Powerplant Text 7-12

FUEL AND FUEL METERING
This chapter covers methods used to inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair fuel metering systems and
components. Also covered are float-type and pressure-type carburetors as well as fuel injection systems.
Turbine engine fuel control inspections, and field maintenance are also covered. Proper inspection, ser-
vicing, and troubleshooting of basic fuel systems, engine-driven fuel pumps, fuel strainers, transfer pumps,
relief valves and bypass valves are covered as well.
7-1. A03 7-1. Answer C. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A)

Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine The fuel/air mixture which will result in the highest engine
temperature (all other factors remaining constant)? temperature varies according to the engine's power set-
ting. For example, at high power settings, lean mixtures
A A mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture produce the highest temperature. Therefore, a mixture
of .085. leaner than a manual lean mixture of .060 will produce
B A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture of .087. very high temperatures at high power settings. Although a
C A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture of .085
.060. (answer A) will produce an elevated temperature, it will not
produce the highest of the choices listed. Answer (B) is
wrong because any time you have a mixture richer than
full-rich, cool temperatures result.
7-2. ,■ A04 7-2. Answer A. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-9A)

Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the When an engine takes in air with a high water vapor
incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally content, there is less oxygen available for combustion.
result in which of the following? Any time there is less oxygen available for combustion
there is a corresponding decrease in engine power for
A Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and any given rpm and manifold pressure. Answer (B) is
manifold pressure. incorrect because both power output and volumetric
B Increased power output due to increased efficiency decrease and answer (C) is wrong because
volumetric efficiency. humid air typically produces an enriching effect on pis-
C A leaning effect on engines which use non-auto- ton engines.
matic carburetors.
7-3. "" A04 7-3. Answer C. JSPT 7-22 (AC 65-12A)
(1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing. Both statements are false. Preignition occurs when the
(2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion fuel/air mixture is ignited prior to the spark plugs firing
chamber becomes incandescent and ignites the and has nothing to do with how an ignition system is
fuel/air mixture in advance of normal timed ignition. timed. Detonation, on the other hand, is the uncon-
trolled burning of the fuel/air mixture. Typical causes of
Regarding the above statements, : -■■■"'.
detonation include use of the improper fuel grade and
.',. engine overheating.
:
A nly No. 1 is true.
B both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
7-2 Fuel and Fuel Metering

Which of the following conditions would most likely Detonation is the uncontrolled burning of the fuel/air
lead to detonation? mixture. Typical causes of detonation include use of
fuel with too low an octane rating, high manifold pres-
A Late ignition timing. sure, high intake air pressure, and engine overheating.
B Use of fuel with too high an octane rating. Both answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because nei-
C Use of fuel with too low an octane rating. ther late ignition timing nor the use of a higher fuel
grade will cause detonation.
7-5. A04 7-5. Answer A. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A)

Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? For a given rpm, the fuel/air mixture that results in best
power is always richer than the mixture used for best
A The mixture ratio which gives the best power is economy. One way to remember this is to associate
richer than the mixture ratio which gives maxi- best power with using more fuel and best economy
mum economy. with using less fuel. With this in mind there is no way
B A rich mixture is faster burning than a normal the mixture used for maximum economy can also be
mixture. used for best power (answer C). Answer (B) is incor-
C The mixture ratio which gives maximum econ- rect because a rich mixture burns slower than a normal
omy may also be designated as best power mix- mixture.
ture.
7-6. B03 7-6. Answer A. JSPT 7-63 (AC 65-12A)

Which of the following influences the operation of an Some of the variables that an automatic fuel control
automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine? unit senses include the power lever position, engine
rpm, either compressor inlet pressure or temperature,
A burner pressure and burner pressure or compressor discharge pres-
B Mixture control position. sure. Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no mix-
C Exhaust gas temperature. ture control on a turbine engine and exhaust gas
temperature (answer C) does not influence the opera-
tion of an automatic fuel control unit.

What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft The dump valve is part of the fuel system in a turbine
gas turbine engines? engine that automatically dumps fuel pressure at
engine shut down. This prevents fuel boiling due to
A The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles and the residual engine heat. Answer (B) is incorrect because
manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling as a a special bleed valve dumps compressor air on some
result of residual engine heat. engines to help prevent a compressor stall and answer
B The valve controls compressor stalls by dumping (C) is wrong because the dump valve forces excess
compressor bleed air from the compressor discharge fuel back into the combustion chamber, not back into
port under certain conditions. the fuel pump inlet.
C Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the engine
fuel control unit inlet and dumps excessive fuel
back to the inlet of the engine driven fuel pump.

A condition known as "hot streaking" in turbine The term hot streaking describes a condition where a
engines is caused by fuel nozzle shoots out an unatomized stream of fuel
which can contact the combustion liner or other com-
A a partially clogged fuel nozzle. ponents creating hot spots. Answer (B) is incorrect
B a misaligned combustion liner. , because although a misaligned combustion liner could
C excessive fuel flow. - disrupt the airflow pattern within the liner and create
hot spots, it would not create the distinctive streaking
associated with a clogged fuel nozzle. Answer (C) is
wrong because excessive fuel flow, if distributed
through a properly working fuel nozzle, will result in
high EGT but will not lead to hot streaking.
Fuel and Fuel Metering 7-3
7-9. C01 7-9. Answer A. JSPT 7-51 (AC 65-12A)

How are discharge nozzles in a fuel injected recipro- Fuel discharge nozzles are calibrated for several differ-
cating engine identified to indicate the flow range? ent flow ranges. In order to help identify the flow range
of a specific nozzle a letter is stamped on the hex of
A By an identification letter stamped on one of the the nozzle body.
hexes of the nozzle body.
B By an identification metal tag attached to the
nozzle body.
C By color codes on the nozzle body.
7-10. M01 7-10. Answer B. JSPT 7-60 (AC 65-12A)

What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft Automatic fuel control units sense power lever position,
gas turbine engine fuel control unit? engine rpm, compressor inlet air temperature and den-
sity, and burner pressure or discharge pressure. Since
A Compressor inlet air temperature. turbine engine aircraft do not utilize a mixture control, it
B Mixture control position. is not a factor in the operation of the fuel control unit.
C Power lever position.

7-11. Answer A. JSPT 7-70 (ITP-P2)
7-11. M01 In order to stabilize internal components and ensure
In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within consistent results, most engine manufacturers specify
the fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend that all trim adjustments be made in the increase direc-
that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made tion. In other words, the engine will idle at a value just
in the above the minimum idle speed and maximum thrust
will be obtained slightly before the power levers reach
A increase direction. the full forward position. Trim adjustments are not
made in the decrease direction (answers B and C)
B decrease direction. because this could lead to slack in the fuel control and
incorrect settings at high power levels.
C decrease direction after over-adjustment.
7-12. Answer B. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-12A)
Field adjustments, or trimming adjustments made to
turbine engine fuel controls are limited to idle rpm and
7-12. M01 maximum speed adjustments. Answers (A) and (C) are
When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is incorrect because engines are never trimmed to pro-
adjusted to duce maximum power or maximum rpm with no regard
to other limiting factors such as EGT, fuel flow, or EPR.
A produce as much power as the engine is capable
of producing.
B set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
C allow the engine to produce maximum RPM 7-13. Answer A. JSPT 7-64
without regard to power output. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) includes
a computer that monitors several engine operating cri-
7-13. M01 teria and uses this information to adjust a standard
A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a sys- hydromechanical fuel control unit (FCU) to obtain a
tem that receives engine operating information and constant thrust for a given power lever position.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a full-authority EEC
A adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control develops commands to various actuators that control
unit to obtain the most effective engine operation. the engine parameters, whereas a supervisory EEC
B develops the commands to various actuators to commands only the hydromechanical FCU. Answer (C)
control engine parameters. is wrong because a typical supervisory EEC senses
C controls engine operation according to ambient pressure and temperature, but not humidity.
temperature, pressure, and humidity.
7-14. M01 7-14. Answer B. JSPT 7-64 A full-authority electronic

A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a engine control (EEC) performs all of the functions
system that receives all the necessary data for engine required to operate an engine. In other words, it
operation and ^;v ; receives data from the aircraft and engine systems and
then issues commands to various actuators that control
A adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control engine operating parameters. Answer (A) is incorrect
unit to obtain the most effective engine operation. because a supervisory EEC, not a full-authority EEC,
B develops the commands to various actuators to adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit.
control engine parameters. Answer (C) is wrong because a full authority EEC does
C - controls engine operation according to ambient not monitor humidity.
temperature, pressure, and humidity.
7-15. Answer C. JSPT 7-64
7-15. M01 Any fault in a supervisory electronic engine control
In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that (EEC) automatically causes the EEC to relinquish
adversely affects engine operation engine control to the hydromechanical control unit. At
the same time, the EEC sends a signal to the cockpit
A causes redundant or backup units to take over that illuminates an annunciator light to inform the flight
and continue normal operation. crew of the change in operating mode. Answer (A) is
incorrect because systems that use supervisory EECs
B usually degrades performance to the extent that do not utilize backups. Answer (B) is wrong because a
continued operation can cause damage to the supervisory EEC automatically disengages itself before
engine. it can harm an engine.
C causes an immediate reversion to control by the
hydromechanical fuel control unit.
7-16. M01 7-16. Answer A. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-9A) Turbine

What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity engines are designed to operate using a specific type
of a turbine engine performance check if an alternate of fuel with a given BTU value and specific gravity.
fuel is to be used? Therefore, if a performance check is made on an
engine using an alternate fuel, the specific gravity
A Fuel specific gravity setting. setting should be checked and changed as necessary
B Maximum RPM adjustment. on the fuel control unit to ensure proper performance.
C EPR gauge calibration. Although an alternate fuel is likely to cause an engine
to perform differently, neither maximum rpm (answer B)
nor EPR calibration (answer C) is normally checked or
changed when an alternate fuel is used.
7-17. M01 7-17. Answer C. JSPT 7-69 (TEP2) Part of the

The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site procedure used for trimming an engine includes
temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to measuring engine inlet barometric pressure and
ambient temperature. To ensure a temperature value
A call the control tower to obtain field temperature. that is accurate, it is common practice to hang a
B observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-well.
Temperature (OAT) gauge. Answer (A) is wrong because the control tower reading
C hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose could be measurably different from the temperature
wheel-well until the temperature reading where an aircraft is located. Answer (B) is incorrect
stabilizes. because outside air temperature gauge probes can
become heat soaked from exposure to the sun or prox-
imity to hot pavement and give incorrect readings.
7-18. M01 7-18. Answer C. JSPT 7-69 (TEP2)

An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trim- Facing an engine into a strong wind produces the
ming an engine. However, if the velocity of the wind same effect as improving the efficiency of the engine's
blowing into the intake is excessive, it is likely to compressor. Therefore, if an engine is trimmed while
cause a facing into an excessive wind, a false high compres-
sion and turbine discharge pressure, as well as a sub-
A false low exhaust gas temperature reading. sequent low trim are likely to occur. Answer (A) is
incorrect because exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is
B trim setting resulting in engine overspeed. primarily a function of turbine efficiency and fuel flow,
and a direct headwind will have no effect on EGT read-
C false high compression and turbine discharge ings. Answer (B) is wrong because a low, not high, trim
pressure, and a subsequent low trim. will result.
7-19. Answer A. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-12A)

When high-pressure air is bled from the compressor
7-19. M01 for various aircraft functions, it has the same effect as
Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to decreasing the compressor's efficiency. Therefore, if a
trim adjustment is made with the bleeds on, an inaccu-
A turn all accessory bleed air off. rate or overtrimmed condition will result. Because of
B turn all accessory bleed air on. this, most engine manufacturers require that an engine
C make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines be trimmed with the engine bleeds off.
on the same aircraft with accessory bleed air set-
tings the same ither on or off. 7-20. Answer C. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A)
An automatic mixture control utilizes a sealed,
7-20. ■. M02 . ■, .,■:.- ■.. helium-filled bellows that fluctuates with changes in air
A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control density. As air density decreases due to an increase in
responds to changes in air density caused by altitude or temperature (answer C), the helium pressure
in changes inside the bellows causes the bellows to expand and
move a poppet valve that adjusts the fuel/air mixture.
A- Answer (A) is wrong because an automatic mixture
B- altitude or humidity. control does not sense humidity, and answer (B) is
C altitude only. wrong because an automatic mixture control senses
- altitude or temperature. temperature in addition to altitude.
7-21. Answer C. JSPT 7-30 (AC 65-12A)

For an engine to develop maximum power at full throt-
tle, the fuel mixture must be richer than that used at
7-21. M02 cruise power settings. The additional fuel is used to
On a float-type carburetor, the purpose of the econo- cool the engine and prevent detonation. One way to
mizer valve is to make sure the engine gets this additional fuel is with
an economizer valve which automatically enriches the
A provide extra fuel for sudden acceleration of the fuel/air mixture at throttle settings above 60 to 70 per-
engine. B maintain the leanest mixture cent power. Answer (A) is wrong because a separate
possible during accelerating system enriches the mixture during abrupt
cruising best power. C provide a richer mixture engine acceleration, and answer (B) is wrong because
and cooling at maximum an economizer valve does not lean the mixture, it
power output. enriches it.
;:
7-22. M02 v 7-22. Answer A. JSPT 7-25 (AC 65-12A)
- :
■■ ■'■ The force that is responsible for discharging fuel into
The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type the throat of a float-type carburetor is a result of the dif-
carburetor in its normal operating range is the differ- ferential pressure between the fuel discharge nozzle
ence between the pressure acting on the discharge noz- within the venturi and the pressure exerted on the fuel
zle located within the venturi and the pressure within the float chamber. As engine speed increases
the amount of air flowing past the venturi increases
A acting on the fuel in the float chamber. B of causing a greater pressure differential and correspond-
the fuel as it enters the carburetor. C of the air as it ing increase in fuel flow. Answer (B) is incorrect
enters the venturi (impact pressure). -: ' ' - ; i because the needle valve regulates fuel flow into the
. ■ :
■-■ "■■■ • float chamber and, in effect, isolates the float chamber
from fuel pump pressure. Answer (C) is wrong because
impact pressure is not a fuel metering force.
7-23. Answer B. JSPT 7-26 (AC 65-12A)

7-23. M02 ■ The main air bleed in a float-type carburetor allows air
■" -: to be drawn into the carburetor venturi along with the
If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes fuel. The additional air helps decrease the fuel density
clogged, the engine will run and destroy surface tension, resulting in better vapor-
ization and control of fuel discharge at lower engine
A lean at rated power. speeds. If the main air bleed becomes clogged, it
B rich at rated power. stands to reason that less air will be drawn into the
C rich at idling. engine and the fuel/air mixture will become excessively
rich at high power settings. Answer (A) is wrong since
a clogged air bleed results in more fuel flow. Answer (C)
is incorrect because a clogged air bleed will deliver less
fuel at lower power settings, resulting in a lean mixture.
7-24. Answer B. JSPT 7-35 (ITP-P2)

Most carburetor floats are adjusted by adding or
removing shims between the needle seat and the throt-
7-24. M02 tle body. This method of adjustment is much more con-
Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of venient and precise than adjusting the length of the
a float in a float-type carburetor? float shaft (answer A) or changing the angle of the float
arm pivot (answer C).
A Lengthening or shortening the float shaft. B
Add or remove shims under the needle-valve
seat. C Change the angle of the float 7-25. Answer B. JSPT 7-31 (AC 65-12A)
arm pivot. The main air bleed in a float-type carburetor allows air
to be drawn into the carburetor venturi along with the
7-25. M02 fuel. Therefore, if the air bleed becomes clogged, less
What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at air will be drawn into the engine and the fuel/air mixture
full throttle if it is equipped with a float-type carbure- will become excessively rich at high power settings. A
tor? low float level (answer A) allows less fuel into the bowl,
but has no effect on mixture, and a clogged
A Float level too low. atmospheric vent (answer C) will decrease the pres-
B Clogged main air bleed. sure differential between the float bowl and the venturi
C Clogged atmospheric vent. thereby reducing the fuel metering force and causing a
leaning of the mixture.
7-26. M02 7-26. Answer C. JSPT 7-31 (AC 65-12A) One way to
One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed help promote better fuel vaporization within the throat of
helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor a carburetor is to allow a calibrated amount of air from
is an air bleed to be mixed with the fuel as the fuel enters
the carburetor throat. Mixing fuel and air also allows
A pressure in the float chamber to increase as air- better control of the fuel discharge rate, especially at
flow through the carburetor increases. low engine speeds. Answer (A) is incorrect because
B a progressively richer mixture as airflow through most float chambers are vented directly to the
the carburetor increases. atmosphere and, therefore, the pressure within them is
C better fuel vaporization and control of fuel dis- the same as atmospheric pressure. Answer (B) is
charge, especially at lower engine speeds. wrong because the main air bleed actually helps
maintain the desired fuel/air mixture rather than allow
the mixture to become progressively richer as airflow
increases.
7-27. M02 7-27. Answer B. JSPT 7-34 (AC 65-12A) During

A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause engine operation, the carburetor float is responsible for
the fuel level to maintaining the appropriate amount of fuel within the
float bowl. When fuel is drawn from the bowl, the float
A lower, and enrich the mixture. lowers and fuel is allowed into the bowl. By the same
B rise, and enrich the mixture. C token, if a float should become punctured, it would fill
rise, and lean the mixture. with fuel and sink. With the float resting on the bottom
of the bowl, fuel would be allowed to continually enter
the bowl and eventually enrich the fuel/air mixture.
7-28. Answer B. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A) The

7-28. M02 back-suction type mixture control system used on some
The back-suction mixture control system operates by float-type carburetors utilizes low pressure from the
venturi to control the amount of air pressure within the
A varying the pressure within the venturi section. float chamber. By varying the pressure acting on the
B varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float fuel in the float chamber, the pressure differential
chamber. C changing the effective between the carburetor throat and float bowl can be
cross-sectional area of the controlled which, in turn, provides control of the mixture
main metering orifice (jet). being supplied to the engine. Answer (A) is incorrect
because a back-suction mixture control system
controls the amount of fuel allowed to enter the carbu-
retor throat and does nothing to vary pressure within
the venturi. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is
impractical to change the main metering jet's
cross-sectional area to control the mixture.
7-29. Answer C. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A) As both

7-29. M02 altitude and temperature increase, the air becomes
If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that less dense. Therefore, as an airplane climbs or as the
is not compensated for altitude and temperature varia- air temperature increases, the amount of oxygen drawn
tions, the fuel/air mixture will become into an engine decreases. In either of these situations if
an engine is not equipped with a carburetor that can be
A leaner as either the altitude or temperature adjusted for increases in altitude and temperature, the
increases. B richer as the altitude increases and fuel/air mixture will become excessively rich. Answers
leaner as the (A) and (B) are incorrect because there is less air in the
temperature increases. C richer as either fuel/air mixture at elevated altitudes and temperatures,
the altitude or temperature so the mixture becomes richer.
increases.
7-30. M02 7-30. Answer C. JSPT 7-30 (AC 65-12A)

Float-type carburetors which are equipped with econo- For an engine to develop maximum power at full throt-
mizers are normally set for tle, the fuel mixture must be richer than that used at
cruise power. The additional fuel is used to cool the
A their richest mixture delivery and leaned by engine and prevent detonation. One way to make sure
means of the economizer system. B the the engine gets this additional fuel is with an econo-
economizer system to supplement the main mizer valve which is set to the leanest practical mixture
system supply at all engine speeds above idling. at cruise power settings, then automatically enriches
C their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising the fuel/air mixture at throttle settings above 60 to 70
speeds and enriched by means of the economizer percent power. Answer (A) is incorrect because carbu-
system at higher power settings. retors are rarely set to deliver the richest possible mix-
ture. Answer (B) is wrong because an economizer
system typically operates above 60 to 70 percent of
rated power and not at every power setting.
7-31. M02 7-31. Answer A. JSPT 7-34

If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condi- A likely cause of float-type carburetor flooding is an
tion is most likely caused by improperly set float level or a leak at the needle valve
and seat assembly. A stuck accelerating pump shaft
A a leaking needle valve and seat assembly. B (answer B) is unlikely to flood an engine since it sprays
the accelerating pump shaft being stuck. C a charge of fuel into the carburetor throat only when
a clogged back-suction line. the shaft and pump are advanced rapidly. Answer (C)
is wrong because, although a clogged back-suction
line will result in a rich mixture at altitude, it will not
flood the engine.
7-32. M02 7-32. Answer A. JSPT 7-26 (AC 65-12A)

If an engine is equipped with a float-type carburetor The main air bleed in a float-type carburetor allows air
and the engine runs excessively rich at full throttle, a to be drawn into a carburetor's venturi along with the
possible cause of the trouble is a clogged fuel to improve vaporization. Therefore, if the air bleed
becomes clogged, the engine will draw too much fuel
A main air bleed. B and the fuel/air mixture will become excessively rich.
back-suction line. C Answer (B) is incorrect because a clogged back-suc-
atmospheric vent line. tion line will cause a lean fuel/air mixture, and answer
(C) is wrong because a clogged atmospheric vent line
will prevent the flow of fuel to the engine.

What occurs when a back-suction type mixture control In a back-suction type mixture control system a certain
is placed in IDLE CUTOFF? amount of low pressure air from the venturi acts on the
fuel in the float chamber. By controlling the amount of
A The fuel passages to the main and idle jets will be low pressure air that is vented to the float chamber you
closed by a valve. B The float chamber will be can control the pressure differential between the car-
vented to a negative buretor throat and float chamber which, in turn, dictates
pressure area. C The fuel passage to the idle jet the amount of fuel that flows into the engine. With this
will be closed by a type of system, when the mixture control is placed in
valve. idle cutoff position, all atmospheric pressure is
removed from the float chamber and the fuel is placed
under negative pressure. This stops fuel flow which, in
turn, stops the engine. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong
because no jets are closed by cockpit-actuated valves.

Which of the following best describes the function of The function of a mixture control is to regulate the rich-
an altitude mixture control? ness of the fuel/air mixture entering the engine. Answer
(B) is incorrect because, although some mixture con-
A Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge trol systems do control the amount of fuel in the fuel/air
entering the engine. ' mixture by varying the amount of air pressure in the
B Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the float chamber, it does not represent the function of all
float chamber. mixture controls. Answer (C) is wrong because the
C Regulates the air pressure in the venturi. throttle valve regulates the air pressure in the venturi
by regulating the speed of airflow through it.

Select the correct statement concerning the idle system With the throttle valve closed at idling speed, air velocity
of a conventional float-type carburetor. through the venturi is so low that it cannot draw enough
fuel from the main discharge nozzle to keep an engine
A The low-pressure area created in the throat of running. Therefore, in order to allow the engine to idle,
the venturi pulls the fuel from the idle passage. a fuel passageway called an idling jet is incorporated in
B Climactic conditions have very little effect on the low pressure area between the throttle valve and
idle mixture requirements. throttle body that discharges fuel into the throttle body.
C The low pressure between the edges of the throt- Answer (A) is incorrect because with the throttle closed,
tle valve and the throttle body pulls the fuel from there is not enough of a pressure drop within the throat
the idle passage. to pull fuel from the idle passage. Answer (B) is wrong
because climactic conditions such as temperature,
pressure, and humidity have a substantial effect on
mixture requirements.

On an engine equipped with a pressure-type carburetor, In a pressure-type carburetor, fuel follows in the same
fuel supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclu- path at idling as it does when the main metering sys-
sion in the carburetor of tem is in operation. However, because of the low air
velocity through the venturi, insufficient differential
A a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to supple- pressure exists to displace the diaphragm that holds
ment the action of normal metering forces. the poppet valve open and allows fuel to flow.
B an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor Therefore, a spring is used to physically hold the poppet
in the idle range. valve off its seat so fuel can flow while the engine is
C a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the idling. Answer (B) is wrong because pressure-type
reduced airflow at start and idle speeds. carburetors do not use idle metering jets like float car-
buretors do. Answer (C) is wrong because, although
pressure-type carburetors do use a boost venturi, it
does not help supply fuel during idling operations.
7-37. -'■■' * M02 ■: :

7-37. Answer B. JSPT 7-30 (AC 65-12A)
The economizer system of a float-type carburetor per- In order for an engine to effectively develop maximum
forms which of the following functions? power at full throttle, the fuel/air mixture must be richer
than that used for cruise power settings. The additional
A It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all fuel is used for cooling the engine to prevent detonation.
engine speeds. B It supplies and regulates One way to make sure the engine gets this additional
the additional fuel fuel is with an economizer valve which automatically
required for all engine speeds above cruising. C supplies and regulates the additional fuel needed at
It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds throttle settings above 60 to 70 percent power.
and all altitudes. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because the
economizer valve supplies and regulates fuel only at
engine speeds above cruise.
7-38. M02 7-38. Answer C. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A) The

How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the automatic mixture control on a pressure carburetor
bellows of the automatic mixture control (AMC) in a contains a tapered needle valve that is connected to a
pressure carburetor ruptures while the engine is operat- pressurized metallic bellows that expands and con-
ing at altitude? tracts with changes in air pressure. With this type of
system, when the aircraft climbs and the atmospheric
A It will become leaner. pressure decreases, the bellows expands and pushes
B No change will occur until the altitude changes. the tapered needle valve into the atmospheric passage
C It will become richer. which restricts the flow of air to the regulator unit. With
the flow of air to the regulator decreased, the amount
of fuel allowed to flow to the engine is also decreased.
Based on this, if the bellows in an automatic mixture
control were to rupture, fuel flow would continue nor-
mally and the engine would run rich.
7-39. M02 7-39. Answer B. JSPT 7-34 (AC 65-12A) In a

The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly float-type carburetor, a float chamber is provided
adjusted float-type carburetor will be between the fuel supply and the metering system to
provide a nearly constant level of fuel to the main dis-
A slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet. B charge nozzle. The fuel level in the float chamber is set
slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet. C slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet to allow
at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet. differential pressure to draw the fuel into the carburetor
throat. If the float chamber fuel level was higher
(answer A) or at the same level as the nozzle outlet
(answer C), fuel would run out of the carburetor when
the engine was shut down.

The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an The function of the metered fuel pressure chamber
injection-type carburetor (chamber C) is to deliver fuel to the fuel control unit at
a relatively constant pressure at all engine speeds.
A is held constant throughout the entire engine Therefore, the fuel pressure within chamber C must be
operating range. B varies according to the held relatively constant. Answer (B) is incorrect
position of the poppet because the fuel pressure in chamber C remains con-
valve located between chamber D (unmetered stant and does not vary according to the position of the
fuel) and chamber E (engine-driven fuel pump poppet valve. Answer (C) is wrong because the
pressure). C will be approximately equal to metered fuel pressure in chamber C is under consider-
the pressure in ably more pressure than the impact air pressure in
chamber A (impact pressure). chamber A.
7-41. M02 7-41. Answer C. JSPT 7-35 (1TP-P2) The fuel level in
Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel the float chamber of a carburetor should be one-eighth
level check of a float-type carburetor. inch below the main discharge outlet. When measuring
this level, your measurements should be taken away
A Use 5 pounds fuel pressure for the test if the car- from the edge of the float chamber since the fuel tends
buretor is to be used in a gravity fuel feed system. to cling to the walls of the chamber. If a measurement
B Block off the main and idle jets to prevent a con- were taken at the edge, an inaccurate measurement
tinuous flow of fuel through the jets. may result. Therefore answer (C) is correct. Answer (A)
C Do not measure the level at the edge of the float is wrong because there is no specific requirement that
chamber. fuel be pressurized to 5 pounds of pressure to set the
float level. Answer (B) is incorrect because an
insignificant amount of fuel will flow through the main
or idle jets in the absence of suction from the venturi.

What carburetor component measures the amount of A carburetor measures airflow through its induction
air delivered to the engine? system using a venturi. As air passes through the ven-
turi, its velocity increases and its pressure drops. The
A Economizer valve. pressure drop is proportional to the velocity and, there-
B Automatic mixture control. fore, is a measure of the airflow. Answer (A) is incor-
C Venturi. , rect because an economizer valve enrichens the
fuel/air mixture at high power settings and is controlled
by the throttle. Answer (B) is wrong because an auto-
matic mixture control responds to changes in ambient
temperature and pressure to adjust the fuel/air mixture.
7-43. M02 7-43. Answer A. JSPT 7-36

If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is If a float type carburetor leaks when an engine is shut
stopped, a likely cause is that the i : down, either the needle valve is not firmly seated or
the float level is adjusted too high. Based on this,
A float needle valve is worn or otherwise not answer (A) is correct. Answer (B) is wrong because if
seated the float level is adjusted to low, fuel will not reach the
properly. ■.■ ; : main discharge nozzle and the carburetor will not leak.
B float level is adjusted too low. Answer (C) is incorrect because a clogged main air
C main air bleed is clogged. bleed will cause an engine to run rich at high power
settings, but will not cause fuel to leak.
7-44. Answer A. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-44. M02 The main discharge nozzle cannot be used at idle
Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type car- speeds because there is insufficient airflow through the
buretor venturi to create enough of a pressure differential to
force fuel from the nozzle. Because of this, float-type
A rom the idle discharge nozzle. ■ carburetors employ an idle jet or idle discharge nozzle
B in the venturi. that takes advantage of the low pressure area between
C through the idle discharge air bleed. the throttle valve and throttle body. This idle jet pro-
vides sufficient fuel flow to allow an engine to run at
low rpm. Answer (B) is incorrect because the idle dis-
charge nozzle is located downstream of the venturi
and answer (C) is wrong because the idle air bleed dis-
charges air that mixes with the idle fuel but does not
discharge fuel.
7-45. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

7-45. M02 ■ ■- ■ To answer this question you must be familiar with
-• Bernoulli's Principle and Charles' Gas Law. Bernoulli's
When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, Principle states that when air flows through a converg-
what three changes occur? ing duct such as a carburetor venturi, its velocity rises
and its pressure drops. Charles' Law, on the other
A Velocity increases, temperature increases, and hand, states that pressure and temperature are directly
pressure decreases. B Velocity decreases, proportional. In other words, a decrease in pressure
temperature increases, and means a decrease in temperature. Therefore, when air
pressure increases. C Velocity increases, passes through a carburetor venturi, air velocity
temperature decreases, and decreases while air temperature and pressure
pressure decreases. decrease (answer C).
: ::
7-46. v M02 -^ '- - '- 7-46. Answer B. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)
■'"■■ '■-■ - - In a float-type carburetor, the throttle valve controls the
Where is the throttle valve located on a float-type car- mass airflow through the venturi and, therefore, must
buretor? be located downstream of both the venturi and the
main discharge nozzle. However, in pressure injection
A Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle. B carburetors the throttle valve is located after the venturi
After the main discharge nozzle and venturi. C and just before the main discharge nozzle (answers A
After the venturi and just before the main discharge and C).
nozzle.
7-47. Answer B. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)
7-47. M02 Carburetors are calibrated at sea level, and the correct
An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture con- fuel/air mixture is established at that altitude with the
trol in order to prevent the mixture from becoming too mixture control set in the FULL RICH position.
However, as altitude increases, the density of air enter-
A ean at high altitudes. ing the carburetor decreases while the density of the
B rich at high altitudes. fuel remains the same. This means that at higher alti-
C rich at high speeds. tudes, the mixture becomes progressively richer
(answer B). Therefore, the purpose of the mixture con-
trol is to allow the pilot to control the amount of fuel that
is mixed with the incoming air.
7-48. Answer B. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-48. M02 The venturi in a carburetor performs three functions. It
Which of the following is NOT a function of the car- proportions the fuel/air mixture, it decreases pressure at
buretor venturi? the discharge nozzle, and it limits the airflow at full
throttle. Based on this, the only choice that does not
A Proportions the air/fuel mixture. represent a function of the venturi is answer (B). The
B Regulates the idle system. reason for this is that the idle system introduces fuel
C Limits the airflow at full throttle. into the airflow downstream of the venturi at low throttle
settings and, therefore, is not affected by the venturi.
7-49. Answer A. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A) In float-type

carburetors with a back-suction type mixture control
7-49. M02 system, a certain amount of low pressure air from the
Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped venturi is vented to the float chamber to control the
with a back-suction mixture control by pressure differential between the float chamber and
venturi. By varying the pressure acting on the fuel in
A introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air the float chamber, the system varies the amount of fuel
into the float chamber. B turning the fuel being supplied to the engine. With this type of system,
selector valve to OFF. C the positive closing when the mixture is placed in the idle cutoff position,
of a needle and seat. the float chamber is filled with low pressure air from the
venturi eliminating the pressure differential. With no
difference in air pressure, there is no force to pump
fuel into the engine and, therefore, the engine quits
running. Answer (B) is wrong because the fuel selector
valve shuts off flow from the tank, not the carburetor,
and answer (C) is wrong because a needle and seat
are used to stop fuel flow to the float chamber, not to
stop the flow of fuel to the engine.
7-50. M02 7-50. Answer C. JSPT 7-25 (AC 65-12A) The main air
7-MJ. MUZ bleed on a float-type carburetor allows air to be mixed
One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor with the fuel being drawn out of the main discharge
is to nozzle to decrease fuel density and decrease surface
tension. This results in better fuel vaporization and
A increase fuel flow at altitude. allows better control of fuel discharge rates, especially
B meter air to adjust the mixture. at low engine speeds. Answer (A) is incorrect because
C decrease fuel density and destroy surface tension. fuel flow is a function of airflow through the venturi and
is not affected by the air bleed. Answer (B) is wrong
because an air bleed does not adjust the mixture, but
instead helps produce a more uniform mixture.

The float level in a float-type carburetor is determined
7-51. M02 by measuring the distance from the top of the fuel to
To determine the float level in a float-type carburetor, a the parting surface of the carburetor body or the point
measurement is usually made from the top of the fuel where the float chamber separates. Answer (B) is
in the float chamber to the wrong because the top of the float is a variable dimen-
sion and answer (C) is wrong because the main dis-
A parting surface of the carburetor. charge nozzle centerline is not identified in most
B top of the float. carburetors.
C centerline of the main discharge nozzle.
7-52. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)
In a float-type carburetor, the throttle valve controls the
7-52. M02 mass airflow through the venturi and, therefore, must
The throttle valve of float-type aircraft carburetors is be located downstream of the venturi and upstream of
located the engine (answer C). If the throttle valve were
located ahead of the venturi (answers A and B) the
A ahead of the venturi and main discharge nozzle. fuel/air charge delivered to the engine would not be
B after the main discharge nozzle and ahead of the uniform.
venturi. C between the venturi
and the engine. 7-53. Answer B. JSPT 7-27
When a reciprocating aircraft engine is idling, there is
7-53. M02 typically not enough air movement around the cylin-
Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture ders to provide sufficient cooling. Therefore, most
during idle? float-type carburetors provide a rich mixture during idle
to help cool the engine. Answer (A) is incorrect
A Engine operation at idle results in higher than because volumetric efficiency is always lower, not
normal volumetric efficiency. B Because at higher, during part-throttle operations such as idling.
idling speeds the engine may not have Answer (C) is wrong because mechanical efficiency is
enough airflow around the cylinders to provide reduced at low power settings regardless of the fuel/air
proper cooling. C Because of reduced mixture.
mechanical efficiency during
idle. .. -:.r ,.,.. ' :
7-54. Answer A. JSPT 7-29 (AC 65-12A)
7-54. M02 When the throttle valve is opened quickly, a large vol-
What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during ume of air rushes through the carburetor. To ensure
periods of rapid engine acceleration? that enough fuel is mixed with the onrush of air, carbu-
retors are equipped with a small fuel pump called an
A Acceleration pump. B accelerator pump that provides a short burst of fuel
Water injection pump. C when the throttle is advanced rapidly. Answer (B) is
Power enrichment unit. incorrect because a water injection pump injects a
water-alcohol mixture into the carburetor during takeoff
to produce more power. Answer (C) is wrong because
a power enrichment unit automatically enriches the
mixture at high power settings.
Fuel and Fuel Metering

The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture A mixture control on a carburetor controls the ratio of
to the cylinders is called a the fuel/air mixture by allowing a pilot to regulate the
amount of fuel introduced into the mixture. Depending
A throttle valve. B on the type of carburetor, the mixture control can be a
mixture control. C manual or an automatic device. Answer (A) is incorrect
metering jet. because a throttle valve determines the volume of the
fuel/air mixture that goes to the cylinders. Answer (C)
is wrong because a metering jet dictates the rate of
fuel discharge at a given differential pressure and does
not directly effect the mixture.

The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air The throttle valve controls the amount, or volume of
mixture to the cylinders is called a fuel/air mixture that is allowed to pass through the car-
buretor to the cylinders. Answer (A) is wrong because a
A mixture control. mixture control is used to control the amount of fuel
B metering jet. C that is added to the fuel/air mixture, and answer (B) is
throttle valve. incorrect because the metering jet dictates the rate of
fuel discharge, not its volume.

Which statement is correct regarding a Some continuous-flow fuel injection systems used on
continuous-flow fuel injection system used on many aircraft engines have a fuel discharge nozzle located in
reciprocating engines? each cylinder head. The nozzle outlet is directed into
the intake port where fuel and air are mixed just prior
A Fuel is injected directly into each cylinder. B to entering the cylinder. Although some systems inject
Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port. C Two fuel directly into each cylinder (answer A), this is not
injector nozzles are used in the injector fuel system for the case with continuous-flow systems. Answer (C) is
various speeds. incorrect because fuel injection systems rarely use two
injector nozzles per cylinder.

During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure According to Bernoulli's Principle, when airflows at a
drop in the carburetor venturi depends primarily upon continuous rate, its pressure is indirectly proportional to
the its velocity. Therefore, when air flow increases through
the venturi of a carburetor, air pressure decreases. The
A air temperature. faster the air flows through the venturi, the greater the
B barometric pressure. pressure drop. Neither air temperature (answer A) nor
C air velocity. -. ., - barometric pressure (answer B) affect pressure drop in
a carburetor venturi.
Which of the following causes a single diaphragm The accelerator pump in a pressure injection carburetor
accelerator pump to discharge fuel? . responds to changes in manifold pressure. For
example, when the throttle valve is opened rapidly
A An increase in venturi suction when the throttle manifold pressure increases and causes the accelera-
valve is open. B An increase in manifold tor pump to inject additional fuel into the carburetor
pressure that occurs throat to maintain the proper fuel/air mixture. Answer
when the throttle valve is opened. C A (A) is incorrect because the accelerator pump is
decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when located downstream of the venturi and is not exposed
the throttle valve is opened. to its suction. Answer (C) is wrong because manifold
pressure increases when the throttle valve is opened.

At what engine speed does the main metering jet actu- Fuel metering in a float-type carburetor is accom-
ally function as a metering jet in a float-type carbure- plished with either an idle jet or a main metering jet. At
tor? - ■.-■ : ■--. ■;■■: idle speeds, airflow through the venturi is not great
-,-■■■■ : - ■■■-... ■ :■■■■■-■ enough to draw fuel from the main discharge nozzle,
so an idle jet located between the throttle valve and
A AllRPM'S. : throttle body supplies fuel at low speeds when the
B Cruising RPM only. throttle valve is closed. However, at all speeds above
C All RPM's above idle range. idle, the main metering jet supplies the necessary fuel
to keep the engine running. Answer (A) is wrong
because the main metering jet cannot meter fuel at idle
speeds. Answer (B) is incorrect because the main
metering jet operates from just above idle speed to full
power and not just at cruising speeds.
7-61. Answer C. JSPT 7-45 (AC 65-12A)
7-61. M03 This question is asking when the fuel injection system
An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection discharges fuel into the intake port, not when the fuel
system normally discharges fuel during which enters the cylinders. In a continuous cylinder fuel injec-
stroke(s)? tion system, the injector pump is not timed to inject fuel
into the intake port at a specific time. Instead, fuel is
A Intake. ; always available at all intake ports. Therefore, answer
B Intake and compression. (C) is correct.
C All (continuously). 7-62. Answer B. JSPT 7-29 (AC 65-12A)
7-62. M03 When the throttle valve is opened quickly, a large vol-
What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating sys- ume of air rushes through the carburetor. To ensure-that
tem? enough fuel is mixed with the onrush of air, carburetors
are equipped with a small fuel pump called an
A Supply and regulate the fuel required for engine accelerator pump that provides a momentary burst of
speeds above idle. B Temporarily enrich the fuel that temporarily enriches the mixture when the
mixture when the throttle throttle is opened rapidly. Answer (A) is incorrect
is suddenly opened. C Supply and regulate because an accelerating system supplies fuel only dur-
additional fuel required for ing a rapid acceleration, not for sustained operation.
engine speeds above cruising. Answer (C) is wrong because the main metering jet
■ does not provide the additional fuel required during
rapid acceleration.
7-63. Answer B. JSPT 7-32 (AC 65-12A)

7-63. M03 A carburetor mixture set too rich is likely to cause the
When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture mixture to be too rich to allow the engine to idle prop
to allow the engine to idle, what would be a possible erly. Answer (A) is wrong because an open primer line
cause? would supply less fuel for priming and could cause
hard starting, but should not effect an engines ability to
A primer line open. idle. Answer (C) is wrong because an air leak in the
B Mixture setting too rich. intake manifold will cause a lean mixture, not a rich
;
C Air leak in the intake manifold. mixture. ,. -^ :
7-64. Answer A. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A)

7-64. M03 In a pressure injection carburetor, the accelerating
What is the relationship between the accelerating pump and the enrichment valve operate independently
pump and the enrichment valve in a pressure injection of each other (answer A). The accelerating pump
carburetor? senses rapid changes in manifold pressure and injects
fuel into the carburetor throat any time the throttle is
A No relationship since they operate independently. opened rapidly. On the other hand, the enrichment
B Fuel pressure affects both units. C The valve responds to metered fuel pressure to increase
accelerating pump actuates the enrichment valve. fuel flow to the discharge nozzle when the engine runs
at high power settings.
7-65. ■;■& M03 -.■-'■ - ' ''- ■"■ 7-65. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A) According to
V-" ■- ■"." Bernoulli's Principle, as the velocity of a fluid increases,
What is the relationship between the pressure existing its internal pressure decreases. In other words, pressure
within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air is inversely proportional to velocity. Answer (A) is wrong
passing through the venturi? ■■."> ■■• because, as Bernoulli's Principle states, pressure and
velocity are inversely related. Answer (B) is incorrect
A There is no direct relationship between the pres- because pressure is inversely proportional to velocity,
sure and the velocity. not directly proportional. ■
B The pressure is directly proportional to the
velocity.
C The pressure is inversely proportional to the
velocity. -; ■ ■■ ,: 7-66. Answer C. JSPT 7-44 (AC 65-12A) Backfiring is
a condition that occurs when the fuel/air mixture within
7-66. :^ :■ M03 ■■.^.■>r<- ^. ■ the induction system ignites and explodes when the
■ ■-■■. ■ ■■-■■■■■ ■ Which of the following intake valve opens. In a direct cylinder fuel injection
is least likely to occur during operation of an engine system, the intake valve only allows air to enter the
equipped with a direct cylinder fuel injection system? cylinder, while the fuel is injected through a separate
nozzle. This eliminates any mixing of fuel and air in the
A Afterfiring. induction system which, in turn, prevents backfiring.
B Kickback during start. Answer (A) is incorrect because a direct cylinder fuel
C Backfiring. injection system is susceptible to afterfiring when
unbumed fuel enters an engine's exhaust system and
ignites. In addition, direct cylinder fuel injection systems
can experience kickback during start (answer (B), which
is a reverse rotation of the propeller during an engine
start that is caused by premature ignition.
7-67. Answer B. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

The throttle valve limits the airflow through the carbure-
7-67. M03 tor at all throttle settings except full throttle. At full throt-
What carburetor component actually limits the desired tle, the throttle valve is opened all the way leaving only
maximum airflow to the engine at full throttle? the venturi to limit the airflow. The manifold intake
(answer C) is comparatively large in relation to the
A Throttle valve. venturi and, therefore, does not limit maximum airflow.
B Venturi.
C Manifold intake. 7-68. Answer A. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)
As altitude increases, the air becomes less dense.
7-68. M03 Therefore, if the fuel/air mixture is not leaned as an air-
On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control craft ascends, the mixture will become excessively rich
as you ascend to altitude, the mixture will (answer A). Answer (B) is wrong because, at altitude, if
the same amount of fuel is mixed with less air, a rich
A be enriched. mixture will result. Answer (C) is incorrect because, if
B be leaned. the carburetor does not compensate for the less dense
C not be affected. air, the fuel/air mixture is affected.
7-69. Answer A. JSPT 7-32 (AC 65-12A)

7-69. M03 When adjusting a carburetor's idle speed or mixture,
The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting the engine should be warmed up and operating in its
normal temperature range, since fuel vaporization
A is adjusted with engine warmed up and operating. qualities are different in an engine when it is cold.
B should give minimum RPM with maximum man- Therefore, any adjustment made on a cold engine will
ifold pressure. not be accurate. Answer (B) is wrong because a cor-
C is usually adjusted in the following sequence; rectly adjusted carburetor should give maximum rpm
speed first, then mixture. with maximum manifold pressure. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because, in flight, you do not adjust the speed of
the aircraft, you adjust the propeller rpm or the mani-
fold pressure.
7-70. M03 9-62. Answer A.

