CO2

1. Which of the following is considered warm colors?

Yellow
2. Which of the following do not form part of the principle rhythm?
Line
3. Which of the following is not the characteristic of Frank Gehry’s building?
Idea of Unity and Harmony in composition
4. Which of the following statement is not a description of a concept?
NONE
5. Which of the following is not classified as a good characteristic for program concept
development?
Full rendering of final drawings
6. The Calatrava’s “Turning Torso” is a good example of personal analogy because?
He compared the twisted torso to the building ans ask the question what if I twisted my body,
how will the structural system and appearance of the building be?
7. Which of the following contradicts your design philosophy “sustainability”?
Maximalism
8. Characterize Frank Lloyd Wright’s building
All of the above
9. Which of the following is not a description of international style?
The curtain wall used as building envelope
10. The expressionism style of structures manifest
The character of the building was from the emotional interpretations of the architect and
materials showed poetic expression
11. The formulation of design concept from the inspiration of plants and animals such as the
copying the tactile response of the makahiya leaves in the design of touch lamp or the water
repellent character of the taro leaves used as inspiration to paint materials.
Bio-mimicry
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ancient Egyptian structure?
None
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Egyptian temples?
Great courts
14. Which of the following was not a characteristic of the Egyptian pyramids?
Primary building of a complex of buildings enclosed with walls
15. Which of the following was not a characteristic of Egyptian pyramids?
Primary building of a complex of buildings enclosed with walls
16. Not a characteristic of a ziggurat?
Altar at the top
17. Characteristic of King Minos Palace Square Plan
Spaces laid out in reference to the main ends
18. Which of the following does not fit the description of an Ifugao house?
Roof height is 5.50 m from the ground level to roof ridge
19. What is the reason why the Ifugao house floor area is limited?
Because children of puberty age and elderly leave home and live in dormitories
20. Which of the following fits the description of Isneg house?
Thatched, steep pyramidal roof, Roof resting on the cage, roof height is 5.50 m from the ground
level to roof ridge
21. The consideration in constructing an Ivatan house
All of the above
22. The Ivatans still continue to use the thick cogon grass as roofing materials because
All of the above
23. In the design of the panay house and bahay kubo, the “vemturi effect” was achieved
because
All of the above
24. The reason why Samal house is long in plan
Extended family
25. The multi-use space concept of Panay house sala is manifested through
The sala serves as bedroom, dining area, work and play area
26. The presence of Lamin indicates that
There will be a royal wedding
27. Characterize the window of a Tiboli house
Awning type hinge at the bottom to swing outward used to cover activities from sun and rain
28. The Tiboli house is shaped rectangular (14 mts x 18 mts) and wide to accommodate what
activity?
Weaving area
29. The seismic approach of the Maranao Torogan
Large log posts resting on round river stones
30. Which of the following was not a basis of zoning spaces (extramuros, Intramuros, Dilaw,
Parian) during the Spanish perios
None
31. Which of the following does not fit the Characteristic of Spanish colonial city as seen in
Intramuros?
Zones for churches, shops, government buildings, hospitals and slaughterhouses
32. In the bahay na bato, what do you call the space on the ground floor used for storing the
caroza?
Zaguan
33. In the bahay kubo, what do you call the space found underneath the house used as storage
and it is also where the people do some of their livelihood such as weaving, cooking, and etc.?
Silong
34. In the bahay kubo, what do you call the space used for drying & storing pots & pans, etc.?
Bongorangan

