CHAPTER 3 – DIESEL PLANT D. Fourth stroke 12.

The portion of the piston which extends below the

piston pin and serves as a guide for the piston and
1. An engine in which the fuel is burned directly Answer: A connecting rod.
within the working cylinder. A. Piston skirt
A. Internal combustion engine 7. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is B. Piston ring
B. External combustion engine A. First stroke C. Piston scoring
C. Compression ignition engine B. Second stroke D. Piston seizure
D. Spark ignition engine C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B 13. Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually
2. An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of near the top and near the bottom.
the power cylinder. A. Piston skirt
A. Internal combustion engine B. Piston ring
B. External combustion engine 8. Which of the following strokes is produced by the C. Piston scoring
C. Compression ignition engine burning gases: D. Piston seizure
D. Spark ignition engine A. First stroke
B. Second stroke Answer: B
Answer: B C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke 14. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a
3. An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of result of the lubrication having been destroyed by
compression. Answer: C excessive temperature and friction.
A. Internal combustion engine A. Piston skirt
B. External combustion engine 9. Which of the following strokes expels the burned B. Piston ring
C. Compression ignition engine gases? C. Piston scoring
D. Spark ignition engine A. First stroke D. Piston seizure
B. Second stroke
Answer: C C. Third stroke Answer: D
D. Fourth stroke
4. What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil? 15. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It
A. 800 to 1000F Answer: D is caused by the piston scraping the cylinder wall
B. 700 to 900F in its movement without proper lubrication.
C. 900 to 1100F 10. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing A. Piston skirt
D. 1000 to 1200F into it a current of air which provides clean air for B. Piston ring
the next compression stroke. C. Piston scoring
Answer: A A. Scavenging D. Piston seizure
B. Supercharging
5. What air pressure is required to produce the C. Choking Answer: C
required ignition temperature? D. Knocking
A. 350 to 500 psi 16. A device which automatically governs or controls
B. 250 to 400 psi Answer: A the speed of an engine.
C. 450 to 600 psi A. Servomotor
D. 150 to 300 psi 11. Increasing the total amount of charging air in the B. Governor
working cylinder of the engine. C. Indicator
Answer: A A. Scavenging D. Speedometer
B. Supercharging
6. In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air into the C. Choking Answer: B
cylinder is what stroke? D. Knocking
A. First stroke 17. A combination of liquids which do not mix - or
B. Second stroke Answer: B combine chemically.
C. Third stroke A. Emulsion
 B. Deposition 23. A chamber so proportioned with respect to the Answer: A
C. Evaporation clearance volume proper of the cylinder that only
D. Separation about 30% of the combustion takes place within 28. What are the exhaust gas temperatures at normal
the chamber itself. operating conditions?
Answer: A A. Pre combustion chamber A. Between 400 and 700F
B. Separate combustion chamber B. Between 500 and 800F
18. What temperature should be the maximum to C. Ante combustion chamber C. Between 300 and 600F
which lubricating oil is permitted to rise? D. Mixed combustion chamber D. Between 200 and 500F
A. Not more than 100F
B. Not more than 200F Answer: A Answer: A
C. Not more than 300F
D. Not more than 400F 24. The entire charge is ignited in the separate 29. How are high speed Diesel engines started?
combustion chamber before the initial expansion A. By an electric motor
Answer: A takes place, forcing the burning gases through the B. By compressed air
connecting passages and against the moving C. By diesel fuel
19. What air pressure is needed for air starting a piston. D. By an electric spark
Diesel engine? A. Pre combustion chamber
A. 250 psi B. Separate combustion chamber Answer: A
B. 150 psi C. Ante combustion chamber
C. 350 psi D. Mixed combustion chamber 30. What speeds are considered high speed diesel
D. 450 psi engine?
Answer: B A. 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm
Answer: A B. 100 to 1000 rpm
25. A chamber so designed that injection takes place C. 100 to 1500 rpm
20. At what temperature will self-igniting cartridges directly opposite its outlet, the chamber extending D. 100 to 1750 rpm
ignite? backward from the outlet.
A. About 200F A. Pre combustion chamber Answer: A
B. About 190F B. Separate combustion chamber
C. About 210F C. Ante combustion chamber 31. It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil
D. About 250F D. Air cell chamber and through which the fuel oil Is injected into the
working cylinders of Diesel engines.
Answer: B Answer: C A. Atomizer
B. Fuel spray nozzle
21. The fuel is supplied by one pump and switched to 26. Fuel is injected only into the main cylinder, during C. Injector
each cylinder by a multi outlet rotating valve or expansion of the burning gases in the main D. Cracker
distributor. chamber, when the pressure therein drops below
A. Distributor system that of the air in the cell. Answer: A
B. Injector system A. Pre combustion chamber
C. Non injector system B. Separate combustion chamber 32. What is the proper seat width of a spray valve?
D. Non distributor system C. Ante combustion chamber A. 1/16 in.
D. Air cell chamber B. 1/8 in.
Answer: A C. 1/32 in.
Answer: D D. ¼ in.
22. This is virtually a distributor two stage pumping
system that is, modified distributor system. 27. What is the temperature of the air in the cylinder Answer: A
A. Distributor system when the Diesel engine is operating at full load?
B. Injector system A. Between 800 and 1100F 33. A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel system
C. Non injector system B. Between 800 and 1000F to absorb the shock of the injection pumps and to
D. Non distributor system C. Between 900 and 1200F provide a reservoir at high pressure for supplying
D. Between 900 and 1100F an even flow of fuel oil to the cylinders.
Answer: B A. Absorber
 B. Accumulator 39. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept C. 14 to 19
C. Governor volume. D. 10.5 to 14.5
D. Injector A. Fractional clearance
B. Compression ratio Answer: A
Answer: B C. Expansion ratio
D. Cut off ratio 45. In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency was not
34. How hot are the exhaust gases? much higher than about what percent?
A. 400 to 700F Answer: A A. 35%
B. 300 to 600F B. 30%
C. 200 to 500F 40. The piston is at maximum reach from the C. 40%
D. 500 to 800F crankshaft to which of the following? D. 50%
A. Top dead center
Answer: A B. Bottom dead center Answer: A
C. ¾ from top center
35. Which of the following is an automatic device used D. ¾ from bottom center 46. A closed heat exchanger that transfers heat from
for keeping constant air pressure? compressed air to cooler air.
A. Relief valve Answer: A A. Regenerator
B. Unloader B. Intercooler
C. Strainer 41. The piston is closest to the crankshaft to which of C. Aftercooler
D. Barometer the following? D. Reheater
A. Top dead center
Answer: B B. Bottom dead center Answer: C
C. ¾ from top center
36. What is the other term of the diameter of the D. ¾ from bottom center 47. Which of the following is used to improve cold
circular cylinder? weather starting?
A. Bore Answer: B A. Poppet valve
B. Stroke B. Glow plug
C. Swept volume 42. Which of the following engines where the C. Check valve
D. Clearance expanding combustion gases act on one end of D. Spark plug
the piston?
Answer: A A. Single acting engine Answer: B
B. Double acting engine
37. What do you call the maximum distance traveled C. Single expansion engine 48. The rated power that the manufacturer claims the
by the piston? D. Double expansion engine engine is able to provide on a continuous basis
A. Bore without incurring damage.
B. Stroke Answer: A A. Brakepower
C. Swept volume B. Continuous duty rating
D. Clearance 43. Which of the following types of engine where the C. Intermittent rating
expanding combustion gases act on both ends of D. Power rating
Answer: B the piston?
A. Single acting engine Answer: B
38. Which of the following is the product of the B. Double acting engine
cylinder area and stroke? C. Single expansion engine 49. What is the peak power rating that can be
A. Bore D. Double expansion engine produced on an occasional basis?
B. Stroke A. Brakepower
C. Swept volume Answer: B B. Continuous duty rating
D. Clearance C. Intermittent rating
44. The compression ratio of a Diesel engine varies D. Power rating
Answer: C from about:
A. 13.5 to 17.5 Answer. C
B. 8 to 10
 50. Which of the following is the value of a property 5. A regenerator in a gas turbine: 11. Which of the following turbine has least weight per
that includes the effect of friction? A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust bhp developed?
A. Brake value B. Allows use of higher compression ratio A. Simple open cycle gas turbine
B. Friction value C. Improves thermal efficiency B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling and
C. Indicated value D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality reheating
D. Actual value C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling,
Answer: C reheating and regenerating
Answer. A D. Closed cycle gas turbine
6. Which of the following compressors is generally
CHAPTER 4 – GAS TURBINE used for gas turbines? Answer: A
A. Lobe type
1. Brayton cycle has: B. Centrifugal type 12. Which of the following is/are advantage of closed
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume C. Axial flow type cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas turbine?
processes D. Reciprocating type A. No containing of working substance with
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure combustion gases
processes Answer: C B. Inferior quality fuel can be used
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume C. Low maintenance costs
and two adiabatic processes 7. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the D. All of the above
D. Two isothermals, one constant volume and a principle of:
constant pressure process A. Carnot cycle Answer: D
B. Bell-Coleman cycle
Answer: B C. Rankine cycle 13. The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is:
D. Brayton cycle A. 3 to 5
2. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating B. 5 to 8
engines even for same adiabatic compression Answer: D C. 8 to 12
ratio and work output because: D. 12 to 20
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient 8. What type of gas turbine is used in air craft?
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient A. Open cycle type Answer: B
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only B. Closed cycle type with reheating
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be C. Closed type with reheating and regeneration 14. A constant volume combustion gas turbine
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines D. Open cycle type with reheating, regeneration operates on:
and intercooling A. Ericson cycle
Answer: D B. Joule cycle
Answer: A C. Brayton cycle
3. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine? D. Atkinson cycle
A. Otto cycle 9. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste
B. Dual cycle heat boiler is used to: Answer: D
C. Carnot cycle A. Heat air from intercooler
D. Brayton cycle B. Gases from regenerator 15. Past ME Board Question
C. Recover from regenerator Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer
Answer: D D. None of the above between the exhaust gases and the air prior to its
entrance to the combustor.
4. When r is the compression ratio, the efficiency of Answer: C A. Evaporator
Brayton cycle is given by: B. Combustion chamber
A. 1-1/𝑟 (𝑘−1)/𝑘 10. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is: C. Regenerator
B. 1-1/𝑟 𝑘−1 A. Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency D. Heater
C. 1-1/𝑟 𝑘 B. Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
D. 1-1/r C. Less than Diesel cycle efficiency Answer: C
D. More than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
Answer: A 16. Past ME Board Question
Answer: C
 How does the value for work per unit mass flow of 21. Large units gas turbine regularly operate: 27. The compression ratio based on pressures of
air in the compressor and turbine influenced by the A. In 100 to 200 MW range heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of ____.
addition of a regenerator? B. In 50 to 100 MW range A. 14 to 15
A. Slightly increased C. Over 150 MW B. 19 to 21
B. Unchanged D. Below 150 MW C. 11 to 16
C. Greatly decreased D. 16 to 18
D. Greatly increased Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B 22. Small units gas turbine typically have:
A. Double shafts 28. Aeroderivative combustion turbine have higher
17. Past ME Board Question B. Single shafts compression ratios typically:
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work? C. Triple shafts A. 14 to 15
A. Brayton cycle D. Quadruple shafts B. 19 to 21
B. Stag combined cycle C. 11 to 16
C. Bottom cycle Answer: B D. 16 to 18
D. Ericson cycle
23. Heavy duty gas turbines typically have: Answer: B
Answer: A A. Double shafts
B. Single shaft 29. Most heavy duty combustion turbines have how
18. Past ME Board Question C. Triple shafts many compression stages?
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating D. Quadruple shafts A. 14 to 16
engines even for same adiabatic compression B. 18 to 20
ratio and work output because: Answer: B C. 10 to 12
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient D. 16 to 18
B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only 24. Which of the following is basically a jet engine that
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio exhausts into a turbine generator? Answer: D
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be A. Aeroderivative gas turbine
efficient handled in reciprocating engines B. Industrial gas turbine 30. The temperature of the gas entering the expander
C. Brayton engine section is typically:
Answer: D D. Joule turbine A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
19. Past ME Board Question Answer: A C. 1500 C to 1490 C
In order to increase the gas velocity gas turbines D. 1300 C to 1390 C
generally have fixed nozzles. This is to allow the: 25. Most aeroderivative combustion turbine produce
A. Compression of gases less than: Answer: A
B. Condensation of gases A. 20 MW
C. Expansion of gases B. 30 MW 31. The exhaust temperature which makes the
D. Evaporation of gases C. 40 MW exhaust an ideal heat source for combined cycles
D. 50 MW is typically:
Answer: C A. 540 C to 590 C
Answer: C B. 600 C to 650 C
20. Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the C. 300 C to 350 C
preferred combustion engines in application much 26. The compression ratio based on pressures in the D. 440 C to 490 C
above ______. compression stage in a gas turbine is typically:
A. 8MW A. 11 to 16 Answer: A
B. 9mw B. 5 to 8
C. 10MW C. 12 to 18 32. Most combustion turbines have:
D. 7MW D. 8 to 14 A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 3 to 4 expander stages
Answer: C Answer: A C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 1 to 2 expander stages
 Answer: B A. 34 to 36 % Answer: A
B. 30 to 32 %
33. The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty C. 40 to 42 % 44. A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in:
turbines per 100 MW is approximately: D. 26 to 28 % A. Compressor and turbine work
A. 240 to 250 kg/s B. Heat added
B. 140 to 150 kg/s Answer: A C. Thermal efficiency
C. 340 to 350 kg/s D. Combustor
D. 440 to 450 kg/s 39. New combustion turbines on the cutting edge of
technology ( Advanced turbine systems ) are able Answer: A
Answer: A to achieve
A. 38 to 38.5 % 45. In a Brayton cycle multiple stages of compression
34. The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also known as: B. 36 to 36.5 % and expansion will ________.
A. Joule cycle C. 40 to 40.5 % A. Increase thermal efficiency
B. Stirling cycle D. 34 to 34.5 % B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Ericsson cycle C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Atkinson cycle Answer: A D. Control efficiency

Answer: A 40. Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieve Answer: A

efficiencies up to:
35. Approximately how many percent of the turbine A. 42 % 46. In a Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling will
power is used to drive the high efficiency B. 38 % ___________.
compressor? C. 45 % A. Increase thermal efficiency
A. 50 to 75 % D. 35 % B. Decrease thermal efficiency
B. 60 to 85 % C. Limit thermal efficiency
C. 45 to 70 % Answer: A D. Control efficiency
D. 30 to 55 %
41. Which of the following is the typical backwork ratio Answer: A
Answer: A of gas turbines?
A. 50 to 75 % 47. In a Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in:
36. Depending on the turbine construction details, the B. 40 to 65 % A. Heat added
temperature of the air entering the turbine will be C. 30 to 55 % B. Thermal efficiency
between: D. 35 to 60 % C. Backwork ratio
A. 650 C to 1000 C D. Network
B. 750 C to 1100 C Answer: A
C. 550 C to 950 C Answer: A
D. 850 C to 1200 C 42. Which of the following is an example of a
regenerator? 48. In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect in:
Answer: A A. A counterflow heat exchanger A. Turbine work
B. A cross flow heat exchanger B. Thermal efficiency
37. Which of the following engines are typically used C. A mixed flow heat exchanger C. Backwork ratio
by Turbojet and turboprop? D. A parallel flow heat exchanger D. Network
A. Open combustors
B. Closed combustors Answer: B Answer: A
C. Turbo combustors
D. High combustors 43. Which of the following is an effect of having a 49. If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the
regenerator? compressor power then the backwork ratio is
Answer: A A. Less heat is added A. Wt / Wc
B. Compressor work is reduced B. Wc / Wt
38. The full load thermal efficiency of existing heavy C. Turbine work is increased C. Wt - Wc
duty combustion turbines in simple cycles is D. Compressor work is increased Wt
approximately: D. Wt - Wc
 Wc 4. A high pressure chamber or a device in which the Answer: A
paths of rapidly moving particles can be observed
Answer: B and photographed. 10. The lowest permissible water level of a boiler
A. Cloud chamber without internal furnace is _____the height of the
50. If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the B. Combustion chamber shell.
compressor power then the network is: C. Fission chamber A. 1/2
A. Wt x Wc D. Air chamber B. 1/3
B. Wc / Wt C. 1/4
C. Wt - Wc Answer: A D. 1/5
D. Wt + Wc
5. The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is called Answer: B
Answer: C A. Bubbling
B. Foaming 11. In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is the ratio
51. Physical limitations usually preclude more than C. Priming of:
how many stages of intercooling and reheating? D. Carryover A. Pressure at cut off to supply pressure
A. 2 B. Pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
B. 3 Answer: B C. Pressure at cut off to mean effective pressure
C. 4 D. Fraction of piston stroke which the piston has
D. 5 6. How many check valves should be provided traveled when cut off occurs
between any feed pump and boiler?
Answer: A A. 1 Answer: D
B. 2
CHAPTER 5 – STEAM POWER PLANT C. 3 12. In a condensing steam engine
D. 4 A. Condensed steam is supplied
1. Which of the following factors does bursting B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend? Answer: B C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the
A. Tensile strength of the shell cylinder
B. Thickness of the shell 7. The water level inside the boiler is indicated by the D. Exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
C. Diameter of the shell A. Baffles
D. Shear strength of shell material B. Fusible plug Answer: D
C. Water walls
Answer: D D. Water column 13. Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with
increasing fluid velocity will create an equivalent
2. Which of the following factors does working Answer: D A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend? B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
A. Tensile strength of shell 8. What is the highest pressure under which C. Decrease in the internal energy of fluid
B. Thickness of shell distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can exist D. Decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid
C. Factor of safety in equilibrium?
D. Type of fuel being fired A. Maximum pressure Answer: A
B. Atmosphere
Answer: D C. Critical pressure 14. The term V 2 /2Cp responds to the temperature rise
D. Peak pressure during such a process and is called the
3. Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler A. Kinetic temperature
depend upon Answer: C B. High temperature
A. Boiler pressure C. Dynamic temperature
B. Quantity of steam to be generated 9. What is the average fuel – oil temperature range D. Elevation temperature
C. Type of fuel available of the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?
D. Quantity of steam A. 180 – 200 F ͦ Answer: C
B. 240 – 260 F ͦ
Answer: A C. 160 – 180 F ͦ 15. All of the following mechanism can supply heat to
D. 140 – 160 F ͦ a thermodynamic system except
 A. Conduction 21. A converging – diverging nozzle is the standard A. Dalton’s line
B. Natural convection equipment in: B. Willan’s line
C. Adiabatic expansion A. Subsonic aircraft C. Jonval’s line
D. Radiation B. Supersonic aircraft D. Rankine line
C. Hypersonic aircraft
Answer: C D. Trisonic aircraft Answer: B

16. The flow through the nozzle is Answer: B 27. An inventor proposes to develop electrical power
A. Isentropic by withdrawing heat from the geyser fields of
B. Polytropic 22. For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in fluid northern California and converting it all to work in
C. Isobaric properties occur in a very thin section of power turbines. The scheme will not work
D. Isovolumic converging – diverging nozzle under supersonic because:
flow conditions, creating A. The geyser fields have only a limited lifetime
Answer: A A. Sound wave B. The salinity of the steam is too great
B. Tidal wave C. It violates the first law of thermodynamics
17. If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle inlet C. Shock wave D. It violates the second law of thermodynamics
velocity is D. None of these
A. Maximum Answer: D
B. Negative Answer: C
C. Positive 28. The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by
D. Zero 23. Is the locus of states which have the same value A. The ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are called: B. The ratio of actual to ideal energy inputted
Answer: D A. Fanno line C. The ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
B. Straight line D. None of the above
18. Which of the following is the pressure applied at C. Willan’s line
the nozzle discharge section? D. Cross cut line Answer: A
A. Stagnant pressure
B. Critical pressure Answer: A 29. Past ME Board Question
C. Back pressure Which of the following is not a main part of a
D. Atmospheric pressure 24. Combination of mass and momentum equations typical coal burner?
into a single equation and plotted in h-s plane yield A. Air registers
Answer: C a curve called: B. Nozzle
A. Fair line C. Atomizer
19. When the back pressure is reduced to lowest exit B. Freh line D. Ignitor
pressure, the mass flow reaches a maximum C. Cutting line
value and the flow is said to be: D. Rayleigh line Answer: C
A. Stacked
B. Choked Answer: D 30. Past ME Board Question
C. Stuck-up Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat
D. Clog-up 25. Generally steam turbines in power station operate given by the furnace to the water and steam is:
at A. Grate efficiency
Answer: B A. 3000 rpm B. Stroke efficiency
B. 1000 rpm C. Furnace efficiency
20. An increase in stagnation pressure will increase C. 4000 rpm D. Boiler efficiency
the mass flux through the: D. 575 rpm
A. Diverging nozzle Answer: D
B. Converging nozzle Answer: A
C. Converging – diverging nozzle 31. Past ME Board Question
D. None of these 26. Which of the following shows the relationship of A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a
the steam consumption and the load of steam steam gauge to a boiler to:
Answer: B turbine generator? A. Maintain constant steam flow
 B. Protect the gauge element 36. Past ME Board Question Answer: D
C. Prevent steam knocking The process in which heat energy is transferred to
D. Maintain steam pressure a thermal energy storage device is known as: 41. Past ME Board Question
A. Adiabatic Is one whose pressure is higher than the
Answer: B B. Regeneration saturation pressure corresponding to its
C. Intercooling temperature.
32. Past ME Board Question D. Isentropic A. Compressed liquid
Which of the following is a great advantage of a B. Saturated liquid
fire tube boiler? Answer: B C. Saturated vapor
A. Steam pressure is not ready D. Superheated vapor
B. Contains a large volume of water and 37. Past ME Board Question
requires a long interval of time to raise steam When the boiler pressure increases or when the Answer: A
and not so flexible as to changes in steam exhaust pressure decreases, the amount of
demand moisture 42. Past ME Board Question
C. Cannot use impure water A. Increases In a steam generator with good combustion
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is B. Decreases control, what occurs if the load is increased?
inside the boiler and surrounded by water C. Constant A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases
D. Zero B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
Answer: B C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant
Answer: A D. Economizer gas outlet temperature
33. Past ME Board Question decreases
One of the following tasks which is an example of 38. Past ME Board Question
preventive maintenance is When the number of reheat stages in a reheat Answer: C
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner cycle is increased, the average temperature
B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer A. Increases 43. Past ME Board Question
C. Replacing a leaking valve B. Decreases Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler
D. Replacing a blown fuse C. Is constant depend upon
D. Is zero A. Boiler pressure
Answer: A B. Type of fuel available
Answer: A C. Quantity of steam to be generated
34. Past ME Board Question D. Quantity of steam
The carbon dioxide ( CO2 ) percentage in the flue 39. Past ME Board Question
gas of an efficiency fired boiler should be A heat transfer device that reduces a Answer: A
approximately thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to its
A. 1 % liquid phase such as in vapor compression 44. Past ME Board Question
B. 12 % refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam power The gaseous state of water
C. 18 % plant A. Water gas
D. 20 % A. Flash vessel B. Blue gas
B. Cooling tower C. Water vapor
Answer: B C. Condenser D. Yellow gas
D. Steam separator
35. ME Board October 1993 Answer: C
When droplets of water are carried by steam in the Answer: C
boiler 45. A liquid boils when it vapor pressure equals
A. Priming 40. Past ME Board Question A. The gage pressure
B. Foaming A simultaneous generation of electricity and steam B. The critical pressure
C. Carryover (or heat) in a single power plant C. The ambient pressure
D. Embrittlement A. Gas turbine D. One standard atmosphere
B. Steam turbine
Answer: A C. Waste heat recovery Answer: C
D. Cogeneration
46. Past ME Board Question D. Ion exchange treatment D. Decrease in the temp. and pressure of fluid
What are the main components in a combined
cycle power plant? Answer: B Answer: B
A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler 51. Past ME Board Question 56. Past ME Board Question
C. Steam boiler and turbine The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as How can the average temperature during heat
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler compared to steam turbine or gas turbine is rejection process of a Rankine cycle be
A. Greater than decreased?
Answer: B B. Less than A. Increase boiler pressure
C. Lower than B. Increase turbine pressure
47. Past ME Board Question D. Equal to C. Increase condenser pressure
A change in the efficiency of combustion in a D. Reduce turbine exit pressure
boiler can usually be determined by comparing the Answer: A
previously recorded readings with the current Answer: D
readings of the _________. 52. Past ME Board Question
A. Stack temperature and CO A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs when 57. Past ME Board Question
B. Over the fire draft and CO there is: Which of the following ascertains the effectiveness
C. Ringleman chart and CO2 A. Moderate drop in steam load and the size of a condenser?
D. Stack temperature and CO2 B. Constant drop in steam load A. Number of passes
C. Abrupt drop in steam load B. Thickness of the shell
Answer: D D. Gradual drop in steam load C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer
48. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
A boiler steam gauge should have a range of at Answer: D
least 53. Past ME Board Question
A. One half the working steam pressure The most economical and low maintenance cost 58. Past ME Board Question
B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable condenser. A boiler has a bursing pressure, BP of 600 kPa
working pressure A. Water – cooled and a factor of safety, FS of 8 is employed in
C. The working steam pressure B. Air – cooled design. As an engineer, would you advice to have
D. Twice the maximum allowable working C. Evaporative a working pressure, WP of 500 kPa?
pressure D. Sub – cooled A. No. WP must be higher than 500 kPa
B. No. WP is only 75 kPa at FS of 8
Answer: B Answer: B C. Yes. Since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes. To attain better efficiency
49. Past ME Board Question 54. Past ME Board Question
In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of What is commonly done to system when the Answer: B
combustion passed: turbine has excessive moisture?
A. Through the combustion chamber only A. Frosting 59. Past ME Board Question
B. Through the tubes B. Diffusing What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam power
C. Away from tubes C. Reheating plant?
D. Around the tubes D. Dehumidifying A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
Answer: D Answer: C C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
50. Past ME Board Question 55. Past ME Board Question
A chemical method of feedwater treatment which What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic energy Answer: D
uses calcium hydroxide and sodium carbonate as during a stagnation process is transformed to
reagents enthalpy?
A. Thermal treatment A. Decrease in fluids volume
B. Lime soda treatment B. Rise in the temp. and pressure of the fluid 60. Past ME Board Question
C. Demineralization process C. Rise in fluid’s volume Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine:
 A. Level of steam Answer: B C. X-rays
B. Specific heat D. Photons
C. Level of water 6. A dense, fine grained, light colored igneous rock
D. Pressure which is rich in silica. Answer: C
A. Felsite
Answer: C B. Feldspar 12. In geothermal power plants waste water is:
C. Flint A. Recirculated after cooling in cooling lowers
CHAPTER 6 – GEOTHERMAL PLANT D. Flux B. Discharged into sea
C. Evaporated in ponds
1. Refers to the internal heat from the earth. Answer: A D. Discharged back to earth
A. Geothermal
B. Thermal energy 7. An opening in lava or in volcanic area through Answer: D
C. Molten heat which steam and other hot gases are escaping
D. Tectonic heat into the air is called: 13. Past ME Board Question
A. Fumarole In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, what
Answer: A B. Volcanic leaks process occurs when the saturated steam passes
C. Seismic outlets through the turbine?
2. A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate which D. Seismic leaks A. Isobaric
constitute about 60% of the earth’s surface. B. Polytropic
A. Soil Answer: A C. Isometric
B. Feldspar D. Isentropic
C. Flux 8. Tidal power is the power generated from:
D. Flint A. Waves of the ocean Answer: B
B. Rise and fall tides
Answer: B C. Thermal energy of ocean water 14. Past ME Board Question
D. Raw sea water What do you call a conversion technology that
3. A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline form of yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
silica, which is dens, tough, breaking with a Answer: B aid of a working substance like gas or steam
conchoidal fracture. without the use of any mechanical cycle?
A. Gravel 9. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical A. Power conversion
B. Stalactite energy. B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Flint A. Fuel cell C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Flux B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
C. Battery
Answer: C D. Thermoelectric generator Answer: D

4. Is the process of using injection wells to bubble air Answer: A 15. Past ME Board Question
through groundwater. Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:
A. Air stripping 10. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually A. Low head and intermittent power
B. Staged combustion light in the visible region. B. High head
C. Sparging A. Photovoltaic cell C. Cheap energy source
D. Soil washing B. Solar cell D. Expensive energy source
C. Dry cell
Answer: C D. A or B Answer: C