A nine-cylinder radial engine, using a multiple-point On radial engines, fluids tend to seep into the lower
priming system with a central spider, will prime which cylinders and cause liquid lock. To prevent adding to
cylinders? this problem, the priming system on a radial engine
only primes the cylinders that are horizontal or pointing
A One, two, three, eight, and nine. " upward. Therefore, on a nine-cylinder radial engine,
B All cylinders. only cylinders one, two, three, eight, and nine are
C One, three, five, and seven. . primed. Answer (B) is incorrect because priming the
■■-. /■■ lower cylinders on a radial engine could lead to liquid
lock. Answer (C) is wrong because cylinders five and
seven on a nine-cylinder radial engine are below the
engine's horizontal axis and, therefore, are not typically
primed.
7-71. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-71. M03 The idle jet in a float-type carburetor utilizes an idle air
What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float-type bleed that allows air to be mixed with the fuel before it
carburetor? enters the carburetor throat This aids in vaporizing fuel
before it is drawn into the cylinder. The idle air bleed
A It provides a means for adjusting the mixture at does not adjust the mixture at idle speeds (answer A)
idle speeds. nor does it actually vaporize fuel at idle speeds
B It vaporizes the fuel at idling speeds. C It aids (answer B).
in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle
speeds.
7-72. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)
7-72. M03 According to Bernoulli's Principle, fluid pressure and
If the volume of air passing through a carburetor ven- velocity are inversely related. In other words, as the
turi is reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will velocity of a fluid increases, its internal pressure
decreases and when the velocity of a fluid decreases,
A decrease. its internal pressure increases. Therefore, if the volume
B be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet. of air flowing through a carburetor decreases, the pres-
C increase. sure will increase.
7-73. M04 ■■ ■■■:■■'■ 7-73. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

■'■'. ■ ■ " At idle speeds, an engine requires a rich fuel/air mix-
(Refer to figure 6.) Which curve most nearly represents ture so there is additional fuel available for cooling.
an aircraft engine's fuel/air ratio throughout its operat- However, as engine speed is increased to a cruise set-
ting, the additional ram airflow created by the propeller
in rang
and forward section of the aircraft cool the engine suffi-
gA -1.
e ciently and fuel requirements decrease. Then, as
-B- -3. power output approaches maximum, additional fuel is
C- -2. again required to aid in cooling and help prevent deto-
nation. Based on this, curve number two (answer C)
best represents an aircraft engine's fuel/air ratio
throughout its operating range.
k
> RICH > * RICH \
U
R
U
R
E
E
F
T
M
M
X
_ ■ ---
"
I
\
—
___ - - - — ----
- —
-
rLEAN ^~ > rLEAN
IDLE I\r1 FULL IDLE M FULL

THROTTLE THROTTLE
- -
RP RP
1 2
1 i k
> RICH RICH
U
R
U
R
E
E
F
\
N
/ \
X \ X ^^
■>
\ __
f LEAN \ > rLEAN
IDLE FULL IDLE - M FULL
- THROTTLE RP THROTTLE
RP \
Figure 6. Fuel/Air Ratio Graphs.

7-74. M04 7-74. Answer A. JSPT 7-53 (AC 65-12A) Pressure

What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure carburetors employ vapor venting systems that take
carburetor loses its buoyancy? the excess fuel vapor created in the fuel system and
direct it back to the fuel tank. With this type of system,
A The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank air enters the vented chamber and displaces the fuel
from the carburetor will be increased. thereby lowering the fuel level. When the fuel level
B The engine will continue to run after the mixture reaches a predetermined level, the float pulls down on
control is placed in IDLE CUTOFF. the vapor vent valve and allows fuel vapor to flow back
C A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds. to the fuel tank. Based on this, if the vapor vent valve
should stick open or the float become filled with fuel
and sink, fuel and fuel vapor continuously flow back to
the fuel tank (answer A). Answer (B) is incorrect
because an engine will shut down normally with a
defective vapor vent valve or float. Answer (C) is wrong
because the vapor vent valve only affects the fuei/air
mixture when the valve sticks closed, not when it sticks
open.

What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed Idle speed on engines using a float-type carburetor is
adjustments on a float-type carburetor? adjusted by limiting how far the throttle valve will close.
This is usually accomplished with an adjustable throttle
A An adjustable throttle stop or linkage. stop or linkage. Although an orifice and adjustable
B An orifice and adjustable tapered needle. tapered needle (answers B and C) are often used on
C An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway automobile engines, this arrangement is not used on
which connects the airspace of the float chamber aircraft engines. ;.?,;
and the carburetor venturi.

For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel con- The primary reason for trimming a turbine engine is to
trol unit trimmed? ensure that the desired thrust is obtained when the
power lever is in the full power position (answer A).
A To obtain maximum thrust output when desired. Answer (B) is wrong because power levers are not typ-
B To properly position the power levers. ically adjusted when an engine is trimmed. Answer (C)
is incorrect because, although idle speed is checked
C To adjust the idle RPM. and adjusted on a trim run, the ability to obtain maxi-
mum thrust on demand is the primary purpose of trim-
ming a fuel control unit.
7-77. Answer C. JSPT 7-60 (AC 65-12A) Most fuel

7-77. M04 controls in use today are hydromechanical or electronic.
Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's Answer (A) is incorrect because "electromechanical"
turbine engines? fuel control units do not exist. Answer (B) is wrong
because mechanical fuel controls are rarely, if ever,
A lectromechanical. used on modern turbine engines.
B Mechanical.
C Hydromechanical or electronic.
7-78. Answer C. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-12A) The ideal
7-78. M04 conditions for trimming a turbine engine are no wind,
Under which of the following conditions will the trim- low humidity, and standard temperature and pressure.
ming of a turbine engine be most accurate? Because standard day conditions seldom exist, engine
manufacturers produce trim charts to compensate for
A High wind and high moisture. nonstandard conditions. Attempting to trim an engine in
B High moisture and low wind. any wind (answers A and B) will result in an inaccurate
C No wind and low moisture. trim.
7-79. - M04 7-79. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A) Both

(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled reci statements (1) and (2) are true. Rich mixtures are
procating engines is richer than the mixture used required at idle speeds and at full rated power to aid in
through the normal cruising range. engine cooling. However, since there is more airflow
(2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating over the engine running at its rated power than when
engines is richer than the mixture used at rated the engine is idling, the mixture used at idle is typically
power. richer than the mixture used at rated power.
Regarding the above statements,
A only No. 1 is true. ■■■--■:

B only No. 2 is true.
C both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

During idle mixture adjustments, which of the follow- When adjusting the mixture on an idling engine, you
ing is normally observed to determine when the correct should observe the engine rpm gauge on aircraft with a
mixture has been achieved? fixed-pitch propeller and the manifold pressure gauge
on aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers. In
A Changes in fuel/air pressure ratio. either case, the power output will increase to a maxi-
B Fuel flowmeter. mum when the mixture is set properly. Answer (A) is
C Changes in RPM or manifold pressure. wrong because there is no practical way to determine a
fuel/air pressure ratio. Answer (B) is wrong because a
fuel flowmeter is not precise enough to determine the
correct mixture at idle speeds.

An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been When the mixture is adjusted properly, engine power
obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to output will be at maximum as indicated by the manifold
IDLE CUTOFF and manifold pressure pressure gauge. Therefore, when the mixture is moved
to the idle cutoff position, it will become excessively
A decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly lean and engine power will decrease immediately,
before the engine ceases to fire. B increases causing a decrease in manifold pressure. This drop in
momentarily and RPM drops slightly manifold pressure will allow the engine to momentarily
before the engine ceases to fire. C decreases rotate faster causing an increase in rpm before the
and RPM increases momentarily before engine ceases to fire.
the engine ceases to fire.
7-82. M04 7-82. Answer A. JSPT 7-27

The use of less than normal throttle opening during The position of the throttle valve determines the
starting will cause amount of air that flows into the engine. When an
engine is started, a high vacuum is created on the
A rich mixture. B a lean engine side of the throttle. Therefore, if the throttle
mixture. C backfire due to lean valve opening is less than normal at this time, the high
fuel/air ratio. vacuum will draw excessive fuel from the idle jet and
create a richer than normal mixture. Both answers (B)
and (C) are wrong because the resulting mixture will be
rich, not lean.

When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the On engines that do not use a manifold pressure gauge,
engine should be idling normally, then pull the mixture you must observe the tachometer for an indication of
control toward the IDLE CUTOFF position. A correct correct idle mixture. In most cases, the idle mixture
idling mixture will be indicated by should be adjusted so that when the mixture control is
pulled toward the idle cutoff position, a 10 to 50 rpm
A an immediate decrease in RPM. rise occurs prior to a rapid decrease as the engine
B a decrease of 20 to 30 RPM before quitting. ceases to fire. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect
C an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing. because a correct idling mixture is indicated by an rpm
increase, not a decrease.

When a new carburetor is installed on an engine, When a new carburetor is installed on an engine, the
idle speed and mixture must be set. These adjust-
A warm up the engine and adjust the float level. ments should be made after the engine has been oper-
B do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was ating long enough to achieve normal cylinder head
accomplished on the flow bench. temperatures. Answer (A) is incorrect because the float
C and the engine is warmed up to normal tempera- level is checked and adjusted during the assembly
tures, adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed. process when the carburetor is off engine. Answer (B)
is wrong because a final idle adjustment must be per-
formed after a new carburetor is installed on an engine.
7-85. Answer B. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A)

7-85. M04 The back-suction type mixture control system controls
The purpose of the back-suction mixture control in a the amount of fuel injected into the carburetor throat by
float-type carburetor is to adjust the mixture by controlling pressure differential between the carburetor
throat and float chamber. This is done by allowing a
A regulating the pressure drop at the venturi. B certain amount of venturi low pressure air to act on the
regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float fuel in the float chamber. Answer (A) is wrong because
chamber. C regulating the suction on the the throttle valve, not the back suction, regulates the
mixture from behind pressure drop at the venturi. Answer (C) is incorrect
the throttle valve. ' because it is not possible to regulate the suction on the
mixture from behind the throttle valve.
7-86. Answer B. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-9A) Water vapor

7-86. M04 is a non-combustible gas. Therefore, when humid air is
Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all drawn into an engine, the engine's volumetric efficiency
altitudes if the decreases, causing a decrease in engine power.
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because increasing
A air density is increased. ■ either air density or manifold pressure will increase
B humidity is increased. engine power at altitude.
C manifold pressure is increased.
7-87. Answer B. JSPT 7-26 (AC 65-12A) At low
7-87. M04 engine speeds there is insufficient airflow through the
If the idling jet becomes clogged in a float-type carbu- carburetor to allow the main discharge nozzle to
retor, the operate properly; therefore, a separate idle jet is
installed in the low pressure area between the throttle
A engine operation will not be affected at any valve and throttle body to supply fuel for idling. If an
RPM. idle jet should become clogged, the engine will not idle.
B engine will not idle. Answer (A) is wrong because engine operation is
C idle mixture becomes richer. seriously affected at idle rpm if the idling jet becomes
clogged, and answer (C) is incorrect because a clogged
idling jet reduces fuel flow to the carburetor and,
therefore, results in a leaner mixture.

An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure-type car- Aircraft engines using pressure-type carburetors are
buretor is started with the generally started using the primer with the mixture con-
trol in the idle cutoff position. Then, as soon as the
A primer while the mixture control is positioned engine starts, the mixture control is moved to the full
at rich position while the primer is released as soon as
IDLE CUTOFF. the rpm indicates the engine is receiving fuel. Answer
B mixture control in the FULL-RICH position. C (B) is incorrect because float-type carburetors, not
primer while the mixture control is positioned at pressure-type carburetors, are started with the mixture
the FULL-LEAN position. control in the FULL-RICH position. Answer (C) is
wrong because pressure-type carburetors do not have
a FULL-LEAN mixture position.
7-89. Answer B. JSPT 7-43 (AC 65-12A)

7-89. M04 A water injection system adds an alcohol-water com-
One of the best ways to increase engine power and pound to the fuel/air mixture to allow an engine to
control detonation and preignition is to achieve higher manifold pressures and corresponding
increase in power without promoting detonation.
A enrich the fuel/air mixture. Answer (A) is incorrect because enriching the fuel/air
B use water injection. mixture beyond a certain point does not increase
C lean the fuel/air mixture. engine power, and answer (C) is wrong because a lean
fuel/air mixture increases the chances of experiencing
detonation at high power settings.
7-90. Answer A. JSPT 7-21 (AC 65-12A)

7-90. M04 When an engine is operated on a lean mixture, all the
An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause fuel in the mixture is used to support combustion and
there is no excess fuel left to aid in engine cooling.
A an increase in cylinder head temperature. Therefore, lean fuel/air mixtures typically cause an
B high oil pressure. increase in cylinder head temperatures. Answer (B) is
C backfiring through the exhaust. incorrect because high cylinder head temperatures typ-
ically produce a lower oil pressure, not a high oil pres-
sure. Answer (C) is wrong because backfiring occurs in
the induction system, not through the exhaust.
7-91. Answer B. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-9A)

7-91. M04 For a given volume, air containing water vapor weighs
The density of air is very important when mixing fuel approximately five-eighths as much as dry air.
and air to obtain a correct fuel-to-air ratio. Which of Therefore, 100 percent dry air (answer B) weighs more
the following weighs the most? than a mixture of dry air and water vapor.
A 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.

B 100 parts of dry air.
C 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
7-92. Answer C. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A)
7-92. ^'^ M0 4 - .-'■:.:. - .,.■. , A An air/fuel mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers In any air/fuel mixture ratio, the larger number always
to refers to the amount of air in the mixture. Therefore, an
air/fuel mixture ratio of 11:1 is 1 part fuel to 11 parts air
A a stoichiometric mixture. (answer C). Answer (A) is incorrect because a stoichio-
B 1 part air to 11 parts fuel. metric mixture is considered to be approximately 15
C 1 part fuel to 11 parts parts of air to 1 part fuel. Answer (B) is incorrect
air. because a air/fuel ratio of 1 part air to 11 parts fuel is
too rich to burn in a reciprocating engine.

The economizer system in a float-type carburetor In order for an engine to effectively operate at high
power settings, the fuel/air mixture must be rich so
A keeps the fuel/air ratio constant. there is additional fuel available to aid in cylinder cool-
B functions only at cruise and idle speeds. ing. On engines equipped with an economizer system,
C increases the fuel/air ratio at high power when the throttle is advanced beyond approximately
settings. 70 percent power the economizer valve opens and
automatically enriches the fuel/air mixture. Answer (A)
is wrong because an economizer system automatically
changes the fuel/air ratio. Answer (B) is incorrect
because an economizer system only operates at
power settings above cruise power.
7-94. Answer C. JSPT 7-29 (AC 65-12A) When the

7-94. M04 throttle valve is opened quickly, a large volume of air
A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during rushes into the carburetor. To prevent the fuel/air
quick acceleration by the mixture from becoming excessively lean when the
additional air enters the engine, most carburetors are
A power enrichment system. ■". .; ; equipped with an accelerating system that provides a
■ momentary burst of fuel to maintain the proper mixture.
B mixture control system. Answer (A) is incorrect because a power enrichment
C accelerating system. \ system enriches the mixture at high power settings to
prevent detonation and does not help during periods of
quick acceleration. Answer (B) is wrong because a
mixture control system compensates for changes in air
density encountered at high altitudes.
7-95. Answer B. JSPT 7-68 (AC 65-12A) With aircraft

that utilize a pressurization and dump valve the "dump"
7-95 feature refers to the dumping of fuel from the fuel
In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and manifold after engine shutdown. Manifold dumping
dump valve, the dump portion of the valve sharply cuts off combustion and drains the manifold
lines of fuel to prevent fuel boiling and eliminate solid
A cuts off fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold deposits in the manifold. Answers (A) and (C) are
and dumps the manifold fuel into the combustor incorrect because a pressurization and dump valve
to bum just before the engine shuts down. does not dump any fuel into the engine on shutdown.
B drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel
boiling and subsequent deposits in the lines as a
result of residual engine heat (at engine shut-
down).
C dumps extra fuel into the engine in order to pro-
vide for quick engine acceleration during rapid 7-96. Answer C. JSPT 7-70 (AC 65-12A) Of the air
throttle advancement. consumed by a turbine engine, only about 25 percent is
used to support combustion. Because of this, high
7-96. M04 atmospheric humidity has very little effect on the thrust
What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on produced by a jet engine. Furthermore, neither engine
the operation of a jet engine? pressure ratio (answer A) nor compressor and turbine
rpm (answer B) decreases noticeably.
A Decreases engine pressure ratio.
B Decreases compressor and turbine RPM. :
C Has little or no effect.
7-97. M04 7-97. Answer B. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A) To

What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder compensate for decreases in air density, an automatic
head temperature at sea level or low altitudes? mixture control decreases fuel flow from the carburetor
as an aircraft climbs to higher altitudes. However, if the
A Mixture control valve fully closed. automatic mixture control were to malfunction and stick
B Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended in the extended position, the fuel/air mixture would
position. C Defective become progressively leaner as the aircraft descends
accelerating system. to lower altitudes. With a lean mixture, there is little
excess fuel available to aid in engine cooling, so
engines that run on a lean mixture typically have high
cylinder head temperatures. Answer (A) is wrong
because a mixture control valve in the fully closed
position will cause the engine to stop running. Answer (C)
is incorrect because an accelerating system is only
operational when the throttle is advanced rapidly and
augments the fuel mixture for a short period of time.

Which of the following is NOT an input parameter for Atypical fuel control senses a number of engine vari-
a turbine engine fuel control unit? ables, depending upon the installation. For example, a
standard fuel control unit can sense engine speed, inlet
A Compressor inlet pressure. pressure, compressor discharge pressure, burner can
B Compressor inlet temperature. ; pressure, and compressor inlet temperature. Based on
C Ambient humidity. this, the only choice listed that is not an input parameter
for a fuel control unit is ambient humidity (answer C).
7-99. Answer A. JSPT 7-22 (AC 65-12A)

7-99. M04 Detonation is the explosive, or rapid combustion of
Detonation occurs when the air/fuel mixture unburned fuel in a cylinder that results in an extremely
rapid pressure rise. Detonation can happen any time
A burns too fast. ' >■: an engine overheats or if the improper fuel grade is
B ignites before the time of normal ignition. used. Answer (B) is wrong because burning before the
C is too rich. time of normal ignition is called preignition and is
caused by residual hot spots in the combustion cham-
ber. Answer (C) is incorrect because detonation typi-
cally occurs when the air/fuel mixture is too lean, not
too rich.
7-100. Answer A. JSPT 7-25 (AC 65-12A)

7-100, M04 If a carburetor leaks fuel from the discharge nozzle, it is
What corrective action should be taken when a carbu- an indication that the fuel level is too high in the float
retor is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge chamber. A high fuel level can be caused by a float that
nozzle? .'v- ! - :"- :''-■'": '■■'.-■■■■ "■' is adjusted too high, a leaking or saturated float, dirt
trapped between the needle and seat, or a worn nee-
A Replace the needle valve and seat. dle and seat. Based on this and the choices given, the
B Raise the float level. only logical choice would be to replace the needle
C Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked. valve and seat (answer A). Answer (B) is wrong
because raising the float level could increase the leak-
age. Answer (C) is incorrect because simply turning off
the fuel does not fix the problem.
7-101. M04 7-101. Answer C. JSPT 7-52 (ITP-P2)

A major difference between the Teledyne- Continental The RSA fuel injection system relies on both air and
and RSA (Precision Airmotive or Bendix) continuous fuel forces to provide the correct pressure differential
flow fuel injection systems in fuel metering is that the across the primary metering jet. The
Teledyne-Continental injection system, on the other
A RSA system uses air pressure only as a metering hand, uses a special fuel pump to produce the fuel
force. B Continental system utilizes airflow metering pressure. Answer (A) is incorrect because an
as a metering RSA system meters fuel based on a pressure drop that
force. C Continental system uses fuel is proportional to airflow through the venturi. Answer (B)
pressure only as a is wrong because the Continental system does not use
metering force. airflow as a metering force.
7-102. M04 7-102. Answer A. JSPT 7-54 (ITP-P2)

The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid Some Teledyne Continental fuel injection systems
valve used with the Teledyne-Continental fuel injec- employ an altitude compensating aneroid valve to pre-
tion system on many turbocharged engines is to vent an overly rich mixture during sudden acceleration.
To accomplish this, an evacuated bellows responds to
A prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden upper deck pressure to control the size of a variable
acceleration. orifice. When the throttle is suddenly opened, the
B prevent detonation at high altitudes. C aneroid holds the orifice open until the volume of air
provide a means of enriching the mixture during flowing into the engine increases. Answer (B) is incor-
sudden acceleration. rect because detonation is prevented at high altitudes
by not over leaning the fuel/air mixture. Answer (C) is
wrong because an accelerating pump, not the altitude
compensating valve, enriches the fuel mixture during
sudden acceleration.
7-103. M04 7-103. Answer C. JSPT 7-50 (AC 65-12A) Some

The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used continuous flow fuel injector nozzles have air bleed
with continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to holes that allow air to mix with fuel to help vaporize the
fuel. Answer (A) is incorrect because mixture control is
A provide for automatic mixture control. accomplished by the fuel control. Answer (B) is wrong
B lean out the mixture. because the amount of air admitted by the air bleeds is
C aid in proper fuel vaporization. insufficient to lean the mixture.
7-104. N01 7-104. Answer B . JSPT 7-12 (AC 65-9A) When an

During what period does the fuel pump bypass valve aircraft's boost pump pressure exceeds that of the
open and remain open? primary fuel pressure pump, a bypass valve in the
pressure pump opens and allows fuel to flow directly to
A When the fuel pump pressure is greater than the engine. This occurs during start, when the
the demand of the engine. pressure pump is not operating, and any time the
engine driven fuel pump becomes clogged or fails.
B When the boost pump pressure is greater than Answer (A) is incorrect because fuel pump pressure
fuel pump pressure. has no effect on the fuel pump bypass valve. Answer
C When the fuel pump output is greater than the (C) is wrong because a relief valve will bypass fuel
demand of the carburetor. when the pump output is greater than the carburetor's
demand.
7-105. NO1 7-105. Answer C. JSPT 7-10 (AC 65-9A) A positive

Which of the following statements concerning a displacement pump provides a fixed quantity of fuel per
centrifugal-type fuel boost pump located in a fuel pump revolution. With a centrifugal-type fuel boost
supply tank is NOT true? pump, once the pressure builds to a predetermined
pressure, fuel bypasses the impeller and remains in
A Air and fuel vapors do not pass through a the fuel tank. Therefore, the pump does not continually
centrifugal-type pump. displace fuel and is not a positive displacement pump.
B Fuel can be drawn through the impeller section Since the question asked for the statement that is not
of the pump when it is not in operation. true, answer (C) is the correct choice.
C The centrifugal-type pump is classified as a
positive displacement pump.
7-106. N01 7-106. Answer A. JSPT 7-3 (14 CFR 23.995)

Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually cant According to the 14 CFR 23.995, the engine fuel
located? shut-off valve may not be located on the engine side of
the firewall. Therefore, answer A is correct. Answers (B)
A after of the firewall. and (C) are incorrect because they identify areas that
B Adjacent to the fuel pump. are located on the engine side of the firewall.
C Downstream of the engine-driven fuel pump.
7-107. Answer C. JSPT 7-9 (AC 65-9A)
7-107. N01 The primary purpose of a fuel boost pump is to provide
a positive flow of fuel to the engine driven pump.
Boost pumps in a fuel system
Answer (A) is incorrect because boost pumps are used
during landing, when experiencing turbulence, and in
A operate during takeoff only.
emergency situations as well as during takeoff. Answer
B are primarily used for fuel transfer. (B) is wrong because, although some boost pumps are
used to transfer fuel, this is not their primary function.
C provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine
pump. 7-108. Answer B. JSPT 7-14 (AC 65-12A)
A fuel transfer ejector helps transfer fuel from the main
tank to the boost pump sump by creating a low pres-
7-108. N01 sure area at the fuel pick-up point. By pumping fuel
past the venturi in the injector, a low pressure area is
(Refer to figure 7.) What is the purpose of the fuel
created that drains fuel into the line that feeds the
transfer ejectors?
boost pump sump. Answer (A) is wrong because ejec-
A To supply fuel under pressure to the engine-dri- tors do not supply fuel under pressure, and answer (C)
is incorrect because transfer ejectors transfer fuel from
ven pump.
the wing tank to the boost pump sump, not from the
B To assist in the transfer of fuel from the main
boost pump sump to the wing tank.
tank to the boost pump sump.
C To transfer fuel from the boost pump sump to the
7-109. Answer B. JSPT 7-12 (AC 65-9A)
wing tank.
When an aircraft's boost pump pressure is greater than
that of the main pressure pump, a bypass valve in the
pressure pump opens and allows fuel to flow directly to
7-109. N01
the engine. This prevents a damaged or inoperative
What is the purpose of an engine-driven fuel pump
pump from blocking fuel flow to the engine (answer B).
bypass valve?
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because diverting
fuel back to the main tank or back to the inlet side of
A To divert the excess fuel back to the main tank.
the pump could starve the engine of fuel.
B To prevent a damaged or inoperative pump from
blocking the fuel flow of another pump in series
with it.
C To divert the excess fuel from the pressure side of
the pump to the inlet side of the pump.
FUELTRANSFER ■FUELTRANSFE
EJECTOR R EJECTOR
LEFT
LH BOOST RH BOOST
PUMP PUMP
FUEL — RIGHT
TANK FUEL
CHECKVALVE TANK
RH
TANK SHUT-OFF
FLAPPER VALVE CROSS-FEED
VALVE BOOST PUMP SUMP
BOOST PUMP SUMP
--------- CHECK
LH
SHUT-OFF VALVE
VALVE
VALVE
PUMP CROSS
FEED VALVE
TO LEFT TO RIGHT
ENGINE FWD ENGINE
TOP VIEW
Figure 7. Fuel System.
7-110. N01 7-110. Answer A. JSPT 7-8 (AC 65-S The purpose of
Most large aircraft reciprocating engines are equipped the engine-driven fuel pump is to deliver a continuous
with which of the following types of engine-driven supply of fuel at the proper pressure at all times during
fuel pumps? engine operation. Therefore, a positive displacement
A pump must be used. One type of positive displacement
- Rotary-vane-type fuel pump. pump that is widely used is the rotary-vane-type fuel
B - Centrifugal-type fuel pump. pump (answer A). Answer (B) is incorrect because
- Gear-type fuel pump. centrifugal-type fuel pumps are not positive
C displacement, and answer (C) is wrong because
gear-type pumps are not commonly used as fuel
pumps.
7-111. N01 7-111. Answer B. JSPT 7-9 (AC 65-9A) Engine-driven

The fuel pump relief valve directs excess fuel to the fuel pumps typically discharge more fuel than an engine
requires. Therefore, fuel systems must incorporate a
A fuel tank return line. relief valve to prevent the buiid up of excessive fuel
B inlet side of the fuel pump. pressures at the carburetor. A typical fuel pump relief
C inlet side of the fuel strainer. valve is spring-loaded and, when opened, allows
excess fuel to flow back to the inlet side of the fuel
pump. Answer (A) is wrong because fuel tanks rarely
utilize return lines, and answer (C) is incorrect because
fuel is routed to the inlet side of the fuel pump, not the
inlet side of the strainer.
7-112. N01 7-112. Answer C. JSPT 7-8 (AC 65-9A)

Which type of pump is commonly used as a fuel pump The purpose of the engine-driven fuel pump is to
on reciprocating engines? deliver a continuous supply of fuel at the proper pres-
sure at all times during engine operation. Therefore, a
A Gear. positive displacement pump must be used. One type of
B Impeller. positive displacement pump that is widely used is the
C Vane. rotary-vane-type fuel pump (answer C). Answer (A) is
incorrect because gear-type pumps do not efficiently
pump low-viscosity fluids such as fuel. Answer (B) is
wrong because impeller pumps are not positive dis-
placement pumps and, therefore, are used as boost
pumps rather than primary fuel pumps.
7-113. N01
The purpose of the diaphragm in most vane-type fuel 7-113. Answer C. JSPT 7-9 (AC 65-9A)
pumps is to In a compensated vane-type fuel pump, the fuel pres-
sure delivered to the carburetor inlet varies with alti-
A maintain fuel pressure below atmospheric pres- tude and atmospheric pressure. This is done by
sure. allowing spring tension and either atmospheric or car-
B equalize fuel pressure at all speeds. buretor inlet air pressure to act on a diaphragm which
C compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes. controls the pump's relief valve. As the amount of pres-
sure acting on the diaphragm varies, the pressure at
which the relief valve bypasses fuel back to the pump's
inlet varies. Answer (A) is incorrect because maintain-
ing fuel pressure below atmospheric pressure would
allow air to enter the inlet side of the pump, causing
cavitation. Answer (B) is wrong because the relief
valve is adjusted to maintain a certain fuel pressure at
all speeds.
7-114. N01
The primary condition(s) that allow(s) microorganisms 7-114. Answer B. JSPT 7-13 (AC 65-9A)
to grow in the fuel in aircraft fuel tanks is (are) There are over 100 different varieties of microorgan-
isms which can live in the free water which accumu-
A warm temperatures and frequent fueling. lates in the sumps of aircraft fuel tanks. Because they
thrive in water, the best way to prevent their growth is
B the presence of water. to eliminate the water through proper fuel handling pro-
C the presence of dirt or other particulate contami- cedures. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because
nants. neither warm temperatures, frequent fueling, nor the
presence of particulate contaminants allow microor-
ganisms to grow in the absence of water.
7-115. N02 7-115. Answer A. JSPT 7-8 (AC 65-12A)

It is desirable that fuel lines have a gentle slope upward To reduce the possibility of vapor lock, fuel lines are
or downward and not have sharp curves or sharp rises kept away from heat sources, are sometimes wrapped
and/or falls in order to with insulation, and are installed in a smooth, flowing
manner with no sharp bends. Answer (B) is wrong
A prevent vapor lock. because stagnation and "pooling" of fuel in the fuel
B prevent stagnation or "pooling" of fuel in the lines is not a problem. Answer (C) is incorrect because
fuel lines. the way a fuel line is installed has little to do with how
C minimize the generation of static electricity by much static electricity is generated by the flow of fuel.
decreasing fluid friction in the lines.
7-116. N02 7-116. Answer B. JSPT 7-3 (14 CFR 23.1189)

The fuel systems of aircraft certificated in the standard According to 14 CFR 23.1189, aircraft that are certified
classification must include which of the following? in the normal category must have a positive means of
shutting off the fuel to all engines. Answer (A) is incor-
A An engine-driven fuel pump and at least one aux- rect because there is no requirement that each engine
iliary pump per engine. have an engine-driven fuel pump or auxiliary fuel
B A positive means of shutting off the fuel to all pump. Answer (C) is wrong because the reserve fuel
engines. supply is determined by the pilot during flight planning
C A reserve supply of fuel, available to the engine and is not a factor in designing a fuel system.
only after selection by the flightcrew, sufficient to
operate the engines at least 30 minutes at METO
power.
7-117. N02 7-117. Answer B. JSPT 7-8 (AC 65-9A)

Where should the main fuel strainer be located in the The main fuel strainer in an aircraft's fuel system is
aircraft fuel system? installed so that fuel flows through it before reaching
the engine-driven pump. Furthermore, the strainer is
A Downstream from the wobble pump check valve. typically located at the lowest point in the fuel system so
B At the lowest point in the fuel system. that water and other debris can collect in the strainer,
where they can be drained from the system. Answer (A)
C At any point in the system lower than the is incorrect because locating the main fuel strainer
carburetor strainer. downstream from the wobble pump would allow
contaminants to enter the pump and damage it. Answer
(C) is wrong because the main fuel strainer must be
located at the lowest point in the system to allow
collection and draining of water and other contaminants.
7-118. Answer A. JSPT 7-7 (AC 43.13-1B)

Every effort should be made to physically separate
7-118. N02 electric wiring and lines carrying flammable fluids.
Where physical separation of the fuel lines from However, when separation is impractical, electrical wire
electrical wiring or conduit is impracticable, locate the should be located above the flammable fluid line and
fuel line both the electrical line and fluid line should be securely
clamped to structure. Answers (B) and (C) are wrong
A below the wiring and clamp the line securely to because locating the fuel line above or beside
the airframe structure. electrical wiring could allow fuel to come in contact with
B above the wiring and clamp the line securely the wiring and ignite.
to the airframe structure.
C inboard of the wiring and clamp both securely
to the airframe structure. 7-119. Answer A. JSPT 7-10 (AC 65-9A)
The swirling action of a centrifugal boost pump impeller
7-119. N02 separates air and vapor from fuel before it enters the
What is a characteristic of a centrifugal-type fuel boost fuel line to the carburetor. By removing air and vapor,
pump? the possibility of vapor lock greatly decreases. Answer
(B) is wrong because centrifugal-type boost pumps do
A It separates air and vapor from the fuel. not deliver a positive displacement, and answer (C) is
B It has positive displacement. incorrect because centrifugal-type pumps do not need
relief valves. . -.. .,.,,..,.., ... ..■.-..-. ,
C It requires a relief valve. -.
7-120. N02 7-120. Answer C. JSPT 7-4 (14 CFR 23.955)

The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow According to 14 CFR 23.955, the fuel flow rate of a
rate for gravity systems (main and reserve) to be gravity-fed system must be at least 150 percent of the
takeoff fuel consumption of the engine. Both answers
A 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of (A) and (B) are incorrect because they indicate values
the engine. less than 150 percent.
B 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel
consumption of the engine.
C 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of
the engine.
Fuel boost pumps are operated The primary function of a fuel boost pump is to supply
a positive flow of fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump.
A to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine. Secondary functions include supplying positive fuel
B during takeoff only. flow to the engine (answer A) when the engine-driven
C primarily for fuel transfer to another tank. pump fails, and transferring fuel. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because fuel boost pumps are used more than just
for takeoff. Answer (C) is incorrect because, although
fuel boost pumps are used to transfer fuel, it is not a
primary function.
7-122. N02 7-122. Answer B. JSPT 7-59, 7-53 (AC 65-9A)

A pilot reports that the fuel pressure fluctuates and During normal operation, the fuel pump delivers more
exceeds the upper limits whenever the throttle is fuel than the engine needs and, therefore, a fuel pump
advanced. The most likely cause of the trouble is relief valve must be used to prevent excessive pres-
sures from reaching the carburetor inlet. The relief
A a ruptured fuel pump relief-valve diaphragm. valve is held closed by spring tension and, once
B a sticking fuel pump relief valve. opened by excessive fuel pressure, directs fuel back to
C an air leak at the fuel pump relief-valve body. the pump inlet. If a relief valve sticks closed when an
engine accelerates, excessive fuel pressure will build
until the relief valve opens. Therefore, a sticking fuel
pump relief valve will cause fluctuating fuel pressure
readings and, if the relief valve sticks enough, exces-
sive pressure readings. Answer (A) is incorrect
because a diaphragm failure allows air to enter the fuel
and results in fuel leakage or cavitation, not high fuel
pressure. Answer (C) is wrong because an air leak at
the fuel pump relieve-valve body will result in
lower-than-normal fuel pressure.
7-123. N02 7-123. Answer B. JSPT 7-8 (FAR 23.997)

A fuel strainer or filter must be located between the According to FAR 23.997, there must be a fuel strainer
or filter between the fuel tank outlet and the engine-dri-
A boost pump and tank outlet. ven pump or fuel metering device. Answers (A) and (C)
B tank outlet and the fuel metering device. are incorrect because fuel strainers are not required in
C boost pump and engine-driven fuel pump. either of these areas.
7-124. N02 7-124. Answer C. JSPT 7-9 (AC 65-9A) Fuel pump
Fuel pump relief valves designed to compensate for relief valves designed to compensate for atmospheric
atmospheric pressure variations are known as pressure variations operate on the principle that, within
the valve, a balance between fuel pressure and
A compensated-flow valves. atmospheric or carburetor inlet air pressure is
maintained. Thus, these valves are often referred to as
B pressurized-relief valves. balanced-type relief valves. "Compensated-flow
valves" (answer A) and "pressurized-relief valves"
C balanced-type relief valves. (answer B) are terms that are not commonly applied to
fuel pump relief valves.
:
7-125. N02 . 7-125. Answer B. SJPT 7-8 (AC 65-12A)
Fuel lines are kept away from sources of heat, and To reduce the possibility of vapor lock, fuel lines are
sharp bends and steep rises are avoided to reduce the kept away from heat sources, are sometimes wrapped
possibility of with insulation, and installed in a smooth, flowing man-
ner with no sharp bends. Answer (A) is wrong because
A liquid lock. liquid lock occurs when oil or fuel enters the lower
B vapor lock. cylinders of a radial or inline engine and prevents
C positive engine rotation. Answer (C) is incorrect because "posi-
lock. tive lock" is not a term used in aviation maintenance.
7-126. Answer C. JSPT 7-12 (AC 65-9A) The purpose

7-126. N02 of a fuel crossfeed system is to allow fuel from any tank
Fuel crossfeed systems are used in aircraft to to be fed to any engine. Unfortunately, this is not a
choice. In our opinion, the correct answer to this
A purge the fuel tanks. question is (C), even though a fuel transfer system is
B ettison fuel in an emergency. :
used to maintain a balanced fuel load and aircraft
C maintain aircraft stability. stability. Answer (A) is incorrect because fuel tank
purging is a venting procedure that is performed when
an aircraft is on the ground. Answer (B) is wrong
because, although some crossfeed system compo-
nents may be used to jettison fuel in an emergency,
this is not what an entire crossfeed system is designed
to do.

7-127. N02 When a carburetor's throttle valve is opened quickly, a
If an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor large volume of air rushes into the carburetor. To pre-
backfires or misses when the throttle is advanced, a vent an excessively lean mixture from developing
likely cause is that the when this occurs, float-type carburetors employ an
accelerator pump that injects a momentary burst of fuel
A float level is too high. into the engine to maintain the proper fuel/air mixture.
B main air bleed is clogged. If an accelerator pump does not operate properly, an
C accelerating pump is not operating properly. excessively lean mixture that can lead to backfiring
and missing will result when the throttle is advanced
rapidly. Answer (A) is wrong because a float level that
is too high would cause a rich mixture, which does not
cause missing or backfiring. Answer (B) is wrong
because a clogged main air bleed would result in poor
mixing of fuel and air which could result in afterfiring,
not backfiring.
7-128. Answer B. JSPT 7-9 (AC 65-9A)

7-128. N02 Since an engine-driven vane-type fuel pump dis-
A fuel pressure relief valve is required on charges more fuel than an engine requires, there must
be some way of routing excess fuel away from the car-
A engine-driven diaphragm-type fuel pumps. buretor inlet line to prevent excess pressure from build-
B engine-driven vane-type fuel pumps. ing. This is accomplished by using a spring loaded
relief valve that is adjusted to deliver fuel at the recom-
C centrifugal fuel boost pumps. mended pressure. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect
because engine-driven diaphragm-type fuel pumps
and centrifugal boost pumps are not constant displace-
ment pumps and, therefore, do not require relief
valves.

A rotary-vane pump is best described as a Rotary-vane pumps used as main fuel supply pumps
provide a fixed quantity of fuel per pump revolution.
A positive-displacement pump. Therefore, rotary-vane pumps are positive displace-
B variable-displacement pump. ment pumps. Answer (B) is incorrect because
C boost pump. rotary-vane pumps supply a fixed quantity of fuel, not a
varying quantity, and answer (C) is wrong because
rotary-vane pumps are generally not used as boost
pumps.

