Center for Technical Professions/ Page 1

CENTER FOR TECHNICAL approach to managing the leadership of the police

PROFESSIONS department.
Manila: 4/F Highland Hardware, beside Mini
B. It is the fundamental reason to come out with the
Stop and PLDT, España Blvd., Sampaloc, Manila specific mission and strategies to attain the goals of the
organization
Zabarte: Capricorn St., Ma. Luisa Subd., Zabarte
Road, Camarin, Caloocan City
C. It is the fundamental reason to develop the resources
required for the attainment of the police goal and for the
Antipolo:2nd floor of Alarcon
most convenient time
Bldg.,Circumferential Road, Brgy San
Roque, Antipolo City.
D. All of these
Lucena: 3/F Gomez Building, Queblar 7. It identifies the role of police in the community and
St.,Corner Enriquez St.,Lucena City future condition in state.
Cebu: 3/F L & P bldg.., Hernan Cortes St., A. Visionary Plans C. Synoptic Planning
Wireless Subangdaku, Mandaue City B. Proactive Plans D. Incremental Planning
Tacloban: 2/F #269 P. Burgos St., Tacloban City 8. This is an important step in synopsis planning; trying to
Email Add: ctpreview@gmail.com figure out what, if anything happened as a result of
Website: www.ctp-review.net implementing a selected alternative is called;
Contact Nos: 0917-996-4386/0942-567- A. describe the present situation
3949/(02) 268-1554/ (02) 241- B. identify and analyze problem
3662
C. monitor and evaluate progress
FINAL COACHING D. identifying alternative courses of action
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION 9. Planning as a management function is to be done in the
LEA1: POLICE ORGANIZATION AND various levels of PNP organization. Broad policy based
ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE PLANNING from laws directives, policies and needs in general is the
1. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word responsibility of _____________.
Politeia which means A. Legislative Branch C. Directorate for Plans
A. Government of the City C. City State B. Chief, PNP D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
B. Condition of the state or government D. Officer de la 10. The fiscal planning is a _____________ in terms of
Paix expenditure requirements:
2. It refers to a group of trained personnel in the field of A. tactical planning C. work plan
public safety administration engaged in the achievement B. financial planning D. control plan
of goals and objectives. 11. Which of the following is the most important
A. Personnel Management C. Police Organization characteristic of a good operational plan:
B. Police Administration D. Administration A. only one officer is responsible for its execution
3. He is the first Filipino chief of the Philippine B. need for the operation modification or amplification is
Constabulary in 1917. minimized
A. Brig Gen Rafael Crame C. Col Antonio Torres C. presents objectives and allocation of resources but not
B. Col. Lamberto Javalera D. Gen. Nazareno the methodology
Col. Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of police of D. all the details of the plan are properly identified and
the Manila Police Department in 1935 evaluated and such details are known by implementers
Col. Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police of the E. Either of the Above
Manila Police Department after the Philippine 12. When the distribution of a plan is classified as “B”, it is
Independence from the United States of America in 1946 a need to know for:
P/Dir Gen. Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the A. All units C. Very selected units
Philippine National Police B. Selected units D. Few only
4. This particular procedure calls for the recognition 13. An organization is more effective if it enables the
of the predicament and comprehending all the history individual to contribute to the organizations objectives.
and record then seek for possible solutions for the What is referred
dilemma. This statement is pertaining to what step of to this?
planning: A. principle of balance
A. collecting of facts C. analyzing facts B. principle of organizational efficiency
B. clarifying the problem D. developing alternative C. principle of absoluteness of responsibility
plan D. principle of unity of objective
5. Which of the following does not affect the span of 14. In disaster control operations, there is a need to
control? establish a where telephone or any means of
A. The degree of interaction between departments communication shall ensure open lines of communication:
being supervised A. communications center C. command post
B. The extent of financial resource involved B. operations post D. safe house
C. The competence of both the superior and coordinate 15. The following are the principles of Robert Peel,
D. The similarity or dissimilarity of activation supervised except? A. every police must sell himself to the people
6. Which of the following statements can best describe the B. fast distribution of news to the people is essential
key reason for having a vision in formulating a plan? C. absence of is the best proof of efficiency
A. It is the fundamental reason for creating a D. policemen were considered as public officials
strategic

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16. It is the general statement that a particular B. Operational plan D. Tactical plan
organization wants to attain in a particular period of time. 24. It refers to the Anti – Crime Master Plan of PNP.
A. Objective C. Policy A. Master Plan Sandigan Milenyo C. Master Plan Banat
B. Procedure D. Goal B. Master Plan Sandugo D. Master Plan
• OBJECTIVE - specific commitment to Saklolo
achieve a measurable result with in a specific • MASTER PLAN SANDUGO (Support to Internal
period of time. Security
• PROCEDURE - sequence of activities to reach a • Operations Master Plan)
point or to attain that which is desired. • MASTER PLAN BANAT (Anti-Illegal Drugs
• POLICY - is a product of prudence wisdom Master Plan)
in the management of human affairs. • MASTER PLAN SANG-INGAT (Security
• GUIDELINES - consist of rule of action for the Operations
rank and • Master Plan)
• file to show them how they are expected to obtain • MASTER PLAN SAKLOLO (Disaster
the desired effect. Management
17. As you advance in rank, you move from being more of • Master Plan)
a “doer” to being more of a “thinker”. The former in the • SANGYAMAN (protection and Preservation of
sentence may be equated to: Environment, Cultural Properties, and Natural
A. Tactics C. Strategy Resources Master Plan)
B. Mission D. Vision 25. A step in planning requiring the issuance of orders and
• STRATEGY – is a broad design, method; a major directives to units and personnel concerned, the
plan of action that needs a large amount of establishment of schedule, the provision of manpower and
resources to attain a major goal or objectives. equipment in order for the smooth execution of the plan is
• TACTIC – specific design, method or course of under________________.
action to attain a particular objective in A. Selling the Plan
consonance with strategy. B. Selecting the most Appropriate Alternative
18. Plans can be changed to meet future requirements C. Arranging for the Execution
which were not considered during the planning stage. This D. Evaluating the Effectiveness of the Plan
indicates ____________in planning: 26. This SOP prescribes the basic procedures to be
A. responsiveness C. efficiency observed by all PNP Units and mobile patrol elements in
B. flexibility D. effectiveness the conduct of visibility patrols.
19. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective A. SOP 1 C. SOP 3
plan? B. SOP2 D. SOP 4
A. give police department a clear direction 27. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
B. increase personnel involvement A. Vulnerabilities C. Threats
C. clearly define objectives and goals B. Intelligence D. Win
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen 28. When the police plan can accomplish the purpose or
20. One way of extending the power of police observation its goal, then, the plan is
is to get information from persons within the vicinity. In A. Feasible C. Acceptable
police work, this is called: B. Suitable D. Flexible
A. data gathering C. interrogation CRITERIA USED TO TEST THE SOLUTION OF A PLAN
B. field inquiry D. interview • FEASIBLE - If the plan is efficient, convenient,
21. The City of Matipuno has approximately 120, 000 and timely with the risk and cost involved,
people, based on nationwide average under RA 6975 • ADAPTABLE (ACCEPTABLE) - If the plan of
police to population ratio, how many police officers should the police unit can be carried out with the
be deploy in that city? available resources and within the capability of
A. 240 C. 120 the police unit
B. 500 D. 1000 29. The Medium range plan covers a period of more or
22. Planning is the process of developing methods or less
procedures or an arrangement of parts intended to A. 1 year C. 3 years
facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective. The B. 5 years D. 10 years
following are the characteristics of a good plan. 30. In planning what does “scanning the environment”
I. flexibility IV. specific means:
II. clear V. luxurious A. Planning for possible solutions
III. Complex VI. Direct B. Looking for alternatives
A. I, II, III, IV, and VI C. I, III, IV, and VI C. Visioning the goal
B. I, II, IV, and VI D. I, II, IV, and V D. looking at external and internal factors, which affect the
23. The PNP needs the participation of the PDEA in order planning process
to identify the alleged suspect involve in Drug Trafficking. 31. Follow-up is the control factor essential for
What plans require action or assistance from persons or effective
agencies outside the police organization? command management is a statement from what step
A. Extra departmental plan C. Reactive plan of planning?

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A. evaluating the effectives of the plan 39. In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
B. analyzing the facts squad diagonal or deployed line would be probably used
C. developing alternative plans for:
D. selling the plan A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
32. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
A. Standard Operation Procedures 40. These are forces that threaten survival or the
B. Standard Operating Procedures competitiveness of an organization?
C. Special Operation Procedures A. Strength C. Threats
D. Special Operating Procedures B. Weaknesses D. Opportunities
33. It deals with procedures that have been outlined and • STRENGTHS - Those things that are working
officially adopted by all members of the unit under well in a project or situation. The aspects people
specified circumstances. are proud to talk about.
A. Procedural Plan C. Tactical Plan • WEAKNESSES - Those things that have not
B. Operational Plan D. Extra – Departmental worked so
Plan • well.
• OPERATIONAL PLAN – known as work Plan, • OPPORTUNITIES - Ideas on how to overcome
describe specific actions to be taken weaknesses and build on strengths.
• TACTICAL PLAN - planning for emergencies of 41. Which of the following is the best indicator of a police
a specific organization’s efficiency?
• nature at known locations A. Given the goodwill and actives support of the people
• EXTRA-DEPARTMENTAL PLANS - those which B. Manned by highly qualified personnel
require actions or assistance from persons or C. Managed by efficient supervisors
agencies outside of D. Receiving adequate pay and allowances
• the department 42. As much as possible, the preparation of the overall
• MANAGEMENT PLANS - those plans that relate development plan of the police organization should be
to staffing, equipping, supplying and organizing participated by the heads of all staff services and
34. The field Procedures of the organization are operational/administrative support units. This policy is:
A. intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be A. desirable: offices can be properly trained in planning
outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field B. undesirable: the presence of too many officers will
B. specific operations to ensure uniformity of action create confusion
C. procedures to be followed in the headquarters, usually C. undesirable: there will be problems of credits grabbing
reflected in the duty manual after plan is formulated
D. NONE D. desirable: the officers will know the organization better
35. They are concerned with the specific purpose and and a sense of ownership of the plan is promoted
conclude when an objective is accomplished or a problem 43. Assessing organizational strengths and weaknesses is
is solved. usually known as
A. Standing Plan C. Functional Plan A. force field analysis C. Delphi technique
B. Time Specific Plan D. SOP B. simulation model D. forecasting
• Standing Plan= responding to organizational 44. The planning process generally consists of 5 steps in
problems. sequential order. Which is the first step?
• Operational- efficiency, effectiveness, and A. recognition of the need to plan
Productivity B. formulation of the objective
• Plans- measures or comparison to be used to C. Gathering of Data
assess police activities and behavior and results. D. Evaluation and analysis of data
• Functional Plan- framework for the operation of E. Execution of Plan
the major functional unit in the organization 45. The first step in the planning process is to recognize
37. In regard to the police planning function, it may be said the need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way of
that: discovering the need to plan?
A. Planning is essentially order giving. A. conduct research
B. Planning is essentially decision making in advance of B. conduct management audit
action. C. conduct training
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors. D. conduct of inspection
D. The higher the job in the organization, the shorter the 46. Police Planning is an integral element of good
time- lag between planning and execution. management and –
38. Before the objective of a plan can be formulated, A. Business administration C. prediction
the following must be first recognized: B. good police decision-making D. performance
A. What resources are necessary to carry out the plan 47. Flow of authority from top to bottom.
B. Who will implement the plan A. Chain of Command C. Unity of Command
C. When will be it implemented B. Chain of Custody D. Span of Control
D. The need to plan

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48. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the B. One having supervisory responsibilities, either
regulations of the Department of State; this was armed temporarily or permanently, over
and considered as the mounted police. officers of lower rank.
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica C. Guardia Civil C. An officer who is in command of the department, a
B. Guadrilleros D. Metropolitan Police Force bureau, a division, an area, or a district.
49. The Law that created the Manila Police Department, D. An officer who has the more senior rank/higher rank in
enacted on July 31, 1901. a team or group.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183 56. It refers to the actual length of time that an individual
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175 held office:
50. The law that empowered the police commission to A. Time-in grade C. Length of Service
conduct entrance and promotional examination for police B. Tenure D. Active Service
members. • TIME IN GRADE - Total period of time a
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487 candidate has acquired in a certain grade
B. RA 157 D. PD 765 regardless of his status of appointment prior to
51. CASE: Mr. Romulo Dumagit was born on November promotion to the next rank.
12, 1991 he wants to fulfill his dream to become a police • POTENTIAL - Refers to the overall gross worth
officer, he studied and was able to finish a BS and capability of an individual to assume a higher
Criminology in a reputable institution on March 18, 2011, post.
and he was able to successfully enter the PNP on • LENGTH OF SERVICE - the period of time that
December 2, 2016. He was appointed in various position has elapsed since the oath of office was
in the PNP, he was dedicated to his work and able to administered. Previous active services may be
receive various awards in the PNP. included or added.
51A.What eligibility was utilized by Mr. Romulo Dumagit in 57. POIII Pino was ordered to probe the alleged
applying in the PNP? involvement of some police officer in extra – judicial killing.
A. PD 907 C. RA 6506 What police function does he belong?
B. RA 1080 D. PD 1184 A. Primary functions C. Administrative functions
51B.What year will Mr. Romulo Dumagit can compulsorily B. Operational Unit D. Service Unit
retire in the PNP? 58. A single uninterrupted line of authority often
A. December 2, 2046 C. December 2, 2047 represented by boxes and lines an organizational chart
B. November 12, 2047 D. December 2, 2036 which should run in order by rank from top command to
51C.How many percent would be the monthly retirement the level of the organization:
pay of Mr. Romulo Dumagit? A. unity of command C. scalar chain
A.77.5 % C. 50 % B. span of control D. chain of custody
B.2.5 % D. 80 % 59. It is based on the premise that authority exists within
52. The following are the component agencies that an organization at all levels and that only those decisions
compose the Philippine National Police (Sec. 23, RA that cannot be made at a given level because of lack of
6975). authority should be referred upward for resolution.
a. NARCOM civilian personnel; A. Scalar Principle C. Delegation
b. Coast Guards; B.Command Responsibility D. Authority-Level-Principle
c. Philippine Constabulary; 60. SPO1 Magaling is excused from his duty as
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and e. National investigator due to the fatal wound in his left arm caused
Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking. by previous police operation.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c A. Sick Leave C. Special Duty
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e B. Leave of Absence D. Off Duty
53. The law that governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical 61. It refers to the performance of an act that ought not to
Standards for officials and employees of the Government be done.( paggawa ng katiwalian.)
– National or Local. A. Feasance C. Malfeasance
A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610 B. Misfeasance D. Nonfeasance
B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263 • NONFEASANCE (di- pagganap ng tungkulin.) - It
RA 7160 – Local Government Code refers to the failure to perform an act that is
RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children against Abuse, required to be done
Exploitation and Discrimination • MISFEASANCE (tiwaling panunungkulan.) - It
RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004 refers to the improper performance of some act
54. The theory of a police service which states those which might lawfully be done.
police officers are servants of the people or the 62. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is
community. called?
A. Old Concept C. Modern Concept A. Administration C. Supervision
B. Home rule D. Continental Rule B. Management D. Organization
55. Which among the following is a Superior officer? 63. The largest organic unit within a large department.
A. Personnel of the police department who have oath and A. Bureau C. Section
who possess the power to arrest. B. Division D. Unit
• DIVISION- The primary subdivision of a bureau.

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• SECTION- Functional units within a particular C. In case the President call on the PNP, it may support
division.This is necessary for specialization. the AFP in combat operations
• UNITS- Functional group within a section where D. All of these
further specialization is needed. 73. The NAPOLCOM Exercise what power to the PNP.
64. With respect to orders and commands, it may be said A. Administrative Control, and Operational supervision
that: B. Plans and Program formulation
A. Supervisors would do well to explain why, when issuing C. Examine and audit PNP
orders. D. Establish a uniform crime reporting
B. Orders should be personal, not impersonal 74. The NAPOLCOM is an agency attached to the DILG
C. Orders should direct, not segregate. for policy coordination, it’s composed of:
D. Orders must be complete and detailed. A. DILG Secretary as Ex-Officio Chairperson;
65. A supervisor's Span of Control is generally determined B. Four (4) Regular Commissioners;
in terms of: C. Chief of the PNP as ex-officio member;
A. Number of subordinates directly reporting to him D. A member of the bar chosen by IBP; and
B. Number of superiors to whom one report E. Any barangay captain in the locality.
C. Number of superiors from whom he takes orders A. A, B, C, and E C. A, C, and D
D. Number of tasks assigned B. A, B, and C D. A, B, and D
66. The reason why a police officer appears in court as a 75. The qualifications of the regular commissioners of
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his the NAPOLCOM:
respect to the court and to his: A. Citizen of the Philippines
A. Position/Rank C. Superior B. A member of the Philippine Bar with at least five (5)
B. Profession D. Comrades years’ experience in handling criminal or human rights
67. The NCRPO, have Five (5) District offices. What would cases or a holder of a master's degree but preferably a
be the equivalent rank of the District Director? doctorate degree
A. Regional Director C. Provincial Director C. The regular member coming from the law
B. Chief of Police D. Chief, Directorial Staff enforcement
68. PO2 Butete and PO2 Bulate report to the same sector should have practical experience in law
supervisor. This is the principle of _______: enforcement work for at least five (5) years while the three
A. Unity of Command C. Span of Control (3) other regular must have done extensive research work
B. Chain of Command D. Delegation of Authority or projects on law enforcement
69. The number of subordinates that can be supervised D. All of these
directly by one person tends to- 76. The term of office of the four (4) Regular
A. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor Commissioners is ___________?
and subordinate as well as between individual subordinate A. At least Six years
increases B. Six years without re-appointment
B. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and C. Six years with re-appointment
experience of the subordinate D. At the pleasure of the President
C. Increase as the level of supervision progresses from 77. In case of temporary incapacity or permanent
the first line supervisory level to the management level incapacity of the Chairperson who shall act as chairperson
D. All of the above of the commission?
70. The organizational structure of the PNP is A. In case of Temporary incapacity the Vice Chairperson
. A. Line C. Staff shall act as chairperson until the chairperson regains
B. Functional D. Line and staff capacity to serve.
• LINE – oldest and simplest kind; few B. In case of Permanent Incapacity the Acting Chairperson
departments shall act as such until a new chairperson be appointed by
• FUNCTIONAL – according to functions of the the president and qualified.
organization C. The Vice Chairperson automatically becomes the
71. The secretary of the DILG is being assisted by two chairperson.
undersecretaries: D. A and B
A. One for operation and one for administrative 78. How vacancy is filled up in the commission, except
B. One for local government and one for peace and order through expirations of term?
C. One for peace and order and one for operation A. It shall be filled up for the unexpired term only with the
D. One for operation and one for Supervision capacity for regular appointment for another full term.
72. What is the relationship of Department of the Interior B. It shall be filled up for the unexpired term only without
and Local Government (DILG) with Department of reappointment.
National Defense (DND)? C. It shall be filled up by another person with full term
A. The DILG was relieved of the primary responsibility on D. None of these.
matters involving the suppression of insurgency • All vacancies in the Commission, except through
B. The PNP through information gathering and expiration of term, shall be filled up for the
performance of its ordinary police functions, support the unexpired term only
Armed Forces of the Philippines on matters involving
suppression of insurgency

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• Any person who shall be appointed in this case 86. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in
shall be eligible for regular appointment for the PNP?
another full term. A. 1 C. 3
79. What is that provision of the constitution mandating B. 2 D. 4
the creation of the PNP? DEPUTY DIRECTOR GENERAL RANKS
A. Article VI, Section 16 C. Article XVI, Section 6 • DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)
B. Article XVI, Section 16 D. Article XIV, Section 6 • DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
80. Director General Nicanor Mallari was appointed as • Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in
Chief of the PNP on November 21, 2015 and retired on Command)
February 21,2016. After six months from his retirement, 87. The head of the National Capital Regional Police
the President decided to appoint him as secretary of the Office shall assume the position of NCR director with the
DILG. Is the appointment valid? rank of- A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
A. Yes, because he is the former Chief, PNP B. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
B. No, because his appointment is within one year from NOTE:
his retirement • Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
C. Yes, because there is already a lapse of six months ▪ Superintendent
from • Provincial Director -with the rank of Senior
his retirement ▪ Superintendent
D. No, because the appointment of secretary of DILG • NCR District Director -with the rank of Chief
needs ▪ Superintendent
the concurrence of congress • Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief Inspector
• “No retired or resigned military officer or police 88. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
official may be appointed as Secretary within A. 1:000 C. 1:2
one (1) year from the date of his retirement or B. 1:500 D. 1:7
resignation.” • 1:500 – nationwide average
81. The first head of the Metropolitan police force that 89. Police Community Relations is designed to:
earned the title as “the Father of Modern Policing System”. A. bring citizen’ support to criminal justice to remove
A. Edgar Hoover C. Allan Pinkerton apathy, and cause total community involvement
B. August Vollmer D. Sir Robert Peel B. encourage police officers to project a better image
82. No officer who has retired or is retirable within_____ C. promote a set of examples to citizens
from his compulsory retirement age be appointed as chief D. none of the above
of the PNP. 90. In times of war or other national emergency declared
A. Three months C. Six months by the Congress, the president may extend such term of
B. One year D. Two years office of the Chief PNP, from __________ depending
83. Insp. Juris Lea has a strong leadership qualities, on the gravity of the situation.
because of this, she was appointed as a regular A. Six months to one year C. One to six months
commissioner of the NAPOLCOM. Is the appointment B. One year to two years D. Five months to one year
valid? 91. Alden is a Full pledge colonel of the Armed Forces of
A. Yes, because of her leadership qualities the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in the PNP?
B. No, the commissioner of the NAPOLCOM should be A. C/Supt C. Senior Superintendent
civilian B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
C. No, because she is an active member of the PNP 92. The following are the upgraded general qualifications
D. Yes, provided after appointment, she must resign in the for appointment in the Philippine National Police.
PNP a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
84. It is the premier educational institution for the training, b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty
human resource development and continuing education of five (35) years of age;
all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP. c. Applicant must be a person of good moral character;
A. PPSC C. RTS d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged
B. PNPA D. NPC from military services or civilian position in the
• PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD government; and
1184, premier educational institution for future e. Applicant must be eligible.
officers of the tri- A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
bureaus. B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
85. The following are the three broad goals of the police 93. The Philippine National Police will recruit 1000 new
organization, EXCEPT: policemen on November 2016 to fill up its quota. Who
A. To protect lives and properties among the following applicants is qualified to apply?
B. To insure public safety A. A who was born on April 24, 1985
C. To maintain peace and order B. B who was born on August 10, 1995
D. To arrest suspected criminal C. C who was born on November 22, 1983
D. D who was born on March 17, 1996