5. A popular term used by utilities to mean upgrading Answer: D 16. Past ME Board Question
existing plant. What do you call a conversion technology that
A. Replanting 11. All of the following terms are synonymous with yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
B. Repowering quanta of electromagnetic theory except: aid of a working substance like gas or steam
C. Recharging A. Packets without the use of any mechanical cycle?
D. Reorganizing B. Corpuscles A. Power conversion
 B. Stirling cycle conversion 22. The flow process through shock waves is highly 28. Solar energy is captured in:
C. Solar thermal conversion irreversible and cannot be approximated as being: A. Sun capturer
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion A. Polytropic B. Solar collector
B. Isometric C. Sun collector
Answer: D C. Hyperbolic D. Greenhouse capturer
D. Isentropic
17. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
Tidal power plant is attractive because it has: Answer: D
A. Low head and intermittent power 29. Which of the following solar collectors are
B. High head 23. Beaufort scale is used for measuring what? essentially wide, flat boxes with clear plastic or
C. Cheap energy source A. Beta and gamma radiations glass coverings known as the glazing.
D. Expensive energy source B. Wind speed A. Flat plate collectors
C. Insolation B. Concentrating collectors
Answer: C D. Depth of sea C. Focusing collectors
D. Evacuated tube collectors
18. Tidal power is the power generated from: Answer: B
A. Waves of the ocean Answer: A
B. Rise and fall tides 24. Betz law is widely used in:
C. Thermal energy of ocean water A. MHD systems 30. Which of the following collectors use mirrors
D. Raw sea water B. Solar cells and/or lenses to focus the suns energy on a small
C. Geothermal power plants absorber area.
Answer: B D. Wind mills A. Flat plate collectors
B. Concentrating collectors
19. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical Answer: D C. Non focusing collectors
energy. D. Evacuated tube collectors
A. Fuel cell 25. Rocks having excessive internal stresses may
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator produce spalling. These rocks are called as ____ Answer: B
C. Battery A. Stratified rocks
D. Thermoelectric generator B. Popping rocks 31. Which of the following collectors are more
C. Crushed rocks complex but their efficiencies are higher?
Answer: A D. Swelling rocks A. Flat plate collectors
B. Concentrating collectors
20. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually Answer: A C. Focusing collectors
light in visible region. D. Evacuated tube collectors
A. Photovoltaic cell 26. Solar energy arrives at the outside of the earth’s
B. Solar cell atmosphere at an average rate of ________. Answer: D
C. Dry cell A. 1.354 kW/m2
D. A or B B. 1.543 kW/m2 32. Which of the following collectors are useful when
C. 2.354 kW/m2 extremely hot transfer fluid is needed and are
Answer: D D. 2.543 kW/m2 generally limited to commercial projects?
A. Flat plate collectors
21. The statement that the product of the error in the Answer: A B. Concentrating collectors
measured determination of a particle’s position C. Focusing collectors
and its momentum is of the order of Planck’s 27. How many percent of solar energy survives D. Evacuated tube collectors
constant h is known as: absorption and reflection?
A. Bohr’s theory A. 40 to 70 % Answer: D
B. D’Alembert’s paradox B. 30 to 60 %
C. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle C. 50 to 80 % 33. The shading factor in calculating the heat
D. Planck’s law D. 20 to 50 % absorbed by the solar collector has a value of
approximately:
Answer: C Answer: A A. 0.95 to 0.97
 B. 0.85 to 0.87 Answer: A B. 150 to 250 MW
C. 0.75 to 0.77 C. 100 to 300 MW
D. 0.65 to 0.67 39. Trough electric technology is relatively mature but D. 150 to 400 MW
due to the low temperatures, average annual
Answer: A thermal efficiencies are only: Answer: C
A. 10 to 15 %
34. The ratio of energy absorbed by the transfer fluid B. 5 to 10 % 45. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power plant is
to the original incident energy striking the collector. C. 15 to 20 % approximately:
A. Collector efficiency D. 25 to 30 % A. 30 %
B. Sun efficiency B. 22 %
C. Shading factor Answer: A C. 35 %
D. Absorptance D. 15 %
40. A field of heliostats or tracking mirrors
Answer: A concentrates solar energy onto a receiver on a Answer: B
central tower.
35. As the difference between the ambient air and A. Trough electric system 46. A flash steam cycle can be used if the hot water
average plate (or inlet) temperatures increases, B. Distributed collector system temperature is approximately:
what happens to the collector efficiency? C. Power tower system A. 165 C or higher
A. Increases D. Dish/Stirling system B. 150 C or higher
B. Decreases C. 145 C to 200 C
C. Constant Answer: C D. Below 200 C
D. No effect
41. In a power tower system typical thermal Answer: A
Answer: B efficiencies is in the range:
A. 10 to 15 % 47. A binary cycle using a separate heat transfer fluid
36. Distributed collector system is also known as: B. 5 to 10 % if the temperature of the hot water is between
A. Trough electric system C. 15 to 20 % approximately _________.
B. Central receiver system D. 25 to 30 % A. 165 C and 120 C
C. Power tower system B. 200 C and 150 C
D. Dish/Stirling system Answer: C C. 225 C and 175 C
D. 300 C and higher
Answer: A 42. A dish engine system has an efficiency of
A. 10 to 15 % Answer: A
37. Central receiver system is also known as: B. 5 to 10 %
A. Trough electric system C. 14 to 19 % 48. For every kilometer of depth, the temperature of
B. Distributed collector system D. 24 to 28 % the earth’ s crust increase by:
C. Power tower system A. 30 F
D. Dish/Stirling system Answer: D B. 40 F
C. 50 F
Answer: C 43. Practical and economic issues limit trough electric D. 20 F
systems to about:
38. Which of the following main approaches to solar A. 200 MW Answer: A
energy generating systems describes that B. 100 MW
parabolic tracking trough concentrators focus C. 300 MW 49. Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to 820 kPa
sunlight on evacuated glass tubes that run along D. 400 MW and temperature of ________.
the collectors focal lines. A. 205 C
A. Trough electric system Answer: A B. 155 C
B. Central receiver system C. 250 C
C. Power tower system 44. Practical and economic issues limit tower electric D. 175 C
D. Dish/Stirling system systems to approximately:
A. 100 to 200 MW Answer: A
 50. In a hot rock systems, water is injected through 5. What kind of bonding do common gases that exist 11. An electricity charged atom or radical which
injection wells into artificially made fractured rock in free as diatomic molecules experiences? carries electricity through an electrolyte is called:
beds of how many kilometers below the surface? A. Ionic bonds A. Ion
A. 1 to 6 km B. Convalent bonds B. Isotope
B. 3 to 9 km C. Metallic bonds C. Molecule
C. 4 to 10 km D. Nuclear bonds D. Hole
D. 6 to 11 km
Answer: B Answer: A
Answer: A
6. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? 12. What is the smallest particle of an element that
CHAPTER 7 – NUCLEAR PLANT A. Atomic unit can enter into a chemical reaction?
B. MeV A. Molecule
1. Past ME Board Question C. Dynes B. Ion
What is the suggested maximum permissible dose D. Ergs C. Atom
(MPD) of gamma ray exposure for general D. Isotope
individuals not working in a nuclear setting, by Answer: C
choice, in rem/year? Answer: C
A. 1 7. The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller
B. 5 fragments. 13. Beryllium, magnesium, and calcium all belong to
C. ½ A. Fusion which elemental grouping?
D. 3 B. Fission A. Noble elements
C. Photoelectric effect B. Halogens
Answer: C D. Compton’s effect C. Lanthanons
D. Alkaline earth metals
2. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom Answer: D
of the number of electrons in the orbit of an atom 8. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?
A. Atomic volume A. Calories 14. The thickness of material required to attenuate
B. Atomic number B. Joules radiation to a particular level depends on
C. Atomic weight C. Pascals A. The particle
D. Atomic mass D. MeV B. The particle energy
C. The shielding material
Answer: B Answer: C D. The particle, its energy, and the shielding
material
3. The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller 9. The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is
fragments. dependent upon which parameter? Answer: D
A. Fusion A. Absorption cross section
B. Fission B. Scattering cross section 15. Particles that are easily stopped within a few
C. Photoelectric effect C. Total cross section millimeter because their double charges generate
D. Compton’s effect D. Atomic number path ionization and because they are susceptible
to electrostatic interaction are:
Answer: B Answer: A A. Alpha neurons
B. Alpha radiations
4. The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is 10. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? C. Beta radiations
dependent upon which parameter? A. Atomic unit D. Gamma radiations
A. Absorption cross section B. MeV
B. Scattering cross section C. Dynes Answer: B
C. Total cross section D. Ergs
D. Atomic number 16. Radiation consisting of singly charged particles
Answer: C that generate to intermediate distances are called:
Answer: A A. Fast neurons
 B. Alpha radiations Answer: A 27. The total energy of an electron in the same shell is
C. Beta radiations defined by the _________.
D. Gamma radiations 22. Radiation exposure, the measure of gamma A. Principal quantum number
radiation at the surface of an object is measured B. Azimuthal quantum number
Answer: C in: C. Magnetic quantum number
A. Rems D. Hund rule
17. Radiation with no charge, which produces no B. Rads
ionization , and which is difficult to attenuate thus C. Roentegens Answer: A
posing a major health threat is D. Roentegens per second
A. Slow neutrons 28. The direction of an electron’s angular momentum
B. Alpha radiations Answer: C vector is defined by the
C. Beta radiations A. Principal quantum number
D. Gamma radiations 23. Radiation exposure rate, the rate of gamma B. Azimuthal quantum number
radiation at the surface of an object is measured in C. Magnetic quantum number
Answer: D A. Rems D. Electron spin quantum number
B. Rads
18. The property of fluid at a location when the Mach C. Roentegens Answer: C
number is unity (at the throat) are called: D. Roentegens per second
A. Critical properties 29. The electron’s spin angular momentum vector is
B. Sonic properties Answer: D defined by the
C. Dynamic properties A. Azimuthal quantum number
D. Stagnation properties 24. Exposure is a measure of ionization surrounding a B. Magnetic quantum number
person, but biological damage is dependent on the C. Electron spin quantum number
Answer: A amount of energy. D. Hund rule
A. Striking the surface
19. Gamma attenuation is affected by: B. Passing through the body Answer: C
A. Their photoelectric effect C. Absorbed
B. Pair production D. Reflected by the surface 30. The magnitude of an electron’s angular
C. Compton scattering momentum vector is defined by the
D. The photoelectric effect, pair production and Answer: C A. Principal quantum number
Compton scattering B. Azimuthal quantum number
25. All of the following are practical applications of C. Electron spin quantum number
Answer: D Einstein’s principle of special relativity except D. Hund rule
_____.
20. The amount of a radiation shield’s dimensional A. Mass increase Answer: B
geometry that reduces radiation to half of its B. Length contraction
original value is called the _________. C. Time dilation 31. The fact that each orbital of a set of equal-energy
A. Half-value mass D. Space warping orbitals must be occupied with an electron before
B. Half-value thickness any orbitals has two electrons is specified by
C. Semi-cross section Answer: D which of the following?
D. Iogarithmic decrement A. Principal quantum number
26. The postulate that no signal or energy can be B. Azimuthal quantum number
Answer: B transmitted with a speed greater than the speed of C. Magnetic quantum number
light is consistent with _________. D. Hund rule
21. The amount of a radiation shield’s density that A. The Heisenburg uncertainty principle
reduces radiation to half of its original value is B. The Compton effect Answer: D
called the _____________. C. Einstein’s law
A. Half-value mass D. Newton’s second law 32. The statement that no two electrons can have the
B. Half-value thickness same set of four quantum numbers is known as
C. Semi-cross section Answer: C the
D. Iogarithmic decrement A. Hund rule
 B. Heisenburg uncertainty principle B. Work function 4. A ________boiler has water in the tubes and heat
C. Pauli exclusion principle C. Coulomb energy gases of combustion passing around the tubes.
D. Schrodinger equation D. Fermi energy A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
Answer: C Answer: B C. Water tube
D. Firebox
33. All of the following terms describe the radiation 38. Which of the following is not a postulate of Bohr’s
lines from transitions of electrons in an atom theory of the hydrogen atom? Answer: C
except A. Electron orbits are discrete and non-radiating
A. Sharp and an electron may not remain between 5. Which of the following are used in boilers to direct
B. Principal these orbits the gases of combustion over the boiler heating
C. Obtuse B. The energy change experienced by an surface?
D. Fundamental electron changing from one orbit to another is A. Combustion control
quantized B. Baffles
Answer: C C. Light waves exist simultaneously as high C. Fire tubes
frequency electrical and magnetic waves D. Zone controls
34. When electrons are not shared equally between D. Angular momentum is quantized
two elements, the electrons spend more time with Answer: B
one element than with the other, the bonding is Answer: C
called: 6. The three basic type of low pressure heating
A. Ionic bonding CHAPTER 8 – BOILERS boilers are _______, _______ and _______.
B. Polar covalent bonding A. Firebox; vertical; locomotive
C. Non-polar covalent bonding 1. Which of the following is necessary to generate B. Scotch marine; wet-top; dry top
D. Metallic bonding steam in a boiler? C. Straight-tube; bent tube; multiple pass
A. A container D. Fire-tube; water tube; cast iron sectional
Answer: B B. Heat
C. Water Answer: D
35. When electrons are shared equally( e.g. when the D. All of the above
atoms are the same as in diatomic gases) the 7. In a low pressure gas system, the gas regulator
bonding is called: Answer: D reduces that city gas pressure to ____psi.
A. Ionic bonding A. 0
B. Polar covalent bonding 2. It is the part of the boiler with water on one side B. 2
C. Non-polar covalent bonding and heat on the other side C. 1
D. Resonance bonding A. Furnace volume D. 3
B. Fire side
Answer: C C. Heating surface Answer: A
D. Water side
36. All of the following are units of energy except: 8. In the _________air mixes with the fuel and burns.
A. Atomic units Answer: C A. Fire tubes
B. MeV B. Combustion chamber
C. Dynes 3. A _________boiler has heat and gases of C. Water tubes
D. Ergs combustion that pass through tubes surrounded D. Breeching
by water
Answer: C A. Fire tube Answer: B
B. Cast iron sectional
37. Einstein reasoned there was a discrete amount of C. Water tube 9. The function of the steam boiler is to ______.
energy needed to remove an electron from a D. Straight tube A. Produce condensate
surface , with the rest of the incident photon’s B. Create heat
energy contributing to the kinetic energy of the Answer: A C. Produce steam
photon, the amount of energy is called: D. Burn fuel
A. Binding energy
 Answer: C Answer: C B. Automatic nonreturn valve
C. Safety valve
10. Which of the following is the most common type of 16. What are the four systems necessary to operate a D. Feedwater stop valve
water tube boiler? boiler?
A. Firebox A. Combustion; draft; steam; boiler water Answer: C
B. Scotch marine B. Water; steam; combustion; stoker
C. Vertical C. Boiler water; fuel; draft; condense 22. The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler is
D. Straight-tube multiple pass D. Feedwater; fuel; draft; steam _______ psi.
A. 10
Answer: D Answer: D B. 20
C. 15
11. Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to the: 17. The _________forms a vacuum that draws out of D. 30
A. Combustion chamber the condensate return line and into the vacuum
B. Fuel oil tank tank. Answer: C
C. Burner A. Suction line
D. Suction line B. Main header 23. Which of the following best defines a total force
C. Vacuum pump acting on a boiler?
Answer: B D. Heating equipment A. Area times diameter
B. Area times pressure
12. It is the system that provides the air necessary for Answer: C C. Area times distance
combustion. D. The MAWP times pressure
A. Feedwater 18. Which of the following can be a function of the
B. Steam container in a boiler? Answer: B
C. Draft A. Holds the water
D. Fuel B. Collects the steam that is produced 24. The ASME code states that boilers with over
C. Transfers heat to the water to produce steam _______square feet heating surface must have
Answer: C D. All of the above two or more safety valve.
A. 200
13. The gases of combustion leave the boiler through Answer: D B. 400
the: C. 400
A. Chimney 19. At what temperature will water normally turns to D. 500
B. Blower steam?
C. Air vent A. 100 F ͦ Answer: D
D. Breeching B. 200 F ͦ
C. 150 F ͦ 25. The area of a safety valve 4” in diameter is how
Answer: D D. 212 F ͦ many square inches?
A. 2.3562
14. Which of the following boiler does not use tubes? Answer: D B. 6.2832
A. Cast iron sectional C. 3.1416
B. Water tube 20. Which of the following statements is true for cast D. 12.5664
C. Scotch marine iron sectional boilers?
D. Firebox A. Cast iron sectional boilers have fire tubes Answer: D
B. These boilers do not require water
Answer: A C. Can be expanded in size 26. Which of the following is the only valve permitted
D. None of the above between the safety valve and the boiler?
15. Which of the following will make a boiler work A. Os&y gate
more efficiently? Answer: D B. Os&y globe
A. More fuel is added C. Automatic nonreturn
B. Fire tubes are decrease in size 21. Which of the following is the most important valve D. No valves are permitted between the boiler
C. The heating surface is increased on a boiler? and the safety valve
D. All of the above A. Main steam stop valve
 Answer: D B. Suction A. Sewer
C. Duplex B. Atmospheric tank
27. The range of the pressure gauge should be D. Vacuum C. Blowdown tank
_____times the MAWP of the boiler. D. Return tank or open sump
A. 1 to 2 Answer: A
B. 2 to 3 Answer: C
C. 1 ½ to 2 33. Which of the following best defines a vacuum?
D. 2 ½ to 3 A. A pressure above gauge 39. If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler is 6 psi
B. A pressure below atmospheric and the desired cut-out pressure is 10 psi, the
Answer: C C. A pressure below gauge differential pressure setting must be _____psi.
D. A pressure equal to gauge A. 2
28. The ASME code only allows _____safety valve on B. 6
boiler. Answer: B C. 4
A. Deadweight D. 8
B. Spring-loaded pop-type 34. Safety valves are designed to pop open and stay
C. Lever until there is a ___psi drop in pressure. Answer: C
D. None of the above A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15 40. Impurities that build up on the surface of the water
Answer: B C. 2 to 4 in the boiler prevent _____from breaking through
D. Over 15 the surface of the water.
29. How much is the total force on a safety valve 2 ½ A. Air
in diameter and with a steam pressure of 15 psi? Answer: C B. CO2
A. 19.5413 C. Oxygen
B. 73.63125 35. What type of boiler that uses safety valves? D. Steam
C. 29.4525 A. Fire tube
D. 93.7512 B. Cast iron sectional Answer: D
C. Water tube
Answer: B D. All of the above 41. To prevent air pressure from building up in the
boiler when filling the boiler with water, the ____
30. The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is Answer: D must be open.
calibrated to read in: A. Safety valve
A. Inches of vacuum 36. The water column is located at the NOWL so the B. Boiler vent
B. Absolute pressure lowest visible part of the gauge glass is C. Main steam stop valve
C. Pounds per square inch _____above the highest surface. D. Manhole cover
D. Pressure below atmospheric pressure A. 2” to 3”
B. Just Answer: B
Answer: C C. 4” to 5”
D. Never 42. To prevent a vacuum from forming when taking
31. Live steam is prevented from entering the Bourdon the boiler off-line, which of the following must be
tube of the pressure gauge by which of the Answer: A opened when pressure is still on the boiler?
following? A. Safety valve
A. Automatic nenreturn valve 37. Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent: B. Boiler vent
B. Os&y valve A. Burner cycling C. Main steam stop valve
C. Inspector’s test cock B. Premature popping D. Man hole cover
D. Siphon C. Chattering
D. Feathering Answer: B
Answer: D
Answer: C 43. The operating range of the boiler is controlled by:
32. What pressure gauge that can read whether A. Squastat
vacuum pressure or not. 38. The boiler bottom blowdown line should discharge B. Pressure control
A. Compound to a(n)_________. C. Vaporstat
 D. Modulating pressure control 49. A ______valve is installed before the _____ to C. 10
allow the steam pressure gauge to be changed if a D. 30
Answer: B malfunction occurs.
A. Globe; safety valve Answer: B
44. The ______ regulates the high and low fire of the B. Globe; U-tube siphon
burner. C. Gate; siphon 55. After the total force of the steam has lifted the
A. Aquastat D. Globe; pigtail siphon safety valve off its seat, the steam enters the
B. Pressure control ______.
C. Vaporstat Answer: C A. Huddling chamber
D. Modulating pressure control B. Steam holding tank
50. What pressure gauge that reads more pressure C. Combustion chamber
Answer: D than is actually in the boiler. D. Main steam line
A. Broken
45. The best time to blow down the boiler to remove B. Uncalibrated Answer: A
sludge and sediment is when the boiler is at: C. Slow
A. Its highest load D. Fast 56. What causes false water level readings in the
B. Half its load gauge glass?
C. Its lightest load Answer: D A. Priming
D. Anytime B. Foaming
51. According to the ASME code, safety valves on low C. Carryover
Answer: C pressure boilers should be tested by hand at least: D. Blowing down
A. Once a month
46. The level of the water in the _____ indicates the B. Once a year Answer: B
water level in the boiler. C. Once a shift
A. Condensate return tank D. Twice a year 57. Fusible plugs are required on ______ boilers by
B. Gauge glass the ASME code.
C. Try cocks Answer: A A. Coal-fired
D. Blowdown tank B. Gas-fired
52. The purpose of the safety valve is prevent the C. Fuel oil-fired
Answer: B pressure in the boiler from: D. All of the above
A. Exceeding its MAWP
47. When blowing down a boiler, the quick-opening B. Causing a boiler explosion Answer: D
valve should always be opened ______and closed C. Dropping below its MAWP
______. D. Relieving water pressure 58. On a pressure control, _______ pressure plus
A. First; first ______pressure equals _______ pressure.
B. Last; first Answer: A A. Differential; cut-out; cut-in
C. First; last B. Cut-in; cut-out; differential
D. Last; last 53. The term applied when a safety valve opens and C. Cut-in; differential; cut-in
closes rapidly. D. Cut-in pressures equals cut-out pressure
Answer: C A. Feathering
B. Chattering Answer: C
48. Which of the following is added to boiler so that C. Pressuring
water changes scale-forming salts into a non- D. Huddling 59. A burner should always start up in ______ fire and
adhering sludge? shut down in ______ fire.
A. Oxygen Answer: B A. Low; low
B. Slag B. High; low
C. Minerals 54. The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens C. Low; high
D. Chemicals when pressure in the boiler exceeds how many D. High; high
psi?
Answer: D A. 5 Answer: A
B. 15
60. The water in the boiler is heated, turns to steam, Answer: C B. Boiler
and leaves the boiler through the: C. Makeup
A. Feedwater line 66. A ______ valve should be located between the D. Feed
B. Main steam line boiler and the valve on the feedwater line.
C. Main header A. Stop; check Answer: C
D. Main branch line B. Stop; regulator
C. Check; stop 72. Excessive use of cold city water makeup reduces
Answer: B D. Check; regulator overall efficiency because the water must be
______ before use in the boiler.
61. When steams gives up its heat in a heat Answer: A A. Vented
exchanger it turns to: B. Filtered
A. Low pressure steam 67. The feedwater ______ valve opens and closes C. Heated
B. Makeup water automatically. D. Recirculated
C. Condensate A. Return
D. Exhaust steam B. Check Answer: C
C. Bypass
Answer: C D. Equalizing 73. The vacuum pump selector switch is normally in
the position during the heating season.
62. A ________ pump discharges the return water Answer: B A. Float or vacuum
back to the boiler. B. Vacuum only
A. Feed 68. The vacuum pump pumps water and discharges C. Float only
B. Gear air to the: D. Continuous
C. Return A. Expansion tank
D. Vacuum B. Return tank Answer: A
C. Compression tank
Answer: D D. Atmosphere 74. The ______ shuts off the burner in the event of
low water.
63. How do you call a valve that controls the flow of Answer: D A. Low water alarm
water in one direction only? B. Low water fuel cut-off
A. Gate 69. The range of pressure on the vacuum switch is C. Feedwater regulator
B. Os&y usually: D. Automatic low water feeder
C. Globe A. 2 to 6 psi
D. Check B. 2” to 8” Answer: B
C. 6 to 12 psi
Answer: D D. 8” to 12” 75. Water is supplied to the condensate return tank by
the ______ pump.
64. The feedwater _____ valve should be located as Answer: B A. Vacuum
close to the shell of the boiler as practical. B. Feedwater
A. Check 70. Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts the C. Condensate
B. Nonreturn elector switch in the _____ position. D. Return
C. Stop A. Float
D. Regulating B. Float or vacuum Answer: A
C. Vacuum
Answer: C D. Continuous 76. The feedwater regulator is located at the ______
and is connected to the boiler in the same manner
65. A _________ after each radiator allows _____ to Answer: D as the ______.
pass through to the return line. A. Right side; gauge glass
A. Steam tarp; steam 71. Water added to the boiler to replace water lost due B. NOWL; water column
B. Water trap; steam to leaks and blowing down is known as _____ C. Bottom; blowdown
C. Steam trap; condensate water. D. NOWL; safety valve
D. Water trap; condensate A. Extra
 Answer: B Answer: C Answer: C

77. What maintains a constant water level in the 83. When open os&y valve offers ______ to the flow 89. The _______ steam trap is the most common
boiler? of steam. steam trap used.
A. Gauge glass A. No resistance A. Thermostatic
B. Automatic city water makeup feeder B. Velocity B. Inverted bucket
C. Water column C. Throttling action C. Return
D. Feedwater regulator D. Full resistance D. Nonreturn; float

Answer: D Answer: A Answer: A

78. The low water fuel cut-off should be tested: 84. Steam traps are _____ devices. 90. Condensate from the nonreturn steam trap is
A. Daily A. Manual pumped from the condensate return tank of the:
B. Semiannually B. Automatic A. Return tank
C. Monthly C. Electrical B. Feedwater heater
D. Annually D. Semiautomatic C. Vacuum tank
D. Boiler
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: D
79. The burner should be _____ when the low water 85. What valve should be used for throttling flow of
fuel cut-off is blown down. material? 91. Steam returning to the vacuum tank could cause
A. Off A. Gate the condensate pump to become:
B. Tagged out B. Check A. Waterbound
C. Firing C. Globe B. Waterlogged
D. Tested D. Non-return C. Steambound
D. Steamlogged
Answer: C Answer: C
Answer: C
80. Which of the following valves must be used as 86. Steam traps removed ______ and _____ from the
boiler main steam stop valve? steam lines. 92. Steam strainers should be located on the line
A. Globe A. Air; water _____ the steam trap.
B. Check B. Water; oil A. In front of
C. Gate C. Air; oil B. Above
D. Os&y gate D. Air; steam C. After
D. Along sides of
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: A
81. Gate valves should always be _____ or _____ 87. Condensate in the steam lines can result in:
closed. A. Carryover 93. As the steam pressure increases the steam
A. Partially open; completely B. Foaming temperature:
B. Completely open; completely C. Priming A. Decreased
C. Wide open; partly D. Water hammer B. Remains the same
D. Throttled; completely C. Increases
Answer: D D. Fluctuates
Answer: B
88. Two types of steam traps are the _____ steam Answer: C
82. Steam header valves should be _____ valves. trap and the _____ steam trap.
A. Globe A. Return; float 94. When the os&y valve is open the stem is in the
B. Check B. Nonreturn; thermostatic ______ position.
C. Gate C. Return; nonreturn A. Floating
D. Os&y gate D. Nonreturn; float B. Up
 C. Locked 100. When burning No. 6 fuel oil strainers should be D. None of the above
D. Down cleaned at least once every ______ hours.
A. 8 Answer: C
Answer: B B. 12
C. 10 106. The rotary cup burner uses ______ and _____ to
95. The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes by D. 24 atomize the fuel oil.
a(n): A. High temperature; pressure
A. Float Answer: D B. High temperature; air
B. Electric sensor C. High pressure; steam
C. Inverted bucket 101. When cleaning the fuel oil strainers the _____ D. A spinning cup; high velocity air
D. Flexible bellows must be carefully replaced to prevent ______ from
getting into the system. Answer: D
Answer: D A. Gaskets; fuel oil
B. Cover; water 107. In a low pressure gas burner gas is mixed with air
96. In the float the thermostatic trap the float rises to C. Gaskets; air in the ________.
discharge: D. Cover; fuel oil A. Burner register
A. Condensate B. Combustion chamber
B. Feedwater chemicals Answer: C C. Mixing chamber before the burner register
C. Steam D. Boiler furnace
D. Water and steam 102. The ______ pump draws fuel oil from the fuel oil
tank. Answer: C
Answer: A A. Transfer
B. Condensate 108. In a high pressure gas mixes with the air on the
97. A steam trap that failed to open would cause the C. Fuel oil inside of the:
heating unit to become: D. Circulating A. Burner register
A. Steambound B. Combustion chamber
B. Very hot Answer: C C. Mixing chamber
C. Waterlogged D. Boiler furnace
D. All of the above 103. The ______ valve protects the fuel lines and pump
from excessive pressure. Answer: A
Answer: C A. Safety
B. Relief 109. Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel oil
98. Which of the following whose main function is to C. Bypass must be _____ before it enters the boilers furnace.
remove dirt and impurities that may cause the D. Stop A. Pressurized
steam trap to malfunction? B. Treated
A. Vacuum pumps Answer: B C. Atomized
B. Steam strainers D. Measured
C. Globe valves 104. A high vacuum on the fuel oil suction gauge
D. Steam separators normally indicates either _____ or ______. Answer: C
A. Low viscosity; a clogged vent
Answer: B B. A closed discharged valve; hot fuel oil 110. On the low pressure gas system the manual reset
C. Cold fuel oil; a dirty suction strainer cannot be opened until the:
99. When a steam trap is functioning properly there is D. Water in the fuel oil; a warm pump A. Vaporstat proves pressure
a _______ difference in temperature between the B. Pilot is lighted
trap inlet and discharge. Answer: C C. Boiler is vented
A. 5 F ͦ to 10 F ͦ D. All of the above
B. 20 F ͦ to 30 F ͦ 105. Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil to the furnace in
C. 10 F ͦ to 20 F ͦ a: Answer: B
D. No A. Steady stream
B. Half spray, half steam 111. Before any repair work is attempted on any gas-
Answer: C C. Fine spray fired boiler the:
 A. Insurance inspector must be notified C. Because of a failure in the fuel system being 122. The _____ is the temperature at which fuel oil
B. Main gas cock must be secured used gives off vapor that flashes when exposed to an
C. State inspector must be notified D. All of the above open flame.
D. Main solenoid valve should be secured A. Fire point
Answer: D B. Pour point
Answer: B C. Flash point
117. Hard coal, known as ______, has a ______ D. Viscosity
112. In a low pressure gas system when the vaporstat content.
proves gas pressure up to the zero- reducing A. Bituminous; high carbon Answer: C
governor the ______ starts up. B. Anthracite; high volatile
A. Induced draft fan C. Bituminous; high volatile 123. The _____ is the temperature at which fuel oil will
B. Pressure D. Anthracite; high carbon burn continuously when exposed to an open
C. Forced draft blower flame.
D. Gas pump Answer: D A. Fire point
B. Pour point
Answer: C 118. Soft coal; known as _____, has a _______ C. Flash point
content. D. Viscosity
113. The butterfly on the low pressure gas system is a A. Bituminous; high carbon
________ valve. B. Anthracite; high volatile Answer: A
A. Slow-opening C. Bituminous; high volatile
B. Screw D. Anthracite; high carbon 124. It is defined as the internal resistance of fuel oil
C. Quick-opening flow.
D. Globe Answer: C A. Fire point
B. Pour point
Answer: A 119. Boilers using soft coal must have ______ furnace C. Flash point
volume to reduce the danger of _____. D. Viscosity
114. The amount of gas supplied to the burner in the A. Small; overfiring
low pressure gas system is controlled by: B. Large; smoking Answer: D
A. Gas pressure C. Small; smoking
B. Steam pressure D. Large; overfiring 125. What must be done in order to lower the viscosity
C. The boiler operator of the fuel oil?
D. The amount of air passing through the Answer: B A. Lower its temperature
butterfly valve B. Increase its temperature
120. When burning soft coal, if the volatile gases reach C. Lower its pour point
Answer: D the heating surface before they have burned D. Increase its pour point
completely _____ and ______ develop.
115. If low water develops in the boiler having a low A. Smoke; soot Answer: B
pressure gas system the ______ will secure the B. Clinkers; ash
gas to the burner. C. Uneven heat; ash 126. A leak on the fuel oil suction line between the tank
A. Whistle valve D. High temperature; smoke and the suction side of the fuel oil pump would
B. Manual reset valve result in:
C. Vaporstat Answer: A A. The suction gauge pulsating
D. Main gas solenoid B. Air entering the suction line
121. The _____ of fuels oil is the lowest temperature at C. Pulsating of the fire in the boiler
Answer: D which it will flow as a liquid. D. All of the above
A. Fire point
116. Combination gas/fuel oil burners permit the B. Pour point Answer: B
operator to switch from one fuel to another C. Flash point
______. D. Viscosity 127. Stokers were developed to:
A. For economy A. Increase efficiency of burning coal
B. Because of a shortage of fuel being used Answer: B
 B. Keep furnace temperature constant to protect B. Retort air A. Incomplete
brickwork C. Overfire air B. Perfect
C. Allow for development of larger coal-fired D. Grate zone air C. Complete
boiler D. Imperfect
D. All of the above Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: D 133. The ram-feed stoker is a(n) ______ stoker.
A. Overfeed 139. Which of the following is required to achieve
128. Any foreign matter in the coal feed mechanism of B. Side feed complete combustion?
the screw-feed stoker is best removed by: C. Travelling grate A. Proper atomization
A. Emptying the coal hopper D. Underfeed B. Proper temperature of fuel
B. Reversing the stoker C. Time of complete combustion
C. Forcing it through with a heavy shear pin Answer: D D. All of the above
D. Using the cutoff gate at the bottom of the
hopper 134. The ram-feed stoker provides: Answer: D
A. Uniform feed
Answer: D B. Quick ash discharge 140. The combustion process must be complete before
C. Even coal distribution the gases combustion come in contact with the:
129. In the event of an obstruction clogging the feed D. All of the above A. Atmosphere
screw a _____ is used to prevent damage to B. Superheater
transmission. Answer: D C. Heating surface
A. Slip clutch D. Main steam outlet
B. Shear pin or key 135. Combustion is the rapid burning of fuel and
C. Fuse oxygen resulting in: Answer: C
D. None of the above A. Release of heat
B. Oxidation 141. Soot buildup on heating surface:
Answer: B C. Release of steam A. Acts as an insulation
D. Nitrogen and oxygen B. Prevents heat transfer
130. In order to bank the stoker it is necessary to C. Increases temperature of gases of
secure the _____ while the _____ continuous to Answer: A combustion
operate. D. All of the above
A. Combination fan; coal feeder 136. What combustion occurs when all the fuel is
B. Coal feeder; forced draft fan burned using the theoretical amount of air? Answer: D
C. Feedwater; induced draft fan A. Incomplete
D. Boiler stop valve; coal feeder B. Perfect 142. The purpose of automatic combustion controls is
C. Complete to control ______ and _______.
Answer: B D. Imperfect A. High fire; low fire
B. Stoker firing; fuel rate
131. In a screw-feed stoker, what draft fan supplies air Answer: B C. Overfire air; fuel mixture
for combustion? D. Proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate
A. Induced 137. It is the burning of all the fuel using the minimum
B. Forced amount of excess air. Answer: D
C. Combination A. Incomplete combustion
D. Natural B. Complete combustion 143. At 0 psig, how many BTU are necessary to
C. Perfect combustion ̊ of steam?
change 1 lb of water at 212 F
Answer: B D. Imperfect combustion A. 144
B. 970
132. To prevent smoke and to aid in complete Answer: B C. 180
combustion in the screw-feed stoker, _______ is D. 1190
provided using a separate damper control. 138. ______ combustion occurs when all the fuel is not
A. Underfire air burned resulting in formation of soot and smoke. Answer: B
144. Radiation is: B. Specific heat Answer: C
A. The movement of liquids or gases created by C. Latent heat
a temperature difference D. Superheat 5. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
B. The transfer of heat by direct molecular number similarity in all of the following cases
contact Answer: C except:
C. The weight of the substance compared to A. Pumps
unity 150. Heat may be transferred in how many ways? B. Fans
D. A form of heat transfer A. One C. Turbines
B. Three D. Weirs
Answer: D C. Two
D. Four Answer: D
̊ is:
145. Steam at 100 psi and 400 F
A. Saturated Answer: B 6. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
B. Superheated similarity in all of the following cases except:
C. Wet CHAPTER 9 – HYDROELECTRIC PLANT A. Surface ships
D. None of the above B. Surface wave motion
1. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the C. Flow over weirs
Answer: B condenser by ________. D. Closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow
A. Air pump
146. Which of the following most closely defines B. Air injector Answer: D
sensible heat? C. Air ejector
A. An established relationship comparing any D. Air jet 7. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
substance to the heat content of water similarity in all of the following cases except:
B. Heat quantity that can be felt or measured by Answer: C A. Motion of a fluid jet
a thermometer B. Flow over spillways
C. Heat quantity above the point of saturation 2. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is C. Surge and flood waves
D. Measure of heat intensity to: D. Subsonic airfoils
A. Add energy to the flow
Answer: B B. Add mass to the flow Answer: D
C. Extract energy from the flow
147. What is required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of D. None of the above 8. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
water from 32 ̊ to 212 F̊ ? A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
A. 144 Btu Answer: C mass and velocity
B. 970.3 Btu B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass
C. 180 Btu 3. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a and velocity
D. Saturated heat hole in a plate is located approximately: C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole and length of time is applied
Answer: C B. At jet’s minimum diameter D. The change in impulse
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
148. Increasing the pressure has what effect of the D. At the orifice maximum diameter Answer: A
boiling point of water?
A. No change Answer: B 9. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on
B. Temperature will be raised the force momentum principle of a flowing fluid
C. Temperature will be lowered 4. The following are all examples of indirect except:
D. Temperature will increase 2 F ̊ for every psi (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure A. Turbines
flow except: B. Pelton wheels
Answer: B A. Turbine and propeller meters C. Diesel automobile engines
B. Magnetic flow meters D. Jet engines
149. Heat absorbed by water when it changes from C. Positive displacement meters
liquid to steam at the boiling point is called: D. Hot-wire anemometers Answer: C
A. Sensible heat
10. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the Answer: D
cross sectional area of the pipe through which it coefficient of contraction
flow decreases is due to: D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and 21. Flow measuring devices include all of the following
A. Bernoull’s equation the coefficient of contraction except:
B. The continuity equation A. Flow nozzles
C. The momentum equation Answer: B B. Venture area meters
D. The perfect gas law C. Pilot tubes
16. Which of the following is not a similarity between a D. Precision tachometers
Answer: B submerged culvert and a siphon?
A. They both operate full Answer: D
11. In the absence of any heat and work interactions B. Toricelli’s equation holds
and any changes in potential energy, the C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses 22. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant D. In both, the water flows downhill measurements to measure flow rates using
during _______. obstruction meters except:
A. Unsteady flow Answer: B A. Variable area meters
B. Steady flow B. Venture meters
C. Turbulent flow 17. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating C. Volume tanks
D. Variable flow in common junctions, D. Flow nozzles
A. Mass flows through each branch are equal
Answer: B B. Pressure drops through each branch are Answer: C
equal
12. When a falling object reaches a speed at which C. Lengths of each branch are equal 23. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved: D. Flow areas of each branch are equal measurements to measure flow rates using
A. Mach one obstruction meters except:
B. A laminar boundary layer Answer: B A. Pilot static meters
C. A turbulent boundary layer B. Static pressure probes
D. Terminal velocity 18. Flows through multi-loop systems maybe C. Weight and mass scales
computed by: D. Direction-sensing probes
Answer: C A. Any closed-form solution of simultaneous
equations Answer: C
13. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the: B. The Hardy-Cross method
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area C. Trial and error 24. In series pipe system, all of the following
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge D. All of the above parameters vary from section to section except:
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity A. Pressure drop
D. Effective head to the actual head Answer: D B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
Answer: A 19. Flow measuring devices include all of the following D. Mass flow
except:
14. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the: A. Venturi meters Answer: D
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area B. Static pressure probes
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge C. Turbine and propeller meters 25. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters,
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity D. Magnetic dynamometers flow nozzles, and differential manometers all
D. Effective head to the actual head depend upon the relationship between:
Answer: D A. Flow velocity and friction
Answer: B B. Flow velocity and pressure
20. Flow measuring devices include all of the following C. Friction and pressure
15. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the: except: D. Pressure and mass flow
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and A. Orifice plate meters
the coefficient of contraction B. Hot-wire anemometers Answer: B
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical C. Magnetic flow meters
velocity D. Mercury barometers
26. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of A. Reynolds number B. D’Alembert’s paradox
fluid is termed as: B. Weber number C. Newton’s second law
A. Latent enthalpy C. Froude number D. The second law of thermodynamics
B. Heat enthalpy D. Cauchy number
C. Throttling enthalpy Answer: B
D. Stagnation enthalpy Answer: B
37. One could expect the possibility of Reynold’s
Answer: D 32. The matching of scale model and full-scale number similarity in all of the following cases
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena except:
27. The coefficient of velocity, Cv , accounts for the: involving a fully submerged body requires equality A. Submarines
A. Effects on the flow area of contraction, friction of: B. Torpedoes
and turbulence A. Reynolds number C. Seaplane hulls
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the B. Weber number D. Supersonic aircraft
orifice C. Froude number
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe D. Mach number Answer: C
D. Effects of compressibility
Answer: A 38. The function of a turbine is to:
Answer: B A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
33. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
28. Expansion factors take into account the: kind of fluid mechanics? C. Extract energy from the flow
A. Area of the vena contracta A. Static (a phenomena independent of time) D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the B. Dynamic (a time-dependent phenomena)
orifice C. Compressible Answer: C
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe D. Incompressible
D. Effects of compressibility 39. Pitot tube is use to measure the:
Answer: B A. Velocity of mass
Answer: D B. Velocity of pipe
34. All of the following are forms of drag on a body C. Flow
29. The matching of scale model and full-scale results moving through a fluid except: D. Velocity of flow
for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a free surface A. Skin friction
requires equality of: B. Wake drag Answer: D
A. Reynolds number C. Profile drag
B. Weber number D. D’Alembert’s paradox drag 40. Orifice coefficients are used to determine:
C. Froude number A. Energy losses
D. Cauchy number Answer: D B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
Answer: C 35. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere D. Energy losses and mass gains
in water is dependent upon all of the following
30. The matching of scale model and full-scale results except: Answer: A
for a fluid dynamic phenomena involving A. Fluid density
compressible fluids requires equality of: B. Fluid velocity 41. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:
A. Reynolds number C. Units of measure (SI or English Engineering A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Froude number System) B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Cauchy number D. Drag force C. Actual discharge velocity to the theoretical
D. Mach number discharge velocity
Answer: C D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: D
36. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies Answer: C
31. The matching of scale model and full-scale moving through an ideal (non-viscous) fluids is
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena known as: 42. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:
involving surface tension requires equality of: A. Reynold’s analogy A. Increasing
 B. Decreasing 48. Past ME Board Question A. Pelton wheel
C. Constant What is the use of a Hydraulic jump? B. Steam turbine
D. Varying A. Increase the flow rate C. Francis turbine
B. Reduce the flow rate D. Reaction turbine
Answer: C C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow Answer: A
43. What must be done to change the direction of
rotation of a 440-volt, 3-phase induction motor? Answer: D 54. Past ME Board Question
A. Reverse lines to start winding The lowest portion to storage basin from where
B. Interchange any two power leads 49. Past ME Board Question the water is not drawn is:
C. Replace any two wires to the rotor A Kaplan turbine is: A. Bottom storage
D. Remove any power leads A. A high head mixed flow turbine B. Sub-soil storage
B. An inward flow impulse turbine C. Spring reserve
Answer: B C. An outward flow reaction turbine D. Dead storage
D. Low head axial flow turbine
44. A draft tube is a part of which power plants? Answer: D
A. Diesel engine power plant Answer: D
B. Gas turbine power plant 55. Past ME Board Question
C. Steam power plant 50. Past ME Board Question In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine
D. Hydro-electric power plant The locus of elevation is: with medium head, the speed can be regulated
A. Critical point using the:
Answer: D B. Hydraulic gradient A. Deflector gate
C. Energy gradient B. Nozzle
45. Past ME Board Question D. Friction gradient C. Wicket gate
In the hydro-electric plant having a medium head D. Weir
and using a Francis turbine, the turbine speed Answer: B
may be regulated through: Answer: C
A. Deflector gate 51. Past ME Board Question
B. Nozzle The locus of elevation to which water will rise in 56. Past ME Board Question
C. Wicket gate the piezometer tube is termed: In the deep well installation or operation, the
D. Forebay A. Energy gradient difference between static water level and
B. Friction head operating water level is known as _______.
Answer: C C. Hydraulic gradient A. Suction lift
D. Critical path B. Drawdown
46. Past ME Board Question C. Priming level
A Francis turbine has what flow? Answer: C D. Clogging
A. Inward flow reaction
B. Outward flow impulse 52. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
C. Outward flow reaction The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbinefrom a dam
D. Inward flow impulse is: 57. Past ME Board Question
A. Tailrace Which of the following is a characteristic of an
Answer: A B. Spiral casing impulse turbine?
C. Surge tank A. Steam striking blades on angle
47. Past ME Board Question D. Penstock B. No steam reaction to velocity
Which of the following is a type of water turbine? C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
A. Parson Answer: D D. Steam reversing direction
B. Hero
C. Pelton 53. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
D. Bankl A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to 58. Past ME Board Question
Answer: C the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.
 What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a C. High head C. Steam striking blades to zero angle
turbine? D. Very low head D. Steam reversing direction
A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum Answer: C Answer: C
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage 64. Past ME Board Question 69. Past ME Board Question
High head turbine is a/an: A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
Answer: C A. Impulse made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to
B. Francis the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.
59. Past ME Board Question C. Reaction A. Pelton wheel
An impulse turbine are used for: D. Propeller B. Steam turbine
A. Low head C. Francis turbine
B. Medium head Answer: A D. Reaction turbine
C. High head
D. Very low head 65. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
The lowest portion to storage basin from where
Answer: C the water is not drawn is: 70. Past ME Board Question
A. Bottom storage The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam
60. Past ME Board Question B. Sub-soil storage is:
Which of the following is used as high head C. Spring reserve A. Tailrace
turbine? D. Dead storage B. Spiral casing
A. Impulse C. Surge tank
B. Francis Answer: D D. Penstock
C. Reaction
D. Propeller 66. Past ME Board Question Answer: D
In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine
Answer: A with medium head, the speed can be regulated 71. Past ME Board Question
using the In the hydro-electric plant having a medium head
61. In pumped storage plant A. Deflector gate and using a Francis turbine, the turbine speed
A. Power is produced by pumps B. Nozzle may be regulated through:
B. Water is stored by pumping to high pressures C. Wicket gate A. Deflector gate
C. Pressure accumulators are used D. Weir B. Nozzle
D. Downstream water is pumped upstream C. Wicket gate
during offload periods Answer: C D. Forebay