Fuel pressure produced by the engine-driven fuel Since engine-driven fuel pumps provide more fuel than
pump is adjusted by the an engine needs, they must employ some means of
limiting the pressure they deliver to the carburetor. This
A bypass valve adjusting screw. is accomplished with a relief valve that directs fuel
B relief valve adjusting screw. away from the carburetor inlet line when fuel pressure
C engine-driven fuel pump adjusting screw. exceeds the carburetor's demand. This relief valve
relies on spring tension that uses an adjusting screw to
maintain the appropriate fuel pressure. Answer (A) is
wrong because a bypass valve allows fuel to bypass
the engine-driven fuel pump if it should become inoper-
ative. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no such
thing as an engine-driven fuel pump adjusting screw.
7-131. N02 7-131. Answer B. JSPT 7-12 (ASTM Spec. D-910, D-1655)
Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because Aviation gasoline (100LL) has a heat energy of
112,320 BTUs per gallon while kerosene (Jet A fuel)
A kerosene has very high volatility which aids in has a heat energy of 123,541 BTUs per gallon. In
ignition and lubrication. addition, kerosene's high viscosity allows it to act as a
B kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricant in pumps and fuel control units. Therefore,
lubricates fuel system components. answer (B) is correct. Answer (A) is incorrect because
C kerosene does not contain any water. kerosene-based jet fuels are significantly less volatile
than gasoline. Answer (C) is wrong because kerosene
can contain significant amounts of entrained water.
7-132. Answer B. JSPT 7-66 (AC 65-12A) The

7-132. N02 principal advantages of duplex fuel nozzles over
What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel simplex fuel nozzles are that duplex nozzles provide
nozzle used in many turbine engines? better fuel atomization and a more uniform flow pattern
at low engine speeds. Answer (A) is incorrect because
A Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where flow rates of simplex and duplex nozzles are not sub-
more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is stantially different, and answer (C) is wrong because
achieved. the type of fuel nozzle used in an engine has no bear-
B Provides better atomization and uniform flow ing on the grades of fuel or types of filters used in the
pattern. engine.
C Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be
used.
7-133. N02 7-133. Answer A. JSPT 7-60 (AC 65-12A) Because of

It is necessary to control acceleration and deceleration the large changes in airflow associated with changes in
rates in turbine engines in order to power settings, turbine engines do not respond well to
rapid power changes. For example, too rapid an
A prevent blowout or die-out. acceleration or deceleration could cause a compressor
stall, which could lead to a rich blowout or lean dieout
B prevent overtemperature. (answer A). Answer (B) is incorrect because
temperature is primarily determined by the amount of
C prevent friction between turbine wheels and the fuel burned in an engine, not the rate of acceleration or
case due to expansion and contraction. deceleration. Answer (C) is wrong because clearance
between the turbine wheels and case is controlled by
directing cooling air through turbine blades and around
the turbine case and is not affected by the rate at
which an engine accelerates or decelerates.
7-134. Answer A. JSPT 7-15 (AC 65-12A)

Of the filters listed, the micron filter has the greatest fil-
tering action. Micron filters can be made of cloth or
7-134. N02 paper and remove foreign matter measuring from 10 to
Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the 25 microns which equates to particles
greatest filtering action? between .000,010 and .000,025 inch in size. Answer
(B) is wrong because wire mesh filters capture
A Micron. relatively coarse particles and do not effectively
B Small wire mesh. remove small contaminants. Answer (C) is incorrect
C Stacked charcoal. : because stacked charcoal filter elements are very
effective at filtering chemical vapors or solutions, but do
not remove partic-ulate contamination.
7-135. Answer B. JSPT 7-66 (AC 65-12A)

The flow divider in a duplex fuel nozzle divides the fuel
supply into a primary and secondary flow that dis-
7-135. N02 charge through separate, concentric spray tips.
What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine Primary fuel flows at all power settings, while sec-
engine duplex fuel nozzle? ondary fuel flows only when fuel pressure builds
enough to unseat the flow divider. Answer (A) is incor-
A Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary rect because whether the primary is clogged or not,
flow clogs or is restricted. fuel will not flow to the secondary until the fuel pres-
B Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies. sure reaches 90 psig. Answer (C) is wrong because
C Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in turbine engine fuel nozzles do not utilize bleed air.
the atomization of fuel.
7-136. Answer A. JSPT 7-66 (AC 65-12A)
The flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle
opens when the fuel pressure reaches approximately
7-136. N02 90 psig. Once open, fuel is directed into the secondary
What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine chamber in the fuel nozzle and then discharges
engine duplex fuel nozzle? through the secondary tip into the combustion liner.
Neither bleed air (answer B) nor an electrically oper-
A Fuel pressure. ated solenoid (answer C) opens the flow divider valve.
B Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
C An electrically operated solenoid.
7-137. N02 7-137. Answer A. JSPT 7-33 (ITP-P2)

How often should float carburetors be overhauled? Although float carburetors typically have no required
overhaul period, good operating practice dictates that a
A At engine overhaul. carburetor be completely overhauled when the engine
B Annually. is overhauled. Operating beyond this point can result
C At engine change. in poor fuel metering, which could lead to detonation
and subsequent damage to a freshly overhauled
engine. Overhauling a carburetor on an annual basis
(answer B) would be a wasteful and unnecessary
expense. Answer (C) is incorrect because if a low-time
engine must be changed due to a mechanical failure, it
would be unnecessary to overhaul the carburetor.
7-138. N02 7-138. Answer C. JSPT 7-33 (1TP-P2)

What is the final authority for the details of carburetor A carburetor manufacturer's recommendations are
overhaul? FAA approved and represent the final authority for
maintaining a carburetor. Only those alterations or
A The local FAA safety inspector. repairs that are in the manufacturer's maintenance
B The Type Certificate Data Sheets for the engine. materials should be made. Answer (A) is incorrect
C The manufacturer's recommendations. because, while local FAA safety inspectors are respon-
sible for approving all major repairs and alterations,
they are unlikely to possess specific maintenance
information for carburetor overhauls. Answer (B) is
wrong because Type Certificate Data Sheets do not
contain specific overhaul data.
7-139. N02 7-139. Answer B. JSPT 7-22 (STP-P2)

Excessively rich or lean idle mixtures result in Excessively rich or lean idle mixtures typically result in
incomplete combustion. For example, with an exces-
A too rapid completion of combustion. sively rich mixture carbon deposits form on the spark
B incomplete combustion. plugs and cause subsequent plug fouling. Excessively
C incomplete cylinder scavenging. lean mixtures, on the other hand, can burn so slowly
that combustion can carry into the intake stroke and
cause backfiring. Answer (A) is wrong because an
excessively rich or lean mixture causes slower than
normal combustion. Answer (C) is incorrect because
cylinder scavenging is determined by engine speed,
valve timing, and engine design and has nothing to do
with an engine's idle mixture.
7-140. N02 7-140. Answer A. JSPT 7-37 (ITP-P2)

Which statement is true regarding proper throttle rig- Throttle and mixture controls must operate freely
ging of an airplane? throughout their full range of travel, and the stops on
the carburetor must be contacted before the cockpit
A The throttle stop on the carburetor must be con- control reaches its stop. Springback in the control sys-
tacted before the stop in the cockpit. tem ensures that the carburetor control is fully actu-
B The stop in the cockpit must be contacted ated. Answer (B) is incorrect because if the stop in the
before the stop on the carburetor. cockpit is contacted before the stop on the carburetor,
C The throttle control is properly adjusted when the engine's full operational range will not be obtain-
neither stop makes contact. able. Answer (C) is wrong because it represents an
impossible situation.
7-141. N02 7-141. Answer C. JSPT 7-36 (ITP-P2) The use of

What precaution should be taken when putting thread thread lubricant on a float bowl plug helps prevent
lubricant on a tapered pipe plug in a carburetor float thread damage and provide a better seal. However, it
bowl? is important that no thread lubricant be allowed to enter
the carburetor bowl since the lubricant is insoluble and,
A Put the thread lubricant only on the first thread. therefore, can plug the fuel jets. When applying a
B Do not use thread lubricant on any carburetor fit- thread lubricant, begin by screwing the plug one turn
ting. into the float bowl and applying lubricant to the second
C Engage the first thread of the plug, then put a thread. This helps ensure that no lubricant enters the
small amount of lubricant on the second thread carburetor interior. Answer (A) is wrong because
and screw the plug in. lubricating only the first thread increases the likelihood
of contamination and does not provide sufficient
lubrication to the plug threads. Answer (B) is incorrect
because thread lubricant is often required by
carburetor manufacturers.

Maximum power is normally considered to be devel- Valve timing and engine induction system design
oped in a reciprocating engine with an air/fuel mixture require a slightly rich mixture in order to produce maxi-
ratio of approximately mum power. This mixture typically contains 12 parts air
to every 1 part fuei, or 12:1. An 8:1 mixture (answer A)
A 8:1. represents an excessively rich mixture that would
B 12:1. cause spark plug fouling. Answer (C) is incorrect
C 15:1. because a 15:1 ratio represents the optimum ratio for
combustion where all the fuel and air is used in the
combustion process.
7-143. O03 7-143. Answer B. JSPT 7-29 (AC 65-12A)

When operating an engine, the application of carbure- When carburetor heat is turned on, warm, less dense
tor heat will have what effect on the fuel/air mixture? air is drawn into the carburetor. However, if the mixture
is not adjusted, the same amount of fuel continues to
A Enriching the mixture because the AMC cannot mix with the air. The combination of less dense air with
make a correction for increased temperature. no change in the amount of fuel supplied produces a
B Enriching the mixture until the AMC can make a mixture that is richer than it was before carburetor heat
compensation. was applied. However, on carburetors equipped with
C Leaning the mixture until the AMC can make a an automatic mixture control (AMC) the mixture will
compensation. only remain rich until the AMC can compensate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because an AMC will respond
to changes in temperature, and answer (C) is wrong
because the fuel/air mixture becomes richer, not
leaner.
7-144. K02 7-144. Answer A. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A) Air-cooled

As a general rule, the mixture setting on a reciprocat- aircraft engines rely to some degree on fuel to aid in
ing engine operating at or near takeoff power that pro- cooling during high-power operations. Therefore, as a
vides the best cooling is general rule the mixture should be set in the full rich
position when operating at or near takeoff power. A rich
A ULL RICH. ; mixture typically provides more fuel than is needed for
B LEAN. combustion, leaving excess fuel to aid in engine
C ULL LEAN. cooling. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the
leaner the mixture the less fuel is available for cooling.
IGNITION AND
ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
This chapter covers the components found in engine electrical systems and with reciprocating turbine
engine ignition and starting systems. Inspection and repair of electrical components and the servicing, trou-
bleshooting, and repair of high and low tension ignition systems are also covered.
8-1. A02 8-1. Answer B. JSPT 8-85 (AC 65-12A)

What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft The timing disk is a more accurate crankshaft position-
rotation in degrees? ing device than timing reference marks. When setting
up the ignition timing on an engine, a timing disk
A Dial indicator. should be attached to the engine to measure the
B Timing disk. crankshaft rotation in degrees. Answer (A) is wrong
because a dial indicator is used to measure an out of
C Prop protractor. round condition on crankshafts or piston pins. Answer
(C) is wrong because a prop protractor is used to mea-
sure propeller blade angles and degree of control sur-
face deflection.
8-2. Answer C. JSPT 8-87 (AC 65-12A) A magneto

8-2. A03 check is conducted with the propeller in the high rpm
If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either position at a speed between approximately 1 /000
LEFT or RIGHT during an engine ground check, nor- and 1;700 rpm. During this check, the ignition switch is
mal operation is usually indicated by a moved from the BOTH to the RIGHT position, and then
the BOTH to the LEFT position. While switching from
A large drop in RPM. BOTH to a single magneto position, a slight but
B momentary interruption of both ignition noticeable drop in rpm should occur. If a large rpm drop
systems. occurs (answer A), or if there is a momentary
C slight drop in RPM. interruption of both ignition systems (answer B), the
ignition system is not operating properly.
8-2 Ignition and Electrical Systems
8-3. A04 8-3. Answer C. JSPT 8-97 (AC 65-12A) One way of
One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine com- determining combustion chamber problems is by
bustion chamber problems is examining the condition of the spark plugs. For
example, normal operation is indicated by a spark plug
A excessive engine vibration. having a relatively small amount of light brown or tan
deposit on the nose of the center electrode insulator.
B starting difficulties. However, if heavy oily deposits are found on the spark
plugs, it is a good indication that the rings or valve
C spark plug condition. seals are worn and allowing oil to seep into the
cylinder. Answer (A) is incorrect because excessive
engine vibration is normally caused by a malfunction-
ing ignition system or propeller imbalance, not spark
plugs. Answer (B) is incorrect because most starting
difficulties are from mismanagement of the fuel system
or from incorrect ignition timing.
8-4 Answer B. JSPT 8-4 (AC 65-9A)

By replacing the slip rings of a basic AC generator with
8-4. J01 two half-cylinders, called a commutator, DC current is
What device is used to convert alternating current, obtained. As the generator's armature rotates, the
which has been induced into the loops of the rotating commutator elements act as a switch causing the cur-
armature of a dc generator, to direct current? rent to flow in the same direction through the external
circuit. Although a rectifier (answer A) changes AC to
A A rectifier. DC, rectifiers are not used in DC generators. Answer
(C) is incorrect because an inverter changes DC to AC.
B A commutator.
8-5. Answer C. JSPT 8-34 (AC 65-9A)
C An inverter. Because the windings in a series motor have such a
low resistance, it is normal for these motors to draw a
large amount when started. However, when this start-
8-5. J01 ing current passes through both the field and armature
A certain direct current series motor mounted within an windings, a high starting torque is produced.
aircraft draws more amperes during start than when it
is running under its rated load. The most logical con-
clusion that may be drawn is
A the starting winding is shorted.

B the brushes are floating at operating RPM 8-6. Answer C. JSPT 8-12 (AC 65-9A)
because of weak brush springs. The stationary field strength in a direct-current gener-
C the condition is normal for this type of motor. ator is varied according to the load requirements. For
example, as the load increases, the voltage regulator
8-6. J01 automatically increases the field current to allow the
The stationary field strength in a direct current genera- generator to provide the required current load.
tor is varied Answer (A) is incorrect because a reverse-current
relay takes the generator off-line when its voltage
A by the reverse-current relay. drops below battery voltage. Answer (B) is wrong
because there is no relationship between generator
B because of generator speed. speed and stationary field strength.
C according to the load requirements.
8-7. Reserved 8-7

Ignition and Electrical Systems 8-3
8-8. J01 8-8. Answer B. JSPT 3-41 (AC 65-12A)

What type of electric motor is generally used with a A series-wound motor produces the highest torque of
direct-cranking engine starter? any of the motors listed. Furthermore, a typical starter
motor is operated by a 12- or 24-volt direct current bat-
A Direct current, shunt-wound motor. tery. Therefore, the most common starter found on reci-
B Direct current, series-wound motor. procating engines is a direct current series-wound
C Synchronous motor. motor. Answer (A) is incorrect because shunt motors
develop less torque on starting than series-wound
motors do. Answer (C) is wrong because synchronous
motors produce insufficient torque for starting applica-
tions.
8-9. J01 8-9. Answer C. JSPT 8-26 (AC 65-9A)

Upon what does the output frequency of an ac genera- The output frequency of an alternator depends on the
tor (alternator) depend? rotational speed of the rotor and the number of poles.
The faster the rotor turns, the higher the frequency
A The speed of rotation and the strength of the field. generated. By the same token, the more poles on a
B The speed of rotation, the strength of the field, rotor, the higher the frequency for any given speed.
and the number of field poles.
C The speed of rotation and the number of field
poles.
8-10. J01 8-10. Answer C. JSGT 4-34 (AC 65-9A)

A high surge of current is required when a dc electric When an armature in a motor rotates in a magnetic
motor is first started. As the speed of the motor field, a voltage is induced into the windings that
increases, opposes the applied voltage. This back, or counter
electromotive force (EMF) increases with motor speed
A the counter emf decreases proportionally. and, therefore, reduces the current flowing through the
B the applied emf increases proportionally. armature.
C the counter emf builds up and opposes
the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow
through the armature.

Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a Components that utilize alternators (AC generators) as
constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to a source for power, require a specific frequency or
regulate the alternator to a constant hertz output to function properly. One way to ensure
that an alternator produces a specified frequency is to
A voltage output. have the alternator driven by a constant speed drive
(CSD) unit. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because
B amperage output. voltage and amperage output are governed by an
alternator regulator.
C hertz output.
8-12. Answer A. JSGT 4-17 (AC 65-9A) A rough or
pitted commutator should be smoothed using very fine
8-12. J01 sandpaper, such as 000, and then cleaned and
polished with a clean, dry cloth. Answers (B) and (C)
What is used to polish commutators or slip rings?
are incorrect because these materials can leave
conductive grit in the commutator that can cause
A Very fine sandpaper.
shorting between commutator segments.
B Crocus cloth or fine oilstone.
C Aluminum oxide or garnet paper.

If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be A generator master switch is provided in most aircraft
reduced to residual by actuating the so that a malfunctioning generator may be discon-
nected from the aircraft electrical system to prevent
A-^rheostat damage to the generator or to the rest of the system.
B generator master switch. Operation of this switch deactivates the voltage coil in
C master solenoid. the voltage regulator, resulting in generator output
being reduced to residual voltage.
8-14. J01 8-14. Answer C. JSGT 4-13 (AC65-9A)

If the points in a vibrator-type voltage regulator stick The opening and closing of the points in a
in the closed position while the generator is operating, vibrating-type voltage regulator controls the generator
what will be the probable result? output. When the points are open, generator output
decreases and when the points are closed, generator
A Generator output voltage will decrease. output increases. Therefore, if the points stick closed,
B Generator output voltage will not be affected. the generator's output will increase to its maximum.
C Generator output voltage will increase.

Why is a constant-speed drive used to control the Components that utilize alternators (AC generators) as
speed of some aircraft engine-driven generators? a source of power require a specific frequency or num-
ber of cycles per second to function properly. One way
A So that the voltage output of the generator will to ensure that an alternator produces a specified fre-
remain within limits. B To eliminate quency is to have the alternator driven by a constant
uncontrolled surges of current to the speed drive (CSD) unit. Answers (A) and (B) are incor-
electrical system. C So that the frequency of rect because voltage and amperage output are gov-
the alternating current erned by an alternator regulator.
output will remain constant.
8-16. J01 8-16. Answer A. JSGT 3-4 (AC 65-9A)

According to the electron theory of the flow of electric- The electron theory of the flow of electricity states that
ity, when a properly functioning dc alternator and volt- the flow of electrons is from negative to positive. When
age regulating system is charging an aircraft's battery, this theory is applied to a charging battery, the current
the direction of current flow through the battery flow through the battery is from the negative terminal to
the positive terminal. The theory of conventional flow
A is into the negative terminal and out the positive states that electrons flow from the positive terminal to
terminal. B is into the positive terminal and the negative terminal (answer B) and is generally con-
out the negative sidered incorrect. Answer (C) is incorrect because DC
terminal. C cycles back and forth with the electricity does not cycle back and forth nor does it
number of cycles have a frequency that varies with alternator rotational
per second being controlled by the rotational speed.
speed of the alternator.
8-17. J01 8-17. Answer C. FAR 25.1351

Aircraft that operate more than one generator con- According to FAR 25.1351, aircraft equipped with more
nected to a common electrical system must be pro- than one generator connected to a common electrical
vided with system must have individual generator switches which
can be operated from the cockpit during flight.
A automatic generator switches that operate to iso-
late any generator whose output is less than 80
percent of its share of the load.
B an automatic device that will isolate nonessential
loads from the system if one of the generators fails.
C individual generator switches that can be oper-
ated from the cockpit during flight.
8-18. J01 8-18. Answer A. JSPT 8-12 (AC 65-9A)

The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct Although all of the choices listed can be used to regu-
current generator output is to vary, according to the late generator output, varying the strength of the sta-
load requirements, the tionary field is the most effective and convenient
means.
A strength of the stationary field.
B generator speed.
C number of rotating armature loops in use.

Electric motors are often classified according to the Of the types of motors listed, the series-wound motor
method of connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft develops the most torque. Therefore, series motors are
engine starter motors are generally of which type? generally used as starter motors.
A Compound.
B Series.
C Shunt (parallel).

As the generator load is increased (within its rated Generators are designed to operate at a specified volt-
capacity), the voltage will age while generator ratings are usually given as the
number of amperes a generator can supply at its rated
A decrease and the amperage output will increase. voltage. Therefore, as the load on a generator
B remain constant and the amperage output will increases, the amperage output increases up to the
increase. C remain constant and the amperage generator's limit, while the voltage remains constant.
output will Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because a voltage
decrease. regulator maintains a constant output voltage and
varies current to meet the load demand. In other words,
as load demand rises, amperage output increases.
8-21. J01 8-21. Answer C. JSGT 4-12 (AC 65-15A)

As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases The greater the flux density in the field of a generator
and the current flow to the system increases, the the greater the resistance to rotation. The greater the
resistance to rotation the greater the force required to
A generator voltage decreases. turn the generator (answer C). Answers (A) and (B) are
B generator amperage decreases. wrong because both output voltage and current
C force required to turn the generator increases. increase when field current increases.

What is the purpose of a reverse-current cutout relay? The purpose of the reverse-current cutout relay is to
automatically disconnect the battery from the generator
A It eliminates the possibility of reversed polarity when generator output voltage is less than battery volt-
of the generator output current. B It prevents age. This prevents the battery from discharging
fluctuations of generator voltage. C It opens the through the generator and trying to drive it as a motor.
main generator circuit whenever the Answer (A) is incorrect because polarity is a function of
generator voltage drops below the battery voltage. a generator's internal wiring and commutator design,
while answer (B) is wrong because eliminating voltage
fluctuation is a function of the voltage regulator.
8-23. J01 8-23. Answer A. JSPPT 8-15 (AC 65-9A)

Generator voltage will not build up when the field is If voltage does not build when a generator's field is
flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. flashed, check for an open armature. To do this,
These are most likely indications of remove the generator cover and inspect the commuta-
tor cover. If melted solder is found, then the armature
A an open armature. is open. Answer (B) is wrong because brush arcing
B excessive brush arcing. leads to commutator pitting and excessive brush wear
C armature shaft bearings overheating. and does not prevent voltage build up in the field.
Answer (C) is wrong because armature shaft bearings
contain no solder and defective bearings are not likely
to prevent voltage from building.

Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter A brushless alternator utilizes permanent magnet
on a brushless alternator? inter-poles in the exciter stator to provide enough
magnetic flux to start producing electricity. Therefore,
A The exciter is constantly charged by battery voltage. there is no need to flash the field to put residual
B Brushless alternators do not have exciters. C magnetism into the field frame. Answer (A) is incorrect
Permanent magnets are installed in the main field because the exciter of a brushless alternator receives
poles. direct current from the GCU, not from the battery, and
answer (B) is wrong because brushless alternators do
have exciter units.
8-25. J01
One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are 8-25. Answer A. JSPT 8-102 (ITP-P2)
activated on gas turbine engines is by a The automatic ignition relight system is activated differ-
ently on different aircraft. One popular method of acti-
A drop in compressor discharge pressure. vating the system is to use pressure sensors installed
B sensing switch located in the tailpipe. at the compressor discharge. When used this way, a
C drop in fuel flow. drop in discharge pressure automatically activates the
ignition system. Answer (B) is wrong because the only
sensor in a turbine engine exhaust pipe measures
exhaust gas temperature, and answer (C) is incorrect
because power lever movements from the cockpit can
produce fuel flow drops that do not require an ignition
relight.
8-26. J01
How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator 8-26. Answer C. JSPT 8-26 (AC 65-9A) In most
usually excited? brush-type alternators, the rotor winding is excited by
direct current supplied by the battery and varied by a
A By a constant ac voltage from the battery. B regulator. When the alternator load increases, the
By a constant ac voltage. C By a variable direct regulator supplies more current to the rotor windings
current. and when the load decreases, less current is supplied.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because if an
alternator's rotor windings were supplied with constant
voltage, the output would be constant regardless of
load requirements.
8-27. J01
What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte 8-27. Answer C. AC 43.13-1B, 11-5 (AC 65-9A) As the
from freezing in a lead acid battery? specific gravity of the electrolyte solution within a
battery rises, its freezing point drops. Therefore, in cold
A Place the aircraft in a hangar. climates, the state of charge in a storage battery
B Remove the battery and keep it under constant charge. should be kept at a maximum so it does not freeze.
C Keep the battery fully charged. Answers (A) and (B) are impractical and wasteful and,
therefore, should be avoided.
8-28. J01 8-28. Answer A. JSGT 3-38 (AC 65-9A) The

What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that capacity of a storage battery is rated in
is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours? ampere-hours which is the amount of electricity that
can be taken out of a battery when a current of one
A 112.5 ampere-hour. B ampere flows for one hour. This rating indicates the
90.0 ampere-hour. C minimum amount of amperes that a battery can put
45.0 ampere-hour. out in one hour. Therefore, a battery which can
deliver 45 amps for 2.5 hours has a 112.5
ampere-hour capacity (45 amps x 2.5 hours = 112.5
amp-hours).
8-29. J01 8-29. Answer B. JSGT 3-38 (AC 65-S The capacity of
How many hours will a 140 ampere-hour battery a storage battery is rated in ampere-hours which is the
deliver 15 amperes? amount of electricity that can be taken out of a battery
when a current of one ampere flows for one hour. This
A 1.40 hours. rating indicates the minimum amount of amperes that a
B 9.33 hours. battery can put out in one hour. Therefore, a battery
C 14.0 that can supply 140 amperes in one hour can deliver
hours. 15 amps for 9.33 hours (140 amp-hour -f15 amps -
9.33 hours).
8-30. Answer A. JSPT 8-20 (AC 65-9A)

8-30. J01 Electrical power is the product of voltage and current.
What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical Since direct current systems produce low voltage, the
power for a large aircraft? corresponding current must be large enough to pro
duce sufficieht power to sustain heavy electrical loads.
A AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc As a result, conductors carrying direct current must be
systems and therefore use less current and can large and heavy to carry the high current. Alternating
use smaller and lighter weight wiring. current, on the other hand, utilizes much higher volt
B AC systems operate at lower voltage than dc sys- ages and, therefore, lower currents. Since low current
tems and therefore use less current and can use can be carried in smaller wire, the use of AC power on
smaller and lighter weight wiring. large aircraft produces substantial weight savings.
C AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc Answer (B) is wrong because a lower voltage would
systems and therefore use more current and can require higher current to produce the same power, and
use smaller and lighter weight wiring. answer (C) is incorrect because systems operating at
higher voltages use less current. -
8-31. Answer C. JSPT 8-38 (AC 65-9A) The most

8-31. J01 common AC motors that produce a relatively high
What are two types of ac motors that are used to pro- torque are the three-phase induction motor and the
duce a relatively high torque? capacitor start motor. Answers (A) and (B) are
incorrect because shunt field motors are powered by
A Shaded pole and shunt field. direct current.
:
B Shunt field and single phase.
C Three-phase induction and capacitor start.
8-32. Answer C. JSPT 8-26 (AC 65-9A)
■ Both statements (1) and (2) are correct. Alternating
current is used on large aircraft to take advantage of
8-32. J01 the weight savings and the fact that AC can be easily
(1) Alternators are rated in volt-amps, which is a stepped up or down. The alternators used in these sys-
measure of the apparent power being produced by tems are rated in volt-amps which are generally
the generator. expressed in kilo-volt amps (KVA). Atypical Boeing 727
(2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct AC alternator is rated at 45 KVA.
current in that its voltage and current can easily be
stepped up or down.
A only No. 1 is true. B only

No. 2 is true. C both No. 1 and
No. 2 are true.

What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating cur- Most aircraft systems use 400-hertz alternating current.
rent? At this high frequency, inductive reactance is high and
current is low. As a result, motors can be wound with
A 115 Hertz. smaller wire, and transformers can be made much
B 60 Hertz. C smaller and lighter. The use of 115-Hz AC (answer A)
400 Hertz. or 60-Hz AC (answer B) on aircraft is not desirable
since it would require heavier wire to safely carry
higher amperages.
8-34. J01 8-34. Answer A. JSPT 8-15 (AC 65-9A)

The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to Generators use field coils wrapped around soft iron
cores to produce the magnetic field required to gener-
A restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism ate current. Soft iron retains little or no residual magnet-
to the field poles. B increase ism when the magnetizing field is removed. As a result,
generator capacity. C remove generator fields must be flashed to restore residual
excessive deposits. magnetism. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because
flashing the generator field does not increase generator
capacity or remove deposits from the field coils.

The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents An alternator uses solid-state diodes in its rectifier cir-
reverse flow of current from the battery to the alterna- cuit. These diodes act as electrical check valves and
tor is the ;^"V;M '_,.. allow current to only flow in one direction. This isolates
battery current from the alternator. Reverse current
A reverse current relay. relays (answer A) are used only with DC generators and
B voltage regulator. C voltage regulators (answer B) supply current to the field
rectifier. to match the generator's output current to load demand.
8-36. J01 8-36. Answer B. JSGT 3-40 (AC 65-9A)

The generating system of an aircraft charges the bat Atypical aircraft generating system produces a con-
tery by using ■-. -.; ; ;.-., stant voltage that supplies power to the primary bus
■■■■'' and charges the battery. This type of system utilizes a
fixed voltage that is slightly higher than the battery volt-
A constant current and varying voltage. age. Answer (A) is incorrect because a constant cur-
B constant voltage and varying current. rent charge is typically supplied by a battery charger
C constant voltage and constant current. and answer (C) is wrong because the current supplied
by an aircraft charging system does not produce a con-
stant current.
8-37. Answer C. JSGT 3-43 (AC 65-9A)

8-37. J01 A ni-cad battery can be charged using either the con-
The constant current method of charging a ni-cad bat- stant current or constant voltage method. With the con-
tery stant current method the charge takes longer but is
more effective in maintaining cell balance. Answer (A)
A will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest is incorrect because constant-voltage charging is the
amount of time. fastest method for charging a battery, and answer (B)
B will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time. is wrong because the constant voltage method tends to
C is the method most effective in maintaining cell lead to cell imbalance.
balance.
8-38. J02 8-38. Answer B. JSPT 8-55 (AC 43.13-1 B)

(Refer to figure 4.) The following data concerning the First, locate the column on the left side of the chart
installation of an electrical unit is known: current representing a 28V system with a 1 volt drop. Move
requirements for continuous operation - 11 amperes; down this column to a wire length of 45 feet, which is
measured cable length - 45 feet; system voltage - 28 between the 40 and 50 foot callouts. From this point,
volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and project a line to the right just beyond the 10 amp diago-
bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical nal line. Since this point is above curve 1, installation in
cable that may be selected? a bundle carrying continuous current is permitted. Now,
project a line down vertically to the bottom of the chart.
A o.10. <; ^ ■ The line falls on the #12 wire size. Therefore, a #12
B o.12. ' ■■ ■ -" ■■ wire is required.
■ ■ = ■■■-:
C No. 14. !
-■■.■■■ ■ ;- , ■:-
:
- .;-■■■

Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT con- An aircraft starter circuit does not have a fuse or cir-
tain a fuse/circuit breaker? cuit breaker because the current draw is so great that
a fuse or circuit breaker would continually be blowing.
A Generator circuit. Although generator circuits (answer A) and air condi-
B Air-conditioning circuit. tioning circuits (answer B) draw high amperages, they
C Starter circuit. use considerably less current than a starter and,
therefore, use circuit breakers or fuses to protect the
aircraft wiring.
CIRCUIT
VOLTAGE ELECTRIC WIRE
115 200 14 28 20 18 16 o -f 1 2
CHART 3 4
800 100 200
14 12 10 8 6 ^ ^ 0 0
600 75 150 \s / /\s
AMPERES /
0 z
0
o
DC
/ / S> ^
Q 400 700 50 100 b<>> * J
LLJ
(D 360 630 45 90 Z2 Y_
7_~7
§ 320 560 40 80 * / 7Z7 7^
O 280 490 35 70
v zzz
> 240
LLJ
_l
CD 200
420
350
30 60
25 50
~7 Y_
777/. z
1 160 280 20 40
7/
o 120 210
< 15 30
o 100 175
LL
12 25 /
1 80 140 10 20 V77
—
LU
LU 72 120 9 18 ~7_Z 7
U.
-z
31
.
—;
64 112
56 98
48 84
8
7
6
16
14
12
7_
zzzzz.
777// CURVES
1. CONTINUOUS RATING-AMPERES
CABLES IN CONDUIT AND BUNDLES
CD 40 70 5 10 2. CONTINUOUS RATING-AMPERES
LU 36 63 4 9
1
32 56 8
ZZcZZ. SINGLE CABLE IN FREE-AIR
LU
cc
28 49 7 /777s 3. INTERMITTENT RATING- AMPERES
MAXIMUM OF 2 MINUTES.
24 42 3 6
20 35 2 5
6 4 2 1 1 2
4 7 .5 1 3 4
VOLTAGE DROP 0 0 0 0
z_
7/
v ;
z:
20 18 16 WIRE SIZE
14 12 10 8
Figure 4. Electric Wire Chart.

8-40. J02 8-40. Answer C. JSPT 8-63 (AC 43.13-1B)

The maximum number of terminals that may be con- According to AC 43.13-1B, no more than four terminals
nected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft electrical can be attached to a single terminal stud. If more than
system is four terminals must be attached, use two adjacent
studs connected by a small metal bus strap.
A two. B
three. C
four.
8-41. J02 8-41. Answer C. JSPT 8-63 (AC 43.13-1 B)
What is the maximum number of bonding jumper According to AC 43.13-1 B, no more than four bonding
wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to jumper wires should be attached to one terminal that is
a flat surface? grounded to a flat surface. If more than four jumper
wires are used, a proper ground may not be obtained.
A wo. - ■-:-.- -v /..>■ ,.-
V . -. .■■■■<.>'■ ■: , -.
B hree. v - - . ^^ -.. -.^ ■; <-...,; ■-.:
- ■: •
C o u r . " '
:
.■ ■■■-■.■.-. -: T - , . . : . -
8-42. Answer A. JSGT 4-35 (AC 65-12A)
Manufacturers specify the exact wear limits for their parts.
8-42. J02 However, as a general rule, starter brushes should be
As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when replaced when they are worn to approximately one-half
they are approximately of their original length. Allowing the wear to progress
much farther will affect the spring tension and the ability
A one-half their original length. B of the brush to stay in contact with the commutator.
one-third their original length. C
two-thirds their original length. ; 8-43. Answer C. JSPT 8-66 (AC 65-12A)
Electrical switches should be derated from their nominal
8-43. J02 current rating when they are used to control direct
When installing an electrical switch, under which of current motors. The reason for this is that DC motors
the following conditions should the switch be derated will draw several times their rated current during starting.
from its nominal current rating? . Therefore, if the switch is not derated, it will not have
enough of a safety factor to prevent overloading.
A Conductive circuits. Answer (A) is incorrect since all circuits are "conduc-
B Capacitive circuits. tive" and answer (B) is wrong because capacitive cir-
C Direct-current motor circuits. > cuits do not draw high amperage and thus do not
require derated switches.
8-44. Answer C. JSPT 8-64 (AC 65-12A)

One of the purposes of bonding and grounding an air-
8-44. J02 craft structure is to provide current return paths. If the
The resistance of the current return path through the air- bonding and grounding is properly done, there should
craft is always considered negligible, provided the be virtually no resistance in the return path. Bonding is
accomplished using bonding straps and braids.
A voltage drop across the circuit is checked. B Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither a
generator is properly grounded. C structure circuit's voltage drop nor the generator's grounding has
is adequately bonded. any bearing on an aircraft's current return path resis-
tance.

In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the AN and MS electrical connectors consist of a female
circuits when the connectors are separated for socket and a male connector with a set of pins. When
maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors installing an electrical connector, the socket should be
should be installed with the installed on the voltage side while the pin section
should be attached to the ground side. When assem-
A socket section on the ground side of the electrical bled this way, the recessed sockets make it extremely
circuit. B pin section on the ground side of difficult to short or ground a circuit. Answers (A) and (C)
the electrical are incorrect because installing the socket on the
circuit. C pin section on the positive side of ground side and the pin section on the hot side will
the electrical increase the possibility of shorting.
circuit.

When does current flow through the coil of a In a solenoid-operated electrical switch, part of the
solenoid-operated electrical switch? core is movable and is spring loaded open. When the
control circuit to the solenoid is completed, a magnetic
A Continually, as long as the aircraft's electrical field pulls the solenoid closed. This completes the pri-
system master switch is on. mary circuit. When power is removed from the control
B Continually, as long as the control circuit is circuit the magnetic field dissipates causing the mov-
complete. able core to return to its original position and open the
C Only until the movable points contact the station- circuit. Therefore, as long as the control circuit is com-
ary points. plete, current will flow through the coil and the switch
will close. Although some solenoid-operated electrical
switches are actuated by an aircraft's master switch
(answer A), many switches have separate control cir-
cuits that must be complete before the solenoid closes.
Answer (C) is incorrect because current flows through
the coil when the movable points contact the stationary
points, not when the points are separated.
8-47. J02 8-47. Answer B. AC 43.13-1B

It is necessary to determine that the electrical load The electrical load check described in this question is
limit of a 28-volt, 75-amp generator, installed in a par- an acceptable method for determining an aircraft's total
ticular aircraft, has not been exceeded. By making a electrical load. According to AC 43.13-1B, unless the
ground check, it is determined that the battery fur- aircraft is placarded or contains monitoring devices,
nished 57 amperes to the system when all equipment the total continuous electrical load may be held to
that can continuously draw electrical power in flight is approximately 80% of the total rated generator output
turned on. This type of load determination capacity. The total load on the system is only 76 per-
cent of the generator's capacity. Therefore, the load is
A can be made, but the load will exceed the considered to be within the generator's load limit.
generator load limit.
B can be made, and the load will be within the
generator load limit.
C cannot be made on direct current electrical
systems.
8-48. Answer B. JSPT 8-59
8-48. J02 Prior to pulling electrical wires or cables through conduit,
What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling soapstone talc is dusted on the cables to act as a
electrical wires or cables through conduits? lubricant. The talc helps keep the wire from binding and
chafing against the walls of the conduit. Answer (A) is
A ilicone grease. ■ :- incorrect because silicon grease can cause some types
B Soapstone talc. C of insulation to soften and deteriorate. Answer (C) is
Rubber lubricant. wrong because rubber lubricants consist of highly vis-
cous grease that will not assist in cable insertion.

Which of the following is regulated in a generator to Although all of the choices listed can be used to regu-
control its voltage output? late generator output, varying the strength of the sta-
tionary field is the most effective and convenient
A Speed of the armature. means. Answer (A) is incorrect because a generator's
B Number of windings in the armature. armature speed is not easily changed and answer (B)
C The strength of the field. is wrong because an armature's number of windings is
fixed and cannot be changed.

Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in One of the purposes of bonding jumpers is to provide a
such a manner that they ground for electrical circuits. If the bonding and
grounding is properly done, there should be virtually no
A are not subjected to flexing by relative motion resistance in the return path. Some guidelines to follow
of when attaching bonding jumpers is to make them as
airframe or engine components. B provide a short as possible and install them in such a manner
low electrical resistance in the ground that the resistance of each connection does not exceed
circuit. C prevent buildup of a static 0.003 ohm. Answer (A) is incorrect because flexible
electrical charge jumpers are often used to ground movable objects
between the airframe and the surrounding such as flight control surfaces. Answer (C) is wrong
atmosphere. because bonding jumpers do not prevent static buildup
on airframe surfaces but instead provide a conductive
path for static electricity to follow so it can be
dissipated at the static dischargers.