CO3 HISTORY AND THEORY

1. Suggest the arrangement of suited for classrooms layout of a school

Linear Organization
2. Specify the color that gives the feeling of concentration
Blue
3. Specify the distance if you are designing a space for a teacher student distance in a school
10-15 ft.
4. Specify the distance if you are designing a lovers lane
0.5 to 1.5 feet
5. What will you combine with yellow to achieve its compliment
Violet
6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Phillip Johnson’s Glass House
Free-standing columns
7. Reason why there were guttae in the Doric Order
They are three to five horizontal fillets which stops the vertical lines of the arrises and flutes
8. Reason why there are annulets in the Doric Order
They are three to five horizontal fillets which stops the vertical lines of the arrises and flutes
9. The reason why entasis was applied in Greek structures
To correct optical illusions
10. If you are designing the base of the column, what will you specify:
Torus
11. If you are designing the base of the column, what surface moulding will you specify?
Cyma Reversa
12. If you are decorating the surface of the echinus, what moulding will you specify?
Astragal
13. Choose the characteristic that does not fit the Chinese roof
Straight-inclined
14. Choose the characteristic that does not fit the Indian Hindu temple
Roofs depict stone mountains
15. Specify the color of tori
Red
16. If you are designing a Chinese Royal House, what color will you specify for the roof?
Yellow
17. The Ifugao and Bontok granaries were located inside the house. What was the reason why
the Isneg granary was located outside the house?
Bontok and Ifugao were terraced farmers and Isneg were terraced farmers
18. The Ivatan house has a windowless walls oriented north-south direction to
All of the above
19. In the deisgn of the panay house and bahay kubo, the “vemturi effect” was achieved
because
All of the above
20. The reason why Samal house is long in plan
Extended Family
21. The multi-use space concept of Panay house sala is manifested through
The sala serves as bedroom, dining area, work and play area
22. Justify the reason why the thatched roof of the bahay na bato was changed to clay tiles
Fire
23. Select the reason why the volada was included in the design of the bahay na bato
Ventilation and shield interior spaces from sun
24. State the reason why the Americans sent pensionados in the US?
To send students in USA to study architecture
25. Scrutinize Manila Metropolitan Theatre and find out why it is a neo-classical building
None of the above
26. Scutinize the feature of the Meralco Building that made it a stand out
Presence of brise soleil for beauty and functionality
27. Analyze the feature of Phil Am Life Auditorium that made it a stand out
The multistory concrete block is transformed by the use of the horizontal aluminum brise-soleil
to control the glare of the sun
28. Analyze feature of Magsaysay center that made it stand out
Application of pre-stressed concrete beams and cast in place slabs and wall panels
withstanding earthquakes
29. The description of the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
ALL
30. The characteristic that fit the church of the Holy Sacrifice
All of the above
31. The proportion of the Manila Film Center fits
Colloseum
32. The structure that does not fit the definition of “Romantic Nationalist Architecture”
Philippine Coconut Palace
33. Select the principle applied to Manila Cathedral and San Agustin Churches during the
Spanish period were known churches
Dominance

II. Planning

1. The deliberate social or organizational activity of developing an optimum strategy of future

action to achieve a desired setoff goals for solving novel problems in complex contexts, and
attended by the power and intention to commit resources and to act as necessary to implement
the chosen strategy
All of the above
2. The army camp model for planned Roman settlements beginning as garrison towns
Castrum
3. Who advocated the Linear City?
Arturo Soria
4. He developed the first philosophical basis for physical planning in cities by studying Sumerian
and Egyptian cities
Herodotus
5. Theory holds that residential land uses tend to be arranged in sectors or wedges radiating
from the center of a city
Sector Theory
6. Refers to the systematic application of analytical tools to issues relating to gender for
instance, analyzing the differing roles and activities of men and women in the participatory
process or the costs and benefits of a course of action being analysed separately for men and
women
Gender Analysis
7. Development of confidence and skills in individuals or communities leading to the ability to
take more control over their own destinies.
Empowerment
8. Planning that includes all relevant stakeholders within its scope
Integrated Planning
9. The involvement of people in the planning and management of development programs and
projects
Participation
10. To take a general or comprehensive view of or appraise, a situation or an area of study
Survey
11. Ekistics is the science of
Human Settlements
12. __________ was the planner of the Cities of Manila and Baguio
Daniel Burnham
13. He conceived the “radiant city”
Le Corbusier
14. The ______ theory states that any city extends radially from the center to form concentric
zones and as distance from the center increased, there would be a reduction in accessibility,
rents and densities.
Concentric Zone Theory
15. Peter Calthorpe is one of the proponents of
New Urbanism
16. The art and science of designing the outdoor space for biological and psychological well-
being of man
Landscape Architecture
17. In Landscape Architecture, the provision of facilities necessary to irrigate all planted areas
Irrigation
18. A concept of urban growth holding that a community’s major land uses tend ti group
themselves around several distinct centers
Multi-nuclei Theory
19. Site information which include the formation and type of bedrock below the surface of the
soil
Soil Type
20. Surface and sub-surface drainage pattern of water such as river, lakes, seas, etc. for site
planning
Topography
21. Site information that pertains to residential, it is expressed in number of families or dwellings
per given space
Density
22. Control the development of real estate by requiring developers to meet specific
requirements and design standards that are established so a plot can be recorded and lots be
sold
Subdivision regulation
23. In laying out street, the maximum slope is
5%
24. Type of street pattern laid following the topography of the land
Curvillinear
25. In laying out streets, it is provided in order to prevent dead-ends
Cul-de-sac
26. According to the National Building Code, the minimum width of sidewalk is
1.20 mts
29. The minimum width of one car lane is
3.00 mts
30. In designing streets, the minimum angle is
60 degrees
31. In parking layout, the minimum dimension of diagonal and perpendicular parking provided
by the National Building Code is
2.50 mts x 5.00 mts
32. Advocated the “Neighborhood Planning” concept
Clarence Perry
33. In parking layout, the minimum dimension of articulated truck provided by the National
Building Code is
3.60 mts x 18.00 mts
34. In landscape architecture, the provision of trees, shrubs, ground covers, lawns in design is
known as
Softscape
35. An articulated truck slot must be computed at a minimum of
3.6 m x 18 m

III. PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

CO1
1. Which of the following must be secured by foreign nationals allowed to practice under a
temporary/special permit?
Professional Liability Insurance
2. What does the PRC issue to all practicing professionals which shows and evidence of
registration and is renewable every three years?
Professional Identification Card
3. Which among the following is not a required qualification of Board Member of the
Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture?
None of the above
4. Which of the following is not considered an unprofessional or dishonorable conduct and
hence not a ground for the revocation of certificate?
None of the above
5. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the practice of architecture?
Supervising the preparation of contract documents
6. With respect to responsibilities to colleagues and subordinates, which of the following is
unethical practice for the architect?
Affixes signatures to plans prepared by another person or entities
7. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to issue
corresponding certificates of payment and final certificate of completion?
Client
8. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to provide
adequate and just compensation to employees?
Contractor
9. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to provide for
arbitration as a method for settlement of disputes?
Client
10. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to give
every reasonable aid to enable him to fully understand the contents of the Contract Documents
by furnishing clear, definite and consistent information in all pertinent contract documents to
avoid unnecessary mistakes that may involve extra cost?
Contractor
11. What requirement regulated the entry of foreign nationals to the practice of architecture?
Bilateral Agreement
12. As per PD 1096, under what classification shall factories and workshops using less
flammable or non-combustible materials be classified?
Business and Mercantile
13. For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot is open space?
50%
14. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear ceiling height for mezzanine floors above and
below it?
1.80 m
15. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum dimension of a court?
2.00 m
16. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clearance between the established grade of a street
and/or sidewalk and the lowest undersurface of any part of a projecting balcony?
3.00 m
17. As per PD 1096, what is the maximum distance of accessible parking area for the physically
handicapped from facility being served?
60 m
18. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of wood construction with protective
fire resistant materials and one-hour-fire-resistive throughout?
Type II
19. Minimum ceiling height measured from the floor to the ceiling of habitable rooms with natural
ventilation
2.7 m
20. Rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of ______ with a least dimension
of _____
6 sqm; 2 m
21. An unoccupied space other than a yard bounded on three sides by building lines with one
side bound by another open space whether public or private
Through court
22. Failure to commence work within a period of _ months from the date of issuance of permit is
a basis for non-issuance, suspension or revocation of a Building Permit
12 months
23. As per PD 1096, what is referred to as the total number of persons that may occupy a
building or a portion thereof at any one time?
Occupant Load
24. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum ceiling height of the first storey of a habitable room
provided with artificial ventilation?
2.70 m
25. As per PD 1096, how many percent of parking requirements may be provided if adequate
public parking lots/multi-floor parking garages area available within 200 meters of the proposed
building/structure?
20%
26. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of masonry and wood construction
with a one-hour fire-resistivity throughout and exterior walls of incombustible fire-resistive
construction?
Type III
27. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear width for Group A dwelling stairs?
0.75 m
28. What is referred to in works to buildings/structures involving changes in the materials used,
partitioning, location, size of openings, structural parts, existing utilities, and equipment but does
not increase the building height and/or floor area?
Alteration
29. As per PD 1096, what is the size of automobile parking slots for perpendicular or diagonal
parking?
2.5 m x 5 m
30. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum front setback for a residential R-1 lot?
4.5 m
31. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?
0.71 m
32. As per PD 1185, what is the unit of exit width used to measure means of egress?
65cm
33. Separated from other spaces of the building or structure by construction or equipment to
provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge
Fire Exit
34. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum number of exits for Class A places of assembly with a
capacity of more than 1,000 persons?
4
35. As per BP 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the top
and bottom of any ramp?
1.5 m
36. As per BP 344, how much is the parking slot width for handicapped drivers and passengers
providing sufficient clear space between parked cars to allow them to transfer to a wheelchair?
3.7 m
37. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately the same floor
level?
Horizontal Exit
38. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly if not protected
by automatic fire suppression system?
46 m
39. A bar which extends across at least one-half of each door leaf, which will open the door if
subjected to pressure
Panic hardware
40. As per PD 1185, dwelling units in row apartments shall be separated from each other by
partition walls having a fire resistance rating of how many hours?
4 hours
41. As per PD 1185, buildings over this height shall be required throughout with automatic fire
sprinkler system
15 m
42. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?
0.71 m
43. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum walkway width to permit a person in wheelchair to
traverse it with safety?
1.20 m
44. As per PD 344, accessible public washrooms and toilets shall permit easy passage of
wheelchair and must allow how much turning space for wheelchairs?
1.50 sqm
45. Turn around spaces in walkways?
6m
46. As per BP 344, what is the maximum length of a ramp if the ramp gradient is 1:12?
6m
47. As per BP 344, how long is the extension of handrails which shall be provided from the start
and end of ramps and stairs?
300 mm
48. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both connected to a source of
extinguishing agent or medium which when actuated by its automatic detecting device
suppresses fire?
Automatic fire suppression system
49. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately the same floor
level
Horizontal Exit
50. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly if not
protected by automatic fire suppression system?
46 m