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• For a new applicant, must not be less than • SENIOR INSPECTOR RANK: Chaplains,
twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30) members of the bar and doctors of medicine
years of age 98. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed
94. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be members is required for permanency of their appointment.
waived in the following order: Who among the following is exempted to undergo the
A. age, height, weight C. height, weight & age Field Training Program and issued a permanent
B. age, weight, height D. in any order appointment?
Applicants who possess the least disqualification A. Father Luciano, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via
shall take precedence over those who possess Lateral entry.
more disqualification; B. Atty. Kram who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral
The requirement shall be waived in the following entry.
order: Age, Height, Weight (AHW) C. Marky, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector
APPOINTMENT UNDER A WAIVER PROGRAM after graduation.
(NAPOLCOM MC No. 2013-004) D. Aljoe, a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the
• AGE WAIVER = not be less than twenty (20) Examination.
nor more than thirty five (35) years of age. 99. The waiver program for initial appointment in the PNP
• HEIGHT WAIVER = applicants who belong to will apply only when
indigenous group duly certified by the A. the number of qualified applicant is above the
National Commission on minimum
• Muslim Filipinos (NCMF), or the National annual quota
Commission on lnrligenous Peoples (NCIP) B. the number of qualified applicant is below the
• WEIGHT WAIVER shall be given reasonable minimum annual quota
time not exceeding six (6) months within which C. the number of qualified applicant is below the
to comply with the said requirement. maximum
95. Joseph Buenavidez is under the weight waiver annual quota
program of the PNP, but she was not able to comply with D. none of the above
the weight requirements is subjected for___________. 100. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the
A. Dismissal C. Consideration primary consideration in the____________.
B. Re – Application D. Promotion A. two-party system C. promotional system
95A. If Joseph Buenavidez will re - apply in the PNP, can B. evaluation system D. security survey
she apply again? 101. A new PNP applicant shall undergo a Basic
A. Yes, provided she now have the minimum requirements Recruit training or known as PSBRC. What does PSBRC
B. No, due to non – compliance of the requirements stands for?
C. Yes, because women are given equal treatment in PNP A. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
D. No, she is not anymore allowed to apply for any B. Police Safety Basic Recruit Course
position C. Public Safety Basic Recruitment Course
96. What kind of appointment when the applicant is under D. Police Single Bully Recruit Course
the waiver program due to weight requirements pending 102. A type of promotion granted to police officers meeting
satisfaction of the requirement waived. the mandatory requirements for promotion:
A. Permanent C. Probationary A. Special Promotion C. Regular promotion
B. Temporary D. Special B. Promotion by virtue of position D. Meritorious
• PERMANENT – when an applicant possesses Promotion
the upgraded general qualifications for • SPECIAL PROMOTION – promotion granted
appointment in the PNP to police officers who have exhibited acts of
• TEMPORARY - Pursuant to NAPOLCOM conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of
Memorandum his/her life above and beyond the call of duty.
• Circular No. 2007-009, a newly recruited PO1 • Conspicuous courage is a courage that
shall be appointed in temporary status in twelve is clearly distinguished above others in the
(12) months pending compliance with the Field performance of one’s duty.
Training Program (FTP) involving actual • PROMOTION BY VIRTUE OF POSITION -
experience and assignment in Traffic, Any PNP personnel designated to any key
Investigation, Patrol. position whose rank is lower than that which is
97. Lorenzo Buenavidez is a Doctor of Philosophy; he required for such position shall, after six (6)
decided to join the Philippine National Police. What would months of occupying the same, be entitled to
be his initial rank upon entry? a rank adjustment corresponding to the
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector position.
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE • Provided, that the personnel shall not be
• INSPECTOR RANK: Dentists, optometrists, reassigned to a position calling for a higher rank
nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic until after two (2) years from the date of such
sciences, graduates of the PNPA and licensed rank adjustment.
criminologists

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103. C/Supt. Leandro Colmenares is set to be promoted determination of probable cause, he or she shall be
as considered for promotion.
Director, if he was promoted who has the Promoting Provided, furthermore, That if the complaint filed
authority? against the police officer is for a crime including, but not
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for the national limited to, a violation of human rights, punishable by
headquarters personnel attested by the Civil Service reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment, and the court has
Commission. determined that the evidence of guilt is strong, said police
B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors and officer shall be completely ineligible for promotion during
attested by the Civil Service Commission. the pendency of the said criminal case.”
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, NOTE: In the event he or she is held GUILTY OF THE
endorsed by the Civil Service and subject to confirmation CRIME BY FINAL JUDGMENT, said PROMOTION
by the Commission of Appointment. SHALL BE RECALLED without prejudice to the
D. President from among the senior officers down to the imposition of the appropriate penalties under applicable
rank of Chief Superintendent, subject to the confirmation laws, rules and regulations:
of the Commission on Appointment. 107. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
104. Supt. Calvin Reyes is set to be promoted, what is the provided by law.
appropriate Training Course needed for him to be A. Attrition C. Specialization
promoted to Senior Superintendent? B. Promotion D. Retirement
A. Officers Senior Executive Course 108. An attrition system whereby a uniformed personnel
B. Officers Basic Course who has been relieved for just cause and has not been
C. Officers Advance Course given an assignment within two (2) years after such
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety relief, is being retired or separated from the service:
NOTE: A. Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position
Master’s Degree -CSUPT and above B. Attrition by Relief
OSEC – Supt to Sr. Supt C. Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank
OAC – Chief Insp. D. Attrition by Non-promotion
OBC– Sr. Insp. • ATTRITION BY DEMOTION IN POSITION OR
OCC – SPOIV RANK - an officer demoted and not assigned to a
SLC – SPOIII to SPOIV position commensurate to his or her grade within
JLC– POIII to SPOI eighteen (18) months after such demotion shall
105. Who shall administer the entrance and promotional be retired or separated.
examinations for police officers on the basis of the • ATTRITION BY NON-PROMOTION - non-
standards set by the Commission as amended by RA promotion for a continuous period of ten (10)
8551? years shall be retired or separated.
A. PLEB C. CSC 109. How many successive annual rating periods before a
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
• Police Entrance Examination – taken by performance?
applicants of the PNP A. 2 C. 4
• Police Promotional Examinations – taken by B.3 D. 1
in-service police officers as part of the mandatory 110. Batman was appointed as Regional Director of
requirements for promotion Region III on April 18, 2016 due to his dedication and hard
o POLICE OFFICER EXAMINATION work in the PNP. Under the PNP attrition system he will
o SENIOR POLICE OFFICER serve as RD based on his maximum tenure
EXAMINATION until____________.
o INSPECTOR EXAMINATION A. April 2020 C. April 2022
o SUPERINTENDENT EXAMINATION B. April 2025 D. April 2019
106. The institution of a criminal action or complaint Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure
against a police officer shall be___________. Those who have reached the prescribed maximum tenure
A. A ground for dismissal C. Not qualified for corresponding to their position shall be retired from the
promotion service
B. Automatically Dismiss D. Not a bar to promotion Chief 4 years
NOTE; Deputy Chief 4 years
Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the Director of Staff Services 4 years
institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police Regional Directors 6 years
officer shall not be a bar to promotion Provincial/District Directors 9 years
Provided, however, That upon finding of probable 111. Alakdan joined the PNP in 2009. He was 28 years old
cause, notwithstanding any challenge that may be raised then. What year can Alakdan can retire if he wants to avail
against that finding thereafter, the concerned police officer the mandatory retirement?
shall be ineligible for promotion A. 2027 C. 2037
Provided, further, That if the case remains B. 2039 D. 2029
unresolved after two (2) years from the aforementioned

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112. SPO2 Renato Hupolito, joined the Philippine National III. One of the authorities vested to MAYOR is the power
Police on July 5, 2002. Nevertheless, he want to pursue to choose Chief of Police, How many eligible will have the
his career as embalmer, he decided to file an optional mayor to select with?
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying A. Five (5) eligible C. Three (3) eligible
PNP which he served with extreme commitment and B. Twelve (12) eligible D. Unlimited
loyalty. When does Berto can retire? IV. Who will recommend to the mayor those eligible that
A. June 5, 2022 C. July 5, 2058 he will choose as COP?
B. July 5, 2021 D. August 10, 2023 A. PNP Provincial Director C. NAPOLCOM
TYPES OF RETIREMENT IN THE PNP B. Chief, PNP D. PNP Regional
Compulsory retirement – separation from the PNP upon Director
reaching the age of fifty-six (56), the compulsory age of V. Under our Existing policy, how many days are given to
retirement. the mayor to choose the Chief of Police from receipt of the
Optional Retirement - separation from the PNP upon referral?
accumulation of at least twenty (20) years of satisfactory A. Within Fifteen (15) days C. Within Five (5) days
active service. B. Within Three (3) days D. Within Ten (10)
113. If the annual quota for 2016 is 3000. How many of days
the annual quota is allocated for women? VI. If the mayor fails to choose COP within a prescribed
A. 10% C. 300 period of time, he can recommend the designation of
B. 600 D. 2000 a qualified Officer-in-Charge for a period of .
• The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT A. Not to exceed thirty (30) days
(10%) of its annual recruitment, training B. Within Fifteen (15) days
and education quota for women C. Not to exceed Sixty (60) days
114. Which of the following is the role of strategic D. Not to exceed Fifteen (15) days
planning? VII. One of the authorities of mayor is to recommend
A. manner of operation C. diagnose environmental the transfer, reassignment or detail of PNP
threats members, the recommendation of the Mayor on
B. develop tactical plan D. strategic response to change personnel movement shall be based on the following
115. The Chief of Police was formally informed of his grounds.
subordinates’ improper or unlawful act but tolerated it and I. The PNP member is a long time enemy of the mayor;
he failed to do something to prevent the occurrence of the II. To ensure all PNP members under his jurisdiction are
same. The COP can be held liable under the doctrine of: well experienced and good looking;
A. Command Responsibility B. Gross Negligence III. The PNP member is found to be ineffective in the
C. Gross Insubordination D. Public Accountability discharge of his/her duties;
116. All uniformed members of the PNP shall undergo a IV. To protect the image or good name of the city or
field training program involving actual experience and municipality;
assignment in ______________ as a requirement for V. To prevent harm to the person of the police
permanency of their appointment. officer concerned; and
A. PCR, Traffic, Patrol VI. To preclude harassment by the PNP members to
B. Administrative, Intelligence, Investigation the members of the community.
C. Traffic, Investigation, Patrol A. I, III, IV, V, and VI C. II, III, IV, V, and VI
D. Traffic, Intelligence, Patrol B. III, IV, and V D. III, IV, V, and VI
116A. Field Training Program shall last for a period of VIII. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation
months. of local chief executives as representative of the
A. 1 year C. 12 months NAPOLCOM:
B. 6 months D. 18 months I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
117. FACTS: Under RA 6975 as amended by RA II. Abuse of authority;
8551 Municipal or City mayor upon elected they are III. Habitual tardiness;
considered as deputized representative of NAPOLCOM. IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
I. Mayor as deputized representative of NAPOLCOM they V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
have power over PNP units under their Jurisdiction. A. I, II, III, V C. I, II, V, IV,
A. Policy and Program Coordination B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, V
B. Administrative Supervision and Operational Control 119. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of
C. Implementing Arm the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
D. Operational Supervision and Control properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace
II. Which among of the following is not included in the and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
power vested to Mayor over PNP members? bringing the offenders to justice
A. To direct C. To Superintend A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. To oversee D. To promote B. Reintegration D. Employment
DEPLOYMENT- shall mean the orderly and organized
physical movement of elements or units of the PNP within
the province, city or municipality for purposes of
employment

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120.Insp. Diana Alegario was born on June 12, 1986, she B. Superior officer is held responsible for the acts of
finished a Bachelor’s degree in Tourism, and she opted to his subordinates
join the PNP on June 12, 2006. Insp. Diana Alegario C. Subordinates reporting directly to one supervisor
meet the upgraded general qualification in age D. Conferring of certain duties to subordinates
requirement as stipulated in RA 8551? 128. All except one is a basic police activity
A. Yes, the law provides A. Apprehension of criminals
B. It depends on the amount of money she will give B. Crime prevention
as entrance fee C. Prosecution of Criminals
C. No, as stipulated in our law D. recovery of stolen property
D. No, she needs a backer like a Congressman, Mayor or 129. When supervisor delegates responsibility to
even the president subordinate-
121. Sr. Superintendent Homer “Alakdan” Adlawan, join A. he shall set clear limits
the PNP via lateral entry on May 30, 1992 due to diligent B. He rids himself of the responsibility
service, loyalty, and professionalism the President of the C. he takes no risks
Republic of the Philippines, set to promote Almond as the D. he should do well to make sure that subordinates
Next Chief of the Philippine National Police on November shares the responsibility
29, 2014. In relation to RA 8551 as amended, Is the 130. In strikes, the police and military line should be at
promotion valid? least
A. Yes, he is qualified as RA 8551 as amended _meters away from the picket line
B. Yes, the President of the Philippines is the one who A. 100 C. 40
promote him B. 30 D. 50
C. No, as per RA 8551, no officer is to be promoted within 131. A good plan is a good image builder; this
1 year from retirement statement belongs to what importance of planning.
D. No, he is not qualified as RA 8551 A. Doing more with less
122. In planning the raid it is imperative that the necessary B. We must pro-act, not just react
element of surprise, the operation must be performed C. Reflects your competence
surreptitiously and with a speed. The success of a raid D. Help make your people more productive.
depends upon____________. 132. Delegation of responsibility to subordinates:
A. The composition of the raiding party as planned A. Cannot be undertaken unless the supervisor is sure
B. Size of raiding party as planned his men can do the work
C. Superiority of arms so planned B. Seldom proves his men to be an effective
D. Intelligent planning and competent implementation motivating factor
123. In planning juvenile delinquency control programs, C. Does not put the subordinate on his own
the police planner knows that the police help most in D. Will not succeed unless the subordinate have
____________. self confidence in the capabilities
A. Preventing Juvenile crimes and arresting a costing 133. Which among the following is qualified as per
juvenile offender the educational requirement in PNP?
B. Correcting conditions that can induce juvenile A. W, a graduate of Associate in Criminology
criminality B. Y, a holder of BS Accountancy
C. Rehabilitating the juvenile delinquent arrested C. X, a holder of Driver’s License
D. All of the above D. Z, holder of 72 units in BS Education
124. Presume your police station will be run over by the 134. It is defined as the determination in advance of how
enemy, which among the following items you will destroy the objectives of the organization will be attained.
first as it will be of value for the enemies’ intelligence. A. planning C. Plan
A. Radio C. Grenades B. police planning D. Development
B. Cache of bullet D. Troop Deployment • PLAN - It is an organize schedule or
125. In the distribution of the investigative workloads, the sequence by methodical activities
supervisor should thoroughly consider the specific skills of intended to attain a goal and objectives
his men to a particular criminal work for obvious reasons. for the accomplishment of mission or
A. Wholly True C. Maybe assignment.
B. It depends D. False • POLICE PLANNING - it is an attempt
126. What particular law mandated the creation of the by police administration to allocate
Philippine national police? anticipated resources to meet
A. Local Government code anticipated service demands.
B. The Philippine National police reform and 135. Director General Cardo Dalisay is the incumbent
reorganization act of 1990 Chief of the PNP. Upon reaching the mandatory age of
C. Police Professionalization act of 1998 retirement which is 56, his tenure was extended by the
D. The department of the interior and local government President of the Philippines for another year. Is such
act of 1990 extension valid?
127. Command responsibility generally means- A. Yes, because the Chief PNP serves upon the pleasure
A. Number of subordinates that can a superior of the President.
effectively supervise

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B. Yes, because the Chief PNP is appointed by the 143. In the scalar chain of authority of the line and staff
President. organization, it is actually known as the backbone?
C. No, because there are other officers capable to be A. personnel C. officers
Chief B. subordinate D. line
PNP. 144. Coordination of effort in this type of organization
D. No, because there is no state of war or national becomes difficult since the employees accountable for
emergencies. results may be subject to the functional direction of
136. SPOI Dominador “Ador” B. de Leon acquired his many persons. The statement is referring to what type of
American Citizenship upon the petition of his illegitimate organizational structure?
father who is an American. What is the implication of this? A. Line organization C. functional organization
A. SPOI Dominador “Ador” B. de Leon can continue his B. Staff organization D. Line and staff
police career as long as 145. Manolo “Nolo” Catindig was put into jeopardy for a
he maintain his residence in the Philippines certain crime and was not given a due process of law
B. SPOI Dominador “Ador” B. de Leon should be instead, he was processed through the use of a boiling
dismissed from the service because he failed to maintain water to ascertain his guilt. If you are Manolo “Nolo”
his qualification is a police under the law Catindig, what do you call that kind of system?
C. SPOI Dominador “Ador” B. de Leon can have dual A. forum shop C. Injustice
citizenship considering that the qualification under the law B. trial by ordeal D. regular trial
is applicable only to those police applicants and not those 146. Which of the following statements is not true about
already in the service the Organization?
D. SPOI Dominador “Ador” B. de Leon should apply as A. Command officers had complete power over
police officer in America subordinates
137. Your fire station received a call that a certain B. Predominated by with its hierarchy of
establishment is burning. Considering the huge facility and authoritative management
merchandise of said establishment, there is a need to: C. communication flowed upward
A. study the problem in advance and formulate methods of D. all of these
attack 147. A police rank of Superintendent who is one of the
B. wait for further information about progress of incident heads in the directorial staffs is represented by the
C. proceed to the area and start putting off the fire insignia;
D. organize a committee to direct firefighting A. 1 sun C. 3 suns
138. Organizational divisions require their own strategies B. 2 suns D. 1 star
but these strategies must complement one another and 148. A leader that takes a hands-off passive
support the department’s strategies. approach in dealing with the subordinates.
A. Strategic Focus C. Strategic Framework A. autocratic C. democratic
B. Congruence D. Vision B. free-rein D. charismatic
139. Mr. X is applying for appointment as a police officer. 149. In a certain Police Provincial Office, Public
He was born on 1956. Is he qualified for appointment? Safety Company there were about 500 hundreds of police
A. He will be in temporary in status C. Yes officers for entire province and it is only supervised by
B. He can avail of an age waiver D. No the Provincial Director Police Senior Superintendent
140. The NAPOLCOM recommend to the President, Joaquin S. Tuazon. What principle did the PD employed in
through the Secretary of DILG, within sixty (60) days handling this group?
before the commencement of each calendar year a/an_ A. Command responsibility C. Span of control
__________________. B. Unity of command D. Delegation of authority
A. Annual Program of PNP C. Budget for the fiscal year 150. PINSP Montano and his team was in tract with a
B. crime prevention program D. Quota Allocation predetermined of course of action as order given to them.
141. The following are professions germane to law PINSP Montano and his team was following the:
enforcement and police functions are no longer required to A. Police Operational plan C. Plan
take promotional examinations. C. Intelligence D. Police planning
A. PNPA graduate; LEA2: INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
B. Member of the bar; 1. “To quit my post when properly relieved” is GO
C. Registered Criminologist; and number?
D. Doctor of Medicine. A.5 C. 7
A. A and B C. B and C B. 6 D. 8
B. B and D D. A, B, C, and D • GO 6 - To receive, obey, pass on to the relieving
142. P/Sr. Emilio Syquia is a Police officer which has guard all orders from company officers or
Integrity and hard work in service. Emilio want to utilize the officials, supervisor, post- in-charge or shift
optional retirement of the PNP in order to enjoy the leaders;
benefits at his prime age. Which among the following is to • GO 7 - To talk to no one except in the line of
be utilized in order to determine if Don Emilio is eligible for duty;
Optional Retirement? • GO 8 - To sound or call the alarm in case of
A. Time – in – Grade C. Tenure fire or disorder
B. Length of Service D. Active Service

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2. Today there are three categories of security 10. Private security agencies as a corporation have to be
guards registered with the:
belonging, to the “blue army” as referred to by the former A. SEC C. DTI
President Fidel V. Ramos, one of those listed below does B. PADPAO D. PNP, SOSIA
not belong to the group. • Trade name of the Security Agencies must be
A. Agency Guards C. Company guards registered at the Department of Trade and
B. Bodyguards D. Government security Industry
guards 11. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain
3. In Security Industry, Strictly Speaking BLUE GUARD facility
refers to what must be constructed.
A. Private Security Guard C. Government Security A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Company Guard D. None B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
4. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not • Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of provides visual access through the fence.
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper 12. Electrical, What class of fire?
authority, but shall not A. Class A C. Class C B. Class B
exceed . D. Class D
A. 10% of the total number of firearms 13. If Paco Alvarado wants to become a SG, how many
B. 10% of the total number of deployed security guards hours of training is needed to acquire his license as SG?
C. 10% of the total number of security guards A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
D. 10% of the total low powered firearms B. 72 Hours D. 300 Hours
5. The vault door should be made of steel at least Classification and Duration Period of training
in thickness? • Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches Training Course)- 150 Hours
B. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more • Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
Specifications of Vault • Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours
Doors should be 6 inches thick made of steel • Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick • Security Supervisor Development Course
Floor should be elevated by 4 inches
• Other Specialized Training Course
Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size
14. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff: A.
Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to 6 hours
Detachment Commander C. Chief Inspector
6. Which of the statement is false?
B. Post-in-Charge D. Security Supervisor 1
A. The security officer may coordinate with the station for
LINE LEADERSHIP STAFF
training on fire control and fire train his security personnel
• Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
B. The security officer may request the local train his
Commander- the field or area commander of the
security personnel
agency.
C. The security officer is concerned with training personnel
of local fire station • Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector-
D. The security officer is concerned with coordinating with responsible for
the local fire station • inspecting the entire area coverage by the
7. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, detachment.
integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to • Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible
determines person suitability for appointment or access to for the area assigned by the chief inspector or the
classified matter. detachment commander.
A. Local Agency check 15. What type of barrier does fences and walls belong?
B. Background Investigation A. Structural Barrier C. Natural Barrier
C. National Agency Check B. Human Barrier D. Energy Barrier
D. Personnel Security Investigation 16. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double
8. The importance of the firm or installation with reference strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an
to the national economy security. equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program high excluding the top guard.
B. Relative criticality D. Relative security A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
• RELATIVE VULNERABILITY – is the B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
susceptibility of the plant or establishment to Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
damage, loss or disruption of operation due to Specifications
various hazards. Standard barbed wire is twisted double strand, 12
9. Security of TOP ranking Public officials. gauge wires, with 4 point barb spaced on equal distant
A. VIP Security C. Personnel Security part.
B. Human Security D. None Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 7
feet high, excluding the top guard.
Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to post
notmore than 6 feet apart.

