AB BC : Part A

PART A
1. In a 100 m race A beats B by 10 m B beats

C by 5 m By how many meters does A beat
C?
3 4
(a) 15.0 m (b) 5.5 m (a) l (b) l
4 3
(c) 10.5 m (d) 14.5 m
3
Explanation: 1 (d) A : B  100 : 90 = 10 : 9 (c) l (d) 2l
2
B : C  100 : 95  20 :19 Explanation: 4 (d) We know that angle of
incidence = angle of refraction
Therefore A : C = = = =

.
So the difference between A and C is

100  85.5  14.5
2. Suppose (i) "A*B" means "A is the father of
B" (ii) "A  B" means "A is the husband of AE  l AC   2  CE
B", (iii) "A  B" means "A is the wife of B"
and (iv) "A B", means "A is the sister of B". AE = l, AC = = CE
Which of the following represents "C is the
father-in-law of the sister of D"?  AB  BC  AC  1/ 2
(a) C  E * F D Similarly for  CDE
(b) C * E  F D
CD  DE  CE  l
2
(c) C  E * F D
Total length of the ray =
(d) C * E  F D
l  l  l  l  2l
Explanation: 2 (d) C is the father in law of sister 2 2 2 2
of D, this will happen only when C is the
5. What is the value of (1+3+5+7+...+ 4033)
father of husband of sister of D. Thus
+ 7983  2017?
the following symbol represents it.
(a) 20170000 (b) 201720017
C*E ∆ F□ D
(c) 20171720 (d) 20172020
3. In a group of 11 persons, each shakes hand
with every other once and only once. What Explanation: 5 (a) 1+3+5+7+--- + 4033
is the total number of such handshakes?
represents AP
(a) 110 (b) 121
(I). an  a1   n  1 d
(c) 55 (d) 66
Explanation: 3 (c) The Ist person will do 10 4033  1   n  1 2
nd
handshakes while the 2 person
will do 9 handshakes and so on.. 4034  2n  n  2017
So total number of hand shanks = 10 S n  1  3  5  7      4033
+ 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 +3 +2 +1 = 55
4. Path of a ray light between two mirrors is 1  4033  a a  
  2017  Using S n   1 n N
shown in the diagram. If the length of each 2   2  
mirror is 'l', what is the total path length of
the ray between the mirrors? 4034
  2017  2017  2017
2
GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

Required sum = 2017  2017  7983  201 fraction of the total number are women from
the Lok Sabha?
 2017  2017  7983 
(a) 1/11 (b) 6/11
 2017 10000  20170000 (c) 2/11 (d) 3/11
2017
6. What is the last digit of (2017) ? Explanation: 9 (a) Total female ratio =
(a) 1 (b) 3 9 2
1 
(c) 7 (d) 9 11 11
Explanation: 6. (c) (2017)
2017 1 9 9
Males from Lok Sabha =  
= (7)
2017
= (7)
4  504
7
1 3 11 33
= (1)504  71 2 9 18
Males from Rajya Sabha =  
=17=7 3 11 33
7. Pick the correct statement: 7 21
Total from Rajya Sabha = 
(a) The sky is blue because Sir C.V. Raman 11 33
gave the correct explanation
4 12
(b) Copernicus believed that the Sun, and So total from Lok Sabha = 
11 33
not the Earth, was at the center of the
Solar system So females from Lok Sabha = Total from LS
– males from LS
(c) The sky appears blue when seen from
the Moon 12 9 33 1
   
(d) No solar eclipse is visible for an 33 33 33 11
astronaut standing on the Moon
10. When a farmer was asked as to how many
Explanation: 7 (b) Basic Scientific fact animals he had, he replied that all but two
8. A librarian is arranging a thirteen-volume were cows, all but two were horses and all
encyclopaedia on the shelf from left to right but two were pigs. How many animals did he
in the following order of volume number: 8, have?
11, 5, 4, 9, 1, 7, 6, 10, 3, 12, (b)In this (a) 3 (b) 6
pattern, where should the volume 13 be
placed? (c) 8 (d) 12
(a) Leftmost Explanation: 10 (a) Required number of

animals is 3, [1 cow, 1 horse and 1 pig]
(b) Rightmost
11. The distribution of marks of students in a
(c) Between 10 and 3 class is given by the following chart:
(d) Between 9 and 1
Explanation: 8 (c) The books are kept in
alphabetical order like eight, eleven, five,
four and so on. Thus, thirteenth will lie
between 10 and 3
9. Nine-eleventh of the members of a
perliamentary committee are men. Of the
men, two-thirds are from the Rajya Sabha.
Further, 7/11 of the total committee If 3.30 marks is the passing score in a 10
members are from the Rajya Sabha. What mark question paper, which of the following
is false?

(a) Majority of the student have scored Explanation: 13 (c) The two consecutive
above the pass marks positive integers whose product is 24 are 6
and 4.
(b) Mode of the distribution is 3
Now in series 6 is coming at odd place while
(c) Average marks of passing students is th
4 is coming at even place. Therefore the 7
above 55%
member is ‘6’.
(d) Average marks of student who have
14. The prices of diamonds having a particular
failed is below 20%
colour and clarity are tabulated below:
Explanation: 11 (d) From the graph
Weight of diamond Price of diamond (in
12. Mohan lent Geeta as much money as she rupees/carat)
(in carats)
already had. She then spent `10. Next day,
he again lent as much money as Geeta now 0.25 1 lakh
had, and she spent `10 again. On the third
0.5 2 lakh
day, Mohan again lent as much money as
Geeta now had, and she again spent `10. If 1 4 lakh
Geeta was left with no money at the end of
the third day, how much money did she 2 8 lakh
have initially?
(a) `11.25 (b) `10 How many 0.25 carat diamonds can be
(c) `7.75 (d) `8.75 purchased for the price of a 2 carat
diamond?
Explanation: 12 (d) Let Geeta had rupees X,
thus she borrowed rupees X from Mohan. (a) 8 (b) 16
Therefore now she has (X + X), then she (c) 32 (d) 64

spent Rs. 10/- and again borrowed the same Explanation: 14 (d) Total cost of 2 carat
amount, so on second day she has (2X - 10) diamond = 16 lakh
x 2. On the next day she again spent Rs.
10/- and hence the money left with her is Thus the number of 0.25 carat diamonds =
 2 x  10   2  10 . Therefore the final
16
 64
equation will be:
0.25
15. The university needs to appoint a new Vice
   2x  10 x 2  10  x 2  10  0
     Chancellor which will be based on seniority.
Ms West is less senior to Mr. North but more
 4x  20  10  2  10 senior to Ms. East. Mr. South is senior to
Ms. West but junior to Mr. North. If the
 8x - 60 = 10 senior-most declines the assignment, then
70 who will be the new Vice Chancellor of the
 x University?
8
(a) Mr. North (b) Ms. East
 x = 8.75
(c) Ms. West (d) Mr. South
13. In a sequence of 24 positive integers, the
product of any two consecutive integers is Explanation: 15 (d) North, South, West.
24 If the 17th member of the sequence is 6, East
the 7th member is So if the North refuses then south
(a) 24 (b) 4 will be the new VC.
(c) 6 (d) 17

16. Areas of the three rectangles inside the full Explanation: 18 (c) Since, 24 carat gold =
rectangle are given in the diagram. 100% 22 carat gold = 91.6%
8 of gold
12 4 Therefore, the required gold = 91.6% of 120

= 109.92 ≈ 110 gm
What is the area of the full rectangle?
19. A water tank that is 40% empty holds 40L
(a) 36 (b) 48 more water than when it is 40% full. How
(c) 72 (d) 96 much water does it hold when it is full?
Explanation: 16 (b) (a) 100 L (b) 75 L

(c) 120 L (d) 200 L
Explanation: 19 (d) Let the amount of water = x
Then 60% of x  40% x  40
a x d = 12, b x c = 8, bxd=4 20. If all the angle of a triangle are prime
ad  bc 12  8 numbers, which of the following could be
Therefore, ac =   24 one such angle?
bd 4
(a) 89 (b) 79
so total area of the full rectangle will be 24 +
12 + 8 + 4 = 48 (c) 59 (d) 29
17. Which should be the correct pattern in the Explanation: 20 (a) If all the angles of a
empty square? triangle are prime numbers then one angle

must be ‘2’ since the sum of angles = 180
and except ‘2’ all other prime numbers are
odd and sum of two odd numbers will be
even. So the angles will be 89º, 89 º and 2º.
PART B
21. Which one of the following peptides can
coexist in both cis- and trans- conformation?
(a) Ala-Ala-CONH2
(b) Pro-Gly-CONH2
(c) Asn-Gly-CONH2
(d) Val-Pro-CONH2
Explanation: 21 (d) Proline is the only amino
acid which can exist in cis confirmation. If
the proline is present in the middle then in
that case the peptide will exist in cis and
trans confirmation.
Explanation: 17 (c) By following mirror image
pattern 22. Which one of the following statement is NOT
correct?
18. How much gold and copper (in g),
respectively, are required to makes a 120 g (a) Allosteric enzymes do not obey
bar of 22 carat gold? Michaelis-Menten kinetics
(a) 90 and 30 (b) 100 and 20 (b) The free-energy change provides
information about the spontaneity but
(c) 110 and 10 (d) 120 and 0 not rate of a reaction

(c) Competitive and non-competitive 25. Ability of a membrane protein to span the
inhibitions are kinetically lipid bilayer strictly depend on the presence
indistinguishable of
(d) A kcat/Km (M-1 s-1) of ~2  108 for an (a) Zinc finger domain
enzyme indicates that the value is close
(b)  helices
to diffusion-controlled rate of encounter
(c) parallel  sheet
Explanation: 22 (c) Out of all the given options,
the option C is incorrect because (d) antiparallel  sheet
competitive and non-competitive inhibition
Explanation: 25 (b) Ability of a membrane
are very much kinetically distinguishable. In
protein to span the lipid bilayer is due to
competitive inhibition, an inhibitor prevents
presence of -helices. The hydrophobic
binding of the substrate to the enzyme
amino acid protrudes towards lipid bilayer
active site and it can be overcome by high
and the hydrophilic amino acid form a
concentration of substrate i.e. it is reversible
central pore through which polar substance
but in non-competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
is transported
reduces the activity of the enzyme & binds
equally well to the enzyme alone as well as 26. Which one of the listed below is a P-type ion
enzyme substrate complex and it cannot be transporter?
reversed by increasing substrate
(a) Mg+2 and Fe+2
concentration.
(b) Mg+2 and Fe+3
23. Which one of the following pair of amino
acid are glucogenic and ketogenic in (c) Mg+2 and CI-
nature?
(d) Na+-K+, Ca+2 and H+
(a) Alanine and Lysine
Explanation: 26 (d) P-type ATPases are the
(b) Lysine and Leucine largest and most diverse of the ATP-
dependent ion transporters in biology. Their
(c) Isoleucine and Phenylalanine
reaction mechanism proceeds via a
(d) Aspartate and Lysine phosphorylated protein intermediate.
Explanation: 23 (c) There are thirteen amino Prominent examples of P-type ATPases are
the Na+,K+-ATPase, H+-ATPase, H+, K+-
acids that are purely glucogenic in nature
ATPase and Ca2+-ATPase.
and two amino acids that are purely
ketogenic in nature. The remaining five 27. The cell maintains a high concentration of
amino acids are both glucogenic and protons inside the lysosome because of
ketogenic in nature, phenylalanine and
(a) antiporter in the lysosomal membrane
isoleucine being the two among them.
(b) ATP-powered proton pump in the
24. The [OH-] of 0.1 N HCI solution is
lysosomal membrane
(a) 10-14M (b) 10-13 M
(c) facilitated diffusion proton channel in the
(c) 1012 M (d) 10-7 M lysosomal membrane
Explanation: 24 (b) 0.1 N HCl solution means, (d) facilitated diffusion proton uniporter in the
[H+] = 0.1 = 1 x 10-1 lysosomal membrane
Thus pH = - log(1 x 10-1) or pH=1 Explanation: 27 (b) Lysosomes contain acid
hydrolases which require an acidic medium
Since pH + pOH = 14 so pOH =13
to function. To maintain their acidic
-
Also, pOH = - log[OH ] environment, H+ ions (protons) are
- concentrated by a proton pump in the
So, [OH ] = - antilog (13)
lysosomal membrane, which actively
Solving for antilog, we get [OH-]=10-13M transports protons into it from the cytosol.
This pumping requires expenditure of

