20 g solution?
(3) X  Plasma, Y  BEC (1) 10 g (2) 3 g
(4) X  BEC, Y  Gaseous state (3) 15 g (4) 6 g
01

19. Ishani and Anshika were studying the effect of 24. Which of the following sets falls in the category of
temperature on solubility of sugar and salt in water "pure substances"?
at two different temperatures. Following is the
(1) Sponge, sugar, butter, soap solution
T2

observation table.
(2) Automobile exhaust, ink, foam, whipped cream
Substance Solubility (in 100 g)
(3) Calcium carbonate, carbon dioxide, iron, distilled
dissolved 293 K 313 K
EM

water
Sugar 32 g 62 g
(4) Sand in water, zinc granules in carbon
Salt 35 g 40 g
disulphide, mud
The amount of sugar needed to prepare a saturated 25. Which of the following processes does not involve
solution in 150 g of water at 293 K and the amount
TH

absorption of energy?
of salt in 50 g of water at 313 K respectively are
(1) Fusion (2) Boiling
(1) 48 g and 35 g (2) 38 g and 20 g
(3) Evaporation (4) Condensation
(3) 48 g and 20 g (4) 44 g and 30 g
N

26. Which of the following techniques is used to

20. The pair of colloids having same dispersed phase is separate drugs from blood?
A

(1) Smoke and mist (1) Chromatography

(2) Milk and fog (2) Distillation
(3) Cheese and pumice (3) Centrifugation
(4) Milky glass and rubber (4) Crystallisation
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ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-4)
27. The melting points of three substances X, Y and Z 32. In an accident, a man was seriously wounded. He
are t°C, (t + 10)°C and (t + 20)°C respectively. The had a fracture on wrist bone and partial tear of
correct order of interparticle forces of attraction in ligament also. His nose was bleeding, so some
substances X, Y and Z is blood drops were present on his shirt. He was not
able to stand due to injury of spinal cord.
(1) Z > Y > X
How many of the underlined words is/are connective
(2) X > Y > Z
tissue?
(3) Y > X > Z
(1) Two (2) One
(4) X > Z > Y
(3) Four (4) Three
28. Read the given statements carefully.
33. Organisms like unicellular algae, diatoms and
Statement 1 : The interconversion of states is a protozoans belong to group
physical change. (1) Plantae (2) Fungi
Statement 2 : A chemical change is also called a (3) Protista (4) Monera
chemical reaction.
34. Which of the following labelled parts of the cell

4
(1) Only statement 1 is correct make(s) their/its own proteins?

55
(2) Only statement 2 is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
D

02
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
29. Choose the incorrect match.
Column-I Column-II 00
(Quantity) (Unit) (1) Both A and D (2) C
(1) Pressure Pascal (3) B (4) A only
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(2) Weight Kilogram 35. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. vacuoles.

(3) Temperature Kelvin (1) They provide turgidity and rigidity to the plant
cell
(4) Density Kilogram per cubic metre
01

(2) They store amino acids, sugars, some proteins,

30. Metals usually show all of the following properties etc. in the plant cell
except
(3) They help in the manufacture of fat molecules in
T2

(1) They are lustrous unicellular organism

(2) They make a ringing sound when hit (4) They contain food items in Amoeba

(3) They are poor conductors of heat and electricity 36. The small pores present in the epidermis of leaf are
EM

responsible for which of the following functions?

(4) They can be drawn into wires
(i) Gaseous exchange
31. Which among the following are the elements of that
conducting tissue in which materials can move in (ii) Transpiration
TH

both directions? (iii) Storage of food

(a) Phloem parenchyma (b) Vessel (iv) Transport of food
(c) Companion cell (d) Sieve tube (1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
N

(e) Tracheid (f) Xylem fibre (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 37. ‘I’ is a fungal species that live in permanent
A

mutually dependent relationships with cyanobacteria.

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only Here ‘I’ is
(3) (b), (e) and (f) (1) Yeast (2) Lichen
(4) (a) and (d) only (3) Euglena (4) Mushroom
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(Class IX Studying Test-4) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
38. How many component(s) out of the following is/are 42. Which of the following tissues provides hardness to
common for plasma membrane and chromosome? the covering of seeds?
Lipid, Protein, Cellulose, DNA, Glucose
(1) Parenchyma
(1) One (2) Five
(2) Sclerenchyma
(3) Two (4) Three
39. Identify the tissue depicted below and choose the (3) Chlorenchyma
correct option.
(4) Collenchyma

43. Select the correct groups of plant kingdom in which

plants have naked embryos.