8-51. J02 Although the FAA does not list a figure to refer to for
When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine this question, it may be helpful to use figure 5 on page
engine starter-generator is energized and the engine 8-29 of this book. When the master switch is on and
fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be the the start switch is placed in the start position, power is
supplied to the starter generator. However, if the starter
A power lever switch is defective. solenoid is defective, the starter will not rotate. Answers
B undercurrent solenoid contacts are defective. (A) and (B) are incorrect because the starter should
C starter solenoid is defective. rotate regardless of the condition of the power lever
switch or the undercurrent solenoid
8-52. Answer A. JSPT 8-7 (AC 65-9A)

8-52. J02 Weak or worn brush springs allow the brushes to
Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator bounce, resulting in arcing and burned or pitted com-
of a motor may be caused by mutator surfaces. Answer (B) is incorrect because
excessive spring pressure causes rapid wear of the
A weak brush springs. ■' brushes, and answer (C) is wrong because low mica
B excessive brush spring tension. C would have little or no effect on the commutator.
low mica.
8-53. Answer B. AC 43.13-1B
8-53. J02 According to AC 43.13-1 A, the voltage drop in the main
The maximum allowable voltage drop between the power wires from the generator or the battery to the
generator and the bus bar is bus should not exceed 2 percent of the regulated volt-
age when the generator is carrying rated current or the
A 1 percent of the regulated voltage. B 2 battery is being discharged at the 5-minute rate.
percent of the regulated voltage. C less than the Restricting the voltage drop to 1 percent (answer A) is
voltage drop permitted between the battery and the impractical and answer (C) is incorrect because the
bus bar. permitted voltage drop between the battery and the bus
bar is the same as that for the generator.
8-54. J02 ' -l :

8-54. Answer C. JSPT 8-66 (AC 43.13-1 B) Hazardous
-■■■■ '■-:' errors in switch operation can be avoided by logical
ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches and consistent installation. For example, when
should be installed two-position on-off switches are installed, they should
always be mounted so that the on position is reached
A so that the toggle will move in the same by a forward or upward movement. Furthermore, when
direction as the desired motion of the unit a switch controls movable aircraft elements such as
controlled. landing gear or flaps, the switch should move in the
B under a guard. same direction as the desired motion. Answer (A) is
C so the ON position is reached by a forward or incorrect because it is impractical to install engine
upward motion. switches so their toggles move in the same direction
as the unit controlled, and answer (B) is incorrect
because switch guards are reserved for switches that
control critical systems.
8-55. Answer B. JAPT 8-66 (AC 43.13-1 B) Switches

should be derated from their nominal current rating
8-55. J02 when they are used to control direct current motors,
When selecting an electrical switch for installation in inductive circuits, and high in-rush circuits. The reason
an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor, for this is that these types of circuits can draw several
times their rated current when closed, so the switch
A a switch designed for dc should be chosen. B must be capable of handling this without the contacts
a derating factor should be applied. C only burning or welding together. Answer (A) is wrong
switches with screw-type terminal connections should because switches can be used with direct or alternating
be used. current interchangeably, and answer (C) is incorrect
because a switches' terminal connectors have no
bearing on whether it is used with an AC or DC motor.
8-56. Answer C. JSPT 8-58 (AC 43.13-1 B)

An arcing fault between an electric wire and a metallic
8-56. J02 fluid line can puncture the line and result in a serious
When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, fire. Consequently, every effort should be made to
the wiring should be physically separate electrical wire from lines or equip-
ment containing oil, fuel, hydraulic fluid, or alcohol.
A in metal conduit. When separation is impractical, locate the electric wire
B in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve. above the flammable fluid line and securely clamp it to
C above the fuel line. ' the structure. When installed in this manner, a leaking
fluid line is less likely to drip onto the electrical wire
and ignite.
8-57. .-: J02 8-57. Answer B. JSPT 8-55 (AC 65-15A)

■■'■* :■■.-.■'. . ■ <■■■ . .-■-. .-;■ :. (Refer Begin by locating the 28-volt column on the left side of
to figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum the chart. Move down this column until you hit the
continuous current that can be carried by a single No. 10 number 25 which represents the wire length. From
copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free air? here, move horizontally left until you intersect the verti-
cal line representing No. 10 copper wire. Since this
A 20 amperes. intersection is above curve 2, the wire can carry a con-
B 35 amperes. tinuous current in free air. To determine the maximum
C 28 continuous current that can be carried, interpolate
amperes. between the 30 amp and 40 amp diagonal lines. The
answer is 35 amperes.
8-58. Answer C. JSGT 3-46 (AC 65-9A)

The frequency of AC produced by an AC generator is
8-58. J02 determined by the number of poles and the speed of
What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to the rotor and can be calculated using the formula:
produce 400-Hertz ac?
F = (P-r 2) x (N-=-60)
A 400RPM.
B 1,200 RPM. Where:
C 6,000 F = frequency of the AC in Hertz
RPM. P = number of poles in the rotating field
N = rotational speed of the generator in rpm.
To solve for N, the formula becomes: N
= (F x 60) -r (P -H 2)
Therefore:
N = 400 hz x 60 seconds - ^8 ^- 2 N
= 24,000 hz/second -r 4 N = 6,000
rpm
8-59. Answer B. JSGT 3-19

The three basic types of circuit breakers used in air-
8-59. J02 craft electrical systems are the push-to-reset type, the
How many basic types of circuit breakers are used in push/pull type, and the toggle type.
powerplant installation electrical systems?
A Two. V' ',■■ : :

' !
■ .-■■
B hree. C
Four. 8-60. Answer A. 14 CFR 23.1357
14 CFR Part 23, Airworthiness Standards: Normal,
8-60. J02 Utility, Acrobatic, and Commuter Category Airplanes,
Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each specifies the airworthiness standards for the issue of
resettable circuit protective device requires a manual type certificates. Within this part,14 CFR 23.1357
operation to restore service after the device has inter- states that each resettable circuit protection device
rupted the circuit? requires a manual operation to restore service after the
device has interrupted the circuit. Answer (B) is incor-
A 14 CFR Part 23. rect because 14 CFR Part 43, Maintenance,
B 14 CFR Part 43. Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration,
C 14 CFR Part describes the regulations governing aircraft mainte-
91. nance and repair. Answer (C) is incorrect because Part
91, General Operating and Flight Rules, gives rules
and procedures for aircraft operations.
CIRCUIT
VOLTAGE ELECTRIC WIRE CHART
20 18 14 12 10 8 6 2 1 142 0 3
0
115 20 14 28 16 17 / s\/ 0 0
800 0 100 200 AMPERES
///AS
o /
EC
Q
LU 7 ~z 7 7_ 7_
77
es / 77, V// /7 7 77-
7 7 77
o 7_ ~7 z
600 75 150 77// / /77
T7
DC
o
CURVES
CABLES IN CONDUIT AND BUNDLES
SINGLE CABLE IN FREE-AIR
CD 3. INTERMITTENT RATING- AMPERES
LU MAXIMUM OF 2 MINUTES.
LU
T~T
20 18 14 11 2 - 3
400 70 50 10 16 12 40 0
0 0
0 0 7/7,
360 63 45 90
320 56
0 40 80 7/77.
280 49 35 70
0
240 42
0
200 35
30 60
25 50
^ZZZAiz.
0
0
160 28 20 40
0
120 21 15 30
0
100 17 12 25
80 5
14 10 20
72 12
0 9 18
64 11
0 8 16
56 98
2 7 14
48 84 6 12
40 70 5 10
36 63 4 9
32 56 8
28 49 7 10
24 42 3 6
20 35 2 5
WIRE SIZE
4 7 .5 1
VOLTAGE DROP
Figure 4. Electric Wire Chart.
8-61. J02 8-61. Answer B. 14 CFR 23.1357

Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement pre- 14 CFR Part 23, Airworthiness Standards: Normal,
vents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers? Utility, Acrobatic, and Commuter Category Airplanes,
specifies the airworthiness standards for the issue of
A 14 CFR Part 21. type certificates. Within this part, 14 CFR 23.1357
B 14 CFR Part 23. states that each resettable circuit protection device
C 14 CFR Part (trip free device in which the tripping mechanism can-
91. not be overridden by the operating control) must be
designed so that:
1. A manual operation is required to restore service

after tripping; and
2. If an overload or circuit fault exists, the device will
open the circuit regardless of the position of the
operating control.
Answer (A) is incorrect because Part 21,

Certification Procedures for Products and Parts,
describes procedures to obtain an airworthiness
certificate for aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect
because Part 91, General Operating and Flight
Rules, gives rules and procedures for aircraft
operations.
8-62. J02 8-62. Answer C. JSPT 8-65 (AC 43.13-1 B)

The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse A circuit breaker or fuse should open a circuit before
must be the associated conductor reaches its maximum capac-
ity. To accomplish this, the time/current characteristics
A above those of the associated conductor. B of the protective device must fall below that of the
equal to those of the associated conductor. C associated conductor. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong
below those of the associated conductor. because a protective device with a capacity equal to or
higher than the conductor's could expose the conduc-
tor to excessive current and cause it to fail.
8-63. J02 8-63. Answer A. 14 CFR 23.1357

(1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather Only statement (1) is correct. Most modern aircraft use
than fuses to protect their electrical circuits. circuit breakers rather than fuses to protect their electri-
(2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that cal circuits because fuses are typically more cumber-
all electrical circuits incorporate some form of some to replace. However, according to 14 CFR
circuit protective device. , 23.1357, protective devices such as fuses or circuit
breakers do not have to be installed in the main circuits
Regarding the above statements, of starter motors, or in nonhazardous circuits.

No. 2 is true. C both No. 1 and
No. 2 are true.
8-64. J02 8-64. Answer A. AC 43.13-1B, 11-16

Electrical switches are rated according to the ' Switches are rated according to both the voltage and
current they can control. Atypical aircraft switch may
A voltage and the current they can control. be rated for 5 amps at 125 volts, or 35 amps at 24
B resistance rating of the switch and the wiring. volts. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because a
C resistance and the temperature rating. switch does not have a resistance rating.

Electrical circuit protection devices are installed pri- Circuit protection devices are installed primarily to pro
marily to protect the tect the wiring. Therefore, circuit protection devices are
rated based on the amount of current that can be
A switches. safely carried in the wiring. :
' B units. C
wiring.

(1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based Both statements (1) and (2) are correct. Circuit protec-
on the amount of current that can be carried tion devices are installed primarily to protect the wiring
without overheating the wiring insulation. and, therefore, are rated based on the amount of cur-
(2) A "trip-free" circuit breaker makes it impossible to rent that can be carried without overheating the wire
manually hold the circuit closed when excessive and insulation. A second requirement is that all aircraft
current is flowing. circuit protection devices open the circuit regardless of
the position of the operating control. This requirement
Regarding the above statements, is met by trip-free circuit breakers that cannot override
an open circuit. In other words, this type of circuit
A only No. 1 is true. B only breaker makes it impossible to manually hold the cir-
No. 2 is true. C both No. 1 and cuit closed when excessive current is flowing.
No. 2 are true.
8-67. J02 8-67. Answer C. 14 CFR 91.205

Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations Within Part 91, 14 CFR 91.205 specifically requires
require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit protec- that one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of
tive devices carry "one spare set of fuses, or three each type be carried in the aircraft during flight.
spare fuses of each kind required"?
A AR Part 23.
B AR Part 43.
C FAR Part 91. ■■■
- ■
8-68. Answer C. JSPT 8-63 (AC 65-12A)
8-68. J02 The smallest terminal stud allowed for electrical power
What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft systems is a number 10. However, smaller studs are
electrical power systems? sometimes used with some smaller operational sys
tems. - ■ .■- ■-..;■
A No.6. . -■ ■■■ -■ ■;-. ...-. 5 . .,;
r~ ■ .■ ■
B No.8.
C o.10. ■ -,
8-69. J02 Most of the terminal strips in an aircraft electrical system
A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of are of the barrier type and are made of a strong
paper-base phenolic compound. Answers (B) and (C)
A paper-base phenolic compound. are wrong since graphite and aluminum are electrical
B polyester resin and graphite compound. conductors and, therefore, cannot be used in terminal
C layered aluminum impregnated with compound. strips.

A term commonly used when two or more electrical When attaching the terminal end of wires to a terminal
terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip strip, fan the wires out from the bundles so they will
is align with the terminal studs. If two or more electrical
terminals must be installed on a single lug you must
A strapping. "stack" the terminals as necessary. Answers (A) and (B)
B stepping. are wrong since the terms "strapping" and "stepping"
C stacking. ■** V. ■ are not used in reference to electrical terminals.
■■■. ■■':
8-71. Answer A. JSPT 8-60 (AC 65-12A ITP-P2)
8-71. J02 Only statement (1) is correct. Terminals on wires up to
(1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use 10-gauge are pre-insulated and color coded to identify
uninsulated terminals. the size of wire they fit. Wires larger than 10 gauge, on
(2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge use the other hand, use uninsulated terminals.
uninsulated terminals.
No. 2 is true. C neither No. 1
nor No. 2 is true.
J02 8-72. 8-72. Answer B. JSPT 8-54 (AC 65-12A)
Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the Wire is measured according to the American Wire
Gauge (AWG) system, with the smaller numbers used
A Military Specification system. B to identify the larger wire. The Military Specification
American Wire Gauge system. C system (answer A) does not provide a means of mea-
Technical Standard Order system. suring wire size and Technical Standard Orders
(answer C) certify that parts and appliances installed
on aircraft meet certain quality standards.
8-73. J02 8-73. Answer C. JSPT 8-53 (1TP-P2)

Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, Copper is a very corrosive metal. Therefore, aircraft
or nickel in order to electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel plating
to help prevent oxidation. Answer (A) is wrong because
A improve conductivity. copper is more conductive than tin or nickel and
B add strength. answer (B) is wrong because the thin coating provides
C prevent oxidization. no strength.
8-74. K02 8-74. Answer A. JSPT 8-31 (AC 65-12A)

Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication To lubricate a turbine engine's main bearings, pressur-
system of gas turbine engines? ized oil is sprayed on the bearings through fixed orifice
nozzles. These nozzles provide a relatively constant
A To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the flow of oil at all engine operating speeds thereby
main bearings at all engine speeds. ensuring adequate lubrication. Answer (B) is incorrect
B To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus pre- because the nozzles do not create back pressure on
venting an air lock. the oil pump and answer (C) is wrong because oil
C To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive pressure is controlled by the oil pump and relief valve.
pressure from entering the bearing cavities.
8-75. '■-^■- L01 ■ ' ' ■:■■ - 8-75. Answer B. JSPT 8-80 (AC 65-9A)
■■■ ■■■-■:■ -When a magneto is disassembled, Almost all magnets, regardless of their retentivity, lose
keepers are usually placed across the poles of the some of their magnetic strength when their lines of flux
rotating magnet to reduce the loss of magnetism. These pass through the air. Therefore, during the overhaul of a
keepers are usually made of magneto, when the rotating magnet is removed, it
should be placed in a soft iron keeper to prevent loss of
A chrome magnet steel. magnetism. A "keeper" is a piece of soft iron that is
B soft iron. C cobalt used to link the magnetic poles and provide a highly
steel. permeable path for the flux. "Chrome magnet steel"
(answer A) is not a commonly used term and does not
describe an actual alloy. Answer (C) is incorrect
because cobalt is rarely alloyed with steel.
8-76. L01 8-76. Answer A. JSPT 8-84

How is the strength of a magneto magnet checked? There are two common methods for checking the
strength of a magneto magnet. If the magnet is
A Hold the points open and check the output of the removed from the magneto, it is checked with a mag-
primary coil with an ac ammeter while operating netometer. However, if the magneto is assembled, the
the magneto at a specified speed. magnet's strength is checked by holding the points
B Check the ac voltage reading at the breaker open and then checking the output of the primary with
points. an AC ammeter as the magneto is rotated at a speci-
C Check the output of the secondary coil with an ac fied speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
ammeter while operating the magneto at a speci- breaker points only trigger the collapse of the primary
fied speed. field and cannot indicate its strength. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the output of the secondary coil
relates to factors other than the strength of the rotating
magnet and, therefore, is not a reliable indicator of a
magnet's strength.
8-77. L01 8-77. Answer B. JSPT 8-73 (AC 65-12A)

The E-gap angle is usually defined as the number of The number of degrees between the neutral position of
degrees between the neutral position of the rotating the rotating magnet and the position where the contact
magnet and the position points open is called the E-gap angle. When the rotor
is at the E-gap angle the cam opens the breaker points
A where the contact points close. and current stops flowing through the primary coil. This
B where the contact points open. - sudden stoppage of current flow causes the magnetic
C of greatest magnetic flux density. field in the coil core to collapse and induce a voltage
into the secondary winding. Answer (A) is incorrect
because the E-gap angle identifies the point where the
contact points open, not where they close. Answer (C)
is wrong because the flux density at the E-gap position
is low.
8-78. L01 8-78. Answer A. JSPT 8-72 (AC 65-12A)

The greatest density of flux lines in the magnetic circuit The greatest flux density within a rotating magnet-type
of a rotating magnet-type magneto occurs when the magneto occurs when the poles of the magnet are
magnet is in what position? fully aligned with the field shoe faces. This position is
known as the full register position. Answer (B) is incor-
A Full alignment with the field shoe faces. rect because the E-gap position identifies the point
B A certain angular displacement beyond the neutral where the flux density is least dense, and answer (C)
position, referred to as E-gap angle or position. C is wrong because the points open at the E-gap posi-
The position where the contact points open. tion which, as stated above, is the point where flux
density is the least.
8-79. L01 8-79. Answer B. JSPT 8-82 (AC 65-12A) The internal
Magneto breaker point opening relative to the position timing of a magneto is most easily set when the
of the rotating magnet and distributor rotor (internal magneto is being assembled prior to installation. Both
timing) can be set most accurately answers (A) and (C) are wrong because both answers
require the magneto to be installed and it is nearly
A during the magneto-to-engine timing operation. impossible to internally time a magneto when it is
B during assembly of the magneto before installa- installed on an engine.
tion on the engine.
C by setting the points roughly at the required
clearance before installing the magneto and then
making the fine breaker point adjustment after
installation to compensate for wear in the mag-
neto drive train.
8-80. L01 8-80. Answer C. JSPT 8-90 (AC 65-12A) The ignition
Why are high-tension ignition cables frequently routed harness on reciprocating engines serve several purposes.
from the distributors to the spark plugs in flexible It supports the wires going from the magneto to each
metallic conduits? spark plug and protects them from engine heat, vibration,
and weather. Ignition harnesses also serve as a conductor
A To eliminate high altitude flashover. for the stray magnetic fields that surround the wires as
B To reduce the formation of corona and nitric they momentarily carry high-voltage current. Therefore, by
oxide on the cable insulation. routing the ignition leads through metallic conduits, the
C To reduce the effect of the high-frequency elec- stray magnetic fields are easily conducted to ground,
tromagnetic waves emanated during operation. thereby reducing electrical interference with aircraft radio
equipment. Answer (A) is wrong because flashover occurs
in a distributor when high voltage current flashes across a
wet insulating surface to ground. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a corona occurs when a high voltage breaks
down a conductor's insulation and discharges to the
atmosphere or to some adjacent conductor. Since flexible
metal conduits do not provide any additional insulation
they do not prevent corona discharge.

What will be the results of increasing the gap of the Any time the gap between the breaker points in a mag-
breaker points in a magneto? neto is increased, the points will open early. When the
points open early, the spark within the cylinder occurs in
A Retard the spark and increase its intensity. B advance of when it is supposed to. Furthermore, early
Advance the spark and decrease its intensity. C opening points also cause a decrease in spark intensity.
Retard the spark and decrease its intensity. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the breaker
point gap must be decreased to retard the spark.
8-82. L01 8-82. Answer A. JSPT 8-75

What is the purpose of a safety gap in some magnetos? Some magnetos contain a safety gap that protects the
secondary coil. The safety gap is connected in series with
A To discharge the secondary coil's voltage if an the secondary circuit by two electrodes. One electrode is
open occurs in the secondary circuit. attached to the high tension brush holder and the other
B To ground the magneto when the ignition switch electrode is grounded to the ground plate. With this con-
is off. figuration, if excessive voltage builds in the secondary cir-
C To prevent flashover in the distributor. cuit due to an open that does not allow the spark to jump
the spark plug electrodes, the excessive voltage jumps
the safety gap to the ground connection. This helps
ensure that the voltage cannot rise high enough to dam-
age the insulation within the secondary coil. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the ignition switch, not the safety gap,
grounds the magneto. Answer (C) is incorrect because
flashover is prevented by ventilating the magneto to
reduce moisture accumulation and by insulating coils,
condensers, distributors, and distributor rotors with wax.
8-83. L01 8-83. Answer C. JSPT 8-83 (AC 65-12A)

When timing a magneto internally, the alignment of the When the timing marks within a magneto are aligned,
timing marks indicates that the the magnets are in the E-gap position and the breaker
points are just beginning to open. Answer (A) is wrong
A breaker points are just closing. B because alignment of the timing marks indicates that
magnets are in the neutral position. C the breaker points are opening, not closing.
magnets are in the E-gap position. Furthermore, since the magnets are several degrees
past the neutral position when the timing marks are
aligned, answer (B) is incorrect.

When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points
begin to open when the rotating magnet is should begin to open when the rotating magnet is a
few degrees past the neutral position. The neutral posi-
A fully aligned with the pole shoes. tion is defined as the point where the rotating magnet
B a few degrees past full alignment with the pole shoes. is 45 degrees past full alignment with the pole shoes.
C a few degrees past the neutral position.

What is the electrical location of the primary capacitor The primary electrical circuit in a magneto consists of a
in a high-tension magneto? set of breaker contact points, a capacitor, and an insu-
lated coil. The capacitor is wired in parallel with the
A In parallel with the breaker points. breaker points to prevent arcing between the points
B In series with the breaker points. when they open, and to hasten the collapse of the mag-
C In a series with the primary and secondary winding. netic field around the primary coil. If a capacitor were
connected in series with the breaker points (answer B)
the magneto would not operate. Answer (C) is wrong
because a capacitor is only installed between the igni-
tion switch and the breaker points of a low-tension
magneto, and this question refers to a high-tension sys-
tem.

? Current is induced into a magneto's secondary winding
In a high-tension ignition system, the current in the ? when the current within the primary winding is inter-
magneto secondary winding is rupted suddenly, causing a high rate of flux change.
Current is interrupted by opening the primary breaker
A conducted from the primary winding via the points when the rotating magnet is in the E-gap posi-
discharge of the capacitor. tion. Answer (A) is wrong because the primary purpose
B induced when the primary circuit is interrupted. of the capacitor is to prevent arcing between the points
C induced when the primary circuit discharges and have little to do with current in the secondary wind-
via the breaker points. ing. Answer (C) is incorrect because the primary circuit
does not discharge, it is only interrupted.
8-87. Answer C. JSPT 8-77 (AC 65-12A)

8-87. L01 With a "shower of sparks" ignition system, an electri-
When a "Shower of Sparks" ignition system is acti- cally operated vibrator rapidly opens and closes both
vated at an engine start, a spark plug fires the retard and advance breaker points. This action
causes the current flowing through the primary coil to
A as soon as the advance breaker points open. B be interrupted several times per second which, in turn,
only while both the retard and advance breaker causes the magnetic field surrounding the primary coil
points are closed. C only while both the retard to build and collapse at the same rate. The rapid suc-
and advance breaker cessions of separate voltages that are induced into the
points are open. ■ secondary coil by the pulsating magnetic field around
the primary coil produce a "shower of sparks" across
the selected spark plug when both of the breaker
points are open (answer C). Answer (A) is wrong
because both breaker points must be open to cause a
spark plug to fire, and answer (B) is wrong because ;
both the breaker points must be open to induce a spark,
not closed.
8-88. Answer A. JSPT 8-71 (AC 65-12A)

8-88. L01 In a four-pole rotating magnet, the two north poles are
What is the radial location of the two north poles of a located 180 degrees apart. Answer (B) is wrong
four-pole rotating magnet in a high-tension magneto? because it is impossible for the north poles of a rotating
magnet with an even number of poles to be 270
A 180 apart. degrees apart. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
B 270 apart. north poles would be 90 degrees apart on an
C 90 apart. - "-■■ , - . eight-pole magnet, not a four-pole magnet. ,;;
■>- >
8-89. Answer B. JSPT 8-88 (AC 65 -9A)

8-89. L01 If a set of points is worn, the internal timing of the
magneto is advanced. The next most common cause
Magneto timing drift is caused by erosion of the
of timing drift is wear of the breaker cam which causes
breaker points and the timing to be retarded.
A excessive spark plug gap. B
wear of the cam followers. C loss of
magnetism in the rotor.
8-90. L01 8-90. Answer B. JSPT 8-93 (ITP-P2)

Capacitance afterfiring in most modern spark plugs is The shielding used on ignition leads to protect against
reduced by the use of radio interference can act as a capacitor and store
electrical energy that is released when the spark jumps
A fine wire electrodes. the spark plug gap. When this happens, the energy
B a built-in resistor in each plug. that is stored in the capacitance of the ignition harness
C aluminum oxide insulation. is returned to the spark plug, and afterfiring occurs. To
minimize this problem, spark plugs have a resistor
installed inside the spark plug insulator that prevents
the electrical energy stored in the harness from reach-
ing the spark plug gap. Answer (A) simply lists a type
of spark plug and has nothing to do with afterfiring.
Answer (C) is wrong because aluminum oxide is not
used as insulation.

What components make up the magnetic system of a The magnetic circuit of a magneto consists of a perma-
magneto? nent rotating magnet, a pair of soft iron pole shoes and
pole shoe extensions, and a coil core. Answers (A) and
A Pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and the pri- (B) are incorrect because the primary and secondary
mary coil. coils are part of the primary and secondary electrical
B Primary and secondary coils. circuits, not the magnetic system.
C Rotating magnet, the pole shoes, the pole shoe
extensions, and the coil core.
8-92. '■■'■■ L01 ■ -■ :-■ 8-92. Answer B. JSPT 8-73 (AC 65-12A)
<■■■ :*■■■-.■■:i-~. :.. ,:■,■■ In an aircraft ignition The purpose of the capacitor in the primary electrical
system, one of the functions of the capacitor is to circuit is to prevent arcing between the points when
they are opened, and to hasten the collapse of the
A regulate the flow of current between the primary magnetic field surrounding the primary coil. Answer (A)
and secondary coil. B facilitate a more rapid is incorrect because there is no flow of current between
collapse of the magnetic the primary and secondary coils. Answer (C) is wrong
field in the primary coil. C stop the flow of because opening the points stops current flow in the
magnetic lines of force when the primary circuit, not the flow of magnetic lines of force.
points open.
8-93. Answer A. JSPT 8-79 (AC 65-12A)
8-93. L01 A high voltage is induced into the secondary winding
When will the voltage in the secondary winding of a when there is a rapid change in the magnetic field sur-
magneto, installed on a normally operating engine, be rounding the primary coil. The amount of voltage within
at its highest value? the secondary winding builds from its lowest value
immediately before the breaker points close to a maxi-
A Just prior to spark plug firing. mum value just prior to the spark plug firing. Answer (B)
B Toward the latter part of the spark duration when is incorrect because the voltage within the secondary
the flame front reaches its maximum velocity. C winding approaches its lowest value toward the latter
Immediately after the breaker points close. part of the spark duration. Answer (C) is wrong
because when the breaker points are closed, there is
little current induced in the secondary coil.
8-94. Answer B. JSPT 8-68 (AC 65-12A)

8-94. L01 In a battery ignition system, when the ignition switch is
When the switch is off in a battery ignition system, the on, current is supplied to the primary coil. However,
primary circuit is when the switch is off, the primary circuit opens and
current cannot flow to the primary coil. Answer (A) is
A grounded. wrong because it describes what happens to the pri-
B opened. C mary circuit in a magneto system when the ignition
shorted. switch is off.

As an aircraft engine's speed is increased, the voltage The amount of voltage induced in the primary coil of a
induced in the primary coil of the magneto magneto varies with the rate at which the magnet's
lines of flux are cut. Therefore, the faster an engine
A remains constant. : runs, the faster the flux lines are cut and the greater
B increases. the induced voltage (answer B). Answer (A) is incorrect
C varies with the setting of the voltage regulator. because the amount of induced voltage does not
remain constant, and answer (C) is incorrect because
magneto ignition systems contain no voltage regulator.

When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points
begin to open when should begin to open when the rotating magnet is a
few degrees past the neutral position. The neutral posi-
A the piston has just passed TDC at the end of the tion is defined as the point where the rotating magnet
compression stroke. B the magnet poles are a is 45 degrees past full alignment with the pole shoes.
few degrees beyond the Answer (A) is wrong because piston position relates to
neutral position. C the magnet poles are fully the timing of the magneto to the engine, not to the
aligned with the pole magneto's internal timing. Answer (C) is incorrect
shoes. because when the poles are aligned with the pole
shoes at the "full register" position, the breaker points
are closed, not open.
8-97. L01 8-97. Answer B. JSPT 8-75

The purpose of a safety gap in a magneto is to Some magnetos contain a safety gap that protects the
secondary coil. The safety gap is connected in series
A prevent burning out the primary winding. with the secondary circuit by two electrodes. One elec-
B protect the high-voltage winding from damage. trode is attached to the high tension brush holder while
C prevent burning of contact points. the other electrode is grounded to the ground plate.
With this configuration, if excessive voltage builds in
the secondary circuit due to an open that does not
allow the spark to jump the spark plug electrodes, the
excessive voltage jumps the safety gap to the ground
connection. This helps ensure that the voltage cannot
rise high enough to damage insulation within the sec-
ondary coil. Answer (A) is wrong because a safety gap
prevents the secondary winding from burning out, not
the primary. Answer (C) is incorrect because a capaci-
tor, not a safety gap, prevents contact points from
becoming burned or pitted.

A defective primary capacitor in a magneto is indicated One of the purposes of a capacitor in a magneto is to
by prevent arcing across the breaker points once the
points open. Therefore, a good indication of a defective
A a fine-grained frosted appearance of the breaker capacitor is breaker points that are burned or pitted
points. from arcing. Answer (A) is incorrect because a dull
B burned and pitted breaker points. C gray or sandblasted appearance indicates a properly
a weak spark. functioning capacitor, and answer (C) is incorrect
because a defective condenser will not have an appre-
ciable affect on the strength of the spark.
8-99. L01
How many secondary coils are required in a low-ten- 8-99. Answer A. JSPT 8-70 (AC 65-12A)
sion ignition system on an 18-cylinder engine? In a low-tension ignition system, a primary and sec-
ondary coil are located near each of the spark plugs.
A Therefore, a standard 18-cylinder engine with two
36. spark plugs per cylinder utilizes 36 secondary coils.
B
18.
C 9.

A magneto ignition switch is connected The ignition switch in a magneto circuit is wired in par-
allel with the breaker points and the primary capacitor.
A in series with the breaker points. B parallel to In other words, from the ignition switch, there are two
the breaker points. C in series with the primary possible paths current can flow; either through the
capacitor and parallel to the breaker points. breaker points or through the primary of the coil.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the ignition switch is
connected in parallel with the breaker points in a mag-
neto system, not in series. Answer (C) is wrong
because the primary capacitor is connected in parallel
with the breaker points and, therefore, is in parallel
with the ignition switch.
8-101. L01
The spark is produced in a magneto ignition system 8-101. Answer B. JSPT 8-73 (AC 65-12A)
when the breaker points are Current is induced into the secondary winding to pro-
duce a spark when the breaker points begin to open,
A fully open. causing the magnetic field surrounding the primary coil
B beginning to open. to collapse. The spark has subsided by the time the
C fully closed. points are fully open (answer A), and when the points
are fully closed (answer C) no spark is produced
because there is no collapsing field to induce current in
the secondary coil.
8-102. L01
Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition wires to 8-102. Answer C. JSPT 8-90 (AC 65-12A)
The shielding used on spark plug and ignition wires
A protect the wires from short circuits as a result serves to prevent or reduce interference with radio
of reception. Without this shielding, the stray magnetic
chafing and rubbing. B prevent outside fields that surround the wires when they momentarily
electromagnetic emissions from carry the high-voltage current could make radio com-
disrupting the operation of the ignition system. C munication virtually impossible. Protecting the wires
prevent interference with radio reception. from physical wear such as chafing and abrasion
(answer A) is the job of the ignition wire's insulation
and other protective sleeves. Answer (B) is wrong
because, typically, there are no electromagnetic emis-
sions produced in an aircraft that can disrupt the oper-
ation of the ignition system.

What is the purpose of using an impulse coupling with An impulse coupling is designed to induce a momen-
a magneto? tary high rotational speed which increases the rate at
which the lines of flux in the primary coil are cut. This
A To absorb impulse vibrations between the mag- produces a more intense spark that aids in starting.
neto and the engine. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because an impulse
B To compensate for backlash in the magneto and coupling does nothing to absorb vibrations between
the engine gears. the magneto and the engine, or compensate for back-
C To produce a momentary high rotational speed lash in the magneto and engine gears.
of the magneto.
8-104. L01 8-104. Answer C. JSPT 8-85 In a dual-ignition system,

The purpose of staggered ignition is to compensate for the spark plugs may be set to fire at the same instant
(synchronized) or at slightly different intervals (staggered).
A short ignition harness. When a staggered ignition is used, the spark plug in the
B rich fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve. exhaust side of the cylinder is always fired first to
C diluted fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve. compensate for the slower burn rate of the diluted fuel/air
mixture in this portion of the cylinder. Answer (A) is
wrong because the only way to compensate for a short
ignition harness is to install one of the correct size.
Answer (B) is incorrect because heat from the exhaust
valve expands and dilutes the fuel/air mixture, producing
a lean mixture, not a rich mixture.

Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in Magnetos require adequate drains and proper ventila-
order to tion to provide cooling and prevent moisture from build-
ing inside a magneto and shorting across the internal
A prevent the entrance of outside air which may components. In addition, good magneto ventilation
contain moisture. helps ensure that the corrosive gases produced by
B allow heated air from the accessory compartment normal arcing across the distributor air gap are carried
to keep the internal parts of the magneto dry. away. Answer (A) is incorrect since outside air is inten-
C provide cooling and remove corrosive gases pro- tionally admitted into the magneto to facilitate ventila-
duced by normal arcing. tion. Although heated air (answer B) helps remove
moisture, operating magnetos require cooling air to
prevent overheating.

Failure of an engine to cease firing after turning the In a magneto ignition system, if the engine does not
magneto switch off is an indication of stop firing when the ignition switch is turned off, there is
an open P-lead to ground (answer B). Answer (A) is
A an open high tension lead. incorrect because an open high tension lead would
: only prevent voltage from reaching one spark plug and
B an open P-lead to ground.
C a grounded magneto switch. would not allow an engine to continue firing after the
magneto switch is turned off. Answer (C) is wrong
because, if a magneto switch is properly grounded, the
engine will not fire when the switch is off.
8-107. L01 8-107. Answer B. JSPT 8-83 (AC 65-12A) When the
Alignment of the marks provided for internal timing of timing marks within a magneto are aligned, the
a magneto indicates that the magnets are in the E-gap position and the breaker
points are just beginning to open. Answer (A) is wrong
A breaker points are just beginning to close for because when the timing marks are aligned, the points
No.l cylinder. are just beginning to open, not close. Answer (C) is
B magneto is in E-gap position. C No.l cylinder incorrect because the timing marks within a magneto
is on TDC of compression stroke. do not indicate the position of the number one piston.
8-108. L01 8-108. Answer A. JSPT 8-89 (AC 65-12A) When using
When using a timing light to time a magneto to an air- a timing light to time a magneto to an engine, the
craft engine, the magneto switch should be placed in master switch must be turned on and the ignition switch
the placed in the BOTH position. If the magneto switch is in
the OFF position (answer B), the timing light will not
A BOTH position. indicate when the breaker points open, and if the
B OFF position. magneto switch is in either the LEFT or RIGHT position
C LEFT or RIGHT position (either one). (answer C), you could only time one of the magnetos.
8-109. L01 n 8-109. Answer C. JSPT 8-69 (AC 65-12A)

What is the difference between a low-tension and a In a low-tension ignition system, the magneto generates
high-tension engine ignition system? a low voltage that flows to the primary winding of a
transformer coil located near the spark plug. This differs
A A low-tension system produces relatively low from a high-tension ignition system which produces a
voltage at the spark plug as compared to a high voltage at the magneto that travels through
high-tension system. high-tension leads to fire the spark plug. Answer (A) is
B A high-tension system is designed for high-alti- incorrect since both systems use the same high voltage
tude aircraft, while a low-tension system is for to fire the spark plugs. Answer (B) is incorrect because
low- to medium-altitude aircraft. the low-tension system is superior for high-altitude air-
C A low-tension system uses a transformer coil near craft since it eliminates the problems of arcing at the
the spark plugs to boost voltage, while the points and corona discharge at high altitudes.
high-tension system voltage is constant from the
magneto to the spark plugs.

What test instrument could be used to test an ignition Several different types of test devices are used for
harness for suspected leakage? determining the serviceability of a high-tension ignition
harness. One common type of tester is capable of
A A high-tension lead tester. applying a direct current voltage up to 15,000 volts.
B A high voltage dc voltmeter. ■ Once voltage is applied to an ignition harness, a
C A high amperage dc ammeter. high-tension lead tester is used to measure any current
that leaks through the insulation. Neither a high voltage
DC voltmeter (answer B) nor a high amperage DC
ammeter (answer C) is sensitive enough to detect
leakage current from a high-tension harness.
8-111. L01 8-111. Answer B. JSPT 8-74

The amount of voltage generated in any magneto sec- The amount of voltage induced into the secondary coil
ondary coil is determined by the number of windings of a magneto is determined by the ratio of the number
and by the of turns of wire in the two coils and the speed at which
the magnetic field around the primary coil collapses.
A rate of buildup of the magnetic field around the The faster the magnetic coil collapses the greater the
primary coil. B rate of collapse of the induced voltage. Answer (A) is incorrect because the
magnetic field around the rate of buildup of the magnetic field in the primary has
primary coil. C amount of charge little effect on the amount of current induced in the sec-
released by the capacitor. ondary coil. Answer (C) is wrong because the capacitor
absorbs rather than releases current as the points
open.
8-112. L01 8-112. Answer B. JSPT 8-73 (AC 65-21 A)

Magneto breaker points must be timed to open when With the primary breaker points closed, the rotating
the magnet's flux generates an opposing magnetic field in
the magneto coil. This opposing force is the source of
A rotating magnet is positioned a few degrees magnetic field stress, and the point where this stress is
before neutral. highest is a few degrees beyond the neutral position or
B greatest magnetic field stress exists in the mag- the E-gap position. It is here that the points open to
netic circuit. induce the highest possible voltage into the secondary
C rotating magnet is in the full register position. coil. Answer (A) is wrong because the voltage within
the primary circuit is below its maximum prior to the
neutral position and, if the breaker points were to open
at this point, maximum voltage would not be induced
into the secondary coil. Answer (C) is wrong because
at the full register position, little current is induced in
the primary.

In reference to a "Shower of Sparks" ignition system, Only statement number (2) is correct. The retard points
(1) the retard breaker points are designed to keep the are timed so that they open later than the normal
affected ignition system operating if the advance points. This retarded timing ensures that the engine
breaker points should fail during normal engine will not kick-back when it fires. Both sets of points must
operation (after start). be open for the Shower of Sparks system to operate.
(2) the timed opening of the retard breaker points is After the starter switch is released, the retard points
designed to prevent engine "kickback" during start. have no function.
A only No. 1 is true. s


The capacitor-type ignition system is used almost Turbine engine ignition systems must deliver a
universally on turbine engines primarily because of its high-heat intense spark to ignite fuel at low
high voltage and temperatures or high altitudes. To accomplish this,
turbine engines employ a capacitor-ignition system that
A low amperage. delivers a high amperage spark. Answer (A) is
B long life. incorrect because a capacitor-type ignition system
C high-heat intensity. delivers a high amperage at the igniter plug while
answer (B) is wrong because, although the capacitor
ignition system has long life, this is not the primary
reason for its use.
8-115. L02
In a low-tension ignition system, each spark plug 8-115. Answer C. JSPT 8-69 (AC 65-12A)
requires an individual In a low-tension ignition system, the magneto produces
a low voltage which is fed to an individual secondary
A capacitor. coil located near each spark plug (answer C). Answers
B breaker assembly. (A) and (B) are incorrect because each magneto, not
C secondary coil. sparkplug, in a low-tension ignition system requires
only one capacitor and one breaker assembly.
8-116. L02
A certain nine-cylinder radial engine used a 8-116. Answer C. JSPT 8-75 (AC 65-12A)
noncom-pensated single-unit, dual-type magneto with A distributor used with any four-cycle engine must
a four-pole rotating magnet and separately mounted rotate at one-half the engine's speed to fire each spark
distributors. Which of the following will have the low- plug in every two crankshaft revolutions. However, the
est RPM at any given engine speed? speed of a magneto with an uncompensated cam is
calculated by dividing the number of cylinders by twice
A Breaker cam. the number of poles on the magnet. In this case, mag-
B Engine crankshaft. neto speed is 1.125 times the crankshaft speed (9 -r (4
C Distributors. " x 2) = 1.125). Based on this, the distributor rotates at
the slowest speed.
8-117. L02
What will be the effect if the spark plugs are gapped 8-117. Answer B. JSPT 8-99 (AC 65-12A)
too wide? Spark plugs that are gapped too wide generally lead to
hard starting. The reason for this is that the wider gap
A Insulation failure. B requires a higher voltage to produce a spark that will
Hard starting. C jump the gap. Since the production of a higher voltage
Lead damage. requires the magneto to rotate faster, starting becomes
more difficult. Excessive spark plug gaps can cause
insulation damage (answer A) and ignition lead dam-
age (answer C) overtime, but hard starting is much
more immediate.
8-118. i <:A;- L02 :

8-118. Answer C. JSPT 8-96 (AC 65-12A)
■■■■r-v. :. ' --'■■■■■ ^-When removing a Before a spark plug is removed, its ignition harness lead
shielded spark plug, which of the following is most must be disconnected. If the lead is not pulled straight
likely to be damaged? out of the plug barrel, damage to the core insulator and
the ceramic lead terminal may result. The center elec-
A Center electrode. B trode (answer A) and shell section (answer B) are
Shell section. C unlikely to be damaged unless the spark plug is dropped.
Core insulator.
8-119. Answer A. JSPT 8-88 (AC 65-12A)
One end of a magneto secondary coil is grounded to the
8-119. L02 primary coil or the coil core while the other end is con-
What likely effect would a cracked distributor rotor nected to the distributor rotor. Therefore, if the distributor
have on a magneto? rotor in a magneto is cracked, the current in the sec-
ondary coil has a less resistive path to ground through
A Ground the secondary circuit through the crack. the crack to the metal shaft of the magneto (answer A).
B Fire two cylinders simultaneously. Answer (B) is incorrect because a cracked distributor
C Ground the primary circuit through the crack. rotor will not cause two cylinders to fire simultaneously.
Answer (C) is wrong because the primary circuit is not
electrically connected to the distributor and, therefore,
cannot be grounded through a crack in a rotor.
8-120. Answer C. JSPT 8-102 (AC 65-12A)

Unlike the ignition system for a reciprocating engine
8-120. L02 that produces a high voltage, low amperage spark, tur-
How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine bine engine ignition systems deliver a high-energy
differ from that of a reciprocating engine? spark with a substantially higher amperage. This
high-energy spark is needed to ignite the fuel/air
A One igniter plug is used in each combustion mixture in low temperatures and at high altitudes.
chamber. Answer (A) is incorrect because most turbine engines
B Magneto-to-engine timing is not critical. utilize two igniter plugs in the entire engine while
C A high-energy spark is required for ignition. answer (B) is wrong because turbine engines do not
use magneto ignition systems.
8-121. Answer B. JSPT 8-103 (AC 65-12A)

A high-voltage capacitor discharge ignition system in a
8-121. L02 turbine engine produces high voltage pulses at what is
In a turbine engine dc capacitor discharge ignition sys- called a trigger transformer. Current is supplied to the
tem, where are the high-voltage pulses formed? trigger transformer through a contactor and large stor-
age capacitor. When the storage capacitor becomes
A At the breaker. fully charged, the conductor is closed by the mechani-
B At the triggering transformer. cal action of a single-lobe cam. With the contactor
C At the rectifier. closed, the energy in the storage capacitor is allowed
to flow to the trigger transformer where a high-voltage
pulse is formed and sent to the igniter. Answers (A)
and (C) are incorrect because relatively low voltage
energy exists at the breaker assembly and rectifier.
8-122. Answer C. JSPT 8-88 (AC 65-12A)

One purpose of the capacitor in a magneto ignition
8-122. L02 system is to prevent arcing between the breaker points.
Which of the following breaker point characteristics is Therefore, a faulty capacitor can be suspected if the
associated with a faulty capacitor? breaker points take on a coarse-grained or sooty
appearance (answer C). Crowned points (answer A)
A Crowned. B have a concave center and a convex rim and are the
Fine grained. C result of improper dressing, not a faulty capacitor, and
Coarse grained. points having a fine-grained appearance (answer B)
indicates normal capacitor operation.
8-123. L02 - 8-123. Answer A. JSPT 8-91 (AC 65-12A)

How are most radial engine spark plug wires con- Spark plug wires on most radial engines are normally
nected to the distributor block? connected to the distributor block with cable-piercing
screws. Neither self-locking cable ferrules (answer B)
A By use of cable-piercing screws. nor terminal sleeves and retaining nuts (answer C) are
B By use of self-locking cable ferrules. used to attach spark plug wires to a distributor block.
C By use of terminal sleeves and retaining nuts.
8-124. L02 8-124. Answer A. JSPT 8-93 (ITP-P2)

Capacitance afterfiring of a spark plug is caused by The shielding used on ignition leads to protect against
radio interference can sometimes act as a capacitor
A the stored energy in the ignition shielded lead and store residual electrical energy as the high voltage
unloading after normal timed ignition. B charge flows through the lead to the spark plug. When
excessive center electrode erosion. C this happens, the energy stored in the ignition harness
constant polarity firing. is returned to the spark plug after the primary spark
has occurred. Although center electrode erosion
(answer B) is not the cause of capacitance afterfiring, it
is a typical consequence. Constant polarity firing
(answer C), on the other hand, does not occur in mag-
neto ignition systems.