CO2
51. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads right-of-way for residential
condominium projects?
10 m
52. As per PD 957, what is the maximum block length without an alley?
250 m
53. As per PD 957, what is the minimum area for a single park/playground in a residential
condominium project?
100 sqm
54. As per PD 957, what is the minimum floor area for a condominium unit?
18 sqm
55. As per BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of stairways?
0.60 m
56. As per BP 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a residential block?
20 m
57. What is the minimum lot area for a single detached socialized housing units as provided for
in BP 220?
64 sqm
58. As per BP 220, how many percent of the gross subdivision area shall be allocated for
community facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling units per hectare in socialized
housing?
1%
59. As per BP 220, what is the minimum distance between two buildings wherein the taller
building has 3 or 4 storeys?
6m
60. What is the minimum lot frontage of a regular lot for single-detached units as provided for in
BP 220?
8m

CO3

61. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by government agencies or private
institutions undertaking a project?
Architectural competition
62. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by an individual undertaking a relatively
small project?
Direct selection
63. Which of the following describes the architectural competition in selecting an architect?
Most expensive
64. Which compensation method for architect’s services is made by adding all costs of technical
services and uses a similar multiplier to take care of overhead and profit?
Multiple of direct personnel expenses
65. Which compensation method for architect’s services is flexible and any change will not affect
owner-architect agreement?
Percentage of construction cost
66. Which of the following does not describe the multiple of direct personnel expenses method
of compensation?
Multiplier depends on project complexity
67. Which of the following describe the percentage of construction cost compensation method
for architect’s services?
Related to size and type of project
68. Among the methods for compensation for architects’ services, which is considered the most
fair to both architect and client?
Percentage of construction cost
69. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase does preparation of forms for
contract letting, invitation/instruction to bidders, and bidders’ proposals fall?
Construction Phase
70. In the architects’ regular design services, under which phase does submission of
probable/preliminary project construction cost fall?
Schematic Design Phase
71. In architect’s regular design services, under which phase shall the preparation of
construction drawings, specification and Bill of Quantities fall?
Contract Document Phase
72. Which of the following activities of an architect does not fall under construction phase?
Checking of sample of materials
73. Upon …… of the fee is expected to have been given to the architect by the owner?
85%
74. If the architect’s professional fee is P200,000.00 which of the following amount shall be paid
to the architect upon signing the agreement?
10,000.00
75. For a residential project worth P3,000,000.00 which of the following amount shall be the
architect’s professional fee if the method of compensation used is percentage of project
construction cost and the rate is based on UAP Schedule of Minimum Basic Fee?
300,000.00
76. An architect has done the renovation of a residence in Valenzuela. Project construction cost
is P3,000,000.00. Using UAP Standards, how much does the architect expect to receive as a
minimum basic fee from his client?
450,000.00
77. If the architect’s fee is 3,000,000.00 how much is he expected to receive upon completion of
the project, assuming that he has been compensated full for the first three phases of his
services?
150,000.00
78. What percentage of construction cost is the architect’s minimum basic fee for monumental
buildings/other facilities requiring consummate design skills/precise detailing?
15%
79. What is generally the basis of the architect’s minimum basic fee?
Type of structure
80. In a typical owner-architect agreement, who is responsible for payment of taxes on
professional services (exclusive of income taxes)?
Owner
81. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is chargeable to the owner?
Miniature models
82. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is not part of architect’s
professional fees?
Special interior design
83. Under the owner-architect agreement, which of the following include(s) the contract
document phase of architect’s basic services?
All listed items
84. Who is responsible for payment of professional services required by architect such as
normal structural, electrical, plumbing, and mechanical engineering services?
Owner
85. Which of the following is not included in the Project Construction Cost?
Architect’s fee
86. Which of the following must be paid separately by the owner to the architect if designed and
planned by the architect?
Landscaping