(1) Pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms

4
(1) Smooth muscle (involuntary and unstriated) (2) Bryophytes and angiosperms

55
(2) Cardiac muscle (voluntary and striated) (3) Thallophytes and bryophytes
(3) Skeletal muscle (involuntary and striated)
(4) Angiosperms and pteridophytes only
(4) Smooth muscle (voluntary and striated)

02
40. All of the following plants belong to group 44. Identify A and B from the below given representation.
Bryophyta, except
00 Connective
(1) Riccia tissue
(2) Marsilea Bone Bone Muscle
A B
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(3) Marchantia
(4) Funaria A B
41. Select the correct option for the epithelial tissues (1) Ligament Cartilage
01

A, B and C and their respective locations in our body.

(2) Tendon Ligament
(3) Cartilage Tendon
(4) Ligament Tendon
T2

A B
C 45. Statement-1 : The growth in plants and animals is
limited to certain regions.
EM

A B C

(1) Columnar - Statement-2 : Some tissues in plants divide

Inner lining throughout life and are localised in certain regions.
of intestine
TH

Statement-3 : Cell growth in animals is not uniform

(2)
so there is a clear demarcation of dividing and
non-dividing regions.
Cuboidal -
(3)
N

In (1) All the statements are correct

oesophagus
A

(2) Both statement-1 and statement-3 are incorrect

(4) Cuboidal - Columnar -
In ducts of In (3) Only statement-1 is correct
salivary oesophagus
glands (4) Only statement-3 is incorrect
5
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-4)

MATHEMATICS
46. In the given figure, if AE = EB, DC || AB and 51. In the given triangle ABC, AB = 3 cm, AC = 4 cm,
DEA = CEB, then AD is always equal to BD = 2 cm and DC = 3 cm. If AD is integer, then
AD can't be
A D
A

E
3 cm 4 cm

B C
B 2 cm D 3 cm C
(1) AB (2) BC
(3) DC (4) AE (1) 3 cm (2) 2 cm
10 (3) 6 cm (4) 4 cm
 a2  1 
47. If a  3  8 , then the value of   is

4
52. Which of the following is not a factor of
 4a 2  x4 – 4abx2 – (a2 – b2)2?

55
(1) 1024 (2) 1
(1) x – (a + b) (2) x + (a + b)
1
(3) 32 (4) (3) x 2 + (a + b)2 (4) x 2 + (a – b)2
2

02
48. In the given figure, if AC is the diagonal of 1
quadrilateral ABCD which bisects DAB and DOB, 53. If = a – 2 b , then a + b equals
17  12 2
then which of the following is always true? 00
A (1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 10
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54. In the given figure, if D is the mid-point of the
D B
hypotenuse AC of ABC right-angled at B, then
(ABD × CBD) : (ADB × BDC) equals
O
A
01

C
(1) AB = OD
D
T2

(2) OB = DC
(3) DC = BC
(4) OA = DC B C
EM

49. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 6 : 7. The (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
complement of the smallest angle of the triangle is
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(1) 66° (2) 24°
55. 76 – 66 is not divisible by
TH

(3) 156° (4) 78°

(1) 13 (2) 43
50. In ABC, E and D are two points lying on AB and AC
respectively such that CE and BD are intersect each (3) 87 (4) 127
other at O. If AEC  CDB, then ABC will always 56. If a2 + b2 – 1 = 0 and ab – b – a = 2, then the
N

be a/an value of the expression 1 – a – b can be

(1) Obtuse-angled triangle 2
A

(1)
(2) Scalene triangle (2) 6
(3) Isosceles right-angled triangle (3) 3
(4) Equilateral triangle (4) 0

6
(Class IX Studying Test-4) ANTHE Mock Test-2018

57. If a 2/3 – b 2/3 – c 2/3 = 0, then the value of 63. (a6 – b6) is equal to
(a2 – b2 – c2)3 is
(1) (a2 – b2) (a4 + b4 – a2b2)
(1) 3a2/3  b2/3  c2/3
(2) (a2 – b2) (a4 + b4 + a2b2)
(2) 27a2/3  b2/3  c2/3
(3) (a3 – b3 + a3b3)
(3) 27a2b2c2
(4) (a2 – b2) (a4 + b4)
(4) 3a2b2c2
64. The area bounded by the x-axis, y-axis and line
2x + 3y = 8 equals
58. If  m is an irrational number, then m must be
27 19
(1) A positive integer which is a perfect square (1) sq. units (2) sq. units
5 3
(2) A positive integer which is not a perfect square
16
(3) A negative integer which is a perfect square (3) 10 sq. units (4) sq. units
3

4
(4) A negative integer which is not a perfect square
65. Total number of solutions of equation 2x + 3y = 10,

55
59. Which of the following is not a factor of the such that x and y are whole number equals
polynomial (x 2 + 7x + 9)2 – 9?
(1) 2 (2) 8
(1) x + 1 (2) x + 3

02
(3) 6 (4) 5
(3) x + 5 (4) x + 6
66. In the given figure, a || b and c, d and e are
00 transversals. If MPN = OPN, then the value of
32 2 (2y + z – x) is
3
60. The value of equals
17  6 8 d e
c
8O
M
(1) 1 (2) 2
z
(3) 0 (4) 3 a N
y P
01