Answer: D 67. Past ME Board Question Answer: C

In the deep well installation or operation, the
62. Past ME Board Question difference between static water level and 72. Past ME Board Question
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a operating water level is called ________. A Francis turbine has what flow?
turbine? A. Suction lift A. Inward flow reaction
A. Below atmospheric B. Drawdown B. Outward flow impulse
B. Vacuum C. Priming level C. Outward flow reaction
C. Atmospheric D. Clogging D. Inward flow impulse
D. Gage
Answer: B Answer: A
Answer: C
68. Past ME Board Question 73. Past ME Board Question
63. Past ME Board Question Which of the following is a characteristic of an Which of the following is a type of water turbine?
An impulse turbine has: impulse turbine? A. Parson
A. Low head A. Steam striking blades of angle B. Hero
B. Medium head B. No steam reaction to velocity C. Pelton
 D. Bankl 79. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is C. Surge and flood waves
to: D. Subsonic airfoils
Answer: C A. Add energy to the flow
B. Add mass to the flow Answer: D
74. Past ME Board Question C. Extract energy from the flow
Hydraulic jump is used to: D. None of the above 85. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
A. Increase the flow rate A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
B. Reduce the flow rate Answer: C mass and velocity
C. Reduce the velocity of flow B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass
D. Reduce the energy of flow 80. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a and velocity
hole in a plate is located approximately: C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force
Answer: D A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole and length of time is applied
B. At jet’s minimum diameter D. The change in impulse
75. Past ME Board Question C. At the orifice minimum diameter
A Kaplan turbine is: D. At the orifice maximum diameter Answer: A
A. A high head mixed flow turbine
B. An inward flow impulse turbine Answer: B 86. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on
C. An outward flow reaction turbine the force momentum principle of a flowing fluid
D. Low head axial flow turbine 81. The following are all examples of indirect except:
(secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure A. Turbines
Answer: D flow except: B. Pelton wheels
A. Turbine and propeller meters C. Diesel automobile engines
76. Past ME Board Question B. Magnetic flow meters D. Jet engines
The locus of elevation is: C. Positive displacement meters
A. Critical point D. Hot-wire anemometers Answer: C
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient Answer: C 87. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the
D. Friction gradient cross sectional area of the pipe through which it
82. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds flow decreases is due to:
Answer: B number similarity in all of the following cases A. Bernoull’s equation
except: B. The continuity equation
77. Past ME Board Question A. Pumps C. The momentum equation
The locus of elevations to which water will rise in B. Fans D. The perfect gas law
the piezometer tube is termed: C. Turbines
A. Energy gradient D. Weirs Answer: B
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient Answer: D 88. In the absence of any heat and work interactions
D. Critical path and any changes in potential energy, the
83. One could expect the possibility of Froude number stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant
Answer: C similarity in all of the following cases except: during:
A. Surface ships A. Unsteady flow
78. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the B. Surface wave motion B. Steady flow
condenser by: C. Flow over weirs C. Turbulent flow
A. Air pump D. Closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow D. Variable flow
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector Answer: D Answer: B
D. Air jet
84. One could expect the possibility of Froude number 89. When a falling object reaches a speed at which
Answer: C similarity in all of the following cases except: the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved:
A. Motion of a fluid jet A. Mach one
B. Flow over spillways B. A laminar boundary layer
 C. A turbulent boundary layer 95. Flows through multi-loop systems may be B. Static pressure probes
D. Terminal velocity computed by: C. Weight and mass scales
A. Any closed-form solution of simultaneous D. Direction-sensing probes
Answer: C equations
B. The Hardy-Cross method Answer: C
90. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the: C. Trial and error
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area D. All of the above 101. In series pipe systems, all of the following
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge parameters vary from section to section except:
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity Answer: D A. Pressure drop
D. Effective head to the actual head B. Friction loss
96. Flow measuring devices include all of the following C. Head loss
Answer: A except: D. Mass flow
A. Venturi meters
91. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the: B. Static pressure probes Answer: D
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area C. Turbine and propeller meters
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge D. Magnetic dynamometers 102. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters,
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity flow nozzles, and differential manometers all
D. Effective head to the actual head Answer: D depend upon the relationship between:
A. Flow velocity and friction
Answer: B 97. Flow measuring devices include all of the following B. Flow velocity and pressure
except: C. Friction and pressure
92. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the: A. Orifice plat meters D. Pressure and mass flow
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and B. Hot-wire anemometers
the coefficient of contraction C. Magnetic flow meters Answer: B
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical D. Mercury barometers
velocity 103. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the Answer: D fluid is termed as:
coefficient of contraction A. Latent enthalpy
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and 98. Flow measuring devices include all of the following B. Heat enthalpy
the coefficient of contraction except: C. Throttling enthalpy
A. Flow nozzles D. Stagnation enthalpy
Answer: B B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes Answer: D
93. Which of the following is not a similarity betweena D. Precision tachometers
submerged culvert and a siphon? 104. The coefficient of velocity, Cv accounts for the:
A. They both operate full Answer: D A. Effects on the flow area of contraction, friction
B. Torricelli’s equation holds and turbulence
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses 99. The following are examples of indirect (secondary) B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the
D. In both, the water flows downhill measurements to measure flow rates using orifice
obstruction meters except: C. Changes in diameter of a converging pipe
Answer: B A. Variable area meters D. Effects of compressibility
B. Venture meters
94. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating C. Volume tanks Answer: B
in common junctions: D. Flow nozzles
A. Mass flows through each branch are equal 105. Expansion factors take into account the:
B. Pressure drops through each branch are Answer: C A. Area of the vena contracta
equal B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the
C. Lengths of each branch are equal 100. The following are examples of indirect (secondary) orifice
D. Flow areas of each branch are equal measurements to measure flow rates using C. Changes in diameter of a converging pipe
obstruction meters except: D. Effects of compressibility
Answer: B A. Pitot static meters
 Answer: D 111. All of the following are forms of drag on a body C. Flow
moving through a fluid except: D. Velocity of flow
106. The matching of scale model and full-scale results A. Skin friction
for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a free surface B. Wake drag Answer: D
rquires equality of: C. Profile drag
A. Reynolds number D. D’Alembert’s paradox drag 117. Orifice coefficients are used to determine
B. Weber number A. Energy losses
C. Froude number Answer: D B. Energy gains
D. Cauchy number C. Mass losses
112. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere D. Energy losses and mass gains
Answer: C in water is dependent upon all of the following
except: Answer: A
107. The matching of scale model and full-scale results A. Fluid density
for a fluid dynamic phenomena involving B. Fluid velocity 118. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:
compressible fluids requires equality of: C. Units of measure (SI or English Engineering A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
A. Reynolds number System) B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
B. Froude number D. Drag force C. Actual discharge velocity to the theoretical
C. Cauchy number discharge velocity
D. Mach number Answer: C D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: D 113. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies Answer: C

moving through an ideal (non-viscous) fluids is
108. The matching of scale model and full-scale known as: 119. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena A. Reynold’s analogy A. Increasing
involving surface tension requires equality of: B. D’Alembert’s paradox B. Decreasing
A. Reynolds number C. Newton’s second law C. Constant
B. Weber number D. The second law of thermodynamics D. Varying
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number Answer: B Answer: C

Answer: B 114. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds 120. Which of the following devices used to measure
number similarity in all of the following cases the discharge of outflow from a vessel?
109. The matching of scale model and full-scale except: A. Pitot tube
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena A. Submarines B. Orifice
involving a fully submerged body requires equality B. Torpedoes C. Pump head
of: C. Seaplane hulls D. Obstruction meter
A. Reynolds number D. Supersonic aircraft
B. Weber number Answer: B
C. Froude number Answer: C
D. Mach number CHAPTER 10 – VARIABLE LOAD & ENVIRONMENTAL
115. The function of a turbine is to: ENG’G.
Answer: A A. Transfer heat from one liquid to another
B. Increase the total energy content of the flow 1. The maximum continuous power available from a
110. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what C. Extract energy from the flow hydro-electric power plant under the most adverse
kind of fluid mechanics? D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow hydraulic conditions is called _______.
A. Static (a phenomena independent of time) A. Base power
B. Dynamic (a time-dependent phenomena) Answer: C B. Firm power
C. Compressible C. Primary power
D. Incompressible 116. Pitot tube is use to measure the: D. Secondary power
A. Velocity of mass
Answer: B B. Velocity of pipe Answer: B
2. The area under load curve divided by maximum D. Demand factor Answer: C
demand represents:
A. Load factor Answer: A 13. Load curve refers to the plot of:
B. Connected load A. Load versus generating capacity
C. Average load 8. Past ME Board Question B. Load versus current
D. Diversity factor The ratio between the actual power and the C. Load versus time
apparent power in any circuit is known as the D. Load versus cost of power
Answer: D ______ of that circuit.
A. Measured power Answer: C
3. What is the reverse capacity of a plant? B. Capacity
A. Maximum demand – average demand C. Power factor 14. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant
B. Plant capacity – maximum demand D. KVAR capacity
C. Plant capacity – average demand A. Load factor
D. Plant capacity x (1 – load factor) Answer: C B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor
Answer: B 9. Past ME Board Question D. Capacity factor
The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant
4. Load curve refers to the plot of: capacity Answer: B
A. Load versus generating capacity A. Load factor
B. Load versus current B. Utilization factor 15. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over
C. Load versus time C. Maximum load factor a designated period of time is called _____.
D. Load versus cost of power D. Capacity factor A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
Answer: C Answer: B C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor
5. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant 10. Past ME Board Question
capacity is called ________. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over Answer: A
A. Load factor a designated period of time is called
B. Utilization factor A. Load factor 16. Past ME Board Question
C. Maximum load factor B. Reactive factor Peak load for a period of time divided by installed
D. Capacity C. Diversity factor capacity is _______.
D. Plant use factor A. Capacity factor
Answer: B B. Demand factor
Answer: A C. Utilization factor
6. Past ME Board Question D. Load factor
Peak load for a period of time divided by installed 11. Past ME Board Question
capacity is: The ratio of the sum of individual maximum Answer: C
A. Capacity factor demands of the system to the overall maximum
B. Demand factor demand of the whole system. 17. The area under load curve divided by maximum
C. Utilization factor A. Demand factor demand represents
D. Load factor B. Diversity factor A. Load factor
C. Power factor B. Connected load
Answer: C D. Utilization factor C. Average load
D. Diversity factor
7. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
The ratio of the sum of individual maximum Answer: D
demands of the system to the maximum demand 12. Load curve refers to the plot of:
of the whole system is: A. Load versus generating capacity 18. Past ME Board Question
A. Diversity factor B. Load versus current The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
B. Utilization factor C. Load versus time demands of the system to the overall maximum
C. Power factor D. Load versus cost of power demand of the whole system.
 A. Demand factor D. D2 O A. v/f
B. Diversity factor B. f/v
C. Power factor Answer: D C. vf
D. Utilization factor D. v 2f
24. Scintillation counter are used to detect:
Answer: B A. Beta rays Answer: A
B. X-ray
19. Past ME Board Question C. Gamma rays 30. Swimming pool water needs
The ratio of the sum of individual maximum D. All of the above A. Pre-chlorination
demands of the system to the maximum demand B. Super-chlorination
of the whole system is known as ________. Answer: D C. Dual-chlorination
A. Diversity factor D. De-chlorination
B. Utilization factor 25. All of the following are common types of chemical
C. Power factor reactions except: Answer: D
D. Demand factor A. Direct combination
B. Fission 31. Aeration of water is done for all of the following
Answer: A C. Decomposition purposes except for:
D. Double replacement A. Removal of CO2
20. Past ME Board Question B. Removal of bad taste
The ratio between the actual power and the Answer: B C. Increasing the amount of oxygen in water
apparent power in any circuit is known as the D. Removal of temporary hardness
_______ of that circuit. 26. Redox reactions can often be type of:
A. Measured power A. Direct combination Answer: D
B. Capacity B. Fission
C. Power factor C. Decomposition 32. Which of the following area of work requires
D. KVAR D. Double replacement lowest noise level?
A. Gymnasiums
Answer: C Answer: D B. Library
C. Lecture halls
21. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to 27. The fact that the amount of slightly soluble gas D. Kitchens
the equipment called: absorbed in a liquid is proportional to the partial
A. Fermenters pressure of the gas is known as: Answer: B
B. Brew kettle A. Dalton’s law
C. Cooler B. Henry’s law 33. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by:
D. Starting tube C. Raoult’s law A. Bacteria
D. Boyle’s law B. Molds
Answer: A C. Virus
Answer: B D. Algae
22. A major cause of air pollution resulting from the
burning of fuel oil is: 28. All of the following pollutants are produced Answer: B
A. Nitrous because of decaying organic matter except:
B. Hydrogen A. Ammonia 34. Turbidity in water is due to:
C. Sulfur dioxide B. Sulfur dioxide A. Algae
D. Silicon C. Methane B. Fungi
D. Hydrogen sulfide C. Organic salts
Answer: C D. Finally divided particles of clay, silt and
Answer: B organic matter
23. Heavy water is:
A. B2 O 29. The velocity of radiations (v) and the frequency of Answer: D
B. H2 O radiations (f) are related to the wavelength of
C. W2 O radiations by:
35. Per capita consumption of water is generally taken Answer: D D. Reflection and absorption
as:
A. 50 – 100 liters 41. Which has an octane rating of more than 100? Answer: C
B. 150 – 300 liters A. Gobar gas
C. 400 – 500 liters B. Methyl alcohol 47. The operation that produces highest noise level is
D. 750 – 1000 liters C. Benzol :
D. Ethyl alcohol A. Welding
Answer: B B. Riveting
Answer: C C. Machining
36. Which of the following industries have the highest D. Pressing
consumption of water for processing? 42. The part per million is identical to:
A. Foundry A. Grains per gallon Answer: B
B. Automobile industry B. Pounds per cubic foot
C. Paper mill C. Milligrams per kg 48. The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the
D. Aluminum industry D. Tones per acre foot original incident energy striking the collector.
A. Shading factor
Answer: C Answer: C B. Collector efficiency
C. Betz coefficient
37. The ratio activity of water because of strontium 43. In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is D. Transmittance
can be removed by: installed between:
A. Aeration A. Forced draft fan and induced draft fan Answer: B
B. Alum coagulation B. Furnace and chimney
C. Phosphate coagulation C. Primary air and secondary air 49. A swinging support constructed as part of the
D. Lime D. Furnace and forced draft fan vessel and that supports the manway cover when
it is unbolted and moved aside.
Answer: C Answer: B A. Davit
B. Handhole
38. Chemical used for checking the growth of algae in 44. At present, the number of true elementary C. Nozzle neck
reservoirs is particles, which include leptons and quarks, is D. Manway arm
A. Copper sulphate thought to be:
B. Alum A. 4 Answer: A
C. Bleaching powder B. 8
D. Brine C. 10 50. Is the subjective method in which the smoke
D. 12 density is visually compared to five standardized
Answer: C white-black grids.
Answer: D A. Ringelman scale
39. Which of the following is not the pollutant from a B. Dalton scale
sulfuric acid plants? 45. The effective size of a target atom that interacts C. Smoke spot scale
A. Sulfur dioxide with a moving particle is called its _______. D. Dew point scale
B. Sulfur trioxide A. Length
C. Acid moist B. Width Answer: A
D. Hydrogen sulfide C. Cross section
D. Pseudo-area 51. The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the
Answer: D fugacity at some reference state is known as:
Answer: C A. Compressibility
40. Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp? B. Activity
A. Sodium vapor lamp 46. Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in C. Gravimetric coefficient
B. High pressure mercury vapor lamp several different ways including ________. D. Saturation
C. Low pressure mercury vapor lamp A. Absorption
D. Neon lamp B. Scattering Answer: B
C. Absorption and scattering
52. A type of polymer used for detergents, milk Answer: A D. CFCs
bottles, oil containers and toys.
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) 58. The removal of particulate matter from a gas flow Answer: A
B. Polystyrene (PS) by exposing the flow to a liquid or slurry is known
C. High density polyethelene (HDPE) as: 63. Equipment leaks from plant equipments are known
D. Polypropylene (PP) A. Stripping as ________.
B. Spraying A. Fugitive leaks
Answer: C C. Scrubbing B. Fugitive dusts
D. Absorption C. Fugitive exhausts
53. A type of polymer used for grocery bags a food D. Fugitive emissions
wraps. Answer: C
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) Answer: D
B. Polystyrene (PS) 59. The drop in a solvent’s vapor pressure and the
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE) increase in mole fraction as solute is added is 64. What is a substance that absorbs or retains
D. Polypropylene (PP) described by: moisture?
A. Dalton’s law A. Surface acting agent
Answer: C B. Henry’s law B. Dry ultra-fine coal
C. Raoult’s law C. Fossil fuel
54. A radioactive gas produced from the decay of D. Boyle’s law D. Humectant
radium within the rocks beneath a building.
A. Spills Answer: C Answer: D
B. Radon
C. Smoke 60. All of the following statements are characteristics 65. Is a soluble compound that reduces a liquid’s
D. Smog of bases except ________. surface tension or reduces the interfacial tension
A. They conduct electricity in aqueous solutions between a liquid and a solid.
Answer: B B. They turn red litmus paper blue A. Surface – acting agent or surfactant
C. They have a pH between 0 to 7 B. Humectant
55. Consists of ground – level ozone and peroxyacyl D. They neutralize acids forming salts and water C. Oxygenated fuel
nitrates (PAN) D. CFC
A. Smog Answer: C
B. Spills Answer: A
C. Sulfur oxide 61. All of the following statements about conjugate
D. Smoke acids and bases are true except _______. 66. A material of substance that is accidentally or
A. A conjugate acid results when a base intentionally introduced to the environment in a
Answer: A accept a proton quantity that exceeds what occurs naturally.
B. A conjugate base results when a base A. Waste
56. A term used to mean the corrective steps taken to accepts a proton B. Sludge
return the environment to its original condition. C. Strong acids tend to give weak conjugate C. Pollutant
A. Stabilization bases D. Biosolids
B. Remediation D. The Bronsted – Lowry theory defines bases
C. Greenhouse effect as proton accepetors Answer: C
D. Opacity
Answer: B 67. Refers to organic waste produced from biological
Answer: B waterwaste treatment processes.
62. Are any solid particulate matter that becomes A. Toxic waste
57. The burning of low – sulfur fuel is known as: airborne, with the exception of particulate matter B. Biosolids
A. Fuel switching emitted from the exhaust stack of a combustion C. Extrinsic waste
B. Fuel adding process. D. Process waste
C. Fuel binding A. Dusts or fugitive dusts
D. Fuel swapping B. Dioxins Answer: B
C. Fugitive emissions
68. A rule which states that any solid waste mixed with D. Asbestos 79. Are organic compounds manufactured in oily liquid
hazardous waste becomes hazardous. and solid forms through the late 1970s and
A. The mixture rule Answer: C subsequently prohibited.
B. The derived from rule A. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
C. The environmental rule 74. Are highly concentrated liquid wastes produced in B. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
D. The hazard rule landfills. C. Trihalomethanes
A. Aerosols D. Plastic
Answer: A B. Leachates
C. Nitrogen dioxide Answer: A
69. A rule which states that any waste derived from D. Urea
the treatment of a hazardous waste remains a 80. A type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups and
hazardous waste. Answer: B “clam shell” food containers.
A. The mixture rule A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
B. The treatment rule 75. What is the primary cause of smog formation? B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. The derived from rule A. Toxins C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. The hazard rule B. Dioxins D. Polypropylene (PP)
C. Oxidants
Answer: C D. Nitrogen oxides Answer: B

70. Generally refers to sulfur trioxide SO3 in the flue Answer: D 81. A type of polymer used for labels, bottles and
gas. housewares.
A. Acid rain 76. Is a water soluble organic compound prepared A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
B. Acid gas from ammonia. It has significant biological and B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. Hydrochloric acids industrial usefulness. C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. Stack gas A. Urea or carbamide urea D. Polypropylene (PP)
B. Nitrite
Answer: B C. Chlorinated organics Answer: D
D. Oxidants
71. What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric, 82. A type of polymer used for clear bottles.
hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent, nitric acids? Answer: A A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
A. Stack gas B. Polystyrene (PS)
B. Acid rain 77. Are by products of reaction between combustion C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
C. Acid compound products D. Polypropylene (PP)
D. Pollutant A. Photochemicals
B. Oxidants Answer: A
Answer: B C. Organics
D. Sediments 83. Refers to the high – temperature removal of tarry
72. A fibrous silicate mineral material that is inert, substances from the interior of the carbon granule,
strong and incombustible. Answer: B leaving a highly porous structure.
A. Fiberglass A. Absorbent
B. Plastic 78. “Particulate matter” is defined as all particles that B. Activated
C. Rubber are emitted by a combustion source. What is C. Breakthrough
D. Asbestos another term for particulate matter? D. Adsorbent
A. Dust
Answer: D B. Aerosol Answer: B
C. Biosolids
73. An insulator with superior tensile strength but low D. Sediments 84. A substance with high surface area per unit
heat resistance. weight, and intricate pore structure, and a
A. Rubber Answer: B hydrophobic surface.
B. Plastic A. Adsorbent substance
C. Fiberglass B. Adsorbent substance
 C. Homogenous substance 90. All of the following occur during reduction of a D. Saturated solution
D. Activated substance substance except __________.
A. An increase in negative charge Answer: B
Answer: A B. Loss of electrons
C. An oxidation state decrease 96. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has
85. Is a high – temperature process that turns D. Reduction of the oxidizing agent dissolved as much solute as it can?
incinerator ash into a safe glass-like material. A. Solution
A. Advance oxidation Answer: B B. Mild solution
B. Biofitration C. Hydration
C. Vitrification 91. All of the following are units of energy except: D. Saturated solution
D. Bioventing A. Calories
B. Joules Answer: D
Answer: C C. Pascals
D. MeV 97. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is
86. Refers to the use of composting and soil beds. known as:
A. Biofiltration Answer: C A. Ionization constant
B. Biomediation B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Bioventing 92. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles C. Solubility product
D. Bioreactors of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger than D. La Chatelier’s constant
molecules?
Answer: A A. Solution Answer: A
B. Suspension
87. Are open or closed tanks containing dozens or C. Hydration 98. If the solute particles of a solid suspended in a
hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered with a D. Saturated solution liquid are larger than the molecules, the mixture is
biological film of microorganisms. known as:
A. Biofilter Answer: B A. Solution
B. Bioreactor B. Suspension
C. Biomediator 93. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has C. Hydration
D. Bioinventor dissolved as much solute as it can? D. Saturated solution
A. Solution
Answer: B B. Mild solution Answer: B
C. Hydration
88. Refers to the treatment of contaminated soil in a D. Saturated solution 99. When a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it
large plastic-covered tank. can, the mixture is called:
A. Bioventing Answer: D A. Solution
B. Biological recycling B. Suspension
C. Biocycle 94. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is C. Hydration
D. Bioremediation known as D. Saturated solution
A. Ionization constant
Answer: A B. Arrhenius exponent Answer: D
C. Solubility product
89. All of the following occur during oxidation of a D. La Chatelier’s constant 100. When excess solute in a solution settles to the
substance except __________. bottom of the container, the process is called:
A. Oxidation state increases Answer: A A. Salvation
B. Loss of electrons B. Deemulsification
C. The substance becomes less negative 95. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles C. Precipitation
D. Oxidation of the oxidizing agent of solid suspended in a liquid are larger than the D. Equation
molecules?
Answer: D A. Solution Answer: C
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
101. All of the following express units of concentration C. Endothermic heat solution 112. All of the following factors affect rates of reaction
except: D. Exothermic heat solution except:
A. Normality A. Exposed surface area
B. Molarity Answer: C B. Concentrations
C. Formality C. Temperature
D. Isotropy 107. The absorption of water by a dessicant often D. Pressure
demonstrates:
Answer: D A. Heat of fusion Answer: D
B. Heat of vaporization
102. The desirable temperature inside an air C. Endothermic heat of solution 113. Le Chatelier’s principle predicts the direction of a
conditioned auditorium is: D. Exothermic heat of solution state of chemical equilibrium based on all of the
A. 0 C ̊ following factors except:
B. 5 C ̊ Answer: D A. Temperature
C. 10 C ̊ B. Specific volume
D. 20 C ̊ 108. A substance that absorbs moisture from the air is: C. Pressure
A. Deliquescent D. Concentration
Answer: D B. Efflorescent
C. Effervescent Answer: B
103. Which of the following acts as ignition accelerator D. A precipitant
for internal combustion engine fuels? 114. The amount of energy necessary to cause a
A. Acetone peroxide Answer: A reaction to occur is called the _______.
B. Hydrogen peroxide A. Heat of formation
C. Aromatic compounds 109. The removal of a dissolved gas or other volatile B. Heat of solution
D. N-heptane component from liquid by exposing the liquid to air C. Activation of energy
or steam is known as: D. Heat of fusion
Answer: A A. Stripping
B. Gas absorption Answer: C
104. Which of the following does not use ambient air for C. Spraying
propulsion? D. Scrubbing 115. The equilibrium constant for weak solutions is
A. Turbo jet known as ________.
B. Turbo-prop Answer: A A. The ionization constant
C. Pulse jet B. The Arrhenius exponent
D. Rocket 110. Which of the following contribute to the C. The solubility product
deterioration of the Earth’s ozone layer? D. Le Chatelier’s principle
Answer: B A. Carbon monoxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbons Answer: A
105. Most observed properties of light and other radiant C. Carbon dioxide
energy are consistent with waves in nature, but in D. Refrigerants 116. The speed at which a reaction proceeds to
interactions with matter, electromagnetic energy equilibrium is the purview of _________.
behaves as though it consists of discrete pieces or Answer: B A. Reaction kinetics
A. Blocks B. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. Balls 111. Ozone filters out what type of radiation that C. Neutralization
C. Quanta damages crops and causes skin cancer? D. Ionization
D. Atomic masses A. Tropospheric radiation
B. Atmospheric radiation Answer: A
Answer: C C. X-rays
D. Ultraviolet radiation 117. The color of water is measured:
106. The amount of energy absorbed when a A. In terms of pH value
substance enters a solution is called the: Answer: D B. In terms of degree of hardness
A. Heat of fusion C. In terms of platinum cobalt scale
B. Heat of sublimation D. Ppm of dissolved solids
 Answer: C C. Supersonic 4. Liquids and gases take the following
D. Relativistic characteristic(s) of their contents.
118. What turbidimeter that gives direct readings in A. Volume
ppm? Answer: C B. Shape
A. Jackson turbidimeter C. Shape and volume
B. Hellige turbidimeter 124. The reduction of nuclear radiation intensity (called D. Neither shape nor volume
C. Baylis turbidimeter attenuation) is accomplished by:
D. All of the above A. Matter Answer: B
B. Antimatter
Answer: A C. Shielding 5. Alcohol finds use in manometers as:
D. Neurons A. It provides a suitable meniscus for the
119. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive inclined tube
material? Answer: C B. Its density being less can provide longer
A. Rugs length for a pressure difference, thus more
B. Mirrors 125. The ability of substance to absorb neurons accuracy can be obtained
C. Carpets depends upon its _________. C. A and B above are correct
D. Heavy drapes A. Absorption cross section D. Cheap and easily available
B. Scattering cross section
Answer: B C. Total cross section Answer: C
D. Atomic number
120. The total cross section of a target atom is made up 6. Which of the following statements about a
of ___________. Answer: A Newtonian fluid is most accurate?
A. The absorption cross section A. Shear stress is proportional to strain
B. The scattering cross section CHAPTER 11 – FLUID MECHANICS B. Viscosity is zero
C. The absorption and scattering cross sections C. Shear stress is multi – valued
D. The reflection and absorption cross sections 1. If the energy of the incident photon is less than the D. Shear stress is proportional to rate of strain
work function:
Answer: C A. An electron will be ejected Answer: D
B. More than one electron will be ejected
121. Which of the following cannot be a phenomenon of C. An electron will not be ejected 7. The normal stress is the same in all directions at a
neutron interactions? D. Less than one electron will be ejected point in fluid:
A. Inelastic scattering A. Independent of the motion of one fluid layer
B. Elastic scattering Answer: C relative to an adjacent layer
C. Fission B. When there is no motion of one fluid layer
D. Fusion 2. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must relative to an adjacent layer
decrease as the fluid flow area of the duct. C. Only if the fluid is frictionless
Answer: D A. Increases D. Only if fluid is frictionless and incompressible
B. Decreases
122. Which of the following cannot be used to describe C. Remain the same Answer: B
neutron kinetic energy levels? D. None of these
A. Cold 8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
B. Thermal Answer: A fluid pressure?
C. Slow A. It is the same in all directions at a point in the
D. Freezing 3. Density in term of viscosity is: fluid
A. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity B. Its acts normal to a surface
Answer: D B. Dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity C. It is a shear stress
C. Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity D. It is linear with depth
123. All of the following are words used to describe D. None of the above
neutron kinetic energy levels except: Answer: C
A. Slow (resonant) Answer: B
B. Fast
9. The length of mercury column at a place at an B. surface tension D. States that energy is constant everywhere in
altitude will change with respect to that at ground C. bulk modulus the fluid
in: D. hysteresis
A. A linear relation Answer: D
B. A parabolic relation Answer: D
C. Will remain constant 20. A pilot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity
D. First slowly and then steeply 15. Which of the following can be used to measure the as described by the Bernoulli’s equation and the
flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm? relationship between:
Answer: D A. Venturimeter A. Kinetic energy and static pressure
B. Rotameter B. Fluid pressure and height of the fluid
10. All of the following dimensionless parameters are C. Nozzle C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
applicable to fluid flow problems except the D. Pilot tube D. Pressure and momentum
_______.
A. Reynolds number Answer: D Answer: A
B. Froude number
C. Mach number 16. The pressure at a given depth due to several 21. In order to avoid vaporization in the pipe line, the
D. Biot number immiscible liquids is: pipe line over the ridge is laid in such a way that it
A. The average of the individual pressures is not more than:
Answer: D B. The sum of the individual pressures A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. Independent of the individual pressures B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
11. Mass density of liquid (ρ) is given by which of the D. Unknown C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
following? D. 5.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
A. Ρ = Mass / volume Answer: B
B. Ρ = metric slug / 𝑚2 Answer: B
C. Ρ = kg 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 / 𝑚4 17. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if:
D. all of the above A. The flow is one dimensional 22. The stream function is a useful parameter in
B. The flow is steady describing_____________.
Answer: D C. The velocity is uniform over the cross – A. The conservation of mass
section B. The conservation of momentum
12. the speed of sound in all fluid is most closely D. All of the above conditions are together C. The conservation of energy
related to all of the following properties D. The equation of state
except________. Answer: D
A. Compressibility Answer: A
B. Density 18. Uniform flow takes place when:
C. Bulk module A. Conditions remain unchanged with time at 23. For high speed flows, the potential energy of fluids
D. Thermal conductivity any point are:
B. Rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero A. Positive
Answer: D C. At every point the velocity vector is identical B. Negative
in magnitude and direction for any given C. Negligible
13. Under which condition, the specific weight of water instant D. None of these
is 1000 kg/𝑚3 ? D. The change in transverse direction is zero
A. At normal pressure of 760 mm Answer: C
B. At 4 C ̊ temperature Answer: C
C. At mean sea level 24. McLeod gauge used for low pressure
D. All of the above 19. The continuity equation of an ideal fluid flow. measurement operates on the principle of
A. States that the net rate in – flow into any _________.
Answer: D small volume must be zero A. Gas law
B. Applies to irrotational flow only B. Boyle’s law
14. All of the following can be characteristics of fluids C. States that the energy remains constant C. Charles law
except_________. along streamline D. Pascal’s law
A. kinematic viscosity
 Answer: B Answer: A B. Upward in the direction of the flow
C. Level (no slope)
25. A Kaplan turbine is 31. For stable equilibrium of floating body its D. There is no effect of friction on the energy
A. A high head mixed flow turbine metacenter should be: grade line
B. An impulse turbine, inward flow A. Below the center of gravity
C. A reaction turbine, outward flow B. Below the center of buoyancy Answer: A
D. Low head axial flow turbine C. above the center of buoyancy
D. above the center of gravity 37. The pilot tube is a device used for measurement of
Answer: D A. Pressure
Answer: D B. Flow
26. The most common method for calculating frictional C. Velocity
energy loss for laminar flowing fluids in noncircular 32. Center of pressure on an inclined plane has ___. D. Discharge
pipe is: A. At the centroid
A. The Darcy equation B. Above the centroid Answer: C
B. The Hagan – Poisevill equation C. Below the centroid
C. The Hazen - Williams equation D. At metacenter 38. Hydrometer is used to find out
D. The Swamee – Jin equation A. Specific gravity liquids
Answer: C B. Specific gravity solids
Answer: A C. Specific gravity gases
33. The line action of the buoyant forces always acts D. Relative humidity
27. The parameter f in the expression for head-loss is through the centroid of the ______.
A. The fraction of flow that is totally turbulent A. Submerged body Answer: A
B. The Darcy friction factor B. Volume of the floating body
C. The height of roughness scale in turbulent C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body 39. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the
flow D. Displaced volume of the fluid Navier Strokes equation are:
D. The static coefficient of friction A. Gravity, pressure and viscous
Answer: D B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent
Answer: B C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent
34. The hydraulic grade line of a pipe denotes which D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent
28. Friction factor for both laminar and turbulent flows of the following?
can be found plotted in a A. Total energy Answer: A
A. Steam table B. Pressure energy
B. Psychometric chart C. Potential energy 40. Permissible velocity of water flowing through
C. Moody diagram D. The sum of pressure energy and potential concrete tunnel, is generally
D. Mollier diagram energy A. 4-5 m/s
B. 10-12 m/s
Answer: C Answer: D C. 13-16 m/s
D. 20 m/s
29. Which of the following is relative velocity? 35. The energy grade line of a pipeline denotes which
A. The difference between two velocities of the following? Answer: A
B. Average velocity A. Total energy
C. Sum of two velocities B. Pressure energy 41. Orifice refers to an opening
D. Vector difference of two velocities C. Potential energy A. With closed perimeter and of regular form
D. The sum of pressure energy and potential through which water flows
Answer: D energy B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3
diameters of opening in thick wall
30. Which of the following is the highest head? Answer: A C. With partially full flow
A. 33 inch Hg D. In hydraulic structure with regulation
B. 31.0 ft. water 36. The presence of friction in the energy grade line provision
C. 1.013 kg kg/𝑐𝑚2 will always cause the line to slope
D. 75.0 cm of Hg A. Down in the direction of the flow Answer: D
42. The value of coefficient of discharge in A. Sonic C. Kutter’s C
comparison to coefficient of velocity is found to B. Sub-sonic D. Value of k in Darcy - Weisbach formula
be_______. C. Supersonic
A. More D. Supersonic on one side and sub-sonic on the Answer: B
B. Less other side
C. Same 53. What is the coefficient of contraction?
D. More/less depending on flow Answer: D A. The ratio of the area of vena contracta to the
area of the orifice
Answer: B 48. Which of the following is the basic of Bernoulli’s B. The ration of actual discharge to the
law for fluid flow? theoretical discharge
43. Weir refers to an opening A. Continuity equation C. The ratio of the actual velocity to the
A. Having closed perimeter and of regular form B. Principle of conservation of energy theoretical velocity
through which water flows C. Fourier’s law D. The ratio of the effective head to the actua;
B. Having prolonged sides with length of 2 to 3 D. Principle of conservation of mass head
diameters of opening in thick wall
C. Having partially full flow Answer: B Answer: A
D. In hydraulic structures with regulation
provision 49. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 54. Where is vena contracta most likely loacated?
fluid pressure? A. At the orifice
Answer: C A. It is a shear stress B. At a distance approximately ½ the diameter
B. It is the same in all directions at a point in the of the orifice
44. Which of the following parameters determine the fluid C. At a distance approximately equal to the
friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough pipe? C. It acts normal to a surface diameter of the orifice
A. Froude number and relative roughness D. It is linear with depth D. At a distance approximately twice the
B. Froude number and Mach number diameter of the orifice
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness Answer: A
D. Mach number and relative roughness Answer: B
50. Refers to the compressibility of a fluid, the
Answer: C fractional change in fluid volume per unit change 55. A substance that is able to flow and yields to any
in fluid. force tending to change its shape without
45. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum A. Viscosity changing its volume such as water and air.
when the loss of head due to friction is: B. Bulk modulus A. Fluid
A. One-half of the total head supplied C. Density B. Flux
B. One-third of the total head supplied D. Pressure C. Gas oil
C. One-fourth of the total head supplied D. Water gas
D. Equal to the total head supplied Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: B 51. A pilot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity
as described by the Bernoulli’s equation and the 56. The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the
46. In a nozzle if back pressure is same as inlet relationship between: pipe section is______.
pressure; then_______________. A. Kinetic energy and static pressure A. Maximum
A. No flow takes place B. Fluid pressure and static pressure B. Minimum
B. Maximum flow takes place C. Fluid pressure and impact energy C. Average
C. Flow becomes subsonic in diverging section D. Pressure and momentum D. Logarithmic average
D. Flow becomes supersonic in converging as
well as supersonic section Answer: A Answer: A