If it is found that a shielded ignition system does not If a typical shielded ignition system does not ade-
adequately reduce ignition noise, it may be necessary ■<: quately reduce ignition noise, a second layer of
to install shielding is typically installed. Answer (B) is incorrect
because installing a filter between the magneto and
A a second layer of shielding. magneto switch would do little to reduce ignition noise
B a filter between the magneto and magneto switch. and answer (C) is wrong because shielding is
C bonding wires from the shielding to ground. grounded through the spark plugs and does not require
bonding wires.

When a magneto is operating, what is the probable A magneto is internally timed to ensure that the
cause for a shift in internal timing? breaker points open at the E-gap position to produce
the greatest flux change around the primary coil. Since
A ■ The rotating magnet looses its magnetism. the breaker points are opened by a cam, wear to either
B The distributor gear teeth are wearing on the the cam or the breaker points themselves could cause
rotor a magneto's internal timing to shift. Answer (A) is
gear teeth. C The cam follower wears and/or wrong because the strength of the permanent magnet
the breaker points has no effect on the E-gap position and answer (B) is
wear. incorrect because wear on the distributor gear teeth or
rotor teeth would change the magneto-to-engine timing,
not the magneto's internal timing.
8-127. Answer A. JSPT 8-104 (AC 65-12A)

8-127. L02 Turbine engine igniters are far less susceptible to elec-
Why are turbine engine igniters less susceptible to trode fouling than reciprocating engine spark plugs
fouling than reciprocating engine spark plugs? because the heat of the high-intensity spark produced
tends to clean the igniter electrodes. Although the fre-
A The high-intensity spark cleans the igniter. quency of the spark is lower for igniters (answer B),
this has little bearing on plug fouling characteristics.
B The frequency of the spark is less for igniters. Answer (C) is incorrect because turbine engine igniters
operate at much higher temperatures than spark plugs
C Turbine igniters operate at cooler temperatures. do.

The constrained-gap igniter plug used in some gas tur- In a constrained-gap igniter plug, the center electrode is
bine engines operates at a cooler temperature because recessed into the body of the plug. Therefore, in order
for the high-intensity spark to get from the electrode to
A it projects into the combustion chamber. ground, it must jump out away from the plug's tip.
B the applied voltage is less. Because of this, constrained-gap igniter plugs do not
C the construction is such that the spark occurs have to project into the combustion chamber liner
beyond the face of the combustion chamber liner. which allows them to operate at a cooler temperature.
Answer (A) is wrong because constrained-gap igniter
plugs do not project into the combustion chamber, and
answer (B) is incorrect because the applied voltage is
the same for a given ignition system.

What should be used to clean grease or carbon tracks When inspecting a magneto, all accessible condensers
from capacitors or coils that are used in magnetos? should be cleaned with a lint-free cloth moistened with
acetone. However, you should always observe the
A Solvent. magneto manufacturer's recommendations since some
B Acetone. cleaners can damage the protective coating on some
C components.
Naphtha.
8-130. Answer B. JSPT 8-106 (AC 65-12A)
8-130. L02 To minimize the risk of shock when removing an igniter
Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, it is important that you take all necessary precau-
plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the tions. As a general rule, you should begin removing an
technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch igniter plug by disconnecting the transformer exciter
is turned off and input lead and waiting the time prescribed by the man-
ufacturer. Once this is complete, disconnect the igniter
A disconnected from the power supply circuit. lead and ground the center electrode to the engine.
B the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and When these steps are followed, the chances of receiv-
the center electrode grounded to the engine after ing a shock are nearly eliminated.
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead
and waiting the prescribed time.
C the transformer-exciter input lead is disconnected
and the center electrode grounded to the engine :
after disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug
and waiting the prescribed time.
8-131. Answer B. JSPT 8-106 (TEP2)
8-131. L02 Great caution should be exercised in handling dam-
Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged transformer units from turbine engine ignition
aged hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter trans- systems since some units may have radioactive mater-
former units because ial on the air gap points. This material is used to cali-
brate the discharge points to a preset voltage. No
A compounds in the unit may become a fire or igniter transformer units contain compounds that pre-
explosion hazard when exposed to the air. sent fire or explosion hazards (answer A). Although the
B some contain radioactive material. radioactive compounds present in these units do pre-
C some contain toxic chemicals. sent a toxicity hazard (answer (C), their radioactivity is
the primary concern.

Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to The high-energy current used to fire turbine engine ignit-
high intensity spark discharges and yet they have a ers, if used continuously, would quickly cause electrode
long service life because they erosion. However, since combustion in a turbine engine
is self-supporting, igniter plugs are only used for short
A operate at much lower temperatures. B are not periods and, therefore, they maintain a relatively long
placed directly into the combustion chamber. C do service life (answer C). The ignition system is used pri-
not require continuous operation. marily to start an engine and ensure ignition during take-
off, icing conditions, landing, and moderate to severe
turbulence. Answer (A) is incorrect because turbine
engine igniters operate at much higher temperatures
than spark plugs while answer (B) is wrong because
igniters are placed directly into the combustion chamber.
8-133. L02
The electrical circuit from the spark plug back to the 8-133. Answer A. JSPT 8-93 (ITP-P20
magneto is completed by grounding through the In a typical magneto-type ignition system, the magneto
produces a high voltage charge that flows through the
A engine structure. distributor to the ignition leads and spark plugs. To
B P-lead. complete the circuit, the electrical charge jumps the
C cockpit switch. gap in the spark plug which is grounded through the
engine structure. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect
because neither the P-lead wire nor the cockpit (igni-
tion) switch are part of the electrical circuit from the
sparkplug to the magneto.
8-134. L02
Spark plugs are considered worn out when the 8-134. Answer A. JSPT 8-98 (ITP-P2)
Any spark plug whose electrodes have worn to approx-
A electrodes have worn away to about one-half of imately one-half their original dimension should be
their original dimensions. replaced. Spark plug electrodes become rounded fairly
B center electrode edges have become rounded. C quickly (answer B), and replacing them at this point
electrodes have worn away to about two-thirds of would be wasteful and expensive. However, waiting
their original dimensions. until the electrodes are two-thirds worn (answer C)
brings a greater risk of plug malfunction.
8-135. L02
Which of the following could cause damage to the 8-135. Answer B. JSPT 8-99 (AC 65-12A)
nose ceramic or to the electrode of an aircraft When gapping spark plugs, you typically decrease the
sparkplug? ; ,> ■■■ . -. , clearance between the center electrode and the ground
electrode. However, it is not recommended that a gap be
A Plug installed without a copper gasket. widened after it has been inadvertently decreased too
B Improper gapping procedures. C much since damage to the center electrode insulator typ-
Excessive magneto voltage. ically results. Neither the lack of a copper gasket (answer
A) nor excessive magneto voltage (answer C) will
damage the nose ceramic or electrode.
8-136. L02
Sharp bends should be avoided in ignition leads pri- 8-136. Answer A. JSPT 8-90
marily because Although newer ignition harnesses are flexible and can
be installed with smaller bend radii, older ignition
A weak points may develop in the insulation cables have a low tolerance for sharp bends. Over time,
through which high tension current can leak. the stress imposed by sharp bends on an ignition lead's
B ignition lead wire conductor material is brittle insulation can cause the insulation to break down and
and may break. allow current to leak. Answer (B) is wrong because
C ignition lead shielding effectiveness will be conductor wire is not brittle and will not break because
reduced. of occasional bending. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the effectiveness of the shielding is not appreciably
affected by sharp bends.

In a high-tension ignition system, a primary capacitor One of the purposes of the capacitor in a magneto is to
of too low a capacity will cause prevent arcing and burning of the breaker points.
Therefore, if the capacitor lacks sufficient capacity, arc-
A excessive primary voltage. ing will occur and the points will burn. Answer (A) is
B excessively high secondary voltage. wrong because primary voltage is not affected by the
C the breaker contacts to burn. capacitor. Answer (B) is incorrect because a capacitor
with a low capacity will cause the secondary voltage to
drop, not increase excessively.

Which of the following, obtained during magneto The ignition switch for a magneto ignition system
check at 1,700 RPM, indicates a short (grounded) cir- removes current from the primary circuit by grounding
cuit between the right magneto primary and the igni- the magneto primary leads. Therefore, if the primary
tion switch? lead to the right magneto is grounded, no current flows
from the magneto to the spark plug. A grounded right
A BOTH-1,700 RPM, R-1,625 RPM, L-1,700 magneto is identified during a magneto check by the
RPM, OFF-1,625 RPM. B BOTH-1,700 engine quitting when the ignition switch is moved to the
RPM, R-0 RPM, L-1,700 RPM, RIGHT position. However, in the BOTH position and in
OFF-0 RPM. C BOTH-1,700 RPM, R-0 RPM, the LEFT position, the engine will run at the estab-
L-1,675 RPM, lished rpm setting (1,700 rpm). Answer (A) is wrong
OFF-0 RPM. because it indicates an improperly grounded P-lead for
the right magneto. Answer (C) indicates a defective
ignition switch since both magnetos operate in the
BOTH position but the right magneto does not supply
current in the RIGHT position.

If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the The ignition switch for a magneto ignition system shuts
engine continues to run normally, the trouble is proba- an engine down by supplying a path to ground through
bly caused by the ignition switch. If the engine does not shut down
when the ignition switch is turned to the OFF position,
A an open ground lead in the magneto. B there is either an open ground lead in the magneto or a
arcing magneto breaker points. C faulty ignition switch. Arcing magneto breaker points
primary lead grounding. (answer B) will not cause an engine to continue to run
when the ignition switch is turned off. Answer (C) is
incorrect because if both primary leads are grounded
the engine will shut down, not continue to run.

Which statement is correct regarding the ignition sys- The high-energy current used to fire the turbine engine
tem of a turbine engine? igniter, if used continuously, would quickly cause elec-
trode erosion. However, since combustion is continu-
A The system is normally de-energized as soon as ous once a turbine engine is started, the ignition
the engine starts. system is typically de-energized soon after the engine
B It is energized during the starting and warmup starts. Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no need
periods only. to leave the ignition system on during warmup periods.
C The system generally includes a polar Answer (C) is wrong because there is no such thing as
inductor-type magneto. a polar inductor-type magneto.

When the ignition switch of a single (reciprocating) The ignition switch for a magneto ignition system shuts
engine aircraft is turned to the OFF position, an engine down by supplying a path to ground for both
magnetos through the ignition switch. The ignition
A the primary circuits of both magnetos are switch neither opens the secondary circuits (answer B)
grounded. B the secondary circuits of both nor automatically opens all circuits (answer C) when it
magnetos are is placed in the OFF position.
opened. C all circuits are
automatically opened.

A spark plug's heat range is the result of The heat range of a spark plug refers to the ability of
the insulator and center electrode to conduct heat
A the area of the plug exposed to the cooling away from the plug tip and transfer it to the cylinder
airstream. B its ability to transfer heat from head (answer B). "Hot" plugs have a long insulator that
the firing end of creates a long heat transfer path while "cold" plugs
the spark plug to the cylinder head. have a short insulator that rapidly transfers heat to the
C the heat intensity of the spark. cylinder head. Answer (A) is wrong because spark
plugs are cooled more by conduction to the cylinder
head than by the airstream. The heat intensity of the
spark (answer C) has nothing to do with a spark plug's
heat range.
8-143. L02 8-143. Answer A. JSPT 8-85

If staggered ignition timing is used, the When staggered ignition timing is used, the spark plug
nearest the exhaust valve fires first. This is done
A spark plug nearest the exhaust valve will fire because the fuel/air mixture nearest the exhaust valve
first. B spark will be automatically advanced is diluted and burns more slowly. Answer (B) is incor-
as engine rect because aircraft ignition systems do not employ
speed increases. C spark plug nearest the spark advance. Answer (C) is wrong because the
intake valve will fire first. fuel/air mixture is richer near the intake valve and does
not require an early spark.

The term "reach," as applied to spark plug design The reach of a spark plug is the linear distance from
and/or type, indicates the the shell gasket to the end of the threads on the plug
skirt. This does not include any space taken up by the
A linear distance from the shell gasket seat to the gasket. In simple terms, it is how far a plug extends
end of the threads on the shell skirt. B length into the cylinder head. Reach does not refer to either
of center electrode exposed to the flame of the length of the center electrode exposed to the com-
combustion. C length of the bustion flame (answer B) or the length of the shielded
shielded barrel. barrel (answer C).

The numbers appearing on the ignition distributor The numbers on a distributor block always indicate the
block indicate the sparking order of the distributor (answer A). These
numbers do not indicate the relationship between the
A sparking order of the distributor. distributor terminals and the cylinder numbers (answer
; B) nor do they indicate the engine's firing order
: (answer C).
B relation between distributor terminal numbers
and cylinder numbers. C
firing order of the engine.

When testing a magneto distributor block for electrical In addition to being able to check ignition leads, a
leakage, which of the following pieces of test equip high-tension harness tester (answer A) can also be
ment should be used? : .-. <■;..- used to indicate the condition of the distributor block. If
the majority of ignition leads being tested show
A high-tension harness tester. i excessive leakage, there is a good possibility that the
B A continuity tester. C distributor block is at fault. Answer (B) is wrong
A high-range ammeter. because a distributor block can have continuity and still
have electrical leakage, and answer (C), a high-range
ammeter, is incorrect because any leakage at the
distributor block would possess such a low amperage
that it would be nearly impossible to detect with a
high-range ammeter.
8-147. L02
(1) The platinum and iridium ground electrodes used 8-147. Answer A. JSPT 8-94 (ITP-P2)
on fine wire spark plugs are extremely brittle and Only statement (1) is true. Although fine wire elec-
can be broken if they are improperly handled or trodes are easier to gap than massive electrode plugs,
adjusted. extreme care must be taken because both platinum
(2) When gapping massive-electrode spark plugs, a and iridium are extremely brittle and can break if
wire gauge should be inserted between the center improperly handled. For massive electrode spark plugs,
and ground electrodes while moving the ground the wire gauge must not be between the electrodes
electrode in order to avoid setting the gap too close. when you move the ground electrode over since this
will place a side load on the center electrode which
Regarding the above statements, could crack the ceramic.
A only No. 1 is true. - :

B only No. 2 is true. ;
C both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. .
8-148. L02
Hot spark plugs are generally used in aircraft power- 8-148. Answer B. JSPT 8-95 (AC 65-12A)
plants -.-.:.■,;■ The heat range of a spark plug refers to the ability of
the insulator and the center electrode to conduct heat
A with comparatively high compression or high away from the plug tip. Hot spark plugs, or plugs that
operating temperatures. have a long insulator, slowly transfer heat and are typi-
B with comparatively low operating temperatures. cally used in engines whose cylinder temperatures are
C which produce high power per cubic inch relatively low. Cold spark plugs, on the other hand,
displacement. have a short insulator that rapidly transfers heat which
makes them appropriate for hot running, high-com-
pression engines. Using a hot plug in a hot-running
engine (answer A) typically causes plugs to overheat
and cause preignition. An engine's power output per
cubic inch displacement (answer C) is a function of its
design and is not affected by a spark plug's heat range.
8-149. L02 8-149. Answer A. JSPT 8-90

If a spark plug lead becomes grounded, the In a normally operating ignition system, when a spark
plug fires, current from the magneto passes to ground
A magneto will not be affected. by jumping the spark plug's air gap. Therefore, if a
B distributor rotor finger will discharge to the next spark plug lead becomes grounded, current would sim-
closest electrode within the distributor. ply flow through the lead to ground with no effect on
C capacitor will break down. the magneto. Answer (B) is wrong because the distrib-
utor rotor finger will discharge normally through the
adjacent electrode when a lead becomes grounded.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a grounded magneto
will operate normally and the capacitor will be unaf-
fected by the short.

Which of the following statements most accurately The heat range of a spark plug is a measure of a spark
describes spark plug heat range? plug's ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head. The
primary factor in determining the heat range of a plug
A The length of the threaded portion of the shell is the length of the nose core. For example, cold plugs
usually denotes the spark plug heat range. have a relatively short insulator to provide a rapid
B A hot plug is designed so that the insulator tip is transfer of heat to the cylinder head while hot plugs
reasonably short to hasten the rate of heat transfer have a long insulator nose that creates a long heat
from the tip through the spark plug shell to the transfer path. Answer (A) is wrong because the length
cylinder head. of the threaded portion of the shell denotes reach, not
C A cold plug is designed so that the insulator tip is heat range. Answer (B) is incorrect because a hot plug
reasonably short to hasten the rate of heat transfer has a long insulator to create a long heat transfer path,
from the tip through the spark plug shell to the not a short insulator.
cylinder head.

When does battery current flow through the primary In a battery ignition system, current is supplied by the
circuit of a battery ignition coil? battery through the ignition switch with a return to
ground through the breaker points. Therefore, in order
A Only when the breaker points are open. B At for current to flow, the ignition switch must be on and
all times when the ignition switch is on. C When the breaker points closed. Answer (A) is incorrect
the breaker points are closed and the ignition switch is because when the breaker points are open there is no
on. path to ground and current cannot flow. Answer (B) is
wrong because just having the ignition switch on does
not allow current to flow.

In order to turn a magneto off, the primary circuit must be In a magneto ignition system, the purpose of the igni-
tion switch is to ground out the primary of the magneto
A grounded. when the switch is OFF. Once grounded, the breaker
B opened. C points are effectively shorted making the magneto
shorted. inoperative. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because
either an open primary circuit or a shorted primary cir-
cuit will prevent the magneto from operating at all.

When performing a magneto ground check on an When performing a magneto ground check, the engine
engine, correct operation is indicated by is operated at a specified rpm and the ignition switch is
moved from BOTH to LEFT and back to BOTH; then
A a slight increase in RPM. from BOTH to RIGHT and back to BOTH. When this
B no drop in RPM. check is performed there should be a small drop in rpm
C a slight drop in RPM. at the LEFT and the RIGHT positions. This occurs
because with only one magneto selected, only one
spark plug fires in each cylinder thereby causing a
slight decrease in power output. Answer (A) is incorrect
because correct magneto operation is indicated by a
slight decrease in rpm, not an increase. Answer (B) is
wrong because no drop in rpm indicates that one of the
magnetos is not operating.
8-154. L02 ■ 8-154. Answer C. JSPT 8-87 (AC 65-12A)

- : .■ ... ■ 3-.>-.t . . . v. A defective spark plug, meaning a plug which is not fir-
Defective spark plugs will cause the engine to run ing or is firing intermittently, will cause the engine to
rough at miss at all engine speeds. Answers (A) and (B) are
wrong because defective spark plugs will cause an
A high speeds only. engine to miss at any speed.
B low speeds only.
C all speeds.
8-155. Answer B. JSPT 8-98 (AC 65-12A)
8-155. L02 A spark plug whose insulator tip is cracked should be
Which of the following would be cause for rejection of replaced. This condition can affect the firing of the plug
a spark plug? as well as its ability to transfer heat. Carbon fouling
(answer A) and lead fouling (answer C) happens dur-
A Carbon fouling of the electrode and insulator. ing the combustion process and can be removed from
B Insulator tip cracked. a spark plug in the shop. Therefore, neither of these
C Lead fouling of the electrode and insulator. conditions would be cause for rejection.
8-156. Answer B. JSPT 8-96 (AC 65-12A)

8-156. L02 The heat range of a spark plug refers to the ability of
the insulator and the center electrode to conduct heat
What will be the result of using too hot a spark plug?
away from the plug tip. Hot spark plugs, or plugs that
have a long insulator, slowly transfer heat and are typi-
A Fouling of plug.
cally used in an engine whose cylinder temperatures
B Preignition.
are relatively low. Cold spark plugs, on the other hand,
C Burned capacitor.
have a short insulator that rapidly transfers heat which
pression engines. An engine which runs hot requires a
relatively cold spark plug, whereas an engine which
runs cool requires a relatively hot spark plug. If a hot
spark plug is installed in an engine which runs hot, the
tip of the plug could overheat and cause pre-ignition.
Plug fouling (answer A) is caused by an excessively
rich mixture or by an intermittently firing spark plug, but
not by a hot spark plug. Using a hot spark plug will not
cause a burned capacitor (answer C).
8-157. Answer B. JSPT 8-97 (AC 65-12A)

Carbon fouling of spark plugs appears as a heavy
8-157. L02 black soot on the plug tip. The most common cause of
Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an aircraft carbon fouling is running an engine with an excessively
engine, the plugs were found caked with a heavy black rich fuel/air mixture. Answer (A) is wrong because worn
soot. This indicates oil seals will cause the spark plug to be wet with oil,
and answer (C) is incorrect because an excessively
A worn oil seal rings. B lean mixture would cause carbon to burn from the plug
a rich mixture. C a surface leaving a gray or tan color.
lean mixture.

Spark plug heat range is determined by The heat range of a spark plug is a measure of a
plug's ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head. The
A the reach of the spark plug. primary factor in determining the heat range of a plug
B its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head. is the length of the nose core. For example, cold plugs
C the number of ground electrodes. have a relatively short insulator to provide a rapid
transfer of heat to the cylinder head while hot plugs
have a long insulator nose that creates a long heat
transfer path. A spark plug's reach (answer A) is the
threaded portion of the spark plug and does not affect
the plug's ability to transfer heat. The number of
ground electrodes (answer C) also has no affect on
heat range.

Ignition check during engine runup indicates excessive When performing a magneto check on an engine, an
RPM drop during operation on the right magneto. The excessive and rapid rpm drop is usually the result of
major portion of the RPM loss occurs rapidly after faulty or failed spark plugs or a faulty ignition harness.
switching to the right magneto position (fast drop). The Answer (B) is incorrect because incorrect ignition tim-
most likely cause is ing is made apparent by a slow rpm drop, and a dead
cylinder (answer C) may not be detected during a mag-
A faulty or fouled spark plugs. neto check.
B incorrect ignition timing on both magnetos.
C one or more dead cylinders.
8-160. L02 > 8-160. Answer A. JSPT 8-82 (AC 65-12A)

If new breaker points are installed in a magneto on an When installing new breaker points in a magneto, the
engine, it will be necessary to time the internal timing of the magneto must be checked to
ensure that the point opening coincides with the E-gap
A magneto internally and the magneto to the position of the rotor. The timing of the magneto to the
■ engine must also be checked to ensure that the firing
engine. of the spark plugs occurs at the proper time in relation
B breaker points to the No. 1 cylinder. :-.-,. to piston position. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
C magneto drive to the engine. breaker points are timed to open at the E-gap, not to
the No. 1 cylinder. Answer (C) is wrong because the
magneto, not its drive, is timed to the engine.
8-161. Answer A. JSPT 8-96 (AC 65-12A)

8-161. L02 The heat range of a spark plug refers to the ability of
Using a cold spark plug in a high-compression aircraft the plug's insulator and center electrode to conduct
engine would probably result in heat away from the tip. Hot spark plugs, or plugs that
have a long insulator, slowly transfer heat and are typi-
A normal operation. B cally used in an engine whose cylinder temperatures
a fouled plug. C are relatively low. Cold spark plugs, on the other hand,
detonation. have a short insulator that rapidly transfers heat which
pression engines. Therefore, when a cold spark plug is
used in a high-compression engine the engine will run
normally. A fouled plug (answer B) and/or preignition
would result from using a hot plug in a high-compres-
sion engine. Detonation (answer C) is the explosive
burning of the fuel/air charge and is a function of an
engine's compression, the fuel grade used, and the
fuel/air ratio, not the spark plug.
8-162. d> L02 8-162. Answer B. JSPT 8-97 (AC 65-12A) Lead
Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits occurs fouling can occur at any power setting, however, it is
most often most frequently associated with cruising power settings
with lean mixtures. At these power settings, the
A during cruise with rich mixture. cylinder head temperature is relatively low and there is
B when cylinder head temperatures are relatively an excess of oxygen above that needed to consume all
low. C when cylinder head temperatures are the fuel in the fuel/air mixture. The excess oxygen ends
high. up combining with lead and builds up in layers on the
cool cylinder walls and the spark plugs. A rich mixture
(answer A) combines with most of the oxygen to
reduce lead deposits, although a too-rich mixture can
lead to carbon fouling. At high cylinder head tempera-
tures (answer C) the lead vapors cannot easily solidify
on the cylinder walls, so lead buildup is minimized.

In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, when does the The ignition event in a four-stroke engine occurs before
ignition event take place? the piston reaches top dead center on the compression
stroke. This ensures complete combustion of the
A Before the piston reaches TDC on compression fuel/air charge by the time the piston is slightly past top
stroke. dead center. If the fuel/air charge were ignited after
B After the piston reaches TDC on power stroke. TDC, power output would decrease substantially.
C After the piston reaches TDC on compression
stroke.

When installing a magneto on an engine, the Magneto to engine timing is based on having the mag-
neto in the E-gap, or firing position and the number
A piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed one cylinder a prescribed number of degrees before
number of degrees before top center on the com- top dead center on the compression stroke. This posi-
pression stroke. tion represents the point in which the fuei/air mixture
B magneto breaker points must be just closing. ignites. Answer (B) is wrong since the breaker points
C piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a are just opening when a magneto is in the E-gap posi-
prescribed number of degrees after top center on tion, and answer (C) is incorrect because the magneto
the intake stroke. does not fire on the intake stroke.
The spark occurs at the spark plug when the ignition's In both a battery and magneto ignition system, the
spark occurs at the spark plug when voltage is induced
A econdary circuit is completed. B into the secondary winding. Voltage is induced when
primary circuit is completed. C the primary circuit is opened at the breaker points.
primary circuit is broken. Answer (A) is incorrect because voltage must be
induced into the secondary circuit before a spark plug
can fire. Answer (B) is wrong because when the pri-
mary circuit is completed, its magnetic flux does not
change rapidly enough to induce a high voltage into the
secondary coil.
8-166. L02 8-166. Answer C. JSPT 8-102 (AC 65-12A) Because

The type of ignition system used on most turbine air- of the high-energy spark required to ignite a turbine
craft engines is engine, the capacitor discharge type ignition system is
most often used on turbine engines. Answer (A) is
A igh resistance. ,:i wrong because "high resistance" does not really
B low tension. ,. ............. designate a type of ignition system. Answer (B) is
C capacitor discharge. incorrect because all turbine engine ignition systems
operate at high voltages and thus are high tension
systems.

Ignition check during engine runup indicates a slow When performing a magneto check, a slow drop in rpm
drop in RPM. This is usually caused by is usually caused by incorrect ignition timing or faulty
valve adjustment. With late ignition timing, the fuel/air
A defective sparkplugs. charge is ignited late in relation to piston travel and maxi-
B a defective high-tension lead. mum combustion pressures are not obtained. The result
C incorrect ignition timing or valve adjustment. is a gradual power loss when checking a single magneto.
Defective spark plugs (answer A) or a defective
high-tension lead (answer B) cause an abrupt drop in
rpm during a magneto check and, therefore, are incor-
rect.
If the ground wire of a magneto is disconnected at the In a magneto ignition system, the purpose of the igni-
ignition switch, the result will be the tion switch is to ground out the primary circuit when the
switch is OFF. By grounding out the primary circuit
A affected magneto will be isolated and the engine continuously, insufficient voltage is induced into the
will run on the opposite magneto. B engine secondary coil to produce a spark. Therefore, if the
will stop running. C engine will not stop running ground wire to the ignition switch is disconnected, the
when the ignition engine will continue running when the ignition is turned
switch is turned off. to the OFF position (answer C). Answer (A) is wrong
because a disconnected ground wire will not isolate a
magneto but will cause it to operate continuously.
Answer (B) is incorrect because there will be no way to
shut off one magneto and, therefore, the engine will
keep running.
8-169. L02 8-169. Answer C. JSPT 8-67 (DSA-25)

Which of the following are advantages of dual ignition The principal advantages of a dual magneto-ignition
in aircraft engines? system are that if any part of one magneto should fail
to operate, the other magneto will continue to furnish
1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of the ignition. Furthermore, a dual ignition system firing two
fuel. spark plugs ignites the fuel/air mixture in each cylinder
2. Provides a backup magneto system. simultaneously at two different places, resulting in
3. Increases the output power of the engine. more complete and quick combustion and increased
4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels. engine power. Based on this, choices 1, 2, and 3 are
5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark correct (answer C). Answer (A) is wrong because the
plugs. fuel grade used in an engine depends more on the
engine's compression ratio than it does on the ignition
A 2, 3,4. system. Answer (B) is incorrect because spark inten-
B 2, 3, sity depends on the speed of the collapsing primary
5. C 1,2, filed in the magneto and the integrity of the ignition
3. system components.
8-170. Answer C. JSPT 8-90 (AC 65-12A)

8-170. L02 The shielding used on an ignition harness serves as a
How does high-tension ignition shielding tend to conductor to receive and ground stray magnetic fields
reduce radio interference? that are produced when high-voltage current passes
through the leads. By conducting these magnetic lines
A Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes. of force to ground, the ignition harness cuts down elec-
B Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of trical interference with the aircraft radio and other elec-
high-tension current. trically sensitive equipment. Answer (A) is incorrect
C Receives and grounds high-frequency waves because flashover is prevented by waxing the coils,
coming from the magneto and high-tension igni- condensers, distributors, and distributor rotors in mag-
tion leads. netos. Answer (B) is incorrect because an ignition
lead's voltage drop depends on its resistance, not the
characteristics of its shielding.
Which of the following are distinct circuits of a high- A high-tension magneto system is divided into three
tension magneto? distinct circuits: the magnetic, the primary, and the sec-
ondary. Therefore, answer (A) is correct. The E-gap
1. Magnetic. represents a specific position of a magneto's rotating
2. Primary. magnet just before the breaker points open. The P-
3. E-gap. lead, on the other hand, identifies the wire that is used
4. P-lead. to ground a magneto.
5. Secondary.
A 1,2, 5.
B 1,3,4. . .
c 2,4,5. ;\;. .; ;;.;.:,.; .;'/ .".
What are two parts of a distributor in an aircraft engine The distributor in a magneto ignition system consists of
ignition system? two parts. The revolving part is called a distributor rotor
and the stationary part is called a distributor block.
l.Coil. Therefore, answer (A) is correct.
2. Block.
3. Stator.
4. Rotor.
5. Transformer.
A 2 and 4.
B 3 and 4.
C 2 and 5. ,
What is a result of "flashover" in a distributor? Flashover in a distributor can lead to carbon tracking,
which appears as a fine pencil-like carbon trail where
A Intense, voltage at the spark plug. the flashover occurred. This carbon trail typically col-
B Reversal of current flow. lects on the distributor and forms a conductive path to
C Conductive carbon trail. ground which increases the potential for additional
flashover to occur. Answer (A) is incorrect because
flashover actually discharges the high-voltage charge
before it reaches the spark plug and, therefore, results
in a less intense spark at the spark plug. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a magneto produces direct current
that can only flow from source to ground and cannot
reverse.
What is the relationship between distributor and crank- In order for a magneto to provide a spark at the appro-
shaft speed of aircraft reciprocating engines? priate time in the four-stroke process, the distributor
must turn at one-half the crankshaft speed. Another
A The distributor turns at one-half crankshaft speed. way to look at this is that it takes two revolutions of the
B The distributor turns at one and one-half crank- crankshaft to fire all the cylinders and, therefore, the
shaft speed. distributor only needs to rotate at half the crankshaft
C The crankshaft turns at one-half distributor speed. speed.

Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high The fuel/air mixture in turbine engines can be ignited
energy? readily in standard atmospheric conditions. However,
since turbine engines often operate in the low tempera-
A To ignite the fuel under conditions of high alti- tures of high altitudes, it is imperative that their ignition
tude and high temperatures. systems be capable of supplying the high-intensity
B Because the applied voltage is much greater. spark needed to ignite the mixture under these condi-
C To ignite the fuel under conditions of high alti- tions. Answer (A) is wrong because it is fairly easy to
tude and low temperatures. ignite a turbine engine's fuel/air mixture at high temper-
atures, and answer (B) is wrong because turbine
engines typically use a standard 24-volt DC power
source for their ignition systems.
8-176. L02 8-176. Answer C. JSPT 8-102 (TEP2)

Which of the following are included in a typical turbine A typical turbine engine ignition system includes 2
engine ignition system? plugs, 2 exciter units, and 2 high-tension leads.
However, in some aircraft the exciter units may be
1. Two igniter plugs. contained in a single housing. Based on this, the best
2. Two transformers. possible answer is (C). Answers (A) and (B) are wrong
3. One exciter unit. - . ■ because a typical ignition system does not include two
intermediate or low-tension igniter leads. ■■■--
■;
4. Two intermediate ignition leads.
5. Two low-tension igniter leads.
6. Two high-tension igniter leads.
A 2,3,4. ■ ■.,: ■,-.'.:■

B 1,4,5. ■■■--•
C 1,3, 6. 8-177. Answer B. JSPT 8-87 (AC 65-12A)
An ignition switch check requires that the ignition be
8-177. L02 momentarily turned to the OFF position and then back
At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition switch to BOTH while the engine is running to see if all mag-
check made? neto ground leads are electrically grounded. To prevent
backfiring when the ignition switch is returned to the
A 1,500 RPM. BOTH position, an ignition switch check is usually
B The slowest possible RPM. made at the slowest possible rpm setting, typically
C Full throttle RPM. between 500 and 700 rpm. Both answers (A) and (C)
are incorrect because conducting an ignition switch test
at either 1,500 rpm or full throttle will almost always
load up the cylinders and cause the engine to backfire.
8-178. Answer A. JSPT 8-73 (AC 65-12A) ..-.

■ ■ : The primary breaker points in a magneto close
at approximately the full register position. In this position,
8-178. L02 the poles of the magnet are perfectly aligned with the
What is the approximate position of the rotating mag pole shoes and the maximum number of flux lines flow
net in a high-tension magneto when the points first through the magnetic circuit. Answers (B) and (C) are
close? ;■■ incorrect because in both the neutral and a few
degrees after neutral the breaker points have been
A Full register. closed for a while and are actually preparing to open.
B Neutral.
C A few degrees after neutral.
8-179. L02 ; ;-4 r :'i '.:: -, ,, ■■■ 8-179. Answer B. JSPT 8-69 (AC 65-12A)
What component of a dual magneto is shared by both A dual magneto incorporates two magnetos in one
ignition systems? housing. This configuration allows somewhat of a
weight savings because one rotating magnet and one
A High-tension coil. B cam can be used for both magnetos. Answers (A) and
Rotating magnet. C (C) are wrong because each ignition system requires
Capacitor. its own high-tension coil and capacitor. .

What would be the result if a magneto breaker point If a breaker point mainspring does not apply sufficient
mainspring did not have sufficient tension? tension to the breaker points, the points could bounce
or float at higher speeds. A bouncing or floating point
A The points will stick. would prevent the normal induction buildup within the
B The points will not open to the specified gap. magneto thereby reducing the magneto output. Both
C The points will float or bounce. answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because sticking or
slowly opening magneto points and points not opening
to the specified gap are caused by excessive main
spring tension. : .-..■ ■- ■

The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through The secondary coil of a magneto is made up of a wind-
the ing containing approximately 13,000 turns of fine, insu-
lated wire. One end of the wire is electrically grounded
A ignition switch. to the primary coil or coil core, while the other end is
B primary coil. connected to the distributor rotor. Answer (A) is wrong
C grounded side of the breaker points. because the primary coil, not the secondary coil, is
grounded through the ignition switch. Answer (C) is
wrong because the primary coil is grounded through
the breaker points when the points are closed.

In the aircraft magneto system, if the P-lead is discon- The magneto ground lead, or P-lead, grounds the pri-
nected, the magneto will be mary side of the magneto coil when the magneto
switch is in the OFF position. This effectively shorts the
A on regardless of ignition switch position. breaker points, rendering the magneto inoperable.
B grounded regardless of ignition switch position. Therefore, if the P-lead should become disconnected
C open regardless of ignition switch position. or broken, the magneto will be on all the time regard-
less of the ignition switch position. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because the P-lead cannot ground the magneto if
it is disconnected, and answer (C) is wrong because a
magneto is not "open" if the P-lead is disconnected.

(Refer to figure 5.) Placing the engine master switch Closing the battery switch energizes the battery sole-
and battery switch to the on position and advancing the noid coil, which closes the battery solenoid and allows
power lever, allows current to flow from the bus to the current to flow to the bus and one side of the start
switch. Closing the engine master switch allows current
A uel valve, start switch, power lever switch, power to flow to the fuel valve and to the power lever switch.
lever relay coil, fuel pumps, and one side of the Once the power lever is advanced, the power lever
ignition relay contactor. switch moves to the Advance position and current flows
B uel valve, external power receptacles, undercur- to the power lever relay coil, causing the power lever
rent relay contacts, starter relay coil, and ignition relay to close and allow current to flow to the fuel
relay contacts. pumps and one side of the ignition relay. Current is not
C uel valve, external power receptacles, power made available to the starter relay or the ignition relay
lever switch, power lever relay coil, and ignition coil until the start switch is placed in the on position.
relay coil
l
8-184. L03 8-184. Answer A. JSPT 8-45 (ITP P-2)
(Refer to figure 5.) With power applied to the bus bar, Only the engine master switch is necessary to be
what switch changes will allow the ignition exciters changed in order to allow the ignition exciters test
test switch to function? switch to function. With start switch on, the test switch
would be inoperative since exciters would already be
A Engine master switch and power lever switch.. : activated. The test switch would be functional with the
B Engine master switch, start switch, and test master switch and power lever switch on. The answer
switch.. C Engine master switch, battery with master and power lever is chosen over the answer
switch, and power with master, battery and power lever since the battery
lever switch. switch would already be on to provide power to the bus,
or if powered by external power, would be inoperative
due to the external power receptacle switch.
(Shown with
------------------- : ----- *- ext. power
cord
To ext. power receptacle not
connected)
I Under current
j relay
Engine master
switch
Battery
relay
Stop
Battery Qff
switch ______ *
Ext. pwr.
receptacle Battery
on
switch 13
Pwr. lever
switch
Start
er
relay
Test switch
Figure 5. Starter-Generator Circuit.

8-185. L02 8-185. Answer B. JSPT 8-46 (ITP-P2) The system

(Refer to figure 5.) The type of system depicted is illustrated may be operated with either battery power or
capable of operating with external power, but not both at the same time. To
prevent both an external power source and the battery
A external power only. ; from operating simultaneously, an external power
B either battery or external power. receptacle switch is placed just after the battery
C battery power and external power solenoid coil that removes power from the battery sole-
simultaneously. noid coil and, ultimately, battery power from the bus
when external power is plugged in.

8-186. L03 Wire 8 supplies current to the starter solenoid coil
(Refer to figure 5.) If wire No.8 is broken or discon- which makes the solenoid close. With the starter sole-
nected after rotation is initiated, and the power lever is noid closed, power flows from the bus, through the
advanced, the undercurrent solenoid coil and on to the starter genera-
tor. Since current is flowing through the undercurrent
A starting sequence will continue normally. B solenoid coil, the solenoid will close and provide a sec-
starter will shut down, but the igniters will continue to ondary power source to keep the starter solenoid
fire. C starting sequence will discontinue. engaged and, as long as the start switch is closed, the
start sequence progressing normally if wire 8 should
break or become disconnected.