energy in the form of ATP hydrolysis, as it is transformed into wild type (ung+) cells i.e.
maintains approximately a hundredfold cells producing functional Uracil-N-
+
higher H concentration inside the lysosome. Glycosylase, uracil will be excised ,correct
nucleotide would will be inserted and
28. It is known that there is a large difference in
plasmid replicates normally and we detect
the DNA content between two organisms
transformants in the media. On the other
with similar developmental complexity. This
hand, when the same plasmid is inserted in
is due to large differences in the number of -
ung cells, uracil will not be excised ,as a
(a) Transposable elements, repetitive DNA result of which mutations would occur in the
and coding sequences cell and finally the cell carrying plasmid dies
and hence no transformants would been
(b) Transposable element and repetitive
seen. Hence, option 3 is correct.
DNA
30. E. coli takes 40 min. to duplicate its genome
(c) introns and coding sequences
using a bi-directional mode of replication. If
(d) introns and transposable elements E. coli were to use uni-directional mode of
replication to synthesize a full copy of DNA
Explanation: 28 (b) The large difference in DNA
complementary to just one of the strands of
of closely related species lies in non-coding
the genome, it would take
DNA and most of its part belongs to
repetitive DNA including transposable (a) 40 min (b) 80 min
elements.
(b) 20 min (c) 60 min
29. A uracil containing plasmid was constructed
Explanation: 30 (b) Unidirectional replication
and was used in transformation into the wild
requires double time as compared to
type (ung+) and uracil-N-glycosylase
bidirectional replication. Therefore, 80
mutated (ung-) E.coil cells and scored for
minutes would be required to replicate its
transformants in the presence of appropriate
genome by unidirectional replication as
antibiotics. Which one of the following
compared to 40 min in bidirectional mode of
statement correctly describes the
replication
experimental outcome?
31. Transcriptional regulation of trp operon by
(a) ung+ cells will have fewer transformants
tryptophan involves binding of tryptophan to
compared to ung- cells
(a) The repressor protein and inhibitions of
(b) ung- cells will give fewer transformants
transcription by its interaction with the
compared to ung+ cells
operator
(c) No transformants will be obtained in ung-
(b) RNA polymerase and inhibition of
cells as uracil excision repair will not
transcription
occur and the plasmid would not
replicate (c) the repressor protein leading to structural
changes and its degradation by
(d) Presence of uracil in DNA is unnatural
proteases
and the plasmid DNA with uracils in it
will not produce transformants in either (d) The repressor protein leading to its
+ -
ung or ung cells interaction with sigma subunit and
inhibition of transcriptions
Explanation: 29 (c) Uracil N-Glycosylase is one
of the important enzymes involved in DNA Explanation: 31 (a) The trp operon is
repair. It hydrolyzes the N-glycosidic bond transcribed to produce a single mRNA that
between the deoxyribose sugar and uracil in contains the coding sequences of all five of
DNA containing deoxyuridine in place of the genes. The operator sequence is
thymidine and immediately activates base recognized by the trp repressor, which
excision repair system. As a result, prevents transcription of operon enzymes by
mismatched base (uracil) is removed and physically getting in the way of RNA
correct base is incorporated. In the given polymerase. The trp repressor does not
problem, when the plasmid containing uracil

always bind to DNA. Instead, it binds and (a) Inactivating pRb and p53, respectively
blocks transcription only when tryptophan is
(b) Modulation p53 and pRb, respectively
present. When tryptophan is around, it
attaches to the repressor molecules and (c) binding to cyclin D1 and CDK4
changes their shape so they become active
(d) activating expression of p21
and inhibit the transcription of genes.
Explanation: 34 (b) E7 acts by binding to
32. Phosphorylation of eIF2  subunits (at
members of the Retinoblastoma (Rb) tumor
Ser51) leads to
suppressor protein family and inhibiting their
(a) Inactivation of Met-tRNAi binding activity ability to modulate the function of E2F
of eIF2B transcription factors .The E6 proteins
primarily bind p53 and target it for ubiquitin
(b) Sequestration of eIF2B because of tight
mediated proteasomal degradation.
binding between eIF2 and eIF2B
35. Which one of the following permits the rapid
(c) Degradation of eIF2B
diffusion of small, water-soluble molecules
(d) enhanced guanine exchange activity of between the cytoplasm of adjacent cells?
eIF2B
(a) Tight junctions
Explanation: 32 (b) eIF2B is able to exchange
(b) Anchoring junctions
GDP for GTP only if eIF2 is in its
unphosphorylated state. The (c) Adherens junctions
Phosphorylated eIF2, however, due to its
(d) Gap junctions
stronger binding, acts as an inhibitor of its
own GEF (eIF2B). Since the cellular Explanation: 35 (d) Gap junctions allow the
concentration of eIF2B is much lower than exchange of ions, second messengers, and
that of eIF2, even a small amount of small metabolites between adjacent cells
phosphorylated eIF2 can completely abolish and are formed by two unrelated protein
eIF2B activity by sequestration. families, the pannexins and connexins.
33. If a disease caused by an intracellular 36. Which one of the following is NOT true for
pathogen is associated with host anti- alternative pathway of complement
inflammatory response, which one of the activation?
following may lead to an effective
(a) Alternative pathway uses the same
therapeutic approach?
membrane-attack complex as the
(a) Treatment with TGF- classical pathway
(b) Treatment with macrophage activating (b) Alternative pathway does not require
agent antigen-antibody interactions
(c) Depletion of IFN- from the system (c) Alternative pathways produces C3 by the
same route as the classical pathway
(d) Treatment with IL-4 and IL-10
(d) Certain microbial surfaces have physico-
Explanation: 33 (b) Since disease is caused
chemical properties that may result in
due to host anti-inflammatory response. For
activation of alternative pathway
therapy host pro-inflammatory response
should be activated, which in this question Explanation: 36 (c) The alternative pathway
can be achieved by activating macrophages. provides an evolutionarily old and quite
Rest all other options are anti-inflammatory primitive innate immune defense
effects. mechanism. Activation begins with the C3
molecule. Native C3 contains an internal
34. Cervical cancer-causing papilloma virus
thiol ester in its α chain that, under normal
produces two oncoproteins E6 and E7 which
physiologic conditions, undergoes
are responsible for interfering with cell cycle
continuous low-grade hydrolysis to create a
regulation by
“C3b-like” molecule, C3(H2O).

2+
37. Fertilization in sea urchin eggs involves Ca would otherwise dorsalize the
release from the endoplasmic reticulum for mesoderm
cortical granule reactivation. The major
2+ (c) In the presence of BMP activators the
molecule responsible for releasing Ca from
ectodermal cells form neural tissue
intracellular stores is
(d) Wnt signalling causes a gradient of -
(a) Zona pellucida glycoproteins
catenin along the anterior-posterior axis
(b) protamines of the neural tube that appears to
specify the regionalization of the neural
(c) insoitol 1, 4, 5-trisphosphate
tube
(d) N-acetylglucosaminidase
Explanation: 39 (d) In the Xenopus nervous
Explanation: 37 (c) Fusion between egg and system -catenin signaling acts as
sperm causes G-protein activation which transforming Morphogen for patterning.
++
causes opening of IP3 gated Ca channels
40. Which one of the following statements
in the SER of egg. That’s why increase in
++ ++ related to components/features of
intracellular Ca concentration causes Ca
senescence in plants is INCORRECT?
mediated fusion of cortical granules with egg
plasma membrane (a) Programmed cell death in plants may
generate functional cells or tissues
38. What is the observed phenotype when the
ultrabithorax gen is deleted in Drosophila? (b) Senescence can be induced by
application of cytokinins and delayed by
(a) The third thoracic segment is
overexpression of salicylic acid
transformed into another second
thoracic segment resulting in a fly with (c) Plants defective in autophagy
four wings. demonstrate accelerated plant
senescence
(b) Since it specifies the second thoracic
segment, instead of antenna leg grows (d) Leaf senescence is regulated by NAC
out of the head socket and WRKY genes families
(c) Since it specifies the third thoracic Explanation: 40 (b) The Statement B is
segment, a fly with two pairs of halters incorrect regarding senescence in plants.
develop Cytokinin gives chloroplast preservation test
and delay leaf, fruit and flower senescence.
(d) Since this gene fails to be expressed in
the second thoracic segment, the 41. Which one of the following secondary
antennae sprout in the leg position. metabolites is characterized by the presence
of a central carbon atom that is bound by a
Explanation: 38 (a) Ultrobithorax (Ubx) gene is
sulphur to a glycone group, and by a
required for the identity of the 3rd thoracic
nitrogen to a sulfonated oxime group?
segment and when the ultrabithorax gene is
rd
deleted, the 3 thoracic segment (a) Alkaloids
(characterised by halteres) is transformed
nd (b) Terpenes
into another 2 thoracic segment.
(c) Phenolic
39. Which one of the following statements with
respect to amphibian development is (d) Glucosinolates
correct?
Explanation: 41 (d) Glucosinolates is a group
(a) The organizer is itself induced by the of secondary metabolites which have
Nieuwkoop Center located in the Sulphur & Nitrogen. It has beta – D
dorsalmost mesodermal cells thioglucose group and sulfonated oxime
group.
(b) The organizer functions by secreting
proteins like Noggin, Chordin and 42. Dark grown Arabidopsis seedlings show
Follistatin that blocks BMP signal that 'triple response' when exposed to ethylene

hormone. Which one of the following options (c) hair follicles
is characteristic of 'triple response'?
(d) pancreas
(a) Reduced shoot elongation, increased
Explanation: 45 (a) In the parasympathetic
shoot thickness and tightening of apical
division, the neurons are cholinergic but in
hook
the sympathetic division, neurons are
(b) Reduced shoot elongation, reduced mostly adrenergic. Exceptions to this rule
shoot thickness and loosening of apical include the sympathetic innervation of sweat
hook glands and arrectores pilorum muscles
where the neurotransmitter at both pre and
(c) Increased shoot elongation, increased
post ganglionic synapses is acetylcholine.
shoot thickness and loosening of apical
hook 46. Melanopsin is found in which cell of the
retina?
(d) Increased shoot elongation reduced
shoot thickness and tightening of apical (a) Cones
hook
(b) Rods
Explanation: 42 (a) Reduced shoot elongation,
(c) Ganglion cells
increased shoot thickness and tightening of
apical hook is special feature of triple (c) Bipolar cells
response, if Arabidopsis seedlings are
Explanation: 46 (c) In man, melanopsin is
exposed to ethylene hormone.
found in intrinsically photosensitive retinal
43. Brassinosteroids are a group of steroid ganglion cells (ipRGCs). It is also found in
hormones that function in a variety of the iris of mice and primates.
cellular and development contexts in plants.
47. Prestin, a membrane protein, is found in
Which one of the following acts as an
which one of the following cells of the organ
inhibitor of the brassinosteroid receptor?
of Corti?
(a) BRI 1 (2) BK 1
(a) Inner hair cells
(b) BAK 1 (c) BSK 1
(b) Inner phalangeal cells
Explanation: 43 (b) BKI1 is a inhibitor which
(c) Outer hair cells
negatively regulates BRI1 in brassinosteroid
pathway. BKI1 can also interact with another (d) Outer phalangeal cells
important CRR – RLK, ERECTA (ER).
Explanation: 47 (c) The protein Prestin is the
44. Which one of the following metabolites motor protein of the outer hair cells of the
moves from mitochondria to peroxisome inner ear of mammalian cochlea. It is highly
during the operation of the C2 oxidative expressed in the outer hair cells, and is not
photosynthetic cycle? expressed in the non-motile inner hair cells.
(a) Glycerate (b) Glycolate 48. Two individuals A and B, each of 75 kg body
weight, have similar volume of body water.
(c) Glycine (d) Serine
Both of them had high salt snack. However,
Explanation: 44 (d) In mitochondria 2-m glycine individual A also had a glass of alcoholic
is converted into serine, CO2 and by drink. Based on this information, which one
enzyme glycine decarboxylase so that of the following statement is true?
serine is moved from mitochondria to
(a) A will have lower circulating level of
peroxisomes during C2-cycle.
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) than B
45. Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons that
(b) B will have lower circulating level of ADH
are cholinergic, innervate
than A
(a) sweat glands
(c) The level of ADH will not change in these
(b) parotid glands two individuals

(d) The reabsorption of water in kidney will Explanation: 50 (b) The trait given here is sex
be more in A than B linked which is explained by taking X and Y.
Here males are XX (homomorphic) and
Explanation: 48 (a) Alcohol is known to depress
females are heteromorphic (XY).
the nerve centre in the hypothalamus of
brain involved in the secretion of ADH. Thus The first cross is between white eyed male
the ADH secretion is decreased in people and red eyed female
consuming alcohol. In the given problem, r r R r R r
X X x X Y → X X (male) and X y (female)
both the individuals A and B have same
– red eyed male and female white eyed.
weight and both consumed high salt snack
which increased the osmolarity of blood, The second cross is between red eyed male
leading to the release of ADH hormone by with white eyed female,
posterior pituitary. But Since, A , consumed R R r r R R
X X x XY → X X (male) and X Y
alcohol, amount of ADH release would
(female) – all red eyed.
decrease in A and hence the Individual A
will have lower circulating levels of ADH The given example shows that the trait is
than B. sex linked and male is homomorphic
49. An intron was cloned within a transposable 51. In a sample from a population there were 65
element. Absence of the intron following individuals with BB genotype, 30 individuals
transposition of the element, will indicate with Bb genotype and 15 individuals with
that it bb genotype. The frequency of the ‘b’ allele
is
(a) Follows conservative mode of
transposition (a) 0.59 (b) 0.27
(b) Follows replicative mode of transposition (c) 0.41 (d) 0.73
(c) Is a retrotransposon Explanation: 51 (b) Given here genotype BB =
65, Bb = 30 and bb= 15, thus allelic
(d) Is an insertion element
frequency of ‘b’ will be calculated as f (b) =
Explanation: 49 (c) Retrotransposon is first total number of ‘b’ allele/ total number of all
transcribed into the RNA then back to DNA alleles 30 from Bb and 15 * 2 from bb, Thus
by reverse transcriptase. Next, this 30 + 30 / 220 = 0.27
sequence of DNA is inserted into the
52. A male snail homozygous for dextral alleles
genome. Introns cannot be transcribed into
is crossed with a female homozygous for
RNA, thus it will be lost
sinistral alleles. All the F1 individuals
50. In an organism, allele for red eye colour is showed sinistral phenotype. When F1
dominant over the allele for white eye progeny snails were self fertilized all
colour. A cross is made between a white individuals of F2 progeny had dextral
eyed male and a red eyed female. In the coiling. This experiment demonstrated
progeny all males are red eyed while the
(a) dominant epistasis as dextral allele is
females are white eyed. The reciprocal
dominant over sinistral allele
cross leads to all red eyed progeny. Based
on the above information which one of the (b) recessive epistasis as in F2 dextral allele
following conclusions is correct? appeared in homozygous condition
(a) This is a sex-limited trait, and the male is (c) maternal effect as the nuclear genotype
the homomorphic sex of the F1 mother has governed the
phenotype of the F2 individuals
(b) This is a sex-linked trait, with male being
the homomorphic sex (d) maternal inheritance as the mitochondrial
genes of the F1 mother has governed
(c) This is a sex-linked trait, with female
the phenotype of the F2 individuals
being the homomorphic sex
Explanation: 52 (c) Shell coiling in the case of
(d) This is a case of autosomal inheritance,
snail is an example of maternal effect where
with incomplete penetrance