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The distance between strands will not exceed 6 26. These are wide beam units, used to extend the
inches and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
midway between posts. approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow,
17. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
issued to security guards. A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights
A. Any of these C. Secretary, DILG B. Street Lights D. Search lights
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM D. C/PNP • FLOODLIGHTS - projects light in a concentrated
18. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and beam. Best used in boundaries, building or
windows? fences. Otherwise known as reflectorized or
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection spotlight.
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection • SEARCHLIGHTS - highly focused incandescent
19. In the uniform of Security Guard, the name of the SG lamps used in pinpointing potential intruders.
is put in the right side of the chest, on the left side of the • STREET LIGHTS - produced diffused light rather
chest is than direction beam.
A. PADPAO Logo C. SAGSD Logo 27. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a
B. Agency name D. Agency Logo private security guard under normal condition:
20. Is the process of conducting physical examination to I. Cal .50; II. Cal .45;
determine compliance with establishment security policies III. Cal .38; IV. Cal.22; and
and procedures? V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V
• SECURITY PLANNING- Is a corporate and 28. What is the required capital investment for
executive responsibility. It involves knowing the organization of private security agency?
objectives of the security and the means and the A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
method to reach those objectives or goal must B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000
then evolve. NOTE:New applicants to operate shall be required to
• SECURITY SURVEY- Is the process of obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE MILLION (P1,
conducting an exhaustive physical examination 000,000.00) pesos with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE
and thorough inspection of all operation system HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00) pesos in order to
and procedures of a facility start its business operations.
21. What is the last phase of Security Education? 29. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes
A. Initial Interview C. Conference away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
B. Dissemination D. Debriefing gain?
22. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
designed to prevent entry into a building, room container, B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer
or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items • CASUAL PILFERER – one who steals due to his
without the consent of the owner inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated has little fear of
B. Locks D. Combination Locks detection.
23. A type of protective alarm system where the protective 30. Anton Ledesma is the security officer of the bodega.
alarm located outside the installation. General Manager wants him to implement a security
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System program for the industry’s protection. What shall Anton
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary do?
• LOCAL ALARM BY CHANCE SYSTEM - This is A. Survey the management
a local alarm in which a siren or bell is sounded B. Ask the management what it wants for security
with no predicable Response. C. Conduct a security survey of the establishment
• AUXILIARY SYSTEM - In this system installation D. Copy the security system of the neighbor
circuits are led into local police or fire department establishment
by lease telephone line 31. Chain link fences must be constructed in________
• PROPRIETARY SYSTEM - located inside the material excluding the top guard?
facility A. Seven feet C. Four feet
24. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to B. Six feet D. Ninefeet
enter specific areas issued to an employees who keeps it Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)
in the possession until his authorization is change or until Specifications
he terminates. Must be constructed in 7 feet material excluding the top
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system guard
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
25. Before Mr. Pedro Penduca, A newly hired security Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 inches
consultant of ABC enterprises, Can recommend a
comprehensive security program he should conduct a___?
A. Risk assessment C. Security Audit
B. Security Survey D. Security Conference

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32. The following things are used as barrier, which serves Surety Bond
as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial • Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
Complex, EXCEPT: • Agency with 200-499 guards – P100,000.00
A. Human C. Doors • Agency with 500-799 guards – P150,000.00
B. Fences D. NONE • Agency with 800-1000 guards – P200,000.00
33. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit This bond shall answer for any valid and legal
boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party.
utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated Locks 41. In industrial Security CBI stands for:
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks A. Certified Background Investigation
CARD-OPERATED LOCKS - Coded card notched, B. Complete Background Investigator
embossed or containing an embedded pattern of copper C. Certified Background Investigator
flocks. D. Complete background Investigation
DISC TUMBLER LOCKS - Also known as wafer tumbler • PARTIAL BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION -
type, has flat metal tumblers with open center fitted into investigation of the background of the individual
lock case, commonly used for Automobile Industry which but limited only to some of the circumstances of
affords delay up to 7 to 10 minutes. his personal life.
34. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess 42. The exposure and the teaching of employees on
by a PSA should not exceed by _____ units. security and its relevance to their work is:
A. 30 C. 500 A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. 70 D. 1000 B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey
USE OF FIREARMS 43. It is under physical security which provides sufficient
• Number of firearms shall not exceed one (1) for illumination to areas during hours of darkness.
every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2) A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
• For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100) B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting
guards, an initial of at least 30 licensed firearms. • STANDBY LIGHTING- This system is similar to
• For regular licensed two hundred guards (200), at continuous lighting but it is turn on manually or by
least 70 pieces of licensed firearms. special device or other automatic means.
35. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- • MOVEABLE LIGHTING- This consist of
green color? stationary or portable, manually operated
A. Sodium vapor lamp C. Mercury vapor lamp searchlights. it is just a
B. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp D. Quartz lamp • supplementary to other protective or security
• SODIUM VAPOR LAMP- emits Yellow Light. Lighting.
• QUARTS LAMP- emits very bright white light • EMERGENCY LIGHTING- This standby lighting
36. What type of security deals with the industrial plants may be utilized in the event of electric failure,
and business enterprises where personnel, processes, either due to local equipment or commercial
properties and operations are safeguarded? failure.
A. Personal security C. Operational security • STATIONARY LUMINARY- This is a common
B. industrial security D. bank security type consisting of series of fixed luminous flood a
37. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible given area continuously with overlap
authority that the person described is cleared to access 44. In order to be qualified as a Security Consultant, you
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim must have _________ year/s experience in the operation
clearance will remain valid for a period of from the and management of security business.
date of issuance. A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
A. 1 year C. 4 years B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years 45. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed
• FINAL CLEARANCE- Effectivity Five Years firearm is needed after operating for six months.
38. The term used in England for lock pickers, A. 1:7 C. 1:2
safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas or room. B. 1:500 D. 1:1 + 1
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers 46. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or
B. Thug D. Peterpan concertina. Chain link is for__________.
39. The tenure of a security guard is: A. Six Months A. Solid structure C. Least permanent structure
B. Co-terminus with the service contract B. Permanent structure D. Semi- permanent structure
C. Two years NOTE:
D. Contractual • Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
40. Every registered PSA is mandatory to give surety bond • Concertina Wire Fences (Least Permanent)
which shall answer for any valid and legal claims against 47. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC &
such agency filed by the aggrieved party. How much is the LAC since it includes thorough and complete investigation
Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards. of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000 person’s life is conducted?
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000 A. Personnel Security Investigation
B. Background Investigation

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C. Partial Background Investigation 58. A new Private security agency that has been issued a
D. Complete Background Investigation temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
48. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a A. One C. Two
perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area B. Three D. Four
to afford better observation of the installation refers to: • PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular license
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone to operate good for two (2) years
B. Open zone D. Free zone 59. The removal of the security classification from the
49. The extension period for a license to operate issued classified matter.
upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of A. Segregation C. Declassify
guards is: B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
A. 1 month C. 6 months 60. The following are exempted from Pre-licensing
B. 2 years D. 1 year training.
50. Which among the following aspects of Security is the 1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
weakest of them all? 2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in
A. Physical security Criminology;
B. Personnel security 3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or any PNP
C. Personal Security training school;
D. Document and information security 4. Veterans and retired military/police personnel; and
51. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of 5. Honorably discharged military/police personnel.
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
installation. B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier 61. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager
B. Barrier D. Energy Barrier or Operator of a security agency is:
52. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
on a full time basis. 62. The concern of security guards regarding the directive
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower given by most companies to its security personnel is
B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations A. To impose disciplinary action to company employees
• Tower/Guard Tower – house-like structures who violate regulations
above the perimeter barriers. It gives a B. To report all known violations to their supervisors
psychological effect to violators. C. To ignore and impose rules of their own
53. What will you do if you are the private security guard D. To make recommendations for better security control
and your establishment is faced with strikes? 63. What is the maximum number of unit High Powered
A. Avoid Contact C. Direct Contact Firearms that a Private Security Agency can procure?
B. Assist Management in Smuggling D. none A. 10% of the total number of Security Guards
54. An additional overhead of barbed wire placed on B. 30 units of Firearms
vertical perimeter fences fencing upwards and outward C. 70 units of Firearms
with a 45* angle with three to four strands of barbed wires D. 100 units of Firearms
spread 6” apart. 64. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
A. Top guard C. Fence Top A. picklock or similar tool .
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these B. A duplicate key of the owner.
55. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
or local mayor to have police authority within their D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
assigned area of responsibility? 65. Who have the authority to deputize security guard in
A. When there is an employee’s strike times of emergency.
B. When the company is in retrenchment A. Mayor;
C. During times of emergency B. Governor;
D. When there is a crime committed inside the C. Chief, PNP; and
establishment D. President.
56. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction A. A, B, and D C. A and C
of this record does not have the same value as the B. A and B D. A, B, C, and D
original. 66. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
A. Vital Documents C. Important Documents A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
B. Useful Documents D. Non- Essential B. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs.
57. The First security agency in the Philippines. 67. The minimum number of guards required for a
A. Pinkerton Detective Agency Private Security Agency is_______and the maximum is
B. Jimenez Security Agency _________:
C. Special Watchman Agency A. 1000 and 30 C. 30 and 1000
D. Mallari Security Group B. 1000 and 200 D. 200 and 1000
• For CSFs – a minimum of thirty (30) and
maximum of one thousand (1,000).

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68. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby • CONTROLLED LIGHTING TYPE- The lighting is
keys focused on the pile of items, rather than the
can open a group of locks. background.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying 78. What is the system of natural or man- made
B. Change Key D. Grand Master Key barriers placed between the potential intruder and the
69. PADPAO stands for: object, person and matter being protected?
A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective A. Communication security C. Physical security
Agency Operators, Inc. B. Document security D. Barrier
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency 79. The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
Operators, Inc. EXCEPT:
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector A. To ascertain the present economic status
Agency B. To determine the protection needed
Operators, Inc. C. To make recommendations to improve the overall
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective security
Associations Operators, Inc. D. None of these
70. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a security 80. License to Operate(LTO) is a License
officer. Certificate document which is issued by ___________
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training authorizing a person to engage in employing a security
Course. B. Holder of Master’s Degree. guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish,
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. engage, direct, manage or operate a private detective
D. Physically or mentally fit. agency.
71. As a rule, facilities where visitors are to be escorted A. Secretary of DILG C. Chief, PNP
by: B. SEC D. President
A. Guard on duty C. Escort services assigned 81. Clear Zone of must be established between
B. The person being visited D. The supervisor of the unit the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected
72. What unit of PNP handles the processing and areas.
issuances of license for private security personnel? A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD • 20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier
73. What is the most common type of human hazard? and exterior structure. (Outside)
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage 82. Which among the following statements is FALSE?
B. Arson D. Subversion A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that intruders
74. What is the security force maintained and operated by can be seen, identified or apprehend.
any private company/ corporation for its own B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards to identify
security requirements? employees during night time.
A. GSU C. CSF C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which
B. PSA D. PD serves as a deterrent.
TYPES OF SECURITY GUARD D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of
• PRIVATE SECURITY- A security guard hired by stationary guards.
client belonging to private security agency. 83. Security cabinet are considered as the final line of
• GOVERNMENT SECURITY- A security guard defense in any establishment or installation. Vault is a
recruited and employed by the government .______________.
75. What type of controlled area requires highest degree A. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance
of security? container usually a part of the building structure.
A. Limited C. Restricted B. Use for small items and documents
B. Special D. Exclusive C. The biggest Security cabinet
• RESTRICTED AREA - It refers to an area in D. The least secured Security cabinet
which personnel or vehicles are controlled for 84. Mali is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what
reasons of security. shall he do with his Firearm?
• LIMITED AREA - It is a restricted area in which A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s
lesser degree of control is required than in an Vault.
exclusion area B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
• but which the security interest would be C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
compromised by uncontrolled movement. D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards
76. Concertina wire should be_____feet long and 3 feet table.
diameter. 85. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet unauthorized access.
77. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness? B. Physical Security D. Barrier
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection

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86. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to 94. As a security consultant, you have noticed that
operate, and with days after having been duly windows of a particular building have been constructed
notified of such cease operation order, shall immediately less than 18 feet from the ground and 14 feet away from
deposit all its firearms with the FEO. another building, what will be your recommendation to
A. 7 days C. 21 days reinforce said facility?
B. 3 days D. 30 days A. The windows must be reinforced with steel grills.
87. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in B. A fence of at least 18 feet must be constructed around
temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe the building
can withstand 2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or C. Screens should be installed to prevent petty thievery
opening then it has passed the test. D. A wall should be constructed around the building
A. Fire Endurance Test C. Burning Test 95. From the standpoint of security, when should lock be
B. Fire and Impact Test D. Explain Hazard Test changed?
TEST FOR FIRE RESISTANCE A. At least once a year C. At least twice a year
• Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not have B. At least twice a day D. Every three months
any one time a temperature 350 0F. 96. Physical security is a system of barriers place between
• Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to the potential intruder and object or matters to be
determine the strength of a safe to resist the protected. As a criminologist, this is simply a denial of:
collapse of a building during fire. A. opportunity to commit the offense
88. Services of any security personnel shall be terminated B. access to the object of protection
on the following grounds: C. opportunity and access to surface in the potential
1. Expiration of contract; offender
2. Revocation of license to exercise the profession; D. criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
3. Conviction of crime involving moral turpitude; 97. The use of firearms by Private Detective shall be:
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and A. required C mandatory
5. Physical and mental disability. B. discretionary D. optional
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 98. The following are the specifications of a safe:
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 a. At least 750 lbs if less than 750 lbs should be
89. For every security guard the basic load of their Firearm anchored to wall;
is- b. Constructed in 1 inch thick steel;
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds c. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches;
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited d. Door should be 1 1/2 thick steel; and
• 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm e. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick.
90. What principle of security states that, “One Security A. a, b, c, e C. a, b, d, e
system cannot stand alone”. B. a, b, d D. c, d, e
A. Safety C. Security 99. The following are principles of Physical Security,
B. Protection D. Defense is Depth EXCEPT:
91. The following are the advantages of Company Security A. There is no impenetrable Barrier
Force (CSF). B. Each installation is same as the other
A. High Caliber of Security Guard; C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier
B. Can easily obtain extra guard if needed; D. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry
C. More familiar with facilities they protect; 100. If utility openings such as air intakes sewers, and
D. Less administrative and personnel problems; and exhaust tunnels have a cross section of ninety-six inches
E. Provides better service. or more, as a security consultant what should be the
A. A, B, D, and E C. B, C, and E appropriate recommendation?
B. A, C, and E D. A, B, C, D, and E A. It should be protected by filters and bar grills
92. Among the visitors movement control, which of the B. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of
following is the most important? persons with petit physique
A. Visitor’s logbook C. Escort C. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
B. Visitors entrance D. Time traveled D. Sensors should be placed on it to detect movements
93. Which among the following statements is true 101. Which among the following is not an advantage of a
regarding electronic and electric protective devices? full- view fence, except:
A. Electronic/electric devices eliminate human guards. A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the
B. Each building or compound requires particular intruder in planning.
electronic/electrical protective devices. B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the
C. Types of alarms needed can be best given by the movements of persons in the installation.
dealers of said devices. C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of
D. Electronic/electrical devices provide total protection for the intruder.
the place to be safeguarded. D. None of these
102. What protective lighting has the advantage of
providing instant illumination?
A. Flashlight C. Fluorescent
B. Gaseous-Discharge D. Incandescent

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• GASEOUS-DISCHARGE LAMP- it is very 114. A private security Guard who is escorting a big
economical to use, long time of lighting. It amount of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction
requires 2 to 5 minutes to light. shall be issued with a
103. In order to determine whether a plan is understood by A. Security Manager of PSA C. Duty Detail Order
the personnel of a firm and to test its B. Mission Order D. All of these
effectiveness_______. 115. Company X is experiencing substantial loss because
A. A dry run is necessary of the involvement of its personnel in various industrial
B. A security seminar must be conducted problems such as disaffection, disloyalty, espionage and
C. An evaluation rating to the personnel must be done pilferage. It also appeared that they hired key officials not
D. Constant Security Survey and Inspection is a must suited to their positions. What aspect of security did
104. What should a security officer do if employees in a Company X went wrong?
firm raise objections to the security measures being A. Personal security C. Personnel security
enforced by the security officer? B. Personnel identification D. Lack of background
A. Request them to attend a security seminar investigation
B. Launch a Security Education Program 116. One of the elements of a comprehensive personnel
C. Initiate a Security Orientation program security program is called:
D. Let their objection to be included in Security Plan A. Physical security survey
105. The minimum educational qualification for a B. Background investigative standards
security guard shall be: C. Emergency Planning
A. Elementary graduate C. High school level D. Risk Analysis
B. College level D. None 117. Neil Patrick was hired and deployed as a security
106. As security Director of the Company B you should guard of Bank of Angeles. As a Private Security Guard to
know many beds, are normally available in a multiple whom he shall withdraw his salary?
injury situation and how many patients can be processed A. To the bank, he was deployed
at a single time. B. To the National Budget
A. Wounded C. Emergency C. To the Agency he was connected
B. Female D. Male D. Treasurer's office
107. The metallic container used for securing documents 118. Branch offices of Private Security Agency shall be
or small items in an office or installation refers to: established and maintained in other provinces and cities
A. Safe C. File room with a minimum of 10 security guards and maximum of:
B. Vault D. None of these A. 30 guards C. 20 guards
108. An act or condition, which results in a situation B. 25 guards D. 15 guards
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that, 119. The Following are the basic parts of Alarm System? I.
could result to loss. Annunciator;
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards II. Trigger Device;
B. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards III. Sensor; and
109. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers IV. Transmission Line.
may activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to A. I, II, and IV C. II, III, and IV
engage the activation bar B. I, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons 120. What is the education requirement for the
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button appointment of Security Officer as mandated by our law?
110. ____________ is the mechanical device strategically A. High School Graduate C. College Graduate
located in the street where a fire hose is connected so that B. Holder of Masters Degree D. Juris Doctor Holder
the water with pressure be available to extinguish fire. 121. All of these are procedures whenever a bomb threat
A. Fire Extinguisher C. Fire alarm is received by the guard EXCEPT:
B. Fire Dump D. Fire Hydrant A. Listen carefully C. Antagonize the caller
111. Type of security which requires the protection its B. do not interrupt the caller D. be calm and
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling mission courteous
disposal up to destruction? 122. Desiree owned an establishment located in Cebu
A. Personal Security C. Economic Security City. One of her proposals is to place fences on the entire
B. Document Security D. Physical Security area of her property especially in securing and avoiding
112. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods any unauthorized person to view the activity inside of her
or prevented from occurring to minimize the disastrous establishment. What type of fence did Desiree plan to
effects of these phenomena the security officer must have?
prepare a? A. Full-view fence C. Solid fence
A. Communication Plan C. Guard Deployment Plan B. Half type fence D. Wall
B. Disaster or Emergency Plan D. Civil Defense Plan
113. The following are the categories of the automatic LEA3: POLICE PATROL WITH COMMUNICATION
alarm system, EXCEPT: SYSTEM
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device 1. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation

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C. It is the single largest unit in the police department C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordnance
that can be eliminated Disposal Team.
D. It is the nucleus of the police department D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
E. It is the operational heart of the police department procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
2. Which of the following statements is true? 11. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas
A. Marine patrols are under the PNP Special Action Force projects thus, an effective crime prevention strategy.
B. The number of patrols officers is dictated by the mayor A. Police discretion C. Police omnipresence
who is the deputy of the National Police Commission B. Police authority D. Police Effectiveness
C. A horse patrol is needed in big cities like Quezon City 12. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
D. A maritime patrol is necessary in a region with island in order to catch criminals is known as:
provinces A. High visibility patrol C. Target Oriented patrol
3. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned B. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
for duty: • LOW VISIBILITY – Increase in apprehension.
A. Post C. Beat Crime Suppression/Repression
B. Area D. Route • HIGH VISIBILITY – Marked police Car and
• ROUTE - the length of street or streets, Police in Uniform. Primary objective is Crime
designated for patrol purposes also referred to Prevention.
as line beat. • TARGET ORIENTED PATROL - It is patrol
• BEAT - an area designed for patrol purposes, strategy which is directed towards specific
whether foot or motorized. persons or places.
• SECTOR - an area containing two or more beats, 13. Barangay Tanod is included in what component of
routes or posts. Integrated Patrol System?
• DISTRICT - a geographical subdivision of a city A. Fixed Component C. Auxiliary Component
for patrol purposes, usually with its own station. B. Secondary Component D. Patrol Component
• AREA - A section or territorial division of a large • FIXED COMPONENTS - include the different
city. police station headquarters, PCP, police visibility
4. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is: points, and traffic post.
A. 20% C. 40% • PATROL COMPONENTS - include the air
B. 25% D. 50% patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile patrols
• Criminal Investigation - 15% and detective repressive patrols.
• Traffic Functions - 10% • AUXILIARY COMPONENTS - include the
• Vice and Juvenile Related Functions - 10% security guards deployed in area, the traffic
• Administrative Functions - 10% enforcer, barangay tanods, volunteers and
• Auxiliary Functions - 5% NGO’s.
5. The primary objective of Patrol forces: 14. Helicopter Patrol should have a close coordination with
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order the __________ .
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention A. Sea Units C. Ground units
6. During night time patrol be prepare to use your B. Either D. Air units
flashlight and it should be held on the _________. 15. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching
A. Strong Hand C. Weak Hand the end of the line beat, and before returning to the point
B. Left Hand D. Right Hand of origin.
7. What kind of force is needed during armed A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
confrontation? A. Reasonable force C. B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
Logical Force • DAILY PATROL REPORT – after the Tour of
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force Duty
8. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the 16. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
immediate things to do when accident occur? since they can be operated very quietly and without
A. Cordon the area attracting attention.
B. Go away and call your superior A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
9. The deployment of officers in a given community, area D. Mobility and stealth
or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to 17. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons,
provide day-to-day services to the community. places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles, especially
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol and Flashlight should be-
10. When responding to call for police assistance due to A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
planted or found explosives, what immediate actions possible target.
should the patrol officer will do? B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not. possible target.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten a possible
happen. adversary

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D. None of these 26. Which of the following is best suited to the word
18. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be “stealth” in the types of patrol?
best penetrated by the police through. A. Motorcycle patrol
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol B. Canine patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol C. Foot patrol
19. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when D. Automobile patrol
demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing NON LETHAL WHEN TO USE WHY TO USE
troops to fall back to their secondary positions? WEAPONS
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Truncheon D. Shield Shield and Confrontational To Push Back
Truncheon Stage Demonstrator
20. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last
hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the
area of responsibility of the patrol officer is: Water Canon Demonstrators To Fall back
A. Clockwise pattern C. Zigzag pattern become unruly back to their
B. Counter clockwise pattern D. Crisscross pattern and Aggressive Secondary
21. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as Position
well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call Tear Gas Continue to To break up
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and become formations or
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking aggressive and groupings.
purposes? refused to
A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds disperse
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
• GERMAN SHEPHERD- the most frequently used
and high scoring dog for police work 27. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
• WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and Video in order to catch criminals is known as:
Exploration System) – It is the system of A. Decoy C. High Visibility
attaching miniature camera and transmitter to a B . Reactive D. Proactive
search dog which makes the dogs the eyes and 28. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
ears of his handler. A. trumpet C. horn
22. Psychology of Omniprescense means______. B. radio D. siren
A. Low Visibility 29. Which of the following is not true about police patrol?
B . Reactive A. the show window of the PNP
C. High Visibility B. an indispensable unit
D. Proactive C. a preventive measure
23. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades and D. relies on common prudence
special events. 30. A prisoner charged with assault and robbery was
A. Random Foot Patrol taken to a precinct station house and searched. Among
B. Moving Foot Patrol the articles removed from his possession was an
C. Fixed Foot Patrol expensive watch. The most probable reasons for removal
D. Line Beat Patrol of the watch was that it:
23. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact A. might be stolen from him
with the members of the community ideal in gaining the B. was required for evidence
trust and confidence of the people to the police: C. was very valuable
A. Horse Patrol D. could be used for bail purposes
B. Automobile Patrol 31. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
C. Bicycle Patrol assemble at the police unit headquarters at least
D. Foot Patrol before the start of their shift for accounting-
24. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it B. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes
usually- 32. Team Policing is said to be originated in_ _:
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman. A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges. B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
C. Wasteful of manpower. 33. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick patrolling:
mobilization is needed. A. Egyptians C. English
25. This is considered as a powerful tool of mass B. Chinese D. American
communication and cornerstone for civilization. 34. A patrol beat refers to a-
A. Speech A. Number of crimes to be solved
B. Spoken language B. Location of police headquarters
C. Written language C. Number of residence to be protected
D. Sign Language D. Geographical area to be protected

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35. The actions of the patrol officers killing the person that identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion
run amok were in accordance to principles of: concerning criminal activity.
A. self-preservation C. self defense 45. Police Community Precincts are mandatorily led by an
B. discretion D. maintaining peace and order officer with the rank of _________with a minimum of 30
36. Seeing ahead and making sound assumptions. personnel including the commander divided into 3 shifts.
A. forecasting C. foretelling A. Sr. Inspector or Supt C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
B. prioritizing D. documenting B. Supt. To Sr. Supt. D. C/Insp. To Supt.
37. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in 46. It refers to specific or projected spot where the armed
a manner designed to help them blend into the and dangerous person or persons would pass or likely to
neighborhood where they are deployed. pass and so tactically located as to gain calculated
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely True advantage against said person or persons.
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No A. Pre – Determined Area C. High Risk Stop
38. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most B. High Risk Arrest D. Stopping Zone
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue 47. This patrol tactic would result in improvement of police
operations? omnipresence:
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile A. Target Oriented Patrol C. High-Visibility Patrol
B. Helicopter D. Horse B. Low-Visibility Patrol D. Directed deterrent Patrol
• AUTOMOBILE – To carry an Extra equipment by 48. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times
the Patrol Officers more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
39. Time between the call of the Police to arrival at the A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
scene of an incident: B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
A. Response Time C. Call Time 49. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol
B. Duration Time D. Critical Time ranges from:
• RESPONSE TIME - It refers to the running time A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
of the dispatched patrol car from his position B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph
where the assignment was received and the 50. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
arrival at the scene. objective of patrol activity is:
40. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are A. To prevent commission of crime.
different from ordinary Police Officer. B. Integrate the police and the community
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
Organization. D. Visibility and Omnipresence.
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the 51. All but one is the dogs best suited for police work
quality of justice to be served in a community. except:
4th Statement- All police function had been vested to the A. German Shepherd C. Chihuahua
patrol division. B. Bloodhound D. All of these
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct 52. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct people together in a cooperative manner in order to
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect. prevent crime:
D. All statements are correct A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
41. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
such as markets, malls, and ports is: 53. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol should conduct overt police operations in order to
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol discourage people from committing crime refers to:
42. Patrol pattern applied on the last hour of duty going left A. Theory of police omnipresence
while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until B. Low police visibility theory
reaching the point of origin is following what pattern? C. Low profile theory
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag D. Maximum deterrence theory
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross 54. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a patrol strategy
43. All but one is the advantage of Bicycle Patrol: called:
A. Can report regularly to the command center. A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention. B. Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
C. It is inexpensive to operate . 55. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
cars. should employ is:
44. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol
an individual for weapons only. B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
A. Frisking C. Search 56. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search person that enables another to victimize him:
• Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief stopping of A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, B. Motive D. Capability
based on reasonable suspicion/probable cause,
for the purpose of determining the individual’s

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• MOTIVE - It is the basis why the people will 65. Police officers are required to give the suspect
commit crime or it is what induces the people to Miranda Warning, during Spot checks and pat down
act. searches. The statement is-
• INSTRUMENTALITY - it is the means used in A. Partially Correct C. Correct
executing the crime B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
57. The factors to be considered in determining the 66. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be
number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the conducted by-
following, except: A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise attack.
A. Size of the area B. At least two police officers, one to perform the search
B. Topography while the other provides protective cover.
C. Possible problems to be encountered C. The aid of civilian to act as a witness during the
D. Neither of the Above search.
E. Either of the Above D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
58. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or imminent 67. Which of the following is not included in the patrol
threat to the life, limb, or right of the person claiming self- function? A. Response to citizen calls for assistance
defense. B. Investigation of crimes after this is reported to
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful Aggression the investigation section
B. Just Cause D. None of these C. Routine preventive patrol
59. The police officer may stop an individual for the D Inspection of identified hazards
purpose of conducting a spot check/accosting only when- 68. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot during day
A. Probable Cause Exist C. Rational Grounds time should walk________the curb:
B. Notion to commit crime D. Reasonable Suspicion A. Outside C. Inside
60. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons B. Near D. Far
following a high-risk stop. 69. The following are the circumstances which may justify
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty Checkpoint pat- down search, EXCEPT:
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop A. The appearance and demeanor of the suspect
• DRAGNET OPERATION - police operation B. The time of the day and the location where the pat-
intentionally to seal-off the probable exit points of down search took
fleeing suspects from the crime scene to prevent C. Where the police officer handles several suspects
their escape. D. None of these
• HASTY CHECKPOINT - is an immediate 70. The following are the advantages of Regular post.
response to block the escape of lawless I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly familiar with
elements from a crime scene, and is also the various post conditions;
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored II. Patrol officer takes more pride and interest in
or during hot pursuit operations. improving the conditions on his post resulting in better
• HIGH RISK STOP - actual stopping of armed and public relations and cooperation from the residents;
dangerous persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot, III. Favoritism will be lessened because of transitory
including the power to use all necessary assignments; and
61. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced, since a
permit for the holding of the public assembly? steady post is an indication of public acceptance of his
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander work.
B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
62. The following are the things to be done after armed B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
confrontation, EXCEPT: 71. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following
A. Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.
C. Submit the fact-finding report B. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital C. Inspire more Public confidence.
E. None of these D. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout
63. Which of the following is considered as the most of his beat better.
important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy? 72. It refers to a computer that is installed inside a patrol
A. training of station commander car which allows patrol officer to have an access to
B. rank of the patrol commander Headquarters
C. adequacy of resources of police station files and other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used
D. salary rates of police personnel in order to expedite their operation.
E. All of the Above A. Mobile Data Terminal
64. During police intervention operations, the duty to issue B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
a warning is not absolute before he could use force C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
against an offender. D. CCTV
A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong

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• VEHICLE-MOUNTED TV – It refers to a Video A. Low - Visibility C. Proactive

Camera which is attached and installed in a B. Reactive D. High Visibility
patrol car with a high- resolution and wide angle • PROACTIVE PATROL- Deployment of Patrol
lens. personnel in their respective Area of
• HIGH INTENSITY EMERGENCY LIGHTING Responsibility with definite objectives.
PLAN – It refers to a heavy duty light that can 83. While patrolling, SPO2 Lea observed the following:
provide two (2) million candle power of light. (A) a young good looking man stalking a lady who seems
73. Which among the following activities during post-patrol unknown to him,
or post-deployment phase is not included? (B) an unknown old man watching a parked car inside a
A. Formation & Accounting carpark,
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment (C) a man wearing torn clothing while selling balut and
C. Debriefing/Report Submission (D) an unknown person walking while window shopping. If
D. Briefing you are SPO2 Lea, who among the stated persons whom
74. What is the new concept, police strategy which you are going to be considered suspicious?
integrates the police and community interests into a A. A C. C
working relationship so as to produce the desired B. B D. B
organizational objectives of peacemaking? 84. In a situation wherein you are conducting your patrol
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation operation, you observed that there is a car parked with a
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing motor running. If you will be asked, what kind of car it is?
75. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 13th floor A. an ambulance C. suspicious car
building. Which of the following should be the first thing to B. getaway car D. Hit and run car
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene? 85. The most expensive patrol method and gives the
A. Urge not to jump C. Clear the area greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
B. Call nearest relative D. Report immediately to A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
Station B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
76. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle 86. The shift that receives most of the call of the public
patrol over the other patrol methods? which are directly related to police function, it is
A. Low cost C. Visibility considered as the busiest among them all.
B. Speed D. Security A. Afternoon shift C. Day shift
77. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is: B. Early Swing D. Night Shift
A. Foot C. Automobile • NIGHT SHIFT – Least Desirable shift
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter 87. Nolik is a robber who is looking at the bracelet of Mica
78. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually while P02 Arturo is standing near Mica, Nolik plan to rob is
consists of: not weaken by existence of P02 Arturo but the _______
A. a driver and intelligence agent for successful robbery is prevented.
B. a driver and traffic man A. Instrumentality C. Intention
C. a driver and a recorder B. Motive D. Opportunity
D. a driver, a recorder and supervisor 88. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
79. Patrol weakens the potential offenders belief in the- through common medium and channel.
A. Opportunity for graft. A. Information C. Communication
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the B. Police Communication D. Radio
law. 89. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration. initiated on:
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads. A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
80. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the B. November 22, 1901 D. May 17, 1954
least likely to become completely a function of automobile 90. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in
patrol is the checking of- Police Work:
A. Security of business establishment. I. Simple Installation Process;
B. Street light outrages. II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down; III. The
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. ease in the use of radio equipments;
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement. IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of
81. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during classified operational information.
pat- down search, a more secure search position may be: A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
A. Standing position B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
B. Lying Face down Position 91. In Police Radio System, What frequency is needed in
C. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet the police department?
spread apart. A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds C. Above 30 MHz
D. All of these B. 30 – 300 MHz D. NONE
82. An old concept in patrolling wherein officers and units • NOTE: RADIO WAVES- The radio or
drive around their area of responsibility waiting for electromagnetic waves travel as fast as the
something to happen or waiting for a call that they will speed of light at 186, 000 miles per second or
respond. 300, 000 kilometers per second.

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• 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short distances C. Zoning plan of the city
transmission. D. Community Expectations
92. In police communication, 10-74 means: 101. In Civil Disturbance Management Operations, a CDM
A. Negative C. Need Assistance contingent under the command of a commissioned officer
B. Caution D. Unable to copy with a rank of-
• 10 – 0 Caution A. Police Inspector C. Police Chief Inspector
• 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location B. Police Superintendent D. Police Senior Inspector
• 10 – 50 Accident 102. The term “critical time” means-
• 10 – 70 Fire Alarm A. from call to arrival at crime scene
• 10 – 78 Need Assistance B. from the commission, call to the police and arrival at
• 10 – 90 Bank Alarm the crime scene
93. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in- C. from overt act, to commission, to call and arrival at
progress call has been received through telephone or by scene
direct alarm signal is to? D. from dispatched of patrol car from where the
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the witness assignment was received and the arrival at the scene
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast 103. Provision for police radio is primarily important
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene because it increases the speed of police action and
D. sends augmentation force observes it:
94. The PNP has a program which ensures the A. Provides a sense of security to patrolling officers.
development of policemen in busy and crime prone areas. B. Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force
This is called: C. Attracts better men to the police service.
A. patrol deployment program D. Aids the police in obtaining public acceptance of its
B. roving patrol program crime prevention program.
C. patrol and visibility program 104. An immediate response to block the escape of
D. police visibility program lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
95. A policeman doing foot patrol is in the best position of established when
the following except: nearby checkpoints are ignored or during hot
A. To get acquainted with the terrain of his beat pursuit operations.
B. To dissuade community members from doing A. Police Checkpoint C. Freedom Park
community work B. Hasty Checkpoint D. High Risk Stop
C. To identify the hazards within his beat • Police Checkpoint - It is a location where the
D. To be familiar with the members of the community search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
96. Which of the following is an advantage to conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
telephone system? crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
A. Used only for oral communication purposes
B. Information’s can be conveyed rapidly • Freedom Park – shall mean the venue or place
C. Telephone technology generally permits only one where a public assembly could be held without
limited number of telephone one calls to be received. securing any permit
D. The person receiving the telephone call usually has • Maximum Tolerance – means the highest
no means of determining the true source of the call degree of restraint that the police, military and
97. Which do not belong to the group? other peace keeping authorities shall observe
A. covers a wider area during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the
B. ability to observe closely same.
C. provides faster response to public calls 105. The following allowed to display high-powered
D. provides constant availability to public firearms during police checkpoint.
98. In bomb threat the cardinal rule is A. Security Sub Team;
A. Removed the bomb away from the people B. Pursuing Sub Team;
B. Detonate the bomb C. Spotter;
C. Removed the people away from the bomb D. Team Leader; and
D. Cover the bomb E. Arresting Sub Team.
99. Which among the following steps in Police Community A. A and B C. B and E
Relations as a Patrol Officer should undertake first? B. A, B, and E D. A, B, C, D, and E
A. Study the public with which the police department Check point COMPOSITION
deals • Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
B. Contact editors of local newspaper responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
C. Develop procedures for revealing with the public preferably an officer with the rank of at least
D. Establish civilian complaints procedure Police Inspector;
100. It refers to a factor which influence patrol force • Spotter - PNP personnel who will point/profile
deployment and depends on how the public view the role suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint;
of the police in the community. • Spokesperson - TL or member who is solely in
A. Type of crime and police problem experienced charge of communicating with the motorists
B. Financial material and human resources subject for checkpoint;

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• Investigation Sub-team - in charge of 116. PO1 Pedro Pando caught in Pablo in the act of
investigation and documentation of possible committing a crime what are the sequential actions that he
incidents in the checkpoint to include issuance of must perform?
Traffic Citation Ticket (TCT) or Traffic Violation 1. Bring him to the police station;
Report (TVR); 2. Handcuff him;
• Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated to 3. Recite the Miranda Doctrine to him;
conduct search, seizure and arrest, if necessary; 4. Search him for deadly weapon; and
• Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide security 5. Order him to face the wall.
in the checkpoint area; and A. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 4 C. 5, 4, 2, 3, and 1
• Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team B. 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 D. 5, 4, 2, 1 and 3
tasked to block/pursue fleeing suspects/vehicle 117. The division units into shifts or watches is organizing
106. To ensure public safety and to maintain peace and according to __________.
order during the assembly, the police contingent in Civil A. Level of Authority C. Time
Disturbance Management is detailed and stationed B. Function D. Place
in a place away from the area of activity. 118. Who among the following impact most citizens
A. 100 Meters C. 50 Meters and attitudes toward the police
B. At least 100 Meters D. At Least 50 Meters A. Community Relations Officer
107. This shift has been called the “dog watch,” which B. Chief of Police
suggests it is the penalty box of police work. C. First Line Supervisors
A. 8:00 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. C. 3:00 P.M. to 11:00 P.M. B. D. Patrol Officer
7:00 A.M. to 3:00 P.M D. 11:00 P.M. to 7:00 A.M. 119 You are the Patrol Supervisor for morning shift, you
108. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the patrol officer don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats.
must immediately report to the __________ . Which of the following will you implement?
A. Desk officer C. Commander A. Assign roving patrol with no foot patrol
B. Unit supervisor D. Supervisor B. Assign mobile patrol only in strategic place
109. What is the most realistic advantage of canine C. Maintain your patrolmen in the station and just wait for
patrol, sense of ___________. calls for police assistance
A. Hearing C. Smell D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
B. All of these D. Sight but
110. “Third Degree” is a violation of _. assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not
A. SOP C. All of these covered by foot patrol.
B. Code of Ethics D. Human Rights 120. Patrol officer plays a key role in addressing the real
111. Which among the following procedure shall be because they have/are:
followed during a Hostage Situation, EXCEPT: A. Uniformed and have police authority
A. Call for immediate assistance of SOCO. B. Properly trained to handle crime incidents and officer
B. Witnesses’ names, addresses, and other information C. Agents of peace and sworn in to serve the people
shall be recorded. D. Firsthand knowledge and insight of the existing
C. Incident scene shall be secured and isolated. problems
D. Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and 121. If you are a Police officer testifying in court you must
exit to the incident scene. wear a prescribed dress code, including Paraphernalia but
112. Which of the following are the three (3) aspects of if you don’t have a Coat and Tie or Barong, What will you
police visibility? wear?
A. Proper, adequate and timely police response A. Smile C. Pin
B. Physical presence of the police, proper patrolling B. Eyeglasses D. Uniform
scheme and response time 122. Unless a bomb is found, personnel may not order an
C. Mobile, integrated and widespread evacuation of the affected area, but may inform the person
D. foot patrol, mobile patrol and specialized patrol in- charge of the property of the need to evacuate. When
scheme. designating a “safe” assembly area, well away from the
113. The most important criterion of a Patrolman's threatened structure, out of line-of-sight of the building and
performance of his duties is the: well clear of windows. A minimum distance of
A. Public's attitude towards him is recommended.
B. The fact of lack of absences A. 100 meters C. 150 meters
C. His service and seniority rating B. 200 meters D. 50 meters
D. Number of orders/writs serve daily 123. Maritime patrol can be effectively used in
114. Psychology of Omnipresence means _________ . . A. Larger area in which mobility is needed
A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility B. Congested Area and Protection of Citizen while
B . Reactive D. Proactive preventing crimes
115. As a patrolman you should be familiarized with C. Area in which speed is needed while stealth is achieved
your ___________ of your beat. D. Protection of territorial water
A. Community C. Crimes
B. Criminals D. Size and Area