Answer: A 52. The ratio of the area to the wetted penmeter is 57. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must
known as __________. increase as the fluid flow area of the duct:
47. The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is A. Flow factor A. Increases
called___________. B. Hydraulic radius B. Decreases
 C. Constant 63. Which of the following is not a characteristic of real B. Density
D. None of these fluids? C. Pressure
A. Finite viscosity D. Viscosity
Answer: B B. Non-uniform velocity distributions
C. Compressibility Answer: C
58. Which is incorrect statement regarding apparent D. Experience of eddy current and turbulence
shear forces. 69. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are
A. It can never be found in frictionless fluid Answer: D attracted is known as ________.
regardless of its motion A. Adhesion
B. It can never be found when the fluid is at rest 64. Which of the following is not the mass density of B. Cohesion
C. It depends upon cohesive forces water? C. Surface tension
D. It may occur owing to cohesion when the fluid A. 62.5 lbm/𝑓𝑡 3 D. Viscosity
is at rest B. 100 kg/𝑚3
C. 1 g/𝑐𝑚3 Answer: B
Answer: D D. 1 kg/L
70. The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with
59. The time required for half a quantity of radioactive Answer: B a speed:
particles to decay (disintegrate) is called A. Less than the local speed of sound
its_____________. 65. The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow B. Equal to the speed of sound
A. Average life is: C. Greater than the speed of sound
B. Median life A. Of no practical importance to designers D. Much greater than the speed of sound
C. Time constant B. Always used to design pipes for strength
D. Half time C. The number at which turbulent flow changes Answer: A
over to laminar flow
Answer: D D. The number at which laminar flow changes 71. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same
into turbulent flow in all the directions if the fluid is:
60. SI unit of viscosity is: A. Viscous
A. 10 times poise Answer: A B. Viscous and static
B. 9.81 times poise C. Inviscous and in motion
C. 1/9.81 time poise 66. Which of the following statements about gauge D. Viscous and is in motion
D. 1/10 times poise pressure is most correct? Gauge pressure are
measured relative to _________. Answer: D
Answer: A A. Atmospheric pressure
B. A vacuum 72. The statement that “the hydrostatic pressure a
61. For computation convenience, fluids are usually C. Each other fluid exerts on an immersed object or on container
classed as: D. The surface walls is a function only of fluid depth” is
A. Rotational or irrotational A. The perfect gas law
B. Real or ideal Answer: A B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. Laminar or turbulent C. The hydrostatic paradox
D. Newtonian or non-newtonian 67. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a D. Boyle’s law
resistance is called ________.
Answer: B A. Volumetric strain Answer: C
B. Volumetric index
62. Which of the following is not a dimensionless C. Compressibility 73. Bernoulli’s equation is s/an ___________.
parameter? D. Adhesion A. Momentum equation
A. Kinetic viscosity B. Conservation of energy equation
B. Weber number Answer: D C. Conservation of mass equation
C. Darcy Weisbach friction factor D. Equation of state
D. Froude number 68. Compressibility of a fluid relates the fractional
change in fluid volume per unit change in fluid. Answer: B
Answer: A A. Temperature
74. An ideal fluid is one that: D. Important only in supersonic flow 85. Which of the following turbine is different from the
A. Is very viscous others?
B. Obeys Newton’s law of viscosity Answer: C A. Fourneyron turbine
C. Is assumed in problems in conduit flow B. Francis turbine
D. Is frictionless and incompressible 80. Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all C. Kaplan turbine
of the following except: D. Pelton wheel
Answer: D A. A parabolic velocity profile
B. A momentum exchange due to fluid masses Answer: D
75. The relationship between pressure and altitude in rather than molecules
the atmosphere is given by the: C. A maximum velocity at the fluid center line 86. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel gives:
A. Perfect gas law D. A 1/7 velocity profile A. Actual operating speed
B. Conservation of mass B. No load speed
C. Barometric height relationship Answer: A C. Full load speed
D. First law of thermodynamics D. No load speed when governor mechanism
81. The laminar friction factor of fluid flowing through a fails
Answer: C pipe is a function of all of the following except:
A. Fluid velocity Answer: D
76. The fact the buoyant force on a floating object B. Pipe diameter
equal to the weight of the water displaced is: C. Pipe roughness 87. Which of the following turbine is different from the
A. Bernoulli’s law D. Reynolds number others?
B. Archimedes’ principle A. Pelton wheel
C. The law of diminishing returns Answer: C B. Banki turbine
D. The conservation of mass C. Jonval turbine
82. The continuity equation is applicable to: D. Kaplan turbine
Answer: B A. Viscous unviscous fluid
B. Compressibility of fluids Answer: D
77. Which of the following terms does not appear in C. Conservation of mass
the steady flow energy equation (the extended D. Steady unsteady flow 88. The characteristic length of the Reynold’s number
Bernoulli’s equation)? used to calculate the friction in noncircular full
A. Kinetic energy Answer: C running pipes is based on the __________.
B. Potential energy A. Run length
C. Friction losses 83. The rise or fall of head ‘h’ in a capillary tube of B. Pipe length
D. Hysteresis losses diameter ‘d ‘ and liquid surface tension ‘s’ and C. Hydraulic diameter (the equivalent diameter)
specific weight ‘w’ is given by: D. Wetted circumference
Answer: D A. 4s/wd
B. 4ds/w Answer: C
78. Neglecting the forces due to inertia, gravity and C. 4wd/s
frictional resistance, the design of a channel can D. 4ws/d 89. The hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is:
be made by comparing A. The square root of the flow area
A. Weber number Answer: A B. The ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter
B. Reynolds number C. The radius of a pipe of equivalent area
C. Froude’s number 84. The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the D. None of the above
D. Prant’l number resistance of open pipes and channels.
A. Fluid mechanics Answer: B
Answer: C B. Hydraulics
C. Aerodynamics 90. The Darcy equation can be used for all liquids and
79. The difference between stagnation pressure and D. Thermodynamics flows except:
total pressure is: A. Water
A. Due to height difference Answer: B B. Alcohol
B. Due to fluid kinetic energy C. Gasoline
C. None of the terms are interchangeable D. Air flowing supersonically
 Answer: D D. There is no effect of friction on the energy D. Viscosity factor
grade line
91. The Hazen – Williams formula for head loss due to Answer: A
friction is based upon: Answer: A
A. Rigorous mathematical derivation 102. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser
B. Empirical data 97. The presence of a minor loss in the energy grade than 5, what is the standard classification of the
C. Semi-empirical analysis line will cause the line to slope: travel?
D. Screndipity A. Down in the direction of the flow A. Transonic travel
B. Upward in the direction of the flow B. Subsonic travel
Answer: B C. Vertically downward C. Hypersonic travel
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy D. Supersonic travel
92. The extended Bernoulli equation includes all of the grade line
following terms except: Answer: D
A. Potential energy Answer: A
B. Kinetic energy 103. What is measured by a Pitot tube?
C. Nuclear energy 98. What do you call the pressure which the fluid A. Volumetric discharge
D. Friction losses exerts on an immersed object or container walls? B. Mass flow
A. Normal pressure C. Pressure
Answer: C B. Standard liquid pressure D. Velocity
C. Hydrostatic pressure
93. An equipotential line is one that: D. Gage pressure Answer: D
A. Has no velocity component tangent to it
B. Has uniformly varying dynamic pressure Answer: C 104. What is the difference between the energy grade
C. Has no velocity component normal to it line and the hydraulic grade line?
D. Exists in case of rotational flow 99. Viscosity for a fluid is defined as the constant of A. Potential energy
proportionality between shear stress and what B. Pressure energy
Answer: A other variable? C. Kinetic energy
A. The spatial derivative of velocity D. Friction losses
94. What is the use of a Hydraulic jump? B. The time derivative of pressure
A. Increase the flow rate C. The time derivative of density Answer: C
B. Reduce the flow rate D. The spatial derivative of density
C. Reduce the velocity of flow 105. Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of:
D. Reduce the energy of flow Answer: A A. High speed flow
B. Low speed flow
Answer: D 100. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid C. Steady flow
travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the D. Equilibrium flow
95. What do you call the lowest portion to storage paths of the individual particles do not cross each
basin from where the water is not drawn? other? Answer: A
A. Bottom storage A. Steady flow
B. Sub soil storage B. Laminar flow 106. Discharge losses through orifice are due to:
C. Spring reserve C. Uniform flow A. Friction losses
D. Dead storage D. Turbulent flow B. Minor losses
C. Both friction and minor losses
Answer: D Answer: B D. Pressure losses

96. The presence of friction in the hydraulic grade line 101. Which of the following refers to the measure of a Answer: C
will always cause the line to slope: fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with
A. Down in the direction of the flow changes in temperature? 107. Which of the following is considered as an
B. Upward in the direction of the flow A. Viscosity index important parameter in the study of compressible
C. Level (no slope) B. Coefficient of viscosity flow?
C. Viscosity ratio A. Speed of fluid
 B. Speed of sound C. M>1 The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
C. Speed of light D. M=1 resistance is called:
D. Speed of fluid flow A. Volumetric change
Answer: D B. Volumetric index
Answer: B C. Compressibility
114. The pressure decreases as the temperature and D. Adhesion
108. Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small velocity increases while the fluid velocity and
pressure wave travels through a medium. Mach number: Answer: D
A. Subsonic velocity A. Increases
B. Hypersonic velocity B. Decreases 120. Past ME Board Question
C. Sonic velocity C. Remains constant The energy of a fluid flowing at any section in a
D. Monatomic velocity D. None of these pipeline is a function of:
A. Velocity of flow only
Answer: C Answer: A B. Pressure only
C. Height above a chosen datum, density,
109. It is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the 115. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of internal energy, pressure and velocity of flow
velocity of sound. smallest flow area, called the: D. Pressure, height above a chosen datum,
A. Mach number A. Decreasing are velocity of flow, density of fluid
B. Froude number B. Throat
C. Sonic number C. Increasing area Answer: C
D. Euler number D. None of these
121. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A Answer: B If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers
and the paths of individual particles do not cross,
110. The flow is called sonic when Mach number is: 116. What happens to the velocity of fluid after passing the fluid is said to be:
A. Equal to 1 the throat although the flow area A. Turbulent
B. Less than 1 A. Increases rapidly B. Critical
C. More than 1 B. Decreases rapidly C. Dynamic
D. None of these C. Remains constant D. Laminar
D. None of these
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: A
111. The following flow is sub-sonic when Mach no. is: 122. Past ME Board Question
A. Greater than 1 117. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies:
B. Less than 1 fluid? A. At the centroid
C. More than 1 A. Motor oils B. Above the centroid
D. None of these B. Gas C. Below the centroid
C. Paints D. At the metacenter
Answer: B D. Clay slurries
Answer: C
112. The flow is supersonic when Mach no. is: Answer: B
A. Greater than zero 123. Past ME Board Question
B. Less than 1 118. What is the critical pressure of water? At any instant, if the number of particles passing
C. Greater than 1 A. 150 kg/cm3 every cross-section of the stream is the same, the
D. None of these B. Less than 200 kg/cm2 flow is said to be:
C. More than 200 kg/cm2 A. Steady flow
Answer: C D. 100 kg/cm2 B. Uniform flow
C. Continuous flow
113. The flow is transonic when Answer: C D. Laminar flow
A. M = 0
B. M < 1 119. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
 124. Past ME Board Question D. 1 + c + c(𝑝2 /𝑝1 )𝑛+1 7. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate
The ratio of cross-sectional area of flow to the pressure in case of two stage compression?
𝑝 +𝑝
wetted perimeter is: Answer: A A. 𝑝2 = 1 2
2
A. Hydraulic lead 𝑝1 +𝑝2
B. 𝑝2 = 𝑝1 +
B. Hydraulic section 2. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid 2

C. Hydraulic mean depth friction and blade tip clearance losses, the blades of C. 𝑝2 = √𝑝1 𝑝3
D. Hydraulic gradient an axial flow compressor are designed for____ D. 𝑝2 = 𝑝1+ √𝑝1 2 + 𝑝3 2
A. 80% reaction
Answer: C B. 85% reaction Answer: C
C. 60% reaction
125. Past ME Board Question D. 53% reaction 8. In air compressor performance curve a surge line
If A is the cross-sectional area of the flow and Pw represents what?
is the wetted perimeter of a pipe, then what is the Answer: D A. Limit of compressor efficiency
hydraulic depth. Hd ? B. Limit of compressor discharge
A. Pw – A 3. Centrifugal blowers can supply C. Limit of stable operation
B. Pw / A A. Large volumes of air at low pressures D. Lower critical speed of shaft
C. A / Pw B. Small volumes of air at high pressures
D. Pw x A C. Large volumes of air at high pressures Answer: C
D. Small volumes of air at low pressures
Answer: C 9. Which of the following is a displacement
Answer: A compressor?
126. Past ME Board Question A. Reciprocating air compressor
If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height or 4. Which of the following is a safety device on a B. Vane blower
elevation in ft. and m is weight in lbs. per gallon, compressor? C. Centrifugal blower
what is the desired energy to lift the water from A. Relief valve D. Axial flow compressors
lower to higher elevation? B. Strainer
A. E = mD/Q C. Over speed shut down Answer: B
B. E = mDQ D. Over pressure shut down
C. E = mQ/D 10. Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is:
D. E = QD/m Answer: A A. An unsteady periodic and reversal of flow
B. The fixed mass flow rate irrespective of
Answer: B 5. In a four stage compressor system, the first and third pressure ratio
stage pressures are 1 and 9 kg/cm2 respectively. C. The reduction in lift force at higher angle of
127. Past ME Board Question What is the fourth stage delivery pressure? incidence
The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is A. 9 kg/cm2 D. All of the above
always subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then the B. 81 kg/cm2
Mach number is: C. 27 kg/cm2 Answer: C
A. Greater than unity D. 243 kg/cm2
B. Less than unity 11. Surging is
C. Near unity Answer: C A. An unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in
D. Unity the compressor
6. For a six compression of air set, the minimum work B. The fixed mass flow rate irrespective of
Answer: B conditions are: pressure ratio
A. Pressure rise per stage will be equal C. The reduction in lift force at higher angle of
CHAPTER 12 – FLUID MACHINERY B. Work done in successive stages will be in incidence
geometrical progression D. None of the above
1. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor having C. Cylinder volumes will be same
clearance factor is given by: D. Temperature rise in the cylinders will be the Answer: A
A. 1 + c – c(𝑝2 /𝑝1 )1/𝑛 same
B. 1 + c + c(𝑝2 /𝑝1 )1−𝑛 12. In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise takes
C. 1 + c - c(𝑝2 /𝑝1 )𝑛 Answer: D place in:
 A. Fixed blades only D. 70 to 90 psig D. All suction valves are open and all discharge
B. Moving blades only valves are open
C. Both fixed and moving blades Answer: B
D. None of the above Answer: B
18. The capacity of portable air compressors used for
Answer: C construction, mining, road building, and painting 23. Past ME Board Question
ranges from ______________. Pump used to increase air pressure above normal,
13. An axial flow compressor is suitable for: A. 1 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 3 /min air is then used as a motive power.
A. High volume flow rates with small pressure B. 30 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 3 /min A. Air cooled engine
rise C. 1 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 3 /min B. Air compressor
B. Low volume flow rates with low pressure rise D. 30 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 3 /min C. Air condenser
C. High volume flow rates with high pressure D. Air injection
rise Answer: A
D. Low volume flow rates with high pressure rise Answer: B
19. The power of portable air compressors used for
Answer: A construction, mining, road building, and painting 24. A device used for raising fluids from a lower to higher
ranges from: level.
14. Which of the following is a positive displacement A. 1 hp to 500 hp A. Compressor
rotary compressor? B. ½ hp to 500 hp B. Pump
A. Roots blower C. 1 hp to 1000 hp C. Turbine
B. Centrifugal compressor D. ½ hp to 1000 hp D. Blowers
C. Axial flow compressor
D. None of the above Answer: B Answer: B

Answer: A 20. Most permanent installations use piston compressors 25. When a pump is opening at a vacuum of 4 in Hg,
available as stock items in size ranging from which of the following is not correct?
15. Choking is A. 1 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 3 /min A. The pressure is 25.92 in Hg
A. Change of mass flow rate in proportion to B. 30 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 3 /min B. The pressure is 10.721 psia
pressure ratio C. 1 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 3 /min C. The pressure is 158.4 torr
B. Change of mass flow rate in inverse D. 30 𝑓𝑡 3 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 3 /min D. The pressure is 0.8663 atm
proportion to pressure ratio
C. Fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure Answer: B Answer: C
D. All of the above
21. Most permanent installations use piston compressors 26. The amount of energy actually entering the fluid from
Answer: C available as stock items of what pressure? a pump is the
A. 150 psi A. Brake horsepower
16. Crankshaft of a reciprocating compressor is basically B. 200 psi B. Hydraulic horsepower
made of what? C. 250 psi C. Theoretical horsepower
A. Semi-steel D. 300 psi D. Hydraulic, theoretical, or water horsepower
B. Aluminum alloy
C. Steel forging Answer: A Answer: D
D. Cast iron
22. When the piston is top center of the cylinder in a 27. Primary purpose of a pump in a fluid loop is to
Answer: D double-acting reciprocating compressor: A. Add energy to the flow
A. All suction valves are open and all discharge B. Add mass to the flow
17. Most plant air systems to operate the tools and valves are closed C. Extract energy from the flow
machines which require 70 to 90 psig are maintained B. All suction valves are closed and all discharge D. None of the above
at_______. valves are closed
A. 90 to 110 psig C. All suction valves are closed and all discharge Answer: A
B. 110 to 130 psig valves are open
C. 130 to 150 psig 28. The isentropic efficiency of a pump is given by the
 A. Ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted 33. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
B. Ratio of ideal to actual energy supplied An aftercooler on a reciprocating air compressor is
C. Ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted used primarily to: 38. Past ME Board Question
D. Ratio of actual to ideal energy supplied A. Cool the lubricating oil The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid
B. Condense the moisture in the compressed air against a given head with no losses in the pump is
Answer: B C. Improve compressor efficiency called:
D. Increase compressor capacity A. Wheel power
29. The electrical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the B. Brake power
: Answer: B C. Hydraulic power
A. Electrical energy output to the electrical energy D. Indicated power
input 34. Past ME Board Question
B. Mechanical energy input to the mechanical A receiver in an air compression system is used to Answer: C
energy output of the device A. Avoid cooling air before using
C. Actual energy extracted to the ideal energy B. Increase the air discharge pressure 39. Past ME Board Question
extracted C. Collect water and grease suspended in the air Fluids that are pumped in processing work are
D. Actual to the ideal energy input D. Reduce the work needed during compression frequently more viscous than water. Which of the
following statement is correct?
Answer: C Answer: C A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity
30. The adiabatic pump efficiency is the ratio of the 35. Past ME Board Question increases
A. Electrical energy output to the electrical energy Crankshaft of reciprocating compressor is basically C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts
input made of: and the passing fluid increased useful work.
B. Mechanical energy input to the electric energy A. Semi-steel D. Working head increases as the viscosity
output of the device B. Aluminum alloy
C. Ideal energy input to the pump to the actual C. Cast iron Answer: C
energy input D. Steel forging
D. Actual energy extracted to the ideal energy 40. Past ME Board Question
extracted Answer: C A reciprocating pump is considered positive
displacement pump because
Answer: C 36. Past ME Board Question A. Displacement of the liquid is affected by the
Cooling water system consists of equipment to displacement of the piston
31. A condenser’s water – circulating pump is belt-driven dissipate heat absorbed by the engine jacket water, B. Positive pressure is given to the liquid
by an electric motor with an adjustable pitch motor lube oil and the heat to be removed from air C. Liquid is discharge with positive pressure
sheave. This sheave intercooler is measurable to keep the engine outlet D. Liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created inside
A. Permits adjustment of pump speed water temperature constant and the differential of the the cylinder
B. Prevent overload abd/or burnout of the pump and cooling water at a minimum preferably not to exceed:
motor A. 10 to 30 F ̊ Answer: A
C. Prevents excessive wear on the belt and motor B. 10 to 50 F ̊
shaft bearings C. 10 to 20 F ̊ 41. Past ME Board Question
D. Facilitates belt replacement D. 10 to 40 F ̊ To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type
and better arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most
Answer: C Answer: C practical?
A. Full-flow type filter installed between the
32. The function of a pump or compressor is to 37. Past ME Board Question lubricating oil pump and the bearings
A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another Which of the following is one of the most popular B. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
B. Increase the total energy content of the flow types of compressor utilized for supercharging C. Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable
C. Extract energy from the flow engine? elements
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow A. Roots type blower D. Splash lubricating system in the crank case
B. Pulse turbo charger
Answer: B C. Constant pressure turbo charger Answer: A
D. Turbo compressor
42. Past ME Board Question 47. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings In order that cavitation will not take place in the
are suitable for a working pressure of: suction line of a pump, what should be the sum of 52. Past ME Board Question
A. 862 to 1200 kPa the velocity head and pressure head at suction The actual head, neglecting the kinetic energy in
B. 758 to 1000 kPa compared to the vapor pressure of the liquid? which the pump work against.
C. 500 to 1000 kPa A. sufficiently lower A. Delivery head
D. 658 to 1050 kPa B. constant B. Pressure head
C. adequately greater C. Velocity head
Answer: A D. equal D. Suction head

43. Past ME Board Question Answer: C Answer: B

The function of an unloader on an electric motor-
driven compressor is to: 48. Past ME Board Question 53. Past ME Board Question
A. Reduce the speed of the motor when the Which of the following components of a pump Flow of water in a pipe have a velocity at 10 meters
maximum pressure is reached converts mechanical energy to pressure energy? per second. Determine the velocity head of the water
B. Drain the condensate from the cylinder A. Impeller A. 50.1 meters
C. Release the pressure in the cylinder in order to B. Valve B. 5.1 meters
reduce the starting load C. Shaft C. 8.2 meters
D. Prevent excess pressure in the receiver D. Delivery pipe D. 100 meters

Answer: C Answer: A Answer: B

44. Past ME Board Question 49. Past ME Board Question 54. Past ME Board Question
An unloader is used on air compressor to: Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump for his farm. Find the velocity head for a velocity of 18 m/s
A. Relieve air pressure What is suitable for deepwell? A. 33.0 m
B. Start easier A. Reciprocating B. 0.92 m
C. Stop easier B. Airlift C. 1.8 m
D. Run faster C. Hand lift D. 16.5 m
D. Centrifugal
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: D
45. Past ME Board Question 55. Past ME Board Question
The performance of a reciprocating compressor is 50. Past ME Board Question The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally
expressed as: A tank contains H2O. what is the intensity of designated by a three-digit number size as 646. The
A. Adiabatic work divided by adiabatic input pressure at a depth of 6 meters? first digit designates.
B. Adiabatic work divided by indicated work A. 68 kPa A. Stroke of the pump in inches
C. Isothermal work divided by indicated work B. 58.8 kPa B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured
D. Isothermal work divided by adiabatic work C. 78.0 kPa in inches
D. 48.7 kPa C. Percent clearance
Answer: B D. Number of cylinders
Answer: B
46. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
For reciprocating compressor slip at positive or 51. Past ME Board Question
negative displacement: In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an 56. Past ME Board Question
A. 𝐶𝑑 = 1 installation should be: If 𝑄𝑎 is the actual discharge flow and 𝑄𝑏 is the
B. 𝐶𝑑 > 1 A. At least equal or greater than the NPSH of the theoretical discharge flow, what will the coefficient of
C. 𝐶𝑑 < 1 pump discharge be equal to during positive displacement
D. 𝐶𝑑 = 0 B. At least equal or less than the NPSH of the pump slip?
C. Equal to the NPSH of the pump only A. 𝑄𝑎 x 𝑄𝑏
Answer: C D. Greater than the NPSH of the pump only B. 𝑄𝑏 /𝑄𝑎
C. 𝑄𝑎 /𝑄𝑏
 D. 1 − 𝑄𝑎 /𝑄𝑏 Answer: C Answer: A

Answer: C 62. A centrifugal pump characterized by a housing which 67. A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a
is split parallel to the shaft screened inlet kept partially filled with water by an
57. Past ME Board Question A. Horizontal split case pump open body of water such as pond, lake, or steams.
Two pumps are connected in series. If 𝑄1 is the B. End suction pump A. Aquifer
discharge of pump 1 and 𝑄2 is the discharge of pump C. In line pump B. Wet pit
2 where 𝑄1 <𝑄2 . What is the discharge? D. Vertical shaft turbine pump C. Ground water
A. 𝑄2 D. Well water
B. 𝑄1 Answer: A
C. 𝑄1 +𝑄2 Answer: B
D. 𝑄1 /𝑄2 63. A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers
discharging into one or more bowls and a vertical 68. Water which is available from a well, driven into
Answer: A eductor or column pipe used to connect the bowls to water bearing subsurface strata (aquifer)
the discharge head on which the pump driver is A. Aquifer
58. A pump in which the pressure is developed mounted. B. Wet pit
principally by the action of centrifugal force A. Horizontal split case pump C. Ground water
A. Centrifugal pump B. End suction pump D. Well water
B. End suction pump C. In line pump
C. In line pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump Answer: C
D. Horizontal pump
Answer: D 69. The level with respect to the pump, of the body of
Answer: A water from which it takes suction when the pump is
64. A pump that takes suction from a public service main not in operation.
59. A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on or private use water system for the purpose of A. Static water level
the opposite side of the casing from the stuffing box increasing the effective water pressure. B. Pumping water level
and having the face of the suction nozzle A. Horizontal split case pump C. Suction head
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft. B. Submersible pump D. Discharge head
A. Centrifugal pump C. Booster pump
B. End suction pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump Answer: A
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump Answer: C 70. The level with respect to the pump, of the body of
water from which it takes suction when the pump is in
Answer: B 65. A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor operation.
closed coupled and design to be installed A. Static water level
60. A pump with the shaft normally in a horizontal underground, as in the case of a deepwell pump. B. Pumping water level
position A. Horizontal split case pump C. Suction head
A. Centrifugal pump B. Submersible pump D. Drawdown
B. End suction pump C. Booster pump
C. In line pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump Answer: B
D. Horizontal pump
Answer: A 71. The vertical difference between the pumping water
Answer: D level and the static water level.
66. An underground formation that contains sufficient A. Static water level
61. A centrifugal pump whose drive unit is supported by saturated permeable material to yield significant B. Pumping water level
the pump having its suction and discharge flanges on quantities of water. C. Suction head
approximately the same center. A. Aquifer D. Drawdown
A. Horizontal split case pump B. Wet pit
B. End suction pump C. Ground water Answer: D
C. In line pump D. Well water
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
72. Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from Answer: B C. Seal gage
centrifugal force as the impeller is rotated. D. Mechanical seal
A. Impeller 78. Which of the following is used to mount unit rigidly
B. Casing and support bearings. Answer: D
C. Stuffing box A. Wearing rings
D. Shaft sleeve B. Stuffing box 84. A positive displacement pump consisting of a fixed
C. Frame casing containing gears, cams, screws, vanes,
Answer: A D. Coupling plungers or similar elements actuated by rotation of
the drive shaft.
73. Gives direction to the flow from the impeller and Answer: C A. Rotary pumps
converts this velocity energy into pressure energy. B. Reciprocating pumps
A. Impeller 79. Connects the pump to the driver. C. Deep well pumps
B. Casing A. Wearing rings D. Centrifugal pumps
C. Stuffing box B. Bearings
D. Shaft sleeve C. Frame Answer: A
D. Coupling
Answer: B 85. A positive displacement unit wherein the pumping
Answer: D action is accomplished by the forward and backward
74. A means of throttling the leakage which would movement of a piston or plunger inside a cylinder
otherwise occur at the point of entry of the shaft into 80. The most common means of throttling the leakage usually provided with valves.
the casing. between the inside and outside of the casing. A. Rotary pumps
A. Impeller A. Packing B. Reciprocating pumps
B. Casing B. Gland C. Deep well pumps
C. Stuffing box C. Seal gage D. Centrifugal pumps
D. Shaft sleeve D. Mechanical seal
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: A
86. A type of rotary pump consists of an eccentrically
75. Protects the shaft where it passes through the 81. To position and adjust the packing pressure. bored cam rotated by a shaft concentric in a
stuffing box. A. Packing cylindrically bored casing, with an aburment or
A. Impeller B. Gland follower so arranged that with each rotation of the
B. Casing C. Seal gage drive shaft a positive quantity of liquid is displaced
C. Stuffing box D. Mechanical seal from the space between the cam and the pump
D. Shaft sleeve casing.
Answer: B A. Cam and piston pump
Answer: D B. Gear pump
82. Provides passage to distribute the sealing medium C. Screw pump
76. Keeps internal recirculation down to a minimum. uniformly around the portion of the shaft that passes D. Vane pump
A. Wearing rings through the stuffing box. Also known as water seal of
B. Bearings lantern ring. Answer: A
C. Frame A. Packing
D. Coupling B. Gland 87. A type of rotary pump consists of two or more gears,
C. Seal gage operating in closely fitted casing so arranged that
Answer: A D. Mechanical seal when the gear teeth unmesh on one side liquid fills
the space between the gear teeth and is carried
77. Accurately locate shaft and carry radial and thrust Answer: C around in the tooth space to the opposite side and
loads. displaced as the teeth mesh again.
A. Wearing rings 83. Provides a mechanical sealing arrangement that A. Cam and piston pump
B. Bearings takes the place of the packing. B. Gear pump
C. Frame A. Packing C. Screw pump
D. Coupling B. Gland D. Vane pump
 Answer: B C. Power driven pump 1. One of the reasons for insulating the pipes is:
D. Piston pump A. They may not break under pressure
88. A type of rotary pump consists of two or three screw B. There is minimum corrosion
rotors so arranged that as the rotors turn liquid fills Answer: C C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased
the shape between the screw threads and is D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
displaced axially as the rotor threads mesh. 93. A type of deep well pump which are refinement of the
A. Cam and piston pump old hand pump that have played such an important Answer: D
B. Gear pump role in country home and small town water supply
C. Screw pump from wells. 2. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a
D. Vane pump A. Plunger pump surface at any temperature and in small
B. Turbine pump wavelengths is found from the known rate of
Answer: C C. Ejector centrifugal pump energy that under the same conditions will be
D. Air lift emitted from a black surface, by multiplying with
89. A type of rotary pump consists of one rotor in a the absorptivity. The above enunciation is called:
casing machined eccentrically to the drive shaft. The Answer: A A. Lambert’s law
rotor is fitted with a series of vanes, blades or B. Kirchhoff’s law
buckets which follow the bore of the casing thereby 94. A type of deep well pump that represent the C. Planck’s law
displacing the liquid with each revolution of the drive application of vertical centrifugal pump to deep well D. Stefan Boltzmann’s law
shaft. service and are built for heads up to 305 meters and
A. Cam and piston pump for capacities up to 28,495 liters per minute. Answer: B
B. Gear pump A. Plunger pump
C. Screw pump B. Turbine pump 3. Which of the following is generally used to
D. Vane pump C. Ejector centrifugal pump measure the temperature inside the furnace?
D. Air lift A. Mercury thermometer
Answer: D B. Alcohol thermometer
Answer: B C. Ash thermometer
90. A type reciprocating pump having a steam cylinder D. Optical pyrometer
with no lap on valves, a water cylinder and a 95. A type of deep well pump that has come into wide
common piston rod. use for small capacities combines a single stage Answer: D
A. Direct acting steam pump centrifugal pump at the top of the well and an ejector
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump or jet located down in the water. 4. All heat transfer processes:
C. Power driven pump A. Plunger pump A. Involve transfer of energy
D. Piston pump B. Turbine pump B. Involve temperature difference between the
C. Ejector centrifugal pump bodies
Answer: A D. Air lift C. Obey first law of thermodynamics
D. Obey second law of thermodynamics
91. A type of reciprocating pimp driven by compound, Answer: C
cross compound, or triple expansion steam engines. Answer: B
A. Direct acting steam pump 96. A type of deep well pump wherein compressed air is
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump admitted to the well to lift water to the surface, for 5. What is thermal diffusivity?
C. Power driven pump successful operation of the system, the discharge A. A mathematical formula
D. Piston pump pipe must have its lower end submerged in the well B. A physical property of the material
water. C. A configuration for heat conduction
Answer: B A. Plunger pump D. A dimensionless parameter
B. Turbine pump
92. A type of reciprocating pump that receives its forward C. Ejector centrifugal pump Answer: B
and backward motion of the piston and plunger from D. Air lift
the rotary motion of a revolving crankshaft by means 6. Which of the following is a unit of thermal
of a crank and connecting rod. Answer: D diffusivity?
A. Direct acting steam pump A. m2 /hr
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump CHAPTER 13 – HEAT TRANSFER B. kcal/m2 hr
 C. kcal/m2 hr C
̊ 12. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on which of B. Radiation from suspended larger particles of
D. m2 /hr C
̊ the following? coal, coke, or ash contributing to flame
A. Moisture lumininossity
Answer: A B. Temperature C. Infared radiation from water vapor and
C. Density carbon dioxide
7. Non-isotropic conductivity is shown by which of D. All of the above D. All of the above
the following?
A. Brass Answer: D Answer: D
B. Copper
C. Wood 13. A fur coat on an animal will help the animal to 18. The statement that the emissivity and absorptivity
D. Steel remain: of a surface is surrounded by its own temperature
A. Warm in winter are the same for both monochromatic and total
Answer: C B. Cool in winter radiation is called:
C. Warm in summer A. Lambert’s law
8. For glass wool thermal conductivity changes from D. Cool in summer B. Kirchhoff’s law
sample to sample due to changes in: C. D’Alambart’s
A. Structure Answer: A D. Law of emissivity
B. Density
C. Composition 14. The nature of flow of a fluid inside a tube, whether Answer: B
D. All of the above it is turbulent or laminar, can be ascertained by:
A. Flow velocity 19. A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat
Answer: D B. Surface conditions is called:
C. Viscosity of fluid A. Source
9. Which of the following is the S.I. unit of thermal D. Reynolds number B. Sink
conductivity? C. Cold reservoir
A. W/m-hr- K ̊ Answer: D D. Heat reservoir
B. W/m K ̊
C. KJ/m-hr- C ̊ 15. By which of the following modes of heat transfer is Answer: A
D. W/m-hr- C ̊ the Stefan-Boltzmann law applicable?
A. Conduction 20. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer
Answer: B B. Radiation occurs by:
C. Conduction and radiation combined A. Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
10. What is the value of the Prandt’l number for air? D. Convection and radiation combined B. A complete separation between hot and cold
A. 10 fluids
B. 6.7 Answer: B C. Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a
C. 67 surface
D. 0.7 16. At all wave lengths and temperatures the D. Generation of heat again and again
monochromatic emissivity of a white body is equal
Answer: D to: Answer: C
A. Zero
11. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange, B. 0.5 21. Least value of Prandt’l number can be expected in
A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low C. Unity case of ____________.
temperature source to high temperature D. 0.1 to 0.5 A. Liquid metals
source B. Sugar solution
B. Heat transfer by radiation needs no medium Answer: A C. Salt solution
C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation D. Water
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by 17. The radiation from flames is having
combination of conduction, convection and A. Continuous radiation from burning soot Answer: A
radiation particles of microscopic and submicroscopic
dimensions
Answer: C
22. “The boiling point of a solution is a linear function Answer: B A. Ion
of water at the same pressure.” The above B. Isotope
statement is called ___________. 27. In sugar mills can just is evaporation in: C. Molecule
A. Dubring’s rule A. Zigzag tube evaporators D. Hole
B. Petit and Dulong’s law B. Long vertical tube evaporators
C. Fick’s rule C. Short vertical tube evaporators Answer: A
D. Reynolds law D. Horizontal tube evaporators
33. The energy of a body that can be transmitted in
Answer: A Answer: B the form of heat.
A. Heat energy
23. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to 28. A 1-2 heat exchanger refers to which of the B. Thermal energy
A. Increase the pressure drop following? C. Entropy
B. Decrease the pressure drop A. Single pass on shell side and double pass on D. Internal energy
C. Facilitate maintenance tube side
D. Avoid deformation of tubes because of B. Single pass on tube side and double pass on Answer: B
thermal expansion shell side
C. Single liquid cools two liquids at different 34. In an isometric process, the heat transferred is
Answer: D temperature equal to:
D. Two tubes of cold fluid pass through one tube A. Change in enthalpy
24. What do you call the first stage of crystal of hot fluid B. Change in entropy
formation? C. Change in internal energy
A. Nucleation Answer: A D. Work nonflow
B. Foaming
C. Separation 29. A correction of LMTD is essential in case of: Answer: C
D. Vortexing A. Parallel flow heat exchanger
B. Counter current heat exchanger 35. A substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases
Answer: A C. Cross flow heat exchanger and is used for removing them from a given
D. None of the above medium or region.
25. In heat exchanger design, one transfer unit A. Absorbent
implies: Answer: C B. Cohesive
A. One fluid which is exchanging with another C. Adsorbent
fluid of the same chemical composition 30. Which of the following is used as entrainer in D. Adhesive
B. The section of heat exchanger which will acetic acid – water separation?
cause temperature drop of one degree A. Methyl alcohol Answer: A
centigrade B. Phosphorous
C. The section of heat exchanger where heat C. Butyl acetate 36. Radiant heat transfer is described by:
transfer surface area has been one square D. Hexane A. Newton’s law
meter B. Fourier’s law
D. Condition when the change in temperature of Answer: C C. The logarithmic mean temperature
one steam is numerically equal to the D. Kirchhoff’s law
average driving force 31. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged
particles that generate to intermediate distances. Answer: D
Answer: D A. Nuclear radiation
B. Alpha radiation 37. A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat
26. Dritus Boelter equation can be applied in case of C. Beta radiation is called __________.
fluids flowing in: D. Gamma radiation A. Source
A. Transition region B. Sink
B. Turbulent region Answer: C C. Cold reservoir
C. Laminar region D. Heat reservoir
D. Any of the above 32. An electrically charged atom or radical which
carries electricity through an electrolyte is called: Answer: B
38. When the entire heat exchanger is selected as Answer: A A. Reversible process
control volume, heat becomes __________. B. Irreversible process
A. Unity 44. Radiation heat transfer is described by C. Cycle
B. Zero A. Newton’s law D. Isentropic process
C. Undefined B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
D. Indeterminate C. Fourier’s law Answer: C
D. Kirchoff’s law
Answer: B 50. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D A theoretical body which when heated to
39. Heat is conducted in the direction of: incandescence would emit a continuous light-ray
A. Increasing temperature 45. The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to spectrum.
B. Decreasing temperature absorptivity for bodies in thermal equilibrium is A. Black body radiation
C. Increasing and decreasing temperature described by: B. Black body
D. Constant temperature A. Newton’s law C. Blue body
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference D. White body
Answer: B C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchoff’s law Answer: B
40. The heat transfer term in the first law of
thermodynamics may be due to any of the Answer: D 51. Past ME Board Question
following except: Which of the following is the reason for insulating
A. Conduction 46. The temperature potential between temperature at the pipes?
B. Convection the two ends of a heat exchanger are given by: A. They may not break under pressure
C. Radiation A. The logarithmic mean temperature difference B. There is minimum corrosion
D. Internal heat generation (e.g., chemical B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law C. Capacity to withstand pressure
reaction) C. Fourier’s law D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
D. Kirchoff’s law
Answer: D Answer: D
Answer: A
41. All heat transfer processes require a medium of 52. Past ME Board Question
energy exchange except: 47. The function of a heat exchanger is to: Heat transfer due to density differential
A. Conduction A. Increase the water temperature entering the A. Convection
B. Natural convection boiler and decrease combustion B. Nuclear
C. Forced convection requirements C. Conduction
D. Radiation B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another D. Radiation
C. Increase the total energy content of the flow
Answer: D D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow Answer: A