nuclear gene in the ooplasm of mother (b) susceptibility of a bacteria to a particular
determines the phenotype of the offspring bacteriophage
irrespective of its genotype. We can say
(c) reaction to a particular antibody
mother’s genotype will be offspring
phenotype. (d) 16S rRNA sequence
53. Bipinnaria and brachiolaria are the larval Explanation: 55 (d) Phenetic classification is
forms of based on the phenotypic characteristics and
behaviours of organism.
(a) Crustacea
56. Which of the following groups represents
(b) Arthropoda and Mollusca, respectively
SAR clade of proteins?
(c) Ophiuroidea and Holothuroidea,
(a) Euglenozoans, Red algae, Parabasilids
respectively
(b) Brown algae, Forams, Radiolarians
(d) Asteroidea
(c) Slime moulds, Entamoebas,
Explanation: 53 (d) Different classes under the
Diplomonads
phylum Echinodermata shows different
types of larvae whose comparisons reveal (d) Charophyes, Choanoflagellates,
their evolutionary ancestry. Bipinnaria and Tubulinids
Brachiolaria are the larval forms that belong
Explanation: 56 (b) Eukarya is now divided into
to the class Asteroidea
4 supergroups, Excavata, SAR Clade,
54. The animals belonging to the phylum Archaeplastida and Unikonta. Brown algae,
Onychophora Forams, Radiolarians belong to the SAR
clade.
(a) have arthropodan characteristics and
thus also considered as a class of 57. Given below are biodiversity hotspots in
Arthropoda decreasing order of endemic plant species
recorded in them. Select the correct order.
(b) have both annelidan and arthropodan
characteristics (a) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka > Indo
Burma > Sundaland > Philip- pines
(c) have both arthropodan and molluscan
characteristics (b) Philippines > Sundaland > Indo Burma
> Western Ghats and Sri Lan- ka
(d) Serve as a connecting link between
Annelida and Mollusca (c) Sundaland > Indo Burma > Philippines
> Western Ghats and Sri Lan- ka
Explanation: 54 (b)The Onycophora are a small
phylum of about 70 species of quite (d) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka >
fascinating animals often referred to by the Sundaland > Philippines > Indo Bur-
common name of Velvet Worms or Walking ma
Worms. Onycophorans have a mixture of
Explanation: 57 (b) Philippines is the highest
morphological traits present in Annelid
among all when it comes to endemic plant
worms and the Arthropods, They do not
species around followed Sunderland. Then
represent a missing link between the worms
comes Western Ghats and finally Sri lanka
and the arthropods. Instead, they are looked
on as a separate line of evolution that arose 58. Which of the following options lists
independently from some long forgotten ecosystems in increasing order of plant
ancestor. productivity per day per unit leaf area?
55. Which one of the following parameters is (a) Tropical forests, hot deserts, temperate
NOT used in phenetic classification of forests
bacteria?
(b) Hot deserts, temperate forests, tropical
(a) trophism forests

(c) Hot deserts, temperate grasslands, 61. Scientists discovered two new plant species,
tropical forests “A” and “B” that look similar except that,
species “A” bears flowers and leaves that
(d) Tropical forests, temperate grasslands,
are twice the size of those in species “B”.
hot deserts
Which method should the scientists use to
Explanation: 58 (d) Tropical forests are most appropriately investigate if species “A” is a
dense with multiple layers of trees. As a result of gene duplication in species “B”?
result most leaves are overshadowed by
(a) Sequence similarity, gene structure and
each other and many of the understory
gene size
plants do receive diffuse sunlight or no light
at all. This imposes a constraint for light to (b) Plant size, physical proximity of gene
get to all chloroplasts and gaseous diffusion and genome size
limitations impose a constraint for CO2 to get
(c) Sequence similarity, physical proximity of
to all to get to all internal cells. Thus the
gene and genome size
plant productivity per day per unit area is
least for tropical forests. The leaves of (d) Sequence length, gene structure and
temperate forests trees are relatively better chromosome count
exposed to sunlight and therefore their
Explanation: 61 (d) Gene duplication (or
productivity per day per unit leaf area is
chromosomal duplication or gene
more than tropical forests. The leaves of
amplification) is a major mechanism through
plants in hot deserts are fully exposed to
which new genetic material is generated
sunlight hence their productivity per day per
during molecular evolution. Examining the
unit leaf area will be maximum.
length of a particular sequence in DNA can
59. A general increase in the average body provide information about presence of
mass of animal population within a species duplication. Such sequence length studies
with latitude is known as can be carried out using PCR. In addition
the gene structure can be altered during
(a) Allen’s rule
gene duplication. Also it indices change in
(b) Bergmann’s rule the ploidy level (number of chromosome
sets) of the cells. Hence, the last option is
(c) Allee effect
correct.
(d) Hamilton’s rule
62. A group of paleontologists digging in an
Explanation: 59 (b) According to Bergmann’s area discovers a prehistoric human burial
rule, animals have large body size in cold site. The same group, while exploring a
climates as compared to warm climates. nearby area, discovered fossil remains of
Large bodies have a smaller surface area to what appeared to be more than 100 million
volume ratios so lesser heat is dissipated in year old dinosaur bones. Which of the
the environment. In warm climates the following combinations of modern ra-
animals are required to expel heat, so diometric dating techniques should they
bodies are smaller and more linear. use to calculate the age of these fossils
most accurately?
60. Ruderal species are those which are found
14 235
in the environment with (a) C dating for human remains and U
dating for dinosaur remains
(a) Low disturbance, high competition
87
(b) Rb dating for both human and dinosaur
(b) High disturbance, low competition
remains
(c) Low disturbance, low competition 14
(c) C dating for both human and dinosaur
(d) High disturbance, high competition remains
129 129
Explanation: 60 (b) Ruderal species are the (d) I dating for human remains and Xe
first ones to colonize the disturbed habitats for dinosaur remains
but are poor competitiors and hence soon
lose to other native species.

Explanation: 62 (a) The most widely known 64. Which one of the following statements is
form of radiometric dating is carbon-14 TRUE for positive-frequency dependant
dating. But carbon-14 dating does not work selection?
on dinosaur bones. The reason being, the
(a) Fitness of a genotype increases as it
half-life of carbon-14 is only 5,730 years but
becomes less common
Dinosaur bones are millions of years old,
some fossils even billions of years old. To (b) Fitness of a genotype increases as it
determine the ages of these specimens, becomes more common
scientists need an isotope with a very long
(c) Fitness of a genotype decreases as it
half-life. Some of the isotopes used for this
becomes less common
purpose are uranium-238, uranium-235 and
potassium-40, each of which have a half-life (d) Fitness of a genotype decreases as it
of more than a million years. becomes common and gets fixed
63. Given below are the statements related to Explanation: 64 (b) Frequency-dependent
the two competing hypotheses on the origin selection occurs when the fitness of a
of modern humans: the Out-of-Africa genotype depends on its frequency. It is
hypothesis and the multi-regional possible for the fitness of a genotype to
hypothesis. Which of the following increase (positively frequency-dependent)
statements is IN- CORRECT? as the genotype frequency in the population
increases.
(a) Both the hypotheses support that Homo
erectus originated in Africa and 65. The MALDI mass spectrum of a peptide
expanded to Eurasia gave a single peak with M/z of 2000. The
ESI mass spectrum of the same peptide
(b) Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and Y
gave multiple peaks. These observations
chromosome DNA evidence support
indicate that:
the ‘Out-of-Africa’ hypothesis.
(a) Degradation has occurred while
(c) The principal conflict between the two
acquiring ESI mass spectrum
hypotheses is that multi-regional
hypothesis does not support African (b) Multiple charged species of the same
origin of Homo erectus compound are observed in the ESI
spectrum
(d) The multi-regional hypothesis states
that independent multiple origins (c) The sample is impure
occurred in the million years since
(d) ESI induces polymerization of the
Homo erectus came out of Africa.
peptide
Explanation:63 (c) Both the competing
Explanation: 65 (b) MALDI gives only single
hypotheses agree that Homo erectus
charged species, that's why only single peak
originated in Africa and expanded to Eurasia
is observed in MALDI spectrum. An ESI
about one million years ago, but they differ
spectrum gives multiple charged species,
in explaining the origin of modern humans.
and therefore many peaks are observed in
The out - of - Africa hypothesis proposes
ESI spectra.
that a second migration out of Africa
happened about 100,000 years ago, in 66. Protein conformational dynamics CANNOT
which anatomically modern humans of be determined by which one of the
African origin conquered the world by following techniques?
completely replacing archaic human
(a) NMR spectroscopy
populations Homo sapiens. The
multiregional hypothesis states the (b) Differential scanning calorimetry
independent multiple origins or shared
(c) Mass spectroscopy
multiregional evolution with continuous gene
flow between continental populations. (d) Fluorescence microscopy

Explanation: 66 (c) Mass spectra only (a) S1 Mapping
determine the mass of the protein. It never
(b) Sequencing the region downstream of
gives any information either about structure
promoter
or dynamic features of the protein.
(c) 5’ RACE
67. Given below are a few statements on
Agrobacterium mediated transformation of (d) Primer Extension Method
plants. Which one of the following
Explanation: 69 (b) Promoter is not present in
statements is CORRECT?
the downstream region of a gene, so
(a) T-DNA transfer occurs from left border to sequencing of the downstream region can
right border not be used to find the transcription start-site
of gene.
(b) The gfp reporter gene can never be
used for selection of transgenic plants 70. Following are statements to depict
relationship among measures of central
(c) Transformation frequencies will
tendency in a skewed dataset:
decrease an overexpression of viru-
lence genes. A. In positively skewed datasets, mean >
median > mode
(d) Host plant genes play an important role
in influencing transformation B. In positively skewed datasets, mode >
frequencies median > mean
Explanation: 67 (d) Virulence genes present in C. In negatively skewed datasets, mean >
Agrobacterium are required for mediating median > mode
the transfer of T-DNA from the bacterium
(D)In negatively skewed datasets, mode >
into the plant .Thus, overexpression of
median > mean
virulence genes increase the transformation
frequencies. In addition to virulenece genes Which of the above statements are TRUE?
of Agrobacterium, host plant genes are
(a)A and B (b)A and C
equally essential for mediating the transfer
of T-DNA. (c)B and D (d)A and D
68. Which one of the following assay systems Explanation: 70 (d) If a frequency distribution
can specifically detect apoptotic cells? is positively skewed, then mean is greater
than median and median is greater than
(a) Tetrazolium dye (MTT) based
mode.
colorimetric assay
(b) FITC - annexin V based FACS analysis
(c) 51Cr release assay
(d) Trypan blue exclusion assay
Explanation: 68 (b) Annexin V binds to PART C
phosphatidylserine (PS) in a calcium- 71. Following are structures of stereoisomers of
dependent manner. PS is normally only aldohexoses which differ in the
found on the intracellular leaflet of the stereochemistry
plasma membrane in healthy cells, but
during early apoptosis, membrane
asymmetry is lost and PS translocates to the
external leaflet. Fluorochrome-labeled
Annexin V can then be used to specifically
target and identify apoptotic cells.
69. From the various techniques listed below,
which one CANNOT be used to precisely
map the transcription start-site of a gene?