CO4
87. Who is responsible for insurance for liabilities on materials, workmanship, labor and
property?
Contractor
88. For every day of delay in construction time, contractor is obligated to pay the owner. What
do you call this payment?
Liquidated Damages
89. Under the owner-contractor agreement, who pays for taxes, licenses, permits and fees?
Owner
90. In a typical owner-contractor general agreement, which of the following is generally Not
included?
Labor contingent
91. Under what condition may owner exercise the right to terminate a contract?
Bankruptcy/insolvency of contractor
92. Under General Conditions, who is generally responsible for payment of permits, taxes and
licenses?
Owner
93. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee bond ensuring all
materials/workmanship installed are of good quality?
One year
94. Within how many days from receipt of request for payment must the architect check the
billing of the contractor?
15 days
95. Within how many days from receipt of written notice by the owner must the contractor rectify
defective work?
15 days
96. Which of the following is not a requirement for the release of final payment?
Retention
97. Which of the following cannot be considered an Act of God?
Mutiny
98. Which of the following is not a valid reason for suspension or termination of contract by
Contractor?
Issuance of temporary restraining order
99. Who shall be responsible for the death or injury of any employees or laborer of the
Contractor?
Contractor
100. What do you call the amount of money that is being deducted from the contractor every
billing until 50% of the contract has been accomplished and which shall be released 3 months
after the date of final payment?
Performance bond
101. In master development plan formulation, which component is … with movement of
people/goods from one place to another?
Transport
102. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category allows the architect
prepare plans of contiguous sites for industrial estates, tourist center, housing subdivisions and
the like?
Physical Planning
103. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category does the architect
prepare schedule of shrubs, trees, and other plants and other landscaping elements?
Landscape design
104. Which of the following conditions describe the design-build services on guaranteed
maximum cost?
C. 1,3,4
105. Which of the following specialized allied services describes landscape design?
Master development planning
106. Which of the following post construction services is concerned with the monitoring of
security and janitorial services?
Building and equipment maintenance
107. Under the architect’s specialized allied services, under what category does the architect
lead the formulation of a master development plan consisting of several planning components?
Comprehensive planning
108. A component to be considered in the formulation of a Master Development Plan is a
Legal and administrative component
109. Which of the following is a study to determine the viability of a project?
Economic Feasibility Studies
110. For the preparation of detailed engineering drawings and specification on roads, drainage,
sewerage, power and communication system, an additional fee of how many percent of the cost
of the development is to be charged?
2%

IV. BUILDING UTILITIES

1. All water supply, drainage, venting system and all fixtures and their traps complete with their
connection is?
Plumbing system
2. The force requires to move water inside the pipe is called
Pressure
3. Sized of vertical and horizontal drainage pipe shall be determined from
Total fixture units
4. A pipe from the street water main to the building served is
Water main distribution pipe
5. This is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic wastes discharge from the house sewer
Septic tank
6. This type of drain receives the discharges of sanitary as well as storm wastes
Sanitary drain
7. A device scientifically designed to prevent backflow of gases into the fixtures
Trap
8. A portion of the drainage installation which maintains a balanced atmospheric pressure inside
the pipes
Ventilation
9. The vertical supply pipes extends upward from one floor to the next
Riser
10. Serves as a clean-out and an access for inspection and repair
Manhole
11. A controlled outlet on a pipe used to discharge water
None of these
12. Is a pipe on the fixture side of the trap through which vapor or foul air is removed from a
room fixture
Vent
13. This is a portion of the rain water which has percolated into the earth to form underground
deposits
Groundwater
14. What is the typical slope of a waste pipe?
2%
15. A pipe fitting to change in one single direction (course) of the flowing of the water
Elbow
16. A pipe between the water meter to the fixture
Distribution Pipe
17. A valve installed alongside the water meter and on branch lines to shut off the entire system
Gate valve
18. The minimum size if water supply for flush valve is
2 inches
19. An internally threaded fitting used to close the end pipe
Plug
20. A short internally threaded section of the pipe used to join two pipes
Coupling
21. A hose fitting with flapper valves for combining the flow from two or more lines of hose into
single stream. The inlet fitting of fire standpipe located above ground level.
Fire hose
22. The installation of all piping and fitting parts of plumbing system, which can be completed
prior to the installation of fixtures and accessories.
Plumbing assembly
23. What is the minimum width of a septic tank?
0.90 m
24. A receptacle in which liquid are retained for a sufficient period of time to allow settlement
material to deposit.
Catch basin
25. A fitting used to connect a branch pipe into a straight run of piping at 45 deg. Angle.
Available with end connection that are of the same size or with various combinations or reduced
pipe sizes in any direction.
Elbow
26. A structure containing one or more ducts; commonly formed from iron pipe or other tubing.
Conduit
27. A unit or assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid structural
system used to support cables.
Cable tray
28. A device designed to open and close a circuit by non-automatic means and to open the
circuit automatically on a predetermined over current without damage to itself when properly
applied within its rating
Circuit breaker
29. A physical entity associated with the atomic structure of matter that occurs in polar forms
(positive and negative) and that are separate by expenditure of energy.
Electricity
30. A protective device with a fusible element that opens the circuit by melting when subjected
to excessive current.
Fuse
31. The unit of electrical power, equal to the product of 1 volt and 1 ampere in DC values, or in
AC values.
Watt
32. The unit for measuring current or the number of electrons flowing past a given point in a
conductor in a given period of time.
Ampere
33. The unit for measuring electrical resistance in a conductor.
Ohm
34. A piece of apparatus or device for making, breaking or changing the connection in an
electrical current in the circuit.
Switch
35. A box with a black cover which serves the purpose of joining different runs of raceways or
cables, and provide a sufficient space for connection and branching of the enclosed circuit.
Junction box
36. A machine for drawing refrigerant from the evaporator at a relatively low pressure,
compresses it and then discharges it to the condenser.
Compressor
37. The ratio of the weight of the water vapor actually in humid air to the maximum possible
weight of water vapor that the air could contain at the same temperature.
Humidity
38. The transfer of heat from one place of higher temperature of the same body to another
which it is contact with
Conduction
39. A device used to vary the volume of air passing through an air outlet, inlet or duct.
Damper
40. Which of the following is not considered in elevator selection?
None of the above
41. Part of an electric elevator which serves as a load carrying unit of an elevator including its
platform, frame and enclosure.
Car
42. Which of the following is not considered in elevator selection?
None of the above
43. A vertical passageway for the car and counterweight
Shaft
44. Which of the following does not belong to the properties of sound?
Obstruction
45. The “Law of Reflection” states that _____
The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
46. It is the bending of waves when they enter a medium where their speed is different
Refraction
47. It is the bending of waves around small obstacles and the spreading out of waves beyond
small openings
Diffraction
48. It is the built up of sound within the room, resulted from repeated sound wave
Reverberation
49. Which of the following guidelines does not apply in eliminating reflection of sounds
Reflective surfaces should be placed for rear walls in auditorium
50. Considering the directionality of speech, the maximum sidewall-splay for a fan-shaped room
is
60 deg.
VI. STRUCTURAL CONCEPTUALIZATION