(Refer to figure 5.) When an external power source is The system illustrated may be operated with either bat
connected to the aircraft, tery power or external power, but not both at the same
time. To prevent both an external power source and
A the battery cannot be connected to the bus. B the battery from supplying power to the system simul
both battery power and external power are available to taneously, an external power receptacle switch is
the bus. C the start relay coil has a path to ground. placed just after the battery solenoid coil that removes
power from the battery solenoid coil and, ultimately,
battery power from the bus when external power is
plugged in. , ;
8-188. L03
The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-gen- 8-188. Answer B. JSPT 8-46 (AC 65-12A)
erator system is to In a system that uses an undercurrent relay, an engine
start is initiated by placing the start switch in the start
A provide a backup for the starter relay position for a few seconds to allow current to close
B disconnect power from the starter-generator and both the starter and undercurrent solenoids. Once
ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached. these solenoids are closed, the start sequence will
C keep current flow to the starter-generator under support itself and the start switch can be turned off.
the circuit capacity maximum. Then, once the engine speed increases and starter
current drops, the undercurrent relay opens to discon-
nect power from the starter-generator and ignition cir-
cuits and enable the generator circuit. Answer (A) is
incorrect since the systems that use starter-generators
do not employ motor relay backups. Answer (C) is
wrong because current flow to a starter-generator dur-
ing a start sequence is limited by the starter's internal
characteristics and by circuit breakers.
(Shown with
------------------------- >- ext. power
T Stop relay cord
To ext. power receptacle not
>
Battery
relay
Engine master
switch
Ext. pwr.
receptacle Battery on
* switch
Pwr. lever
switch
Test switch connected)

In a typical starter-generator system, under which of When a hung start occurs, the engine fails to reach a
the following starting circumstances may it be neces- self-sustaining speed and the starter continues to crank
sary to use the start stop switch? the engine. To abort a hung start, the start/stop switch
must be pressed or toggled manually to de-energize the
A Hung start. starter generator. Answer (B) is wrong because during a
B Hot start. hot start you want to shut off the fuel and continue crank-
:
C Contacts stick open. ' ing the engine to remove the excess fuel for the engine.
Answer (C) is incorrect because if a start circuit's con-
tacts stick open, no current flows to the starter generator
and the engine cannot be started.
8-190. L03 8-190. Answer A or B. JSPT 8-46

(Refer to figure 5.) Which malfunctions will allow the With the new Figure 5, a broken Conductor No. 11
igniters to operate when tested but be inoperative dur would allow the test to work, but exciters would not
ing a start attempt? ............. operate during a start attempt. This is in addition to the
1. Conductor No. 10 broken. ., ; same condition when Conductor No. 10 is broken or
2. Conductor No. 11 broken. with the ignition relay inoperative. Since the correct
3. Ignition relay inoperative. answer would be "1, 2, or 3", either of the answers "1
or 3" or "2 or 3" would be correct.
4. Conductor No. 12 broken.
A 2or3.
B lor 3. :
C lor 4. y,> ■

(Refer to figure 5.) Which malfunctions will allow the The igniter test circuit consists primarily of two conduc-
igniters to operate normally during start but be inoper- tors (14 and 15) and a test switch. Therefore, if any of
ative when tested? these three components should fail, the igniters could
not be tested but would operate normally during a start.
1. Conductor No. 14 broken. Based on this, answer (B) is correct.
A 2 or 4. , .:■■■■•
B 1 or 3. j ' : :
C 3 or 4. ' /

When using an electric starter motor, current usage Series-wound motors are typically used for starter
motors because they are able to produce a high start-
A is highest at the start of motor rotation. ing torque. However, this high starting torque requires
B remains relatively constant throughout the a great deal of current. On the other hand, as engine
starting cycle. and starter speed increase, counter electromotive
C is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest forces build and limit the amount of current the starter
RPM). can draw. Answer (B) is incorrect because counter
electromotive force builds up as motor speed
increases, providing resistance to current flow in the
armature. Answer (C) is incorrect because just before
starter cutoff, counter electromotive force has reduced
current flow to a relatively small amount.
8-193. L03 8193. Answer B. JSPT 8-41 (AC 65-9A)

When using an electric starter motor, the current flow Although the current provided to a starter is high at the
through it onset of engine rotation and decreases as engine
speed builds, the voltage provided to a starter remains
A is highest at the start of motor rotation. relatively constant throughout an engine start. Answer
B remains relatively constant throughout the start- (A) is incorrect because current flow, not voltage, is
ing cycle. highest at the start of motor rotation. Answer (C) is
C is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest incorrect because the amount of voltage provided to a
RPM.). starter does not increase just prior to starter cutoff.
(Shown with ext. power cord To ext. power

receptacle not connected)
Battery
relay
To generator B
control A
Ext. pwr.
receptacle
Battery -> switch
Pwr. lever Advance

switch
Test switch

The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) The primary advantage of pneumatic starters over
starters over comparable electric starters for turbine electric starters is that pneumatic starters have a much
engines is :> y higher power-to-weight ratio. For example, a typical air
>,-. turbine starter weighs from one-fourth to one-half as
much as an electric starter capable of starting the
A a decreased fire hazard. same engine. Answer (A) is wrong because neither a
B reduction gearing not required. pneumatic nor an electric starter presents a substantial
C high power-to-weight ratio. fire hazard when used according to the manufacturer's
instructions. Answer (B) is wrong because pneumatic
starters rotate at speeds in excess of 60,000 rpm and,
therefore, require a reduction gear system.

A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a In a pneumatic starter that incorporates a sprag clutch
pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch ratchet ratchet assembly, the pawls are forced inward by small
assembly is an indication of leaf springs to engage the sprag clutch ratchet when
the engine is at rest. However, once the engine
A gear tooth and/or pawl damage. B one or reaches a given rpm during a start, centrifugal force
more broken pawl springs. C the pawls pulls the pawls outward, disengaging them from the
re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear. sprag clutch ratchet. On coastdown the springs force
the pawls to ride the ratchet gear until the engine
comes to a stop. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong
because the clicking sound indicates normal operation.
8-196. L04
Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what 8-196. Answer A. JSPT 8-49 (ITP-P2)
types of airflow impingement systems? Pneumatic starters that utilize a low pressure, high vol-
ume air supply typically employ a radial inward flow
A Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow tur- turbine or an axial-flow turbine. Answer (B) is incorrect
bine. because pneumatic starters receive compressed air
B Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compres- from an outside source and, therefore, do not incorpo-
sor. rate a compressor as a component. Answer (C) is
C Double entry centrifugal outward flow and wrong because there is no such thing as a double entry
axial-flow turbines. centrifugal outward flow turbine.
8-197. L04
Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance tech- 8-197. Answer A. JSPT 8-51 (ITP-P2)
nicians usually includes checking the Because of their high rotational speed, pneumatic
starters require frequent inspection of their oil level and
A oil level and magnetic drain plug condition. the condition of their magnetic drain plugs. Answer (B)
B stator and rotor blades for FOD. is wrong because pneumatic starters rarely sustain
C rotor alignment. . damage from foreign objects, and answer (C) is wrong
because a pneumatic starter's rotor alignment is typi-
cally checked at overhaul.
8-198. L04
Air turbine starters are generally designed so that 8-198. Answer C. JSPT 8-51 (ITP-P2)
reduction gear distress or damage may be detected by Most air turbine starters utilize a self-contained lubrica-
tion system that incorporates a magnetic chip detector.
A characteristic sounds from the starter assembly When inspecting a chip detector, if metallic particles
during engine start. B breakage of a shear are found, it may indicate internal stress or damage to
section on the starter drive the starter's reduction gearing (answer C). Answer (A)
shaft. C inspection of a magnetic is incorrect because starters are not designed to make
chip detector. a specific sound to indicate reduction gear damage.
Answer (B) is wrong because the purpose of the shear
shaft is to prevent the engine from over speeding the
starter, not to indicate reduction gear damage.
8-199. L04
Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is 8-199. Answer B. JSPT 8-49 (ITP-P2)
normally prevented from causing starter overspeed In the normal operation of a pneumatic starter, once
during engine start by the starter reaches a predetermined drive speed, the
starter's air supply is cut off by a centrifugal cutout fly-
A stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and sta- weight switch (answer B). If the cutout switch should
bilizes turbine wheel speed. B activation of a fail, most pneumatic starters incorporate a stator noz-
flyweight cutout switch. C a preset timed cutoff of zle that chokes the incoming airflow supply to stabilize
the airflow at the source. the turbine wheel speed below the burst speed
(answer A). Answer (C) is wrong because a timed cut-
off cannot take into account varying air supply pressure,
changing ambient conditions, or other factors that can
affect a turbine engine start sequence.

A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic To help protect pneumatic starters from being dam-
starters that is used if the clutch does not release from aged if the clutch does not release from the engine
the engine drive at the proper time during start is the drive at the proper speed, a drive shaft shear point is
typically incorporated. Answers (A) and (B) are incor-
A flyweight cutout switch. rect because neither a flyweight switch nor a spring
B spring coupling release. coupling release would operate at the speeds used in
C drive shaft shear point. pneumatic starters.

A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic To protect against damage in the event of an
starters that is used to prevent the starter from reaching over-speed, many pneumatic starters employ a stator
burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule nozzle design that chokes the incoming airflow and
is the stabilizes turbine wheel speed. A drive shaft shear
point (answer A) keeps an engine from driving a starter
A drive shaft shear point. but will not protect the starter if inlet air flow continues.
B stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and sta- Answer (C) is wrong because a spring coupling
bilizes turbine wheel speed. C spring coupling release will not operate at the high shaft speeds
release. encountered by pneumatic starters.
8-202. L04 8-202. Answer B. JSPT 8-50 (TEP2)

In the event a pneumatic start valve will not operate If the pneumatic starter on a turbine engine is inopera-
and the manual override must be used, the starter T tive, the engine can be started by manually actuating
handle must be closed at scheduled starter drop out the start valve. This is typically done by pulling a
because T-handle on the start valve, turning the T-handle to the
OPEN position, and holding it in this position until the
A the starter will overheat. start is self-sustaining. If the T-handle is not returned to
B the starter will overspeed at a given N2. the CLOSED position after a successful start, the
C the starter oil will be blown over board. starter will overspeed and fail. Answer (A) is incorrect
because overspeed, not overheat, causes the starter
to fail. Answer (C) is wrong because, as opposed to a
starter overspeed, oil loss is a minor consideration
when conducting a manual start.

Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication To lubricate a turbine engine's main bearings, pressur-
system of gas turbine engines? ized oil is sprayed on the bearings through fixed orifice
nozzles. These nozzles provide a relatively constant
A To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the flow of oil at all engine operating speeds thereby
main bearings at all engine speeds. ensuring adequate lubrication. Answer (B) is incorrect
B To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus pre- because the nozzles do not create back pressure on
venting an air lock. the oil pump and answer (C) is wrong because oil
C To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive pressure is controlled by the oil pump and relief valve.
pressure from entering the bearing cavities.

If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either A magneto check is conducted with the propeller in the
LEFT or RIGHT during an engine ground check, nor- high rpm position at a speed between approximately
mal operation is usually indicated by a 1,000 and 1,700 rpm. During this check, the ignition
switch is moved from the BOTH to the RIGHT position,
A large drop in RPM. and then the BOTH to the LEFT position. While switch-
B momentary interruption of both ignition systems. ing from BOTH to a single magneto position, a slight
C slight drop in RPM. but noticeable drop in rpm should occur. If a large rpm
drop occurs (answer A), or if there is a momentary
interruption of both ignition systems (answer B), the
ignition system is not operating properly.
LUBRICATION SYSTEMS
This chapter covers engine lubrication systems and associated components.

Which condition would be the least likely to be caused If a bearing fails or is in the process of failing, metal to
by failed or failing engine bearings? ; metal contact is occurring. The friction which accompa-
nies this metal to metal contact generates a great deal
A Excessive oil consumption. of heat and can cause high oil temperatures (answer
B). The higher the oil temperature, the more oil is con-
B High oil temperatures. sumed (answer A). Since the question asks for the
condition that is least likely to be caused by a failed
C Low oil temperatures. bearing, answer (C) is the best choice.
9-2. Answer A. JSPT 9-40 (AC 65-12A)

The total indicator reading for runout on a crankshaft is
9-2. A02 the sum of the plus (+) and minus (-) readings. In this
If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator case, the runout is .005 in. (.002 + .003 = .005).
are plus .002 inch and minus .003 inch, the runout is
A .005 inch.
B lus .001 inch.
C minus .001 inch. , 9-3. Answer C. JSPT 9-18 (AC 65-12A)
One of the most widely used automatic oil temperature
9-3. A03 control devices is the floating control thermostat. This
The floating control thermostat, used on some recipro- unit provides both manual and automatic control of the
cating engine installations, helps regulate oil tempera- amount of air that passes through the oil cooler by con-
ture by trolling the oil cooler air-exit door. Both answers (A)
and (B) are wrong because a floating control thermo-
A controlling oil flow through the oil cooler. stat does not control oil flow through the oil cooler or
recirculate hot oil back through the sump.
B recirculating hot oil back through the sump.
C controlling air flow through the oil cooler.
9-2 Lubrication Systems
9-4. A03 9-4. Answer B. JSPT 9-13 (AC 65-12A)

If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at On engines that are equipped with a compensated oil
normal operating temperatures, the pressure relief valve, a higher oil pressure is main-
tained when the oil is cold. This helps ensure adequate
A oil system relief valve should be readjusted. lubrication when the oil is partially congealed. However,
B engine's lubrication system is probably operating as the oil heats up, the relief valve automatically lowers
normally. the system pressure to the normal operating range.
C oil dilution system should be turned on immediately.
9-5. Answer A. JSPT 9-19 (AC 65-12A)
9-5. A03 Some lubrication systems provide a means of diluting oil
If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high with fuel. When oil is diluted, less power is needed for
oil temperature, the problem may be caused by a starting and starting is accomplished more rapidly.
However, if an oil dilution valve leaks (answer A), the oil
A leaking oil dilution valve. will become excessively thin and cause a reduction in oil
B sheared oil pump shaft. pressure. Furthermore, because fuel thinned-oil cannot
C clogged oil cooler annular jacket. transfer heat as readily as normal oil, an engine oper-
ated with diluted oil will have higher oil temperatures.
9-6. Answer B. JSPT 9-34 (AC 65-12A)

9-6. B03 In the early stages of engine main bearing distress,
What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indi- increased friction can cause oil temperatures to rise
cates no change in power setting parameters, but oil while power parameters remain within normal limits.
temperature is high? However, as a main bearing gets closer to failing, the
engine's power parameters will change. Answer (A) is
A High scavenge pump oil flow. incorrect because high scavenge pump oil flow will
most likely give a low or fluctuating oil pressure indica-
B Engine main bearing distress. tion before oil temperature becomes elevated. Answer
(C) is wrong because turbine damage and/or loss of
C Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency. turbine efficiency causes changes in power setting
parameters
9-7. Answer C. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A)

9-7. KOI The viscosity, or the resistance of oil to flow, changes
What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely with temperature. For example, as the temperature
high temperatures using a lubricant recommended by the drops, highly viscous oils become extremely thick and
manufacturer for a much lower temperature? do not circulate. Therefore, low viscosity oils are typi-
cally recommended for use in reciprocating engines
A The oil pressure will be higher than normal. operating in cold climates. However, if a low viscosity
B The oil temperature and oil pressure will be oil is used when an engine is operated in extremely
higher than normal. high temperatures, the oil can become so thin that a
C The oil pressure will be lower than normal. lower than normal oil pressure can result (answer C).
Both answers (A) and (B) are wrong because using a
low viscosity oil in extremely high temperatures results
in lower than normal pressure indications, not higher.
9-8. Answer A. JSPT 9-6 (AC 65-12A)

9-8. KOI Only statement (2) is correct. Because of the unique
(1) Gas turbine and reciprocating engine oils can be operating requirements, synthetic oils are typically
mixed or used interchangeably. used in gas turbine engines. Furthermore, because of
(2) Most gas turbine engine oils are synthetic. the differences between turbine and reciprocating
Regarding the above statements, engine oils, they should not be mixed or used inter-
changeably.
A only No. 2 is true.
B both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Lubrication Systems 9-3
9-9. KOI 9-9. Answer B. JSPT 9-19 (AC 65-15A)

An oil separator is generally associated with which of A wet-type engine-driven vacuum pump uses an air-oil
the following? separator to separate the oil that mixes with the air that
passes through the pump. The separator is installed in
A Engine-driven oil pressure pump. the pump's discharge line where it removes oil from
B Engine-driven vacuum pump. the air and returns it to the engine sump. Both answers
C Cuno oil filter. (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither an
engine-driven oil pressure pump nor a Cuno oil filter
introduces air into the oil that would require separation.
9-10. KOI 9-10. Answer C. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A)

The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic The viscosity of commercial aviation oils is measured
centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately by a testing instrument called a Saybolt Universal
calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded Viscosimeter. This instrument consists of a tube that
as a measurement of the oil's holds a specific oil quantity at an exact temperature
and a calibrated orifice. The time in seconds required
A flash point. for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through
B specific gravity. the orifice is recorded as the oil's viscosity. Answer (A)
C viscosity. is incorrect because flash point represents the temper-
ature at which a fluid will momentarily flash without
sustaining combustion. Answer (B) is wrong because
specific gravity is the ratio of the weight of a given vol-
ume of material to the same volume of pure water.
9-11. KOI 9-11. AnswerB. JSPT 9-3

Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil Viscosity index is a measure of the change in an oil's
is its viscosity index based? viscosity for a given change in temperature. The
smaller the change in viscosity for a given temperature
A Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature change, the higher the viscosity index. Answer (A) is
as compared to high grade paraffin-base oil at the wrong because viscosity is the measure of resistance
same temperature. to flow at a standard temperature, while answer (C) is
B Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature incorrect because viscosity, not viscosity index, is
change. found by measuring a fluid's rate of flow through an ori-
C Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard fice at a standard temperature.
temperature.
9-12. KOI - 9-12. Answer A. JSPT 9-4

Lubricating oils with high viscosity index ratings are Viscosity index is a measure of the change in an oil's
oils viscosity for a given change in temperature. The
smaller the change in viscosity for a given temperature
A in which the viscosity does not vary much with change, the higher the viscosity index. In other words, a
temperature change. high viscosity index indicates that an oil's viscosity
B in which the viscosity varies considerably does not change very much with changes in tempera-
with temperature change. ture. Answer (B) is incorrect because oils whose vis-
C which have high SAE numbers. cosity varies considerably with temperature change
have low viscosity index ratings. Answer (C) is wrong
because a high SAE number indicates a high viscosity,
not a high viscosity index rating.

Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of Synthetic turbine engine oil has two principle advan-
oils used in turbine engines tages over petroleum oil. It has less tendency to
deposit lacquer and coke, and is less likely to evap-
A are required to carry and disperse a higher level orate at high temperatures. Answer (A) is incorrect
of combustion by-products. because turbine engine lubricants are required to
B may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon disperse an extremely low level of combustion by-
formation in the engine. products, and answer (B) is wrong because syn-
C have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke. thetic turbine oils prevent the formation of carbon
(coke) in engines.

The oil used in reciprocating engines has a relatively Reciprocating engines require large engine operating
high viscosity due to clearances because of the relatively large size of the
moving parts and high operating temperatures.
A the reduced ability of thin oils to maintain ade- Therefore, the oil used in reciprocating engines must
quate film strength at altitude, (reduced atmos- have relatively high viscosity in order to maintain an
pheric pressure). adequate film between moving parts. Answer (A) is
B the relatively high rotational speeds. incorrect because reduced atmospheric pressure has
C large clearances and high operating temperatures. little effect on an oil's film strength. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because the rotational speeds of reciprocating
engine components are relatively low compared to
those of turbine engines.
9-15. KOI 9-15. Answer A. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A)

If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil The oil selected for aircraft engine lubrication must be
should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine thin enough to circulate freely, yet heavy enough to
lubrication? provide the proper film strength at operating tempera-
tures (answer A). Answer (B) is wrong because oil
A The thinnest oil that will stay in place and main- should have high demulsibility, meaning that it tends to
tain a reasonable film strength. separate from water. Answer (C) is incorrect because
B An oil that combines high viscosity and low neutralization number is a measure of an oil's acid
demulsibility. content and a low neutralization number is preferred in
C An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a lubricating oils.
high neutralization number.

In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between In addition to reducing friction, one of the primary func-
moving parts), engine oil performs what functions? tions of oil is to circulate through the engine and absorb
heat to aid in engine cooling. In addition, engine oil also
1. Cools. helps to form a seal between the piston rings and
2. Seals. cylinder walls, clean the engine interior by carrying
3. Cleans. foreign particles to the filter, coat engine parts to
4. Prevents corrosion. prevent corrosion, and act as a cushion between the
5. Cushions impact (shock) loads. metal parts during the combustion process. This cush-
ioning effect is particularly important for such parts as
A 1,2, 3, 4. crankshafts and connecting rods.
B 1,2, 3, 4, 5.
C 1,3,4.

Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine The flash point of oil is an important characteristic when
engine oil? selecting a lubricant. Flash point is determined by labo-
ratory tests and represents the temperature at which a
;
A Low flash point. liquid will begin to give off ignitable vapors. The safest
B High flash point. liquids are those that expel ignitable vapors at very high
C High volatility. temperatures (high flash point). Therefore, it is desir-
able for aircraft engine oils to have a high flash point
(answer B). Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because
a low flash point and high volatility could cause a tur-
bine engine lubricant to catch fire during engine opera-
tion and are therefore undesirable characteristics.

The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its The resistance of an oil to flow is known as its viscosity.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the rate of change of
A resistance to flow. internal friction (viscosity) with a change in temperature
B rate of change of internal friction with change in is known as a liquid's viscosity index. Answer (C) is
temperature. C incorrect because there is no correlation between
weight or density. viscosity and weight or density.

What type of oil system is usually found on turbine Both wet- and dry-sump lubrication systems are used
engines? in gas turbine engines. However, most turbojet engines
are of the axial flow configuration and use a dry-sump
A Dry sump, pressure, and spray. lubrication system. With this type of system, the
B ry sump, dip, and splash. engine's bearings are pressure lubricated and the
gearboxes are pressure and spray lubricated. Answers
C Wet sump, spray, and splash. (B) and (C) are incorrect because turbine engines lack
reciprocating components that can provide splash
lubrication.
9-20. Answer C. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A)

9-20. KOI Some of the factors considered when determining the
Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine include the
proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine? engine's operating loads, rotational speeds (answer C),
and operating temperatures. Answers (A) and (B) are
A Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of incorrect because adequate lubrication at various flight
flight. attitudes and positive bearing lubrication are functions
B Positive introduction of oil to the bearings. of a lubrication system's design and have little impact
C Operating speeds of bearings. in determining the proper oil grade.
9-21. Answer B. JSPT 9-4 (AC 65-12A)

9-21 KOI All liquids have a specific gravity. Specific gravity is a
Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a comparison of the weight of a substance to the weight
substance to the weight of an equal volume of of an equal volume of distilled water at a specific tem-
perature.
A oil at a specific temperature.
B distilled water at a specific temperature.
C mercury at a specific temperature.
9-22. K02 9-22. Answer C. JSPT 9-3 (FAR 23.1557)

Oil tank fillers on reciprocating engines are marked FAR 23.1557 specifies that oil filler openings be
with the word marked with "Oil" and the permissible oil designations
or reference to the Airplane Flight Manual for permissi-
A "oil," and tank capacity, in accordance with 14 ble oil designations.
CFRpart45. B "oil," type, and grade, in
accordance with 14
CFR part 33. C "oil," in accordance
with 14 CFR part 23.
9-23. KOI 9-23. Answer B. JSPT 9-5 (DSA-25)

What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over In general, vegetable based oils are chemically unsta-
vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft ble at high temperatures, perform poorly at low temper-
engines? atures, and are unsuited for aircraft engine lubrication.
Mineral based oils, on the other hand, tend to be much
A Cooling ability. more chemically stable and suited for aircraft use
B Chemical stability. "
C Friction resistance.
9-24. KOI 9-24. Answer A. JSPT 9-6 (DSA-25)

The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are In general, animal and vegetable based lubricants
(answers B and C) are chemically unstable at high
A ineral or synthetic based. * temperatures, often perform poorly at low tempera-
B vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based. tures, and are unsuited for aircraft engine lubrication.
C animal, mineral, or synthetic based. However, neither mineral based nor synthetic based
oils have these limitations and, therefore, perform well
as aircraft engine lubricant.
9-25. KOI 9-25. Answer A. JSPT 9-7

High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such EP (extreme pressure) lubricants are intended for use
as occur with spur-type gears, require the use of with spur-type gears operating at high speeds and
under high pressure loads. Under these conditions,
A an EP lubricant. straight mineral oil (answer B) would allow metal to
B straight mineral oil. metal contact resulting in excessive wear. Answer (C)
C metallic ash detergent oil. is incorrect because there is no such thing as a "metal-
lic ash detergent oil."
9-26. KOI 9-26. Answer A. JSPT 9-36 (TEP2)

Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil ser- In an operating turbine engine the oil scavenge pump
vicing within a short time after engine shutdown returns oil from the main bearing galleries to the oil
primarily to reservoir. However, after an engine is shut down, the
oil in the tank tends to seep down to the engine's lower
A prevent overservicing. '" components. This causes the oil level in the reservoir
B help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that to decrease and give a faulty oil level indication.
may already be present in the engine's oil system. Therefore, the best way to prevent overfilling the reser-
C provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the voir is to service the oil system within 30 minutes after
system. engine shutdown. Answer (B) is wrong because if a
substantial number of contaminants exist in an
engine's oil system, the oil should be changed, not just
diluted. Answer (C) is wrong because servicing an oil
system within a short time does not provide any better
indication of oil leaks than if the system were serviced
at a later time interval.
9-27. KOI 9-27. Answer B. JSPT 9-6 (ITP-P2)

What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recom- Most engine manufacturers recommend the use of
mend for new reciprocating engine break-in? straight mineral oil for at least the first 50 hours of the
break-in period in new or newly overhauled reciprocat-
A Ashless-dispersant oil. B ing engines. Both answers (A) and (C) are incorrect
Straight mineral oil. C because ashless-dispersant oils and semi-synthetic
Semi-synthetic oil. oils are typically used after the break-in period
because they provide more effective lubrication than
straight mineral oils.
9-28. KOI 9-28. Answer B. JAPT 9-6 (ITP-P2)

What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recom- Ashless dispersant or AD oil is the most commonly
mend after new reciprocating engine break-in? used lubricant for reciprocating engines after break-in.
Answer (A) is incorrect because there is no such thing
A Metallic-ash detergent oil. ; : as a metallic ash detergent oil and answer (C) is wrong
B Ashless-dispersant oil. because straight mineral oil is typically used during the
C Straight mineral oil. ':"■'.'■■ -: engine break-in period.
■■ " -
9-29. Answer A. JSPT 9-28 (TEP2)
9-29. K02 The three most common types of oil pumps used on tur-
The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine bine engines are the vane, gerotor, and gear-types. All
engines are classified as are classified as positive displacement pumps since they
pump a fixed quantity of oil for each revolution. Answer
A positive displacement. (B) is wrong because variable displacement pumps are
B ariable displacement. : ; - :: generally used in hydraulic systems, while answer (C) is
C constant speed. incorrect because the speed at which an oil pump oper-
ates varies with engine speed and, therefore, an oil
pump is not classified as a constant speed pump.
9-30. Answer B. JSPT 9-17 (AC 65-12A)

9-30. K02 The oil temperature regulator controls oil temperature
The engine oil temperature regulator is usually located by directing oil through the core of the cooler or to the
between which of the following on a dry sump recipro- oil tank without cooling. Therefore, the engine oil tem-
cating engine? perature regulator must sense the oil's temperature as
it leaves the scavenger pump but before it proceeds to
A The engine oil supply pump and the internal the storage tank (answer B). Answers (A) and (C) are
lubrication system. B The scavenger pump incorrect because if the oil temperature regulator were
outlet and the oil storage installed at any point after the oil storage tank, there
tank. C The oil storage tank and the engine oil would be no way to direct the flow of oil to the oil
supply cooler.
pump.
9-31. Answer B. JSPT 9-12 (AC 65-12A)
9-31. K02 If the return line between the scavenge pump and oil
What will happen to the return oil if the oil line cooler should separate, the return oil would be pumped
between the scavenger pump and the oil cooler overboard. Answer (A) is incorrect because the only
separates? way oil would accumulate in the engine is if the return
oil line was blocked, while answer (C) is incorrect
A Oil will accumulate in the engine. because there is no check valve in the scavenger
B The return oil will be pumped overboard. return line.
C The scavenger return line check valve will close
and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake
side of the pressure pump.
9-32. K02 9-32. Answer B. JSPT 9-13 (AC 65-12A)

At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief The purpose of an oil pressure relief valve is to main-
valve of a gear-type engine oil pump. This is normal as tain the correct system pressure. On most engines, the
the relief valve is set at a pressure which is desired maximum oil pressure is reached before the
engine reaches cruise rpm. Therefore, the relief valve
A lower than the pump inlet pressure. is typically set at a pressure that is lower than the oil
B lower than the pressure pump capabilities. pump's maximum capabilities. This means that when
C higher than pressure pump capabilities. an engine reaches cruise rpm, the relief valve must
open slightly to maintain the correct oil pressure.
Answer (A) is wrong because a relief valve set at a
pressure lower than pump inlet pressure would never
allow oil to flow through the pump. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because a relief valve set higher than the pressure
pump's capabilities could damage system components
by exposing them to excessive pressures.
9-33. K02 9-33. Answer C. JSPT 9-32 (AC 65-12A)

(1) Fuel may be used to cool oil in gas turbine Both statements (1) and (2) are correct. In gas turbine
engines. engines, fuel and ram air are both used to cool the oil.
(2) Ram air may be used to cool oil in gas turbine The fuel-cooled oil cooler acts as a fuel/oil heat
engines. . '.;<<;- .;w,:., ■■■,■■■■.■■, exchanger in that the fuel cools the oil and the oil heats
- . ■ -.-. . ■ the fuel. The air-cooled oil cooler normally is installed
at the front of the engine and is similar to those used
Regarding the above statements, on reciprocating engines.
A nly No. 1 is true. ,

9-34. Answer A. JSPT 9-18 (AC 65-12A)
9-34. K02 In wet sump engines, the oil temperature bulb is
In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature located after the oil cooler. This allows the sensing
bulb senses oil temperature bulb to measure the temperature of the oil entering the
engine. Both answers (B) and (C) are wrong because
A at a point after the oil has passed through the oil an indication of oil temperature before the oil is cooled
cooler. is of little practical value.
B while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine. C
immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler.
9-35. Answer B. JSPT 9-30 (AC 65-12A)
9-35. K02 In addition to the main oil filters, turbine engine oil sys-
What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters? tems utilize multiple secondary filters located through-
out the system. For example, fine mesh screens called
A To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle. last chance filters are often used to strain the oil just
B To filter the oil immediately before it enters the before it enters the main bearing compartment. Answer
main bearings. (A) is incorrect because, although a last change filter
■ typically does filter the oil before it reaches the spray
; nozzle, the filter's primary function is to prevent foreign
C To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication particles from entering the main bearings. Answer (C)
system. is wrong because the main oil system filter, not the last
chance filter, ensures a clean supply of oil.

In a jet engine which uses a fuel-oil heat exchanger, In oil systems using a fuel-oil heat exchanger, fuel
the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic ■ flowing to the engine must pass through the heat
valve that regulates the flow of . exchanger. However, a thermostatic bypass valve con-
o trols the flow of oil through the heat exchanger to regu-
late the oil temperature. Answers (A) and (B) are
A fuel through the heat exchanger. incorrect because fuel flow through a fuel-oil heat
B both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger. exchanger is not regulated.
C oil through the heat exchanger.
9-37. Answer C. JSPT 9-11 (AC 65-12A)
9-37. K02 To ensure proper tank ventilation at all flight attitudes
What prevents pressure within the lubricating oil tank reciprocating engine oil tanks are fitted with vent lines.
from rising above or falling below ambient pressure These lines are usually connected to the engine
(reciprocating engine)? crankcase and indirectly vent the oil tank to the atmos-
phere. This indirect venting prevents the tank pressure
A Oil tank check valve. B from rising above or falling below the outside ambient
Oil pressure relief valve. C pressure. Answer (A) is incorrect because oil tanks typ-
Oil tank vent, ically do not have check valves while answer (B) is
wrong because the oil pressure relief valve prevents oil
system pressure from rising above a preset maximum
value.
9-38. Answer C. JSPT 9-31 (AC 65-12A)

9-38. K02 The hottest section within a turbine engine where oil
Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following flows is the turbine section. Therefore, of the choices
turbine engine components? given, the oil will pick up the most amount of heat from
the turbine bearing. In fact, the amount of heat
A Rotor coupling. absorbed by the turbine bearing is so great that the
B Compressor bearing. quantity of oil supplied to the bearing or bearings is
C - Turbine bearing. often greater than to any of the other engine bearings.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither the
rotor coupling nor the compressor bearing is exposed
to potentially damaging temperatures.
9-39. Answer C. JSPT 9-32 (AC 65-12A)

9-39. K02 The fuel-oil heat exchanger is designed to exchange,
Which of the following is a function of the fuel-oil heat or transfer heat from the engine oil to the fuel. This
exchanger on a turbojet engine? process warms the fuel sufficiently enough to prevent
fuel icing. Answer (A) is incorrect because aerated fuel
A Aerates the fuel. is undesirable and answer (B) is wrong because fuel
B Emulsifies the oil. and oil do not mix in a fuel-oil heat exchanger and,
C Increases fuel temperature. therefore, the emulsification qualities of the oil remain
unchanged.
9-40. Answer C. JSPT 9-27 (FAR 33.71)

9-40. K02 According to FAR 33.71, oil filler openings for turbine
According to Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR's), oil engines must be marked with the word "oil." Answers
tank fillers on turbine engines must be marked with the (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither the type and
word grade of oil nor the tank capacity must be indicated.
A "oil" and the type and grade of oil specified by

the manufacturer.
B "oil" and tank capacity.
C "oil."
'
:'
9-41. K02 9-41. Answer A. JSPT 9-37 (FAR 33.71)

After making a welded repair to a pressurized-type tur- FAR 33.71 states that pressurized oil tanks may not
bine engine oil tank, the tank should be pressure leak when subjected to their maximum operating tem-
checked to perature and an internal pressure that is not less than
5 psi plus the maximum operating pressure of the tank.
A not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating
pressure of the tank. B not less than 5 PSI
plus the average operating
pressure of the tank.
C 5 PSI.
9-42. K02 9-42. Answer B. JSPT 9-33 (TEP2)

Possible failure related ferrous-metal particles in tur- Chip detector systems warn of the presence of a sub-
bine engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating-type stantial number of ferrous-metal particles in the engine
magnetic chip detector to indicate their presence by oil. The warning feature on this type of system consists
of an electrical circuit that is completed once debris
A disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the bridges the gap between the magnetic positive elec-
detector tip. trode and the ground electrode (shell) of the chip
B bridging the gap between the detector center detector probe. Answer (A) is wrong because a chip
(positive) electrode and the ground electrode. detector requires a conductive path between the elec-
C generating a small electric current that is caused trode gap to provide a warning. Answer (C) is incorrect
by the particles being in contact with the dissimi- because a chip detector is basically a simple switch
lar metal of the detector tip. and does not generate an electric current.

What would be the probable result if the oil system If the oil system pressure should become excessive in
pressure relief valve should stick in the open position a turbine engine, the pressure relief valve would open
on a turbine engine? and direct oil back to the supply pump inlet before the
oil reached any moving parts. Therefore, if the pres-
A Increased oil pressure. sure relief valve should stick in the open position, sys-
B ecreased oil temperature. C tem pressure would decrease below acceptable levels
Insufficient lubrication. and insufficient lubrication be provided to moving parts.
Answer (A) is incorrect because increased oil pressure
would occur if the pressure relief valve stuck in the
closed position, not the open position, and answer (B)
is wrong because the oil system pressure relief valve
has little effect on oil temperature.

What is the primary purpose of the oil-to-fuel heat The primary purpose of an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger in
exchanger? a turbine engine is to cool the engine oil. The heat
exchanger does this by allowing the warm engine oil to
A Cool the fuel. transfer excess heat energy to the fuel. Answer (A) is
B Cool the oil. wrong because the fuel is heated, not cooled, as it
C Dc-aerate the oil. passes through a fuel-oil heat exchanger. Answer (C)
is incorrect because oil is de-aerated in a special dwell
chamber within the engine oil tank.

What unit in an aircraft engine lubrication system is In most aircraft engine lubrication systems the oil pump
adjusted to maintain the desired system pressure? typically supplies more pressure than the system can
handle. Therefore, the appropriate system pressure
A Oil pressure relief valve. must be maintained by the oil pressure relief valve.
B Oil viscisity valve. C Answer (B) is incorrect because an oil viscosity valve
Oil pump. is used to regulate oil temperature. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because oil pumps are positive displacement units
that pump a fixed quantity based on their speed of
rotation and provide no pressure regulation.
9-46. A K02 9-46. Answer A. JSPT 9-12 (AC 65-12A)

Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal An oil pressure relief valve limits oil pressure to a value
engine components. However, high oil pressure specified by the engine manufacturer. If the relief valve
should stick closed and allow the oil pressure to
■ become excessive, leakage and damage to the oil sys-
tem could result. Therefore, high oil pressure should
A should be limited to the engine manufacturer's always be limited to the engine manufacturer's recom-
recommendations. B has a negligible effect. C mendations (answer A). Since the damage that can be
will not occur because of pressure losses around caused by excessive oil pressure is not negligible,
the bearings. answer (B) is incorrect. Answer (C) is wrong because,
even if pressure losses around the bearings reduced
oil pressure, excessive oil pressure would still exist at
all points prior to the bearings.
9-47. Answer C. JSPT 9-31 (AC 65-12A)

9-47. K02 The breather pressurizing system of a turbine engine
What is the primary purpose of the oil breather ensures a proper spray pattern from the main bearing
pressurization system that is used on, turbine engines? oil jets and furnishes a pressure head to the scavenge
system. If the pressure within the bearing housings
A Prevents foaming of the oil. were allowed to drop as atmospheric pressure dropped
B Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication with changes in altitude, the flow of oil from the oil jets
because of the air/oil mist. C Provides a proper would change. Therefore, to maintain a relatively con-
oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets. stant flow rate the breather pressurizing system main-
tains a relatively constant pressure within the bearing
compartments and oil tank as the aircraft climbs.
Answer (A) is incorrect because an oil breather
pres-surization system does little to prevent oil foaming.
Answer (B) is wrong because aerated oil provides infe-
rior lubrication. For this reason, turbine engine oil tanks
use air-oil separators to remove air from oil entering
the tank.
9-48. K03 9-48. Answer A. JSPT 9-14 (DSA-25)

Some larger reciprocating engines use a compensating Some larger reciprocating engines require high oil
oil pressure relief valve to pressure to force cold oil through the bearings during
starting and warm-up. However, after the oil has
A provide a high engine oil pressure when the oil is warmed up, lower oil system pressure is preferred to
cold and automatically lower the oil minimize oil consumption. One way of providing vary-
pressure : ing oil pressures is with a compensating oil pressure
when the oil warms up. B compensate for relief valve. Answer (B) is incorrect because reciprocat-
changes in atmospheric pressure ing engines typically do not have sn altitude compen-
that accompany altitude changes. C sating oil system. Answer (C) is wrong because it is
automatically keep oil pressure nearly the same neither desirable nor possible to keep a constant oil
whether the oil is warm or cold. pressure regardless of temperature.
9-49. Answer C. JSPT 9-12 (AC 65-12A)

9-49. K03 Almost all engine driven oil pumps provide excessive
In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an oil pressure at higher power settings. Therefore, most
engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped oil systems are equipped with a pressure relief valve
with a that maintains the correct system pressure. Answer (A)
is wrong because oil tank vents are connected to the
A vent. engine crankcase to ventilate the oil tank, not regulate
B bypass valve. oil system pressure. Answer (B) is incorrect because a
C relief valve. bypass valve only allows oil to bypass a failed or
plugged component and does not relieve excessive
system pressure.
9-50. K03 9-50. Answer C. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A) As oil

What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed circulates through a reciprocating engine, it absorbs
by the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine? heat from the engine. Since the pistons and cylinder
walls are exposed to the highest temperatures during
A Crankshaft main bearings. the combustion process, they are the source of the
B Exhaust valves. greatest amount of heat that is absorbed by the oil.
C Pistons and cylinder walls. Crankshaft main bearings (answer A) are far from the
heat of combustion and, therefore, operate at a com-
paratively cool temperature. Answer (B) is incorrect
because even though exhaust valves become
extremely hot during engine operation, little oil actually
comes in contact with them.

How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section The gear teeth within an accessory section of a recip-
of an engine normally lubricated? rocating engine are typically lubricated by oil that is
sprayed by the accessory bearings and by oil that is
A By splashed or sprayed oil. splashed in the accessory case. Answer (B) is incor-
B By submerging the load-bearing portions in oil. rect because submerging the load-bearing portions of
C By surrounding the load-bearing portions with the accessory section in oil is impractical since this
baffles or housings within which oil pressure can would require a considerable amount of oil and a large
be maintained. sump area. Answer (C) is incorrect because surround-
ing the load-bearing portions with baffles or housings
would add unnecessary weight and complexity.

What is the purpose of the check valve generally used Reciprocating engines using dry-sump oil systems
in a dry sump lubrication system? often have a check valve installed in the oil filter. This
check valve is held closed by a light spring load of one
A To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its to three pounds when the engine is not operating and
prime. B To prevent the oil from the supply prevents oil from draining out of the supply tank and
tank from into the engine crankcase. Answer (A) is incorrect
seeping into the crankcase during inoperative because scavenger pumps are located near the bot-
■ tom of the engine where the oil collects and do not rely
periods. C To prevent the oil from the pressure on oil draining back through the system to remain
pump from primed. Answer (C) is incorrect because lubrication
entering the scavenger system. systems are purposely designed to allow pressure
pump oil to enter the scavenger system.
9-53. Answer A. JSPT 9-3 (AC 65-12A)

9-53. K03 The factors that affect oil consumption are engine
From the following, identify the factor that has the speed, engine temperature, operating clearances, oil
least effect on the oil consumption of a specific engine. condition, and characteristics of the lubricant being
used. An engine's mechanical efficiency has little effect
A Mechanical efficiency. '■■ ,■ .■,.-■ on oil consumption. Therefore, answer (A) is correct.
B Engine RPM.
C Lubricant characteristics.

Which of the following lubrication system components The fuel line for an oil dilution system is never located
is never located between the pressure pump and the between the pressure pump and the engine pressure
:
engine pressure system? system. The reason for this is that with an oil dilution
system, the fuel must be introduced into unpressurized
A Oil temperature bulb. oil so there is almost no chance for oil to flow back
B Fuel line for oil dilution system. through the dilution system and enter the fuel supply.
C Check valve. Answer (A) is incorrect because oil temperature bulbs
are often installed immediately after the pressure pump
so the temperature of the oil entering the engine is
known. Answer (B) is wrong because many radial
engines use a check valve between the pressure pump
and the engine pressure system to prevent oil from
seeping into the engine when it is shut down.

