Bond
Bond
The term coupon rate comes from the detachable coupons that are affixed to bearer bond certificates,
which, when
presented to a paying agent or the issuer, entitle the holder to receive the interest due on that date.
Nowadays,
registered bonds, whose ownership is registered with the issuer, allow the registered owner to receive
interest by check
75
••
instrument issued by
a corporation or
government.
value of an asset. In
usually $1,000.
interest payment
divided by the bond’s
face value.
never matures; a
of a bond.
(4.1)
= I(PVIFAkd,∞) (4.2)
V = I /k d (4.3)
Thus the present value of a perpetual bond is simply the periodic interest payment divided
by the appropriate discount rate per period. Suppose you could buy a bond that paid $50 a
year forever. Assuming that your required rate of return for this type of bond is 12 percent,
V = $50/0.12 = $416.67
This is the maximum amount that you would be willing to pay for this bond. If the market
price is greater than this amount, however, you would not want to buy it.
Nonzero Coupon Bonds. If a bond has a finite maturity, then we must consider not only
the interest stream but also the terminal or maturity value (face value) in valuing the bond.
The valuation equation for such a bond that pays interest at the end of each year is
(4.4)
where n is the number of years until final maturity and MV is the maturity value of the bond.
We might wish to determine the value of a $1,000-par-value bond with a 10 percent
coupon and nine years to maturity. The coupon rate corresponds to interest payments of
$100 a year. If our required rate of return on the bond is 12 percent, then
= $100(PVIFA12%,9) + $1,000(PVIF12%,9)
Referring to Table IV in the Appendix at the back of the book, we find that the present value
interest factor of an annuity at 12 percent for nine periods is 5.328. Table II in the Appendix
reveals under the 12 percent column that the present value interest factor for a single payment
nine periods in the future is 0.361. Therefore the value, V, of the bond is
V = $100(5.328) + $1,000(0.361)
The interest payments have a present value of $532.80, whereas the principal payment at
maturity has a present value of $360.00. (Note: All of these figures are approximate because the
present value tables used are rounded to the third decimal place; the true present value of the
bond is $893.44.)
V = + ++ + . . . $100
(1.12)
$100
(1.12)
$100
(1.12)
$1,000
(1.12) 12 99
VI
I
k
MV
MV
nn
=+
++
=+
+=+∑
()()...()()
()()
11 1 1
11
dd
1dd
VI
kt
=+
++
=+
=
∞
()()...()
()
11 1
1d
Part 2 Valuation
76
••
If the appropriate discount rate is 8 percent instead of 12 percent, the valuation equation
becomes
= $100(PVIFA8%,9) + $1,000(PVIF8%,9)
Looking up the appropriate interest factors in Tables II and IV in the Appendix, we determine
that
V = $100(6.247) + $1,000(0.500)
In this case, the present value of the bond is in excess of its $1,000 par value because the
required rate of return is less than the coupon rate. Investors would be willing to pay a
premium to buy the bond. In the previous case, the required rate of return was greater than
the coupon rate. As a result, the bond has a present value less than its par value. Investors
would be willing to buy the bond only if it sold at a discount from par value. Now if the
required rate of return equals the coupon rate, the bond has a present value equal to its par
value, $1,000. More will be said about these concepts shortly when we discuss the behavior of
bond prices.
instead is sold at a deep discount from its face value. Why buy a bond that pays no
interest? The answer lies in the fact that the buyer of such a bond does receive a return.
This return consists of the gradual increase (or appreciation) in the value of the security from
its original, below-face-value purchase price until it is redeemed at face value on its maturity
date.
The valuation equation for a zero-coupon bond is a truncated version of that used for a
normal interest-paying bond. The “present value of interest payments” component is lopped
off, and we are left with value being determined solely by the “present value of principal
payment at maturity,” or
(4.6)
= MV(PVIFkd,n) (4.7)
Suppose that Espinosa Enterprises issues a zero-coupon bond having a 10-year maturity
= $1,000(PVIF12%,10)
Using Table II in the Appendix, we find that the present value interest factor for a single
V = $1,000(0.322) = $322
If you could purchase this bond for $322 and redeem it 10 years later for $1,000, your initial
investment would thus provide you with a 12 percent compound annual rate of return.
European markets) make interest payments once a year, most bonds issued in the United
States pay interest twice a year. As a result, it is necessary to modify our bond valuation
V = $1,000
(1.12)10
V MV
kn=()1+d
V = + ++ + . . . $100
(1.08)
$100
(1.08)
$100
(1.08)
$1,000
(1.08) 12 99
77
••
Zero-coupon bond
at a deep discount
value; it provides
compensation to
of price appreciation.
equations to account for compounding twice a year.3 For example, Eqs. (4.4) and (4.5) would
be changed as follows
(4.8)
where kd is the nominal annual required rate of interest, I/2 is the semiannual coupon payment, and 2n
is the number of semiannual periods until maturity.