Based on above structures, following Explanation: 72 (d) Beta turn is formed by four
information was given below: residues in which the hydrogen bond is
present between the first and third amino
A. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers
acid. So the atoms between first and third
because they differ in the ste-
residues will be 10. Parallel sheets have
reochemistry at C-2 position.
evenly spaced hydrogen bonds which are
B. D-glucose and D-galactose are epimers present in the tilted form. It means they
because they differ in the ste- bridge the strands at an angle i.e. in tilted
reochemistry at C-4 position. form.
C. D-mannose and D-glucose are epimers 73. The following statements are made on
because they differ in the ste- nucleic acid structure:
A. In the B-form of DNA, the sugar pucker is
D. D-galactose and D-glucose are epimers C2’ endo
because they differ in the ste-
B. In RNA, the sugar pucker is C3’ exo
C. The wobble base pair is formed between
Choose one of the correct combinations
G and A in RNA
of above statements:
D. A change in the sugar pucker from C2’
(a) A and B (b) C and D
endo in the B-form of DNA to C3’ endo
(c) B, C and D (d) A and D alters the width and depth of the major
groove.
Explanation:71 (a) Epimers are a pair of
stereiosmers, that have different Which one of the following combinations of
configuration of atoms at one of several above statements is correct?
asymmetric (chiral) carbon atoms present.
(a) A and C (b) B and D
Glucose and galactose are epimers at C-4,
where arrangement of H and OH at 4th (c) A and D (d) B and C
carbon is opposite. Similarly, the glucose
Explanation: 73 (c) In B- form of DNA, the
and mannose are epimers at C-2 , where
sugar pucker is C2’ endo. The change in
arrangement of H and OH at 2nd carbon is
sugar puckering changes the conformation
opposite.
of B DNA to A DNA So it means it alters the
72. Following statements are made related to width of major and minor grooves.
protein structure
74. The Vmax and Km from a Lineweaver-Burk
A. The hydrogen bonding patterns between plot of an enzyme reaction where 1/v = 40
the CO and NH groups are n  n + 3 in α μM-1 min at 1/[s] = 0 and 1/[s] = -1.5 x 102
helices; n  n + 4 in 310 helix and n  n + mM-1 at 1/v = 0 are
5 in π helix -1 2
(a) 0.025 μM min and 0.67 x 10 mM
B. In a β turn, there are 10 atoms between -1 2 -1
(b) 0.025 μM min and 0.67 x 10 mM
the hydrogen bond donor and acceptor
-1 2 -1
(c) 0.025 μM min and 1.5 x 10 mM
C. In a γ turn, there are 6 atoms between
-1 2
the hydrogen bond donor and acceptor (d) 0.038 μM min and 0.67 x 10 mM
-1
D. Parallel sheets have evenly spaced Explanation: 74 (a) 1/Vmax = 40 M min So,
-1
hydrogen bonds, which bridge the Vmax=0.025 M min
strands at an angle. 2 -1
Also 1/[S]=-1.5 *10 mM at 1/v=0
Which one of the following combinations of
From the graph, when 1/v = 0, 1/[S] = -1/Km
the above statements is correct?
2 -1
Thus -1/Km=-1.5 *10 mM
(a) A and C (b) A and B
2 -1
So, Km=1/1.5 *10 mM
(c) C and D (d) B and D
-2
=0.67*10 mM

75. From the following statements : Explanation: 76 (a) Lipases hydrolyse the
ester bond of lipids and form glycerol and
A. Biosynthesis of proteins and nucleic acids
free fatty acids. Flippases trigger movement
from precursors results in production of
of vesicle from extra cellular site to cytosic
chemical energy in the form of ATP,
leaflet in ATP dependent manner. Floppases
NADH, NADPH and FADH2
trigger movement of lipids from cytoslic
B. The spontaneity of a reaction in cells leaflet to exoplasmic leaflet in ATP
does not depend whether ΔG0 for the dependent manner. Scramblases are
reaction is positive or negative responsible for the passive transport of lipids
in both leaflet in ATP independent manner.
C. Both oxidative phosphorylation and
photophosphorylation involve oxidation 77. An integral membrane protein (P) has been
of H2O to O2. identified as a cell surface protein of
hepatocytes and assigned to bind to
D. Only chemical potential energy
hepatitis B virus (HBV) and promote its entry
contributes to proton motive force in
into cytosol. Upon binding to HBV particles,
mitochondria
the C-terminal of P interacts with F-actin in
Which one of the following combinations the cytosol and and in turn, helps in the entry
represents all INCORRECT statements? of the HBV particles. P was successfully
cloned and expressed in animal cells in
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D
culture wherein its N-terminal is exposed on
(c) A, B, D (d) A, C, D the surface while the C-terminal resides in
the cytosol. The recombinant protein P so
Explanation: 75 (d) Biosynthetic reaction never
expressed retains its complete structure and
results in the formation of ATP, NADH,
function. From the list of experiments given
NADPH or FADH2. Oxidative
below, which one of the experiments will you
phosphorylation results in the formation of
perform to show that C- terminal of the
water from oxygen. Proton motive force is
protein P via interacting with F-actin helps in
generated due to the oxidation of NADH and
HBV entry?
FADH2. So the A, C and D are wrong
statements. (a) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with
hepatocytes in culture and follow up its
76. Match the enzymes in Column A with their
association with F-actin by
respective biological function in Column B:
immunoprecipitation analysis using anti-
F-actin antibody.
(b) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with
hepatocytes over-expressing the C-
terminal mutant of P and repeat the rest of
the experiment as in “1”
(c) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with
hepatocytes over-expressing the N-
terminal mutant of P and repeat the rest of
the experiment as in “1”
Choose the correct combinations of answers (d) Using wild type P as well as C-terminal
from the options given below: mutant of P and their individual over-
expression in a heterologous cell line
(a) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv (completely devoid of endogenous P
(b) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii protein) and then repeat the experiment as
in “1”
(c) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
Explanation: 77 (d) To understand the function
(d) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i of protein P, one would use normal wild-type
P and C-termini mutant P protein. In the
mutant condition virus entry will not occur

which will prove that C termini is crucial of Choose the most appropriate reagent(s)
protein function from the above list to ascertain the
localization of asialo-GM1
78. The cell membrane of neuron maintains
intracellular conditions that differ from (a) Only A
those of the extracellular environment.
(b) Both C and D
Such difference in intra and extracellular
conditions are critical to the function of the (c) Both B and C
nerve cell as the nerve cell membrane
(d) Both A and D
resembles a charged capacitor. Assuming
the electric field (E) across a parallel-plate Explanation: 79 (c) Since there are two
capacitor is uniform and if membrane approaches in the first approach the sugar
thickness is 7 nm and potential difference moiety can be removed by using
across the membrane is -60 m V, exoglycosidase and thus the GM1 won’t get
calculate E of the membrane incorporated on the surface of the liposome
5 at all. If galactose binding lectin is used it will
(a) 6 x 10 V m-1
bind the galactose on GM1 surface but won’t
5
(b) 7 x 10 V m-1 allow any receptor to bind GM1. Thus B and
C are the best probes.
(c) 8.6 x 106 V m-1
80. Genes translocated to the heterochromatic
(d) 6.6 x 106 V m-1
regions of chromosomes are silenced. In
Explanation: 78 (c) The Electric Field strength S. pombe, a translocation event was
(E) in a parallel plate capacitor is obtained detected wherein a gene of interest was
as Voltage (V) applied to plates divided by translocated to the centromere region and
Distance(d) between the plate = . is silenced. Mutagenesis leading to loss of
function of the following target genes was
Here, it is given:
done to allow expression of the gene of
V = 60mV, d = 7nm or 7*10-6 mm interest from its new locus.
Substituting the values in equation A. Mutation in histone deacetylase (Clr3)
E=60mV/7*10-6 mm B. Mutation in histone acetyltransferase
6 (HAT-8)
=8.57*10 V/m
C. Mutation in histone H3 lysine 9 methyl
=8.6*106 V/m
transferase (Clr4)
79. Two liposome preparations (“X” and “Y”) are
D. Loss of Dicer, an RNA processing
made using basic lipid composition as
enzyme
phosphatidylcholine (PC) and cholesterol
(Chol). In “Y” a ganglioside (asialo-GM1) is Which of the above events could allow the
incorporated during the preparation besides expression of this gene from the centromeric
PC and Chol. In an attempt to find out the region?
localization of asialo-GM1 in the membrane
(a) A, B and C (b) A, C and D
bilayer of “Y” (taking “X” as a negative
control) and considering liposome as a true (c) B and C only (d) A and C only
depiction of lipid bilayer structure of cellular
Explanation: 80 (d) To express the gene,
membrane, following reagents are provided
heterochromatinization, facilitated by
as probes:
HDACs (histone deacetylases) and HMTs
A. Phospholipase A (Histone methyl transferases) action, must
be stopped through the mutagenesis in the
B. Galactose binding lectin
concerned genes.
C. Exoglycosidase
81. A group of scientists performed an
D. Cyclodextrin experiment where they artificially fused
mouse cells with monkey cells. The

resulting fused cells were labelled with Explanation: 82 (c) In the control part of the
fluorescently tagged antibodies against question, it is shown that chromosomes are
mouse and monkey surface receptor on equator because of the movement of
proteins, X and Y respectively. At the time spindle fibre but in experiment part there is
of 0 minute just after fusion of events, no proper alignment of chromosomes in the
two receptors were confirmed to their equator. This is because of the failure of the
own half in in the heterokaryon. However, spindle fibre movement .As stated in the
such surface receptors (X and Y) experiment, inhibitor of Eg5 was used this
intermixed on the cell surface after 60 indicate that Eg5 is working as motor protein
minutes. Which one of the given with microtubule spindle fibers.
statements correctly reflects the outcome
83. Actinomycin D inhibits the process of
of the experiment?
transcription in both prokaryotic and
(a) The proteins in cytoplasm are in a eukaryotic organism. The following
dynamic state statements are made about actinomycin D –
mediated inhibition of transcription:
(b) The proteins on the membrane surface
(a) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from
are in a dynamic state
a double stranded DNA template by
(c) Surface membrane proteins exchange either E. coli or yeast RNA polymerases.
with the cytosolic proteins (b) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from
a single stranded RNA template by
(d) Membrane surface proteins are in a
eukaryotic viral RNA polymerases.
static phase
(c) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from
Explanation: 81 (b) The plasma membrane is a single standard  x174 DNA template by
dynamic structure because of its lipid E. coli RNA polymerases immediately
molecules lateral movement. It is mentioned after viral DNA entry.
that at the point zero time, fused cell (d) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from
membrane have their own surface receptor double stranded RNA template by
but after 60 min heterokaryon have mixed eukaryotic RNA polymerases II.
receptors, this is only possible when
receptor are in dynamic with lipid molecues. Explanation: 83 (a) The planar portion of the
antibiotic actinomycin D intercalates into the
82. Eg5 is a well-studied protein in Xenopus. To double-helical DNA between successive G =
understand the function of Eg5 in C base pairs, deforming the DNA. The two
mammalian cells, a team of researchers cyclic peptide structures of actinomycin D
treated mammalian cells during late G2 bind to the minor groove of the double helix.
phase with Eg5-inhibitor. The following This prevents movement of the polymerase
diagrams represent images of mitotic cells. along the template. The drug interacts with
single- and double-stranded DNA and RNA-
DNA hybrids, but not with RNA.
Furthermore, ActD can inhibit the annealing
of DNA to complementary DNA or RNA. It
was recently demonstrated that ActD also
inhibits elongation of DNA-dependent DNA
synthesis by the HIV-1 RT enzyme.
Based on the above information, what
function might be attributed to Eg5 during 84. During maturation process of same RNA
mitosis? molecules, formation of a 2' 5'
phosphodiester bond takes place. Following
(a) Eg5 Inhibits actin dynamics
statements are made about this
(b) Eg5 can activate GPCR signalling phenomenon.
(a) Spliceosome mediated removal of
(c) Eg5 has motor activity
intronic sequences occurs through the
(d) Eg5 can impact mitochondrial dynamics

formation of a 2' 5' phosphodiester between the base and the sugar in the
bond. following DNA duplexes.
(b) Removal of group II introns occurs (a) ‘anti’ for B form DNA duplexes
through the formation of 2' 5'
phosphodiester bond. (b) ‘syn’ for B form DNA duplexes
(c) Enzymatic removal of introns from the (c) ‘anti’ for A form DNA duplexes
yeast tRNA precursors involves 2' 5'
(d) ‘syn’ for A form DNA duplexes
phosphodiester bond formation.
(d) RNasep mediated 5 ' end maturation of Which one of the following combination of
tRNA precursors involves formation of a the above statement is correct?
2' 5' phosphodiester bond. (a) A and C (b) B and C
Explanation: 84 (c) Splicing of Group-II and (c) A and D (d) B and D
nuclear –introns require formation of lariat
structure that occurs due to formation of an Explanation: 86 (a) In right-handed DNA (A-
additional 2’-5’phosphodiester bond. and B-forms), the glycosidic bond is always
in the anti- conformation. In the left-handed
85. A plasmid with a linking number (Lk) of 200, the glycosidic bond remains in the anti-
topological winding (Tw) number of 200 and conformation at pyrimidine residues and in
a writing number (Wr) of 0 was transformed the syn- conformation at purine residues.
into E. coli. The plasmid was re – isolated
from the culture of the transformant. The re 87. During transalation in prokaryotes, when
– isolated plasmid was found to possessed ribosomes reach the termination codon, the
the same molecular weight as the original termination codon is recoginized by the
plasmid, but it possessed a writting number class I release factors (RF1 or RF2) leading
to the release of the polypeptide. A second
of 5 . Following statements are made about
class II release factor (RF3) facilitates the
this observation.
termination process. Which of the following
(A) Lk of the re – isolated plasmid would be statements regarding the mechanism of
195. action of the release factors is
INCORRECT?
(B) Lk of the re – isolated plasmid would
remain 200. (a) Class I release factors decode the stop
codons while the RF3 is a GTPase that
(C) Tw of the re – isolated plasmid would
stimulates recycling of the class I release
remain 200
factors.
(D) Tw of the re – isolated plasmid would be
(b) Free RF3 has a higher affinity for GTP
195.
than GDP.
(c) RF1 and RF2 share a conserved
the above statement is the correct
segment of ‘GGQ’ sequence which is
representation of the facts.
essential for the polypeptide release.
(a) A only (b) A and C
(d) RF1 and RF2, individually possess
(c) A and D (d) D only another stretch of tripeptide sequences
which are involved in the recognition of
Explanation: 85 (b) In vivo, Topo-II (Gyrase)
the termination codons.
introduces negative supercoiling, During
Topo-II action, DNA is broken and reunited
and thus Lk number changes.
Lk = Tw + Wr thus 200 + (-5) =195
86. Following statements are being made about
the orientation of the N – glycosidic bond