42. Thermal conduction is described by: Answer: B 53. Past ME Board Question
A. Newton’s law The term “exposure” in radiological effects is used
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference 48. The function of a superheater is to: as a measure of a gamma ray or an X-ray field in
C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law A. Increase the water temperature entering the the surface of an exposed object. Since this
D. Fourier’s law boiler and decrease combustion radiation produces ionization of the air surrounding
requirements the object, the exposure is obtained as
Answer: D B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another A. Number of ions produced per mass of air x
C. Increase the total energy content of the flow coulombs per kg
43. Convection is described by which of the following D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow B. Mass of air x surface area of an exposed
laws? object
A. Newton’s law Answer: D C. Mass of air over surface area of an exposed
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference object
C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law 49. What is the series of processes that eventually D. Number of ions produced per mass of air +
D. Fourier’s law bring the system back to its original condition? coulombs per kg
 Answer: A D. Thermal radiation C. Steam
D. Copper
54. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
The passing of heat energy from molecule to Answer: B
molecule through a substance 59. Past ME Board Question
A. Conduction A body that is hot compared to its surroundings 64. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a
B. Radiation illuminates more energy than it receives, while its thermal radiator at a given temperature?
C. Conservation surrounding absorbs more energy than they give. A. Absorptivity
D. Convection The heat is transferred from one to another by B. Conductivity
energy wave motion. What is this mode of heat C. Emissivity
Answer: A transfer? D. Reflectivity
A. Radiation
55. Past ME Board Question B. Conduction Answer: C
The radiant heat transfer depends on: C. Convection
A. Temperature D. Condensation 65. The natural direction of the heat flow between two
B. Heat rays reservoirs is dependent on which of the following?
C. Heat flow from cold to hot Answer: A A. Their temperature difference
D. Humidity B. Their internal energy
60. What is the heat transfer due to density C. Their pressures
Answer: B differential? D. Their states, whether solid, liquid and gas
A. Convection
56. Past ME Board Question B. Conduction Answer: A
What kind of heat exchanger where water is C. Nuclear
heated to a point that dissolved gases are D. Radiation 66. Why are metals good conductors of heat?
liberated? A. Because they contain free electrons
A. Evaporator Answer: A B. Because their atoms are relatively far apart
B. Condenser C. Because their atoms collide infrequently
C. Intercooler 61. What do you call the passing of heat energy from D. Because they have reflecting surfaces
D. Deaerator molecule to molecule through a substance?
A. Conduction Answer: A
Answer: D B. Conservation
C. Radiation 67. In natural convection a heated portion of a fluids
57. Past ME Board Question D. Convection moves because:
Heat transfer processes which include a change of A. Its molecular motions become aligned
phase of a fluid are considered __________. Answer: A B. Of molecular collisions within it
A. Convection C. Its density is less than that of the surrounding
B. Thermal radiation 62. The transmission of heat from one place to fluid
C. Conduction another by fluid circulation between the spots of D. Of currents in surrounding fluid
D. Radiation different temperature is called _______.
A. Convection Answer: C
Answer: A B. Conservation
C. Radiation 68. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an
58. Past ME Board Question D. Conduction object must be at a temperature:
A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its A. Above 0 K
top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the Answer: A B. Above 0 C ̊
air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is C. Above that of its surrounding
eventually carried away from the surface by 63. Which of the following requires the greatest D. High enough for it to glow
___________. amount of heat per kilogram for a given increase
A. Convection in temperature? Answer: A
B. Radiation A. Ice
C. Conduction B. Water
69. The rate at which an object radiates Answer: A 80. What do you call a change of phase directly from
electromagnetic energy does not depend on its: vapor to solid without passing through the liquid
A. Surface area 75. At what particular condition that no more heat can state?
B. Mass that be removed from a substance and the A. Sublimation
C. Temperature temperature can no longer be lowered? B. Solidification
D. Ability to absorb radiation A. Freezing point C. Vaporization
B. Absolute zero D. Deposition
Answer: B C. Critical point
D. Ground zero Answer: D
70. Sublimation refers to:
A. The vaporization of solid without first Answer: B 81. Which of the following is the Stefan-Boltzmann
becoming liquid constant?
B. The melting of a solid 76. What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat A. 5.77 x 10−7 W/m2 K 4
C. The vaporization of a liquid is transferred from one point to another by actual B. 7.67 x 10−9 W/m2 K 4
D. The condensation of a gas into liquid movement of substance? C. 4.78 x 10−10 W/m2 K4
A. Conduction D. 5.67 x 10−8 W/m2 K 4
Answer: A B. Radiation
C. Convection Answer: D
71. In the process of freeze drying, ice goes directly D. Absorption
into water vapor. What is the temperature at which 82. What is the usual value of transmissivity for
this process can take place? Answer: C opaque materials?
A. Below the triple point of water A. 0
B. At the triple point of water 77. The ratio of the radiation of actual body to the B. Indeterminate
C. Above the triple point of water radiation of a blackbody is known as _______. C. 1
D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure A. Emittance D. Infinity
B. Reflectance
Answer: A C. Absorptance Answer: A
D. Transmittance
72. What usually happen when a vapor condenses 83. A body whose emissivity is less than 1 is known
into a liquid? Answer: A as a real body. What is the other term for real
A. It evolves heat body?
B. It generates heat 78. Which of the following is the usual geometric view A. Gray body
C. Its temperature increases factor for a black body? B. White body
̊
D. It boils with temperature less than 100 C A. Zero C. Black body
B. Infinity D. Theoretical body
Answer: A C. One
D. Indeterminate Answer: A
73. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
A. Condensation Answer: C 84. What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the
B. Convection radiant energy that intrudes on it and also emits
C. Evaporation 79. What happens to the heat transferred radially the maximum possible energy when acting as a
D. Conduction across insulated pipe per unit area? source?
A. The heat will flow at constant rate A. White body
Answer: C B. Decreases with the increase in thermal B. Black body
conductivity C. Gray body
74. How do you classify a body that has an emissivity C. Decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface D. Red hot body
factor of 0.7? D. Partially increases from pipe wall to insulated
A. Gray body surface Answer: B
B. Black body
C. White body Answer: C 85. The thermal resistance for one-dimensional steady
D. Theoretical body conduction heat transfer through cylindrical wall in
 the radial direction is expressed in which of the A. Enthalpy 95. Which of the following is the emissivity of white
following functions? B. Thermal energy body?
A. Linear C. Entropy A. Zero
B. Exponential D. Internal energy B. 0.5
C. Logarithmic C. 1
D. Trigonometric Answer: B D. 0 < e < 1

Answer: C 91. Which of the following is the equivalent heat Answer: A

transferred of a gas undergoing isometric
86. The law which states that “the ratio of the emissive process? 96. The mechanism of heat transfer in which there is
powers to absorptivities are equal when the two A. Change in enthalpy no medium ( i.e. water, air, solid concrete)
bodies are in thermal equilibrium” is known as: B. Change in entropy required for the heat energy to travel is:
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law C. Change in internal energy A. Conduction
B. Newton’s law of convection D. Work nonflow B. Radiation
C. Fourier’s law C. Convection
D. Kirchhoff’s law of radiation Answer: C D. Diffusion

Answer: D 92. What do you call a substance that is able to Answer: B

absorb liquids or gases and is usually used for
87. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal removing liquids (or gases) from a given medium 97. The temperature potential between temperature at
resistance of a solid to the boundary layer thermal or region? the two ends of a heat exchanger are given by:
resistance (or external resistance of the body). A. Absorbent A. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
A. Biot number B. Liquifier B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Prandtl number C. Adsorbent C. Fourier’s law
C. Nusselt number D. Adhesive D. Kirchoff’s law
D. Reynolds number
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: A
93. In which direction that heat is transferred through 98. Which of the following best describe function of
88. It refers to the ratio at the rate of heat transferred conduction? heat exchanger?
by conduction to the rate of energy stored. A. Increasing temperature A. Increase the water temperature entering the
A. Reynolds number B. Decreasing temperature system
B. Fourier number C. Increasing and decreasing temperature B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
C. Biot number D. Constant temperature C. Evaluate the total energy of the flow
D. Prandtl number D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: B
94. Which of the following statements is based on
89. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its Prevost theory of heat exchange? 99. What refers to a form of energy associated with
top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the A. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation the kinetic random motion of large numbers of
air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is B. The substance moves because of the molecules?
eventually carried away from the surface by: decrease in its density which is caused by A. Heat
A. Conduction increase in temperature B. Heat of fusion
B. Radiation C. The substance moves because of the C. Entropy
C. Thermal application of mechanical power such as that D. Internal energy
D. Convection of a fan
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by Answer: A
Answer: D combination of conduction, convection and
radiation 100. How much id the part of light that is absorbed by
90. It is the term used to describe the energy of a the body that transmits and reflects 80% and 10%
body that can be transmitted in the form of heat. Answer: A respectively?
 A. 10% transport by diffusion in the velocity and thermal energy of wave motion. What is this mode of heat
B. 30% boundary layer? transfer?
C. 20% A. Nusselt’s number A. Radiation
D. 5% B. Prandtl number B. Conduction
C. Reynold’s number C. Convection
Answer: A D. Dimensional measurement D. Condensation

101. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the Answer: B Answer: A

heat transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid
increases? 106. Which of the following is the property of the solid 110. What do you call theoretical body where
A. The heat transfer coefficient will increase that provides the measure of the rate of heat absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the
B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease transfer to the energy storage? wavelength over the spectral region of the
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains A. Thermal efficiency irradiation and the surface emission?
constant B. Thermal diffusivity A. White body
D. None of the above C. Thermal conductivity B. Opaque body
D. Thermal radiography C. Black body
Answer: B D. Transparent body
Answer: B
102. How do you call a phenomenon wherein the heat Answer: D
is transferred by motion of fluid under the action of 107. Two metals were kept together at room
mechanical device? temperature and it was found out that one is 111. Which of the following is the structure designed to
A. Forced convection colder than the other. Which of the following is the prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance
B. Natural convection best reason why one metal is colder than the rating of not less than four hours?
C. Forced conduction other? A. Fire escape
D. Thermal radiation A. The heat transfer coefficient of one metal is B. Fire exit
of higher C. Fire shield
Answer: A B. One metal is of lower temperature as D. Fire wall
compared to the other
103. In conduction heat transfer, what happens to the C. One metal is of higher temperature as Answer: D
heat transfer per unit time when the thermal compared to the other
conductivity decreases? D. The thermal conductivity of one metal is high 112. Which of the following heat exchange device used
A. The heat flow will increase as compared to the other to provide heat transfer between the exhaust
B. The heat flow remains constant gases and air prior to the entrance of a
C. The heat flow will decrease Answer: D combustor?
D. The heat flow will partially increase and then A. Regenerator
will decrease 108. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the B. Economizer
heat transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid C. Condenser
Answer: C decreases? D. Reheater
A. The heat transfer coefficient also increases
104. Which of the following is the driving force in heat B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease Answer: A
transfer? C. The heat transfer coefficient remains
A. Temperature gradient constant 113. Which of the following transfer of heat is involved
B. Thickness gradient D. The heat transfer coefficient partially in the changing of boiling water (at 100 C̊ ) to
C. Viscosity gradient increases then decreases vapor at the same temperature?
D. Dielectric gradient A. Conduction
Answer: A B. Convection
Answer: A C. Radiation
109. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings D. Evaporation
105. Which of the following is the measure of the illuminates more energy than it receives, while its
relative effectiveness of momentum and energy surrounding absorbs more energy than they give. Answer: B
The heat is transferred from one to another by
114. Which of the following is the science of low B. The steam has higher specific heat Answer: A
temperatures? C. Steam contains more internal energy
A. Cryogenics D. Steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater 125. The rate at which heat flows through a slab of
B. Thermo-kinetics force some material does not depend on which of the
C. Thermodynamics following?
D. Ergonomics Answer: C A. The thickness of the slab
B. The area of the slab
Answer: A 120. What usually happens when vapor condenses into C. The temperature difference between two
liquid? faces
115. Which of the following thermal state of the body A. It absorbs heat D. The specific heat of the material
considered as reference to communicate heat to B. It rejects heat
the other bodies? C. Its temperature increases Answer: D
A. Temperature D. Its temperature decreases
B. Pressure 126. Which of the following is the primary function of a
C. Internal energy Answer: B thermal radiator?
D. Entropy A. To transferring the heat by using moving
121. Which of the following has the highest thermal fluids
Answer: A conductivity? B. To transfer heat from hot to cold body by
A. Mercury using a forced-draft fan
116. The true mean temperature difference is also B. Gasoline C. To transfer heat by allowing molecules to
known as: C. Water vibrate one to another
A. The average mean temperature difference D. Alcohol D. To transfer heat with or without a medium
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. The trigonometric mean temperature Answer: A Answer: D
difference
D. The exponential temperature difference 122. Which of the following is the requirement of the 127. What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good
temperature of a body for it to emit radiation? insulating material?
Answer: B A. Above zero Celsius A. Because it contains many tiny pockets of air
B. Above zero Kelvin B. Styrofoam is a white object
117. Which of the following can be a geometric view C. Above of the temperature of the surroundings C. The structure of Styrofoam is very unstable
factor of a gray body? D. High enough for it to glow and heat cannot flow
A. Greater than one D. Styrofoam structure is very dense
B. Less than one Answer: B
C. Equal to one Answer: A
D. Greater than zero but less than one 123. Which of the following is the color of iron when it is
heated to a highest temperature? 128. What usually happens to the surrounding when
Answer: D A. White water vapor condenses?
B. Red A. It warms the surrounding
118. The heat transfer by conduction occurs in which of C. Orange B. The surrounding temperature decreases
the following? D. Yellow C. It neither warm nor cold the surrounding
A. Only in liquids D. The surroundings will be dehumidified
B. Only in solids Answer: A
C. Only in liquids and gases Answer: A
D. In solids, liquids and gases 124. Which of the following is the reason why metals
are good conductors of heat? 129. The rate of radiation does not depend on which of
Answer: D A. Metals contain free electrons the following?
B. Metals have atoms the frequently collide A. Temperature of the radiating body
119. Which of the following reasons why one gram of another B. The emissivity of the radiation surface
steam at 100 C̊ causes more serious burn than C. Metals have reflecting surfaces C. The area of the radiating body
one gram of water at 100 C̊ ? D. Atoms in metals are very far to each other D. The thickness of the radiating body
A. Steam is less dense than boiling water
 Answer: D B. Decreases except for ferrous metals Answer: A
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic
130. Which of the following is not a good conductor of materials 141. The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of
heat? D. Increases except for steel the following?
A. Metals A. Only in gases
B. Rocks Answer: C B. Only in liquids
C. Glass C. Only in gases and liquids
D. Asbestos 136. Which of the following liquids that has the highest D. Only in gases and solids
thermal conductivity?
Answer: D A. Gasoline Answer: C
B. Glycerin
131. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of C. Water 142. In convection heat transfer, what mechanism heat
heat transfer? D. Alcohol transfer where the fluid moves due to the
A. Watt decrease in its density caused by increase in
B. Btu per hour Answer: C temperature?
C. Cal/s A. Forced convection
D. Btu/Hp-hr 137. Which of the following is not a heat exchanger? B. Natural convection
A. Condenser C. Density convection
Answer: D B. Boilers D. Radial convection
C. Evaporators
132. The thermal conductivity does not depend on D. Water hammer Answer: B
which of the following?
A. Chemical composition Answer: D CHAPTER 14 – REFRIGERATION
B. Physical state or texture
C. Temperature and pressure 138. Which of the following heat exchangers where 1. Which of the following could be used to check a
D. Gravitational pull fluid flow in the same direction and both are of leak in an ammonia system?
changing temperatures? A. Litmus paper
Answer: D A. Parallel flow B. Halide torch
B. Cross flow C. Sulfur stick
133. In Maxwell’s theory for thermal conductivity of C. Counter flow D. A and C
gases and vapors, which of the following is the D. Mixed flow
value of “a” for triatomic gases? Answer: D
A. 1.7 Answer: A
B. 2.4 2. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected
C. 1.3 139. What happens to the thermal conductivity of by:
D. 2.4 diatomic gases if the temperature is increase? A. Smelling the discharge water
A. The thermal conductivity will also increase B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water
Answer: A B. The thermal conductivity decreases discharge
C. The thermal conductivity remains constant C. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and
134. Which of the following conductivities where D. The thermal conductivity partially increases tracing the smell
Sutherland equation is used? then decreases D. Applying a soapy solution to the condenser
A. Thermal conductivities of solids heads and looking for bubbles
B. Thermal conductivities of gases Answer: A
C. Thermal conductivities of metal Answer: B
D. Thermal conductivities of liquids 140. What device is used to measure the amount of
infrared radiation in each portion of a person’s skin 3. A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia
Answer: B that is emitted? will give off a _______.
A. Thermograph A. Dense yellow smoke
135. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal B. Thermometer B. Dense red smoke
conductivity if the temperature is extremely high? C. Pyrometer C. Dense white smoke
A. Approaches infinity D. Potentiometer D. Dense green smoke
 Answer: C B. Pump air out of the system A. On the receiver discharge
C. Add refrigerant to the system B. In the highest part of the system
4. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper _______. D. Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of C. In the lowest part of the system
A. Blue the condenser D. On the evaporators coils
B. Green
C. Red Answer: A Answer: B
D. Yellow
10. How is an ammonia system purged so that 16. The solenoid valve is:
Answer: A operator will not be overcome by the fumes? A. A pressure-controlled stop valve
A. Into a bucket of lube oil B. A temperature-controlled stop valve
5. In an ammonia system the oil gauge must be kept: B. Back into the compressor C. A Freon-controlled check valve
A. Closed except when checking oil level C. Into a bucket of water D. None of the above
B. Open at all times D. Into the atmospheric line
C. Close when machine is shut down Answer: B
D. Open when machine is shut down Answer: C
17. The thermal expansion valve is located between
Answer: A 11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the: the:
A. Diaphragm A. Solenoid valve and the evaporator coils
6. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are B. Magnetic tape B. Charging valve and the solenoid valve
made of: C. Bellows type C. Receiver and the king valve
A. Brass D. A or C D. King valve and the solenoid valve
B. Bronze
C. Iron Answer: D Answer: A
D. Copper
12. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one 18. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
Answer: C should: A. Dissolved scale and dirt in the system
A. Install all new plates B. Remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
7. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is B. Clean the plates and renew worn out ones C. Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the
located: C. Ground each plate to the shell refrigerant
A. On the discharge pipe from the condenser D. Paint the plates with red lead D. Control the amount of scale going to the
B. On the discharge pipe from the compressor compressor
C. In the compressor head Answer: B
D. A and B Answer: C
13. The scale trap is located between the:
Answer: C A. Compressor and oil separator 19. The oil separator (trap) is located between the:
B. Expansion valve and evaporators coils A. Compressor discharge valve and condenser
8. When purging an ammonia condenser into a C. King (liquid) valve and expansion valve B. Receiver and the expansion valve
bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out D. Evaporator coils and compressor C. Receiver and the king valve
and ammonia starts to come through by the: D. Condenser and the receiver
A. Smell of the ammonia being liberated from Answer: C
the water Answer: A
B. Color of the water turning green 14. When the evaporator coils are located in the
C. Color of the water turning bluish icebox, the system is known as: 20. The charging connection in a refrigerating system
D. Change of bubbling sound of air to the A. Indirect system is located:
crackling sound of ammonia B. Direct system A. Before the receiver
C. High-pressure system B. Between the condenser and the receiver
Answer: D D. Low-pressure system C. Between the receiver and the king valve
D. Between the king valve and the solenoid
9. The crossover connection in an ammonia system Answer: B valve
can be used to ___________.
A. Hot-gas defrost 15. The purge valve is located: Answer: D
21. The dehydrator is located between the 27. Which of the following is another name for the D. Valve type
A. Condenser and receiver liquid valve?
B. Receiver and the expansion valve A. Freon valve Answer: B
C. Condenser and the king valve B. King valve
D. Receiver and the king valve C. Shutoff valve 33. The expansion valve is located between the
D. Master valve A. Compressor and condenser
Answer: B B. Evaporator and compressor
Answer: B C. Receiver and evaporator
22. The charging valve is located between the: D. Condenser and receiver
A. King valve and the expansion valve 28. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a
B. Evaporator coils and the compressor Freon system, the joints must be: Answer: C
C. Compressor and the receiver A. Welded joints
D. Receiver and the condenser B. Finished joints 34. The oil separator is located between the:
C. Ground joints A. Condenser and dehydrator
Answer: A D. Soldered joints B. Compressor and condenser
C. Evaporator and compressor
23. The solenoid valve is located between the Answer: C D. Solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve
_______.
A. Thermal expansion valve and the evaporator 29. A device for holding open the suction valve and Answer: B
B. Scale trap and the thermal expansion valve drawing gas from the suction manifold and
C. King valve and the scale trap returning it to the suction line without compressing 35. Zinc rods are found in the:
D. Automatic and manual expansion valves it is called ___________. A. Salt-water side of condenser
A. Relief valve B. Compressor crankcase
Answer: B B. Suction line by-pass C. Evaporator coils
C. Cylinder unloader D. Refrigerant side of condenser
24. A device used to keep moisture from passing D. Discharge line by-pass
through the system is called: Answer: A
A. Humidifier Answer: C
B. Dehydrator 36. A double-trunk piston is used to
C. Aerator 30. The solenoid valve can be typed as a _______. A. Prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant
D. Trap A. Bellows valve B. Absorb some of the side thrust
B. Bimetallic valve C. Prevent gas from getting to crankcase
Answer: B C. Thermal valve D. All of the above
D. Magnetic stop valve
25. The relief valve is located on the: Answer: D
A. Discharge side on the condenser Answer: D
B. Outlet of the evaporator coils 37. Which of the following gasket materials should be
C. Receiver tank 31. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is used on a Freon system?
D. Discharge side of the compressor located A. Asbestos
A. Near the evaporator coil outlet B. Metallic
Answer: D B. In the middle of evaporator coils C. Rubber
C. Near the evaporator coil inlet D. A and B
26. The dehydrator is used: D. On the bottom row of evaporator coils
A. To remove moisture from the system Answer: D
B. When adding refrigerant to the system Answer: A
C. To remove air from the system 38. Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have
D. A and B 32. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of two dials or graduations on one gauge. The two
the ___________ dials represent
Answer: D A. Pilot-valve type A. Suction and discharge pressure
B. Bimetal type B. Pressure and temperature
C. Diaphragm type C. Liquid and gas pressure
 D. Cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures 43. The discharge pressure of the compressor should 48. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance
be: work on it, be sure to:
Answer: B A. The pressure which corresponds to a A. Purge the system
temperature from 5 ̊F to 15 F ̊ below that of B. Have spare parts ready
39. A double-pipe condenser has ___________. the condenser discharge C. Pump down the system
A. Two pipes for cooling water and one for B. The pressure which corresponds to a D. B and C
refrigerant temperature equal to that of the condenser
B. A small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling discharge Answer: D
water passing through the small pipe and the C. The pressure which corresponds to a
refrigerant through the large pipe temperature from 5 ̊F to 15 F ̊ higher than 49. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually
C. Two piping systems side by side, one with the condenser discharge caused by
cooling water and one with refrigerant D. None of the above A. Scale
D. None of the above B. Congealed oil in the system
Answer: C C. Water in the system
Answer: B D. Any of the above
44. The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration
40. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will machines is to: Answer: D
burn A. By-pass the compressor when dehydrating
A. Orange B. Prevent overloading in the iceboxes 50. Excess frost on the evaporator coils
B. Green C. Prevent excessive pressure in case of A. Does not affect the system
C. Blue stoppage on the discharge side of the system B. Takes load off compressor
D. White D. A and B C. Reduces efficiency of the plant
D. Keeps the icebox cooler
Answer: B Answer: C
Answer: C
41. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be 45. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by
detected with a halide torch because it changes A. A higher suction pressure 51. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the
color with the slightest amount of Freon present. A B. A fluctuating suction pressure gauge use of which of the following?
large leak can be detected easier by applying C. Closing in on the suction valve having no A. Hollow sidewalls
____________ effect on the suction pressure B. Diffuser fans
A. Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch D. Any of the above C. Louver doors
for color change D. Air vents to deck
B. A soapsuds solution, mixed with a little Answer: D
glycerin to hold the solution together, and Answer: B
watch for bubbles 46. Too low suction pressure could be caused by
C. A thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and A. Too much oil in the system 52. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be
watch for bubbles B. Shortage of refrigerant gas opened for inspection every
D. A lighted candle at the joints and watch for C. Dirty scale traps A. Six months
leaky spots blowing candle flame D. Any of the above B. Two years
C. Year
Answer: B Answer: D D. Three months

42. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located 47. What do you call a system in which the evaporator Answer: D
A. Next to the king valve coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is
B. In the compressor head pumped through the icebox? 53. Some causes of a noisy compressor are
C. On the discharge pipe between the A. An indirect system A. Worn bearings, pins, etc.
compressor and the discharge valve B. A double-evaporator system B. Slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
D. On the discharge pipe from the condenser C. A direct system C. Too much oil in crankcase
D. A low-pressure system D. Any of the above
Answer: C
Answer: A Answer: D
54. If the thermal expansion valve becomes Answer: C 65. What do you call the liquid reaching the
inoperative, the iceboxes will have to be controlled compressor through the suction?
by the __________. 60. What do you call the device that is used as a low- A. Superheating
A. King valve pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a B. Overflowing
B. Manual expansion valve compressor? C. Flooding back
C. Manual solenoid valve A. Pressure controller D. Recycling
D. Solenoid valve B. Controller switch
C. Cutout Answer: C
Answer: B D. Cutout switch
66. The suction pressure switch is operated by which
55. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of Answer: A of the following?
the following? A. Electric current
A. Too much oil in the system 61. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the B. Pressure on a bellow
B. Insufficient superheat compressor would be stopped by which of the C. A relay cutout
C. Too much superheat following? D. Thermocouple
D. Expansion valve hung up A. Automatic trip
B. Low-pressure cutout switch Answer: B
Answer: A C. Low-water cutout switch
D. High-pressure cutout switch 67. If the compressor short-cycles on the high-
56. Which of the following is the usual cause of pressure cutout, which of the following would you
slugging? Answer: B check?
A. Too much refrigerant in the system A. Check for too much refrigerant in the system
B. Too much oil in the system 62. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is B. If plenty of cooling water is running through
C. Expansion valve not operating properly to: but it is not picking up heat, the condenser
D. Too much cooling water to condenser A. Cut out the compressor at a set pressure tubes need cleaning
B. Maintain a preset suction pressure to the C. Be sure system is getting cooling water
Answer: C compressor D. All of the above
C. Maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the
57. What operates low-pressure cutout switch compressor Answer: D
A. Bellows D. Cut compressor in and out at a preset
B. Spring tension pressure 68. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when
C. A magnet operating under:
D. Water pressure Answer: D A. Normal conditions
B. Heavy loads
Answer: A 63. If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly C. Light loads
fails? D. All of the above
58. Which of the following must be checked up if an A. An alarm will ring to notify the engineer
automatic Freon system will not start up? B. The compressor will shut down Answer: C
A. High-pressure cutout C. The expansion valve will close
B. Reset mechanism D. The solenoid valve will close 69. Air is remove from the system by
C. Low-pressure cutout A. Opening the purge valve
D. All of the above Answer: B B. Increasing the amount of cooling water
C. Running the refrigerant through an aerator
Answer: D 64. The most likely cause of high superheat would be D. Running the refrigerant through a deaerator
A. Too much refrigerant
59. Which of the following is the probable cause of hot B. Expansion valve open too wide Answer: A
suction line? C. Expansion valve closed too much
A. Insufficient lubrication D. Back-pressure valve set too high 70. Short-cycling means that the machine
B. Too much refrigerant A. Runs to slow
C. Insufficient refrigerant Answer: C B. Stop and starts frequently
D. Expansion valve closed too much C. Runs too fast
 D. Grounds out frequently D. Any of the above A. Insufficient cooling water
B. Too much cooling water
Answer: B Answer: D C. Insufficient refrigerant gas
D. B and C
71. The suction pressure in a Freon system should be 76. If an electrically operated compressor failed to
A. The pressure which corresponds with a start, the cause might be: Answer: D
temperature about 20 F ̊ above the A. A blown fuse
temperature of the icebox B. Burned out holding coils in solenoid valve 82. Too high suction pressure could be cause by
B. The pressure which corresponds with a C. An open switch A. Leaky suction valves
temperature about 20 F ̊ below the D. Any of the above B. Expansion valve bulb not working properly
temperature of the icebox C. Expansion valve open too wide
C. The pressure which corresponds with a Answer: D D. Any of the above
temperature equal to the temperature of the
icebox 77. The high-pressure side of the system is Answer: D
D. None of the above sometimes referred to as the
A. Hot side 83. Which of the following would cause high head
Answer: B B. Suction side pressure?
C. Cold side A. Air in the condenser
72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a D. Cooling side B. Insufficient cooling water
Freon system malfunction, which of the following C. Dirty condenser
valve will also automatically shut off? Answer: A D. Any of the above
A. King valve
B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve 78. If the compressor were to run continuously without Answer: D
C. Expansion valve lowering the temperature, the trouble would
D. Solenoid valve probably be: 84. An excessively high head pressure could be
A. Leaky discharge valves caused by
Answer: D B. Insufficient refrigerant in the system A. Insufficient cooling water to the condenser
C. Leaks in the system B. Insufficient cooling water to the evaporator
73. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected D. Any of the above coils
by C. Solenoid valve shutoff
A. A drop in icebox temperature Answer: D D. Too much cooling water to the condenser
B. A discharge pressure lower than normal
C. A fluctuating high-pressure gauge 79. Which of the following would cause a high head Answer: A
D. Any of the above pressure?
A. Suction valve not open enough 85. Which of the following would cause a high suction
Answer: D B. Too much cooling water pressure?
C. Insufficient cooling water A. Expansion valve open too wide
74. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is D. Icebox door left open B. Dirty dehydrator
usually C. King valve not open wide enough
A. Sodium chloride Answer: C D. Expansion valve not open wide enough
B. Calcium chloride
C. Activated alumina 80. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be Answer: A
D. Slaked lime A. Charging valve left open
B. Expansion valve not open wide enough 86. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause
Answer: C C. Expansion valve open too wide might be a
D. Dehydrator not working properly A. Clogged scale trap
75. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure B. Defective thermal bulb
cutout, the trouble might be: Answer: C C. Stuck high-pressure switch
A. Too much frost on the evaporator coils D. Stuck low-pressure switch
B. Dirty traps and strainers 81. Which of the following would cause low head
C. Lack of refrigerant pressure? Answer: D
87. Low suction pressure is caused by A. While starting up B. After a long period of operation
A. Expansion valve causing flooding back B. After the system has been shut down for a C. After an extend lay-up period
B. Solenoid valve not functioning properly few hours D. While the compressor is in operation
C. Leaky compressor suction valves C. While system is operating
D. Air in the system D. Once a week Answer: B

Answer: B Answer: B 98. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is

A. Calcium chloride
88. How is a Freon system purged? 93. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily B. Potassium chloride
A. With a reefer pump for a long period of time but suddenly the C. Sodium chloride
B. The same as an ammonia system compartment temperature started to rise, the D. A or C
C. Back to the extra supply tank trouble might be
D. The same as a CO2 system A. A refrigerant leak has developed Answer: D
B. The expansion valve may contain frozen
Answer: D water 99. Air can be prevented from getting into the system
C. The solenoid valve has jammed shut by
89. If the compressor discharge temperature is higher D. Any of the above A. Running the refrigerant through an aerator
than the receiver temperature: B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
A. Add more refrigerant to the system Answer: D C. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the
B. Decrease the amount of cooling water to the high-pressure side tight
condenser 94. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily D. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the
C. Increase the amount of cooling water to the for a long period of time but the oil level was rising low-pressure side tight
condenser slowly, one should:
D. Remove some of the refrigerant from the A. Check the dehydrator cartridge Answer: D
system B. Check to see if there is too much refrigerant
in the system 100. Which of the following would not cause high
Answer: B C. Shut down the compressor and check the oil suction pressure?
level with the machine stopped A. Suction valve not adjusted properly
90. How is a CO2 system purged? D. Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the B. Expansion valve stuck open
A. When CO2 comes out of the purge valve, frost proper running level C. Leaky suction valves
will form on a piece of metal held near the D. Insufficient refrigeration
outlet Answer: C
B. Through the king valve Answer: D
C. Pumped out with a suction pump 95. The purpose of the oil trap is :
D. The CO2 will come out of the purge valve in A. To add oil to the compressor 101. Water in the refrigerant is liable to
liquid form B. To remove oil from the refrigerating gas A. Freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut
C. To remove oil from the charging tank the flow of refrigerant
Answer: A D. None of the above B. Clog the oil trap
C. Freeze in the king (liquid) valve
91. If the head pressure is too high: Answer: B D. Emulsify the oil in the compressor
A. The relief valve should open and let excess
refrigerant pass to receiver 96. Too much oil in the compressor would : Answer: A
B. Close in on the suction valve A. Absorb to much refrigerant from the system
C. The relief should open before the high- B. Deposit oil on the condenser tubes 102. The function of the expansion valve is to:
pressure cutout C. Damage the expansion valve A. Regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to
D. The high-pressure cutout switch should D. Cause leakage through the shaft seals the expansion coils
operate before the relief valve opens B. Change the gas refrigerant to a liquid
Answer: A C. Shut off the flow of refrigerant to the
Answer: D condenser
97. The oil level in the compressor should be check D. Change the high-pressure liquid to a low-
92. The system should be purged A. Just before starting the compressor pressure liquid
 Answer: A C. Amount of refrigerant going to the 114. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls
compressor the
103. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the D. Pressure of the refrigerant going to the A. Superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
thermostat will be operated by a: evaporator coils B. Back pressure in the evaporator
A. Pressure pipe C. Temperature of the icebox
B. Fusetron Answer: B D. Superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
C. Relay
D. Small circuit breaker 109. The purpose of the evaporator is to Answer: D
A. Absorb latent heat of vaporization
Answer: C B. Absorb latent heat fusion 115. The purpose of the expansion valve by-pass is to:
C. Transfer latent heat of vaporization A. Increase the efficiency of the plant
104. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance D. Transfer latent heat of fusion B. Increase the capacity of the evaporator
work on it, be sure to: C. Control the refrigerant to the evaporator in
A. Have gas mask handy Answer: A case the automatic valves fail
B. Make arrangements to have perishables D. Bypass the compressor
taken care of 110. The purpose of the dehydrator is to
C. Notify the engineer A. Add more refrigerant to the system Answer: C
D. A and B B. Remove oil from the refrigerant
C. Remove moisture from the crankcase oil 116. The thermal expansion valve
Answer: D D. Remove moisture from the refrigerant A. Controls the amount of gas coming from the
dehydrator
105. When securing a Freon system for repairs Answer: D B. Controls the quantity of liquid refrigerant
A. Pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure going to the evaporator coils
B. Pump down to a slight vacuum 111. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is C. Controls the amount of gas going to the
C. Pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure A. The conversion of a liquid to gas receiver
D. Remove all refrigerant from the system B. The absorption of temperature under heat, D. Removes trapped oil from the refrigerant
pressure, compression and expansion
Answer: A C. The compression of a liquid under Answer: B
temperature and expansion
106. When charging Freon system, all the valves D. The absorption of heat under temperature, 117. The function of the compressor is to
should be in their normal position except the: compression, pressure and expansion A. Pull the refrigerant gas through the system
A. Solenoid valve B. Increase the pressure of the refrigerant
B. Purge valve Answer: D C. Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser
C. King (liquid) valve D. All of the above
D. Expansion valve 112. A thermostat is a
A. Temperature-operated switch Answer: D
Answer: C B. Pressure-operated switch
C. Superheat-operated switch 118. The solenoid valve is controlled by
107. The purpose of the receiver is to: D. Back-pressure-operated switch A. The amount of liquid in the system
A. Cool the refrigerant gas B. The amount of gas in the system
B. Separate the oil from the refrigerant Answer: A C. The temperature in the condenser
C. Store the refrigerant D. The temperature in the icebox
D. Condense the refrigerant 113. The thermal expansion valve responds to the
A. Amount of superheat in the vapor Answer: D
Answer: C B. Amount of superheat in the liquid
C. Temperature in the evaporator coils 119. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by
108. The solenoid valve controls the D. Pressure in the evaporator coils A. Shutting down the machine and pouring in
A. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator through the crankcase inspection plate
coils Answer: A opening
B. Amount of refrigerant going to the expansion B. Pumping in with an electric-driven pump
valve C. Pumping in with a hand pump
 D. Pouring through oil hole in base D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs. A. Pressure
B. Weight
Answer: C Answer: A C. Volume
D. Psi
120. When adding oil to a Freon system, one must be 126. The boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric
sure that pressure is: Answer: B
A. The condenser is shut down A. + 22 F ̊
B. All air is removed from the pump and fitting B. - 22 F ̊ 132. The latent heat of fusion of ice is:
C. There is not too high a suction pressure C. + 22 C ̊ A. 500 Btu
D. The discharge pressure is not too high D. - 22 C ̊ B. 188 Btu
C. 144 Btu
Answer: B Answer: B D. 970 Btu