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124. If Patrol is the heart of Police Department, What is 132. These are examples of natural disaster, except?
the Nervous System of Patrol? A. storm C. hurricane
A. Communication C. Operation B. earthquake D. aircraft crash
B. Administration D. Records 133. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after patrol is-
125. X a patrol officer while conducting a beat patrol to his A. To integrate the police and the community interest in a
designated Area, he saw three (3) suspicious people, but working relationship.
while he is about to approach the three (3) people, they B. To remind the patrol on the strict observance of the
immediately ride their vehicle and escape. Does X allowed PNP Operational Procedures.
to issue a Warning Shot? C. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective
A. No, the law is silent on it measures on defects noted.
B. Yes, they pose an imminent danger to the members of D. All of the Above
populace 134. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively
C. No, it is strictly prohibited by our law implemented by police activity which-
D. It depends if someone is around within the area A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less
126. It is a practical and realistic means of accelerating the emphasis on routine.
drive against illegal drugs in affected barangay. This B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to
concepts involves the conduct of house to house commit crime.
visitations to persuade suspected illegal drug personalities C. Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in
to stop their illegal drug activities. routine daily associations with the police.
A. Project Double - Barrel C. Project X D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of
B. Project Tokhang D. Project HVT apprehension.
NOTE: 135. It is the vintage type of patrol and still plays an
• PROJECT DOUBLE BARREL = The PNP Anti – important role in the development of officers today.
Illegal Drugs Campaign plan in order to clear all A. Automobile patrol C. Foot patrol
affected barangays across the country, conduct B. Motorcycle patrol D. Bicycle patrol
no let up operations against illegal drugs 136. The most important consideration a Patrol officers
personalities and drug syndicates. should pay attention while in contact with the public is the:
• TWO PRONGED APPROACH OF DOUBLE A. Character of the person he serves
BARREL Project TOKHANG (Knock & B. Time when contacts are being made
Persuade) = Lower Barrel C. Impression he creates
• Project HVT (High Value Target) = Upper Barrel D. Attitudes of the public towards his actuation
= It is a massive and reinvigorated conduct of anti 137. In Automobile patrol and Foot patrol, you must select
– illegal drugs operation targeting illegal drugs routes which will/is __________________.
personalities and drug syndicates A. provide best visibility C. nearer to the headquarters
127. If a patrol officer, recover an IED’s/grenade, which B. Safe to the Patrol officer D. give the best information
unit 138. It is the right to exercise, decide and command by
will they inform? virtue of rank and position.
A. PNP Chief C. Ordnance A. Cooperation C. Doctrine
B. Armory D. DILG C. Authority D. Discipline
128. As a Police officer, which among the following is to 139. The ideal police response time is:
be saved first? A. 3 minutes C. 2 minutes
A. Yourself C. Suspect B. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes
B. Victim D. Child 140. All except one are the types of specialized patrol
129. In Spot check, when approaching the individual, the method:
police officer shall ______________. A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
A. Freeze and Handcuff the subject B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
B. clearly identify himself as a police officer
C. Show immediately his badge/identification card LEA4: POLICE INTELLIGENCE
D. Draw his firearm to the subject 1. If Moses is considered as the father of Intelligence, Who
130. In planning for unusual needs like hostage situation is considered as the father of Military Espionage?
the most important task to remember is A. Frederick the great C. Alexander the great
A. The area to be covered B. George Washington D. Akbar
B. The information about the hostage taker NOTE: 4 Types of Spies
C. The lives of the hostages • Double Spies
D. The character of the captor • Intimidated Spies
131. The responsibility of this unit is to conduct foot patrol • Common Spies
in areas of high crime, respond to unsecured building to • Spy of Consequence
conduct searches, and assist fellow officers in tracking 2. The following are objectives of Casing EXCEPT:
down wanted criminals. A. Security of an Agent
A. Mounted patrol C. Marine patrol B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of Search
B. Aviation unit patrol D. Canine Patrol C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
D. Verification

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3. All EXCEPT one should be considered in conducting 12. Which of the following is not one of the questioning
stationary surveillance. techniques that should be utilized in interrogation?
A. Preparation A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. Financial Requirement B. General to specific D. Going upward
C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security 13. A number of police stations in Province B were raided
D. Coverage of Operation successfully by the insurgents. How do you BEST
4. In CRIMINT, It is a list consisting of persons suspected describe the situation?
to have committed organized or heinous crimes based A. The intelligence personnel lack of training
from unverified reports and are subject for further B. The intelligence function is not effective
monitoring, investigation and case build-up. C. The policemen have no will to fight
A. wanted list C. watch list D. There is lack of community support
B. target list D. black list 14. Which among the following is the least motivation why
5. Developing security consciousness among policemen informant would give information?
forms part of enhancing_________. A. change of heart C. Material gain
A. Active CI C. Passive CI B. expression of appreciation D. As a good Citizen
B. counter intelligence D. artificial intelligence 15. This is known to all and should be identified before the
6. It deals with the demographic and psychological conduct of an Operation?
aspects of groups of people. A. Intelligence C. Information
A. Sociological Intelligence C. Economic Intelligence B. Criminal Investigation D. SOP
B. Biographical Intelligence D. Political Intelligence 16. Agent John is in charge of leaking malicious
7. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police information to the subject. She is considered as________.
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the A. Double Agent C. Expendable Agent
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and B. Penetration Agent D. Agent in Place
assisting in the prosecution of criminal offenders. 17. The ideal planning and preparation for surveillance
A. Internal Security Intelligence C. Criminal Intelligence A. Prepare a surveillance plan; seek the approval
B. Public Safety Intelligence D. Preventive Intelligence of appropriate authority and study the target
• INTERNAL SECURITY INTELLIGENCE B. Study the target; prepare a surveillance plan; and
(INSINT) – refers to the knowledge essential to seek approval of proper authority
the maintenance of peace and order. C. Seek approval of appropriate authority; prepare
• PUBLIC SAFETY INTELLIGENCE (PUSINT) – a surveillance plan and study they are target
refers to he knowledge essential to ensure the D. seek approval of appropriate authority; study the target
protection of lives and properties. are; and prepare a surveillance plan
8. He is regarded as the greatest spymaster at all time. 18. FACTS: Agent Mark is a plainclothes investigator who
A. Delilah C. Hannibal is tasked to follow Mr. Kenneth in order to obtain detailed
B. Sir Arthur Wellesly D. Francis Walsingham information regarding his activities, Mr. Kenneth has an
• DELILAH – uses her charm and beauty to gain associate in the name of Mr. Jason in order to detect if
information, responsible for the fall of Samson. someone is following him while Agent Mark is obtaining
• HANNIBAL – often dressed as a beggar in order information regarding the activity, Mr. Kenneth deals/talk
to gain information. with Mr. Burtz and Mr. Kenneth becomes aware that Agent
• FRANCIS WALSINGHAM – First Great Mark is following him and he was able to identify the
Spymaster Agent, in order to elude the Agent he utilized Bahay
• KARL SCHULMEISTER – Napoleons Eye Tirahan as a place in attempt of eluding Agent Mark, and
9. Which of the following is contained in the heading of an Mr. Kenneth was able to successfully elude the Agent
intelligence report? as a consequence Agent Mark was not able to know
A. Conclusion C. Assessment of the operation about the whereabouts of Mr. Kenneth.
B. Reporting unit D. Signature of the director of operation I. What type of Covert operation was performed by Agent
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Mark?
A. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report A. Surveillance C. Undercover Operation
any time since it is to processes. B. Casing D. Elicitation
B. All intelligence information’s are collected by II. What is the role/participation of the following?
clandestine method. Agent Mark is considered as _________________.
C. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium Mr. Kenneth is considered as ________________.
size police station. Mr. Burtz is considered as ____________________.
D. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information Mr. Jason is considered as ___________________.
by initiating good public relations. A. Contact C. Subject
11. PO III Rodrigo Gawez have (4) persons who furnish B. Surveillant D. Convoy
him information about AB3. One of the four (4) receives III. Bahay Tirahan is considered as__________ .
monetary reward for every information he gives he is an__ A. Place C. Hotel
A. Ally C. Assets B. Decoy D. Motel
B. Informer D. Informant

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IV. When Mr. Kenneth was able to detect Agent Mark that 28. What specialist group of CIA that was established to
is considered as__________. research, create and manage technical collection
A. Lost C. Burnt – out discipline and equipment.
B. Made D. B or C A. National Clandestine Service
V. When Agent Mark was not able to know about the B. Directorate of Intelligence
whereabouts of Mr. Kenneth that is considered as _____ . C. Directorate of Support
A. Lost C. Burnt – out D. Directorate of Science and Technology
B. Made D. B or C • NATIONAL CLANDESTINE SERVICE (Formerly
19. In formulating a fictitious identity, what is the primary known as Directorate of Operations)- responsible
consideration? for collecting intelligence mainly from
A. Preliminary investigation of the target clandestine sources and covert action.
B. Choosing a suitable background or cover to fit the role • DIRECTORATE OF INTELLIGENCE (DI) –
C. Familiarize with community. Responsible for providing timely and accurate all
D. Have fictitious credentials. source of intelligence analysis.
20. SPOII Andres D. Saya is deployed in café shop • DIRECTORATE OF SUPPORT- Provides
usually everything that the CIA needs to accomplish its
patronized by syndicate members for information mission.
gathering, his mission is classified as: 29. What is deemed to be the MOST important principle
A. Social Assignments B. Work Assignments of intelligence?
C. Organizational Assignments D. Undercover A. Intelligence requires continuous security measure
21. What parcel of the Holy Bible you can see the first B. Intelligence must be available on time
recorded intelligence in the history? C. Intelligence must be useful
A. Number 17:13 C. Number 7: 13 D. Intelligence is continuous
B. Number 13: 17 D: Number 3:17 30. The examination of raw information to determine its
22. In military intelligence he utilize espionage and dividing relativity of information, reliability of the source of
his spies into four classes namely: common spies, double credibility of the information is called _____________?
spies, spies of consequence and forced spies, earning him A. Collection C. Report Preparation
the title “father of organized military espionage”. B. Evaluation D. Decoding
A. Akbar C. Willhem Steiber 31. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
B. Frederick the Great D. Alexander the Great government departments concerning the broad aspect of
• AKBAR – The Great Mogul national policy and national security.
• WILHEM STEIBER - King of Sleuthhounds A. National Intelligence C. Department Intelligence
23. CIA: USA ; _______: ISRAEL. B. Military Intelligence D. Police Intelligence
A. Mossad C. MSS 32. X conducts Intense Questioning to the subject to
B. NICA D. ISI obtain information. The subject is under____________.
• MSS – CHINA A. Interview C. Elicitation
• NICA – Philippines B. Information D. Interrogation
• ISI – Pakistan 33. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
24. What is the predecessor of the Central Intelligence collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
Agency? interpretation of all available information. What is
A. Office of Strategic Service considered as the core of intelligence operations?
B. USA intelligence Agency A. Dissemination C. Analysis
C. Intelligence Office of USA B. Mission D. Planning
D. Alliance of Intelligence Group 34. In selection and recruitment of informers the best
25. It provides for the creation of the National Intelligence factor to be considered is:
Coordinating Agency? A. Age C. Access
A. EO 235 C. PD 51 B. Educational Attainment D. Body built
B. EO 291 D. EO 246 35. Who is the founder of the arch terrorist group Al
26. What law creates the Central Intelligence Agency? Qaeda?
A. EO 246 A. Ayaman Al Zawahiri C. Fathur Rohman Al Ghozi
B. National Security Act of 1947 B. Joma Sison D. Osama Bin Laden
C. Intelligence and Reform Prevention Act of 2004 36. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
D. USA PATRIOT ACT OF 2001 collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
27. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United knowledge of the
Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its A. The strength of the area where the information will be
old post office box number. gathered
A. Security Service (MI-5) B. Where they will be collecting the information
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6) C. Available sources of information
C. Government Communication Headquarters D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
D. Defense Intelligence Staff

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37. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful such information wishes to protect from
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused disclosure.
acceptance? 48. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act”
A. Yes C. True which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
B. No D. False A. RA 7636 C. RA 4200
38. What participating Unit of the operation Neptune spear B. RA 7610 D. CA 616
is responsible in killing Bin Laden? • RA 7636 (RA 1700) – Ant-Subversion Act
A. 160th Special Operation Aviation Regiment • CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and other
B. Seal Team VI C. CIA Agents Offenses against National Security
D. US Navy Seal • RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children Against
39. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act
if the information is true and- 49. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form
A. Reliable C. Correct a logical picture or theory.
B. Probably true D. Accurate A. Integration C. Evaluation
40. The word intelligence was derived from _______which B. Recording D. Interpretation
means to “pick-out” or “to discern”. • RECORDING – is the reduction of information
A. Inteligerre C. Intelligere into writing or some other form of graphical
B. Intelligerre D. Intelligeree representation and the arranging of this
41. The first Director of Central Intelligence Agency. information into groups related items.
A. R.N. Kao C. Rear Admiral Roscoe • EVALUATION – is the determination of the
B. Harry Truman D. Giue Petrosino pertinence of the information to the operation,
42. Which of the following statement is FALSE? reliability of the source
A. Classified information must not be discussed with • of or agency and the accuracy of the information.
friends and members of the family. • ANALYSIS- This is the stage in which the
B. Classified information should be known only by collected information is subjected to review in
one person. order to satisfy significant facts and derive
C. Cabinets with classified documents must be secured conclusion there from.
with padlocks and security measures at all times.
• INTERPRETATION- Process of determining the
D. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
significance of new information in the possible
43. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
alternatives
______________ forces.
50. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
is
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
“usually from a reliable source and improbable
44. It is considered as the most secured method of
information”?
disseminating the information to the user of classified
A. C-5 C. B-5
matters is by means of:
B. B-3 D. C-3
A. Debriefing C. Conference
51. The persons listed in ___________ are allowed to
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
enter a certain establishment or building like Malacanang.
45. What is the evaluation of the intelligence report
A. Access list C. Black List
gathered by Agent Mighty which is “Fairly Reliable and
B. Blue Print D. White List
doubtfully true information?
Reliability of Info Accuracy of Info Source of Info.
A. D-4 C. C-4
Code:CUFNUR Code: CPPDIT
B. C-5 D. D-5
46. If the information or documents are procured openly A- Completely 1- Confirmed by T – Direct Observation
without regard as to whether the subject of the Reliable Other Sources by a commander or unit
investigation B -Usually 2- Probably U – Report by a
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for Reliable True penetration or resident
which it is being regarded. agent
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance C – Fairly 3- Possibly True V – Report by an AFP
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis Reliable trooper or PNP
• COVERT OPERATION – Information are personnel in operation
procured clandestinely D- Not Usually 4- Doubtfully W- Interrogation of a
47. The deliberate destruction, disruption or damage of Reliable True captured enemy or agent
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or E- Unreliable 5- Improbable X – Observation by a
dissatisfied employees. government or a civilian
A. Subversion C. Sabotage employee or official
B. Espionage D. None of these F- Reliability 6- Truth cannot Y – Observation by a
• SUBVERSION - acts designed to destabilize or cannot be be Judged member of a populace
overthrow the authority of a ruling power. Judged Z - Documentary
• ESPIONAGE - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that the source of

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52. Rough tailing or shadowing is the one that ____. 62. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of
A. general impression about the target is needed illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was
B. so much precaution is needed deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of
C. the target is aware that he is being tailed time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
D. conduct Surveillance A. Social assignments C. Organizational assignments
53. It refers to an associate of the subject who follows him B. Work assignments D. Residential assignments
to detect surveillance. 63. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
A. Convoy C. Decoy police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
B. Subjct D. Surveillant purposes.
• DECOY- A person or object used by the subject A. Safe house C. Log
in attempt to elude Surveillant B. Live Drop D. Decoy
• SURVEILLANT – is the plainclothes investigator • LOG – chronological records of activities that
assigned to make the observation. took place in the establishment under
• SUBJECT – is who or what is observed. surveillance.
54. When the subject under surveillance becomes aware • LIVE DROP- Refers to a place where agents or
that he is under observation and identifies the observer. informants leave their messages to the other
A. Burnt out C. Made Agents.
B. Lost D. Decoy 64. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is encouraged. The
55. It is a process or method of obtaining information from statement is –
a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information. A. Yes C. NO
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging B. Absolutely Correct D. False
B. Elicitation D. Tactical Interrogation 65. What is the name of the 4th Airplane that crashed in
56. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly Shanksville, Pennsylvania during WTC bombing?
prohibited, but it can be done at the commander’s A. American Airlines Flight 11
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information. B. United Airlines Flight 175
A. Partly True C. Partly False C. American Airlines Flight 77
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False D. United Airlines Flight 93
57. The following must be observed during surveillance: 66. In order to secure the intelligence the surveillance
a. Meet the subject eye to eye; Operation center, the stationary surveillance must before
b. Avoid contact on the subject; leaving.
c. Recognize fellow agent; A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
d. If burnt out, drop subject and; B. Conduct Debriefing
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing. C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e D. Conduct Interrogation
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e 67. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
58. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the suitability for a particular operational purpose.
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: A. Casing C. Loose Tail
A. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses • LOOSE TAIL – employed where a general
C. Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance impression of the subject ’s habit s and
vehicle associates is required.
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car. • CLOSE TAIL – extreme precautions are taken
59. The following are methods of Surveillance Detection, against losing the subject is employed where
EXCEPT: constant surveillance is necessary.
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace 68. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means that –
B. Convoy and Watching Procession A. Termination of Surveillance
C. Entering Crowded buildings and concealment to B. Actual Surveillance
movement C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. Retracting the cause and Window Shopping D. On target Requirements and Instruction
60. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that 69. Which of the following is the least motivation why an
will correspond to the operation. informant gives information to the police?
A. Multiple C. Natural A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B. Artificial D. Unusual B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
• MULTIPLE- Includes different cover 70. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
• NATURAL- Actual or True Background. defending the organization against its criminal enemies?
61. Amihan gives information openly to the policemen. A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-Intelligence
A. Informant C. Confidential B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical Intelligence
Informant • LINE OR TACTICAL INTELLIGENCE – it is the
B. Informer D. Mercenary intelligence information which directly contributes
to the accomplishment of specific objectives and
immediate in nature.

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• STRATEGIC INTELLIGENCE - This is • CODING-It is the changing of message from

intelligence information which is not immediate plain clear text to unintelligible form also known
operational but rather long range. as “Encrypting”.
81. Mr. Robert Alina must observe office hours and work
71. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means: as regular accounting clerk because he is an undercover
A. Actual Surveillance agent and must
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of Significant A. Live the role outlined for him in the cover
Observation B. Pretend that he deserves the job
C. Preparation of reports and its submission C. Be worth the pay he receives from the office
D. Observe time D. Be cultivated to his new work environment
72. Factors to be considered in choosing a “Safe House” 82. The intelligence information is evaluated as A1, this
EXCEPT: means:
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability A. It is completely reliable and confirmed by other
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and location of sources
Police Outpost B. It is completely reliable and probably true C. It is
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and Escape completely reliable and possibly true D. It is completely
Routes reliable and improbable
D. Operational Technical Requirements 83. The following questions are tests for accuracy of
73. Hezbollah literally means _. information, EXCEPT:
A. Islamic Organization C. Party of God A. Does the report agree or disagree with available and
B. The Base D. Swords bearer related intelligence?
74. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance. B. Is the reported fact or event known in advance?
A. Surveillant C. Subject C. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
B. Interrogator D. Interviewee operandi? D. Is the information about the target or area
• INTERROGATOR- person who conduct of operation?
Interrogation 84. The preparation for surveillance, EXCEPT:
75. Undercover operation is also known as: A. secure as much information about the subject as
A. Roping C. Bait possible
B. Clandestine D. Loose B. thoroughly familiar of the area to be under surveillance
76. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the C. exert efforts to blend w/ the surroundings
person described is cleared to access and classify matters D. identity in advance the people in the area who will be
at appropriate levels. the contacts or who will assist in the surveillance
A. Security Clearance B. Document Clearance 85. A temporary graphic display of the current dispositions
C. Interim Clearance D. None of these and major activities of the enemy.
77. There are four categories of classified matters; top A. Intelligence Files C. Intelligence Worksheet
secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish B. Intelligence Situation Map D. Journal
one against the other, their folder consists of different • Journal - Permanent chronological record of
colors. What will be the color of the document which reports & messages that have been received &
requires the highest degree of protection? transmitted
A. Red C. Black • Intelligence Workbook or Worksheet -
B. Blue D. Green Systematic arrangement by subject heading
NOTE: which aids in the sorting, evaluation and
• Secret (RED) interpretation of information and in the
• Confidential (BLUE) preparation of intelligence reports
• Restricted (BLACK/NO COLOR) • Intelligence Files - It necessary to permit ready
78. The process of assigning a higher category of access to all available information and not just
document or information according to the degree of the current ones
security needed. 86. What methods of casing that is most effective method
A. Reclassify C. Classify and will produced the most info since you know what
B. Upgrading D. Declassify you’re looking for?
7. A person who breaks intercepted codes. A. Map C. Personal
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer B. Hearsay D. All of these
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker 87. When Agent Aldub asked to collect information to their
• CRYPTOGRAPHY- It is defined as an art and subject. He work to the adjacent to the working place of
science of codes and ciphers. the subject and befriending the subject. What Undercover
• CRYPTOGRAPHER- It refers to a person who is Assignment does Agent Aldub is employing?
highly skilled in converting message from clear to A. Residential C. Personal Contact
unintelligible forms by use of codes and cipher. B. Work D. Multiple
80. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text. 88. What law punishes Subversion in the Philippines?
A. Coding C. Encrypting A. RA 7636 C. RA 10575
B. Decoding D. Reclassify B. RA 8484 D. RA 9514