As an aid to cold-weather starting, the oil dilution sys- Oil dilution systems thin engine oil for cold-weather
tem thins the oil with starting by allowing the pilot to add fuel (gasoline) to
the engine oil just prior to engine shut down. Although
A kerosene. ': kerosene (answer A) and alcohol (answer B) can also
■'■ '■- .': be used to dilute engine oil, neither is typically carried
B alcohol. ■'■' on reciprocating engine aircraft.
C gasoline.
9-56. Answer C. JSPT 9-24 (AC 65-12A)
9-56. K03 Initial adjustment on the oil pressure relief valve for a
The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly newly overhauled engine is made in the overhaul shop.
overhauled engine is made The adjustment is fine tuned after the engine is
installed in a test stand and run. To help eliminate the
A within the first 30 seconds of engine operation. risk of oil starvation, the initial adjustment should not
B when the oil is at a higher than normal tempera- wait until the engine is run. Answer (A) is incorrect
ture to assure high oil pressure at normal oil tem- because some sort of adjustment must be made
perature. before an engine is first started. Answer (B) is wrong
C in the overhaul shop. because the relief valve is typically adjusted based on
expected oil temperatures.
9-57. Answer A. JSPT 9-20 (AC 65-12A)

9-57. K03 It is important for pilots to know the temperature of the
Where is the oil temperature Where is the oil oil just before it enters the engine. Therefore, in
sump reciprocating engine? temperature bulb located dry-sump lubricating systems, the oil temperature bulb
on a dry may be located anywhere in the oil inlet line between
A Oil inlet line. B the supply tank and the engine. Answers (B) and (C)
Oil cooler. C Oil are incorrect because placing the temperature bulb in
outlet line. either of these locations would not give the tempera-
9-58. K03 ture of the oil entering the engine.
Cylinder walls are usually lubricated by
9-58. Answer A. JSPT 9-8 (AC 65-12A)
A splashed or sprayed oil. In most reciprocating engines, the cylinder walls
B a direct pressure system fed through the crank- receive oil spray from the crankshaft and crankpin
shaft, connecting rods, and the piston pins to the bearings. Some of the oil coming from the crankshaft is
oil control ring groove in the piston. also splashed onto the cylinder walls. Answer (B) is
C oil that is picked up by the oil control ring when incorrect because no such lubrication system exists,
the piston is at bottom center. and answer (C) is wrong because, although the oil
control ring regulates the thickness of the lubricating
film on the cylinder wall, it does not pick up any oil
when the piston is at the bottom of a stroke.

If a full-flow oil filter is used on an aircraft engine, and Full-flow oil filters used on aircraft engines are always
the filter becomes completely clogged, the equipped with a bypass valve which allows unfiltered oil
to bypass the filter and enter the engine should the oil
A oil supply to the engine will be blocked. filter become clogged. Answer (A) is incorrect because
B oil will be bypassed back to the oil tank hopper the design of a full-flow filter prevents oil supply block-
where larger sediments and foreign matter will age, and answer (B) is wrong because oil is bypassed
settle out prior to passage through the engine. directly to the engine, not to the oil tank hopper.
C bypass valve will open and the oil pump will sup-
ply unfiltered oil to the engine.

What is the primary purpose of changing aircraft Oil in an engine is constantly exposed to many harmful
engine lubricating oils at predetermined periods? substances that reduce its ability to protect moving
parts. These contaminants include moisture, acids, dirt,
A The oil becomes diluted with gasoline washing carbon, and metallic particles. Therefore, it is important
past the pistons into the crankcase. B The that the oil be changed at regular intervals. Answer (A)
oil becomes contaminated with moisture, is incorrect because the small amount of gasoline that
acids, and finely divided suspended solid particles. washes past the pistons evaporates out of the engine
C Exposure to heat and oxygen causes a decreased oil at normal operating temperatures. Answer (C) is
ability to maintain a film under load. wrong because exposure to heat and oxygen typically
does not affect the lubricant's ability to maintain a film.
9-61. Answer B. JSPT 9-17 (DSA-25)

9-61. K03 A cuno-type oil filter consists of a cartridge consisting
What determines the minimum particle size which will of disks, spacers, and a cleaner blade located between
be excluded or filtered by a cuno-type (stacked disc, each pair of disks. As oil enters the filter it passes
edge filtration) filter? through the gaps between the closely spaced cartridge
disks, then through the hollow center and on to the
A The disc thickness. ..:.,-,..■_■■ .. engine. The smaller the spacer thickness between the
B The spacer thickness. disks the smaller the particles that are filtered out of
C Both the number and thickness of the discs in the the oil. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because disk
assembly. thickness does not determine the minimum particle
size a cuno-type oil filter can screen.
9-62. Answer A. JSPT 9-11 (AC 65-12A)

9-62. K03 Some oil tanks have a built-in hopper, or temperature
What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in the accelerating well, that extends from the oil return fitting on
oil supply tank of some dry sump engine installations? top of the oil tank to the outlet fitting in the sump in the
bottom of the oil tank. The primary purpose of the hopper
A To reduce the time required to warm the oil to is to separate the circulating oil from the surrounding oil in
operating temperatures. B To reduce surface the tank so the circulating oil warms quickly after the
aeration of the hot oil and thus engine is started (answer A). Answer (B) is incorrect
reduce oxidation and the formation of sludge and because aeration occurs when the oil is agitated by an
varnish. C To impart a centrifugal motion to engine's moving parts, not by the oil entering the tank.
the oil entering Answer (C) is wrong because the centrifugal motion
the tank so that the foreign particles in the oil will imparted on the oil as it enters the hopper is designed to
separate more readily. reduce foaming, not to eliminate foreign particles.

The purpose of the flow control valve in a reciprocating A flow control valve determines whether the oil passes
engine oil system is to through or around the oil cooler. When oil is cold, the
flow control valve directs the oil around the cooler and
A direct oil through or around the oil cooler. B back to the tank for circulation. However, when the oil
deliver cold oil to the hopper tank. C compensate is hot, the flow control valve directs the oil through the
for volumetric increases due to foaming of the oil. oil cooler. Answer (B) is wrong because the hopper
tank receives cooled oil through an oil return fitting on
top of the oil tank, while answer (C) is wrong because
oil tanks have a built-in expansion space to compen-
sate for volumetric changes.
9-64. K03
Why is an aircraft reciprocating engine oil tank on a 9-64. Answer C. JSPT 9-11 (AC 65-12A)
dry sump lubrication system equipped with a vent line? Reciprocating engine oil tanks are equipped with vent
lines to ensure proper tank ventilation in all flight atti-
A To prevent pressure buildup in the reciprocating tudes and prevent pressure buildup in the oil tank. The
engine crankcase. vent line is usually connected to the engine crankcase
B To eliminate foaming in the oil lank. C which is vented to the atmosphere through the
To prevent pressure buildup in the oil lank. crankcase breather. Answer (A) is incorrect because
the crankcase breather, not the oil tank vent line, pre-
vents pressure buildup in the engine. Answer (B) is
incorrect because oil foaming is a direct result of the oil
being splashed around during circulation and has noth-
ing to do with the oil tank vent lines.
9-65. K03
(1) Wet sump oil systems are most commonly used in 9-65. Answer B. JSPT 9-26 (AC 65-12A)
gas turbine engines. Only statement number (2) is correct. Although wet
(2) In most turbine engine oil tanks, a slight pressurza- sump oil systems were used on some early turbine
tion of the tank is desired to ensure a positive flow engines, they are not commonly used today. However,
of oil. most turbine engine oil tanks are pressurized slightly to
ensure a positive flow of oil.
A both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

9-66. K03
The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry 9-66. Answer A. JSPT 9-12 (AC 65-12A)
sump aircraft engine's lubrication system The scavenger pump in a dry sump lubrication system
is responsible for pumping circulated oil from the sump
A is greater than the capacity of the oil supply back to the oil tank. However, because the oil thermally
pump. expands once it gets to the sump, scavenger pumps
B is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump. must have a greater capacity than the pressure pump
C is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply to prevent oil from collecting in the sump. A scavenger
pump in order to maintain constant oiling condi- pump with less capacity than the pressure pump
tions. (answer B) or an equal capacity (answer C) could not
return enough oil to the oil tank which could lead to
pressure pump cavitation.

In which of the following situations will the oil cooler The bypass valve on an oil cooler regulates the
automatic bypass valve be open the greatest amount? amount of oil that flows through the oil cooler. When
the engine oil is below normal operating temperature
A Engine oil above normal operating temperature. the bypass valve is fully open so the oil can bypass the
B Engine oil below normal operating temperature. oil cooler. However, once the oii reaches its operating
C Engine stopped with no oil flowing after runup. temperature, the bypass valve closes and allows the
oil to pass through the oil cooler. Answers (A) and (C)
are incorrect because at elevated temperatures during
operation or just after engine shutdown, the bypass
valve is partially closed.

In order to maintain a constant oil pressure as the Most oil pumps used in aircraft engines provide exces-
clearances between the moving parts of an engine sive oil pressure when run at a high rpm and, therefore,
increase through normal wear, the supply pump output a relief valve must be used to maintain a constant
pressure. When the relief valve opens, oil is directed
A increases as the resistance offered to the flow of back to the oil pump inlet for recirculation. With this
oil increases. B remains relatively constant (at type of system, as the clearances between moving
a given RPM) with parts increase, the pump output remains constant but
less oil being returned to the pump inlet by the less oil is returned to the pump inlet by the relief valve.
relief valve. C remains relatively constant (at a Answer (A) is incorrect because resistance to oil flow
given RPM) with drops as operating tolerances increase. Answer (C) is
more oil being returned to the pump inlet by the wrong because less oil is returned to the pump inlet,
relief valve. not more.

What will result if an oil filter becomes completely Aircraft engine oil systems are equipped with a bypass
blocked? valve that allows oil to flow at a normal rate around the
filter in the event the filter should become clogged or
A Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system. the oil becomes too congealed to flow through it. Both
B Oil flow to the engine will stop. answers (A) and (B) are wrong because, as long as
C Oil will flow at the normal rate through the sys- there is a bypass valve, oil will continue to flow at a
tem. normal rate.
9-70. K03
A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the 9-70. Answer B. JSPT 9-26 (AC 65-12A)
self-contained, high-pressure design The dry-sump lubrication system of a typical turbine
engine consists of pressure, scavenge, and breather
A has no heat exchanger. subsystems. The pressure system supplies oil to the
B consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge sub- main engine bearings and to the accessory drives,
systems. C stores oil in the engine crankcase. while the scavenge system returns the oil to the engine
oil tank for recirculation. The breather system vents the
individual bearing compartments and the oil tank to
atmosphere through a breather pressurizing valve.
Answer (A) is incorrect since all turbine engine lubrica-
tion systems contain a heat exchanger to cool the oil.
Answer (C) is wrong because a turbine engine has no
crankcase and, therefore, oil cannot be stored there.

Lube system last chance filters in turbine engines are Last chance filters in turbine engines are typically
usually cleaned located at the oil jets within the bearing housing. Since
bearing housings are not readily available for disas-
A during annual inspection. B sembly and inspection, last chance filters are typically
during 100-hour inspections. cleaned when an engine is overhauled.
C during overhaul.

The vent line connecting the oil supply tank and the Oil tanks are equipped with vent lines to ensure proper
engine in some dry sump engine installations permits tank ventilation in all flight attitudes. These lines are
usually connected to the engine crankcase which is
A pressurization of the oil supply to prevent vented to the atmosphere through the crankcase
cavita- breather. Therefore, the oil tank is indirectly vented
tion of the oil supply pump. B oil vapors from through the engine vent (answer C). Answer (A) is
the engine to be condensed and incorrect because oil tanks are typically not pressur-
drained into the oil supply tank. C the oil tank ized, and answer (B) is wrong because, although some
to be vented through the normal engine oil vapors condense in the oil tank, this is a
engine vent. secondary function of the vent line.
9-73. Answer C. JSPT 9-13 (AC 65-12A)

9-73. K03 To prevent internal engine damage caused by exces-
An engine lubrication system pressure relief valve is sive oil pressure, an oil pressure relief valve is typically
usually located between the installed between the pressure pump and the internal
oil system. This way, if the pump output pressure
A oil cooler and the scavenger pump. exceeds the recommended system pressure, the relief
B scavenger pump and the external oil system. valve can relieve the excess pressure before the oil
C pump and the internal oil system. enters the engine. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect
since placing the relief valve downstream from where
the oil enters the engine could result in substantial
internal engine damage.
9-74. Answer A. JSPT 9-17 (AC 65-12A)

9-74. K03 The temperature control valve, sometimes called the
Where is the oil of a dry sump reciprocating engine flow control valve, is located at the oil cooler inlet and
exposed to the temperature control valve sensing unit? determines whether or not the oil passes through the
oil cooler. When the oil is cold, the flow control valve
A Oil cooler inlet. directs oil around the jacket surrounding the cooler to
B Engine outlet. allow the oil to warm quickly. However, when the oil
C Engine inlet. reaches its operating temperature, the flow control
valve closes and directs oil through the oil cooler core.
Since the flow control valve controls oil cooler opera-
tion, it cannot be located at the engine outlet (answer B)
or inlet (answer C).

Under which of the following conditions is the oil The temperature control valve, or flow control valve, is
cooler flow control valve open on a reciprocating located at the oil cooler inlet and determines whether
engine? '■ '■■.■; '■:'■■■ or not the oil passes through the oil cooler. When the
■ -:■■■ . . ■ ■■'""■■-'■._■. ' oil is cold, the flow control valve is open and directs oil
around the jacket surrounding the cooler to allow the
A When the temperature of the oil returning from oil to warm quickly. However, when the oil reaches its
the engine is too high. B When the operating temperature, the flow control valve closes
temperature of the oil returning from and directs oil through the oil cooler core. Answer (A)
the engine is too low. C When the is incorrect because the flow control valve is closed,
scavenger pump output volume not open, when the oil temperature is too high.
exceeds the engine pump input volume. Furthermore, since flow control valve operation
depends on temperature, scavenger pump output vol
ume (answer C) has no bearing on the valve's func
tion. ■■:■'■-.:<<■■.-■■
9-76. Answer A. JSPT 9-32 (AC 65-12A)

9-76. K03 In most turbine engine oil tanks, a slight pressure
The purpose of a relief valve installed in the tank vent- buildup is desired to ensure a positive flow of oil to the
ing system of a turbine engine oil tank is to oil pump inlet. This pressure buildup is accomplished
by installing an adjustable check relief valve in the tank
A prevent oil pump cavitation by maintaining a overboard vent line. This check valve is set between
constant pressure on the oil pump inlet. three to six psig to maintain positive pressure within
B maintain internal tank air pressure at the the oil tank. Answer (B) is wrong because the purpose
ambient atmospheric level regardless of altitude of the relief valve is to maintain a tank pressure above
or rate of change in altitude. that of the ambient pressure. Answer (C) is incorrect
C maintain a positive internal pressure in the oil because the relief valve does not maintain system
, tank after shutdown to prevent oil pump pressure after engine shutdown.
cavitation on engine start.
9-77. Answer C. JSPT 9-13 (AC 65-12A)
9-77. K03 To avoid damage to an engine's internal lubrication
In a reciprocating engine, oil is directed from the pres- system, an oil pressure relief valve is installed after the
sure relief valve to the inlet side of the oil pressure pump outlet that relieves excess pressure
by directing some of the excess oil back to the inlet
A cavenger pump. ■■■"■'■> -.,.-■ side of the pressure pump.
■ .■
B oil temperature regulator. •
C pressure pump. 9-78. Answer C. JSPT 9-18 (AC 65-12A)
If the oil in an oil cooler becomes congealed, the scav-
9-78. K03 enge pump could build up enough pressure in the sys-
If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket tem to cause damage. To prevent this high pressure
becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage to the from damaging the oil cooler, some engines are
cooler? equipped with a surge protection valve in either the oil
cooler or the oil return line. Answer (A) is incorrect
A Oil pressure relief valve. because the oil pressure relief valve is installed on the
B Airflow control valve. C main pressure pump and is not able to relieve excess
Surge protection valve. pressure created by the scavenge pump on the return
side of the system. Answer (B) is wrong because an
airflow control valve regulates cooling air that flows to
the oil cooler and cannot relieve excessive oil pres-
sures.

The primary source of oil contamination in a normally The primary source of oil contamination in a reciprocat-
operating reciprocating engine is ing engine is combustion by-products that escape past
the piston rings (blow-by), and oil carbonizing that
A metallic deposits as a result of engine wear. B occurs when oil becomes trapped in the pores of the
atmospheric dust and pollution. C combustion cylinder walls and is burned. Answer (A) is incorrect
deposits due to combustion chamber blow-by and oil because an engine's oil filtration system eliminates
migration on the cylinder walls. ■. most metallic particles, and answer (B) is wrong
because most oil systems are fairly well sealed, mak-
ing it extremely difficult for atmospheric dust and pollu-
tion to enter the oil.

A drop in oil pressure may be caused by When oil pressure in an engine becomes excessive,
the pressure relief valve unseats and excess oil is
A the temperature regulator sticking open. directed back to the inlet of the pressure pump. If for-
B the bypass valve sticking open. eign matter causes the relief valve to stick open, oil
C foreign material under the relief valve. would continue to be bypassed even when the pres-
sure was not excessive. This would cause a reduced
amount of oil to flow to the engine which, in turn, would
cause a low oil pressure. Answer (A) is incorrect
because if a temperature regulator sticks open, oil tem-
perature rises but oil pressure remains constant.
Answer (B) is incorrect because if a bypass valve
sticks open, the oil would simply bypass the oil filter
with no change in pressure.

The main oil filters strain the oil at which point in the In most aircraft oil systems, the main oil filter is located
system? immediately downstream of the pressure pump to
ensure clean oil enters the engine. Answers (A) and (B)
A Immediately after it leaves the scavenger pump. are incorrect because locating the main filter after the
B Immediately before it enters the pressure pump. scavenge pump or just upstream of the pressure pump
C Just as it leaves the pressure pump. increases the chance of contamination being
introduced into the engine.

Which type valve prevents oil from entering the main In both reciprocating and turbine dry-sump lubrication
accessory case when the engine is not running? systems, check valves are installed between the oil
tank and the engine. These valves are set at two to five
A Bypass. B psi, and their purpose is to prevent oil from draining
Relief. C into the engine when the engine is not operating.
Check. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because bypass and
relief valves open at pressure values considerably
higher than a simple check valve requires.
9-83. K03 9-83. Answer A. JSPT 9-11 (FAR 23.1013)

An oil tank having a capacity of 5 gallons must have According to the FAR 23.1013, an oil tank must have an
an expansion space of expansion space of 10 percent or 0.5 gallon, whichever
is greater. In this example, 10 percent of 5 gallons is 2
A 2 quarts. quarts which is equivalent to 0.5 gallon. Therefore,
B 4 quarts. answer (A) is correct.
C 5
quarts.
9-84. K03 9-84. Answer A. JSPT 9-32 (ITP-P2)

As a general rule, a small amount of small fuzzy parti- Normal turbine engine operation results in small fuzzy
cles or gray metallic paste on a turbine engine mag- particles or a gray metallic paste accumulating on the
netic chip chip detector. Imminent component failure (answer B)
detector :.■ ! .-.■, -..■.--■■ and accelerated generalized wear (answer C) are typi-
cally identified by larger particles of different metals.
A is considered to be the result of normal wear.
B indicates an imminent component failure
..................................................................................
= 9-85. Answer B. JSPT 9-11 (AC 65-12A)
C indicates accelerated generalized wear. All oil tanks are provided with expansion space that
allows for thermal expansion and foaming. The com-
9-85. K03 plete elimination of oil foaming (answer A) is impossi-
Why is expansion space required in an engine oil sup- ble and proper tank ventilation (answer C) is provided
ply tank? by a vent line to the engine crankcase which, in turn, is
vented to the atmosphere.
A To eliminate oil foaming.
B For oil enlargement and collection of foam. 9-86. Answer C. JSPT 9-27 (AC 65-12A)
C - For proper oil tank ventilation. A dwell chamber, sometimes referred to as a
deaera-tor, provides a means of separating entrained
9-86. K03 air from scavenge oil. Turbine engine oil tanks do not
The purpose of a dwell chamber in a turbine engine oil have separate collection points for sediments (answer
tank is to provide A). Answer (B) is incorrect because in most turbine
engine oil tanks, the tank vent line employs an
A a collection point for sediments. adjustable check relief valve to maintain positive
B for a pressurized oil supply to the oil pump inlet. pressure.
C separation of entrained air from scavenged oil.
COOLING SYSTEMS
This chapter covers reciprocating engine cooling, including baffles, augmentor tubes, and cowl flaps. Also
covered are cooling features found in turbine engines.
10-1. M01 10-1. Answer B. JSPT 10-12

The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an elec-
system aids turbine engine efficiency by tronic engine control (EEC) system controls turbine
blade-to-engine case clearances by controlling the
A adjusting stator vane position according to amount of air that is directed through the engine case.
operating conditions and power requirements. By keeping clearances to a minimum, pressure losses
B ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances caused by air leakage at the blade tips is minimized.
are kept to a minimum by controlling case Answer (A) is incorrect because the variable stator
temperatures. vane (VSV) portion of the EEC controls stator vane
C automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain position. Answer (C) is wrong because the thrust man-
a desired EPR. agement computer adjusts engine speed to maintain a
desired EPR.
10-2. P01 10-2. Answer B. JSPT 10-3 (AC 65-12A)

The primary purpose of baffles and deflectors installed Many reciprocating engines utilize cylinder baffles to
around cylinders of air-cooled aircraft engines is to help direct cooling air into close contact with all cylin-
der parts. Answer (A) is incorrect because baffles and
A create a low pressure area aft of the cylinders. deflectors direct airflow around the cylinders and do
not create a low pressure area aft of the cylinders.
B force cooling air into close contact with all parts Answer (C) is wrong because cowl flaps control the
of the cylinders. volume of cooling air admitted into the engine compart-
C increase the volume of air used to cool the ment.
engine.
10-3. Answer B. JSPT 10-4 (AC 65-12A)
10-3. P01 In an augmenter system, engine exhaust gases are
What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some discharged into a stainless steel augmentor tube. The
reciprocating engine exhaust systems? flow of high velocity exhaust gases within the tube cre-
ates an area of low pressure at the augmentor inlet
A To reduce exhaust back pressure. that draws additional air from within the cowl into the
B To aid in cooling the engine. augmentor tube where is it discharged overboard with
C To assist in displacing the exhaust gases. the exhaust. This process increases the airflow over
the engine and aids in cooling. Answers (A) and (C)
are incorrect because augmentor tubes only direct the
exhaust gas, they do not displace it or reduce its back
pressure.
10-2 Cooling Systems
10-4. P01 10-4. Answer C. JSPT 10-8 (AC 65-12A)

Aircraft reciprocating engine cylinder baffles and Cylinder deflectors and baffles are designed to force
deflectors should be repaired as required to prevent air over the cylinder cooling fins to ensure proper cool-
loss of ing. Therefore, if a cylinder baffle or deflector is dam-
aged, it should be repaired as soon as possible to
A power. prevent a loss of cooling efficiency. Even a small
amount of damage could cause a localized hot spot
B fin area. and an eventual engine malfunction. Answer (A) is
wrong because cylinder baffles and deflectors have no
C cooling. direct effect on engine power. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a damaged baffle or deflector does nothing to
10-5. P01 change the cooling fin area on the cylinders.
Cracks in cooling fins that do not extend into the
cylinder head, may be repaired by 10-5. Answer B. JSPT 10-7 (AC 65-12A)
Cracks in the cooling fins of a cylinder are allowed,
A filling the extremities of the crack with liquid provided they are within the manufacturer's allowable
metal. limits. To repair a cracked cooling fin, you should
B removing the affected area and contour filing remove the damaged fin then contour file the affected
within limits. area. In general, neither filling the extremities of a
C welding and then grinding or filing to original crack with liquid metal (answer A) nor welding and
thickness. grinding cylinder cooling fins (answer C) is considered
an acceptable repair.
10-6. P01
Which of the following should a mechanic consult to
determine the maximum amount of cylinder cooling fin 10-6. Answer B. JSPT 10-7 (AC 65-12A)
that could be removed when cracks are found? When performing repairs to a cylinder's cooling fins,
the engine manufacturer's service or overhaul manual
A AC43.13-1A. should be consulted to ensure the repair is within limits.
B Engine manufacturer's service or overhaul Answer (A) is incorrect because AC 43.13-1A does not
manual. contain approved information regarding the removal of
C Engine Structure repair manual. material from cylinder cooling fins. Answer (C) is wrong
because engine manufacturers do not publish engine
structure repair manuals.

A bent cooling fin on an aluminum cylinder head If a cooling fin is inadvertently bent on an aluminum
cylinder head and no crack forms, the fin should be left
A should be sawed off and filed smooth. alone. Aluminum cooling fins are very brittle, and any
attempt to straighten them could cause them to crack
B should be left alone if no crack has formed. or break. Answer (A) is incorrect because a bent cool-
ing fin does not need to be removed if it is not cracked.
C should be stop drilled or a small radius filed at Answer (C) is wrong because stop drilling or filing a
the point of the bend. bent fin will hasten the formation of a crack.
10-8. Answer C. JSPT 10-2 (AC 65-12A)

On an air-cooled reciprocating engine, cooling fins are
10-8. P01 located on the cylinder head, cylinder barrel, and on
Where are cooling fins usually located on air-cooled the underside of the piston head. Neither connecting
engines? rods (answer A) nor piston skirts (answer B) require
cooling fins to dissipate excess heat.
A Exhaust side of the cylinder head, inside the
pistons, and connecting rods.
B Cylinder head, cylinder walls, and inside the
piston skirt.
C Cylinder head, cylinder barrel, and inside the
piston head.
Cooling Systems 10-3

How do cowl flaps aid in cooling a horizontally Cowl flaps are typically located on the bottom of an
opposed aircraft engine? engine cowl and provide a means of controlling the
amount of air that exits the cowl which, in turn, controls
A Recirculates air through the engine cylinders. the amount of air flowing around the cylinders. For
example, opening the cowl flaps increases the air exit
B Directs air through the engine cylinders. area which effectively increases the amount of air that
can circulate over the cylinder fins. Furthermore, the
C Controls the amount of air flowing around the outside airstream flowing over an opened cowl flap
cylinders. creates a low pressure area which further assists in
removing heat from the engine compartment. Answers
(A) and (B) are incorrect because cooling air passes
around each cylinder, not through the cylinders.
10-10. Answer A. JSPT 10-4 (AC 65-12A)

Cowl flaps are small doors at the rear of an engine
10-10. P01 cowling that are opened to vary the amount of cooling
The position of the cowl flaps during normal cruise air that flows through the engine compartment. In nor-
flight conditions is mal cruise flight, the forward motion of the aircraft typi-
cally produces enough airflow over the engine that the
A closed. cowl flaps can remain closed. Answers (B) and (C) are
B open. incorrect because the cowl flaps typically do not need
C one half open. to be open during normal cruise operations.
10-11. Answer C. JSPT 10-8 (AC 65-12A)

Cylinder baffles are sheet metal shields located in an
10-11. P01 engine compartment that channel air around the cylin-
ders for cooling. If a small crack develops in a cylinder
Generally, a small crack just started in a cylinder baffle
baffle it is acceptable to stopdrill the crack. Answer (A)
is incorrect because small cracks in cylinder baffles
A requires repair by reinforcing, such as installation
are generally acceptable as long as they are stop
of a doubler over the area.
drilled. Answer (B) is wrong because it is good mainte-
B requires no action unless it grows or is branched
nance practice to stop drill small cracks in cylinder
into two cracks.
baffles when they are first discovered to keep them
C may be stop drilled.
from growing.
10-12. Answer B. JSPT 10-3 (AC 65-12A)

An engine's cowling and baffles are designed to chan-
nel air over the engine cylinders to aid in removing
10-12. P02
heat from the engine. The cowling is responsible for
Which of the following assists in removing heat from
receiving impact air and making it flow around the
the metal walls and fins of an air-cooled cylinder
engine while the baffles direct the air close to the cylin-
assembly?
der fins to prevent hot spots from forming. Answer (A)
A An intercooler system. is wrong because an intercooler system is typically
B A baffle and cowl arrangement. used in a turbocharger installation to cool the
tur-bocharged air before it enters the engine's
C An engine induction system.
induction system. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
engines induction system does nothing to remove heat
from the cylinder assembly.

During ground operation of an engine, the cowl flaps Cowl flaps are small doors at the rear of an engine
should be in what position? cowling that are used to vary the amount of cooling air
that flows through the engine compartment. When an
A Fully closed. engine is operated on the ground, the airflow through
B Fully open. the cowl is limited due to the lack of forward motion.
C Opened according to ambient conditions. Therefore, to keep the engine from overheating, the
cowl flaps should be placed in the full open position to
allow the maximum amount of cooling air to flow
through the engine compartment. Answer (A) is wrong
because if the cowl flaps were fully closed, insufficient
cooling air would flow through the engine compartment
and the engine could easily overheat. Answer (C) is
incorrect because, once the engine is warm, all ground
operations typically require maximum engine cooling
regardless of ambient conditions.
10-14. P02 10-14. Answer A. JSPT 10-8 (AC 65-9A)

During an operational check of an electrically powered Any time an electrical component fails to operate, the
radial engine cowl flap system, the motor fails to first action should be to check the component's fuse or
operate. Which of the following is the first to be circuit breaker. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect
checked? because you must first ensure that the cockpit control
switch and the flap actuator motor are being supplied
A Flap actuator motor circuit breaker. with power through the circuit breaker before you can
B Cockpit control switch. check their operation.
C Flap actuator motor. 10-15. Answer A. JSPT 10-4 (AC 65-12A)

Only statement (1) is correct. An augmentor system
10-15. P02 consists of tubes running from the engine compartment
(1) Some aircraft exhaust systems include an to the rear of the nacelle. The exhaust collectors feed
augmenter system to draw additional air over exhaust gas into the inner augmentor tubes where the
the engine for cooling. high-velocity flow creates an area of low pressure at
(2) Augmenter systems are used to create a low pressure the augmentor inlet. This low pressure draws addi
area at the lower rear of the aircraft engine cowling. tional air through the cowling to aid in cooling.
Statement (2) is false because cowl falps, not exhaust
Regarding the above statements, augmentors, create a low pressure area at the lower
rear of the engine cowl.
A only No. 1 is true.
B both No.l and No.2 are true.
C only No.2 is true. 10-16. Answer A. JSPT 10-7 (AC 65-12A)
The cooling fins on reciprocating aircraft engines are
10-16. P02 designed with a precise surface area to dissipate a
Which of the following defects would likely cause a certain amount of heat. Therefore, if a large piece of
hot spot on a reciprocating engine cylinder? cooling fin breaks off from a cylinder, a hot spot can
develop. Although a cracked cylinder baffle (answer B)
A Too much cooling fin area broken off. or a leaking cowling air seal (answer C) would reduce
B A cracked cylinder baffle. the efficiency of the engine's cooling system, neither
would cause a localized hot spot on a cylinder.
C Cowling air seal leakage.
10-17. Answer C. JSPT 10-2 (AC 65-12A)
The hottest area on a cylinder head is around the
exhaust valve and, therefore, requires the greatest fin
10-17. P02 area per square inch. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong
What part of an air-cooled cylinder assembly has the because neither the cylinder barrel nor rear of the
greatest fin area per square inch? cylinder head get as hot as the area around the
exhaust port.
A Cylinder barrel.
B Rear of the cylinder head.
C Exhaust valve port.
10-18. P02 10-18. Answer B. JSPT 10-6

Reciprocating engines used in helicopters are cooled by When operating a reciprocating engine-powered heli-
copter, ram air pressure from the rotor system (answer
A the downdraft from the main rotor. A) is usually not sufficient to cool the engine, particu-
B a fan mounted on the engine. larly when the helicopter is hovering. Therefore, many
C blast tubes on either side of the engine mount. helicopters utilize large engine-driven fans to maintain
a strong flow of air around the engine. Answer (C) is
wrong because blast tubes do not provide sufficient
cooling for a hovering aircraft.
10-19. P02
The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion 10-19. Answer B. JSPT 10-2 (AC 65-12A)
in a typical aircraft reciprocating engine is In a typical aircraft reciprocating engine, about 40 per-
cent of the heat generated in the engine is carried out
A converted into useful power. with the exhaust gas while approximately 30 percent is
B carried out with the exhaust gases. removed by the oil and the engine's cooling system.
C dissipated through the cylinder walls and heads. The remaining 30 percent is converted into useful
power. Therefore, the majority of heat generated by
combustion is carried out with the exhaust gases.
10-20. P02
A broken cooling fin on a cylinder head 10-20. Answer B. JSPT 10-7 (AC 65-12A)
Although a broken cooling fin reduces cooling effi-
A is cause for rejection of the head. ; ciency, it is not necessarily cause for rejection. For
B may be filed to smooth contours if damage example, if the manufacturer's service limits have not
and/or repair limits are not exceeded. been exceeded, the cooling fin may be filed to produce
C should be left alone. smooth contours and remain in service. Answer (C) is
incorrect because broken cooling fins should at least
be filed smooth unless otherwise specified by the man-
ufacturer's service instructions.
10-21. P02
Cylinder head temperatures are measured by means of 10-21. Answer C. JSPT 10-6 (AC 65-15A)
an indicator and a Cylinder head temperature is usually measured with a
thermocouple sensing device. A thermocouple consists
A esistance bulb sensing device. of a circuit with two dissimilar metal wires that are
joined at both ends to form two junctions. When one
B wheatstone bridge sensing device. junction is heated, the thermocouple generates an elec
tric current that can be measured by a galvanometer.
C thermocouple sensing device. The hotter the high temperature junction, the greater
the current produced. By calibrating the galvanometer
in degrees, it becomes a thermometer. Answer (A) is
incorrect because resistance bulb sensing devices are
limited to measuring lower temperature ranges such as
carburetor air, oil, and free air temperatures. Answer (B)
is wrong because, although a wheatstone bridge circuit
is used with some temperature sensing devices, it is
not typically used with cylinder head temperature
gauges. ......

Prolonged idling of an engine will usually result in When an engine is operated for a long period at idle
rpm, a rich fuel/air mixture must be used to keep cylin-
A excessive cylinder head temperatures. der head temperatures within acceptable limits.
B increased oil consumption. However, after prolonged operation, the excess fuel
C foreign material buildup on spark plugs. has a tendency to build up and foul out the spark plugs.
Answer (A) is incorrect because cylinder head
temperatures remain within limits at idle if a rich fuel/air
mixture is used. Answer (B) is wrong because
increased oil consumption is caused by worn pistons
rings, worn valve train components, or improper
break-in, but not by prolonged ground idling.

The most common method and generally the best con- Almost all reciprocating engine cylinder barrels have
duction of heat from the inside of a cylinder barrel to cooling fins machined directly onto their outside sur
the cooling air is accomplished by faces to help dissipate heat. These fins allow heat to
be conducted away from the inside of the cylinder,
A machining fins directly on the outside of the bar- allowing the use of stronger, lighter alloys. Answers (B)
rel. and (C) are incorrect because the expense and diffi
B shrinking on a jacket or muff of aluminum culty of machining cooling fins onto a jacket which is
cooling fins around a steel cylinder sleeve. then shrunk onto the cylinder barrel outweighs the use
C machining fins directly on the outside of the fulness of these designs.
barrel and shrinking on a jacket or muff of aluminum
cooling fins around a steel cylinder sleeve (on
different areas of the barrel).

What is the function of a blast tube as found on aircraft Many reciprocating engines use blast tubes to direct
engines? cooling air to inaccessible areas of an engine compart-
ment. A blast tube is simply a small pipe or duct that
A A means of cooling the engine by utilizing the channels air from the main cooling air stream onto
propeller backwash. heat-sensitive components such as spark plugs and
B A tube used to load a cartridge starter. alternators. Answer (A) is incorrect because in flight,
C A device to cool an engine accessory. propeller backwash supplies only a small portion of the
cooling air in an engine compartment. Answer (B) is
wrong because the cartridges used in cartridge starters
are loaded into the starter breech by hand, not with a
blast tube.

Which statement is true regarding the air passing Approximately 25 percent of the air passing through a
through the combustion section of a jet engine? turbine engine's combustion chamber is used to support
combustion while the other 75 percent is used to propel
A Most is used for engine cooling. the turbine and cool the engine. Answer (B) is incorrect
B Most is used to support combustion. because only 25 percent of the air is used to support
C A small percentage is frequently bled off at this combustion. Answer (C) is wrong because bleed air is
point to be used for air-conditioning and/or other taken from the compreessor, not the combustion
pneumatic powered systems. section.

What is the position of the cowl flaps during engine Cowl flaps are used to control the amount of air that
starting and warmup operations under normal condi- flows over an engine. During ground operations, many
tions? aircraft engines have a tendency to overheat due to
the decreased airflow into the cowling. Therefore, dur-
A Full open at all times. ing most ground operations the cowl flaps are typically
B Full closed at all times. left fully open to provide maximum cooling. Answers
C Open for starting, closed for warmup. (B) and (C) are wrong because, if the cowl flaps were
left closed, the engine could overheat.
10-27. Q02 10-27. Answer A. JSPT 10-10 (AC 65-12A)

How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine The airflow coming off the compressor is typically
engine? divided into primary and secondary flows. The primary
flow is used to support combustion and drive the tur-
A By secondary air flowing through the bine while the secondary flow is used to cool the com-
combustion chamber. bustion and turbine sections. Answer (B) is wrong
B By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the because holes and louvers are cut into the burner
diffuser section. cans, not the diffuser section. Answer (C) is incorrect
C By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet. because air at the engine inlet is at ambient pressure
and cannot be bled off for combustor cooling.
ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION
The chapter covers the different types of fire detection and extinguishing systems used with aircraft
pow-erplants and the inspection servicing, troubleshooting, and repair of these systems.
11-1. 101 11-1. Answer C. JSPT 11 -3 (AC 65-12A)

Which of the following fire detectors are commonly A typical fire detection system used in reciprocating
used in the power section of an engine nacelle? engine aircraft incorporates a thermocouple system
that uses a series of rate-of-temperature-rise detec-
A CO detectors. tors. With this type of system a warning will not
B Smoke detectors. sound when an engine warms up slowly or when a
C Rate-of-temperature-rise detectors. short circuit develops. However, if temperatures in
the engine compartment should rise rapidly, such as
when a fire exists, the detectors will sound a warn-
ing horn in the cockpit. Answers (A) and (B) are
incorrect because neither a CO detector nor a
smoke detector is used in engine nacelles.
11-2. 101 11-2. Answer B. JSPT 11-2 (AC 65-12A)

What is the function of a fire detection system? The function of a fire detection system is to activate a
warning device in the event of a powerplant fire. It is
A To discharge the powerplant fire-extinguishing important to remember that a fire detection system
system at the origin of the fire. B To only warns the pilot of a fire, it does not pinpoint a fire's
activate a warning device in the event of a location (answer C) or try to extinguish it (answer A).
powerplant fire. C To identify the location
of a powerplant fire.
11-2 Engine Fire Protection
11-3. 101 11-3. Answer C. JSAT 16-22 (AC 65-12A)

(Refer to figure 2.) Determine the fire-extinguisher con- Since the question specifies a temperature of 75蚓 you
tainer pressure limits when the temperature is 75 蚌. must interpolate between the minimum and maximum
limits for both 70蚌and 80蚌. To interpolate find the
A 326 minimum and 415 maximum. difference between the two readings, divide the dif-
B 330 minimum and 419 maximum. ference by two and add the quotient to the lower pres-
c
C 338 minimum and 424 sure. The minimum container pressure at 70 F is 319
maximum. psig and 356 psig at 80蚌. Therefore, the minimum
pressure at 75蚌is 338 psig (356 - 319 = 37 -f 2 = 18.5
+ 319 = 337.5). The maximum pressure at 70蚌is 405
psig and 443 psig at 80蚌. Therefore, the maximum
pressure at 75蚌is 424 psig (443 - 405 = 38 -=- 2 = 19 +
405 = 424).
CONTAINER PRESSURE VERSUS TEMPERATURE

TEMPERATURE 蚌 CONTAINER PRESSURE (PSIG)
MINIMUM MAXIMUM
-40 60 145
-30 83 165
-20 105 188
-10 125 210
0 145 230
10 167 252
20 188 275
30 209 295
40 230 317
50 255 342
60 284 370
70 319 405
80 356 443
90 395 483
100 438 523
Figure 2. Fire Extinguisher Pressure Chart.