61. In the given figure BF = CE and AC = FD. The

correct option is x
35° Q
b
A O
T2

(1) 360° (2) 180°

EM

C (3) 260° (4) 310°

B F E
67. In the given figure, the measure of DBC + BCE
equals
TH

A
D
(1) DE = AB (2) FE = FD 50°
N

(3) AB = FE (4) AC = FE B C
12 D E
 x    256 
3
A

12 4
62. The value of 8 equals

(1) 132 x (2) 16 x (1) 120° (2) 330°

(3) 128 x (4) 2 x (3) 230° (4) 180°

7
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-4)
68. In the given figure, AB || CD and CB || ED. If AD and 69. In the given triangle ABC, BD and CD are the
BE are line segments and l is a transversal, then bisectors of ABC and ACB respectively. The
which of the following is not correct?
measure of BDC is equal to
l
A
C
A
40°
F
D
H G

130° B C
B E
O I
(1) 60° (2) 110°

(3) 90° (4) 100°

x
y

4
1 1 1 1 1 1
70. The value of         equals
D 6 12 20 30 42 420

55
(1) AHF = x + y
19 42
(2) DOI = 50° – x (1)
42
(2)
19

02
(3) BFE + FGD = 180° – y
91 24
(4) FBI = 130° – y (3)
42
(4)
19
00
MENTAL ABILITY
8O
71. Which of the options should replace the question 73. The mirror image of the following figure is
mark in the below given problem?

5 31 6
01

7 57 8

9 ? 10
T2

(1) 92
(1)
(2) 91
EM

(3) 90

(4) 93 (2)
TH

72. A man said to a woman, "you are the only daughter

of my fathers mother-in-law". How is that man related
to the woman?
N

(3)
(1) Nephew
A

(2) Cousin

(3) Brother
(4)
(4) Son
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(Class IX Studying Test-4) ANTHE Mock Test-2018
74. Choose the figure from the options in which the Directions (Q.78 to Q.80) : See the figure carefully and
question figure (A) is embedded. answer the questions that follow.
1
12
4 2
8
7
3
10
9 11
6
(A)

5
78. Which number belong to all the figures?
(1) (2) (1) 11 (2) 10
(3) 3 (4) 8
79. What is the sum of the numbers which belong to
three figures only?

4
(1) 29 (2) 34
(3) (4)

55
(3) 18 (4) 33
80. What is the unit place of the product of the numbers
75. Find the total number of squares in the following figure. which belong to two figures only?

02
(1) 4 (2) 2

00 (3) 8 (4) 6
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : In a certain language, the
digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0 are substituted by m, n,
(1) 21 (2) 26 o, p, q, r, s, t, u, v respectively. Thus, 90 is written
8O
(3) 20 (4) 19 as uv, st represents 78 and so on.

76. Out of all the given numbers as shown below choose 81. (vq)n + (mn)n is equal to
the odd one out. (1) mru (2) (om)n
01

576 (3) (vq + mn)n (4) (vt)n

25 82. mq × q + mvv ÷ nv – mt' is equal to
1 81
64 (1) rm (2) qv
T2

200 36 (3) rn (4) qr

441 144
169 83. Find the missing number in the given series
16
EM

23, 711, 1719, 2931, 4143, ?

100
(1) 5361 (2) 4753
(3) 5359 (4) 4359
84. The three positions of a dice (not a standard dice)
TH

(1) 441 (2) 25

are given below.
(3) 200 (4) 576
77. Arrange the following in a meaningful logical
2 5 3
sequence.
N

(i) Camel (ii) Horse 4 1 4 2 5 6

A

(iii) Rabbit (iv) Giraffe

(v) Goat The number opposite to the number 2 is
(1) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv) (1) 1 (2) 4
(3) (v), (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (4) (iii), (v), (ii), (iv), (i) (3) 6 (4) 3

9
ANTHE Mock Test-2018 (Class IX Studying Test-4)
85. Arrange the following words according to the 89. The water image of the following figure is
dictionary and find which comes at 5th position?
Abhor, Abets, Aahed, Abaci, Abbes, Abeam, Abele
(1) Abhor (2) Abele
(3) Abets (4) Abeam CRUZE
86. 124 : 64 : : 123 : 36 : : 126 : 144 : : 122 : ?
(1) 8 (2) 32
CRUZE
(3) 16 (4) 36
(1)
87. Choose a correct figure to complete the following
figure matrix.

(2)

4
55
02
(3)

00
(4)
8O

90.
01

(1) (2)
T2
EM

(3) (4)
TH

88. 7 5 9 3 8 2
(1) (2)

8 24 ?
N

8 4 6 2 9 4
A

(1) 26 (2) 32
(3) (4)
(3) 28 (4) 30

‰‰‰
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