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89. What was the name of the commando unit responsible B. Caps D. Vehicle
in reclaiming sabah? 102. Surveillance: Shadowing while ____________:
A. Jabidah C. Merdeka Stool Pigeon/Squirrel.
B. EC15 D. Abu sabaya A. Undercover Agent C. Informer
90. The following are the codename use to refer Osama B. Surveillant D. Subject
Bin Laden EXCEPT: 103. What is the primary motivation for Informer?
A. Crankshaft C. Geronimo A. Material Gain
B. Cake bread D. Neptune Spear B. False Information
91. Central Intelligence Agency is a civilian intelligence C. Mislead the Investigation
agency of the United States government responsible for D. To be an outstanding member of Populace
providing national security intelligence to senior United 104. The last step on intelligence cycle is Dissemination in
States-policymakers. Who is the first CIA Director? which processed information or intelligence data are
A. Harry Truman C. John Edgar Hoover disseminated to end users. In this process, consider
B. Roscoe Hillenkoetter D. Fabian Ver the factors of .
92. What intelligence Agency has the power to make A. Simplicity, Directness, and Clarity
arrest and detain person, which is embodied in their B. Appropriateness, Flexibility, and Sincerity
Criminal Procedure? C. Timeliness, Correctness, and Security
A. CIA C. OSS D. Reliability, Accuracy, and Pertinence
B. MSS D. All of these 105. The detection, prevention and neutralization of any
93. Herbert Yardley is an American Cryptologist known for activity is the best interest of the organization.
his book _. A. Line Intelligence C. Intelligence
A. American Black Chamber C. Black Chamber B. Artificial Intelligence D. Counter
B. MI-8 D. Top Secret Intelligence
94. Use of decoy such a look-a-like to mislead surveillance 106. PO III Rodrigo Gawez have (4) persons who furnish
a pick-up point or entering and leaving immediately a him information about AB3. One of the four (4) receives
crowded building is methods of--- monetary reward for every information he gives he is an_
A. surveillance evasion C. Surveillance burn out A. Ally C. Assets
B. Surveillance detection D. none of the above. B. Informer D. Informant
95. What is the intelligence Agency of Russian 107. Which of the following is not one of the
Federation? questioning techniques that should be utilized in
A. KGB C. Ministry of Security interrogation?
B. Federal Security Service D. MOSSAD A. Chronological C. Going backward
96. If Agent X44 uses tools and equipment in order to B. General to specific D. Going upward
collect information regarding the conversation of the 108. A number of police stations in Province B were raided
subject. Agent X44 is using __________. successfully by the insurgents. How do you BEST
A. Eavesdropping C. Wiretapping describe the situation?
B. Bugging D. ODEX A. The intelligence personnel lack of training
97. The following must be considered in Evaluation. B. The intelligence function is not effective
I. Pertinence of the information to the operation; C. The policemen have no will to fight
II. Quality of information to be processed; D. There is lack of community support
III. Accuracy of the information; and 109. An E.O. creating a presidential Task Force of
IV. Reliability of the Information. Intelligence and Counter – Intelligence?
A. I, II, and IV C. II, III, and IV A. E.O. 246 C. E.O. 280
B. I, III, and IV D. All of these B. E.O. 281 D. E.O. 279
98. In planning and directing the collection efforts the
following are the needed requirements, EXCEPT: LEA5: POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORDS
A. Enemy Capabilities C. Terrain MANAGEMENT
B. Enemy Vulnerabilities D. Training of officers 1. It refers to any complaint initiated by a private citizen or
99. These are the purpose of intelligence activity, his duly authorized representative on account of an injury,
EXCEPT: damage or disturbance sustained due to an irregular or
A. to fill the void often existing in decision making illegal act committed by a member of the PNP.
B. to increase the probability of accuracy A. Breech of Internal Discipline C. Citizens Complaint
C. to reduce the probability of error B. Minor offense D. Any of these
D. to observe the cycle of intelligence • INTERNAL DISCIPLINE – On dealing with minor
100. In surveillance of vehicle your vehicle should be? offense involving internal discipline found to have
A. Adjacent of the subject’s car committed by any PNP members, the duly
B. Near the Adjacent car designated supervisors shall, after due notice
C. At the back of subject’s car and hearings.
D. In front of the subject’s car • MINOR OFFENSE - shall refer to an act or
101. As a general rule in Surveillance, Don’t meet the eye omission not involving moral turpitude but
of your subject, to abide by this rule you must use? affecting the internal discipline of the PNP, and
A. Sunglasses C. Coat and tie shall include but not be limited to:

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• simple misconduct or negligence GROUNDS OF SUMMARY DISMISSAL

• insubordination • When the charge is serious and the evidence of
• frequent absences or tardiness guilt is strong;
• habitual drunkenness • When the respondent is a recidivist or has been
• gambling prohibited by law repeatedly charged and there are reasonable
2. What is the minimum penalty that may be imposed in grounds to believe that he is guilty of the
Grave offense committed by a PNP member? charges; and
A. 120 days suspension C. Demotion • When the respondent is guilty of a serious
B. 60 days to 6 months suspension D. Dismissal offense involving conduct unbecoming of a police
3. When citizens demand a change in police tactics and officer.
personnel, it is usually because of 8. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s
A. poor police community relation on the part of individual complaint against the police officers.
officer A. IAS C. PNP
B. Inefficient law enforcer B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
C. The public lacks respect of the law • NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative
D. None of the above control and operational supervision over the PNP
4. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, • IAS - investigates complaints and gathers
domination, or excessive use of authority: evidence in support of an open investigation;
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty conduct summary hearings on PNP members
B. Incompetency D. Oppression facing administrative charges.
• MISCONDUCT - generally mans wrongful, 9. The head of the IAS shall have a
improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated by designation of _______________?
premeditated, obstinate or intentional purpose. It A. Director General C. Solicitor General
usually refers to transgressions or some B. Inspector General D. IAS General
established and definite rule of action 10. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of
• INCOMPETENCY — is the manifest lack of the PNP or the assignment of PNP personnel to any key
adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory position. The statement is:
performance, of police duties. A. Partly True C. Partly False
• DISHONESTY — is the concealment or distortion B. Absolutely True D. Absolutely False
of the truth in a matter or act relevant to one’s 11. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio investigation
office, or connected with the performance of his of the following cases:
duties. I. incidents where a police personnel discharges a
5. If the offense is punishable for a period of not firearm;
exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s II. incidents where death, serious physical injury, or
complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the any violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of a
A. Office of the chief of police C. PLEB police operation;
B. MAYOR’S OFFICE D. NONE III. incidents where evidence was compromised,
• CHIEF OF POLICE – 1 to 15 days tampered with, obliterated, or lost while in the custody of
• PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30) police personnel;
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody of the
6. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be police was seriously injured; and
suspended from service by the Chief PNP when it comes V. Incidents where the established rules of
to Internal Discipline. engagement have been violated.
A. 180 days C. 60 days A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and V
B. 90 days D. 30 days B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV and V
• CHIEF OF POLICE- Not exceeding 15 days 12. Aside from the privilege of priority for quota allocation
• PROVINCIAL DIRECTORS- Not exceeding 30 for training and education of members of the IAS, they are
days receiving occupational specialty pay not exceeding:
A. 50% of basic pay B. 30% of basic pay
• REGIONAL DIRECTOR- Not exceeding 60 days
C. 80% of basic pay D. 2.5 % of basic pay
7. The following have summary dismissal powers over
13. All of the following are members of the People’s Law
errant police members.
Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. Regional Director;
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
b. Chief of Police;
Order Council from among the respected members of the
c. PLEB;
community
d. Chief, PNP;
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of
e. NAPOLCOM; and f. District Director.
the Philippines
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality
B. a, d, e D. a, c, e, f
concerned chosen by the association of barangay
captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod

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14. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be • Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City
how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel? Police officer, who pioneer fighting Organized
A. one (1) C. more than one Crime.
B. at least one D. less than one • Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word
• there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for every five Hawthorne Effect
hundred (500) city or municipal police personnel • John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the Federal
15. Which of the following allowance is given the PNP Bureau of Investigation; he was instrumental in
members every after three (3) years from the date of entry founding the FBI in 1935.
in the uniformed service: 25. If workers were taught the best procedures, with pay
A. Reimbursable Clothing Allowance tied to output, they would produce the maximum amount
B. Registered Clothing Allowance of work.
C. Replacement Clothing Allowance A. Bureaucratic Management C. Theory X
D. Replacement Clothing Incentive B. Scientific Management D. Theory Y
16. The status of the procedures conducted by the PLEB: • THEORY X - Management assumes employees
A. summary in nature are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can
B. it is conducted in accordance with due process and that they inherently dislike work.
C. without strict regard to the rules on evidence • THEORY Y - people do not inherently dislike
D. all of these work and if properly rewarded, people will
17. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege perform well on the job.
of performing his police duties in consequence of an • Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity whereby
offense and violation of rules and regulations. subjects improve or modify an aspect of their
A. dismissal C. retirement behavior being experimentally measured simply
B. suspension D. reprimand in response to the fact that they are being
18. Upon assumption as Provincial Director of Pampanga, studied, not in response to any particular
Sr. Supt. Lopez transferred PO2 Dela Cruz, the alleged experimental manipulation.
protector of jueteng in Angeles City, to the remotest 26. Which of the following is NOT a function of police
municipal police station in the province. Feeling singled personnel unit?
out, PO2 Dela Cruz filed an administrative complaint for A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating
abuse of authority against Sr. Supt. Lopez before the Procedures relating to all areas of the administration of
PLEB of Angeles City. Is the filing of the complaint with the human resources
PLEB proper? B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line
A. Yes, because the complainant and respondent are officials regarding personnel matters
from the place. C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to
B. Yes, because it is an administrative complaint for identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory working
abuse of authority. conditions
C. No, because it is not a citizen’s complaint. D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive
D. No, because it is service connected. ranks
19. A PNP member who violates Gender Sensitivity 27. PNP in-service training programs are under the
Program shall be suspended without pay for not less than responsibility of the;
A. 15 days C. 45 days A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. 30 days D. 60 days B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
20. The certification of membership to cultural minority Development
group for PNP applicants who want to avail of the waiver C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
for height requirement shall come from the: Management
A. National Commission on Indigenous People D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
B. National Commission on Muslim Filipinos 28. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
C. NAPOLCOM D. A or B A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the
21. The term of office of the members of the PLEB is: police
A. 4 years C. co – terminus B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
B. 3 years D. 6 years increases or promotion
22. The highest rank in the BJMP is ___________. C. Performance evaluation is done once a year among
A. Warden C. Director police personnel
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General D. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine
23. The PNP Personnel File which is also known as the quality of work performance of personnel
A. 201 File C. 203 File 29. What is the longevity pay of a police officer?
B. 202 File D. 204 File A. 10% of his monthly salary every 5 years
24. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created and B. 50%of the base pays increasing by 2.5%for every year
developed by? of active service
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino C. John Edgar Hoover C. Lifetime Pension equivalent to 80% of his last salary
B. Henry A. Landsberger D. Douglas McGregor D. shall not exceed fifty percent (50%) of his base pay

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30. The performance evaluation system is conducted: B. 30 Days D. 12 months

A. Thrice A Year C. Every 6 Months • Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) -
B. Every 2 Years D. Quarterly Failure to report for duty without official notice for
• January to June Evaluation Report to be a period of THIRTY (30) DAYS
submitted 1st week of July 38. In dealing with a new recruit a good supervisor
• June to December Evaluation Report to be A. Praises the new policeman even if he failed to do what
submitted 1st week of January of the succeeding should be done
year. B. Praises work done above standards
31. It refers to the set of activities and processes used to C. Constructively criticizes work done below standard
legally obtain a sufficient number of the right people at the D. Comments nothing
right place and time so that the people and the 39. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and
organization can select each other in their own best short ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award:
and long run interest. A. Medal C. Awards
A. Recruitment C. Training B. Decorations D. Ribbons
B. Placement D. Selection • AWARD — anything tangible granted to an
32. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ____ of individual in recognition of acts of gallantry or
the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case heroism, meritorious service or skill and
of 30 years active service proficiency.
A. 50% C. 10% • DECORATION — a piece of metal/material
B. 2.5% D. 75% representing an award.
RETIREMENT BENEFITS 40. What is the requirement for one to be Internal Affairs
Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY PERCENT (50%) Service (IAS)?
of the base pay in case of twenty years of active service, A. At least five (5) years’ experience in Law Enforcement
increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%) for B. At least five (5) years’ experience in the Military
every year of active service rendered beyond twenty years C. At least three (3) years’ experience in Law Enforcement
to a maximum of NINETY PERCENT (90%) for thirty-six D. At least ten (10) years’ experience in Law Enforcement
(36) years of active service and over. 41. Which of the following are specific functions and uses
of police records?
33. What is the rank required to be Records Division Chief I. Measure police efficiency;
of the PNP? II. Present the community’s crime picture;
A. P/Superintendent C. P/Sr. Superintendent III. Assist in the designation, assignment and promotion of
B. P/Chief Superintendent D. P/Director person;
34. What is the first stage of recruiting and selecting police IV. Determined amount of salary; and
personnel for Police Officer I? V. Control police offences.
A. Submission and acceptance of application folders A. I, II and III C. II, III and IV
B. Preparation and proper approval of quota allocation B. III, IV and V D. IV, V and III
C. Physical agility test 42. A good attitude for a police supervisor to obtain
D. Psychiatric/psychological examination the confidence of his men is to:
35. SPO4 Restituto Roman receives 22, 210.00 base A. Behave in a fatherly attitude
pay since he was promoted. After five years from B. Fraternize with all subordinates
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after C. Make promises which can be fulfilled
adding his longevity pay? D. Seek to know their problems before proposing a
A. 24, 431.00 C. 25, 795.00 solution
B. 2, 221.00 D. 24, 412.00 43. What classification of documents, when the document
• Ten percent (10%) of basic monthly salaries for should be retained or to be kept for not less than ten (10)
every five (5) years of service years?
• The totality of such longevity pay should not A. Temporary C. Permanent
exceed fifty percent (50%) of the basic pay. B. Probationary D. Semi – Permanent
36. Discipline should be strict but must always be • SEMI-PERMANENT – to be kept for five (5)
tempered years to 10 years
with sympathy and understanding. To abide by this • TEMPORARY – no specified period but usually
principle, a superior officer must: less than (5) years.
A. Investigate thoroughly all the facts before making a 44. What filling system of documents is most widely used
decision form of filling; documents are filled in dictionary order.
B. Always implement the policies, rules and regulations A. Alphabetical C. Geographical
C. Treat all personnel equally. B. Chronological D. Numerical
D. Always listen to the explanation of the erring 45. It is the heart of any police records system. It serves
subordinate. as the basis for an analysis of offenses and the methods
37. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s by which they are committed.
monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a A. Administrative record C. Arrest and Booking Records
maximum of how many months? B. Case Records D. Identification Records
A. 1 year C. 2 months

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46. It is the foundation record of the police department. 52. What does SOCO stands for?
It reflects all information regarding complaints and reports A. Scene of the Crime Operation
received by the police from citizens and other agencies or B. Scene of the Crime Operatives
actions taken by the police. C. Strict officer Crime Operatives
A. Arrest Report C. Complaint Sheet D. Single officer Chain Operation
B. Investigative Report D. Booking Report 54. Edgar Cano was appointed as a police officer I on July
• INVESTIGATIVE REPORT – it contains the 1, 2010. How is classified at the initial period of
findings and actions taken by the investigating employment:
officer based on the inquiries made and by A. Contractual Employee C. Probationary Employee
obtaining the available facts of the incident B. Casual Employee D. Regular Employee
• ARREST REPORT – it contains the information 55. Experts in community relation say that the primary
regarding the full name of the offender, charges mission police is
and circumstances of arrest. A. Law Enforcement
• BOOKING REPORT – it contains the list of the B. Protection of Property
prisoners in custody which indicates the status C. Maintenance of order in the community
and disposition thereof. D. Arrest of law violators
47. What investigative report is submitted whenever the 56. Which of the following are specific functions and uses
case is closed or solved which includes complete written of police records?
narration of facts based on an exhausted investigation of I. Measure police efficiency;
the case? II. Present the community’s crime picture;
A. Advance Report C. Final Report III. Assist in the designation, assignment and promotion of
B. Technical report D. Progress Report person;
48. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on IV. Determined amount of salary; and
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to V. Control police offenses.
motivate the experienced officer to a higher degree of A. I, II and III C. II, III and IV
professionalism/professionalization B. III, IV and V D. IV, V and III
A. Basic Recruit Training C. FTP 57. The missing uniformed personnel shall thereafter be
B. In Service D. Departmental found to have been alive, benefits that had been given to
49. The city or municipal mayor shall develop an him shall be reimbursed to the State within________ from
integrated community public safety plan pursuant to: the discovery of the fact or his reappearance.
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 1012 A. 6 months C. 1 year
B. EO 1040 D. E.O. 226 B. 3 months D. 5 years
• EO NO. 226 - “Institutionalization of the Doctrine 58. A qualified officer who shall have the responsibility
of Command Responsibility in all Government and control of all the records of the agency in his or her
offices possession and custody
• EXECUTIVE ORDER NO 1012 – transferred to A. Evidence custodian C. Records officer
the city and municipal government the B. records custodian D. Custodian
operational supervision and direction over all INP 59. Serjay Perla filled a case of abuse of authority against
units assigned within their locality; issued on July SPO1 Renato Santino and he filled the case before the
10, 1985 PLEB of San Fernando, Pampanga. The case was filled
• EXECUTIVE ORDER NO 1040 – transferred the on May 12, 2014 as per RA 8551 the case filed by Serjay
administrative control and supervision of the INP Perla against SPO1 Renato will be decided more or less
from the Ministry of National Defense to the until?
National Police Commission A. May 12, 2015 C. July 12, 2014
50. Encouraging policemen to ask question about B. November 12, 2014 D. December 13, 2014
proper performance of duties as best justified by 59A. After diligent and careful analysis of facts and
A. The question and answer method is efficient when evidences, the decision rendered by the PLEB of San
large number of policeman are to be trained Fernando against SPO1 Renato is dismissal from the
B. The policemen who ask questions demonstrate a lack service. Can SPO1 Renato file an appeal?
of general job orientation A. No, because the decision involving dismissal from the
C. Learning by doing is an effective training rule service is final and executory
D. Confusion on even minor items can have B. Yes, PLEB decisions involving dismissal from the
serious consequences service
51. Coordination as an administrative function. and demotion are allowed to file an appeal
A. Requires without question acceptance of authority from C. No, any decisions from PLEB are not appealable
above. D. Yes, because it is provided by the rules of court and RA
B. Can always be achieved if subordinates are 8551
adequately remunerated. 59B. If appeal will be taken against the decision of
C. Can generally be achieved without acceptance of dismissal by the PLEB of San Fernando, where can SPO1
control. Renato file the appeal?
D. Can likely be achieved if policies are clear with capable A. Court of Appeal C. Regional Appellate Board
supervisors following established lines of authority. B. PLEB D. National Appellate Board

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59C. The decisions rendered by the appellate board from finished his Bachelor of Laws on 2001, he took and
dismissal from the service were modified to suspension. passed the Bar examination on February 14, 2002. On
Can SPO1 Renato recover his salaries as back wages? June 19, 2014 SPOIV Laxamana apply for lateral entry, Is
A. Yes, modification of Sentence whether suspension or he qualified to apply?
acquittal can recover the salaries as back wages A. No, because the maximum age for lateral entry is 35
B. No, because modification to suspension is also years old
tantamount to conviction B. Yes, he is a member of PNP and within the age for
C. Yes, modification of sentence is an evidence of application of lateral entry
innocent C. Yes, he holds already 4 eligibilities and therefore he is
D. No, he needs the approval after deliberate discussion qualified as per RA 8551
of the NAPOLCOM and PLEB E. Either A and C D. No, he already surpassed the 20 years of active service
60. Police officer who demonstrates most serious lack in the PNP
of leadership qualities is one who 67. Formal administrative disciplinary appellate machinery,
A. Seldom delegates authority to subordinate tasked to hear cases on appeal from the different
B. Seldom asks others to do what he himself is not willing disciplinary authorities in the PNP composed of National
to do Appellate Board and Regional Appellate Board, both the
C. Allows his men to hold group meetings to discuss their NAB and RAB are under .
work A. PNP C. office of the president
D. Frequently praises subordinates in the presence of B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
others 68. In undertaking a long range program directly toward
61. SPO2 Magilas already served the PNP for 15 years of simplification of the police records, the first step should be
active service as 5 years Homicide Investigator, 5 years a study of:
as A. utilization of existing record system
Intelligence officer, 5 years as a Patrol officer before being B. mechanic in which the current systems operate
detailed in Regional Public Safety Battalion of Central C. record system of similar organization
Luzon. If all the requirements for promotion will be D. administrative structure of the organization
satisfied by SPO2 magilas, who will be the promoting the 69. All of the following except one are the factors being
authority responsible for his promotion? used to measure the performance of the police.
A. Chief PNP C. Regional Director A. arrest made C. stolen property
B. Provincial Director D. President B. crimes committed D. conviction obtained
62. The best measurement of effectiveness of each unit or 70. When will be the use of police assault to resolve a
division in a police force is hostage situation is appropriate?
A. Its inter-relationship with the community A. Hostage is a VIP
B. Its inter-relationship with all units of the police force B. Hostage-takers are cognizant of the consequences of
C. The condition of accomplishment of its primary their actions
purpose C. Hostages are in imminent danger of injury of death
D. Its inter-relationship with closely related units of the D. Hostage-takers are terrorist prepared to die for their
force cause
63. Supt. Juris Lea was born on February 10, 1970 and 71. Which of the following task of a supervisor may be
finished Cosmetology and was able to enter the PNPA best be delegated to one of his subordinated
and appointed as Police Inspector on September 30, A. Planning and scheduling
1991 and retired on October 1, 2015. Under our Law, how B. Assignment of personnel
many percent is the retirement benefit of Sr. Supt. Juris? C. Keeping records and making reports
A. 90% C. 50% D. Cooperation/coordination with other supervisors/units
B. 2.5% D. 60% 72. The problem in record management is-
64. Which of the following statement is not true? A. All of these
A. Police managers work long hours B. Records are nowhere to be found and searched only if
B. Police Managers spend more time in working alone needed
C. Police Managers are busy people C. Records are kept by people who needs them
D. Police Managers work mostly with other people D. Records management is not centralized
65. In cases involving infraction of rules and regulations by 73. Multiple filling of complaint against a police member is
newly recruited policemen the supervisor should NOT allowed. This is called?
A. Temper discipline with understanding A. Shoplifting C. Adjudication
B. Be strict to impress them with a sense of duty B. Plea bargaining D. forum shop
C. Tolerate minor infraction for a short time 74. All of the following are the objectives of police
D. Treat any infraction alike regardless of the violation personnel management, EXCEPT:
66. If SPOIV Laxamana holds the different eligibility, A. to improve benefit claims of police personnel
NAPOLCOM Passer, Registered Criminologist, and B. to procure only personnel with inappropriate police
Career Service Professional Eligibility. He enters the PNP eligibility and qualification
on May 19,1992, he is 22 years old then due to his C. to maintain the authorized strength of the PNP
hardworking and dedication to continue the unfinished D. none of these
business of his life to become a lawyer, he study and