121. To help a person who had been overexposed to 127. The boiling point of 𝐶𝑂2 at atmospheric pressure Answer: C
ammonia gas, one would: is
A. Apply cold compresses A. – 110 F ̊ 133. Latent heat
B. Apply artificial respiration B. + 110 F ̊ A. Can be measured with a pyrometer
C. Douse with cold water C. + 110 C ̊ B. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
D. Wrap in warm blankets D. – 110 C ̊ C. Changes as the refrigerant cools
D. Can be measured with a thermometer
Answer: B Answer: A
Answer: B
122. Ammonia will corrode 128. The boiling point of 𝑁𝐻3 at atmospheric pressure
A. Brass is 134. Absolute zero is:
B. Copper A. + 28 C ̊ A. 144 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
C. Bronze B. + 28 F ̊ B. The same as zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. All of the above C. - 28 C ̊ C. 970 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. - 28 F ̊ D. 460 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
Answer: D
Answer: D Answer: D
123. A refrigerating unit of one (1) ton capacity can
remove: 129. Which of the following would you apply if a person 135. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect
A. 100 Btu’s per min. got Freon in his eyes? of
B. 288 Btu’s per min. A. Clean water A. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs.
C. 200 Btu’s per min. B. Soapy water B. 2,000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
D. 500 Btu’s per min. C. Sodium bicarbonate C. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hrs.
D. Sterile mineral oil D. 2,240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs.
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: A
124. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
A. 𝑁𝐻3 130. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be 136. Which of the following best described a Freon?
B. 𝐹12 A. Packed only in the closed position A. Odorless
C. 𝐶𝑂2 B. Packed in the wide open or closed position B. Non-poisonous
D. 𝐹22 C. Operated as a suction or discharge valve C. Colorless
D. Removed for replacement without shutting D. All of the above
Answer: C down
Answer: D
125. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of Answer: B
A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs. 137. What is another name of discharge pressure?
B. 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs. 131. The amount of 𝐶𝑂2 or Freon in a cylinder is A. Absolute pressure
C. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs. measured by B. Head pressure
 C. Suction pressure C. 4 tons 148. Which of the following is the most common
D. Condenser pressure D. 3 tons method of heat flow in refrigeration?
A. Conduction
Answer: B Answer: C B. Expulsion
C. Radiation
138. Which of the following is the oil used in a 143. What is the combination of a wet and dry bulb D. Convection
refrigeration system? thermometer is called a
A. Vegetable oil A. Hygrometer Answer: D
B. Straight mineral oil B. Psychrometer
C. Lube oil SAE 20 C. Hydrometer 149. From which of the following processes where the
D. Lube oil SAE 10 D. A or B largest quantities of heat are available?
A. Vaporization
Answer: B Answer: D B. Melting
C. Fusion
139. One disadvantage of a CO2 system is the fact that 144. A pressure controller is usually operated by the D. Cooling
A. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the movement of a
circulating water temperature is too high. A. Bellows Answer: A
B. It takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes B. Siphon
cold C. Diaphragm 150. What is the most common Freon gas used in
C. Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil D. A or C centrifugal compressors?
from mixing with the refrigerant A. F – 12
D. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the Answer: D B. F – 11
circulating water temperature is too low C. F – 22
145. The critical temperature of a refrigerant is: D. F – 21
Answer: A A. The temperature at which it will freeze
B. The temperature above which it cannot be Answer: B
140. The disadvantage of CO2 system over an ammonia liquefied
system is the fact that __________ C. The temperature below which it cannot be 151. What is the most common Freon gas used in
A. The pipes and fittings of a CO2 system must liquefied reciprocating compressors?
be of high pressure type D. None of the above A. F – 12
B. The CO2 system operates at a much higher B. F – 11
pressure Answer: B C. F – 22
C. The CO2 system requires a larger prime D. F – 21
mover 146. If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is too
D. All of the above close to the desired condensing temperature, the Answer: A
equipment must necessarily be of:
Answer: D A. Extra heavy construction 152. What is the other name of hygrometer?
B. The direct expansion type A. Hydrometer
141. A good refrigerant should be: C. Light construction B. Manometer
A. Non-inflammable D. The indirect expansion type C. Psychometer
B. Non-poisonous D. A or C
C. Non-explosive Answer: A
D. All of the above Answer: C
147. A good refrigerant should have a
Answer: D A. High sensible heat 153. The temperature in the meat and fish box should
B. Low sensible heat be approximately
142. What tonnage of refrigerating machine is required C. High latent heat A. 10 ̊ to 20 F ̊
if the refrigerating system extracted 48,000Btu per D. Latent heat B. - 10 ̊ to 0 F ̊
hour? C. 0 ̊ to -10 F̊
A. 2 tons Answer: C D. - 10 ̊ to 10 F ̊
B. 5 tons
 Answer: A C. System overcharge with refrigerant B. Too much cooling water to condenser
D. Insufficient cooling water C. Cooling water temperature too high
154. The temperature in the vegetable box should be D. A or C
approximately: Answer: A
A. 35 ̊ to 45 F̊ Answer: D
B. 10 ̊ to 20 F ̊ 160. Excessive head pressure is caused by:
C. 40 ̊ to 50 F ̊ A. Air or noncondensable gas in the system 166. Everything is in its normal operating position when
D. 15 ̊ to 30 F ̊ B. Dirty condenser tubes charging a system except the ________.
C. Insufficient cooling water to condenser A. Compressor discharge valve
Answer: A D. Any of the above B. Purge valve
C. Solenoid valve
155. The temperature in the dairy box should be Answer: D D. King (receiver discharge) valve
approximately
A. 20 ̊ to 30 ̊ F 161. The capacity of a centrifugal type compressor Answer: D
B. 0 ̊ to 10 ̊ F controlled by which of the following?
C. 10 ̊ to 20 ̊ F A. Regulating the discharge pressure 167. How often the condenser must be cleaned?
D. 30 ̊ to 40 ̊ F B. Regulating the speed A. Once a year
C. Regulating the suction pressure B. Every month
Answer: D D. B or C C. When pressure goes above normal
D. Every 6 months
156. Which of the following can be the cause of low Answer: D
head pressure? Answer: D
A. Too much or too cold condensing water 162. Where is solenoid coil installed?
B. Leaky discharge valves A. Vertically above the valve 168. Which do you think is the cause of a hot suction
C. Insufficient charge of refrigerant B. Horizontally above the valve line of a refrigerating compressor?
D. Any of the above C. Vertically below the valve A. Lack of refrigerant
D. Horizontally below the valve B. Insufficient condensing cooling water
Answer: D C. Excess refrigeration
Answer: A D. B or C
157. If thermostatic expansion valve did not appear to
be functioning properly, the cause could be: 163. What is the condition of the compressor when Answer: A
A. Foreign matter in the valve purging a refrigeration system?
B. Ruptured control bulb tubing A. The compressor is running 169. Which of the following vital components of the
C. Moisture in the system B. Compressor is running but the condenser is refrigeration system where both temperature and
D. Any of the above secured pressure are increased?
C. Shut down A. Compressor
Answer: D D. Running with the bypass open B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
158. Which of the following is used in measuring the Answer: C D. A and C
density of a brine solution?
A. Litmus paper 164. What must be done first when opening a single Answer: A
B. A chemical test packed stop valve?
C. A hydrometer A. Loosen the packing before opening 170. The refrigerant temperature is at its maximum just
D. A or B B. Tighten packing before opening before it enters the ____________.
C. Check to see that the seal is not scored A. Expansion valve
Answer: C D. None of the above B. Compressor
C. Condenser
159. Which of the following would not be cause for a Answer: A D. Evaporator
refrigerating system to short cycle on HP cutout?
A. Discharge valve leaking 165. Excessive head pressure is caused by: Answer: C
B. Pressure cutout set incorrectly A. Flooded condenser tubes
171. The greatest decrease in refrigerant temperature Answer: A A. An electrical release
occurs in the __________. B. Temperature and spring control
A. Evaporator 177. What is the cause of liquid “slugging”? C. Pressure and bellows control
B. Compressor A. Liquid in the compressor clearance space D. Bellows control
C. Condenser B. Excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver
D. A or C C. The presence of liquid in the condenser Answer: A
causing excessive noise
Answer: A D. The pounding of liquid refrigerant in the 183. The thickness of the head gasket is important
suction line at a point of restriction because it may cause __________.
172. What do you call the storage tank for liquid A. Re-expansion
refrigerant? Answer: A B. Decreased efficiency due to increased
A. Receiver tank clearance
B. Charging tank 178. All refrigerator compressor valves are opened and C. The piston to strike the head
C. Purging close by __________. D. All of the above
D. Any of the above A. A cam shaft
B. Springs Answer: D
Answer: A C. Manual
D. B or C 184. If the expansion valve capillary tube is pinched,
173. A precooler is sometimes installed between the which of the following must be replaced?
___________. Answer: B A. Tube
A. Compressor and condenser B. Diaphragm
B. Condenser and expansion valve 179. Which of the following is also known as the C. Bulb
C. Expansion valve and evaporator “hidden heat” in refrigeration work? D. All of the above (called the power element
D. Evaporator and compressor A. Sensible heat unit)
B. Heat intensity
Answer: B C. Latent heat Answer: D
D. A or C
174. The solenoid valve controls which of the following? 185. When removing reusable refrigerant from a
A. Pressure in the evaporator coils Answer: C system, the line to the storage drum must
B. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator A. Be made of copper
C. Flow of refrigerant to the expansion valve 180. A bull’s eye in a full liquid line will appear B. Have no bends in it
D. Amount of circulating water to the condenser ________. C. Contain a strainer-dryer
A. Cloudy D. Be above the level of compressor
Answer: C B. Clear
C. Latent Answer: C
175. Closing the solenoid valve will stop the D. A or C
compressor through the _________. 186. Which of the following must be considered when
A. Low water-pressure cutout switch Answer: B adding or removing oil from a refrigerator unit?
B. Bypass relief valve A. Use new oil
C. Low-pressure cutout switch 181. A compressor capacity reduction device reduces B. Do not overcharge
D. High-pressure cutout switch compressor capacity ___________. C. Watch crankcase pressure
A. By reducing the compressor speed D. All of the above
Answer: C B. By bypassing hot gas
C. As the refrigerant load dictates Answer: D
176. What are the four basic methods of determining D. By reducing compressor horsepower
whether the proper amount of refrigerant is being proportionately 187. Where is the excess refrigerant removed?
added to the system? A. Suction side of the system
A. Bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and frost line Answer: C B. Discharge side of the system
B. Temperature, weight, pressure and frost line C. Bypass
C. Bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and dip stick 182. If a Freon -12 compressor trip out on “cut-out”, the D. Charging side of the system
D. Bull’s-eye, weight, litmus test and frost line solenoid valve closes by which of the following?
 Answer: D D. Remove the heat required to melt one ton of 199. Which of the following is important for evaporator
ice in 24 hours coils?
188. A double trunk piston is used to _________. A. It must be placed in the top of the
A. Absorb side thrust Answer: D compartment
B. Seal off gas from crankcase B. It must be secured to the sides
C. Prevent oil from missing with gas 194. The temperature bulb of a solenoid valve is C. It should have air completely surrounding
D. All of the above attached to the ____________. them
A. Icebox coil D. It must be placed in front of circulating fans
Answer: D B. Wall of the icebox
C. Evaporator coil inlet Answer: C
189. How do you call the process of changing a solid to D. Evaporator coil outlet
a liquid? 200. If there were a 15 F̊ to 20 F
̊ temperature
A. Evaporation Answer: B differential between the temperature
B. Vaporization corresponding to the pressure at the compressor
C. Fusion 195. What usually happens if the specific gravity of the discharge and the temperature at the condenser
D. Condensation brine is too low? outlet, it would probably indicate the need for
A. The brine will freeze _____________.
Answer: C B. Solids will deposit A. More refrigerant
C. It will be more heat-absorbing B. Purging the system
190. If there is too much lube oil in the system, what D. All of the above C. More circulating water
must be done? D. Less circulating water
A. Remove same at once Answer: A
B. Wait until next overhaul to remove Answer: B
C. Wait until next recharging to remove 196. The cooling water regulator is automatically
D. Any of the above actuated by which of the following? 201. Which of the following is the most appropriate
A. The discharge pressure of the refrigerant definition of Latent heat?
Answer: A B. The temperature of the refrigerant A. Heat removed to melt ice
C. An electric relay B. Heat removed to change temperature of a
191. The temperature bulb of the thermo-expansion D. A thermo relay substance
valve is attached to which of the following? C. Heat added to change temperature of a
A. Icebox coil Answer: A substance
B. Evaporator coil outlet D. Heat added to change the state of substance
C. Evaporator coil inlet 197. What will happen to the capacity if the superheat
D. Wall of the icebox is increased on the suction side? Answer: D
A. Increases
Answer: B B. Decreases 202. If the compressor discharge becomes frosted, the
C. Remains the same probable cause would be __________.
192. What is the use of the suction pressure regulating D. Will double A. Refrigerant flooding back
valve? B. Expansion valve improperly set
A. Cuts in the compressor Answer: B C. Too much cooling water
B. Maintains the back pressure in the D. Insufficient cooling water
evaporator coils 198. Which do you think is very important in adjusting
C. Cuts out the compressor compressor “V” belts? Answer: A
D. Controls the expansion valve A. Allow about ½” slack
B. Make it as tight as possible 203. The low-pressure control switch:
Answer: B C. Make belt just tight enough to turn pulley A. Is a safety device
D. Keep belts parallel B. Actuates the cooling water
193. How is a one-ton plant described? C. Cuts out the compressor to maintain proper
A. Remove one ton of heat from the reefer box Answer: A flow
B. Melt one ton of ice in 24 hours D. Regulates the King valve
C. Make one ton of ice in 24 hours
 Answer: C C. ̊
Boiling point over 200 F 215. Calcium chloride is sometimes used in
D. Very volatile refrigeration system as a:
204. Which of the following is an indications of faulty A. Refrigerant
Freon compressor valves? Answer: C B. Lubricant
A. Compressor runs continuously C. Primary coolant
B. Low head pressure – high suction pressure 210. Which of the following type valves are not found D. Secondary coolant
C. Gradual or sudden decrease in capacity on a Freon -12 system?
D. Any of the above A. Bellows Answer: D
B. Duplex
Answer: D C. Diaphragm 216. When the outlet temperature of the evaporator
D. Single packed exceeds the inlet temperature the condition is
205. What is the probable cause if a compressor runs called ___________.
continuously? Answer: B A. Boiling
A. A clogged condenser B. Superheating
B. Insufficient refrigerant 211. How much will be removed by one-ton C. Melting
C. Faulty cooling water valve refrigeration unit? D. Freezing
D. Any of the above A. 200 Btu per min.
B. 144 Btu per min. Answer: B
Answer: D C. 400 Btu per min.
D. 2000 Btu per min. 217. Which of the following refrigerants would give the
206. To test a thermostatic valve, immerse the bulb in: most trouble when operating with warm circulating
A. Crushed ice Answer: A water?
B. Hot water A. Freon -12
C. Oil 212. Which of the following is the primary purpose of B. CO2
D. None of the above the evaporator? C. Ammonia
A. Transmit latent heat of fusion D. Ethyl chloride
Answer: A B. Transmit latent heat of evaporation
C. Absorb latent heat of fusion Answer: B
207. If a compartment requires the removal of 36,000 D. Absorb latent heat of evaporation
Btu per hour, how much is the necessary 218. As Freon leaves the expansion valve:
compressor capacity? Answer: D A. Pressure increases – volume increases
A. 6 tons B. Pressure decreases – volume increases
B. 3 tons 213. An automatically controlled Freon -12 compressor C. Pressure decreases – volume decreases
C. 2 tons will start when the __________. D. Pressure increases – volume decreases
D. 1 ton A. Expansion valve opens
B. Solenoid valve opens Answer: B
Answer: B C. Expansion valve closes
D. Solenoid valve closes 219. The suction pressure switch is actuated by:
208. Which of the following must be done to eliminate A. Pressure on a bellows
frost on the discharge pipe of the compressor? Answer: B B. Temperature on a bellows
A. Open the expansion valve C. A thermo-pressure regulator
B. Regulate water to the condenser 214. A single trunk piston-type compressor is D. A thermostatic temperature device
C. Crack bypass valve undesirable for a Freon unit because the:
D. None of the above A. Lubricant mixes with the refrigerant Answer: A
B. Refrigerant reduces the crankcase pressure
Answer: D C. Lubricant temperature becomes excessive 220. A thermometer senses which of the following?
D. Refrigerant becomes superheated A. Latent heat
209. The following are standard characteristics of Freon B. Sensible heat
-11 except: Answer: A C. Heat of fusion
A. Non-toxic D. Specific heat
B. Separates from water
 Answer: B D. B and C A. Using skirt type pistons
B. Maintaining a vacuum in the crankcase
221. Five pounds of water heated to raise the Answer: D C. Using shaft seals
temperature 2 F̊ requires how many Btu? D. Using lantern rings
A. 20 Btu 227. Absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is equal to:
B. 5 Btu A. -273 ̊ Answer: C
C. 2 Btu B. -460 ̊
D. 10 Btu C. 0 ̊ 233. The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor
D. -100 ̊ is called latent heat of
Answer: D A. Absorption
Answer: B B. Vaporization
222. Superheat is heat added _________. C. Fusion
A. In changing liquid to vapor 228. A quick method of detecting a leaky condenser on D. Liquid
B. After all liquid has been changed to vapor a Freon system would be to __________.
C. To increase pressure A. Compare temperatures and pressures Answer: B
D. To increase temperature B. Test circulating water with proper chemicals
C. Open vent on head and test with halide torch 234. What is the compression ratio of a refrigerator
Answer: B D. Use soapsuds on condenser outlet fittings compressor?
A. The ratio of the absolute suction pressure to
223. The expansion valve does not seem to be Answer: C the absolute discharge pressure
operating properly. There is high superheat. Test B. The ratio of the absolute discharge pressure
by listening to the sound of Freon flooding through 229. Which of the following is not a characteristic of to the absolute suction pressure
the tubes and _____________. Freon -12? C. The ratio of the excessive liquid refrigerant in
A. Warm bulb with hand A. Corrosive the receiver to that in the system
B. Place bulb in cold water B. Non-inflammable D. None of the above
C. Place bulb in hot water C. Odorless
D. Any of the above D. Boiling point -21 F ̊ Answer: B

Answer: A Answer: A 235. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to

maintain a constant _________.
224. What do you call a material in a dryer? 230. In the discharge line between the compressor and A. Superheat
A. Drain the condenser one would find: B. Flow
B. Dryer A. High pressure, high temperature gas C. Pressure
C. Desiccant B. High pressure, low temperature liquid D. Temperature
D. A or C C. High temperature, high pressure liquid
D. High pressure, low temperature gas Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer: A 236. A refrigerant gives up heat when it
225. What is the main function of a receiver? A. Vaporizes
A. Separate the oil from the refrigerant 231. For a low speed compressor the belt drive is B. Evaporates
B. Cool the hot gases preferred to the direct drive because it: C. Condenses
C. Store the refrigerant A. Eliminates the use of mineral lubricating oils D. Boils
D. Condense the refrigerant B. Permits the use of a smaller high-speed
motor Answer: C
Answer: C C. Absorbs torsional vibration
D. Reduces the number of automatic controls 237. The cooling component of a refrigeration cycle is
226. During the re-expansion portion of the refrigeration called _________.
compressor cycle Answer: B A. A receiver
A. The suction valve is open B. An evaporator
B. The suction valve is closed 232. Refrigerant leakage from the compressor C. A condenser
C. The discharge valve is closed crankcase is prevented by D. A desiccant
 Answer: B D. Any of the above C. Defrost coils
D. B and C
238. When ordering an expansion valve which of the Answer: D
following information is necessary? Answer: D
A. Size and pressure 244. A “direct” refrigeration system is one in which:
B. Size, tonnage, temperature and pressure A. Ice is used for cooling 250. When the compressor is operated in short spurts
C. Pressure and temperature B. A secondary coolant is pumped through the after a lay-up or overhaul the purpose is to:
D. Size and tonnage evaporator coils A. Allow refrigerant time to circulate
C. The refrigerant passes through coils in the B. Determine actual compressor oil level
Answer: B evaporator C. Effect gradual cooling
D. Any of the above D. None of the above
239. A hot crankcase and cylinder head accompanied
by a low suction pressure would be caused by Answer: C Answer: D
A. Excess refrigerant
B. Insufficient refrigerant 245. A “CARRENE” is a type of 251. Which of the following types of valve are not used
C. Air in the system A. Refrigerant oil for suction or discharge?
D. Stuck discharge valve B. Refrigerant A. Gate
C. Scale cleaner B. Diaphragm
Answer: B D. None of the above C. Metallic
D. Ring
240. Which of the following characteristics that is not Answer: B
desirable in a refrigerant? Answer: A
A. Low latent heat fusion 246. What is the first step that must be done when
B. High latent heat of vaporization securing a system? 252. What usually happened if brine has a high specific
C. Low latent heat of vaporization A. Open bypass valve gravity?
D. A and C B. Close receiver (King) valve A. It will freeze
C. Open solenoid valve B. It will crystalize
Answer: C D. Cut out compressor on high pressure C. Nothing will happen
D. It will solidify
241. The principle of the centrifugal system is based on Answer: B
which of the following? Answer: B
A. Kinetic energy 247. When securing a Freon-12 system for repairs
B. Potential energy A. Open the line at 1 to 2 pounds pressure 253. When does the refrigerant gives-up heat?
C. Lenz’s law B. Open the line at 5 to 10 pounds pressure A. When it evaporates
D. Boyle’s law C. Pump down to a slight vacuum B. When it condenses
D. Pump down to 10 ̊ vacuum C. When it vaporizes
Answer: A D. When it boils
Answer: A
242. The temperature in the vegetable box should be Answer: B
approximately 248. The most common reason for the small usage of
A. -5 F ̊ CO2 system is: 254. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to
B. 20 F ̊ A. It is too dangerous maintain constant_____________
C. 38 F ̊ B. Its upkeep is too high A. Pressure
D. 10 F ̊ C. The machinery is too heavy B. Flow
D. It is too costly C. Temperature
Answer: C D. Superheat
Answer: C
243. The compressor will run continuously if there is Answer: D
A. Insufficient refrigerant 249. To increase heat transfer in the evaporator
B. Air in the system A. Increase suction pressure 255. A reactor plate is essential to the operation of a
C. Too heavy a load B. Increase air circulation ___________.
 A. Thermostatic valve 261. Which of the following would not cause high head C. It is easier to check leaks
B. Halide torch pressure? D. Iron corrodes
C. Solenoid bulb A. Air in system
D. None of the above B. Overcharge of refrigerant Answer: A
C. Circulating water too warm
Answer: B D. Liquid freezing back 267. The cooling water regulator is actuated by:
A. An electric relay
256. The greatest decrease in the temperature of the Answer: D B. Pressure of the refrigerant
refrigerant is at the _________ C. Temperature of the refrigerant
A. Condenser 262. A “cold diffuser” is a: D. None of the above
B. Expansion valve A. Type of condenser
C. Evaporator B. Special valve used as a bypass Answer: B
D. Receiver C. Type of evaporator
D. None of the above ̊ temperature drop between the
268. If there is a 20 F
Answer: C temperature corresponding to the pressure at the
Answer: C compressor discharge and the condenser outlet,
257. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just one should:
before it enters the: 263. Which do you think is the effect of “subcooling”? A. Decrease the amount of circulating water
A. Receiver A. It causes flooding back to the compressor B. Increase the amount of circulating water
B. Evaporator B. It reduces the horsepower per ton of C. Purge the system
C. Condenser refrigeration D. None of the above
D. King valve C. It increases the compression ratio
D. It increases the horsepower per ton of Answer: C
Answer: C refrigeration
269. If refrigeration controls were constructed with little
258. A hot suction line could be caused by: Answer: B or no differential, the:
A. Insufficient refrigerant A. Compressor would short cycle
B. Excess refrigerant 264. Subcooling is to: B. Icebox would get too cold
C. Excess cooling water A. Cool the evaporator below its normal C. Icebox would get too warm
D. Insufficient cooling water temperature D. Refrigerant would be subcooled
B. Cool the liquid before it enters the evaporator
Answer: A C. Cool a liquid at constant pressure to a Answer: A
temperature lower than its considering
259. Which of the following devices will prevent the temperature 270. What is the use of back pressure regulating valve?
relief valve from opening in the event of excessive D. Cool the refrigerant gas before it enters the A. Controls the evaporator temperature by
pressure? receiver throttling the flow of liquid refrigerant
A. Water failure switch B. Maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator
B. High-pressure cutout switch Answer: C coils
C. Low-pressure cutout switch C. Controls the flow of circulating water in the
D. Any of the above 265. When figuring compression ratio, the ratio will condenser tubes
increase with a ______________ D. Controls the temperature in the evaporator
Answer: B A. Lower suction pressure coils
B. Higher suction pressure
260. Which of the following would cause the suction C. Higher discharge pressure Answer: B
switch to remain open? D. A and C
A. Insufficient spring tension 271. If the thermal bulb becomes loose on the
B. Too much spring tension Answer: D evaporator coils, it will cause____________
C. Bellows broken or jammed A. An electrical short
D. A or B 266. Copper tubing is used in Freon system because: B. Flooding back of the refrigerant
A. It has less internal resistance C. Improper operation of expansion valve
Answer: C B. It is cheaper D. Any of the above
 Answer: C Answer: B Answer: A

272. External frost on inlet of expansion valve indicates: 278. A Freon-12 gage shows pressure and _______ 284. The process that takes place in the evaporator is
A. Expansion valve plugged or dirty A. Superheat temperature called:
B. Head pressure too high B. Saturation temperature A. Transfer of the latent heat of vaporization
C. Refrigerating compartment too cold C. Back pressure B. Absorption of the latent heat of vaporization
D. Air in system D. Vacuum C. Absorption of the latent heat of fusion
D. Transfer of the latent heat of fusion
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: B
273. Subcooling of the refrigerant results in: 279. Moisture in a system will cause a:
A. Less circulating water needed A. Faulty expansion valve 285. What is the use of the low-water cutout switch?
B. Effect of refrigerant increased B. High suction pressure A. Recirculates the cooling water when there is
C. Liquid less likely to vaporize C. High suction temperature too much refrigerant in the condenser
D. B and C D. Low discharge temperature B. Stops the compressor when there is no
refrigerant running to the evaporator
Answer: D Answer: A C. Stops the flow of refrigerant when the
condenser temperature is too low
274. Which of the following is the reason when the 280. Which of the following is not essential to a D. Stops the compressor when there is
crankcase is cooler than the suction line? centrifugal type of compressor system? insufficient cooling water
A. Too much refrigerant A. Evaporator
B. Insufficient refrigerant B. Distiller Answer: D
C. Expansion valve open too wide C. Condenser
D. Suction valve leaking D. Expansion valve 286. The high-pressure cutout switch:
A. Stops the flow of refrigerant when the
Answer: A Answer: B condenser temperature is too high
B. Recirculates the refrigerant through the
275. If the outlet of the thermostatic valve is warmer 281. A scale trap in a Freon system will be found on the compressor under emergency conditions
than the inlet, it indicates: : C. Stops flow of water to condenser when there
A. Flooding back A. Receiver is no refrigerant passing through
B. Thermostatic valve working properly B. Discharge side D. Stops compressor when head pressure is too
C. Thermostatic valve not working properly C. Suction side high
D. Solenoid valve not working properly D. Condenser
Answer: D
Answer: C Answer: C
287. Zinc rods are found in this:
276. High temperature of cylinder heads and crankcase 282. Which of the following would cause expansion A. Gas side of the condenser
is caused by: valve failure? B. Salt water side of the condenser
A. Insufficient refrigerant A. Dirt in the valve C. Evaporator area
B. Too much refrigerant B. Moisture in the system D. Compressor crankcase
C. High head pressure C. Bulb in icebox ruptured
D. Noncondensable gases D. Any of the above Answer: B

Answer: A Answer: D 288. Which of the following is not essential to a

compression refrigeration system?
277. Frost on the high- pressure side of a thermostatic 283. Two compressor should not be run in parallel A. A receiver
expansion valve would probably be caused by because: B. A condenser
A. High head pressure A. There is a possibility of losing oil C. An evaporator
B. Dirty expansion valve B. It will give over-capacity D. A dehydrator
C. Refrigerator box too cold C. It is not efficient
D. Loss of circulating water to condenser D. A or B Answer: A
289. What is the effect if the refrigerant is removed from the 295. With one machine serving several compartments, with
system too fast? one compartment reaches the desired temperature in that 301. High superheat of the vapor in the steam would cause
A. It may flood the evaporator compartment is maintained by: A. an increase in capacity
B. It may “freeze-up” the condenser A. the expansion valve B. a more efficient unit
C. It will lower the icebox temperature B. the solenoid valve C. a decrease in capacity
D. None of the above C. the back-pressure valve D. A and B
D. any of the above
Answer: B Answer: C
Answer: B
290. Closing the solenoid valve stops the compressor 302. The solenoid valve is actuated by which of the
through the: 296. The back-pressure regulating valve: following?
A. high-pressure cutout switch A. controls the water flow through the condenser A. a bellows
B. low water-pressure cutout switch B. stops the flow of liquid refrigerant when temperature B. a magnet
C. low-pressure cutout switch drops in evaporator C. a spring
D. high water-pressure cutout switch C. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils D. any of the above
D. none of the above
Answer: C Answer: B
Answer: C
291. A precooler, if used, is located between the: 303. Which of the following stops the compressor before the
A. expansion valve and evaporator 297. Faulty F-12 compressor valves will be indicated by: relief valve opens?
B. compressor and condenser A. low head pressure-high suction pressure A. low water-pressure cutout
C. evaporator and compressor B. compressor running continuously B. high-pressure cutout
D. condenser and expansion valve C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity C. low oil-pressure cutout
D. all of the above D. low-pressure cutout
Answer: D Answer: B
Answer: D 304. What is the effect if the thermal bulb is loose on the
292. When the outlet temperature at the evaporator exceeds evaporator coils?
the inlet temperature, the condition is known as: 298. How were tubing joints done? A. improper operation of expansion valve
A. superheating A. brazed B. flooding back of refrigerant
B. desuperheating B. welded C. vibration causing leaks
C. dehydrating C. screwed D. improper operation of solenoid valve
D. saturating D. silver soldered
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: D
305. If the superheat on the suction side of the compressor
299. When starting a refrigerating unit, be sure the water is increased, what will happen to the tonnage capacity of the
293. The purpose of providing hot-gas defrosting facilities: side of the condenser is _____. unit?
A. defrosting without raising compartment temperature A. secured A. increases
above 32 ℉ B. bypassed B. decreases
B. thawing frozen coils C. vented C. no change
C. defrosting automatically D. B and C D. none of the above
D. B or C
Answer: C Answer: B
Answer: A
294. The suction control switch on the compressor is a 300. The water regulating valve is operated by the 306. What do you usually do to correct slugging and flooding
A. thermal element A. compressor discharged pressure back?
B. thermostat B. compressor discharged temperature A. change the discharged pressure
C. pressure element C. compressor suction pressure B. clean the traps
D. bellows D. none of the above C. removes some refrigerant
D. check the expansion valve
Answer: C Answer: D
Answer: D Answer: B D. diesel oil