Explanation: 87 (b) All class I releasing factors used (column B) and the advantages or
share a conserved three-amino-acid disadvantages for using these vaccination
sequence (glycine glycine glutamine, GGQ) types (column C).
that is essential for polypeptide release. A
three-amino-acid sequence, called a peptide
anticodon, of class-I releasing factors
interacts with and recognize stop codons.
RF3 is a GTP-binding protein but, unlike the
other GTP-binding proteins involved in
translation, RF3 has a higher affinity for
GDP than GTP. Thus, free RF3 is
predominantly in the GDP-bound form.
88. E.coli DNA ligase catalyses formation of a
phosphodiester bond between the
adjoining 3’ hydroxyl, and 5’ phosphoryl Which one of the following combination is the
ends in DNA duplexes. The energetic need most appropriate match?
for this reaction is met by the hydrolysis of (a) a – i – z, b – ii – y, c – iii – x
NAD+ to NMN+ and AMP in a three
step reaction. Following statements are (b) a – ii – x, b – i – y, c – iii z
being made about the mechanism of this (c) a – iii – y, b – ii – x, c – i – z
reaction..
(d) A – ii – z, b – iii – x, c – i – y
(i) AMP is linked to the 5’ phosphoryl end of
the nicked DNA Explanation: 89 (b) It is a data based question.
Simply match the statements
(ii) Adenylyl group of NAD+ is transferred to
the ε-amino group of Lys in DNA ligase to 90. G protein – coupled receptors (GPCRs) are
form a phosphoamide adduct. used to detect and respond to many
different types of signales, including
(iii) DNA ligase catalyses the formation of a neurotransmitters, hormones involved in
phosphodiester bond by the nucleophilic glycogen and fat metabolism and even
attack of the 3’ hydroxyl group onto the photons of light.
phosphate and re- leases AMP.
Which one of the following statements
Based on the statements made above, regarding GPCR is INCORRECT?
identify the correct sequence of the reaction
steps. (a) GPCRs are a large family with a
common structure of seven membrane
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii) (b) (i)-(iii)-(ii) spanning  helices.
(c) (ii)-(i)-(iii) (d) (iii)-(i)-(ii)
(b) GPCRs are coupled to trimeric – G
Explanation: 88 (c) DNA ligase catalyzes the proteins comprising three subunits  , 
covalent closure of final nicks in DNA and  .
molecules by using energy from NAD or
ATP. The E. coli DNA ligase uses NAD as a (c) The G  subunits is a GTPase switch
cofactor. The enzyme DNA ligse makes a protein that alternates between an active
bond by using a complex with AMP. The (‘on’) state with bound GTP and an
AMP of the enzyme complex becomes inactive (‘off’) state with GDP.
attached to the 5' phosphate of the nick and
(d) The ‘on’ form gets bound to  and 
then a phosphodiester bond is formed with
the 3'-0H terminus of the nick, releasing the subunits and activates a membrane
enzyme and the AMP. bound effectors like adenylyl cyclase,
phospholipase C or ion channel.
89. Given below are the types of vaccination
(column A), the diseases or condition Explanation: 90 (d) alpha subunit of G protein
against which these vaccination types are is catalytic in nature. Upon activation, it

further activates membrane bound enzymes adhesion receptors on the cell surface. ECM
like adenylate cyclase and PLC-beta comprises mainly two classes of
whereas the beta and gamma subunits don't macromolecules, proteoglycans and very
participate in catalysis. high molecular weight large proteins.
91. The following intracellular event occurs in a Which one of the following statement
cell that is subjected to conditions of regarding ECM constituents is
starvation. INCORRECT?
(a) Proteoglycans are a subset of secreted
or cell surface – attached glycoproteins
containing covalently linked specialized
polysaccharide chains called
glycosamino glycans (GGs).
(b) GAGs are long branched polymers of
specific repeating disaccharides of sialic
acid and glucose or galactose.
(c) Major types of GAGs present in ECM are
Which one of the following statements heparin sulphate, chondroitin sulphate,
correctly represents the event shown dermatan sulphate, keratin sulphate and
above? hyaluronan.
(a) The cell is undergoing apoptotic cell (d) Major types of large proteins present in
death with the help of lysomes (A). ECM are collagen, laminin, elastin and
fibronection.
(b) The cell is undergoing autophagy by
formation of autophagolysosomes (C). Explanation: 92 (b) Here statement 2 is
incorrect about GAGs. The remaining
(c) The cell is undergoing necroptosis.
statements are correct. Glycosaminoglycans
(d) The cell is undergoing autophagy and (GAGs) are large linear polysaccharides
fusion occurs between lysosome (B) and constructed of repeating disaccharide units
autophagloysosome (A). with the primary configurations containing an
amino sugar (either GlcNAc or GalNAc) and
Explanation: 91 (b) During autophagy a double
an uronic acid (either glucuronic acid and/or
isolation membrane engulfs cytoplasmic
iduronic acid).
material including proteins, protein
aggregates and organelles such as 93. Present – day cancer treatment uses many
mitochondria, ribosomes and fragments of approaches. Beyond surgery and radiation
the ER. The membrane forms a vesicle treatment, which are most often employed in
termed autophagosome, which eventually cases of larger, more discrete tumors, drug
fuses with the lysosome to form therapies can be used to target residual
autophagolysosome. After fusion the inner tumor cells and to attack dispersed cancers.
membrane is lysed and autophagic cargo is Chemotherapies by anti – cancer drugs are
digested by the lysosomal proteases. This mostly aimed at blocking DNA synthesis and
frees up amino acids, lipids and nucleic cell division.
acids which can be recycled as building
A list of anti – cancer drugs is shown in
blocks for new synthesis or used to provide
column A, their chemical nature in column B
energy to support cellular function.
and their mechanism of action in column C.
92. The extracellular matrix (ECM) is a complex
combination of secreted proteins that is
involved in holding cells and tissues
together. The components of ECM form a
network by binding to each other and
communicate with cells by binding to

Which one of the following is the most
appropriate match?
Explanation: 94 (a) AID knock out mice will not
(a) i – a – I, ii – b – II, iii – c – III, iv – d – IV
show class switching from IgM to IgG.
(b) i – b – II, ii – a – III, iii – d – I, iv – c – IV Therefore in this mice IgG production will not
occur. In wild type mice, immune response
(c) i – c – III, ii – d – IV, iii – a – II, iv – b – I
will be normal during primary and secondary
(d) i – d – I, ii – a – IV, iii – b – II, iv – c – III immunisation. Graph 1 is the best
representation. It shows that level of IgM will
Explanation: 93 (d) Methotrexate is
not change in Knock out and Wild type
an antimetabolite of the antifolate type and
during 2 immune response and the level of
for cancer, it competitively inhibits the
IgG will has increased during 2 immune
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
response in wild type not in knockout one.
which participates in the tetrahydrofolate
synthesis. Etoposide is in the topoisomerase 95. Following statements were made regarding
inhibitor family of medication. It is believed vulval development in Caenorhabditis
to work by damaging DNA. Fluorouracil is elegans:
the antimetabolite and pyrimidine analog
A. The six vuval precursor cells (VPCs) are
families of medication that is involved in
influenced by the anchor cell to form an
blocking the action of thymidylate
equivalence group.
synthase thereby stopping the production
of DNA. Paclitaxel is an alkaloid that targets B. In the loss of function lin – 12 mutants,
tubulin. Paclitaxel-treated cells have defects both cells becomes uterine whereas in
in mitotic spindle assembly, chromosomal gain of function mutants, both becomes
segregation and cell division. anchor cell.
94. Activation – induced cytidine deaminase C. If the anchor cell is destroyed early in
(AID) is the key mediator of somatic development, all the six VPCs divide
hypermutaions, gene conversion and class – once and contribute toward the formation
switch recombination. In order to ascertain of hypodermal cells.
the role of AID in class – switch
D. The anchor cell/ventral uterine precursor
recombination, immune response against a
decision is due to Notch – Delta
target antigen was compared between AID
mediated mechanism of restricting
knock – out mice (AID / -) with that of mice
adjacent cell fates.
retaining a functional copy of the AID gene
(AID +/ -). Development of I g M and I g G E. The paracrine factor secreted by the
anchor cell directly activates the Notch
antibodies against the largest antigen was delta pathway.
then measured following successive
immunization and plotted graphically. Which one of the following options
represents a combination of correct
Which one of the following is the most statements?
appropriate representation of the
experiment? (a) A, C and D (b) A, B, and D

(c) C, D and E (d) B, D and E cut was made below the elbow or
through the humerus.
Explanation: 95 (a) 6 vulval precursor cells
form an equivalence group and are (b) It occurs by compensatory regenerations
influenced by the anchor cell. If gonadal and does not include formation of an
anchor cell is destroyed by any way then all apical ectodermal cap.
VPC adopt 3 fate and differentiate into
(c) Regeneration occurs through formation
hypodermis. The P5 and P4 cells receive the
of a blastema, which essentially consists
signal through the L-2 N-12 (Notch) protein
of unspecified multipotential progenitor
on their cell membrane.
cells.
96. Given below are few statements regarding
(d) Proliferations of the blastema cells does
the role of disheveled (Dsh) and  catenin not require nerves or factors secreted by
(  a – cate) in the development of sea the nerves.
urchin. Explanation: 97 (a) In salamander in both the
A. Dsh is localized in the vegetal cortex of cases if cut at below the elbow or through
the oocyte before fertilization and in the the humerus normal limb is generated after
region of the 16 – cell embryo about to amputation.
become the micromeres. 98. Change in leaf morphology is observed
B. Dsh is localized in the cytosol of the during transition from vegetative to
oocyte during oogenesis and in the reproductive phase in several plants. The
microsomere forming blastomers of a 16 following statements are proposed to explain
– cell embryo. the above observation:
C.  -cat accumulates predominantly in the A. Alteration in the gene content of leaves of

reproductive phase from those of
micromeres and somewhat in the veg2
vegetative phase.
tier cells.
B. Differential methylation pattern of genes
D. Treatment of embryos with lithium
influencing leaf development and
chloride does not allow the
morphology.
accumulation of  cat in the nuclei of all
blastula cells, and the animal cells thus C. Mutations in transcription factor that
become specified as endoderm and prevent its association with promoter
mesoderm. elements of genes regulating leaf
development.
E. When  -cat is prevented from entering
D. Small RNA mediated inhibitions of gene
the nucleus, the embryo develops as a expression of a homeotic gene.
ciliated ectodermal ball.
Which one of the following options
Which one of the following options represents correct combinations of
represents a combination of correct statements that could explain the observed
statements? changes?
(a) B, C and E (b) A, C and D (a) B and C (b) A and D
(c) A, C and E (d) B, D and E (c) B and D (d) A and C
Explanation: 96 (c) The location of the Dsh is Explanation: 98 (c) Changes in leaf
not in the cytosol. morphology are observed during transition
97. Which one of the following statements from vegetative to reproductive phase in
regarding limb regenerations in Salamander several plants. Due to the epigenetic
is correct? modification, differential methylation pattern
of gene influences leaf development &
(a) A normal limb is regenerated after morphology. Also small RNA mediated
amputation, irrespective of whether the inhibition of gene expression of a homeotic

gene occurs. There is no alteration of gene other genes that are involved in aggregation.
content during this transition and no There are three adenylyl cyclases producing
mutation in any transcription factor. cAMP during Dictyostelium development.
Mutants of acrA/ ACB show severe defects
99. cAMP signaling plays a very important role
in terminal differentiation. They aggregate
in the development of Dictyostelium
normally but they produce only about 10% of
discoideum. Below are few statements
viable spores. Their fruiting bodies show
related to it.
abnormally long stalks and glassy spore
A. Every amoeba at the time of aggregation heads due to the reduced number of spores.
has the potential to make, receive and RegA is a cytosolic cAMP-specific
relay cAMP. phosphodiesterase that harbours a
prokaryote-type response regulator in
B. acb- mutants develop normally but the
addition to a mammalian-type
spores formed appear glassy and are
phosphodiesterase domain
unable to germinate.
100. Torpedo is known to serve as a receptor for
C. The spores formed by the acg mutants
Gurken. Deficiencies cause ventralization of
germinate in the sorus itself. the embryo. In an experiment, the germ cell
D. RegA is an extracellular precursors from a wild type embryo were
phosphordiesterase. transplanted into embryos whose mother
carried the torpedo mutation. Also the
E. cAMP is continuously secreted in reverse experiment, i.e. transplantations of
nanomolar amounts during aggregation. germ cell precursors from torpedo mutants
Which combination of the above statements into wild type embryos was done. The
is correct? torpedo deficient germs cells developed in a
wild type female showed normal dorso –
(a) A and D (b) A and B ventral axis, while the wild type germs cells
(c) A and E (d) B and D developed in a torpedo deficient female
showed ventralized egg.
Explanation: 99 (c) Here in the question A , C
and E are right statements whereas the B & Some of the following statements are drawn
D are wrong statements. Upon starvation, from the above experiments and some from
Dictyostelium cells secrete quorum-sensing known facts to understand the functioning to
factors such as PSF and CMF. These Torpedo.
factors combined with starvation conditions A. Zygotic contribution of Torpedo is
help establish whether the optimal cell essential for the development of
density for multicellular development has drosoventral axis.
been reached and trigger induction of early
gene expression. The expression of the B. Maternal contribution of Torpedo is
some early genes is fast and transient whilst essential fro the development of
expression of genes that encode proteins dorsoventral axis.
involved in cAMP signalling is sustained. C. Since Torpedo is a receptor for Gurken
This causes cells to secrete nanomolar and follicle cells surround the part of the
pulses of cAMP to the extracellular medium. ocyte where Gurken is expressed, it is
cAMP acts as a chemoattractant and will likely that Torpedo is expressed in follicle
summon cells to the aggregate. At the same cells.
time every cAMP pulse that is produced
elicits a new cAMP pulse in neighbouring D. Gurken signaling initially dorsalizes the
cells. This relay response causes the pulses nurse cells, which in turn send signal to
to propagate as waves through the entire organize the dorso – ventral polarity in
cell population leading to the formation of oocyte.
aggregates of up to 100.000 amoebas. The E. Gurken signaling initially dorsolizes the
cAMP pulses also further accelerate the nurse cells which help in generations of
expression of cAMP signalling genes and dorso – ventral polarity in oocyte.