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75. Attrition is the system of force retirement or separation B. 32, 179.00 D. 35, 890.00
from the service as provided by law. If Chief 80. Member of the Philippine National Police (PNP) are
Superintendent Intex Masigasig, was assigned as the considered:
provincial director of A. Local Employees C. National Employee
Pampanga, if holding that position for a considerable B. Regional Employees D. None
period of time he can be retired or separated from the 81. Which of the statements is TRUE?
service. What kind of Attrition will apply, if Masigasig will A. In a small police station, the need for a full – time
be retired or separated from the service? records officer is justifiable
A. Attrition by Relief B. As the police station increase its size, routine desk
B. Attrition by Non – Promotion duties and records task increase to such extent that the
C. Attrition by Demotion desk officer is not able to hand them alone.
D. Attrition by maximum attainment of tenure C. Police records are not that important in police
75A. “Considerable period of time” it means, how many administration
months/year is considered before Chief Superintendent D. In large departments, the desk officer devote full –
Intex Masigasig can be separated or dismissed from the time exclusively to records tasks.
service? 82. When can be a PNP member may be summarily
A. 10 years C. 9 years dismissed from the service?
B. 18 months D. 2 years A. She/he is a Recidivist
76. ______ exercise appellate jurisdiction through the B. The charged is a minor offense
Regional Appellate Boards over administrative cases C. She/he is a top complainant
against policemen. D. She/he is a commissioned officer
A. DILG C. IAS 83. The main reason of letting the employee know about
B. NAPOLCOM D. PLEB the personnel policy of an organization is to:
76b. The decision of the NAB and RAB may be appealed A. Maintain morale and efficiency
to the __________? B. Get them to accept the policies
A. SILG C. NAPOLCOM C. Induce their loyalty
B. President D. Court of Appeals D. Work hard for promotion
76c. The concerned Disciplinary Authorities of PNP and 84. Inspector Vina Ruthrot was deployed in Jolo, Sulu as a
IAS, upon motion of the complainant, may at any time, member of the augmentation team in September 28, 2016.
after a case was formally filled but before the presentation After 2 days from deployment their team was ambush by
of complainant’s evidence was terminated, place the 13 suspected Abu Sayaff while on their way to their camp,
respondent/s on preventive suspension for a period because of the occurrence Inspector Vina Ruthrot
A. Not exceeding six (6) months sustained fatal wound on her left leg that needed
B. Not exceeding ninety (90) days mutilation and because of that she can’t anymore perform
C. Not exceeding sixty (60) days her regular duty as police officer. Inspector Vina Ruthrot
D. Not exceeding forty-five (45) days applied for retirement due to Total Permanent Physical
77. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be Disability. Under our policy for TPPD, is she qualified to
appealed to the__________ : avail the benefits?
A. Regional Appellate Board A. Yes, because the wounds was fatal and needed
B. People’s Law Enforcement Board mutilation and she can’t perform her work
C. National Appellate Board B. No, 1 year of deployment is needed before TPPD will
D. National Police Commission apply
NOTE: C. No, because the wounds already healed
• National Appellate Board - shall decide cases D. Yes, disability was sustained during operation and she
on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP can’t anymore perform her regular duty
Chief and the IAS. 84A. If Inspector Vina Ruthrot is qualified for Total
• Regional Appellate Board - shall decide cases Permanent Physical Disability. What are the benefits she
on appeal from decisions rendered by the RD, is entitled under RA 8551?
PD, COP, the city or municipal mayor and the A. One year Salary
PLEB except decision on suspension B. Lifetime pension equivalent to 80% of his last salary
78. Training service work offers courses to new officers C. Monthly retirement pay of 50% of the base pay
and men of the Philippine national police what is the D. A and B
primary objective of human resource development- 84B. If Inspector Vina Ruthrot after 4 years of the said
A. To improve their methods and skills incident, she dies due to the complication made by the
B. For advancement of their technical expertise mutilation. Are the heirs qualified and allowed to receive
C. To refine behavioral patterns for job performance the pension?
D. To professionalized law enforcement and police A. Yes, because it is within the 5 year period
service B. No, they are not entitled she dies because of
79. Inspector Joaquin receives a basic monthly salary of complication
28,340. What would be his Longevity pay after 7 years in C. Yes, because the heirs can receive the pension for a
service? considerable period
A. 2, 834.00 C. 31, 174.00

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D. No, because there is already a lapse of 1 year after the C. DILG

said incident D. NAPOLCOM
84C. If the heirs of Inspector Vina Ruthrot are qualified, 93. It shall determine the applicants’ aptitude to join the
how many years does the heirs can receive the pension? police service, likableness, affability, outside interest,
A. 5 years after the death of Vina Ruthrot conversational ability, and disagreeable mannerisms.
B. For the remainder of the 5 year period A. Physical Agility Test
C. 5 years upon approval of NAPOLCOM B. Complete Physical, Medical and Dental Examination
D. After the lapse of 1 year after the death, and for 5 years C. Psychiatric/Psychological Examination
upon approval D. Final Committee Interview
85. What is PNP “SCOUT”? 94. What is the color of the folder of the PNP personnel
A. Rangers file folder for Non – Uniformed Personnel (NUP)?
B. Special Covert Operations Unit Training A. White C. Red
C. Special Counter-Insurgency Operations Unit Training B. Blue D. Green
D. Social Counter – Insurgency Operations Unified NOTE:
Training • Red, for Police Commissioned Officers (PCO);
86. It is one of the most important and expensive steps in • Blue, for Police Non-Commissioned Officers
elimination process and should be restricted to those who (PNCO)
have successfully passed the preceding test. 95. If a person who graduated an associated in
A. Training criminology, files his application in the office of the mayor,
B. Psychiatric Examination C. Performance evaluation what will happen to his application?
D. Character Investigation A. The application will be discarded
87. The appeal may be based on the following B. The application would be returned to the applicant
grounds EXCEPT: C. The application will be forwarded
A. New material evidence has been discovered which is D. The Applicant would be ask to complete a college
not available during hearing degree
B. Errors of law or irregularities have been committed by 96. What is the least priority work of chief of police?
the disciplining authority A. Supervision of PNP members
C. The findings of fact of the disciplinary body is not B. Interview with the media
commensurate to the offense committed C. receiving complaints against PNP members
D. The Evidence of guilt is not strong D. Imposing Disciplinary actions to erring PNP members
88. It may also refer to acts or behavior of any PNP 97. Among the following who shall be the peoples law
member in an official or private capacity which, in enforcement chairman
dishonoring or disgracing himself personally as a A. The PLEB Member who is a member of the bar
gentlemen, seriously compromises his position as a PNP B. Any member elected from among and by the members
member and exhibits himself as morally unworthy to of the PLEB
remain as member of the organization C. Any member chosen by the chairman, National Peace
A. Gross Misconduct and Order Council
B. Conduct unbecoming of a Police Officer D. Representative, Association of barangay captain
C. Grave Misconduct of a Police officer 98. What law Increased Police Welfare Benefits “5
D. Malfeasance or abuse of authority Years Survivorship Benefits”.
89. A program preventing sexual harassment and A. PD 1184 C. PD 1612
prohibiting discrimination on the basis of gender and B. PD 1619 D. PD 448
sexual orientation 99. Each individual, unit and situation must be under the
A. Gender Sensitivity Program C. Sensitivity program immediate one and only one person. This is the principle
B. Women’s and Children’s desk D. Women’s Desk of A. Delegation of authority C. Scalar Principle
90. Protégée issues still exist in the recruitment. What B. Chase of Command D. Unity of Command
does protégée means? 100. This activity requires the duty of a superior officer of
A. red tape C. discrimination any unit of the Philippine National Police and its unit
B. bata-bata system D. hazing subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with
91. P/Superintendent Charles Berlong did not win position other law enforcement agencies of the government.
of mayor. He likes to return to the service what shall He A. Police executive training C. Coordinates and
do? cooperation
A. Apply for promotion C. Report for duty B. Business – like activity D. Socialization
immediately 101. The following are true about Line organizational
B. Apply for re-employment D. Appeal for structure.
reinstatement A. Few Departments;
92. Who shall prepare and submit annual quota for PNP B. Clear Chain of Command;
and it is subject for approval? C. structure according to functions and specialized units;
A. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management D. Formal in nature;
(DPRM) E. More Departments;
B. Directorate for Human Resources and Doctrine F. Oldest Organizational structure; and
Development (DHRDD) G. Simplest structure.

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A. A, B, D, E, and G C. B, C, D, F, and G Lupin exempted?

B. A, B, F, and G D. A, B, D, and F A. Yes C. No
102. A Private School teacher is considered as B. It depends D. Maybe
Person in Authority. III. What would be the degree to be conferred to Lupin
A. Wholly True C. The law is silent on it upon completion of training in PNPA?
B. False D. It depends A. Bachelor of Science in Criminology
103. In undertaking a long range program directly toward B. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Administration
simplification of the police records, the first step should be C. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
a study of: D. Master of National Security Administration
A. utilization of existing record system IV. What would be the rank of Lupin upon graduation from
B. mechanic in which the current systems operate PNPA?
C. record system of similar organization A. Inspector C. Sr. Inspector
D. administrative structure of the organization B. Higher than SPOIV lower than InspectorD. PO1
104. It provides scholarship for police dependents and V. In PNP reform and reorganization law, what would be
special financial assistance and benefits to the family or the rank of Lupin as the PNP Regional Director?
beneficiary of any police officer who are killed and A. Chief Superintendent C. RD
permanently disabled in the performance of duty as also B. Sr. Superintendent D. Chief Inspector
stipulated in RA 8551. VI. Who has the authority to appoint Lupin as
A. RA 6040 C. RA 6969 Regional Director?
B. RA 6963 D. RA 4864 A. President C. Chief PNP
105. What method of policy dissemination is widely used B. Commission on Appointment D. IAS
because these are effective medium for transmitting VII. If Lupin did not retire, what would be his maximum
newly- issued policies, rules and regulations to police tenure as Regional Director?
officers? A. 9 years C. 6 years
A. Daily bulletin C. Memorandum B. 4 years D. 6 months to 1 year
B. Personal D. Conference VIII. Is Lupin entitled to be appointed as Chief PNP prior to
106. The PNP is accepting applicants which did not meet his retirement?
the upgraded general qualification provided that the A. Yes, because he is a presidential appointee
Applicants are below the minimum annual Quota. If you B. No, he did satisfy the age requirement
are a member of Cultural Minority, Most probably you C. Yes, he satisfy the requirements to be appointed as
would use? Chief, PNP
A. Age Waiver C. Height Waiver D. No, he did not satisfy the rank requirement as RA 8551
B. Educational Waiver D. Weight Waiver IX. Upon retirement what would be the rank of Lupin?
107. Barangay Protection Orders (BPOs) refer to the A. Director C. None
protection order issued by the Punong Barangay ordering B. Sr. Superintendent D. Director General
the perpetrator to desist from committing acts under X. What kind of retirement did Lupin utilized?
RA 9262. BPO is valid for_ . A. Temporary C. Compulsory
A.15 days C. No fixed Duration 110. Award of financial scholarship benefits for tuition fees
B. 30 days D. 10 days and miscellaneous expenses to a NAPOLCOM Scholar
108. What law grants Disability and Death shall be
Benefits to NAPOLCOM Personnel? paid directly to the school in which he/she is enrolled or
A. PD 448 C. RA 2678 reimbursed to the said scholar by this Commission upon
B. Act 70 D. CA 616 presentation of his/her approved enrollment or
109. FACTS: Lupin was born on August 10, 1970 and registration form and official receipt of payment, Under our
finished only 72 units in B.S. Criminology and he was able existing policy for college scholar it shall not exceed:
to join the PNP via Lateral entry as a PNPA graduate on A. P12,000 per school year C. P 22,000 per semester
April 24, 1992. Due to his diligent and dedication to his B. P16,000 per school year D. P12,000 per semester
work, he was able to be promoted continuously. He was 111. Under our recent policy on Lateral entry, who are
appointed in several positions such as six (6) years as those person added in the highly technical qualifications
COP of Lubao, Pampanga and Three (3) years as and appointed as Police Inspector?
Provincial Director of Pampanga. On November 22, 2014 1. Psychiatrist;
he was appointed as the PNP Regional Director of Police 2. Psychologist;
Regional Office 3 as his last position in the PNP, In order 3. Imam;
to enjoy the benefits of the PNP at his prime age, 4. Information Technologist;
which he served with dedication he retired as a PNP 5. Dentistry; and
member on May 8, 6. Pilot.
2015. A. 1, 4, and 6 C. 2, 4, and 6
I. Is Lupin exempted in the Field Training Program B. 1, 3, and 5 D. 2, 3, and 6
as a requirement for Lateral Entry? 112. SPO1 Vulma joined the PNP on November 12, 2000
A. Yes C. No and she was 24 years old then, due to dedication to her
B. It depends D. Maybe profession she continue pursuing Juris Doctor and
II. When it comes in taking the Promotional Examination is became a member of the bar on August 10, 2011. Under

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our existing policy, if she wishes to apply for Lateral 123. The following are act which constitute grave
entry on January 2016, is she qualified with its age? dishonesty except one.
A. Yes, because she is the wife of Vegeta and mistress of A. Make a false report
Master Pogi B. Deliberate false testimony
B. No, she is over age under the new policy on Lateral C. Use of government papers
entry D. Destroy, conceal physical evidence
C. Yes, under the new policy provides 124. The function of management which covers hiring,
D. No, because she is not holding any highly firing, and training.
technical qualifications A. Staffing C. Directing
113. The problem of simplification of procedures is C. Planning D. Organizing
best approach by: 125. The following are persons with highly technical
A. prepare and analyze a work progress chart qualifications are allowed to apply for Lateral entry in the
B. prepare and analyze a functional organizational chart PNP with an initial rank of P/Sr. Inspector EXCEPT:
C. analyze the position classification scheme A. Mr. Abdul Siniloa, an Imam
D. prepare and analyze a work flow chart B. Mr. Juris Soledad, a Pastor
114. An appeal filled with the NAPOLCOM Regional C. Atty. Jello Mayaman, a member of the bar
Appellate Board shall be decided within ______days from D. Dr. Abraham Liceo, an Optometrist
receipt of the motion of appeal. 126. FACTS: P/Sr. Inspector Marzan has been found
A. Fifty (50) C. Thirty (30) guilty of conduct unbecoming of a police officer and
B. Sixty (60) D. Twenty (20) was dismissed from the PNP service by Chief PNP, P/Sr.
115. The law governing Muslim Benefits who believe Inspector Marzan filed a motion to appeal since the
in Mohamedian? penalty is not commensurate to the offense he committed.
A. Act creating ARMM I. How many days upon receiving the decision, P/Sr.
B. Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines Inspector Marzan can filed his motion to appeal?
C. PD 448 A. Fifteen (15) days C. Ten (10) days
D. RA 6975 B. Sixty (60) days D. Thirty (30) days
116. Which among the following is inseparable in the II. What appellate body can P/Sr. Inspector Marzan can
principle of Delegation? filed his motion to appeal?
A. Training C. Development of Subordination A. CSC C. SILG
B. Role Modeling D. Order Giving B. NAB D. RAB
117. The three fundamental process of police III. Within how many days after receipt of the motion of
administration: appeal shall the appellate body shall decide?
A. Planning, budgeting, and controlling A. Fifteen (15) days C. Ten (10) days
B. Planning, directing, and coordinating B. Sixty (60) days D. Thirty (30) days
C. Planning, organizing, and directing IV. The appellate body is given to give their
D. Planning, directing, organizing decision based on the appeal.
118.All except one are included in the Philippine A. 180 days C. 10 days
National Police (PNP) internal policy planning. B. 60 days D. 30 days
A. Who will do the work V. After filing an appeal the dismissal was reversed and or
B. Clear definition of what is to be done modified to suspension, P/Sr. Inspector Marzan is
C. Rate of Pay considered to be under suspension. When can he receive
D. Degree of effectiveness his salary?
119. Under our existing law, Any PNP member who is to A. Salary if forfeited
be promoted must be cleared by ____________ of any B. After completion of modified sentence
administrative complaints against the officer. C. While he is under suspension
A. PLEB C. National Appellate Board D. Immediately after approval of reversion
B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG VI. If the decision of the appellate body is acquittal can he
120. Mr. Ricardo Senakulo was promoted in the service. recover his salaries as back wages?
He reported in the Regional director for what? A. It depends on NAPOLCOM
A. Exit Call C. Courtesy Call B. Yes, because he was proven innocent
B. Promotion Call D. Turn over C. No, as suspension is tantamount to conviction
121. Grave misconduct is incurred by any member of the D. Yes, provided he will donate it to Bahay Pagbabago
PNP who shall: 127. Sr. Supt. Jess synchronized all line and staff
A. Refuse to report to duty activity. What management process did Sr. Supt. Jess
B. Make false report or entry in the police blotter exercise?
C. Deface of destroy any office paper A. Coordinating C. planning
D. Taking undue advantage of subordinate B. Staffing D. Organizing
122. Police personnel may be effectively distributed 128. All of the foregoing are the principles of
according to any of the following classification, EXCEPT leadership, except
A. By time C. By function A. be technically and tactically efficient
B. By area D. By gender B. set example
C. keep your men informed

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D. train your men as a team LEA6: COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM

129. In a robbery occurred in the bus bound for Lucena 1. It refers to any crime that involves a computer and a
City, SPO1 Antonio Flores acted promptly and exchanged network, where the computers may or may not have
gunshots with the robbers. Three robbers were killed played an instrumental part in the commission of a crime.
and two were wounded. What kind of promotion may be A. Cyber Crime C. Computer Crime
granted to SPO1 Flores? B. Cyber space D. Modern Crime
A. Medal of Valor C. MedalyangKatapangan 2. Interpol has an annual budget of around €78 million,
B. Regular Promotion D. Special Promotion most of which is provided through annual contributions by
130. Police Regional Office VI is in need of 500 personnel its membership. As of 2015 there are already_____
for recruitment as PO1. One thousand qualified applicants members of INTERPOL.
applied for the position including 300 women. How many A. 190 countries C. 200 countries
female applicants will be admitted? B. 198 countries D. 188 countries
A. 30 C. 120 3. What is the lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
B. 50 D. 100 A. Junsa C. Constable
131. Which of the following is not true about the B. Sergeant D. Police Officer
traits of leadership? 4. What is the largest police agency in France?
A. leadership must be earned A. Police Nationale C. Police Judiciare
B. the leader must win and respect the liking of his people B. Surete D. Polichette
C. that the work is accomplished mainly through the effort 5. Is POII Papao allowed to be detailed to international
of the leader as the supervisor organizations, peacekeeping missions, with his rank?
D. leaders are responsible for the output of others. A. Yes C. No
132. Which of the following is not true about delegation of B. Maybe No D. Maybe Yes
authority? 6. A policing strategy in Japan which is known as “Police
A. the authority and responsibility is given to the heads of Box”.
the smaller units A. Neighborhood Police Post-SPF
B. this process is continued to the lowest level of B. Community Oriented Policing System
execution C. Koban Policing System
C. closely related to span of control D. Problem-Oriented Policing System
D. none of these 7. He is considered as the founder of MILF.
133. Which of the following is not true about the A. Nur Misuari C. Hashim Salamat
traits of leadership? B. Isnilon Hapilon D. Omar Maute
A. leadership must be earned • Nur Misuari – founder of Muslim Independence
B. the leader must win and respect the liking of his people Movement also known as MNLF
C. that the work is accomplished mainly through the effort • Isnilon Hapilon – former Abu Sayaff leader,
of the leader as the supervisor became the commander of the Maute Terrorist
D. leaders are responsible for the output of others. Group. (ISIS-Maute)
134. Inspector X is chasing three (3) bank robbers who • Omar Maute – head of the family of the Maute
allegedly robbed the Bank of Paasa, the two (2) bank Terrorist Group
robbers was shot to death by Inspector X, but the 8. Style of policing in where an emphasis on violations of
remaining one was able to shot Inspector X and because law, and the use of threats or actual arrests to solve
of that Inspector X died. What type of award/promotion disputes.
shall be given to Inspector X? A. Legalistic C. Watchman
A. Regular C. Meritorious B. Service D. None of these
B. Temporary D. Post – humous • Watchman - an emphasis on informal means of
135. Which of the following is the best method to resolving disputes.
handle patrolman’s grievances request which you know • Service - an emphasis on helping the
cannot be granted: community, as opposed to enforcing the law
A. Deny to request for not being timely 9. Which of the following is not a factor in the Philippines’
B. Explain why his request cannot be granted participation in UN peacekeeping operations? A. National
C. Show him his request is reasonable capabilities
D. After due explanation tell him to take it or leave it B. The domestic peace and order situation
136. The PNP Personnel File which is also C. Available funds to finance the operation
known as _____________. D. National interest and national goals
A. 201 File C. 203 File 10. What law is otherwise known as the Cybercrime
B. 202 File D. 204 Files Prevention Act of 2012?
137. In the distribution of training time of PNP applicant, A. RA 10175 C. RA 10022
how many percent is allotted on each B. RA 10158 D. RA 10028
specialization patrol, investigation, and traffic? • RA 10022=Immigrant Workers & oversees
A. 33 % C. 2 months Filipino act
B. 6 months D. 75 % • RA 10028=Expanded breastfeeding Act
• RA 10158=An Act decriminalizing the crime of
Vagrancy