307. In a Freon-11 system there is no 313. Which of the following will cause an automatically Answer: B
A. receiver controlled F-12 compressor to start? 319. If one of the ship’s service boxes suddenly stops
B. distiller A. closing the expansion valve cooling, the most likely cause would be the malfunction of
C. condenser B. opening the expansion valve the:
D. evaporator C. closing the solenoid valve A. discharge valve
D. opening the solenoid valve B. king valve
Answer: B C. solenoid valve
Answer: D D. expansion valve
308. The suction pressure control valve is actuated by which
of the following? 314. Where is the solenoid coil installed? Answer: C
A. thermostat A. horizontally over the valve
B. bellows B. vertically over the valve 320. Which of the following items is not important when
C. thermal element C. vertically below the valve using a halide torch?
D. pressure diaphragm D. horizontally below the valve A. move flame slowly around joints
B. hold flame close to the joints
Answer: D Answer: B C. adjust to a clear white flame
309. Which of the following would cause the crankcase and D. adjust to a clear blue flame
head to get hot with low suction pressure? 315. The “refrigeration effect” of a refrigerant is:
A. excess refrigeration A. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs while Answer: C.
B. air in system flowing through the evaporator under given condition
C. insufficient refrigeration B. amount of heat it can remove in a given time 321. A system should be purged when the liquid outlet
D. insufficient cooling water C. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs temperature from the condenser is more than the
D. A or B temperature corresponding to the discharge pressure:
Answer: C A. 10 ℉ above
Answer: A B. 20 ℉ below
310. Which of the following is the function of a suction C. 20 ℉ above
pressure regulating valve? 316. The “refrigerant effect” of a refrigerant is always: D. 5 ℉ below
A. cuts out the compressor A. more than its latent heat
B. controls the expansion valve B. more than its sensible heat Answer: D
C. cuts in the compressor C. less than its sensible heat
D. maintains the proper back pressure D. less than its latent heat 322. Which of the following would cause the compressor to
run continuously?
Answer: D Answer: D A. low-pressure switch jammed
B. high-pressure switch jammed
311. Which of the following is the cause if the outlet of a 317. What will happen if the expansion valve is opened too C. clogged strainer
thermostat valve is warmer than the inlet inside? wide? D. defective thermal bulb
A. valve is working properly A. liquid will flow back to the compressor
B. valve is not working properly B. it will make no difference, as the automatic expansion Answer: A
C. solenoid valve is not working properly valve is still operating
D. none of the above C. the condenser coils will overheat 323. In a vapor compression cycle the lowest temperature is
D. A or C found in ____.
Answer: B A. receiver
Answer: A B. condenser
312. How is a thermostatic valve tested? C. compressor
A. immersing its bulb in warm water 318. Which of the following should not be used to clean D. evaporator
B. immersing its bulb in ice water scale tarps?
C. holding its bulb in one’s hand A. compressed air Answer: D
D. shorting out the cutout switch B. cotton waste 324. The moisture in a refrigeration system can be removed
C. kerosene with the help of which of the following?
A. driers B. more than 1
B. evaporators C. equal to 1 Answer: B
C. dehumidifies D. depends upon the make of it
D. coolers 336. White ice is
Answer: B A. Fast cooled water
Answer: A B. sub cooled water
331. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as: C. due to dissolved air, gases and impurities
325. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing A. 4.75/COP D. formed by blowing air during freezing
point temperature? B. 4.75 x COP
A. Freon 12 C. COP/4.75 Answer: C
B. Ammonia D. 4.75/COP
C. Freon 22 337. Clear ice
D. Freon 11 Answer: C A. is pure ice
B. contains dissolved gases
Answer: C 332. The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is C. contains dissolved air
produced during: D. is formed by blowing air during freezing
326. During compression in a vapor compression cycle when A. expansion valve
the refrigerant is super-heated, what happens to the B. evaporator Answer: D
performance? C. condenser discharged
A. C.O.P. is reduced D. compressor discharged 338. Dry ice is
B. C.O.P. remains unchanged A. free from water
C. work done is increased Answer: D B. free from dissolved air and gases
D. refrigerating effect is reduced C. does not contain impurities
333. Which type of compressor is used in refrigeration D. solidified form of carbon dioxide
Answer: A system?
A. reciprocating Answer: D
327. A Bell-Coleman Cycle is also known as _____. B. centrifugal
A. reversed Otto cycle C. rotary sliding vane 339. The leaks in the refrigeration system using Freon can
B. reversed Joule cycle D. all of the above be detected by:
C. reversed Rankine cycle A: Halide torch which detention forms greenish flame lighting
D. reversed Carnot cycle Answer: D B. Sulfur sticks which on detection forms white smoke
C. using certain reagents
Answer: B 334. What is the reason why a thermometer in vapor D. smelling
compression system is installed close to the compressor?
328. Critical Temperature is that temperature above which: A. because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for Answer: A
A. a gas will never liquefy greatest efficiency
B. a gas gets immediately liquefy B. because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapor 340. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle
C. water gets evaporated refrigerant is going to compressor plotted on pressure-enthalpy diagram represents:
D. water will never evaporate C. because temperature helps in calculating the coefficient A. compression of the refrigerant vapor
Answer: A of performance B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
D. because the performance of other units of the cycle can C. condensation of the refrigerant vapor
329. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of: be controlled D. metering of the refrigerant liquid
A. 0.1 tons
B. 50 tons Answer: A Answer: B
C. 100 tons
D. 40 tons 335. Which refrigerant has the highest critical point 341. Which of the following uses a secondary refrigerant?
temperature? A. domesticated refrigerator
Answer: A A. ammonia B. room air conditioner
B. Freon 11 C. deep freezer
330. What is the usual COP of a domestic refrigerator? C. Freon 12 D. ice plant
A. less than 1 D. Freon 22
Answer: D C. -78.5 ℃
342. Which of the following secondary refrigerants generally Answer: C D. -40 ℃
used milk chilling plants?
A. Brine 348. Which refrigerant is used for the air-conditioning of the Answer: D
B. Ammonia solution passenger aircraft cabin?
C. Glycol A. ammonia 354. The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system:
C. Sodium silicate B. Freon 12 A. F-11
C. Freon 11 B. F-22
Answer: C D. air C. 𝐶𝑂2
D. 𝑁𝐻3
343. What is the cycle where a refrigeration system Answer: D
generally operates? Answer: B
A. open cycle 349. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed
B. close cycle between the ___________. 355. The bhp/ton refrigeration requirement with increase in
C. mixed cycle A. compressor and condenser condenser temperature, in a vapor compression system that
D. Hybrid cycle B. condenser and evaporator uses reciprocating compressor receiving refrigerant gas at
C. metering device and evaporator constant suction temperature, will follow:
Answer: B D. none of the above A. linearly decreasing characteristic
B. linearly increasing characteristic
344. Which of the following is also known as Refrigerant Answer: A C. first increase rapidly and then decrease slowly
No.R-717? D. first increase slowly and then rapidly
A. Ammonia 350. A flash chamber is installed in the refrigeration circuit so
B. Freon 22 as to: Answer: B
C. Freon 12 A. improve overall heat transfer coefficient
D. methyl chloride B. reduce pressure losses through the evaporator 356. Antifreeze chemicals are:
C. reduce the size of the evaporator by avoiding vapors A. same as refrigerants
Answer: A going to evaporator B. those that are added to refrigerants for better
D. all of the above performance
345. In which part of the vapor compression cycle there is C. those that lower down the freezing points of liquids
abrupt change in pressure and temperature Answer: D D. those that do not freeze at all
A. solenoid valve
B. evaporator 351. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of Answer: C
C. expansion valve leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to:
D. drier A. yellow 357. The capacity of ice making is always
B. red A. less than the refrigerating effect
Answer: C C. green B. greater than the refrigerating effect
D. orange C. equal to the refrigerating effect
346. What do you call a plate or vane used to direct or D. directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
control movement of fluid or air within the confined area? Answer: C
A. baffle Answer: D
B. bellows 352. What is the boiling temperature of F-12?
C. regulator A. -33.33 ℃ 358. To check the lack of refrigerant or clogged refrigerant
D. diffuser B. -78.5 ℃ lines
C. - 29.8 ℃ A. installing service valves must be necessary
Answer: A D. -40 ℃ B. installing king valve must be an option
C. sight glasses can be possibly used
347. Brazing is used for joining two _____. Answer: C D. discharge pressure and temperature must be monitored
A. two ferrous material
B. one ferrous and non-ferrous material 353. What is the boiling temperature of F-22? Answer: A
C. two non-ferrous material A. -33.33 ℃
D. two non-metals B. - 29.8 ℃ 359. Past ME Board Question
Can any refrigerant be used with a booster system? D. -40.7 ℃ Answer: C
A. Yes Answer: C
B. No 370. Past ME Board Question
C. Used for some 365. Past ME Board Question The vapor cycle in thermal efficiency as the refrigeration
D. Used for all Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is: cycle is to the ______.
Answer: B A. -33.33 ℃ A. Energy efficiency ratio
B. -29.8 ℃ B. COP for a refrigerator
360. Past ME Board Question C. -78.5 ℃ C. COP for a heat pump
What is the chemical formula of methylene chloride? D. -41.04 ℃ D. Carnot efficiency
A. 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙2 𝐹 Answer: D Answer: B
B. 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙2
C. 𝐶𝐶𝑙𝐹3 366. Past ME Board Question 371. Past ME Board Question
D. 𝐶𝐵𝑅𝐹3 The faster way to remove frost from a direct-expansion The main purpose of a sub cooler in a refrigerating system
Answer: B finned-tube evaporator is to: especially a two-stage system is to:
A. sent hot gas through the coil A. Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid
361. Past ME Board Question B. scrape off frost system shutdown
What is the chemical formula of butane? C. wash with warm water B. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and
A. 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝐶𝑙 D. shut down warm let frost melt increase the temperature
B. 𝐶3 𝐻8 Answer: A C. Reduce the total power requirements and return
C. 𝐶2 𝐻4 𝑂2 oil to the compressor
D. 𝐶4 𝐻10 367. Past ME Board Question D. Reduce the total power requirements and heat
Answer: D You want to change refrigerants in a Freon 12 plant using a rejection to the second stage
reciprocating single-acting compressor. Which refrigerants Answer: D
requires smallest amount of change to the system?
362. Past ME Board Question A. Carbon dioxide 372. Past ME Board Question
Type of refrigerant control which maintains pressure B. Ammonia Ton of refrigeration is a unit equivalent to:
difference between high side and low side pressure in C. Methyl chloride A. 50.4 kCal/sec
refrigerating mechanism. D. Aqua ammonia B. 12,660 kN-m/hr
A. Suction valve Answer: C C. 3413 kW/hr
B. Expansion valve D. 2545 Btu/hr
C. Service valve Answer: B
D. Solenoid valve
Answer: B 373. Past ME Board Question
368. Past ME Board Question In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed in the
363. Past ME Board Question Soft copper tubing that is used for refrigerant piping erected evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing through:
The dividing point between the high pressure and low on premises containing other than the Group 1 refrigerant A. Equals the increase in enthalpy
pressure sides of the refrigeration cycle occurs at the: must be protected by _____. B. Does not depend on the refrigerant used
A. expansion valve A. Supporting it by approved clamps C. Is decreased if pre-cooler is used
B. compressor B. Limiting its length between supports up to 10 feet D. Equals the increase in volume
C. condenser C. A rigid or flexible metal enclosure Answer: A
D. cooling coil D. Wrapping it with insulation tape throughout its
Answer: A length 374. Past ME Board Question
Answer: C Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration system in:
A. Condensate return lines
369. Past ME Board Question B. Absorbers
364. Past ME Board Question A Freon 12 refrigeration system is fitted with thermal C. Centrifugal compressors
Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is: expansion valves. The valves are rated in: D. Ion exchangers
A. -33.33 ℃ A. Pound per minute Answer: B
B. -78.5 ℃ B. Super heat setting
C. -29.8 ℃ C. Tons of refrigeration 375. Past ME Board Question
D. Cubic feet per minute
A refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant Answer: D D. 60
passes over the heat transfer surface is evaporated and the Answer: A
balance is separated from the vapor and recirculated. 381. Past ME Board Question
A. Direct expansion system The boiling point of Freon 12 is: 387. Past ME Board Question
B. Chilled water system A. -41.04 ℉ The high pressure of refrigerant system consist of the line to
C. Flooded system B. -40.60 ℉ the expansion valve, the receiver, the uppermost half of the
D. Multiple system C. -38.40 ℉ compressor and the:
Answer: C D. -31.40 ℉ A. Line after the expansion valve
Answer: A B. Lower most half of compressor
376. Past ME Board Question C. Condenser
A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of 382. Past ME Board Question D. Evaporator
refrigerant to the evaporator. The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling plants is Answer: C
A. Sniffer valve generally:
B. Equalizer A. Brine 388. Past ME Board Question
C. Thermostatic expansion valve B. Ammonia Which of the following material is suitable for tubing in
D. Crossover valve C. Glycol refrigeration application where refrigerant ammonia is
Answer: C D. Sodium silicate employed?
Answer: C A. Plastic
377. Past ME Board Question B. Brass
Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used. 383. Past ME Board Question C. Steel copper
A. Domestic refrigerator The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is D. Copper
B. Room air conditioner A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat Answer: C
C. Deep freezer B. 80% sensible heat and 20 % latent heat
D. Ice plant C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat and 389. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D latent heat If PV is the power required for a vapor-compression
D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat and latent refrigeration system, then what is the power required for an
378. Past ME Board Question heat air-refrigeration system, assuming that they have the same
AN odorless refrigerant whose boiling point varies over a Answer: B capacity?
wide range of temperature. A. 5PV
A. Freon 22 384. Past ME Board Question B. 2PV
B. Freon 12 The effect of superheating the refrigerant is to: C. PV/10
C. Ammonia A. Increase the COP D. 1/PV
D. Freon 11 B. Increase and decrease the COP Answer: A
Answer: A C. Decrease COP
D. Maintains COP 390. Past ME Board Question
379. Past ME Board Question Answer: A Tons of refrigeration in Btu/24 hours is
The part that directs the flow of refrigerant through the A. 288,000
compressor. 385. Past ME Board Question B. 28,800
A. Wrist pin The ice making capacity is always C. 290,000
B. Valve A. Directly proportional to the refrigerating effect D. 29,000
C. Piston B. Less than the refrigerating effect Answer: A
D. Connecting rod C. Greater than the refrigerating effect
Answer: B D. Equal to the refrigerating effect 391. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A R-22 is:
380. Past ME Board Question A. Dichlorodiflouromethane
The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is 386. Past ME Board Question B. Monochlorodiflouromethane
produced during: The amount of sensible heat for a sensible heat ratio of 0.80 C. Methyl chloride
A. Receiver and a total cooling load of 100 is: D. Trichlorodiflouromethane
B. Evaporator A. 80 Answer: B
C. Condenser discharge B. 20
D. Compressor discharge C. 100 392. Past ME Board Question
A salimeter reads the: CHAPTER 15 – AIR CONDITIONING Answer: D
A. Density of brine
B. Rate of brine 1. How do you call the water vapor content of air? 7. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere
C. Dew point temperature A. Moisture begins to condense is known as the:
D. Relative humidity B. Humidity A. vapor point
Answer: A C. Dew B. dew point
D. Vapor C. moisture point
393. Past ME Board Question D. none of the above
Which of the following measure the density of salt in water? Answer: B
A. Salimeter Answer: B
B. Hydrometer 2. When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is
C. Pitot tube said to be 8. Saturation temperature is the same as;
D. Calorimeter A. Simulated A. dew point
Answer: A B. Loaded B. vapor temperature
C. Saturated C. steam temperature
D. Moistured D. humidity
394. Past ME Board Question
What is the device used to protect the compressor from Answer: C Answer: A
overloading due to high head pressure?
A. Overload relay 3. What is the instrument used to register relative 9. When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for
B. Hold back suction valve humidity? sensible cooling of air is equal to:
C. Thermostatic expansion valve A. Hygrometer A. 1 + B
D. Expansion valve B. Hydrometer B. 1 – B
Answer: A C. Perometer C. 1 – B / B
D. Manometer D. 1 + B / B
395. Past ME Board Question
The purpose of the expansion valve is to control the flow of Answer: A Answer: B
the refrigerant to the evaporator. The other function is to:
A. Reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant 4. Humidity is a measure of which of the following? 10. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines
B. Increase the pressure of the vapor refrigerant A. water vapor content the
C. Reduce the pressure of the vapor refrigerant B. temperature A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
D. Increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant C. latent heat B. psychrometric temperature requirements
Answer: A D. any of the above C. saturation temperature and relative humidity
D. moist air conditions
396. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser to go back to Answer: D
the compressor. 5. Air conditioning is the process of:
A. Check valve A. keeping a place cool 11. Which of the following is considered as comfort condition
B. Float switch B. removing heat from a specific area in air conditioning?
C. Expansion valve C. maintaining the air at a required temperature and humidity A. 40℃ DBT, 80% RH
D. Low side float D. A or C B. 30℃ DBT, 60% RH
Answer: A C. 30℃ DBT, 80% RH
Answer: C D. 20℃ DBT, 60% RH
397. If the freezing point of water is 0℃, which of the
following is its melting point? 6. In an air-conditioning system, before the air is circulated to Answer: D
A. slightly less than 0℃ the required area, it is:
B. slightly more than 0℃ A. cooled 12. The drift loss in cooling towers is about:
C. 0℃ B. filtered A. 1% only
D. 32℃ C. dehumidified B. 12 to 15%
Answer: C D. all of the above C. 10 to 20%
D. 30 to 40%
 heat transfer rate of the layers dirt and foreign materials. D. All of these
Answer: C What is this factor?
A. Booster Factor Answer: A
13. Cooling towers are used for cooling water: B. Factor of Safety
A. to be injected in circulating air C. Fouling Factor 24. Fan motors in air conditioning units usually have:
B. to be used for humidification D. Compression Factor A. 2 or 3 speeds
C. to be used for filtration of air B. 3 or 4 speeds
D. to be used for cooling the compressor Answer: C C. 1 or 2 speeds
D. 4 or 5 speeds
Answer: D 19. The engineer was tested to design the air conditioning
system for a ball room dance hall. Considering that this Answer: A
14. By which of the following processes heat mainly involve a lot of activity from its users, the engineer would
dissipates in cooling towers? design that will require: 25. Which of the following capacitors that can usually be
A. conduction A. Maximum attainable effective temperature found in an air conditioning unit?
B. convection B. Constant Effective temperature A. Starting capacitors
C. radiation C. Higher Effective Temperature B. Running capacitors
D. evaporation D. Lower Effective Temperature C. Fan motor capacitors
D. all of these
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: D
15. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent? 20. What is the value of the Mach No. throat of the
A. silica gel converging-diverging nozzle? 26. Which of the following troubles commonly occurs inside
B. activated alumina A. Zero an air conditioning unit?
C. ethylene glycol B. Two A. Stuck Compressor
D. any of the above C. One B. Clogged Refrigerant circuit
D. Ten C. Short Circuit, open circuit, grounded motor winding
Answer: C D. All of these
Answer: C
16. In sensible heating cooling following parameter remains Answer: D
unchanged 21. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero?
A. dry bulb temperature A. It emits Energy 27. The motor condition of an air conditioning unit can be
B. wet bulb temperature B. It emits Thermal Radiation checked with:
C. relative humidity C. It emits Heat for Conduction A. the continuity of light or with an ohmmeter
D. humidity ratio D. It emits Heat for convection B. the flow of refrigerant in the receiver
C. the discharge pressure in the compressor
Answer: D Answer: B D. All of these

17. Heating and dehumidification can be obtained 22. When air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: Answer: A
simultaneously if air is passed through: A. zero
A. sprays of water kept at a temperature higher than the dew B. indefinite 28. An air conditioning system wherein the entire systems
point temperature of the entering air C. unity are mounted in the cabinet:
B. a solid absorbent surface D. 100% A. Console Air Conditioners
C. a liquid absorbent spray B. Centralized Air Conditioners
D. any one of B and C Answer: A C. Package Type Air Conditioners
D. Multizone Split Ductless System
Answer: D 23. In a window air conditioning unit which of the following is
usually done by the owner? Answer: A
18. Dirt and foreign materials normally build-up on the side A. Semiannual cleaning or replacement of filters
of the condenser tubes. To ensure adequate condenser B. Annual cleaning of the evaporator, condenser fan blades, 29. The use of water to carry heat occupied spaces
capacity, a certain factor is used in calculating the overall fan motor, compressor and casing A. Hydronic Heating System
heat transfer through the walls of the tubes including the C. Inspection of fan motors and lubricate them B. Water Boiling System
C. Hydrokinetic Heating System 35. The amount of CO can be determined by the color of B. 3℃ to 5℃
D. Hydraulic Heating System Palladium Chloride. An amount of 30 ppm to 70 ppm will C. 4℃ to 5℃
cause: D. 1℃ to 2℃
Answer: A A. Slight Darkening
B. Grey Color Answer: A
30. The method of cooling which primarily used where C. Red Color
ambient air temperatures are high and relative humidity is D. Black Color 41. In an air conditioning unit, the thermostat fails. The unit
used: did not start. How do you test the operation of the
A. Swamp Cooling Answer: A thermostat?
B. Evaporative Cooling A. Cover the air outlet and air inlet with a cloth. The air will
C. Condensate Cooling 36. The term used to express the amount moisture in a given recirculate into the unit and the temperature will quickly drop
D. Hydroionic Cooling sample of air. It is compared with the amount of moisture in to the cut out temperature
a given sample of air. B. Cover the outlet and the air will not circulate and the
Answer: A A. Humidity thermostat functions because no air movement
B. Relative Humidity C. Cover both the inlet and outlet so that the recirculating air
31. The other name for Swamp Cooling is: C. Absolute Humidity has the same temperature
A. Evaporative Cooling D. Humidity Ratio D. Never cover any air passage so that the air can freely
B. Condensate Cooling move and thermostat functions well
C. Wet Roof Cooling Answer: B
D. Excelsior Cooling Answer: A
37. How should the window type air conditioning unit be
Answer: C placed? 42. Which of the following dehumidifier is often used to
A. Slant toward the inside of the home reheat the air after moisture is removed?
32. Evaporative Condenser is used to cool B. Slant toward the outside of the home A. Evaporator
A. condenser vapor C. Level B. Chiller
B. condenser surface D. Slant at approximately 15𝑜 from the horizontal C. Condenser
C. condensate liquid D. Compressor
D. All of these Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: A 38. A dehumidifier is usually a small hermitic refrigerating
system. It has both a condenser and an evaporator. Many 43. Which of the following refrigerant is added sometimes to
33. A method of cooling which uses water as refrigerant. older systems use R-12 or R-500. The newer units use: other refrigerant to improve oil circulation?
Pressure on the water surface is reduced to lower its boiling A. R-134a A. R-117
temperature. B. R-145a B. R-777
A. Steam Jet Cooling C. R-217a C. R-170 (Ethane)
B. Evaporative Cooling D. R-121a D. R-270
C. Vortex Tube Cooling
D. Pressurized Cooling Answer: A Answer: C

Answer: A 39. The normal cut-out setting of a window unit thermostat is 44. A refrigeration that deals with producing temperature of -
between: 157 ℃ or lower,
34. Palladium Chloride may be used to measure the A. 13℃ to 16℃ A. Low temperature refrigeration
presence of: B. 16℃ to 21℃ B. Extremely low temperature refrigeration
A. vapor C. 17℃ to 22℃ C. Absolute zero refrigeration
B. CO D. 10℃ to 15℃ D. Cryogenics
C. ammonia
D. refrigerant Answer: A Answer: D

Answer: B 40. Thermostat are used with most window units. They have 45. Measurement of a device’s ability to remove atmospheric
differentials which vary between: air from test air.
A. 2℃ to 4℃ A. Atmospheric Dust Spot Efficiency
B. Atmospheric Dry Air Efficiency Answer: A
C. Test Air Efficiency Answer: A
D. Baudelot Air Efficiency 51. Substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from
the air are called: 57. The temperature below which water vapor in the air will
Answer: A A. Desiccants start to condense.
B. Moisturizer A. Condensing Temperature
46. A liquid mixture having constant maximum and minimum C. Dehygroscopic substance B. Dry Bulb Temperature
boiling points. Refrigerants comprising this mixture do not D. Moisture absorber C. Dew Point Temperature
combine chemically, yet the mixture provides constant D. Wet Bulb Temperature
characteristics Answer: A
A. Azeotropic Mixture Answer: C
B. Homogeneous Mixture 52. When the dry bub and the wet bulb temperatures are
C. Conzeotropic Mixture identical, the air is said to be: 58. Which of the following is not used as method to measure
D. Cryogenic Mixture A. saturated air velocities?
B. compressed A. Hot wire Anemometer
Answer: A C. humidified B. Rotating Anemometer
D. dehumidified C. Swinging Vane Velocimeter
47. Refrigerant in Group A1 (R-11). Chemical combination of D. Open type Barometer
carbon, chlorine and fluorine Answer: A
A. Carrene Answer: D
B. Cerrene 53. In what form that water exists in air?
C. CCL group A. Solid 59. It is a form of oxygen photochemically produced in
D. HCL group B. Liquid nature.
C. Vapor A. Ozone
Answer: A D. Saturated B. Oxidation
C. Oxidizing Agent
48. Which of the following refrigerants is popular in the Answer: C D. 𝐷𝑂2
industrial refrigerating system; also popularly absorption
system of refrigerant. 54. When air is heated, what happened to its relative Answer: A
A. R-717 (Ammonia) humidity?
B. R-600 (Butane) A. Increase 60. What is the chemical formula of Ozone?
C. R-611 (Methyl Formate) B. Decrease A. 𝑂3
D. R-504 C. Remain Constant B. 𝑂2
D. May increase or Decrease Depending on temperature C. 𝐷2 𝑂
Answer: A D. 𝑂1
Answer: B
49. Which of the following is a function of air conditioning? Answer: A
A. Temperature and Humidity Control 55. The Horizontal Scale (Abscissa) in the Psychrometric
B. Air, Filtering, Cleaning, and Purification Chart represents: 61. In the upper atmosphere, ozone is made by ultraviolet
C. Air Movement and Circulation A. Dry bulb temperature light reacting with:
D. All of these B. Wet bulb temperature A. Oxygen
C. Relative Humidity B. Hydrogen
Answer: D D. Humidity C. Nitrogen
D. Water Vapor
50. Oxygen is approximately what percent by weight in the Answer: A
atmosphere? Answer: A
A. 23% 56. Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of:
B. 27% A. 30% to 70% 62. The ozone concentration of 0.10 parts per million (ppm)
C. 77% B. 10% to 40% is generally considered the maximum permissible for how
D. 73% C. 20% to 30% many hours exposure?
D. 40% to 80% A. 8 hrs
B. 4 hrs 68. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades Answer: A
C. 7 hrs in an air conditioning unit?
D. 3 hrs A. It will cause ice build-up 74. Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at
B. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise a velocity of 150 ft/min or more is called:
Answer: A C. It may slice suction line A. Primary Air
D. It decreases the volume flow refrigerant B. Secondary Air
63. How may moisture be removed from air? C. Saturated Air
A. Condensation Answer: B D. Air Turbulence
B. Absorption
C. A and B 69. A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer Answer: A
D. none of these A. Hydroflourocarbons (HCF’s)
B. Hydrochloroflourocarbons (HCHF’s) 75. Carries needed to deliver air to the conditioned space. It
Answer: C C. R- 22 is made of sheet of metals like aluminum, galvanized sheet
D. R-12 steel and some structural materials that will not burn.
64. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temperature (db) of the air A. Duct
is lowered. When this happens, the relative humidity Answer: A B. Air Inlet
A. increases C. Air Outlet
B. decreases 70. Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that D. Diffuser
C. remains constant damages Ozone layer?
D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at A. Hydrochloroflourocarbons (HCHF’s) Answer: A
which it is cooled B. R-12
C. R-22 76. From what principle that air ducts operate?
Answer: A D. All of these A. Principle of Pressure Difference
B. Principle of Temperature Difference
65. What is the effect of superheating the refrigerant? Answer: D C. Forced Draft Fan Principle
A. It increases the Coefficient of Performance D. Principle of Natural Convection
B. It decreases the Coefficient of Performance 71. Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air
C. It lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant speed or atmospheric condition by means of cooling. Answer: A
D. It increases the suction pressure of the refrigeration A. Kata Thermometer
B. Kelvin Thermometer 77. Which of the following is the common classification of
Answer: A C. JJ Thompson Thermometer ducts?
D. Wet Bulb Thermometer A. Condition-Air Ducts
66. In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains B. Recirculating
constant but the relative humidity: Answer: A C .Fresh-air Ducts
A. increases D. All of these
B. decreases 72. Which of the following components of the window air
C. Remains constant conditioning system must be cleaned annually? Answer: D
D. zero A. Evaporator and Condenser
B. Motor and compressor 78. It is used deliver concentrated airstreams into a room.
Answer: B C. Fan Blades and Fan motor Many have one-way or two-way adjustable air stream
D. All of these deflectors.
67. The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the A. Register
water vapor starts to condense Answer: D B. Grille
A. Dew Point C. Diffuser
B. Cloud Point 73. The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is D. Damper
C. Saturated Point called:
D. Critical Point A. Stratification Answer: A
B. Sedimentation
Answer: A C. Setting due 79. It is used to control the air-throw distance, height and
D. Ventilation spread, as well as the amount of air.
A. Grille
B. Register 90. Which of the following is to be checked as part of the
C. Diffuser 85. The ratio of the rated cooling capacity divided by the weekly maintenance schedule of a console air conditioners?
D. Damper amount of electrical power used: A. Filters
A. Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) B. Humidifiers
Answer: A B. Energy Efficiency Index (EE) C. Safety valves
C. Cooling Efficiency (CE) D. Cooling Tower
80. It is used to deliver widespread, fan-shaped flows of air D. Energy Cooling Ratio (ECR)
into the room. Answer: D
A. Grille Answer: A
B. Register 91. A mechanism that removes moisture.
C. Diffuser 86. Heat exchanger in which water flows by gravity over the A. Humidifiers
D. Damper outside of the tubes or plates. B. Dehumidifiers
A. Baudelot Cooler C. Moisturizers
Answer: C B. Free Cooler D. Cooling Towers
C. Newtonian Cooler
81. Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems D. Bourdon Cooler Answer: B
which can be classified as centrifugal flow?
A. Axial fan Answer: A 92. When coil surface temperature is below the dew point of
B. Propeller fan the air.
C. Bi-axial fan 87. A popular air conditioning system that includes a single A. moisture will condense out of the air
D. None of these outdoor condenser, three independent evaporators, and B. vapor will evaporate through the air
individual evaporator temperature control. The condensing C. air is dehumidified
Answer: B unit is located outside on a slab. They are frequently used in D. air is humidified and saturated
legal and medical offices, motels and homes without ducts.
82. The most common controller in the heating and cooling A. Multizone Ductless Split System Answer: A
systems. B. Package Terminal Air Conditioner
A. Thermostat C. Console Air Conditioner 93. Nitrogen occupied almost how much of the Earth’s
B. Pressure gage D. Window type Air Conditioner Atmosphere
C. Barometer A. One-fourth
D. Sling Psychrometer Answer: A B. Three-fourths
C. One-half
Answer: A 88. An air conditioning system which is a combination of D. One-third
heating and cooling system. It is designed to serve an
83. A thermostat that functions as increase or decrease individual room or zone. Answer: B
instead of starting and stopping system is called: A. Multizone Ductless Split System
A. modulate B. Package Terminal Air Conditioner 94. Water in vapor form remains a vapor as long as its
B. heating-cooling the thermostat C. Console Air Conditioner temperature is what relations to the dew point temperature.
C. interlocked D. Window type Air Conditioner A. above
D. compound thermostat B. equals
Answer: B C. below
Answer: A D. almost
89. Which of the following is to be checked as regular
84. A number used to compare energy usage for different monthly maintenance schedule of a console air conditioning Answer: C
areas. It is calculated by dividing the energy consumption by units?
the fottage of the conditioned are. A. Water Leaks 95. An instrument used in measuring air velocity by velocity-
A. Energy Utilization Unit Fan Speeds pressure method
B. Energy Utilization Efficiency C. Cooling Tower A. Pitot Tube
C. Energy Utilization Index D. Duct Dampers, Registers and Diffusers B. Anemometer
D. Energy Utilization Ratio C. Aneroid Barometer
Answer: D D. Flowmeter
Answer: C
Answer: A A. Calcium chloride C. Indeterminate
B. Activated alumina D. Increases
96. What is the specific humidity of dry air? C. Sodium zeolite
A. 100 D. Silica gel Answer: A
B. 20
C. 0 Answer: A 107. Past ME Board Question
D. 50 What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor?
Answer: C 102. All the following temperatures have meaning in A. Greater
psychrometrics excepts: B. Lesser
97. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an A. dry-bulb temperature C. Indeterminate
engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added B. wet-bulb temperature D. Constant
ice cubes of ice to cool the soup stirred it. He noticed that C. adiabatic wall temperature
dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the cup. He D. dew point Answer: B
wanted to check the temperature of the outermost surface of
the cup. What is the temperature equal to? Answer: C 108. Past ME Board Question
A. superheated temperature The design of an air supply duct of an air conditioning
B. equal to zero 103. The relative humidity is given by the: system _______.
C. standard temperature A. ratio of the actual humidity to the saturated humidity at the A. Adds moisture to the air
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature same temperature and pressure B. Lowers the temperature of the air
B. ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the C. Does not affect the moisture of air
Answer: D saturation pressure D. Affects the distribution
C. ratio of wet-bulb to dry-bulb temperature
98. The temperature at which the water vapor in the gas D. ratio of dry-bulb temperature to dew point Answer: D
begins to condense in a constant pressure process.
A. Dew point Answer: B 109. Past ME Board Question
B. Vapor point What is the lowest temperature to which water could
C. Flue point 104. The determination of properties and behavior of possibly be cooled in a cooling tower?
D. Gas point atmospheric air usually the purview of: A. The effective temperature
A. thermodynamics B. The temperature of adiabatic compression
Answer: A B. psychrometrics C. The wet bulb depression
C. forced convection D. The dew point temperature of the air
99. All the following processes can be found on a D. Kirchoff’s law
psychrometric chart except: Answer: B
A. humidification Answer: B
B. sensible heating 110. Past ME Board Question
C. natural convection 105. Past ME Board Question Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known
D. sensible cooling Which of the following statements is correct? as:
The relative humidity of an air water vapor mixture A. Heating and humidifying
Answer: C A. Is the ratio of the partial pressure of the water B. Cooling tower
vapor to the partial pressure of the air C. Evaporative cooling process
100. All of the following process can be found on a B. Indicates the mass of water vapor in the mixture D. Moisture removal process
psychrometric chart except: C. Is equal to the mole fraction of water vapor in the
A. heating and humidifying mixture at the mixture temperature Answer: C
B. cooling and dehumidification D. Is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to
C. black body radiation the saturation pressure at the mixture temperature 111. Past ME Board Question
D. evaporative cooling Answer: D In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
A. Condensation
Answer: C 106. Past ME Board Question B. Evaporation
In sensible cooling process, moisture content C. Convection
101. Which is not commonly used to cool and dehumidify A. Does not change D. Conduction
equipment? B. Decreases
Answer: C Answer: B D. Equal to air temperature