Take Note
Notice that semiannual discounting is applied to both the semiannual interest payments
and the lump-sum maturity value payment. Though it may seem inappropriate to use
maturity and our nominal annual required rate of return is 14 percent, the value of one
$1,000-par-value bond is
V = ($50)(PVIFA7%,24) + $1,000(PVIF7%,24)
Rather than having to solve for value by hand, professional bond traders often turn to bond
value tables. Given the maturity, coupon rate, and required return, one can look up the present value.
Similarly, given any three of the four factors, one can look up the fourth. Also,
some specialized calculators are programmed to compute bond values and yields, given the
inputs mentioned. In your professional life you may very well end up using these tools when
Remember, when you use bond Eqs. (4.4), (4.5), (4.6), (4.7), (4.8), and (4.9), the variable
MV is equal to the bond’s maturity value, not its current market value.
Most preferred stock pays a fixed dividend at regular intervals. The features of this financial
instrument are discussed in Chapter 20. Preferred stock has no stated maturity date and, given
the fixed nature of its payments, is similar to a perpetual bond. It is not surprising, then, that
we use the same general approach as applied to valuing a perpetual bond to the valuation of
V = Dp /k p (4.10)
VI
MV
kt
n=+
+=+∑/
/) /)
1 (1 2 (1 2 d
3
Even with a zero-coupon bond, the pricing convention among bond professionals is to use semiannual
rather than
Virtually all preferred stock issues have a call feature (a provision that allows the company to force
retirement), and
many are eventually retired. When valuing a preferred stock that is expected to be called, we can apply
a modified
version of the formula used for valuing a bond with a finite maturity; the periodic preferred dividends
replace the
periodic interest payments and the “call price” replaces the bond maturity value in Eqs. (4.4) and (4.5),
and all the
Part 2 Valuation
78
••
Preferred stock
promises a (usually)
board of directors. It
payment of dividends
79
where Dp is the stated annual dividend per share of preferred stock and k p is the appropriate
discount rate. If Margana Cipher Corporation had a 9 percent, $100-par-value preferred stock
issue outstanding and your required return was 14 percent on this investment, its value per
V = $9/0.14 = $64.29
The theory surrounding the valuation of common stock has undergone profound change
during the last few decades. It is a subject of considerable controversy, and no one method for
valuation is universally accepted. Still, in recent years there has emerged growing acceptance
of the idea that individual common stocks should be analyzed as part of a total portfolio of
common stocks that the investor might hold. In other words, investors are not as concerned
with whether a particular stock goes up or down as they are with what happens to the overall
value of their portfolios. This concept has important implications for determining the
required rate of return on a security. We shall explore this issue in the next chapter. First,
however, we need to focus on the size and pattern of the returns to the common stock
investor. Unlike bond and preferred stock cash flows, which are contractually stated, much
more uncertainty surrounds the future stream of returns connected with common stock.
When valuing bonds and preferred stock, we determined the discounted value of all the cash
distributions made by the firm to the investor. In a similar fashion, the value of a share of
common stock can be viewed as the discounted value of all expected cash dividends provided
This model was first developed by John B. Williams, The Theory of Investment Value (Cambridge, MA:
Harvard
University Press, 1938). And, as Williams so aptly put it in poem form, “A cow for her milk/A hen for her
eggs/And
Common stock
Securities that
represent the
ultimate ownership
a corporation.
holders of preferred stock usually have no voting privileges. Shares of preferred stock often pay a
guaranteed
dividend.
though. The shares are usually purchased by other corporations, which are attracted by the dividends
that give
their due. Creditors will be paid before preferred stockholders, but preferred stockholders have a higher
priority
Source: The Motley Fool (www.fool.com). Reproduced with the permission of The Motley Fool.
(4.11)
(4.12)
where Dt is the cash dividend at the end of time period t and ke is the investor’s required
return, or capitalization rate, for this equity investment. This seems consistent with what we
But what if we plan to own the stock for only two years? In this case, our model becomes
where P2 is the expected sales price of our stock at the end of two years. This assumes that
investors will be willing to buy our stock two years from now. In turn, these future investors
will base their judgments of what the stock is worth on expectations of future dividends
and a future selling price (or terminal value). And so the process goes through successive
investors.
Note that it is the expectation of future dividends and a future selling price, which itself is
based on expected future dividends, that gives value to the stock. Cash dividends are all that
stockholders, as a whole, receive from the issuing company. Consequently, the foundation for
the valuation of common stock must be dividends. These are construed broadly to mean any
cash distribution to shareholders, including share repurchases. (See Chapter 18 for a discussion of share
repurchase as part of the overall dividend decision.)
The logical question to raise at this time is: Why do the stocks of companies that pay
no dividends have positive, often quite high, values? The answer is that investors expect to
sell the stock in the future at a price higher than they paid for it. Instead of dividend income
plus a terminal value, they rely only on the terminal value. In turn, terminal value depends on
the expectations of the marketplace viewed from this terminal point. The ultimate expectation is that
the firm will eventually pay dividends, either regular or liquidating, and that
future investors will receive a company-provided cash return on their investment. In the
interim, investors are content with the expectation that they will be able to sell their stock
at a subsequent time, because there will be a market for it. In the meantime, the company is
reinvesting earnings and, everyone hopes, enhancing its future earning power and ultimate
dividends.