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11. It refers to the police division in Singapore which 19. The Philippines under the Estrada Administration , An
manages the largest land area among the various land establish a shared central database for information
decisions in Singapore. It operates six (6) Neighbourhood methodologies , arrests and conviction on Transnational
Police centers and Ten (10) Neighbourhood Police Posts: Crime.
A. Ang mo kio Police Division C. Bedok police Division A. National Action Committee on Anti Hi Jacking and
B. Central Police Division D. Jurong Police Division Terror
Ang mo kio Police Division=2nd largest land area B. National Central Bureau
Central Police Division=oldest police division, busiest land C. Philippines Center for Transnational Crime
division D. Center of Strategic studies on crime
12. In Islamic Societies they have religious police, who 20.The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:
enforce the application of Islamic Sharia Law those are as A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly
follows, EXCEPT: B. National Assembly D. General Assembly
A. Enforcing Islamic Dress code 21. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin
B. Arrest unrelated male & female caught socializing Laden in 1988?
C. Surveillance to other religion A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
D. Enforcing Muslim Dietary Laws B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
13. Where is the location of Vietnam in the map? MAFIA – is a term used to describe a number of criminal
A. Southern East Asia C. Northern Asia organizations around the world.
B. Western Asia D. Southern Asia JIHAD - refers to the holy war by members of the Islamic
14. When conflicts arise, it seeks to assist member states religion against the Jews
in reaching negotiated solutions. If the diplomatic efforts 22. Where can you find the so-called Police Ombudsman?
fail and international peace is threatened, it can authorize It’s outside review organization for police officer whose are
a range of measures, for example, issue ceasefire charged of committing any form of misconduct:
directives, send a UN peacekeeping force, introduce A. Northern Ireland C. England
economic or other sanctions, or B. China D. Japan
approve military intervention. 23. This is the motto of Hongkong Police Force:
A. Security Council C. General Assembly A. Law and Order C. Knowledge is Safety
B. National Central Bureau D. ECOSOC B. To serve and Protect D. We serve with pride and care
15. The Executive Committee is Interpol’s select 24. A regional office center of INTERPOL which operates
deliberative organ which meets three times a year, usually round the clock in all of INTERPOL’s four official
in March, July and immediately before the General languages and serves as the first point of contact for any
Assembly. The following comprises the Executive member country faced with a crisis situation.
committee of INTERPOL, EXCEPT: A. Command and Coordination Center C. I-24/7
A. President C. 9 delegates B. National Central Bureaus D. None
B. 3 Vice President D. 1 Secretary General • I-24/7 - network that enables investigators to
16. According to a 2010 study, Muslim constitutes the access INTERPOL's range of criminal
world’s second largest religious group. The largest Muslim databases.
population in a country is in? 25. Cyberspace is coined by:
A. Indonesia C. India A. Jolly R. Bugarin C. William Gibson
B. Pakistan D. Saudi Arabia B. Onel De Guzman D. Allan Pinkerton
17. A decree codifying the law on Illegal/unlawful 26. United Nation replaced _________ between countries,
Possession, manufacture, Dealing in, acquisition or and to provide a platform for dialogue.
disposition of firearms, ammunitions or explosions A. League of Nations C. National Policing
A. RA 9165 C. RA 9372 System
B. RA 8294 D. RA 8792 B. Unified Nation Security Service D. Unified Security of
• RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act Nations
• R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act 27. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the
of 2002 highest position in Japan Police Organization:
• RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007 A. Commissioner Secretariat C. Commissioner
• RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009 B. Chairman D. Commissioner General
• RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act 28. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of
of 2009 police force is identical up to the rank of?
• RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009 A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector
• RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 2010 B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector
18. Group of highly specialized armed men who inflict fear 29. The current Secretary General of INTERPOL
and uses violence to accomplish their objectives with a unanimously elected at the 83rd INTERPOL General
usual international scope of activity. Assembly in Monaco November 2014.
A. Organized Crime C. Transnational Organized A. Jolly Bugarin C. Jurgen Stock
crime B. Mireille Ballestrazzi D. Ronald K. Noble
B. Transnational Crime D. Terrorist • Johann Schober - the first president of the
Interpol.

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• Jolly Bugarin – former Filipino President of B. International Organization of Police

INTERPOL in 1980 – 1984 C. International Criminal Organization
• Mireille Ballestrazzi – elected at the 81st D. International Criminal Police Organization
Interpol General Assembly held in Rome and 39. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
served until 2016. Commissioner General who is appointed by:
• Meng Hongwei – current President of A. Japans Emperor C. National Public Safety Commission
Interpol,who will serve until 2020 B. Prime Minister D. Japan Commission
• Kim Jong Yang – current Acting President of 40. The illegal procurements and/or sale of human organs
Interpol (2018) is prohibited and punishable under ________.
• Oskar Dressler - the first secretary general A. RA 9372 C. RA 9208
of the Interpol. B. RA 10591 D. RA 10158
• Ronald K. Noble – Secretary 41. The first work line defense in police Japan is
General of INTERPOL.(2010 to 2014) A. Kidotai C. Tokko
• Jurgen Stock – the current Secretary General of B. Koban D. kempeitai
Interpol (2018) 42. What is the motto of International Criminal Police
30. It is known as the Special riot police force of Japan Organization?
which was established to respond quickly and effectively A. Safer communities together
to large public disturbances. B. You Shall know the truth and the truth shall set you free
A. Kidotai C. Tokkeitai C. Knowledge is Safety
B. Kempeitai D. Tokko D. connecting police for a safer world
31. The General Secretariat of INTERPOL that operates 43. Each INTERPOL member country maintains a
24 hours a day, 365 days a year and is headed by National Central Bureau staffed by national law
A. President C. Secretary enforcement officers .It is considered as the designated
B. Secretary General D. Inspector General contact point for the General Secretariat for all INTERPOL
32. Abu Sayyaf is also known as ““Al Harakat Islamiyah” Operations, regional offices and other member countries
which means _. requiring assistance with overseas investigations and the
A. Islamic Congregation C. Islamic Resistance location and apprehension of fugitives.
B. Islamic Movement D. Islamic Alliances Who is the chairman of Manila National Central Bureau?
33. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- A. Director General of PNPC. Director of NBI
A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base B. Commissioner of BIR D. Governor of BSP
B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah 44. What is the age requirement for application in Royal-
Canadian Mounted Police?
• Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic Congregation
A. 19 Years old C. 18 years old
• Al Qaeda – The Base
B. 21 years old D. 30 years old
• Hezbollah – Party of God 45. What terrorist group which has an ideology of
• Hamas – Islamic Resistance “Egalitarianism” or “Equality”.
• Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present commander A. MNLF C. MILF
of Al Qaeda B. Abu Sayyaf D. EC15
34. What law mandates the formation of ARMM? 46. What is the age qualification to qualify for Taiwan
A. RA 6374 C. Joint Cease Fire Ground Rules police?
B. RA 9054 D. 1976 Tripoli Agreement A. 21-30 C. 19-29
35. Chief Superintendent in Canada police rank is B. 20-30 D. 18-28
equivalent to in the Philippines.
Police Parent Highest Lowest Motto
A. Director C. Chief Supt. Force Agency Rank Rank
B. Sr. Superintendent D. Deputy Director General
36. The following are the major concerns of the PNP DILG Dir.Gen. PO1 To serve and protect
Philippines
Center Transnational Crime (PCTC) EXCEPT . Hongkong Security Commissioner Police We serve with pride
A. Legislative agenda Police Bureau of Police Constable and care
Force
B. Information exchange
C. Law enforcement coordination Singapore Ministry Commissioner Constable Dare to strike
D. Strategic studies and capability buildings Police of Home
37. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force Affairs
Force:
Royal Ministry Inspector Constable Firm, Fair and Prudent
A. Commissioner General C. Director General Malaysian of Home General of
B. Commissioner D. Director Police Affairs Police
• Director General – Philippine National Police
• Director – BJMP and BFP Indonesian Ministry Police General 2nd People’s Main Servant
National of Internal bhayngkara/
• Commissioner General - highest position in Police Affairs 2nd Agent
Japan Police Organization
38. INTERPOL stands for: Royal Ministry Commissioner Constable Defending the Law
Canadian Public
A. International Police Mounted Safety of
Police Canada

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47. All police force in United Kingdom are not allowed to 3. Personnel who obtained the highest exam rating.
carry Firearm during their duty except police force in_ A. 3, 2, and 1 C. 2, 1, and 3
A. Northern Ireland C. Wale B. 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 3, and 1
B. Scotland D. England 56. In Singapore, This elite Special Operations its official
48. What is the motto of the Royal Malaysian Police? task is to provide the Singapore Police Force with a
A. Dare to Strike C. Defending the Law tactical armed- response capability:
B. Firm, Fair and Prudent D. Peoples Main Servant A. Special Operations Command (Tactical group)
NOTE: B. Gurkha (provide strong arm)
49. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is C. Police Tactical Unit’s (Special Riot Police)
used. VES literally means, EXCEPT: D. Special Tactics and Rescue
A. Victim C. Evidence 57. It is the Largest Police Organization in the World.
B. Violation D. Suspect A. INTERPOL C. UN
50. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice System: B. Hongkong D. USA
A. To seek information on the identity of persons or on 58. It is known as Malaysian community police corps
their illegal activities related to criminal matters which was launched by Royal Malaysian Police in Kuala
B. To provide warning and criminal intelligence Lumpur on August 9, 2005 to help combat crime in the city
about persons who have committed criminal offenses and and any situations around Malaysia.
who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries. A. Chuzaisho C. Friends of COP
C. To locate missing persons B. Rakan Cop D. B and C
D. To seek the arrest and extradition of suspects 59. What is the exact name of the police force in Canada?
51. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism is/are: A. Royal Canadian Mounted Police
1. Prevent acts of international terrorism B. Canada Security Force
2. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that C. National Police Agency of Canada
the perpetrators are brought to justice which could be D. Department of Canadian Security Force
achieved by exchanging information with its member 60. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women
countries through its source messaging system and by and minorities as police officer.
arranging meetings of expert to address the subject. A. Massachusetts C. California
3. Arrest the terrorist B. New York D. Boston
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 61. The tenure of the INTERPOL President is for a period
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 of .
52. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crime is under A. 4 years C. 3 years
the B. 1 year D. 6 years
A. PNP C. Office of the President 62. Which of the following is not true about INTERPOL?
B. National Security Adviser D. National Defense A. It is the world’s largest international police organization
53. Which among the following are included in the Six B. It facilitates cross-border police cooperation and
(6) Priority Crime Areas of INTERPOL? support
A. Drugs and Criminal Organization; C. Consist of six structure and the advisers are the
B. Corruption; supreme governing body
C. Terrorism; D. Its institution prohibits any intervention of a political
D. High – Tech Crimes; character
E. Kidnap for Ransom; 63. What country recruits future police officers that are
F. Prostitution; high school graduates who were interested in Law
G. Trafficking in Person; and Enforcement as a Career?
H. Fugitives. A. Japan; C. Canada;
A. A, C, D, G, H C. A, B, C, D, G, H B. Singapore; D. China; and
B. A, B, C, E, G D. A, B, C, D, F, G E. Philippines.
54. State values the dignity of every human person A. A, B, and D C. B, C, and D
and guarantees the respect of individual rights. RA B. B and C D. A and C
9208 is 64. What kind of terrorist group are MNLF, Abu Sayaff,
A. Anti – Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003 and MILF?
B. Cyber-crime Prevention Act of 2012 A. Islamist C. Revolutionary
C. An Act Decriminalizing the crime of Vagrancy B. Communist D. B or C
D. E – Commerce Act 65. International Court of Justice is one of the principal
55. In the Rules and procedures on the selection of the organs of United Nation that is considered as the Primary
PNP personnel for detail to international organizations Judicial Organ of UN. What is the predecessor of
peacekeeping missions or UN Special Action Team International Court of Justice?
(UNSAT), the following are the sequence of priority when A. International Court
it comes to deployment. B. Court of International Law
1. PNP personnel with previous UN mission deployment; C. Permanent Court of International Justice
2. PNP personnel without previous UN Mission D. Law and Justice International Court
deployment;
and

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66. Who is the current Secretary General of United 76. What Interpol Notice System help locate missing
Nation? persons, often minors, or to help identify persons who are
A. Meng Hongwei C. Antonio Guterres unable to identify themselves.
B. Kim Jong Yang D. Bang Ki Moon A. Orange Notice C. Blue Notice
67. In Hongkong, Commisioner of Police, In Philippines. B. Black Notice D. Yellow Notice
A. Director General C. Chief Superintendent INTERPOL’S NOTICE SYSTEM
B. Superintendent D. Deputy Director Gen • Red Notice - To seek the arrest or provisional
68. What is the counterpart of Chief Superintendent in arrest of
AFP? o wanted person
A. Brigadier General C. Captain • Orange Notice –To warn police, public entities
B. Colonel D. Major and other
69. What is the official name for china police system? • international organizations about potential threats
A. National Police Agency C. Royal Thai Police • Yellow Notice - To help locate missing persons,
B. People’s Armed Police Force D. Lebanon Police often minors
• Japan=National Police Agency • Green Notice -To provide warnings and criminal
• Lebanon=Lebanon Police Department intelligence about persons who have committed
• Singapore=Singapore Police Department criminal offences
70. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and • Blue Notice - To collect additional information
introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and about a person’s identity or activities in relation
Chicago Police Department: to a crime.
A. August Volmer C. Margaret Adams • Black Notice - To seek information on
B. William Stewart D. O.W. Wilson unidentified bodies.
• Margaret Adams =1st woman deputy sheriff in • Purple Notice - To provide information on modus
US operandi.
• Alice Stebbins Wells = 1st American born • INTERPOL-United Nations Special Notice
female police officer in LAPD. Issued for groups and individuals who are the
• Georgia Ann Robinson = 1st African-American targets of UN sanctions against Al Qaeda and the
police officer hired in LAPD Taliban.
71. The following are the law enforcement principles 77. The equivalent of Police Director General in Hongkong
enunciated by the Father of Modern Policing System, Police Force:
except: A. Constable C. Director
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police B. Commissioner D. Superintendent
B. The police must have full respect of the citizenry 78. In the Philippines, the premier law enforcement
C. The police are the public and the public are the police agency is the PNP which is equivalent
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final to_____________ in Japan.
judgment A. Japan Police Agency C. Royal Japan Police
E. None of the above Agency
72. What is the highest rank in the Royal Malaysian B. National Police Agency D. NONE
Police? 79. What is the equivalent rank of PO1 in China?
A. Inspector General of Police C. Constable A. Commissioner General C. Patrolman
B. Commissioner D. General B. Constable 2nd class D. NONE
73. Which of the following can be done by the 80. The following are Permanent members of UN
INTERPOL? Security Council.
A. Trace a missing person C. Investigate a A. China;
terrorist B. Philippines; C. Russia;
B. Act as UN secretariat D. Secure World D. United States; E. North Korea; F. France; and
Leaders G. United Kingdom.
74. What is the equivalent of DILG in China law A. A, C, D, F, and G C. A, B, C, D, and G
enforcement? A. B. A, C, D, E, and G D. C, D, E, F, and G
A. National Public Safety Commission 81. A police force in Tokyo which is the equivalent of
B. Ministry of Internal Affairs Manila Police District in the City of Manila is _.
C. Ministry of Public Safety A. Japan National Police Agency
D. Ministry of public security B. Prefectural Police
75. What does the olive symbolizes in the current emblem C. Metropolitan Police Department
of INTERPOL? D. Tokyo Police District
A. worldwide activity C. peace 82. What is the name of the operation which is responsible
B. police action D. justice for getting back the Sabah?
• the globe indicates worldwide activity A. Neptune Spear C. Merdeka
• the olive branches represent peace B. Jabidah D. Corregidor
• the sword represents police action
• the scales signify justice

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83. A kind of student-mentor relationship between 88. How does INTERPOL can help bring perpetrators
the Japanese patrol officers and their supervisors, which of international terrorism to justice?
allows the officers a great input into decisions about local A. By exchanging information with its member countries
problems. B. By preventing acts of international terrorism
A. Kobun-Oyabun C. Buddy Buddy System C. By cooperating operatives in the field
B. Koban D. Mentoring System D. By promoting best practices and trainings
84. It acts as the de facto spokesperson and leader of the 89. Japan’s Complex Program of Crime prevention relies
UN. upon.
A. General Assembly C. Security Council A. Large budget allocated by the government to the police
B. International Court of Justice D. Secretary organization
General B. Cooperation and support of the community
PRINCIPAL ORGANS OF UN C. Increase accountability to the public
• GENERAL ASSEMBLY - main deliberative D. Reorientation of the patrol activities
assembly of the United Nations. Voting on 90. (1) A country is under obligation to admit
important questions, a two- thirds majority of properly documented foreigner. (2) Any person may be
those present. extradited.
• SECURITY COUNCIL - It is charged with A. Statement No.1 is correct
maintenance of peace and security among B. Statement No. 2 is wrong
countries. C. Statement No. 1 is wrong but Statement No. 2 is
• INTERNATIONAL COURT OF JUSTICE - correct
Primary judicial organ of the United Nations. D. Both No.1 and 2 are wrong
• ECONOMIC AND SECURITY COUNCIL – 91. What method of comparative research, when the
Assisting the General Assembly in promoting researcher communicates with a foreign researcher.
international economic and social cooperation A. Contact Research C. Collaborative
and development. B. Safari D. NONE
• Safari Method - a researcher visits another
UN SPECIAL ACTION TEAM (UNSAT) country
QUALIFICATIONS RANK REQUIREMENT 92. Irish Police are called:
For Police Commissioned Officers (PCOs): A. Militsiya C. Constable
• PINSP to PSUPT. B. Police Force D. Garda Socha
For Police Non-commissioned Officers (PNCOs): 93. Which of the following are not members of
• PO3 to SPO4 ASEANAPOL?
SERVICE REQUIREMENT A. Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia and Laos
• Minimum of 5 years of active police service B. Malaysia, Myanmar and Philippines
(excluding cadetship, officer orientation/trainee C. China, Japan, Taiwan and Hong Kong
course, and police basic course) D. Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam
TERM OF DEPLOYMENT 94. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a
• All PNP personnel who are deployed as part of Commissioner General who is appointed by:
the UN Peacekeeping Mission shall have one (1) A. Japans Emperor C. National Public Safety Commission
year tenure, extendable to 6 months B. Prime Minister D. Japan Commission
AGE REQUIREMENT 95. The following are examples of Transnational Crime,
EXCEPT:
• 25 to 53 years old
A. Piracy C. Drugs
85. First Female Filipino commissioned officer in a UN
B. Small Arms Smuggling D. Rebellion
integral mission.
96. The following are the language of communication used
A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
by the Gen. Secretariat of INTERPOL:
B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas D. Jolly R. Bugarin
a. French; b. Mandarin;
• SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-
c. English; d. Arabic;
Commissioned officer in a UN integral Mission
and e. Spanish.
• P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First Commissioned officer A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
in UN Integral Mission B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
• Jolly R. Bugarin - former Filipino President of • Note: United Nation -SAFE-CR
INTERPOL in 1980 – 1984
• SPANISH ARAB FRENCH ENGLISH
86. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
CHINESE RUSSIAN
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest”
97. In US, he introduced police reforms to include
police force and in having, set up the foundation for the
educational requirement for police officer:
social stability, and has won a good reputation as one of
A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert Peel
the safety cities in the world.
B. August Volmer D. O.W. Wilson
A. Philippine National Police C. Japan Police Department
• ROBERT PEEL – Father of Modern policing
B. Hong Kong Police Force D. NONE
System
87. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO

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• O.W. WILSON - responsible in reducing

corruption and introduced professionalism in
Winchita, Kansas and Chicago Police
Department.
98. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run
by the:
A. Director General C. Supervisor
B. Inspector General D. Secretary General
99. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
A. Policeman C. Chief
Superintendent
B. Superintendent D. Senior
Superintendent
100. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in
Japan:
A. Keishi C. Koban
B. Omerta D. Chuzaisho
101. Refers to the Japanese military force.
A. Kempetai C. Imperial Guard
B. NPA D. None of these

END
“LIVE A SIMPLE LIFE, DON’T LET POWER, FAME,
AND WEALTH CORRUPT YOUR PRECIOUS SOUL,
LIVE BY EXAMPLE AND SERVE TO OTHER”
“GOOD LUCK AND GOD BLESS YOU ALL AND SEE
YOU AGAIN IN YOUR OATH TAKING”
SIR JSB

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