112. Past ME Board Question 117. Past ME Board Question Answer: C

Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water
moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material such as vapor starts to condense. CHAPTER 16-MACHINE FOUNDATION AND CHIMNEY
activated alumina, silicon gel, or molecular sieve? A. Critical point 1. Past ME Board Question
A. Regenerative dryer B. Saturated point Foundations are preferably built of concrete in the proportion
B. Deliquescent dryer C. Dew point of what measure of Portland cement; sand; crushed stones?
C. Spray dryer D. Cloud point A. 1 : 2 : 5
D. Refrigerated dryer B. 2 : 4 : 6
Answer: C C. 2 : 3 : 5
Answer: B D. 1 : 2 : 4
118. Past ME Board Question
113. Past ME Board Question What is the specific humidity of dry air? Answer: D
The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point A. 150
temperature to the amount that would be in the air if the air B. 100 2. Past ME Board Question
were saturated at the dry bulb temperature is: C. 50 For design stability, the center of gravity of the total
A. Partial pressure actual at dew point D. 0 combined engine, driven equipment and foundation should
B. Percentage humidity be kept _________.
C. Relative humidity Answer: D A. Anywhere
D. Partial pressure of water B. Above the foundation top
119. Past ME Board Question C. In line with surface of the foundation
Answer: C An engineer inspected an air-conditioning unit. He found out D. Below the foundation top
that the unit does not produce any cooling effect, however,
114. Past ME Board Question the air-conditioning unit is running. He checked the Answer: D
When the air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: temperatures of the condenser and evaporator and had the
A. Zero unit run. He found out that there was no change in 3. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of
B. Indefinite temperature. What should he do? A. 4
C. Unity A. Replace fuse B. 5
D. 100% B. Charge with new refrigerant C. 6
C. Replace relay D. 7
Answer: A D. Adjust door seal
Answer: B
115. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer 4. The diesel engine foundation safe soil bearing pressure is:
which has constant specific humidity 120. Past ME Board Question A. 4,890 kg/𝑐𝑚2
A. Critical temperature What is the temperature range of air in air conditioning B. 4,500 kg/𝑐𝑚2
B. Dew point temperature application where the dry air can be considered ideal gas? C. 4,490 kg/𝑐𝑚2
C. Dry bulb temperature A. 100 to 125 ℃ D. 4,125 kg/𝑐𝑚2
D. Wet bulb temperature B. 50 to 75 ℃
C. 75 to 100 ℃ Answer: A
Answer: B D. -10 to 50 ℃
5. Anchor bolts in a machine foundation should be
116. Past ME Board Question Answer: D embedded in concrete of at least how many times the bolt
During sensible heating, the humidity remains constant but diameter?
the relative humidity. 121. Past ME Board Question A. 12
A. Increases What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning B. 20
B. Decreases design fit for human comfort? C. 30
C. Remains constant A. Minimum D. 25
D. Zero B. Maximum
C. Less than air temperature Answer: C
 11. For stability, the total combined engine, driven C. 5
6. As a good practical rule, the foundation depth may be equipment and foundation center of gravity must be kept D. 6
taken as how many times of the engine stroke? _____.
A. 2.2 to 3.2 A. below the foundation top Answer: A
B. 3.2 to 4.2 B. above the foundation top
C. 2.5 to 3.5 C. 120 mm above the foundation top 17. For a diesel engine’s foundation, in pouring a concrete
D. 3.5 to 4.5 D. none of the above mixture, it should be poured:
A. one time
Answer: B Answer: A B. two times
C. three times
7. To secure the belts embedded within the foundation, the 12. There shall be no foundation bolts less than ____. D. four times
distance of the edges of the foundation from the bedplate A. 12 mm in diameter
must be _________. B. 16 mm in diameter Answer: A
A. 120 mm to 300 mm C. 18 mm in diameter
B. 150 mm to 330 mm D. 20 mm in diameter 18. For foundations of steam turbine, the concrete mixture
C. 100 mm to 280 mm should be _________.
D. 200 mm to 380 mm Answer: A A. 1: 2: 4
B. 1: 3: 5
Answer: A 13. The weight of steel bar reinforcements should be how C. 1: 2: 3
many times the weight of the foundation? D. 1: 3: 4
8. The weight of the machine foundation is how many times A. ½% to 1%
of the weight of the engine? B. 1% to 1.5% Answer: A
A. 4 to 5 times C. 3% to 5%
B. 3 to 5 times D. 3.2% to 4.2% 19. The steam turbine foundation should be designed to
C. 2 to 3 times support the machine load plus how many percent of the
D. 4 to 6 times Answer: A impact, condenser load, floor loads and dead loads?
A. 15
Answer: B 14. Concrete foundation should have steel bar B. 20
reinforcements placed vertically and horizontally to avoid C. 25
9. To eliminate transmission of vibration, the foundation ____. D. 30
should be isolated from floor slabs or building footings at A. breaking
least how many mm around its perimeter? B. thermal cracking Answer: C
A. 15 C. melting
B. 20 D. vibration 20. Which of the following draft rely on the stack effect to
C. 25 draw off combustion gases?
D. 30 Answer: B A. Natural draft
B. Forced draft
Answer: C 15. Foundations bolt length should be at least how many C. Induced draft
times the anchor bolt diameter? D. Balanced draft
10. The minimum vertical distance from the floor or soil level A. 16 times
to the top edge of the foundation must be around B. 18 times Answer: A
_________. C. 20 times
A. 150 mm D. 30 times 21. Fans located before the furnace that are used to supply
B. 100 mm air for burning.
C. 200 mm Answer: B A. Natural draft
D. 120 mm B. Forced draft
16. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and C. Induced draft
Answer: D surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at D. Balanced draft
least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt?
A. 3 Answer: B
B. 4
22. Forced draft fans are run at relative high speed in the D. absolute pressure D. 30 m
range of:
A. 1200 to 1800 rpm Answer: A Answer: A
B. 1000 to 1600 rpm
C. 1500 to 2000 rpm 28. The static pressure drop due to friction through the boiler 34. Most stacks are built of height less than:
D. 900 to 1500 rpm and stack. A. 60 m
A. draft loss B. 50 m
Answer: A B. available draft C. 40 m
C. stack effect D. 30 m
23. Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes D. fan boost
referred to as Answer: D
A. natural chimney Answer: A
B. gravity chimney 35. The average flue gas temperature is
C. normal chimney 29. The difference between the theoretical draft and the draft A. the temperature entering the stack
D. stack loss. B. the temperature leaving the stack
A. draft loss C. the temperature halfway up the stack
Answer: B B. available draft D. the sum of the temperatures
C. stack effect
24. Force draft fans create a positive pressure of: D. fan boost Answer: C
A. 0.5 to 2.5 kPa
B. 1.0 to 3.0 kPa Answer: B
C. 2.0 to 4.0 kPa 36. The coefficient of velocity is approximately
D. 0.2 to 2.2 kPa 30. In a balanced system, the available draft is: A. 0.30 to 0.50
A. unity B. 0.40 to 0.60
Answer: A B. zero C. 0.20 to 0.40
C. 100 D. 0.50 to 0.70
25. Fans that are used to draw combustion products through D. infinite
the furnace bed, stack, and pollution control system by Answer: A
injecting air into the stack after combustion. Answer: B
A. Natural draft 37. For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect
B. Forced draft 31. The total pressure supplied by the fan at maximum probably should be considered to be:
C. Induced draft operating conditions. A. 75% of the ideal
D. Balanced draft A. net rating or fan boost B. 80% of the ideal
B. draft loss C. equal to the ideal
Answer: C C. available draft D. half the ideal
D. stack effect
26. The term used when the static pressure is equal to the Answer: B
atmospheric pressure. Answer: A
A. Natural draft 38. Guyed stacks seldom exceed:
B. Forced draft 32. Generally the higher the chimney A. 1.83 m in diameter
C. Induced draft A. the smaller the stack effect B. 2.83 m in diameter
D. Balanced draft B. the greater the stack effect C. 1.45 m in diameter
C. stack effect is zero D. 2.45 m in diameter
Answer: D D. the stack effect approaches unity
Answer: A
27. In order to keep combustion products inside the Answer: B
combustion chamber and stack system, balanced draft 39. The angle between the stack and the guy wire is usually:
system may actually operate with a slight 33. Modern stacks are seldom built higher than A. 30 degrees
A. negative pressure A. 60 m B. 45 degrees
B. positive pressure B. 50 m C. 60 degrees
C. positive and negative pressures C. 40 m D. 75 degrees
 45. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
Answer: C surrounded by a pipe sleeve with a length of at least how Answer: C
many times the diameter of the bolt?
40. Guyed stacks height seldom exceeds: A. 18
A. 30.48 m B. 14
B. 34.80 m C. 15 CHAPTER 17 – INSTRUMENTATION
C. 43.80 m D. 16 1. An instrument used for measuring evaporation, generally
D. 48.30 m that of water, into the atmosphere.
Answer: A A. Aerometer
Answer: A B. Atmometer
46. Foundation should be designed to support the machine C. Anemometer
41. The maximum unit pressure of turbine and generator on load plus how many percent of the impact, condenser load, D. Fadometer
the reinforced concrete should not exceed floor loads and dead loads?
A. 17.62 kg/𝑐𝑚2 A. 25 Answer: B
B. 18.62 kg/𝑐𝑚2 B. 34
C. 16.62 kg/𝑐𝑚2 C. 15 2. An instrument for testing the resistance of materials to
D. 19.62 kg/𝑐𝑚2 D. 36 fading when they are exposed to artificial sunlight or
ultraviolet light under controlled conditions.
Answer: A Answer: A A. Fadometer
B. Fulgurator
42. Foundations should be isolated from floor slabs or 47. In guyed steel stacks, the angel between wires in a set of C. Odometer
building footings by at least how many mm to eliminate three is: D. Atmometer
transmission of vibration. A. 120 deg.
A. 25 mm B. 110 deg. Answer: A
B. 15 mm C. 135 deg.
C. 35 mm D. 145 deg. 3. The type of calorimeter in which the specific heat of a
D. 45 mm specimen is measured by the quantity of ice it melts is the:
Answer: A A. ice calorimeter
Answer: A B. heat calorimeter
48. Guys are usually applied in how many sets? C. vapor calorimeter
43. Concrete foundations should have steel bar A. 1 to 3 D. hysometer
reinforcements placed both vertically and horizontally to B. 2 to 4
avoid C. 3 to 5 Answer: A
A. vibrations D. 4 to 6
B. thermal cracking 4. An instrument used for determination of the boiling point
C. breakdown Answer: A of water for estimating the altitude above sea level from its
D. rupture known variation with atmospheric pressure.
49. The empirical coefficient e in machine foundation if not A. Vapor calorimeter
Answer: B given is assumed B. Hysometer
A. 0.11 C. Boiler
44. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and B. 0.25 D. Vapor bomb
surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at C. 0.32
least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt? D. 0.15 Answer: B
A. 3
B. 4 Answer: A 5. A unit of work or energy equal to 107 ergs. It is equivalent
C. 5 to the work done by a force of one Newton acting through a
D. 6 50. The term suction units is used with distance of one meter.
A. Natural draft A. Btu
Answer: A B. Forced draft B. Calorie
C. Induced draft C. Joule
D. Balanced draft D. Watt
 C. Gas mixer
Answer: C D. Aerator 17. An instrument used for measuring various quantities at a
distance.
6. An electromagnetic device for separating isotopes by Answer: D A. Tachometer
electrical sorting of their ions. B. Odometer
A. Ion sorter 12. A device that supplies air to an air-injection system is C. DME
B. Isotopes sorter called D. Telemeter
C. Isotron A. air pump
D. Jolly balance B. air nozzle Answer: D
C. gas scrubber
Answer: C D. air injector 18. An apparatus used for determination of the transition
point by measuring the temperature at which the vapor
7. A device used for the determination of the specific gravity Answer: B pressure of the two modifications become equal.
of a substance by weighing it in air and in water. A. Tensiometer
A. Kelvin balance 13. An instrument used for measuring pressure, flow velocity B. Tensimeter
B. Spring balance and discharge rate of a fluid flowing in a conduit. C. Tachometer
C. Hysometer A. Kampometer D. Bourdon gage
D. Jolly balance B. Flowmeter
C. Pitot tube Answer: B
Answer: D D. Katharometer
19. An instrument for measuring the revolutions per minute
8. Which of the following instruments is NOT used to Answer: B of a rotating shaft.
measure flow rates? A. Tachometer
A. Anemometer 14. An instrument used for measuring radiant energy B. Odometer
B. Rotameter especially in the thermal region. C. All of the choices
C. Flowmeter A. Kampometer D. Speedometer
D. Velometer B. Luxmeter
C. Kapnometer Answer: A
Answer: D D. Katharometer
20. A device used for demonstrating the extreme force
9. An instrument used to measure the quality of steam is the: Answer: A exerted by water when if freezes is called:
A. psychometer A. Ice calorimeter
B. gas calorimeter 15. An instrument for determination of the composition of the B. Hysometer
C. pyrometer gas mixture by measuring variations in the thermal C. Ice bomb
D. steam calorimeter conductivity. D. Freezer
A. Kampometer
Answer: D B. Atmometer Answer: C
C. Kapnometer
10. An instrument used to measure the density of gases is D. Katharometer 21. A device to measure vertical distances or
known as: displacements?
A. aerovane Answer: D A. Kampometer
B. aerometer B. Kapnometer
C. hygrometer 16. An apparatus used for measuring the surface tension of C. Altimeter
D. atmometer a liquid by recording the force necessary to detach a metal D. Cathetometer
ring from the surface.
Answer: A A. Tachometer Answer: D
B. Tensiometer
11. Which of the following is the apparatus used for mixing C. Odometer 22. A precision instrument for measuring very short time
air with other fluids? D. Telemeter intervals.
A. Carburetor A. Clinometer
B. Dehydrator Answer: B B. Chronoscope
C. Stop watch What is the clockwork operated device which records
D. Decremeter continuously the humidity of the atmosphere? 33. Past ME Board Question
A. Hetrograph What is the function of a steam separator?
Answer: B B. Hygrometer A. Trapping the steam and letting water through
C. Hygrodeik B. Throttling
23. Which of the following is a laboratory method for the D. Hygrograph C. Changing the direction of the steam flow
determination of the boiling range of petroleum? D. Steam metering
A. Jolly balance Answer: D
B. Kelvin balance Answer: A
C. Engler distillation 29. Past ME Board Question
D. Fractional distillation A device whose function is to pass an information in an 34. Past ME Board Question
unchanged form or in some modified form. A salimeter reads the:
Answer: C A. Relay A. Density of brine
B. Sensor B. Dew point temperature
24. An instrument used to measure the humidity in the air. C. Transmitter C. Rate of brine
A. Hygrometer D. Transducer D. Relative humidity
B. Hydrometer
C. Pressure gauge Answer: A Answer: A
D. Wind vane
30. Past ME Board Question 35. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A A general term for a device that receives information in the Which of following measures the density of salt in the water?
form of one or more physical quantities, modifies the A. Salimeter
25. An instrument used to measure the specific gravity or information and or its form if required and produces a B. Pitot tube
relative density of liquids. resultant output signal. C. Hydrometer
A. Hygrometer A. Converter D. Odometer
B. Hydrometer B. Transducer
C. U – tube C. Sensor Answer: A
D. Manometer D. Scanner

Answer: B Answer: B CHAPTER 18 – BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. Ebb current refers to:
26. An apparatus used for the determination of the 31. Past ME Board Question A. the eddy current
concentration of solid or liquid particles dispersed in a gas, An engine indicator is generally used to measure what? B. the movement of the tidal current away from shore or
such as the density of smoke in fog. A. Steam temperature down a tidal stream
A. Kampometer B. Heat loss C. the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from
B. Atmometer C. Steam cylinder pressure broken ore
C. Kapnometer D. Gauge reading errors D. none of the above
D. Katharometer
Answer: C Answer: D
Answer: C
32. Past ME Board Question 2. In power station practice “spinning reverse” is
27. Past ME Board Question In the processing section, there is an instrument frequently A. reverse generating capacity that is in operation but not in
Hydrometer is used to find out: used to measure the flow rate of fluids. What is the service
A. Specific gravity of liquids instrument consisting of a vertical passage with variable B. reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and
B. Specific gravity of solids cross-sectional area, a float and a calibrated scale? ready to take load
C. Specific gravity of gases A. Rotameter C. reserve generating capacity that is available for service
D. Relative humidity B. Pitot tube but not in operation
C. Rota Aire D. capacity of the part of plant remains under maintenance
Answer: A D. Manometer
Answer: B
28. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
3. Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system is 15. Which of the following plant has least pollution problem?
about 9. The string efficiency in an AC system is: A. Steam power plant
A. 75 percent A. 50.75% B. Gas turbine power plant
B. 40 percent B. 100% C. Nuclear power plant
C. 25 percent C. 25.50% D. Hydro-electric power plant
D. 80 percent D. 70.7%
Answer: D
Answer: A Answer: D
16. Which of the following power plant can be installed within
4. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at: 10. Satellites are powered by the shortest time?
A. 15000 rpm A. solar cells A. Nuclear power plant
B. 1500 rpm B. thermo-electric generators B. Hydro-electric power plant
C. 750 rpm C. thermionic converters C. Gas turbine power plant
D. 3000 rpm D. photo-electric cells D. Diesel engine plant

Answer: B Answer: A Answer: D

5. The power supplied to domestic consumers is at 220 11. A ship is powered by: 17. Which of the following item consumes least power?
volts. This represents: A. steam turbine A. Toaster
A. mean value of voltage B. diesel engines B. Desert cooler
B. seak value of voltage C. steam turbines or diesel engine C. Electric shaver
C. RMS value of voltage D. steam turbines, diesel engines, hydraulic turbines or D. Electric iron
D. none of the above nuclear reactors
Answer: C
Answer: C Answer: C
18. Which of the following needs highest level of
6. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of 12. Which of the following plant is suitable for peak load? illumination?
power at high voltage are of which of the following type? A. Diesel engine plant A. Proof reading
A. Cadmium copper B. Steam power plant B. Hospital wards
B. Galvanized steel C. Nuclear power plat C. Railway platforms
C. Any of the above D. All of the above D. Foyer for cinema halls
D. Copper
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: D
13. The term ‘critical’ is associated with power plant of the 19. The lamp that is used for cinema projectors is a:
7. When a conductor is suspended between two supports at type: A. frosted GLS lamp
the same level its shape becomes: A. steam power plant B. nitrogen filled GLS lamp
A. catenary B. diesel engine power plant C. mercury vapor lamp
B. cycloid C. gas turbine power plant D. carbon arc lamp
C. semicircle D. nuclear power plant
D. parabola Answer: D
Answer: D
Answer: A 20. In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as
14. A turbocharger is a part of: A. a starter
8. Sag is provided in overhead transmission lines so that: A. thermal power plant B. a device for improving the power factor
A. repairs can be carried out easily B. diesel engine power plant C. a current limiting device
B. corona can be reduced C. hydro-electric power plant D. a source of heat
C. skin effect can be reduced D. nuclear power plant
D. safe tension is not exceeded Answer: B
Answer: B
Answer: D 21. Transient disturbances are due to:
A. switching operations 27. The statement that the product of the error in the D. 80 percent
B. load variations measured determination of a particle’s position and its
C. faults momentum is of the order Planck’s constant “h” is known as Answer: A
D. any of the above A. Bohr’s theory
B. D’Alembert’s paradox 33. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of
Answer: D C. the Heisenberg uncertainty principle power at high voltage are of which of the following type?
D. Planck’s law A. Cadmium copper
22. Bottoming cycle is quite common in: B. Galvanized steel
A. cement plants Answer: C C. Any of the above
B. sugar mills D. Copper
C. paper mills 28. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules of
D. all of the above the surfaces of solids without chemical reaction is Answer: D
A. dredging
Answer: A B. adsorption 34. Corona generally results in
C. coking A. violet glow
23. Which of the following is the most highly developed D. liquation B. hissing noise
device for confining plasma with magnetic field? C. production of ozone gas
A. Tokamak Answer: B D. all of the above
B. Tomahawk
C. Breeder reactor 29. Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors Answer: D
D. Cyclotron from:
A. short circuiting 35. Which of the following affects corona?
Answer: A B. motor burnout A. Conductor size
C. overload B. Spacing between conductors
24. Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors D. overheating C. Line voltage
from: D. All of the above
A. short circuiting Answer: D
B. motor burnout Answer: D
C. overload 30. In which of the following systems where Betz law is
D. overheating widely used? 36. When a conductor is suspended between two supports
A. MHD system at the same level its shape becomes
Answer: D B. solar cells A. catenary
C. geothermal power plants B. cycloid
25. Corona generally results in: D. wind mills C. semicircle
A. violet glow D. parabola
B. hissing noise Answer: D
C. production of ozone gas Answer: A
D. all of the above 31. At what rpm where most of the generators in thermal
power plants run? 37. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D A. 15000 rpm What is the unit of electromagnetic wave frequency?
B. 1500 rpm A. Volts
26. Which of the following affects corona? C. 750 rpm B. Horsepower
A. Conductor size D. 3000 rpm C. Hertz
B. Spacing between conductors D. Knot
C. Line voltage Answer: B
D. All of the above Answer: C
32. Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system
Answer: D is about CHAPTER 19 – LATEST BOARD QUESTION
A. 75 percent 1. Past ME Board Question
B. 40 percent
C. 25 percent
A pump with capacity 𝑄1 and head 𝐻1 is connected in series Where does the final removal of water vapor in an 11. Past ME Board Question
with another pump with capacity 𝑄2 and head 𝐻2 . What is the absorption refrigeration system occur? A multi-stage refrigeration system which is realizable in
head developed if 𝑄2 is less than 𝑄1 ? A. Analyzer using different refrigerants
A. 2𝐻2 𝐻1 B. Generator A. Direct
B. 𝐻2 + 𝐻1 C. Condenser B. Cascade
C. 𝐻2 / 𝐻1 D. Rectifier C. Flooded
D. 𝐻2 𝐻1 D. Vapor
Answer: D
Answer: B Answer: B
7. Past ME Board Question
2. Past ME Board Question If the average temperature of liquid of power cycle during 12. Past ME Board Question
At ordinary temperature what substance will behave as inert heat addition process is as high as possible, then the Very large pipe diameter means a thicker wall and high cost.
gas and will not react in the combustion process? thermal efficiency of the cycle will: It also means
A. Nitrogen A. Increase A. Zero pressure drop
B. Sulfur B. Remain constant B. High pressure drop
C. Hydrogen C. Decrease C. Constant temperature
D. Carbon D. Zero D. Low pressure drop

Answer: A Answer: A Answer: B

3. Past ME Board Question 8. Past ME Board Question 13. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following cycles is ideal for spark-ignition What is the temperature of lubricant at which it will ignite Aside from maintaining appropriate temperature for food cold
reciprocating engine? thus limits its application? storage, how is desiccation minimized or decreased?
A. Diesel cycle A. Cold point A. Low oxygen
B. Dual cycle B. Burning point B. Maintain humidity ratio
C. Rankine cycle C. Flash point C. Low air circulation
D. Otto cycle D. Use point D. Increase humidity ratio

Answer: D Answer: C Answer: B

4. Past ME Board Question 9. Past ME Board Question 14. Past ME Board Question
What is the relative humidity when the dew point and dry What is the heat that is removed from the space to be During combustion process, only limited air is supplied and
bulb temperature are equal? cooled, which is the same as the heat absorbed by the not enough to supply two molecule of oxygen per one
A. 110% cooling coils? molecule of carbon, then the product is:
B. 0% A. Heating capacity A. Hydration
C. 100% B. Enthalpy B. Carbon monoxide
D. 50% C. Work compression C. Carbonic acid
D. Refrigerating effect D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: B
5. Past ME Board Question
Reheating process is normally employed in steam plane 10. Past ME Board Question 15. Past ME Board Question
when: An air conditioning system in which water is chilled or cooled As far as combustion chamber design is considered, the
A. There is excess steam and which passes the evaporator coils. maximum power output of a given engine can be increased
B. Subcooling is required A. Chilled water system by:
C. Turbine undergoes excessive moisture B. Direct expansion A. Increasing combustion time
D. Dehumidifying is required C. Absorption B. Increasing combustion chamber volume
D. Water circulation system C. Decreasing combustion chamber volume
Answer: C D. Providing small values
Answer: A
6. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
 A. Total energy of an open system If Pi is the indicated horsepower and Pb is the indicated
16. Past ME Board Question B. Temperature of an open system horsepower of a compressor, then what is mechanical
A water conservation device which employs both air and C. Total energy of a closed system efficiency, Em, equal to:
water is condensed a condenser and cooling tower D. Temperature of a closed system A. Em = Pb / Pi
combined into one is called: B. Em = Pi / Pb
A. Shell and tube condenser Answer: D C. Em = Pb – Pi
B. Air-cooled condenser D. Em = Pi – Pb
C. Water-cooled condenser 21. Past ME Board Question
D. Evaporative condenser In order to attain equilibrium in the condenser, the cooling Answer: B
tower range must be _______ with respect to temperature
Answer: D rise in the condenser. 26. Past ME Board Question
A. Greater What is the least number of compressors a multistage
17. Past ME Board Question B. Equal system that will use?
In order to perform efficiently, a power cycle must be C. Less A. Three
communicated with the outside temperature of its D. Zero B. Two
surroundings and into one is called: C. Four
A. Kirchoff’s Law Answer: B D. One
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
C. Kelvin-Planck Law 22. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
D. Frist Law of Thermodynamics If ice will form in a solution of water and salt, then it is at a
temperature called: 27. Past ME Board Question
Answer: B A. Dew point The relation between the Fahrenheit absolute scale and the
B. Freezing point depression Celsius absolute scale is:
18. Past ME Board Question C. Boiling point depression A. R = 1.8 K
Water is heated in a container. It expands and becomes less D. Critical point B. R = 32 K
dense and lighter. It rises up the container because of its C. R = 3.2 K
reduced density and replaced by cooler air. As this process Answer: B D. R = 18 K
continues, the heat is transferred and disturbed all
throughout. What is this mode of heat transfer called? 23. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
A. Condenser The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always
B. Radiation subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then the mach number is: 28. Past ME Board Question
C. Conduction A. Greater than unity The sum of the internal energy and the product of pressure
D. Convection B. Less than unity and specific volume is known as the:
C. Near than unity A. Enthalpy
Answer: D D. Unity B. Entropy
C. Total work
19. Past ME Board Question Answer: B D. Total internal energy
When required, a regulator water valve in refrigerating
system should be 24. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
A. On the suction line on compressor line One hundred twenty percent theoretical air was supplied for
B. In the water inlet combustion. What is the equivalent excess equal to: 29. Past ME Board Question
C. Anywhere in the system A. 20% A refrigeration control that guards the compressor from
D. In the water outlet B. 100% overloads brought about by abruptly increases loads
C. 240% resulting from defrosting, warm products and others, is
Answer: D D. 120% called:
A. Safety valve
Answer: A B. Suction hold-back valve
20. Past ME Board Question C. Solenoid valve
When there is no work between the thermodynamic system 25. Past ME Board Question D. Expansion valve
and its surrounding, the quantity of net heat transfer is equal
to: Answer: B
 Answer: C A. 5”
30. Past ME Board Question B. 6”
What does fossil-fuel fired power plants release, which in 35. Past ME Board Question C. 3”
turn produces the key ingredient in acid rain? The kinetic energy of a moving fluid is used to isentropically D. 4”
A. Nitrogen compressed the fluid to state of zero velocity. The
B. Sulfur emission temperature of a moving fluid at the state zero velocity is Answer: D
C. Carbon monoxide called:
D. Carbon dioxide A. Stagnation temperature 40. Past ME Board Question
B. Partial temperature One foot water is equal to:
Answer: B C. Critical temperature A. 0.4138 lb/𝑖𝑛2
D. Absolute temperature B. 68.3 lb/𝑓𝑡 2
31. Past ME Board Question C. 0.8673 lb/𝑖𝑛2
The fraction of the radiation energy incident on a surface Answer: A D. 62.43 lb/𝑓𝑡 2
which is absorbed by the surface is called:
A. Convection 36. Past ME Board Question Answer: D
B. Absorptivity The dew point temperature of the products of combustion in
C. Emission the saturation temperature that corresponds to the partial 41. Past ME Board Question
D. Radiation pressure of the _____ in the products. The freezing point of R – 22 is:
A. 𝑆𝑂2 A. -109 ℉
Answer: B B. 𝐻2 𝑂 B. -252 ℉
C. 𝑁2 C. -256 ℉
32. Past ME Board Question D. 𝐶𝑂2 D. -211 ℉
Which of the following power plants uses energy from
uranium to produce electric power? Answer: B Answer: C
A. Diesel Plant
B. Geothermal Plant 37. Past ME Board Question 42. Past ME Board Question
C. Nuclear Plant What do we call a device that is used to boiler operation that Which of the following is a type of evaporator?
D. Hydroelectric Plant will stop the burner or at least send a signal to the operator if A. Shell-and-tube condenser
the water drops to a low level that is no longer safe? B. Shell-and-tube water cooler
Answer: C A. Safety valve C. Oil lantern rings
B. Dead-weight valve D. Polyphase motors
33. Past ME Board Question C. High water cut off
Ice cubes added to a glass of water and stirred. Moisture D. Low water cut off Answer: A
starts to form on the outer surface of the glass. At this point,
what is the temperature at the outer surface called? Answer: D 43. Past ME Board Question
A. Critical temperature For Brayton cycle, the result of regeneration is:
B. Surface temperature 38. Past ME Board Question A. Increase in thermal efficiency
C. Dew point temperature Dry analysis is a fractional analysis of the products of B. Decrease thermal efficiency
D. Saturation temperature combustion which does not include: C. Moderate thermal efficiency
A. Water vapor D. Low thermal efficiency
Answer: C B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulfur dioxide Answer: A
34. Past ME Board Question D. Carbon monoxide
The force when applied to a mass of one kilogram will give 44. Past ME Board Question
mass an acceleration of one meter per second for every Answer: A If the pressure exerted on a liquid is higher than the
second called: saturation corresponding to its temperature. The liquid is a:
A. Watt A. Saturated liquid
B. Joule B. Subcooled liquid
C. Newton 39. Past ME Board Question C. Superheated liquid
D. Pascal The size of a reciprocating pump is stamped on the builder’s D. Highly superheated liquid
plate 3” x 4” x 6”. The diameter of the liquid cylinder is:
Answer: B Answer: C
50. Past ME Board Question
45. Past ME Board Question What does a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient means 55. Past ME Board Question
In a power driven pump, each piston stroke is displaced by during a throttling process? What is the effect on saturated temperature if the pressure of
360𝑜 divided the ______. A. Fluid pressure is constant the fluid is decreased?
A. Revolution per minute B. Fluid temperature drops A. There is no effect
B. Bore C. Fluid temperature rises B. Saturation temperature decreases
C. Length of the stroke D. Fluid pressure zero C. Saturation temperature remains constant
D. Number of cylinders D. Saturation temperature increases
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: B
51. Past ME Board Question
46. Past ME Board Question For steam power plants, increasing the operating pressure of 56. Past ME Board Question
If the air is compressed without discarding heat, then what the boiler will: If V3 is the cylinder volume after the combustion process of
do you call this kind of compression? A. Increase thermal efficiency a Diesel cycle and V2 is its cylinder volume before
A. Isobaric B. Decrease thermal efficiency combustion, then calculate the cut-off ratio, r.
B. Isochoric C. Bring thermal efficiency to zero A. r = V3 – V2
C. Adiabatic D. Make thermal efficiency constant B. r = V2 – V3
D. Isothermal C. r = V2 / V3
Answer: A D. r = V3 / V2
Answer: C
47. Past ME Board Question 52. Past ME Board Question Answer: D
If a gas possesses internal energy, then it is due to its: The ratio of the average load to that of the rated capacity of
A. Velocity a plant is called: 57. Past ME Board Question
B. Pressure and volume values A. Output factor Compare the temperature of discharge vapor refrigerant
C. Height from a certain datum level B. Load factor leaving the compressor for a superheated cycle and
D. Molecular motion C. Demand factor saturated cycle, for the same condensing temperature and
D. Capacity factor pressure.
Answer: D A. There is no difference
Answer: D B. Higher for the superheated cycle
48. Past ME Board Question C. Higher for the saturated cycle
The pressure of ammonia was detected in brine solution. 53. Past ME Board Question D. Lower for the superheated cycle
How can ammonia be removed? What is the method used to evaluate all welds performed on
A. Freeze the brine solution pressure parts of boiler tube materials? Answer: B
B. Heat the brine to a high temperature enough to A. Hydrostatic test
free the ammonia B. Orsat analysis 58. Past ME Board Question
C. Throw the brine solution C. Vacuum test A valve that releases steam from the boiler by opening at a
D. Low the temperature of the brine D. Radiographic test pre-determined pressure in order to keep the steam
pressure from rising more than the pressure from which the
Answer: B Answer: D valve is set is called a
A. Ammonia valve
49. Past ME Board Question 54. Past ME Board Question B. Stop valve
What will happen when the pressure at any point inside a If the pressure is disregarded in the various other C. Check valve
centrifugal pump goes below the vapor pressure components of a steam of gas power plants, the pressure D. Safety valve
corresponding to the temperature of the liquid? rise in the pump or compressor is ____ to the pressure drop
A. Turbulent flow in the turbine. Answer: D
B. Laminar flow A. Inversely proportional
C. Cavitation B. Constant 59. Past ME Board Question
D. Priming C. Equal What is the relationship of the capacity of a centrifugal
D. Varying pump, Q, to impeller diameter, D, when there are two
Answer: C impeller diameters in the same pump?
 A. Q is directly proportional to the square of the ratio 64. Past ME Board Question C. Et – Er
of D If Hs is the total suction head of a pump, Hp is its suction D. Er / Et
B. Q is inversely proportional to the ratio of D surface pressure, and Hf is its suction friction head, then
C. Q. is directly proportional to the ratio of D calculate the total suction head, Ht. Answer: B
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of the A. Ht = Hs – Hp – Hf
ratio of D B. Ht = Hs + Hp – Hf 69. Past ME Board Question
C. Ht = Hs + Hp + Hf If W is the work output of a heat engine and H is the total
Answer: C D. Ht = Hs – Hp + Hf heat input of an engine, then determine its thermal
efficiency, e.
60. Past ME Board Question Answer: C A. e = H/ W
If Wt is the turbine shaft work of a gas turbine unit, Wc is its B. e = W / H
compressor shaft work and Q is the heat supplied in fuel, 65. Past ME Board Question C. e = W x H
then determine its thermal efficiency. The constant spending of certain percentage of circulated D. e = l – ( W – H )
A. Q / (Wt – Wc) water in a cooling tower in order to prevent accumulation of
B. Q / (Wt + Wc) dissolved mineral solids and other impurities in the Answer: B
C. (Wt + Wc) / Q condenser water is called
D. (Wt – Wc) / Q A. Approach 70. Past ME Board Question
B. Drift Which of the following is converted to mechanical energy by
Answer: D C. Range a water.
D. Bleed-off A. Internal energy
61. Past ME Board Question B. Kinetic energy
The schedule number of a pipe, N, indicates the thickness of Answer: D C. Potential energy
the pipe wall. If the allowable stress of the pipe is S, then D. Hydraulic energy
what is the internal pressure equal to? 66. Past ME Board Question
A. N – S What process is employed when the turbine steam power Answer: C
B. N / S plants experience excessive moisture?
C. N x S A. Reheating 71. Past ME Board Question
D. S / N B. Supercooling What must be the value of the available Net Positive Suction
C. Subcooling Head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump compared to its require
Answer: C D. Freezing NPSH to avoid losing priming?
A. Available NPSH lesser than required NPSH
62. Past ME Board Question Answer: A B. Available NPSH equal than required NPSH
What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse C. Available NPSH greater than required NPSH
turbine? 67. Past ME Board Question D. Available NPSH constant at all times
A. Vacuum A company is interested to produce a water turbine wherein
B. Atmospheric pressure only little energy is required or necessary because the guide Answer: C
C. Above atmospheric vanes are to be controlled. The turbine must be a:
D. Zero A. Gas turbine 72. Past ME Board Question
B. Propeller turbine What type of fuel is used with stationary power plants where
Answer: B C. Kaplan turbine gas is available by pipeline?
D. Francis turbine A. Gaseous fuels
63. Past ME Board Question B. Solid fuels
In order to remove the fly ashes from the flue gas, which of Answer: C C. Coal
the following must a power plant equipped with? D. Liquid fuels
A. Condenser 68. Past ME Board Question
B. Demineralizer If Et is the total net energy generated by a plant in a certain Answer: A
C. Electrostatic precipitator period of time and Er is the rated net energy capacity of the
D. Desulphurization plant plant during the same period of time, then what is the plant 73. Past ME Board Question
operating factor? Wb is shaft work of an engine and Wi is the indicated work of
Answer: C A. Er – Et an engine. If mechanical friction is present in the engine
B. Et / Er mechanism, then:
 A. Wb is equal to Wi It is important to take some moisture from the air to If Ev is the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating pump,
B. Wb is less than Wi dehumidify it if the relative humidity reaches high levels. To then determine SLIP which represents all losses of capacity
C. Wb is proportional to Wi do this, it requires cooling the air: given in percentage of the displacement.
D. Wb is greater than Wi A. At wet-bulb temperature A. 1 / Ev
B. Above its dew point temperature B. 1 – 1 / Ev
Answer: B C. At critical temperature C. 1 – Ev
D. Below its dew point temperature D. Ev + 1
74. Past ME Board Question
What is the saturation pressure at the critical temperature, or Answer: D Answer: C
the lowest pressure in which a substance can be in the liquid
state at its critical pressure? 79. Past ME Board Question 84. Past ME Board Question
A. External pressure What does enthalpy measure in a substance? What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal
B. Critical pressure A. Its coldness pump, Hp, to the impeller speed, S, if the pump is at two
C. Condensing pressure B. Its heat content different rotative speeds?
D. Evaporation pressure C. Its humidity A. Hp is inversely proportional to the cube of the ratio
D. Its dew point of S
Answer: B B. Hp is directly proportional to the ratio of S
Answer: B C. Hp is inversely proportional to the ratio of S
75. Past ME Board Question D. Hp is directly proportional to the cube of the ratio
What is the significance of a high dielectric strength of 80. Past ME Board Question of S
lubricating oil? Pneumatic tools are powered by:
A. Oil is thick A. Natural gas Answer: D
B. Oil is contaminant – free B. Air
C. Oil is thin C. Electricity 85. Past ME Board Question
D. Oil is not clean D. Steam What is likely to occur when sections of the impeller of a
centrifugal pump are handling vapor and other sections are
Answer: B Answer: B handling liquid?
A. Erosion of the pump
76. Past ME Board Question 81. Past ME Board Question B. High head and low capacity
Theoretically, what is the effect of the compressor clearance The pump will not cavitate if the available Net Positive C. Excessive vibration
on horsepower? Suction Head (NPSH) is: D. Complete failure to operate
A. Varies in direct proportion A. Less than the required NPSH
B. Increase power B. Equal or lesser than the required NPSH Answer: D
C. Decrease power C. Equal or greater than the required NPSH
D. There is no effect D. Zero compared to the required NPSH of 1 86. Past ME Board Question
When vapor compression takes place on one side of the
Answer: D Answer: C piston and one during one revolution of the crankshaft, then
the compressor is:
77. Past ME Board Question 82. Past ME Board Question A. Double-acting
Compare the refrigerating effect per unit mass of refrigerant A water-tube condenser has a total of 60 tubes. If these are B. Four-cycle
circulated for a superheated cycle that produces useful two passes, then compute the number of tubes per pass. C. Two-revolution
cooling and a saturated cycle, for the same vaporizing and A. 6 C D. Single-acting
condensing temperature. B. 15
A. Lower for a superheated cycle C. 3 C Answer: D
B. Greater for a saturated cycle D. 2
C. The same
D. Greater for a superheated cycle Answer: B
87. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D 83. Past ME Board Question In Stirling and Erickson Cycles, the efficiency can be
increased by:
78. Past ME Board Question A. Compressibility
 B. Superheating compare the efficiency of a Rankine cycle to that of the Answer: C
C. Regeneration Carnot cycle?
D. Subcooling A. Efficiency is the same 97. Past ME Board Question
B. Higher efficiency The ratio of the average load during a certain time to peak
Answer: C C. Efficiency is higher by 30% the load occurring during the same period of time is called:
D. Lower efficiency A. Demand factor
88. Past ME Board Question B. Capacity factor
Which of the following is used to control refrigeration Answer: D C. Load factor
compressor capacity? D. Output factor
A. Dehumidifier 93. Past ME Board Question
B. Check valve Compute the wall gain load of a load storage room when A is Answer: C
C. Solenoid valve the outside surface area of the wall, D is the temperature
D. Unloader differential across the wall, and U is the overall coefficient of 98. Past ME Board Question
heat transmission. Based on the PSME Code, what should be the effective
Answer: D A. AU / D temperature of the air to be maintained for comfort cooling at
B. D / AU an air movement from 0.0761 to 0.127 meter per second?
89. Past ME Board Question C. A / UD A. 25 – 29 degrees C
During a cooling and dehumidifying process, sensible and D. AUD B. 35 – 39 degrees C
latent heats are removed in the cooling coil. If Hs is the C. 20 – 24 degrees C
sensible heat and Ht is the total heat transferred, then Answer: D D. 30 – 34 degrees C
determine the coil sensible heat factor.
A. Ht – Hs 94. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
B. Hs – Ht If m is the mass of dry air and H is the specific enthalpy of
C. Ht / Hs the water vapor in air and r is the humidity ratio, then 99. Past ME Board Question
D. Hs / Ht determine the latent heat of any dry air. If R is the delivery rate of a pump, H is the total pumping
A. m / (r – H) head and e is the efficiency of the pump, then compute the
Answer: D B. r / (H – m) power required to drive the pump.
C. (m – r) / H A. R / H x e
90. Past ME Board Question D. m (r x H) B. 1 – (R + H) / e
Based on the PSME Code, what should be provided in each C. (R x H) / e
stream outlets if two or more boilers will be connected in Answer: D D. (H – R) / e
parallel?
A. Relief and check valves 95. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
B. Non-return and shut-off valves When an electric motor nameplate indicates a “100-kw
C. Expansion and shut-off valves electric motor” then what does a 100-kw rating refers to? 100. Past ME Board Question
D. Expansion and check valves A. Thermal energy input There are three basic boiler types, namely:
B. Thermal energy output A. Water-tube, horizontal tube and cast-iron boilers
Answer: B C. Electrical power output B. Cast-iron, fire-tube and water tube boilers
D. Mechanical power output C. Fire-tube, cast-iron and water tube boilers
91. Past ME Board Question D. HRT, fire-tubes and Scotch Marine boilers
The diesel cycle is the ideal cycle for a : Answer: D
A. Absorption Answer: B
B. Steam-jet 96. Past ME Board Question
C. Compression-ignition engine For a hydraulic power to be transmitted at its maximum what 101. Past ME Board Question
D. Gas turbine should be the value of loss of head due to friction if H is the The amount of heat necessary to bring up the temperature of
total available head? a unit mass of a substance through a unit degree is called:
Answer: C A. 11H A. Specific volume
B. 1/3 H B. Thermal heat
92. Past ME Board Question C. 1/4 H C. Total heat
If a Carnot cycle is at the same maximum and minimum D. 5H D. Specific heat
temperatures as a Rankine cycle, then how would you
Answer: D

102. Past ME Board Question

What is the specific gravity of an oil which has a Baume
reading g of 28 degrees F?
A. 0.215
B. 0.562
C. 0.886
D. 0.774

Answer: C

103. Past ME Board Question

If C is the capacity of the compressor in a refrigeration
system and F is the heat rejection factor, then calculate the
condenser load, L.
A. L = F – C
B. L = F / C
C. L = C x F
D. L = C / F

Answer: C

104. Past ME Board Question

Based on the PSME Code, what should be the humidity ratio
of air to be used for comfort cooling?
A. 75% - 80% relative humidity
B. 50% - 60% relative humidity
C. 60% - 70% relative humidity
D. 70% - 75% relative humidity

Answer: B

105. Past ME Board Question

What is the cause of pressure drop in the boiler, condenser
and the pipings between different components? Because of
this drop, steam leaving the boiler is at lower pressure.
A. Positive slip
B. Fluid friction
C. Negative slip
D. Low thermal efficiency

Answer: B