1. Compute the shear modulus of a steel if E=200,000 MPa and the Poisson’s Ratio is 0.30
67,870 MPa
2. The second moment of area of a rectangular section having a width of “b” and depth of “d” is
Bd^3/12
35. A wide flange beam has an unsupported length of 10m, this consists of web member of
250mm x 25mm and flanges of 200mmm x 25 mm, if the beam carries a load of 430KN at the
midspan, determine the maximum actual shear stress.

36. The strength reduction factor for flexure is

0.9
37. The maximum usable strain for concrete is
0.003
38. The value of _ if the fc’ is less than 30 MPa
0.85
39. The maximum reinforcement ratio provided by the code is taken ___% of pBal
85%
40. The minimum reinforcement ratio provided by the code is taken ____/fy
1.4
41. An elevator cable will have its greatest tension when the elevator car is moving
Downward but coming to rest
42. Calculate the “second moment of area” of a rectangular section with base of 50mm and
height off 100mm
4156667mm^4
43. What states that given linear transformation relationship between two force vectors P =HQ,
the corresponding displacement vector transformation H such that UO = is simply transpose of
the force transformation matrix H?
Principle of Contragradience
44. In the conjugate beams method, the actual slope equals
Fictitious shear
45. What is the maximum moment for a restricted beam?
wL^3/12
46. The equivalent spring constant K for a vibrating system with to springs having constant K1
and K2 respectively in parallel
K=K1+K2
47.

48. What is the distance from the extreme fiber in compression to the centroid of the tension
steel area?
Effective depth
49. The maximum usable strain at the extreme concrete compression fiber shall be assumed to
be equal to
0.003
50. What will happen to the concrete strength if the water-to-cement ratio decreases?
Concrete strength increases, porosity decreases, solid-to-space ratio increases
51. What is the condition where the tension steel strain reached the yielding strain
simultaneously reaching the crushing strain which is usually 0.003?
Balanced strain
52. Which of the following criteria for bundled bars, do not apply?
Individual bars within a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall
53. What is a steel element such as wire, cable, bar, rod or strand, or a bundle of such
elements, used to impart pre-stress to concrete?
Tendons
54. A ____ is a vertical element that resists lateral forces in the plane of the wall through shear
and bending. Such a wall acts as a beam cantilevered out of the ground or foundations, and
part of its strength derives from its depths. Examples are interior wall of a multi-story building,
enclosing stairways, elevator shafts and mechanical chases which are mostly solid and run the
entire height of the building.
Shear Wall
55. In T-beam construction, the flange and web being built integrally, the width of the slab
effective as T-beam flange shall not exceed one quarter of the span length of the beam and the
effective overhanging flange width on each side of the web shall not exceed:
One half the clear distance to the next web
56. It is a circular beam that transmit power to the machinery
Shaft
57.
58.
59. In formula e=PL/AE, E stands for
Modulus of elasticity
60. Slab thickness for post construction shall not be less than one-twelfth the clear distance
between ribs not less than
50 mm
61. It is the sidewise bending or displacement accompanied by twisting about or weaker axis
usually at the compression section
Buckling
62. The allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area is
0.60Fy
63. A wide flange section W31x83 has an overall depth of approximately millimeters
720
64. The maximum bending moment for a purlin may be taken as
wL^2/12
65. Two forces equal in magnitude and oppositely directed is called
Couple
66. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it is called
Punching shear
67. The section at which the moment changes from positive to negative is called
Inflection point
68. In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration is called
Slenderness ratio
69. A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called
Construction Joint
70. Depth of footing above bottom reinforcement shall not be less than 180mm for footing on
soil, nor less than __ for footing on piles
300mm
71. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through is called
Punching shear
72. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act as a unit
shall be limited to a maximum of
Four
73. A bended rust to resist shear and diagonal stresses in a concrete beam is called
Stirrups
74. What is important to protect the structural integrity of reinforcing bars?
Concrete cover
75. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced composites depend on
Fiber length, orientation, and volume traction
76. What is a design analysis requirement, considered as basis for the structural design of
building and structures, where the total lateral forces are distributed to various vertical elements
of the lateral force resisting system in proportion to their rigidities considering the rigidity of the
horizontal bracing system of diaphragm?
Structural system
77. A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about line is called
Torsion
78. It is a twisting force that rotates or tends to rotate a shaft
Torque
79. When the ratio of the short span to the long span of a slab is less than 0.50, slab is a
One-way slab
80. Longitudinal beams which rest on top chord and preferably at the joints on the truss
Purlins
81. The maximum deflection for a simply supported beam with concentrated loads at midspan is
equal to
PL3/48EI
82. How is camber treated in a steel truss 25 m and longer?