Dividend discount models are designed to compute the intrinsic value of a share of common
stock under specific assumptions as to the expected growth pattern of future dividends
and the appropriate discount rate to employ. Merrill Lynch, CS First Boston, and a number
of other investment banks routinely make such calculations based on their own particular
models and estimates. What follows is an examination of such models, beginning with the
simplest one.
Constant Growth. Future dividends of a company could jump all over the place; but, if
dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate, what implications does this hold for our
basic stock valuation approach? If this constant rate is g, then Eq. (4.11) becomes
(4.13)
where D0 is the present dividend per share. Thus the dividend expected at the end of period n
is equal to the most recent dividend times the compound growth factor, (1 + g)
. This may
not look like much of an improvement over Eq. (4.11). However, assuming that ke is greater
VDg
Dg
Dg
k=+
++
()
()()
()...()
()
2
e
VD
k=+
()+()()
e
2
2111
==+
∑)
t 1 (1 e
VD
k=+
++
∞()()...()
1
e
2111e
Part 2 Valuation
80
••
than g (a reasonable assumption because a dividend growth rate that is always greater than the
capitalization rate would imply an infinite stock value), Eq. (4.13) can be reduced to6
V = D1 /(ke − g) (4.14)
The critical assumption in this valuation model is that dividends per share are expected to
grow perpetually at a compound rate of g. For many companies this assumption may be a fair
approximation of reality. To illustrate the use of Eq. (4.14), suppose that LKN, Inc.’s dividend
per share at t = 1 is expected to be $4, that it is expected to grow at a 6 percent rate forever, and
that the appropriate discount rate is 14 percent. The value of one share of LKN stock would be
For companies in the mature stage of their life cycle, the perpetual growth model is often
reasonable.
TIP•TIP
A common mistake made in using Eqs. (4.14) and (4.15) is to use, incorrectly, the firm’s
most recent annual dividend for the variable D1 instead of the annual dividend expected by
the end of the coming year.
can easily convert from dividend valuation, Eq. (4.14), to valuation based on an earnings
multiplier approach. The idea is that investors often think in terms of how many dollars they
are willing to pay for a dollar of future expected earnings. Assume that a company retains a
constant proportion of its earnings each year; call it b. The dividend-payout ratio (dividends
per share divided by earnings per share) would also be constant. Therefore,
(1 − b) = D1 /E1 (4.16)
and
(1 − b)E1 = D1
where E1 is expected earnings per share in period 1. Equation (4.14) can then be expressed as
If we multiply both sides of Eq. (4.13) by (1 + ke)/(1 + g) and subtract Eq. (4.13) from the product, we get
Because we assume that ke is greater than g, the second term on the right-hand side approaches zero.
Consequently,
V(ke − g) = D0(1 + g) = D1
V = D1 /(ke − g)
This model is sometimes called the “Gordon Dividend Valuation Model” after Myron J. Gordon, who
developed it
from the pioneering work done by John Williams. See Myron J. Gordon, The Investment, Financing, and
Valuation of
81
••
that LKN, Inc., has a retention rate of 40 percent and earnings per share for period 1 are
Equation (4.18) thus gives us the highest multiple of expected earnings that the investor
Thus expected earnings of $6.67 coupled with an earnings multiplier of 7.5 values our
common stock at $50 a share ($6.67 × 7.5 = $50). But remember, the foundation for this
alternative approach to common stock valuation was nevertheless our constant growth
No Growth. A special case of the constant growth dividend model calls for an expected
dividend growth rate, g, of zero. Here the assumption is that dividends will be maintained at
V = D1 /ke (4.19)
Not many stocks can be expected simply to maintain a constant dividend forever. However,
when a stable dividend is expected to be maintained for a long period of time, Eq. (4.19) can
Growth Phases. When the pattern of expected dividend growth is such that a constant
growth model is not appropriate, modifications of Eq. (4.13) can be used. A number of valuation models
are based on the premise that firms may exhibit above-normal growth for a number of years (g may
even be larger than ke during this phase), but eventually the growth rate
will taper off. Thus the transition might well be from a currently above-normal growth rate to
one that is considered normal. If dividends per share are expected to grow at a 10 percent
compound rate for five years and thereafter at a 6 percent rate, Eq. (4.13) becomes
(4.20)
Note that the growth in dividends in the second phase uses the expected dividend in period 5
as its foundation. Therefore the growth-term exponent is t − 5, which means that the exponent in period
6 equals 1, in period 7 it equals 2, and so forth. This second phase is nothing
(4.21)
If the current dividend, D0, is $2 per share and the required rate of return, ke, is 14 percent,