Which one of the following combinations of (B) In red and brown algae, the subunit of
statements is most appropriate? Rubisco is localized in the chloroplast
while small subunit is localized in the
(a) B, C and D (b) A, C and D
nucleus.
(c) B, C and E (d) A, D and E
(C) The bound sugar phosphates in Rubisco
Explanation: 100 (a) In ovarian follicle cells, are specifically removed by an ATP
torpedo gene is active not in the embryo. dependent enzyme, Rubisco activaes.
Follicle cells receive the gurken signal
(D) The active form of Rubisco catalyzes
through a receptor encoded by the torpedo
carboxylation or oxygenation reactions
gene
in five steps.
101. Stomata from detached epidermis of
common dayflower (Commelina communis)
above statements is correct?
were treated with saturating photon fluxes of
red light. In a parallel treatment, stomata (a) A, B and C (b) A, B and D
treated with red light were also illuminated
(c) B, C and D (d) A, C and D
with blue light (indicated by arrow). From the
graphs shown below, select the correct Explanation: 102 (d) Rubisco is one of the
pattern of stomata opening (solid lines and largest enzymes having a molecular mass of
dotted lines represents stomatal aperture 560 KDa. In green algae & land plants both
under red and blue lights, respectively). subunits (large & small) are encoded by
nucleus & chloroplast. While in non green
algae both subunits are encoded by
chloroplasts so statement B is wrong.
103. Given below are certain statements
regarding plant-pathogen interactions:
(A) The pattern recognition receptor (PRR),
upon perceiving pathogen or microbe-
associated patterns (PAMPs/MAMPs),
activates plant defences resulting in
pattern triggered immunity (PTI)
(B) AvrPto is a resistance gene in tomato
Explanation: 101 (a) The pattern shows the
that acts against pathogenic attack by
response of stomata to blue light under red
the bacterium Pseudomonas syringae
light condition. Increase in stomatal opening
pv. Tomato.
above the level reached in the presence of
saturating red light indicate that different (C) The effector molecules produced by
photoreceptor system, is stimulated by blue pathogen is recognized by resistance
light. (R) gene present in plants resulting into
a defence strategy known as effector
102. Following are certain statements
triggered immunity (ETI)
regarding Rubisco, the predominant protein
in plant leaves that catalyzes the initial (D) Defence mechanisms triggered in plants
reaction of the Calvin – Benson cycle. during PTI are usually stronger than
those during ETI
(A) During the oxygenase activity of
Rubisco, O2 is used as substrate to Which one of the following combinations of
produce three – carbon molecule, 3 – above statements is correct?
phosphoglycerate and two – carbon
(a) A and B (b) C and D
molecule, 3 – phosphoglycerate and two
– carbon molecules, 2 – (c) A and C (d) B and D
phosphoglycolate.
Explanation: 103 (c) The microbial elicitors
(PAMPs) are recognized by membrane –

localized pattern recognition receptors Explanation: 105 (b) Endosperm will have two
(PRRs) of plant. This successful recognition polar nuclei and one male gamete. [3N= 2N
activates first line of defence which is kno +N]
vgy7wn as PAMP triggered immunity (PTI).
It is given in the statement that the ploidy of
The Resistance (R) protein recognizes
endosperm is 6N. Hence 6N = 4N + 2N. All
effector protein of pathogen & induce
gametes will be 2N and the ploidy of somatic
second line of defense, the effector triggered
cells in the next generation will be 4N [2N +
immunity (ETI) which causes hypersensitive
2N].
reaction.
106. The table given below represents the types
104. To characterize the mechanism/s by which
of intracellular transport in “Column I” in land
heat – stress is perceived in Arabidosis, a
plants and their transport pathway in
team of researcher fused a Heat Shock
“Column II”.
promoter with luciferase gene. Transgenic
plants having promoter: luciferse fusion
were raised. Such plants revealed strong
luciferse expression upon heat – stress but
they showed no expression under
unstressed control condition. Subsequently,
these transgenic plants were mutagenized
by EMS, and seed from F2 generation by
obtaine(D). To analyze the downstream (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (b) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
positive regulators of heat – stress, the (c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (d) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
researchers should analyze seedlings that
are Explanation: 106 (b) In apoplastic pathway,
water moves between the cell through the
(a) Expressing luciferase in the presence of apoplectic region of cell wall without
heat – stress. crossing any membrane. In Symplastic
(b) Not expressing luciferase in the pathway water travels across the root cortex
presence of heat – stress. via plasmodesmata. The transmembrane
pathway is a combination of both Apoplast
(c) Expressing luciferase in the absence of
and Symplast pathway. It is involved in the
heat – stress.
movement of water across cells and cell
(d) Not expressing luciferase in the absence walls.
of heat – stress.
107. The Cl- content of red blood cells (RBC’s)
Explanation: 104 (c) The Heat Shock Element in the venous blood was found to be higher
(HSE) reporter is designed to monitor the than that in arterial blood in a human
activity of heat shock response through subject. Following proposals were made to
measuring the transcriptional activity of the explain these observations.
heat shock transcription factors. The HSE
(A) The high pCO2 in venous plasma leads
reporter is a mixture of a heat shock-
to increased diffusion of CO2 into RBC
responsive luciferase construct and a
and the formation of H2CO3.
constitutively expressing Renilla construct.
(B) HCO3content in the RBC of venous
105. Two near inbred parental lines P1 and P2
blood becomes much greater than that
of an angiosperm species are crossed to
in plasma.
produce F1 seeds in which, the ploidy of the
endosperm is 6N. If plants generated from (C) The excess of HCO3 leaves the RBC of
these F1 seed are backcrossed with P1, venous blood along with Na+ to plasma
what will be the ploidy of the somatic cells in by a Na+ HCO3 symporter
the next generation?
+
(D) The increased Na in the venous plasma
(a). 2N (b). 4N -
is transported to the RBC along with Cl
(c). 5N (d). 6N

Select the combination with INCORRECT and begin to relax. The ventricles begin to
statements from the following options depolarize at the end of the PR interval. The
QT interval extends from the beginning of
(a) A and B (b) B and C
the QRS complex to the end of the T wave
(c) A and D (d) C and D represents the approximate length of time
required for the ventricles to contract and
Explanation: 107 (d) The high pCO2 in
begin to relax.
venous blood results in diffusion of CO2
into RBCs. It combines with water to 109. The excitation of auditory hair cells by the
form H2CO3, which quickly dissociates displacement of stereocilia has been
into hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions explained in the following proposed
in presence of carbonic anhydrase. In statements:
order to maintain neutrality bicarbonate
(A) The gradual increased height of
ions move out of the cell and
stereocilia is required for the
chlorideions moves in, this is done by
transduction process
an anti-porter chloride bicarbonate
exchanger (Band 3 protein). (B) The changes of membrane potential of
auditory hair cells are proportional to
108. The different waves of a normal
the direction and magnitude of
electrocardiogram (ECG) of a human subject
stereocilia
are shown below:
(C) The higher concentration of K+ in
endolymph and higher concentration of
Na+ in perilymph are not required for
the excitation of hair cells.
(D) The mechanically sensitive cation
channels on the top of stereocilia are
The relationships of the events of cardiac not adapted to maintain displacement
cycle to these ECG waves are proposed in of stereocilia
the following statements.
Select the combination with INCORRECT
(A) The P wave occurs due to the statements from the following options
depolarization of atria
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(B) The atrial repolarization is responsible
for the T wave (c) C and D (d) A and C
(C) The QRS complex occurs during Explanation: 109 (c) Endolymph should have
ventricular depolarization higher K+ concentration as compared to Na+
and Na+ concentration should be higher in
(D) Q T interval indicates plateau portion of parilymph for the excitation of hair cells. Also
auricular action potential the displacement of stereo cilia is
Select the combination with INCORRECT maintained by mechanically sensitive cation
statements from the following options. channels
(a) A and B (b) B and C 110. The peaks of the compound action
potential (i.e., A, B and C) recorded from a
(c) C and D (d) B and D mammalian mixed nerve were affected
Explanation: 108 (d) The normal ECG consists after application of increasing pressure on
of a P wave, a QRS complex, and a T wave. the nerve. Some probable changes of
A wave representing repolarization of the compound action are stated below:
atria cannot be seen because it occurs (A) ‘A’ peak was inhibited by lower intensity
during the QRS complex. The time between of pressure
the beginning of the P wave and the
beginning of the QRS complex is the PQ or (B) ‘C’ peak was inhibited by higher of
PR interval, during which the atria contract pressure

(C) ‘B’ peak was inhibited by lower intensity
of pressure
(D) ‘C’ peak was inhibited by lower higher of
pressure
(E) ‘A’ peak was inhibited by higher of
pressure
Select the option with the combination of
CORRECT statements
(a) A and B (b) B and C (a) A = WT1 (Wilm’s Tumor 1), B = MIS
(Mullerian Inhibitory Substance), C =
(c) C and D (d) D and E SRY, D = Testosterone
Explanation: 110 (*) insufficient data (b) A = GnRH, B = FSH, C = Testosterone,
111. The different segments of renal tubule D = 5α Reductase
(column A) and the mechanism of Na+ (c) A = SRY, B = MIS, C = Testosterone, D
transport in the apical membrane of tubular = DHT (Dihydrotestosterone)
cells (column B) are tabulated below:
(d) A = WT1, B = LH, C = ABP (Androgen
Column A Column B Binding Protein), D = Inhibin
(A) Proximal (i) Na+ - Cl- Explanation: 112 (c) (Direct Understanding
tubule
symporter 113. A virgin Drosophila female was crossed
with a wild type male. The F1 progeny
(B) Thick (ii) Diffusion through
obtained had four types of males as shown
ascending Na+ selective
below.
loop of Henle channel (ENaC)
(C) Early distal (iii) Na+ - glucose
tubule symporter
(D) Late distal (iv) 1 Na+
tubule and Assuming that white eye and
1K   2 Cl  crossveinless mutations are X-linked and
collecting
Symporter recessive, the following statements were
duct
made:
(A) F1 females were also of four types as
Select the option with the correct matches: that of males
(a) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii) (B) The white eyed crossveinless male
(b) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i) flies appeared due to independent
assortment
(c) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)
(C) The map distance between the genes
(d) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) for white eye and crossveinless is
Explanation: 111 (a) In the early PCT, Na is
+ estimated to be 12 cM.
reabsorbed by co-transport with Glucose. In (D) The map distance between white eye
+
the ascending limb, Na is reabsorbed due and crossveinless is estimated to be 6
+ + -
to presence of Na - K - 2Cl cotransportar. cM.
+
In DCT 5% of Na Reabsorption occurs by
+ -
Na Cl cotransport (E) All F1 females are expected to be wild
type
112. The figure below represents normal sex
determination, differentiation and (F) The F1 wild type males appeared due to
development in humans crossing over
The combination with correct statements is:

(a) C, E, F (b) A, B, D 115. The pedigree given below follows the
inheritance pattern of a late onset (after age
(c) A, D, F (d) B, D, E
of 30 years) genetic disease that is 100%
Explanation: 113 (c)None of the options are penetrant. Affected individuals are indicated
correct. by a solid circle (woman) or solid square
(males). RFLP analysis of DNA from each
114. The locations of five overlapping deletions
individual is shown below in the pedigree.
have been mapped to a Drosophila
chromosome as shown below
(Horizontal lines in the above figure indicate

the deleted regions)
Which grandchildren (IIIb to IIId) will be
Recessive mutations a, b, c, d and e are
affected by the disease after attaining the
known to be located within this region, but
age of 30 years?
the order of mutations on the chromosome
is not known. When the flies homozygous (a) Only IIIb
for the recessive mutations are crossed with
(b) Only IIIb and IIIc
flies homozygous for the deletions, the
following results are obtained (letter “m” (c) Both IIIc and IIId
represents mutant phenotype and “+”
(d) Both IIIb and IIId
represents the wild type)
Explanation: 115 (d) RFLP, is a technique that
Deletion Mutation
exploits variations in homologous DNA
A B C D E sequences. In the given problem, the
individuals Ia, Ic and IIc are affected that
1 + m m m + means they must carry the affected allele
2 + + m m + and must show respective band in RFLP.
The analysis of the pattern in which only last
3 + + + m m 2 bands are present indicates that the
4 m + + + m disease is occurring. So these are
responsible for disease, hence III b & III d
5 m + + + m will be affected
On the basis of the above data, the relative 116. A chemist synthesizes three new chemical
order of the five mutant genes on the compounds in the laboratory and names
chromosome is them as X, Y and Z. After analysing
mutagenic potential of all these
(a) b c d e a (b) a b c d e compounds, the geneticist observed that
(c) b c e a d (d) c d b e a all are highly mutagenic. The geneticist
also tested the potential of mutations
Explanation: 114 (a) Del-1  bcd induced these compounds to be reversed
Del-2  cd by other known mutagens and obtained the
following results.
Del-3  de
Del-4  ea
Del-5  ea
bcdea

The following statements are given to
describe the inversion and the consequence
of crossing over shown in the above
diagram:
(A) This is a pericentric inversion
(B) This will generate a dicentric and an
acentric chromosome following
separation of chromosomes after
Assuming that X, Y and Z caused any of crossing over.
the three types of mutations, transition,
(C) This will generate monocentric
transversion or single base deletion, what
recombinant chromosomes following
conclusions can you make about the
separation of chromosomes after
nature of mutations produced by these
crossing over
compounds?
(D) All the gametes thus formed will have
(a) X causes transversion; Y causes
deletion and/or duplication and will be
transition; Z causes single base
non-viable.
deletion
(E) 50% of the gametes having recombinant
(b) X causes transition; Y causes
chromatid will be non-viable, while 50%
transversion; Z causes single base
gametes having non-recombinant
deletion
chromatid will survive
(c) X causes transition; Y causes single base
(F) This is paracentric inversion
deletion; Z causes transversion
Which combination of the above statements
(d) X causes transversion; Y causes single
describe the inversion and meiotic
base deletion; Z causes transition
consequences correctly?
Explanation: 116 (b) The only mutatin which is
(a) A, B and C (b) A, C and E
reversed by acridine orange must be single
base deletion insertion. Nitrous acid causes (c) B, E and F (d) C, D and F
deamination of cytosine hence transition. Explanation: 117 (c) The figure represents a
Hydroxylamine causes tautomeric shift and paracentric inversion; centromere not
proton shifts. involved in inversion. The characteristic
117. An individual is having an inversion in dicentric (a chromatid with two centromeres)
heterozygous condition. The regions on and acentric chromatid (having no
normal chromosome are marked as A, B, C, centromere) is formed. During Anaphase
D, E, F, G while the chromosome having when chromatids separate they result in
inversion has the regions as a,b,e,d,c,f,g. deletion in recombinant gametes hence non
The diagram given below shows pairing of viable whereas other two non recombinant
these two homologous chromosomes during gametes will be viable.
meiosis and the site of a crossing over is 118. Two Hfr strains, Hfr-1 (arg+ leu+ gal+ strs)
indicated. and Hfr-2 (arg+ his+ gal+ purr strs) were
mated with a F- strain (arg+ leu+ gal+ his+
purs strs). The results of the interrupted
mating experiments are shown as plots ‘a’
and ‘b’, respectively.

A - Cephalic ganglia, B - unpaired nerve
cord and C - Paired nerve cord
120. In order to survive in a non-aquatic
environment, plants acquired several
Based on these results, identify which of adaptations with specialized functions. Given
the options accurately reflects the order of below is a list of features/characteristics
loci? (column A) and their potential role (Column
B)
Explanation: 118 (b) At the earliest time

Arginine is entering & then at 10 minutes
Which one of the following options
his is entering & then at 20 min leu is
represents a correct match between the
entering so option (b) is correct
adaptations and their functions?
119. Three anatomical characteristics (A, B
(a) A (iv), B (ii), C (i), D (iii)
and C) of invertebrate nervous system are
used to build a generalized cladogram (b) A (iii), B (i), C (iv), D (ii)
given below. Presence of the anatomical
(c) A (ii), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)
character is indicated by ‘+
(d) A (i), B (iv), C (iii), D (iv)
Explanation: 120 (b) Waxy cuticle prevents
water loss and maintains tissue hydration.
Thickened/ lignified cell wall provides
mechanical support. The pigmentation
protects against excess light and prevents
ROS formation. The Homoiohydry maintains
Based on the pattern of character the vascular system that plays an important
distribution, pick the correct combination that role in transportation.
are represented by A, B and C
121. Following table presents bryophyte phyla
(a) A unpaired nerve cord, B paired nerve with their selected characteristics
cord, C cephalic ganglia
Charcters Phylum
(b) A cephalic ganglia, B unpaired nerve
cord, C paired nerve cord A B C
(c) A cephalic ganglia, B paired nerve cord, Gametophyte cells with + + 
C unpaired nerve cord numerous chloroplasts
(d) A unpaired nerve cord, B cephalic Gametophyte cells with +  
ganglia, C paired nerve cord multicellular rhizoid
Explanation: 119 (b) Spiralia, Onychophora Sporophte body with +  +
and Arthropoda have cephalic ganglia. stomata
Nematoda and Nematomorpha contain
unpaired nerve cord. Spiralia, In the above table, phyla A, B and C
Nematomorpha, Onychophora and represent
Arthopoda contain paired nerve cord. Hence
based on the above features,

(a) A Marchantiophyta, B Bryophyta, C 123. The following table shows names of bones
Anthocerotophyta (Column A) and specific features (Column B)
(b) A Bryophyta, B Marchantiophyta, C Column A Column B
Anthocerotophyta
(A). Axis vertebra i. Deltoid ridge
(c) A Anthocerotophyta, B Marchantiophyta,
C Bryophyta (B). Humerus ii. Acromion process
(d) A Bryophyta, B Anthocerotophyta, C (C). Ulna iii. Odonotoid

Marchantiophyta process
Explanation: 121 (b) In Bryophyta, reddish- (D). Pectoral girdle iv. Sigmoid notch
brown, multicellular, branched rhizoids are Which one of the following options gives the
found and also numerous chloroplasts are correct match of the bones with their specific
present per cell. Stomata are only present in features?
sporophyte capsule. In marchantiophyta
rhizoids are one-celled and unbranched but (a) A (iii), B (i), C (iv), D (ii)
cells contain numerous chloroplast. Stomata (b) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
is absent in both generations. In
anthocerotophyta, one-celled/unicellular (c) A (iv), B (ii), C (i), D (iii)
rhizoids are present. The gametophyte cells (d) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
contain one or few chloroplasts. The
stomata are present on the capsule wall and Explanation: 123 (a) The correct match of the
widely separated from each other. They two columns is given below:
arise from median longitudinal division of Axis verebra (Second cervical vertebra) -
sporophytic epidermal cells. Thus A- odontoid process
Bryophyta, B-Marchantiophyta and C-
Anthocerotophyta Pectoral girdle- Acromion process (bony
process of scapula)
122. Following table shows a list of clades and
plants: Ulna - Sigmoid notch/cavity
Clades Plants Humerus - Deltoid ridge
(A). Basal (i). Black pepper 124. The figure belows shows the nervous
angiosperms system of Mollusca with ganglia and the
connecting nerves. The connecting nerves
(B). Megnolids (ii). Orchid are labelled as A, B, C and D
(C). Monocots (iii). Star anise
(D). Eudicots (iv). Strawberry
Which one of the following is a correct
match for the above?
(a) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
(b) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
(c) A (ii), B (iv), C (iii), D (i) Which one of the following options has
(d) A (iii), B (i), C (ii), D (iv) correct labelling of A, B, C and D?
Explanation:122 (d) Star anise belongs to the (a) A Cerebral commissure; B Left Cerebro-
third clade of basal angiosperms. Black pedal connective; C Pedal -
pepper belongs to the clade Magnolids. commissure; D Left Pedal-visceral
Orchid belongs to the clade Monocots while connective
strawberry belongs to the clade Eudicots. (b) A Cerebral connective; B Left Cerebro-
pedal commissure; C Pedal -

connective; D Left Pedal-visceral temperature so they have low production
commissure efficiency as compared to ectotherms.
(c) A Occipital commissure; B Occipito-pedal 126. Given below are some properties related to
connective; C Pedal - commissure; D botanical and zoological nomenclature.
Left Pedo-caudal connective
(A). Absence of tautonyms
(d) A Cerebral connective; B Left Cerebro-
(B). Presence of genus and species ranks
pedal commissure; C Pedal -
only
commissure; D Pedal-caudal connective
(C). Absence of principle of coordination
Explanation: 124 (a) The nervous system of all
molluscs, is basically different from (D). Presence of only holotype and neotype
vertebrate nervous system. Molluscs,
Select the correct combination that
except, highly developed cephalopods, have
distinguishes botanical nomenclature from
no brain in the strict sense. The mollusc
zoological nomenclature system.
nervous system is referred to as a
tetraneural nervous system, because there (a) A, B and D (b) A, B and C
are four main neural strands: A, B, C and D.
(c) A and C only (d) A, C and D
In the given diagram, A is Cerebral
commissure;B is Left Cerebropedal Explanation: 126 (c) Botanical nomenclature is
connective; C is Pedal commissure and D is different from zoological nomenclature in the
Left Pedal visceral connective. absence of tautonym and the absence of
principal of coordination.
125. Following are certain statements regarding
energy efficiencies of ectotherms and 127. Following table gives a list of international
endotherms: environmental agreements and areas
covered:
(A) Ectotherms have high assimilation
efficiency but low production efficiency.
(B) Ectotherms have low assimilation
efficiency but high production
efficiency.
(C) Endotherms have high assimilation
efficiency but low production efficiency.
(D) Endotherms have low assimilation
efficiency but high production
efficiency.
Which one of the following represents the Which of the following is correct
combination of correct statements? combination?
(a) A and B (b) B and C (a) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (iii)
(c) C and D (d) A and C (b) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
Explanation: 125 (b) The assimilation efficiency (c) A (iv), B (i), C (iii), D (ii)
is the proportion of ingested food that is
(d) A (ii), B (iv), C (iii), D (ii)
assimilated. Since endotherms tend to
digest food more completely than Explanation: 127 (b) The Basal Convention
ectotherms so they have higher assimilation was adopted to Control of Transboundary
efficiency than the latter. The production Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their
efficiency is the proportion of assimilated Disposal. The Cartagena Protocol is an
food that goes into new consumer biomass. international agreement which aims to
Since endotherms have high respiration ensure the safe handling, transport and use
rates and are also required to maintain body of living modified organisms (LMOs). Kyoto
Protocol is an international agreement linked

to the United Nations Framework 129. The complexity of a food web in a
Convention on Climate Change, community is quantified using certain
which commits its Parties by setting parameters which are defined below. Which
internationally binding green house gas of the following is an INCORRECT
emission reduction targets. The Stockholm representation?
Convention is a global treaty to protect
human health and the environment from
persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
128. The following figure is a “risk-graph” that
illustrates the percent risk a species faces
towards extinction.
The following are ranks assigned according

to IUCN’s red list category: Explanation:129 (c) Hierarchically higher
species can prey on lower-positioned
(i) Critically endangered species; however, the opposite does not
(ii) Near threatened occur. This constraint sets the maximum
possible number of potential links in a food
(iii) Vulnerable web in an ecosystem. The maximum
(iv) Least concern possible number of potential links is given by
the formula:
Which one of the following is the most
appropriate match between the percent-risk Lmax = (all the possible pairs among N
and their assigned rank? species) − (the pairs among B basal
species)
(a) a (i), b (iii), c (iv), d (ii) ( ) ( )
=
(b) a (i), b (iv), c (iii), d (ii)
(c) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv) Where N are the animal species of which B
are the basal species. The basal species do
(d) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) not eat within the food web and all the basal
Explanation: 128 (a) The Critically species are at the lowest position, above
Endangered (CR) category comprises of which non-basal species were arranged in a
organisms that are facing an extremely hierarchy.
high risk of extinction in the wild. Since in 130.
the “risk graph” a represents maximum
percent risk so it denotes the CR category.
Next in the order is Vulnerable (VU),
category which comprises of organisms
considered to be facing a high risk of
extinction in the wild thus it is represented
by b. The percent risk c represents Near
Threatened (NT), category which
comprises of organisms close to qualifying
for or is likely to qualify for a threatened The above graph illustrates two lines that
category in the near future. The least represent the immigration and extinction
percent risk d represents Least Concern rates for an island based on its distance
(LC) category. The organisms listed to this from mainland (solid line) and its size
category are widespread and abundant.