83. What is the method of analyzing indeterminate modular building frames by assuming hinges
at the center of the beam, spans and column height
Portal method
84. A three dimensional structural system without bearing walls, composed of interconnected
members laterally supported so as to function as a complete self-contained unit with or without
the aids of horizontal diaphragms or floor bracing system;

85. It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall
Shear wall
86. A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called
Construction joint
87. A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line is
called
Torsion
88. It is a synonym to bending stress
Flexural stress
89. A wall which support a vertical load in addition to its weight without the benefit of a complete
vertical load carrying space frame is called
Bearing wall
90. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without a permanent
deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress is called
Proportional limit

VII. BUILDING MATERIALS AND TECHNOLOGY

1. It is not a defect of wood
Shakes
2. It is a kind of lumber that is unplanned or undressed
Rough lumber
3. It is a kind of tree that is not used for lumber
Endogenous
4. It is a kind of lumber used for doors, cabinets, furniture, and the like
Shop lumber
5. It is not a type of treatment of lumber
Penalized
6. The acronym ASTM stands for
American Society for Testing and Materials
7. It is the most commonly used CHB
Plaster CHB
8. It is a man-made stone created by putting together particles of some inert materials with a
paste of cement, and aggregates.
Concrete
9. The acronym RCCP stands for
Reinforced Concrete Culvert Pipe
10. The most common type of cement used in construction
Portland type
*Choose the Filipino terms of the following English construction terms
11. Alignment
Asintada
12. Bottom Cord
Barakilan
13. Astragal
Batidura
14. It is a kind of test for concrete used to ensure that the specified slump is achieved
Slump test
15. It is a hard brittle inorganic substance used for construction that is either transparent or
translucent
Glass
16. It is a kind of metal that has iron as a principal element
Ferrous
17. It is a kind of metal that does not have iron as principal element
Non-ferrous
18. Narra is a kind of Philippine tree categorized under
The first group
19. The rebars commonly used for construction and structural load-bearing members are
Deformed bars
20. It is a kind of lumber used for light construction
Shop lumber
21. It is a type of glass that is used to control glare and reduce solar heat
Tempered glass
22. It is a type of glass used where clear vision is not required
Rolled and rough cast glass
23. It is not a type of special purpose file
None of the above
24. It is a defect of lumber characterized as a crack running parallel to the grain, caused by
shrinking during drying
Checks
25. It is known as the covering between the floor and the wall
Baseboard
26. It is an insoluble material used for waterproofing
Asphalt
27. It is a type of door by manner of attachment
Hinged type
28. It is a type of tile with a natural color and texture
Unglazed tile
29. It is a surfacing until made from clay or a mixture of clay that has either glazed or unglazed
surface
Ceramic Tile
30. The determined strength of concrete may be determined on the
28th day
31. The acronym NEC stands for
National Electrical Code
32. _____ are tiles whose body is slightly porous and is either glazed or unglazed
Semi-vitreous
33. Consists of small adjacent T-beam wherein the open spaces between the ribs are filled with
clay tiles gypsum boards or steel forms
Coffered slab
34. A structural bar or chamber that is sunk in place or built in place by excavating
systematically below the bottom of the unit that descends to the final depth
Pile
35. Element that added to steel makes the steel corrosion resistant as when the element is
more than 16%, it is called stainless steel,
Chromium
36. Process of concrete treatment to avoid evaporation of moisture and temperature conditions
Curing
37. A building will be erected on a hilltop, what roofing system and materials will be used?
Use roof shingles
38. Used in doors to prevent smoke from entering the room?
Astragal
39. An aggregate larger than ¼” in size, consists of crushed stones, gravel or other inert
materials of similar characteristics
Coarse aggregates
40. Are prepared mixtures of Portland cement with hydrated lime, granulated slag, silica, etc.
Small additions of calcium stereate, petroleum, colloidal clays and other admixtures with the
ingredients and proportions varying widely and usually patented
Pozzolanic cement
41. Is the oldest, the most commonly used, the most convenient and the least scientific method
or proportioning the concrete mix
Water ratio, slump and fineness modulus
42. Is the process of compacting the soil in which the structure will rest
Stabilizing the soil
43. Is a layer of irregularly broken and random-sized stones placed on the slope of embankment
Rip rap
44. Used during very hot weather to slow down the hydration of the cement
Retarders
45. Cement should be properly protected after delivery at the building site from injury through
contact with ___-; stored in shed with a wood floor raised about 12” from the ground