(dotted line). Which of the following is true (b) It is under positive selection via indirect
for this island? fitness benefits that exceed direct
fitness costs.
(a) It is close to the mainland and is very
small (c) It generates indirect benefit by enhancing
survivorship of kin
(b) It is far from the mainland and is very
large (d) It is favored when rb c > 0 where c is
fitness cost to altruist, b is fitness
(c) It is close to the mainland and is very
benefit to recipient, and r is genetic
large
relatedness.
(d) It is far from the mainland and is very
Explanation: 132 (a) Altruism is the strange
small
behaviour shown by an organism where it
Explanation: 130 (c) According to "equilibrium decreases its own chances of survival but at
model of island biogeography" the farther the same time increases the chances of
islands have lower probability of immigration others preferably its relatives. It is done with
as compared to nearer islands. It also states a motive of increased inclusive fitness
that species numbers tends to increase with specially when benefit gained by the
increasing area and with greater area the receiver is very high than the cost taken by
rate of extinction declines. The graph shows the doer.
a higher immigration rate thereby indicating
133. Given are some statements with reference
that the island is closer/nearer to the
to the use of genes in plant molecular
mainland. In addition, it shows a lower
systematics.
extinction rate thus indicating that it is a
large island. (A) mtDNA are not preferred over cpDNA or
rDNA because they generally show slow
131. Inclusive fitness of an animal can be
rate of sequence evolution and fast rate
measured as a sum of direct fitness and
of structural evolution.
indirect fitness. Imagine you have 10
offsprings. Through diligent parental care, 5 (B) cpDNA are not preferred because of their
survive to reproduce. You give your life in a haploidy, uniparental inheritance, and
heroic deed to save a total of 5 of your absence of recombination among
nieces and nephews. What is your inclusive cpDNA molecules.
fitness?
(C) rDNA such as ITS are preferred for their
(a) 15 (b) 12.5 higher evolutionary rates as well as
shorter sequence length.
(c) 7.5 (d) 3.75
(D) rDNA and cpDNA cannot be used
Explanation: 131 (d) Inclusive Fitness = Direct
simultaneously in molecular systematics
Fitness + Indirect Fitness
since they represent conflicting patterns
= (Survival of offspring) x (r for parent- of inheritance.
offspring) + (Survival of non-descendant kin)
Which of the above statements are
x (the proper r for each type of relationship)
INCORRECT?
For the given problem we have
(a) A, C and D (b) A, B and C
5 * 0.5 + 5 * 0.25 = 2.5 + 1.25 =3.75
(c) A and C only (d) B and D only
132. Altruism describes a behavior performed by
Explanation: 133 (b) Mitochondrial DNA is
animals that may be disadvantageous to
more suitable for plant molecular
self while benefitting others. Which one of
systematics because of their smaller sized
the following statements is INCORRECT
genome, absence of intron and presence in
about altruism?
all eukaryotes. The cp DNA is highly
(a) It is the net gain of direct fitness when complex because of presence of intron. cp
sociality is facultative DNA is preferred because of uniparental
inheritance and absence of recombination. r-

DNA is evolutionary conserved so that their Which of the following is correct match
rate of evolution is very slow. Thus the between Column I and Column?
statements A, B & C are incorrect.
(a) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (iii)
134. Following are key points about the effect of
(b) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
genetic drift:
(c) A (ii), B (iii), C (i), D (iv)
(A) Genetic drift is significant in
small populations (d) A (iv), B (iii), C (i), D (ii)
(B) Genetic drift can cause allele frequencies Explanation: 135 (b) Cope, postulated that
to change in a pre-directed way population lineages tend to increase in body
size over evolutionary time. As per Dollo
(C) Genetic drift can lead to a loss of genetic
law “an organism never returns exactly to a
variation within populations
former state, even if previous conditions
(D) Genetic drift can cause harmful alleles to achieved. Ockham’s said that
be fixed natural law must be consistent with
repeatable experimental observations. And
Which one of the following combination of
Van valen gave ‘law of extinction’.
the above statements are true?
136. A 1257 bp genomic DNA sequence of a
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only
prokaryotic gene was cloned under a
(c) A, B and C (d) A, C and D strong constitutive promoter along with a
suitable polyA signal and used for
Explanation: 134 (d) The B statement is wrong
development of transgenic tobacco plants.
for genetic drift. In genetic drift, changes in
Molecular analysis revealed the presence
the allele frequency are not pre-directed, it is
of three types/lengths of transgene derived
always random. It might favour dominant or
mRNAs: 555kbp, 981 bp and 1257 bp in
recessive allele in the population and do not
the leaves of transgenic plants. The
involve natural selection. This process can
following statements were proposed to
fix either harmful or beneficial allele based
explain the above results.
on randomness.
(A) The three mRNAs represent
135. Following table contains some of the
alternatively spliced transcripts due to
generalizations of evolutionary biology:
the presence of putative intronic
Column I Column II sequence in the gene.
A. Cope’s (i) Population lineages (B) The gene sequence was characterized
Rule tend to increase in by the presence of potential
body size over polyadenylation signals that resulted in
evolutionary time. premature termination of transcription.
(C) Expression of full-length transcripts
(1257 bases) was lethal to the
B. Dollo’s (ii) There is constant
transformed cells
Law probability of
extinction in family of (D) the transgenic plants were chimeric in
related organisms. nature and comprised a mix of
transformed and untransformed cells.
C. Ockham’s (iii). Complex character,
principle once lost, are not Which of the following combinations of the
regained. above statements would correctly explain
the obtained results?
D. Van (iv). Accept the simplest
Valen’s theory that works (a) A and C (b) B and D
Law (c) A and B (d) C and D
Explanation: 136 (c) Only A and B options are
correct. C statement is wrong because

transgenic plant is expressing full transcript. (ii) X directly interacts with B
And D statement is also wrong, because
(iii) Only A, B and C are in complex with X
mixed expression will not tell about different
mRNA transcripts. (iv) D is probably weakly associated with X
137. In order to detect minor variations in Which of the above conclusions best
antigen concentration, the following explains all the results?
procedures were suggested. Which one will
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
likely be the best option?
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(a) Antigen coated microtitre well → add
antibody → add enzyme conjugated (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
secondary antibody → add substrate
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
and measure colour.
Explanation: 138 (d) Gel filtration separates the
(b) Antigen coated microtitre well → add
proteins on the basis of their molecular
antigen → add enzyme conjugated
weights. As the A, B, C and D are found in
secondary antibody → add substrate
co elution in glc, means their molecular
and measure colour.
weights are same. Yeast 2 hybrid screen
(c) Preincubate antigen with fixed amount gave information about the interacting
of antibody → add to antigen coated proteins. So B is directly associated with X.
well→ add enzyme conjugated As coimmunoprecipitation result in the
secondary antibody → add substrate precipitation of A, B and C so it indicates
and measure colour. that they are forming a complex. D protein
might be weakly associated.
(d) Preincubate antigen with fixed amount of
antibody → add to antibody coated 139. Sub-cellular fractionation-based assays
well→ add enzyme conjugated have been used to identify various
secondary antibody → add substrate organelles in the mammalian cells. In order
and measure colour. to characterize such organelles in a living
mammalian cell, which of the following
Explanation: 137 (b) The answer is simple
microscopy-based method would be the
sandwich ELISA. One has to pre-incubate
most accurate?
the microtiter plate with primary antibody
against the antigen, followed by washing of (a) Use of fluorescent probes specific for
excess antibody and then the antigen is organelles
allowed to be bound to the pre incubated
(b) Use of organelle specific fluorescent
antibody followed by adding secondary
probes followed by microinjection of
antibody to which enzyme is conjugated and
fluorescent antibodies against organelle-
then adding substrate to give color which
specific protein
could be estimated.
(c) Use of fluorescent probes in
138. Three students (P, Q and R) in a research
permeabilized cells
lab were trying to identify proteins that
interact with a transcription factor X. P (d) Use of organelle specific fluorescent
performed gel filtration experiments and probes followed by cryo-electron
identified that X was found along with microscopy
proteins A, B, C and (D). Q performed co-
Explanation: 139 (b) The second option is the
immunoprecipitation experiments using
best choice. The third option could have
antibodies to X and identified A, B and (C). R
been true if specific fluorescent probe was
did a yeast-2-hybrid screen and identified
used instead of only fluorescent probe.
only B.
140. From the following statements,
The following are likely conclusions that
may explain the results: (A) Surface Plasmon resonance can be
used to determine binding constants
(i) A, B, C and D are in a complex with X 2 3
only on the range of 10 - 10 M

(B) de novo sequencing is not possible by Explanation: 141 (d) The B statement is
mass spectral methods wrong. If an intron is present in gene X, then
it will not be expressed along with gene Y.
(C) The position of hydrogen atoms in
Rest all other statements are true for the
proteins is not directly determined by
information given.
X-ray diffraction
142. In order to visualize the intracellular
(D) Circular dichroism and nuclear
organization of a cell, one can utilize
magnetic resonance spectroscopy do
various microscopy-based techniques.
not give the same information on
These include:
protein structure.
(A) Differential interference contrast (DIC)
Choose the option with all correct
microscopy
statements.
(B) Phase contrast microscopy
(a) A, B, C (b) A, C, D
(C) Dark field microscopy
(c) B, D (d) C, D
(D) Epifluorescence microscopy
Explanation: 140 (d) CD and NMR do not give
the same information about the protein (E) Scanning electron microscopy
structure. NMR gives information about the
(F) Transmission electron microscopy
3 dimensional structure of the protein
whereas the CD gives collective information (G) Confocal microscopy
about the secondary structure of protein.
Which of the above mentioned
Position of hydrogen atoms cannot be
microscopes can be used to study the
determined precisely with the help of X-ray
intracellular dynamics using live cell
diffraction. De novo peptide sequencing is
imaging?
carried out by mass spectra.
(a) A, B, E, F, G
141. A researcher attempted to clone two
genes (X and Y) independently in a plasmid (b) A, B, C, D, G
vector for over expression and purification
(c) A, D, E, F, G
in E. coli. All attempts to clone gene X were
unsuccessful whereas gene ‘Y’ could be (d) C, D, E, F, G
cloned easily. When the researcher
Explanation: 142 (b) Except Scanning electron
attempted to clone gene ‘X’ in the plasmid
microscopy and Transmission electron
clone containing gene ‘Y’, gene ‘X’ could be
microscopy all other techniques can be used
cloned. The following statements were
to visualize the intracellular organization of
proposed to explain the above results.
the cell.
(A) Protein encoded by gene ‘Y’ is not lethal
143. A certain protein has been assumed to
to the cell
play an indispensable role in the survival of
(B) Gene ‘X’ has introns, which prevents its an intracellular parasite inside the host
expression in E. coli cells. Which one of the following techniques
will best prove the assumption to be
(C) Expression of ‘X’ protein is lethal to the
correct?
cell
(a) Treat the parasite-infected host cells
(D) The ‘Y’ gene product inhibits the activity
with an inhibitor of the protein and
of ‘X’ protein
check the number of parasites per host
Which one of the following options cell under the microscope
represents a combination of correct
(b) Check the expression of the protein in
statements to explain the observations?
parasite-infected host cells
(a) Only A and B (b) B, C and D
(c) Check the activity of the protein in
(c) Only A and D (d) A, C and D parasite-infected host cells

(d) Treat the parasite-infected host cells with (C) DNA template, 4 deoxyribonucleotides, 4
an activator of the protein and check the labelled deoxyribonucleotides, DNA
number of parasites per host cell under polymerase, DNA ligase
the microscope
(D) DNA template, a primer, 4 labelled
Explanation: 143 (a) By inhibiting the host deoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase,
protein, parasite survival will be difficult. If telomerase
protein is essential for parasite survival, less
Explanation: 145 (a) Sanger di-deoxy method
number of colonies will be seen upon host
requires primer, dNTP's and ddNTP's and
protein inhibition. Rest other options doesn't
DNA polymerase.
directly prove that protein is essential for
parasite.
144. Given below is a table with information on
isotopes, their half – life and type of
particle(s) they emit.
Symbol Half life Types of
and atomic particle(s)
weight emitted
A 11
C (i) 5700 yrs (x) 
(b) 14
C (ii) 15.1 (y) 
hours
(c) 24
C (iii) 20 min
Choose the correct combination from the

options given below:
(a) A (iii) (y); (b) (ii) (x), (y); (c) (i) (y)
(b) A (iii) (x); (b) (i) (x); (c) (ii) (x), (y)
(c) A (ii) (x), (y); (b) (iii) (x); (c) (i) (x)
(d) A (i) (x); (b) (ii) (x); (c) (iii) (x), (y)
11
Explanation: 144 (b) Half life of C is 20
14 11
minutes while that of C is 5760 years. C
14
and C will emit only gamma particles, and
24
Na emits both beta and gamma particles.
145. Which one of the following set of essential
components are required for Sanger method
of DNA sequencing in a required buffer
containing MgCl2 and Tris-HCl?
(A) DNA template, a primer, 4
deoxyribonucleotides, 4 labelled
deoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase
(B) DNA template, a primer, 4 labelled
deoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase,
DNA ligase

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PART A

1. In a 100 m race A beats B by 10 m B beats

So the difference between A and C is

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(a) Leftmost Explanation: 10 (a) Required number of

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Therefore now she has (X + X), then she (c) 32 (d) 64

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12 4 Therefore, the required gold = 91.6% of 120

Explanation: 16 (b) (a) 100 L (b) 75 L

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GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

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C.  -cat accumulates predominantly in the A. Alteration in the gene content of leaves of

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GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

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GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

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(Horizontal lines in the above figure indicate

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Explanation: 118 (b) At the earliest time

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(d) A Bryophyta, B Anthocerotophyta, C (C). Ulna iii. Odonotoid

Clades Plants Humerus - Deltoid ridge

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The following are ranks assigned according

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

GYAN BINDU ACADEMY PVT. LTD., 9350172220, 9313033399

Choose the correct combination from the

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