Water
46. Are mainly used to give color to concrete floors. There are two types: Dry-cast, broadcast or
dust-on, for surface coloring. They are dusted on, usually in two coats; after all surface water
has disappeared. The surface is then finished with a steel towek
Colored pigments
47. Used in vertical alignment
Plumb line
48. Which is not used in joining concrete?
Expansion bolt
49. Concrete without reinforcement is called
Mass concrete
50. The delivery from the mixer to the forms should be fairly continuous and uninterrupted, not
exceeding __ minutes.
30
51. Classified as a large footing extending over a wide area of the entire ground floor of the
building itself
Mat foundation
52. A load resisting skeleton constructed with straight or curved members by rigid connections
which resist movements induced at the joints of members
Space frame
53. A three dimensional set of lightweight, rigid triangular elements which comes in many forms
and shapes, constructed from interlocking struts in a geometric pattern.
Space frame
54. The inventor and proponent of Geodesic Domes was
Buckminster Fuller
55. Which of following statements hold true about geodesic domes?
All of the above
56. A type of fabric structure where curved compression members are used as the main
supporting elements and cross arches are used for lateral stability.
Mast supported
57. Membrane plates in tent structures are used to
All of the above
58. Why is it that tensile structures considered environment-friendliest of all alternative building
technologies
The least disturbance to the natural ecosystem
59. What structural member is this for tent structures?
Mast with Bale rings
60. What is the downside of using tensile structure for the Philippine setting
Presence of frequent typhoons will damage the system
61. Tent systems that are supported by one or more poles is categorized as
Point supported
62. Predominant building material used for framing glass wall cladding systems is
Extruded Aluminum
63. What type of wall system employs mullions which are fabricated in the hop and then
installed, and ‘glazed’/ assembled in the field? This is considered the cheapest in terms of
shipping and handling costs from the factory to the jobsite, however, it requires skillful labor to
install and assemble this system on-site.
Unit and Mullion system
64. Best characterized by seamless and smooth uninterrupted glass wall cladding system due
to the use of ‘spider’ – like connections
Unit and Mullion system
65. This is a physical barrier which is installed in the wall cladding system, in preventing outside
moisture from seeping towards the interiors
Structural Gasket
66. Which of the following structural flooring systems has the longest span?
Composite construction using steel decking
67. The figure below shows what type of structural flooring slab?
Integrated beams supporting precast concrete slabs
68. What is the primary difference between folded plates and thin shelf construction?
Folded plates are more appropriate for tighter spaces while thin shells require wide open spaces
69. This type of folded plate uses rectangular planes joined together
Prismoidal
70. This type of folded plate allows access of natural light thru its clerestories, however is not a
cost-efficient structural shape applicable only for shorter spans.
Three segmental folded plate
71. The absence of beams in folded plate construction is due to
All of the above
72. The commonest type of folded plate used architecturally
Canopies
73. The difference between modular construction with pre-cast construction is that
Modular construction is not efficient in terms of transporting it to the jobsite
*Given the figure below

74. What is the type of frame shown above?

Knee Brace
75. What type of joint is shown above?
All of the above
76. A pile driven at a specified angle in order to provide protection against lateral forces
Batter Pile
77. This is a reinforced concrete slab or mat joining the heads of a cluster of piles to distribute
the load from a column or grade beam equally among all the piles beneath this slab.
Pile cap
78. This type of pile is used as embankment along bodies of water
Sheet pile
79. A manner of concrete based construction by placing concrete over tendons that have been
stressed to the desired degree
Pre-stressing
80. What did Eugene Freyssinet invent in 1928?
Pre-stressing concrete

VIII. ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN

I. RESIDENTIAL (HIGH-DENSITY RESIDENTIAL)

A Proposed Medium rise apartment building project is a development with a basement
component and on a project site having an 8% slope towards RROW

Problem:
A private development company has decided that its newly acquired property with a TLA of
8,000 sqm shall be developed to host a medium rise apartment building. The project is located
in an urban area, high density (division b-1) Maximum R-3. The dwelling units shall be of two
types: 1st – studio type with GFA of 22 sqm; 2nd –1 bedroom apartment units with GFA of 50
sqm.

Project site features:

The project site is a rectangular corner lot. The shortest side measuring 80 m faces east, and
the longer side faces north. The project site uniformly slopes at 8% towards the 14 m wide maint
street at the north side.