11-4. 101 11 -4. Answer A. JSPT 11 -16 (AC 65-12A)
How are most aircraft turbine engine fire-extinguishing In a turbine engine powered aircraft, the fire extin-
systems activated? guishing portion of a fire protection system typically
includes a cylinder of extinguishing agent for each
A Electrically discharged cartridges. engine and nacelle area. The container of agent is nor-
B Manual remote control valve. C mally equipped with two discharge valves that are
Pushrod assembly. operated by electrically discharged cartridges. The
electrical current needed to discharge the cartridges is
released by the fire handles in the cockpit. Answers (B)
and (C) are incorrect because a high rate discharge
extinguishing system used on turbine engines requires
an explosive detonator that cannot be triggered manu-
ally.
Engine Fire Protection 11-3
11-5. 101 11 -5. Answer A. JSPT 11-15 (AC 65-12A)

How does carbon dioxide (COT) extinguish an aircraft When liquid CO2 leaves the fire extinguisher nozzle
engine fire? under pressure, it converts into a gas that extinguishes
flame by displacing the oxygen around the flame and
A Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow smothering it. Answers (B) and (C) are wrong because
and gas which smothers the flame. B By a CO2 extinguisher cannot cool a fire sufficiently to
lowering the temperature to a point where extinguish it or simply blow a fire out.
combustion will not take place. C The high
pressure spray lowers the temperature
and blows out the fire.
11-6. 101 11-6. Answer A. JSPT 11-15 (AC 65-12A)

What retains the nitrogen charge and fire-extinguish- The nitrogen charge within a typical high rate of dis-
ing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) con- charge container is retained, or held in by a discharge
tainer? plug and a safety discharge connection. The discharge
plug is sealed with a breakable disk combined with an
A Breakable disk and fusible disk. explosive charge that is electrically detonated to dis-
B Pressure switch and check tee valve. ~ charge the contents of the bottle. The safety discharge
C Pressure gauge and cartridge. connection, or fusible disk, is capped at the inboard
side of the engine strut with a red indication disk. If the
temperature rises beyond a predetermined safe value,
the disk will rupture, dumping the agent overboard.
11-7. 101 11-7. Answer B. JSPT 11-5 (AC 65-12A)

A continuous-loop fire detector is what type of detec- A continuous-loop fire detection system consists of a
tor? loop of one or two conductors installed around an
engine compartment that, when overheated, sends
A Spot detector. electrical current to a warning indicator in the cockpit.
B Overheat detector. .■"■■' Answer (A) is wrong because a spot detector only
C Rate-of-temperature-rise detector. senses in one spot, whereas a continuous-loop acts as
a detector along its entire length. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because a continuous-loop system does not
detect the rate of temperature rise.
11-8. 101 11-8. Answer C. JSPT 11-2 (AC 65-12A)

What is the operating principle of the spot detector Spot detector fire detection systems consist of a
:
sensor in a fire detection system? bimetallic thermoswitch installed between two loops of
wire. When the thermoswitch is heated to a predeter-
A Resistant core material that prevents current flow mined temperature, the switch closes and completes
at normal temperatures. the circuit between the two wire loops. With the circuit
B A conventional thermocouple that produces a completed, electrical current flows to the fire warning
current flow. horn in the cockpit. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect
C A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when because a spot detector contains neither resistant core
heated to a high temperature. , material nor a thermocouple. ,
11-9. 101 11 -9. Answer C. JSPT 11-14 (AC 65-12A)

How is the fire-extinguishing agent distributed in the In a typical engine fire extinguishing system, the extin-
engine section? guishing agent is distributed through spray nozzles and
perforated tubing. The perforated tubing distribution
A Spray nozzles and fluid pumps. B system is more common with reciprocating engines,
Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. C while spray nozzles are typically used with turbine
Spray nozzles and perforated tubing. engines. Answer (A) is incorrect because virtually all
extinguisher systems use a compressed gas to spray
the extinguishing agent onto a fire and answer (B) is
wrong because a slinger ring distributes deicing fluid on
propellers and has nothing to do with fire extinguishers.
11-10. 101 11-10. Answer C. JSPT 11-13 (AC 65-15A)

Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301) is one of the
agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corro most effective fire extinguishing agents. In addition,
sion hazards? i ;,'.■■■ : ■ it is non-toxic and non-corrosive. Both answers (A)
and (B) are wrong because Halon 1202 and Halon
A Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202). B 1211 are more toxic than Halon 1301. Furthermore,
Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). C Halon 1202 can be corrosive.
Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
11-11. 101 11-11. Answer A. JSPT 11 -8 (AC 65-12A)

Which of the following is NOT used to detect fires in Some of the common devices used to detect fires on
reciprocating engine nacelles? reciprocating engine aircraft include: overheat detec-
tors, rate-of-temperature-rise detectors, flame detec-
A moke detectors. tors, and observation by crewmembers. Smoke
B Rate-of-temperature-rise detectors. detectors, on the other hand, are only effective in rela-
C Flame detectors. ,.,,.. . . . . . ~ tively still air where materials bum slowly or smolder
and, therefore, are not used in reciprocating engine
nacelles. . ;.■. ..: , v,:, ,, :■ . ,.
11-12. 101 11-12. Answer B. JSPT 11 -5 (AC 65-12A)

What is the principle of operation of the In a continuous-loop fire detection system, an electrical
continuous-loop fire detector system sensor? wire or wires are surrounded by a material with a resis-
tance value that prevents the flow of current at normal
A Fuse material which melts at high temperatures. temperatures. However, when the material is heated,
B Core resistance material which prevents current the resistance decreases and allows current within the
flow at normal temperatures. C A bimetallic wires to find a path to ground. This completes the cir-
thermoswitch which closes when cuit and allows current to flow to the warning horn in
heated to a high temperature. the cockpit. Answer (A) is wrong because
continuous-loop fire detectors contain no fusible
elements and answer (C) is wrong because spot
detectors, not loop detectors, utilize bimetallic
thermoswitches.
11-13. 101
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a carbu 11-13. Answer A. JSAT 16-16 (AC 65-9A)
retor or intake fire is ",■-; ■■..- Carbon dioxide is the most satisfactory agent to use for
-■, v~>: ■ a carburetor or intake fire and, when used properly, will
not damage the engine. Dry chemical (answer B) and
A arbon dioxide. ,, %; . methyl bromide (answer C), on the other hand, can
B dry chemical. v cause damage when used to extinguish intake fires.
C methyl bromide. T. .... ..
11-14. 101 11-14. Answer A. JSAT 16-22 (AC 65-15A)

The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a The service life of fire extinguisher discharge car-
fire-extinguisher container is tridges is specified by the manufacturer and stated in
hours. The service life of a typical discharge cartridge is
A a life-dated unit. B 5,000 hours. Since discharge cartridges are life-dated
not a life-dated unit. C units, answer (B) is incorrect. Furthermore, answer (C)
mechanically fired. is wrong because discharge cartridges are fired
electrically, not mechanically.
11-15. 101 11-15. Answer C. JSPT 11 -3 (AC 65-12A)

Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system The Fenwal fire-detection system utilizes spot detec-
use spot detectors wired in parallel between two tors that are wired in parallel between two separate
separate circuits? . circuits so that a short or fault in either leg of the
system will not cause a false fire warning. The sys-
A To provide an installation that is equal to two tem is wired so that one leg of the circuit supplies
separate systems: a primary system and a sec- current to the detectors while the other leg serves as
ondary, or back-up system. a path to ground. If the ground leg should develop a
B So that a double fault may exist in the short, a false fire warning will not occur because this
system without sounding a false alarm. portion of the circuit is already grounded. If the pow-
C So that a single fault may exist in the ered leg shorts, the rapid increase in current flow will
system without sounding a false alarm. trip a relay which causes the powered leg to become
the ground and the grounded leg to become pow-
ered. Answer (A) is incorrect because the purpose of
the Fenwal system is to prevent false alarms, not to
provide a back-up system. Answer (B) is wrong
because a double fault renders the fire detection
system inoperative.
11-16. 101 11-16. Answer A. JSPT 11 -4 (AC 65-12A)

Which of the following fire detection systems mea- The thermocouple fire warning system senses the rate
sures temperature rise compared to a reference temper- of temperature rise and, therefore, only provides a warn-
ature? ing when the temperature increases rapidly. In each
thermocouple, there is a cold, or reference junction that
A Thermocouple. is enclosed in an insulated air space and a hot junction
B Thermal switch. which is installed in an uninsulated space. If both of
C Lindberg continuous element. these junctions heat up at the same rate, no fire warning
is given regardless of the temperature. However, if the
hot junction should be exposed to an extreme amount of
heat, a temperature imbalance between the two junc-
tions will exist causing current to flow to the warning
horn. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because ther-
mal switches and Lindberg continuous element detec-
tors are activated when temperatures reach a maximum
level and do not measure a temperature rise.
11-17. 101 11-17. Answer B. JSAT 16-25 (AC 65-12A)

The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle When the pilot pulls the fire handle it arms the fire
in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system extinguisher system, disconnects the generator field
commonly accomplishes what events? relay, and shuts off the fuel and hydraulics to the
engine. Answer (A) is wrong because pulling the fire
A Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects handle arms the fire bottle but does not fire it, while
the generator, and discharges a fire bottle. answer (C) is wrong because the fire handle is not
B Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnected to an oxygen shutoff.
connects the generator field, and arms the
fire-extinguishing system.
C Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff,
closes the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the genera-
tor field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system.
11-18. 101 11-18. Answer B. JSPT 11 -6 (AC 65-15A)

A fire detection system operates on the principle of a The Lindberg continuous-element fire detection system
buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to is a continuous-element type detector consisting of a
temperature. Which of the following systems does this stainless steel tube filled with an inert gas, typically
statement define? helium. The principle of operation is based on the fact
that if the volume of the gas is held constant, its pres-
A Kidde continuous-loop system. sure will increase as temperature increases. Thus the
B Lindberg continuous-element system. helium within the enclosed tube will exert a pressure
C Thermal switch system. proportional to the temperature along the entire length
of the tube. If the pressure within the tube becomes
excessive, it mechanically actuates a diaphragm in a
responder unit which sets off the fire alarm. The Kidde
continuous-loop system (answer A) uses two conduc-
tors embedded in a ceramic core; when the ceramic
core becomes hot, its resistance changes and current
flows between the two conductors. A thermal switch
(answer C) uses a bimetallic spring that expands to
complete a warning circuit when heated.
11-19. 101 11-19. Answer A. JSPT 11 -5 (AC 65-12A)
The fire detection system that uses a single wire sur- The Fenwai fire detection system consists of an inconel
rounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube with one wire running through it. The wire carries
tube is the an electrical potential and the tube is the source to
ground. The potential and ground are separated by a
A Fenwai system. core material which, when cold, acts as a resistor.
B Kidde system. However, when the core material is heated to a speci-
C thermocouple system. fied temperature, it acts as a conductor and allows the
potential to find a path to ground. When this circuit is
completed, it causes a fire alarm to sound. Answer (B)
is wrong because the Kidde fire detection system con-
sists of an inconel tube with two wires running through it.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a thermocouple fire
detection system consists of two dissimilar metal strips
joined at both ends that generate electricity when one
junction is hotter than the other.
11-20. 101 11 -20. Answer C. JSPT 11 -5 (AC 65-12A)
The fire detection system that uses two wires imbed- The Kidde fire detection system consists of an inconel
ded in a ceramic core within a tube is the tube with two wires running through it. One of the wires
has a positive electrical potential while the other is a
A Fenwai system. B source to ground. The two wires are separated by a
Lindberg system. C core material which, when cold, acts as a resistor.
Kidde system. However, when the core material is heated to a specific
temperature it acts as a conductor and allows the poten-
tial to find a path to ground. Answer (A) is wrong
because the Fenwai system consists of an inconel tube
with one wire running through it while answer (B) is
wrong because the Lindbergh fire detection system con-
sists of a stainless steel tube that is filled with an inert
gas. ■-. ..-.,.
■ .-.. ,.:■- : . . . ... .
5-21. 101
A fuel or oil fire is defined as a 5-21. Answer A. JSAT 16-3 (AC 65-15A)
Class B fires involve combustible liquids such as gaso-
A' class B fire. line, engine oil, turbine fuel, hydraulic oil, and many
B class A fire. solvents and paint thinners used in aviation mainte-
C class C nance. Answer (B) is incorrect because a class Afire
fire. involves ordinary combustible materials such as wood
and paper while answer (C) is wrong because a class
C fire involves energized electrical equipment.
11-22. 101 11 -22. Answer B. JSPT 11 -4 (AC 65-12A)

A fire detection system that operates on the The thermocouple fire warning system senses the rate
rate-of-temperature rise is a of temperature rise and, therefore, only provides a warn-
ing when the temperature increases rapidly. In each
A continuous-loop system. thermocouple, there is a cold, or reference junction that
B thermocouple system. is enclosed in an insulated air space and a hot junction
C thermal switch system. : which is installed in an uninsulated space. If both of
these junctions heat up at the same rate, no fire warning
is given regardless of the temperature. However, if the
hot junction should be exposed to an extreme amount of
heat, a temperature imbalance between the two junc-
tions will exist causing current to flow to the warning
horn. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because ther-
mal switches and Lindberg continuous element detec-
tors are activated when temperatures reach a maximum
level and do not measure a temperature rise.
11-23. 101 11 -23. Answer C. JSPT 11 -12 (AC 65-15A)

A fire involving energized electrical equipment is Class C fires are those which involve electrical equip-
defined as a ment. When attempting to extinguish a class C fire,
special care must be exercised because of the dan-
A class B fire. gers of electricity, as well as those from the fire itself.
B class D fire. Answer (A) is wrong because a class B fire involves
C class C fire. flammable liquids such as gasoline or oil and answer
(B) is incorrect because a class D fire involves flamma-
. ble metals such as magnesium.
11 -24. Answer B. JSAT 16-15 (AC 65-15A)

Both the Kidde and Fenwal systems are
11-24. 101 continuous-loop fire detection systems that rely on a
Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will complete, unbroken circuit to allow the press-to-test
not test due to a broken detector element are the operation to function. However, both systems can
experience a break and still give a fire warning.
A Kidde system and the Lindberg system.
B Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
C thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. 11 -25. Answer B. JSPT 11-16 (AC 65-15A)
In a typical fixed fire extinguishing system, a yellow and
11-25. 101 a red colored disk are used to indicate the status of the
In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small extinguishing agent. The yellow disk blows when the
lines running from the system and exiting overboard. agent has been emptied by a normal discharge
These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type (answer B) and the red disk blows when the agent is
indicator disc. Which of the following statements is true? blown overboard due to an over-temperature condition.
Answer (A) is wrong because a missing red disk indi-
A When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates an overtemperature discharge and answer (C) is
cates the fire-extinguishing system has been nor- wrong because green indicator disks are used as over-
mally discharged. pressure indicators in oxygen systems.
B When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it
indicates the fire-extinguishing system has been
normally discharged.
C When the green indicator disc is missing, it indi-
cates the fire-extinguishing system has had a
thermal discharge.
11-26. 101 11-26. Answer B. JSPT 11-13 (AC 65-15A)

The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an elec- Of the choices given, carbon dioxide is the most satisfac-
trical fire is tory extinguishing agent for fires involving electrical equip-
ment. However, halogenated hydrocarbon and dry
A carbon tetrachloride. powder extinguishers may also be used. Answers (A) and
B carbon dioxide. C (C) are incorrect because carbon tetrachloride and methyl
methyl bromide. bromide are banned from use as extinguishing agents
because they become extremely toxic when exposed to
heat.
11-27. 101 11-27. Answer B. JSPT 11-5 (AC 65-15A)

Which of the following fire detection systems will Both the Kidde and Fenwal systems are
detect a fire when an element is inoperative but will not continuous-loop fire detection systems that rely on a
test when the test circuit is energized? complete, unbroken circuit to allow the press-to-test
operation to function. However, both systems can
A The Kidde system and the thermocouple system. experience a break and still give a fire warning.
B The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
C The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
11-28. 101 11-28. Answer A. JSPT 11-5 (AC 65-15A)

Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat When testing either the thermocouple or the Lindbergh
in the normal testing of the system? fire detection systems, heat must be applied to the
detectors to simulate a fire condition and sound the
A The thermocouple system and the Lindberg warning horn in the cockpit. Answers (B) and (C) are
system. incorrect because Kidde and Fenwal detectors must be
B The Kidde system and the Fenwal system. provided with a path to ground in order to be tested.
C The thermocouple system and the Fenwal
system. 11-29. Answer B. JSPT 11-7 (ITP-A2)
The Systron-Donner fire detector system continuously
11-29. 101 monitors temperatures and automatically resets after
After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition an overheat condition is removed or the fire extin-
removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner guished. Answer (A) is wrong since the
fire detector, the detection system Systron-Donner system automatically resets and
answer (C) is wrong because the sensing component
A ust be manually reset. .■ is replaced only when it malfunctions, not after every
B automatically resets. warning.
C sensing component must be replaced.
11-30. Answer B. JSPT 11-12 (AC 65-9A)
11-30. 101 A class D fire is one in which some metal, such as
The use of water on class D fires magnesium, is burning. Class D fires are put out using
dry powder or halogenated extinguishers and under no
A is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist. circumstances should water be used. The application
B will cause the fire to burn more violently and can of water to a class D fire will cause the fire to burn
cause explosions. more violently and can cause explosions.
C as no effect.
11-31. Answer B. JSPT 11-12 (AC 65-15A)
11-31. 101 For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft
For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on
powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on the volume and smoothness of airflow passing through
the area (answer B). Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect
A hot and cold sections of the engine. because characteristics such as engine type and size,
B the volume and smoothness of the airflow or whether an area is a hot or cold section have no
through engine compartments. bearing on the ability of a fire to start and spread.
C engine type and size.
900
-800
M \) /I M G A J S R E I G
700
-
L CE / h -
CD ^
600
GO
"
*
LL T 500 ^
-DC
GO 400 ^
" -= — _ -_
CC 300 ^ -
- —
--- ^
Q_ ,
200 -** - \
— M N M U vl 3 G—R E D N
100 l / EA
-
o
-A 0
-30
-20 -10
0
10 20
50 TEMPERATURE
+
30 40 60
90 F)
70 80
(°
Figure 3. Fire Extinguisher Pressure Chart.
11-32. 101 11-32. Answer C. JSAT 16-22 (AC 65-12A)

(Refer to figure 3.) What are the fire-extinguisher con- To answer this question, begin by locating 50蚌at the
tainer pressure limits when the temperature is 50 蚌? bottom of the chart. From here, follow the line up to
intersect the minimum gauge reading curve. From this
A 425-575PSIG. intersection, draw a horizontal line to the left that inter-
B 435 - 605 PSIG. sects the pressure axis at 475 psig. Next, go back to
C 475 - 625 the 50蚌line and follow it up to intersect the maximum
PSIG. gauge reading curve. From this intersection, draw a
horizontal line to the left that intersects the pressure
axis at 625 psig. Based on this chart, the minimum and
maximum container pressure at 50蚌is 475 psig and
625 psig respectively.
PROPELLERS
This chapter discusses the various types of propellers, including fixed pitch, constant-speed, and feather-
ing propellers and the operating principles of propeller governors. Also covered is the inspection, removal,
repair, installation, and balancing of propellers.

What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the When reducing power on an engine equipped with a
power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, care should be taken to
constant-speed propeller? never let the manifold pressure get too high for a given
rpm. To do this, the throttle should be pulled back to
A Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure. B reduce the manifold pressure first followed by a siow
Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the reduction in rpm. Answer (A) is wrong because mani-
throttle to obtain the correct RPM. C Reduce fold pressure is reduced first followed by rpm, and
the manifold pressure, then the RPM. answer (B) is wrong because the propeller control is
used to reduce rpm, not the throttle.
12-2. A04 12-2. Answer A. JSPT 12-17 (AC 65-12A)

To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with When reducing power on an engine equipped with a
a constant-speed propeller and operating near maxi- constant speed propeller, care should be taken to
mum BMEP, the never let the manifold pressure get too high for a given
rpm. To do this, the throttle should be pulled back to
A manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle reduce the manifold pressure first followed by a slow
control before the RPM is reduced with the pro- reduction in rpm. Answer (B) is wrong because mani-
peller control. fold pressure is reduced using the throttle not the pro-
B manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller peller control and the rpm is reduced with the propeller
control before the RPM is reduced with the throt- control instead of the throttle. Answer (C) is wrong
tle control. because manifold pressure is reduced prior to reducing
C RPM is reduced with the propeller control rpm.
before
the manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle
control. .......
12-3. R01 12-3. Answer B. JSPT 12-51 (AC 65-12A)

How is aircraft electrical power for propeller deicer A typical electric propeller deice system utilizes a set of
systems transferred from the engine to the propeller brush blocks and slip rings to transfer electrical power
hub assembly? from the engine to the rotating propeller assembly. The
brush blocks are mounted on the engine case just
A By slip rings and segment plates. behind the propeller while the slip rings are mounted
B By slip rings and brushes. on the back of the propeller hub assembly. Answer (A)
C By flexible electrical connectors. is incorrect because segment plates are not used in
propeller deice installations. Answer (C) is wrong
because, it is impossible to hardwire from a stationary
source to a rotating propeller.
12-2 Propellers
12-4. R01 12-4. Answer C. JSPT 12-50 (AC 65-12A)

How is anti-icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on A slinger ring is a U-shaped circular channel mounted
a propeller? on the rear of a propeller hub assembly that incorpo-
rates a discharge for each propeller blade. When an
A y pump pressure. B anti-icing system is on, a pump forces anti-icing fluid
By centripetal force. C By into the slinger ring where centrifugal force discharges
centrifugal force. .; the fluid from the slinger ring through the discharge
tubes and onto the propeller blades. Answer (A) is
wrong because the centrifugal force created by the
rotating propeller eliminates the need for a fluid pump
to eject fluid on to the propeller. Answer (B) is incorrect
because centripetal force acts toward the center of a
body's rotation as opposed to centrifugal force, which
acts outward.

On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic A propeller synchronization system provides a means
propeller synchronization is accomplished through the of synchronizing engine rpm by varying the pitch of the
actuation of the propeller blades through a set of propeller governors
(answer B). Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because
A throttle levers. the operation of a propeller synchronization system is
B propeller governors. entirely automatic and requires no movement of the
C propeller control levers. throttle levers or the propeller control levers.

Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which Propeller fluid anti-icing systems typically use isopropyl
of the following? alcohol because of its availability and low cost. Answer
(A) is incorrect because ethylene glycol is typically
A Ethylene glycol. B used as a deicing fluid, not an anti-icing fluid. Answer
Isopropyl alcohol. C (C) is wrong because ethyl alcohol is too expensive for
thyl alcohol. use as an anti-icing agent.

What is a function of the automatic propeller synchro- A propeller sycnronization system provides a means of
nizing system on multiengine aircraft? synchronizing engine rpm by varying the pitch of the
propeller blades through the propeller governors.
A To control the tip speed of all propellers. B Synchronization reduces vibration and eliminates the
To control engine RPM and reduce vibration. C To annoying pulsating produced by unsynchronized pro-
control the power output of all engines. pellers. Answer (A) is incorrect because, although it is
desirable to keep propeller tip speeds below the speed
of sound, this is accomplished by engine and propeller
design, not the synchronization system. Answer (C) is
wrong because propeller synchronizing systems do not
control engine power.
12-8. R01 12-8. Answer A. JSPT 12-49 (AC 65-12A)

Ice formation on propellers, when an aircraft is in Ice formations destroy a propeller's aerodynamic pro-
flight, will file which, in turn, reduces thrust. Furthermore, the for-
mation of ice can also cause an unbalanced condition
A decrease thrust and cause excessive vibration. B that can induce excessive vibration. Answers (B) and
increase aircraft stall speed and increase noise. C (C) are incorrect because the formation of ice on a pro-
decrease available engine power. peller has no effect on an aircraft's stall speed or avail-
able engine power.
Propellers 12-3
12-9. * R01 12-9. Answer B. JSPT 12-49 (AC 65-12A)

What unit in the propeller anti-icing system controls the A typical fluid anti-icing system consists of a tank to
output of the pump? hold a supply of anti-icing fluid, a pump, and a control
inside the cockpit. The control system typically consists
A Pressure relief valve. of a rheostat that ailows the pilot to control the pump
B Rheostat. output. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because there
C Cycling timer. .:.■-■■-■■■. ■■ ■ ■■, ;' is no pressure relief valve or cycling timer in most fluid
&-■■ - ■■■■-■ : . anti-icing systems.
12-10. Answer A. JSPT 12-51 (APC)

12-10. R01 About the only way to tell if an individual electric
Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual de-icing boot is operating properly is to turn on the
propeller blades may best be determined by system and feel each boot in sequence while someone
else watches the ammeter for proper sequencing
A feeling the sequence of boot heating and have an
assistant obvserve the loadmeter indications.
B observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current
flow.
C feeling the boots to see if they are heating.
12-11. R01 Synchrophasing is a form of synchronization that
A propeller synchrophasing system allows a pilot to allows the pilot to adjust the phase angle between the
reduce noise and vibration by propellers to reduce propeller noise and vibration. With
this type of system, a pulse generator is keyed to the
A adjusting the phase angle between the propellers same blade of each propeller. Each generator pro-
on an aircraft's engines. duces a signal that is compared to the signal emanat-
B adjusting the plane of rotation of all propellers. C ing from the opposite generator. If the signals don't
setting the pitch angle of all propellers exactly the match, a signal is sent to the slave governor which
same. establishes the phase angle selected by the pilot.
Answer (B) is wrong because a propeller's plane of
rotation is a fixed design feature and cannot be
changed. Answer (C) is incorrect because, due to vari-
ations in engine power outputs and minor deviations in
the ambient conditions around a propeller, equalizing
propeller pitch angles would not necessarily reduce
noise and vibration.
12-12. Answer C. JSPT 12-57 (AC 65-12A)

12-12. R02 Propeller manufacturers are responsible for determining
Which of the following determines oil and grease spec- and publishing the oil and grease specifications as well
ifications for lubrication of propellers? as the proper lubrication procedures for the propellers
they produce. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because
A Airframe manufacturers. neither an airframe nor an engine manufacturer
B Engine manufacturers. C develops specifications for propellers.
Propeller manufacturers.
12-13. Answer A. JSPT 12-57
12-13. R02 The reduction of frictional resistance refers to a lubri-
Grease used in aircraft propellers reduces the frictional cant's anti-friction characteristics, while the ease at
resistance of moving parts and is easily molded into which a lubricant is molded under pressure refers to a
any form under pressure. This statement defines lubricant's plasticity characteristics. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a lubricants ability to be easily
A antifriction and plasticity characteristics of molded does not refer to its chemical stability. Answer
grease. (C) is wrong because viscosity applies to fluids such as
B antifriction and chemical stability of grease. lubricating oils, not to grease.
C viscosity and melting point of grease.
12-4 Propellers
12-14. R03 ■'■ ■■■■ ' v--,v.-.. 12-14. Answer A. JSPT 12-59 (AC 65-12A)
■,-.-- ..-■■. ' When a propeller is placed in a vertical position on a
What type of imbalance will cause a two-blade pro- balancing stand and it rotates to a horizontal position, it
peller to have a persistent tendency to come to rest in a is said to be vertically imbalanced. Answer (B) is incor
horizontal position (with the blades parallel to the rect because if a propeller is horizontally imbalanced,
ground) while being checked on a propeller balancing the propeller rotates to a vertical position. Answer (C)
beam? is wrong because harmonic imbalance in a propeller
blade is an uncorrectable vibration that is a function of
A Vertical. B blade design and is only apparent when the propeller
Horizontal. C is rotating. •
Harmonic.
12-15. Answer A. JSPT 12-59 (AC 65-12A)
12-15. R03 The basic components of a typical propeller static bal-
What is the purpose of an arbor used in balancing a ance stand include the bushing, arbor, knife edges,
propeller? and balancing stand. The bushings are placed in a pro-
peller's engine shaft hole while the arbor is inserted
A To support the propeller on the balance knives. B through the bushings. The arbor is designed to support
To level the balance stand. C To mark the and permit free rotation of the propeller on the knife
propeller blades where weights are to be attached. edges which rest on the balancing stand. Answer (B) is
wrong because the balance stand is leveled by
jackscrews on its base. Answer (C) is incorrect
because blades are typically marked with a felt-tip
marking pen, not the arbor.
12-16. R03 12-16. Answer C. JSPT 12-58 (AC 43.13-1B)

If a blade of a particular metal propeller is shortened All of the blades on a conventional propeller assembly
because of damage to the tip, the remaining blade(s) must be precisely the same length, profile, and weight
must be to prevent severe vibration. Therefore, if the shape or
length of one blade is changed, the opposite blade
A reset (blade angle) to compensate for the short- must also be changed. Answer (A) is wrong because
ened blade. resetting blade angle will not compensate for one blade
B returned to the manufacturer for alteration. C that is shorter and lighter than the other. Answer (B) is
reduced to conform with the shortened blade. incorrect because propeller blades can be altered by
any appropriately certified repair station.

The application of more protective coating on one Minor horizontal propeller imbalances on a wood pro-
blade than the other when refinishing a wood propeller peller may be corrected by applying an additional pro-
tective coating to the light blade. Answer (A) is wrong
A has little or no effect on operating characteristics. because excess finish on one propeller blade can
B should never be done. effect a propeller's operating characteristics. Answer (B)
C may be necessary to achieve final balancing. is incorrect because applying an additional protective
coating to one blade is an acceptable means of
achieving propeller balance.
12-18. R03 ■:■-* ■■ ; --/ 12-18. Answer C. JSPT 12-64 (AC 65-12A)
■ ... ,.-,; .... ■■ Centrifugal force increases as an object's rotational
Apparent engine roughness is often a result of pro- speed increases. As a result, vibration emanating from
peller unbalance. The effect of an unbalanced propeller an unbalanced propeller increases with an increase in
will usually be propeller rpm.
A approximately the same at all speeds.

B greater at low RPM. •
C greater at high RPM.
Propellers 12-5

Which of the following is used to correct horizontal To correct a horizontal imbalance on a wooden pro-
unbalance of a wood propeller? peller, a small amount of solder is melted onto the face
side of the metal tip cap of the light blade and filed
A Brass screws. B smooth. Brass screws (answer A) should not be
Shellac. C attached to wood propellers unless recommended by
Solder. the propeller manufacturer. Answer (B) is incorrect
because shellac is typically not used on wooden pro-
pellers.

Propeller aerodynamic (thrust) imbalance can be Aerodynamic thrust imbalance results when one pro-
largely eliminated by peller blade produces more thrust then the other blade.
This type of unbalance can largely be eliminated by
A correct blade contouring and angle setting. B making sure all propeller blades are contoured prop-
static balancing. erly and that they all have the same blade angle set-
C keeping the propeller blades within the same ting. Answer (B) is wrong because static balancing
plane of rotation. procedures cannot detect incorrect blade contours or
angle settings. Answer (C) is wrong because a pro-
peller's plane of rotation is not adjustable.

A powerplant using a hydraulically controlled con- On aircraft that utilize a constant-speed propeller, the
stant-speed propeller is operating within the propeller's pitch of the propeller blades is controlled by a governor
constant-speed range at a fixed throttle setting. If the consisting of an oil pump, pilot valve, speeder spring,
tension of the propeller governor control spring and flyweights. When the propeller is in an on-speed
(speeder spring) is reduced by movement of the cockpit condition, the centrifugal force exerted on the rotating
propeller control, the propeller blade angle will flyweights is exactly balanced by the force exerted by
the speeder spring and the propeller blade angle
A increase, engine manifold pressure will increase, remains constant. If the speeder spring force is
and engine RPM will decrease. B decrease, reduced through the use of the propeller control, the
engine manifold pressure will increase, flyweights tilt outward into an over-speed position and
and engine RPM will decrease. C decrease, the pilot valve allows oil to drain out of the propeller
engine manifold pressure will decrease, hub. This results in an increased blade angle, a reduc-
and engine RPM will increase. tion in rpm, and an increase in manifold pressure.

Why is the pulley stop screw on a propeller governor The pulley stop screw limits the amount of tension put
adjustable? on the governor speeder spring which, in turn, limits
the maximum engine speed with full power applied.
A To limit the maximum engine speed during take- Answer (B) is wrong because the propeller governor
off. maintains the proper blade angle in cruising flight, and
B To maintain the proper blade angle for cruising. answer (C) is incorrect because the pulley stop screw
C To limit the maximum propeller pitch for takeoff. does not limit the maximum propeller pitch.

During engine operation at speeds lower than those for When an engine operates at speeds lower than those
which the constant-speed propeller control can govern the governor can govern in the INCREASE RPM posi-
in the INCREASE RPM position, the propeller will tion, the propeller will remain in the full LOW PITCH
position. This occurs because, at low engine speeds
A remain in the full HIGH PITCH position. the governor senses an under-speed condition and
B maintain engine RPM in the normal manner until directs oil to position the propeller blades in the low
the HIGH PITCH stop is reached. C pitch position in an effort to reduce engine load and
remain in the full LOW PITCH position. increase rpm. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect
because the governor moves the propeller blades to
the HIGH PITCH position only when it senses an
over-speed condition.
12-6 Propellers
12-24. /^ .:.-;■ R04 . "'. ', ;,. 12-24. Answer C. JSPT 12-17 (AC 65-12A)
>.■,;. :' When engine power is increased, the propeller gover-
When engine power is increased, the constant-speed nor senses an over-speed condition. In an over-speed
propeller tries to function so that it will condition, centrifugal force causes the governor fly-
weights to tip outward causing the pilot valve to allow
A maintain the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and oil to drain from the propeller hub. As the oil drains, the
maintain a low angle of attack. B increase the propeller blade angle increases so the selected rpm
RPM, decrease the blade angle, and can be maintained (answer C). Answers (A) and (B)
maintain a low angle of attack. C maintain are incorrect because, when power is increased the
the RPM, increase the blade angle, and governor must increase propeller blade angle to
maintain a low angle of attack. absorb the additional power output from the engine.
Answer (B) is also wrong because the propeller gover-
nor will always try to maintain a constant rpm unless
the prop lever position is changed.
12-25. Answer A. JSPT 12-17 (AC 65-12A)

12-25. R04 The propeller governor controls the flow of oil into and
The propeller governor controls the out of the pitch change mechanism in the propeller hub
assembly. Answer (B) is incorrect because the prop
A oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism. control lever in the cockpit controls speeder spring ten-
B spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring. sion. Answer (C) is wrong because a propeller gover-
C linkage and counterweights from moving in and nor does not control the in and out movement of the
out. propeller linkage and counterweights.
12-26. Answer C. JSPT 12-18 (AC 65-12A)

12-26. R04 On aircraft that utilize a constant-speed propeller, the
pitch of the propeller blades is controlled by a governor
During the on-speed condition of a propeller, the consisting of an oil pump, pilot valve, speeder spring,
and flyweights. When the propeller is in an on-speed
A centrifugal force acting on the governor fly- condition, the centrifugal force exerted on the rotating
weights is greater than the tension of the speeder flyweights is exactly balanced by the force exerted by
spring. the speeder spring and the propeller blade angle
B tension on the speeder spring is less than the cen- remains constant. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect
trifugal force acting on the governor flyweights. because when speeder spring tension is less than the
C centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is force of the governor flyweights, an over-speed condi-
equal to the speeder spring force. tion exists.
12-27. Answer B. JSPT 12-17 (AC 65-12A)

The governor flyweights actuate the pilot valve in a
12-27. R04 constant-speed propeller governor. When the governor
What actuates the pilot valve in the governor of a con- flyweights tilt outward, the pilot valve is raised and oil
stant-speed propeller? flows in to the propeller hub assembly. On the other
hand, when the flyweights tilt inward, the pilot valve is
A Engine oil pressure. lowered, and oil flows out of the propeller. Answers (A)
B Governor flyweights. and (C) are incorrect because neither governor pump oil
. :...-.,. pressure nor engine oil pressure actuate the pilot valve.
.
C Governor pump oil pressure. 12-28. Answer A. JSPT 12-28 (AC 65-12A)
The propeller control in the cockpit allows a pilot to
change the propeller blade angle by adjusting the ten-
sion on the governor speeder spring. When spring ten-
12-28. R04 sion is increased, the propeller blade angle decreases
What action takes place when the cockpit control lever and when spring tension is decreased the blade angle
for a hydromatic, constant-speed propeller is actuated? increases. Answer (B) is incorrect because the output
pressure of the governor boost pump is driven by the
A Compression of the speeder spring is changed. B engine and changes with engine speed. Answer (C) is
The governor booster pump pressure is varied. C wrong because the governor pilot valve, not a bypass
The governor bypass valve is positioned to direct valve, directs oil to the propeller dome.
oil pressure to the propeller dome.
Propellers 12-7

What will happen to the propeller blade angle and the When the propeller control in the cockpit is moved for-
engine RPM if the tension on the propeller governor ward, governor speeder spring tension increases and
control spring (speeder spring) is increased? causes the governor flyweights to tilt inward. This
causes the pilot valve to lower and port oil in the direc-
A Blade angle will decrease and RPM will tion necessary to decrease the propeller blade angle
decrease. and increase rpm (answer C). Answer (A) is wrong
B Blade angle will increase and RPM will decrease. because when the propeller blade angle decreases,
C Blade angle will decrease and RPM will rpm increases, and answer (B) is wrong because an
increase. increase in spring tension results in a decrease in the
propeller blade angle, not an increase.
12-30. Answer C. JSPT 12-18 (AC 65-12A)

12-30. R04 To change the rotational speed of a constant-speed
How is the speed of a constant-speed propeller changed propeller in flight, the pilot adjusts the prop lever which
in flight? varies the spring tension on the governor speeder
spring. Moving the prop control forward increases
A By varying the output of the governor booster spring tension which tilts the governor flyweights
pump. inward and lowers the pilot valve. On the other hand,
B By advancing or retarding the throttle. moving the prop control aft decreases spring tension
C By changing the load tension against the fly- which allows the flyweights to tilt outward and raise the
weights in the governor. pilot vaive. Answer (A) is wrong because governor
boost pump output remains relatively constant in flight.
Answer (B) is incorrect because small changes in
throttle settings only changes an engine's power out-
put, not its rpm.
12-31. Answer C. JSPT 12-18 (AC 65-12A)

12-31. R04 An over-speed condition exists when an engine turns
When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller gov- at a faster rpm than that selected. When this occurs,
ernor flyweights overcomes the tension on the speeder centrifugal force causes the governor flyweights to
spring, a propeller is in what speed condition? overcome the speeder spring tension and raise the
pilot valve. This ports oil to the propeller dome which
A On-speed. B increases a propeller's blade angle. Answer (A) is
Under-speed. C wrong because in an on-speed condition, the tension
Over-speed. on the speeder spring exactly balances the centrifugal
force of the flyweights. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the tension on the speeder spring overcomes the cen-
trifugal force of the flyweights in an under-speed condi-
tion.
12-32. Answer B. JSPT 12-5 (AC 65-12A)

12-32. R04 The greatest stress on a propeller is the centrifugal
What operational force causes the greatest stress on a force created by the propeller's rotation. Depending on
propeller? a blade's weight and rpm, centrifugal force can be
greater than 25 tons. Both answers (A) and (C) are
A Aerodynamic twisting force. B wrong because both aerodynamic twisting force and
Centrifugal force. C Thrust thrust bending force create substantially less stress on
bending force. the propeller than centrifugal force.
12-8 Propellers
12-33. R04 ■-■■'-" 12-33. Answer B. JSPT 12-6 (AC 65-12A)

- :■'-,.,,,,,...■..-.- A propeller blade is an airfoil and is subject to the same
What operational force tends to increase propeller aerodynamic forces as any other airfoil. On all propeller
blade angle? blades, the center of lift, or center of pressure, is
forward of the blade's center of rotation. Therefore,
A Centrifugal twisting force. B when a propeller blade is producing lift (thrust), the
Aerodynamic twisting force. C blade tends to rotate to a higher angle. This is called
Thrust bending force. aerodynamic twisting force. Answer (A) is wrong
because centrifugal twisting force tends to decrease
propeller blade angle, and answer (C) is incorrect
because thrust bending force does not affect a
propeller's blade angle.
12-34. Answer C. JSPT 12-34 (AC 65-12A)

12-34. R05 On turboprop engines, the fuel control unit and pro-
How is a propeller controlled in a large aircraft with a peller governor are interconnected. Therefore, in flight,
turboprop installation? when a pilot moves the power lever, the fuel control
and governor establish the correct combination of rpm,
A Independently of the engine. fuel flow, and propeller blade angle to provide the
B By varying the engine RPM except for feathering desired power output. Answer (A) is wrong because no
and reversing. C By the constant speed propeller operates independently of the
engine power lever. engine. Answer (B) is incorrect because, in flight,
engine rpm is controlled automatically by the propeller
governor.
12-35. Answer A. JSPT 12-6 (AC 65-12A)

12-35. R05 A propeller blade is an airfoil and is subject to the same
How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect oper- aerodynamic forces as any other airfoil. On all propeller
ating propeller blades? blades, the center of lift, or center of pressure, is
forward of the blade's center of rotation. Therefore,
A It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle. when a propeller blade is producing lift (thrust), the
B It tends to bend the blades forward. blade tends to rotate to a higher angle. This is called
C It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle. aerodynamic twisting force. Answer (B) is incorrect
because thrust bending force tends to bend the
propeller blades forward. Answer (C) is wrong because
centrifugal twisting force tends to turn the blades to a
low angle.
12-36. Answer A. JSPT 12-34 (AC 65-12A)

12-36. R05 When a propeller control is in a high rpm position, there
Which of the following best describes the blade move- is a relatively low pitch on the propeller blades. When a
ment of a propeller that is in the high RPM position propeller moves to reverse pitch, the blades rotate
when reversing action is begun? through the low blade angle and into a negative blade
angle. Therefore, if a propeller blade is in a low pitch
A Low pitch directly to reverse pitch. B Low position when reverse pitch is selected, the blades will
pitch through high pitch to reverse pitch. C Low move directly to the reverse pitch position. Answers (B)
pitch through feather position to reverse pitch. and (C) are incorrect because the propeller does not
go into high pitch or feather before it reverses.
Propellers 12-9

Propellers exposed to salt spray should be flushed with If a propeller has been exposed to salt water, it should
be flushed with fresh water until all traces of salt have
A toddard solvent. ' been removed. This should be accomplished as soon
B fresh water. C as possible after the salt water has been splashed on a
soapy water. propeller. After flushing, all parts should be dried thor-
oughly. Answer (A) is wrong because stoddard solvent
can damage a propeller's protective finish. Although
soapy water (answer C) is used to clean propellers, a
thorough rinsing with fresh water is the preferred
method of treating a propeller that has been exposed
to salt water.

How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks? Of the choices given, magnetic particle inspection is
the preferred method for inspecting a steel propeller
A By anodizing. hub for cracks. Answer (A) is wrong because anodizing
B By magnetic particle inspection. is a method of surface treatment of aluminum alloys
C By etching. and is not used to detect cracks. Answer (C) is wrong
because acid etching is an obsolete inspection method
used on aluminum propeller blades.

Which of the following functions requires the use of a When measuring a propeller's blade angle, a reference
propeller blade station? blade angle measuring station is always specified by
the propeller manufacturer. Therefore, you must be
A Measuring blade angle. familiar with and use a propeller blade station to mea-
■■;'. ..■ sure a propeller's blade angle. Answer (B) is wrong
:■■ -: because indexing refers to the process of aligning the
B Indexing blades. C counterweight brackets on some propellers and does
Propeller balancing. not make use of blade stations. Answer (C) is incorrect
because neither dynamic nor static propeller balancing
methods require the use of blade stations.
12-40. Answer A. JSPT 12-2 (AC 65-12A)

The propeller blade angle is the acute angle between
12-40. R05 the airfoil section chord line at the proper reference
The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle station and the propeller's rotational plane. The refer-
between the airfoil section chord line (at the blade ref- ence station is typically at a point approximately 75
erence station) and which of the following? percent of the distance from the hub to the tip. Answer
(B) is wrong because the angle formed between the
A The plane of rotation. relative wind and the blade chord line is called angle of
B The relative wind. attack. Answer (C) is incorrect because the axis of
C The axis of blade rotation during pitch change. blade rotation is the same as the axis of the crankshaft
rotation and is not related to a propeller's blade angle.
12-41. Answer C. JSPT 12-16 (AC 65-12A)

To obtain the maximum amount of engine power during
12-41. R05 takeoff and climb a low propeller blade angle is used.
During which of the following conditions of flight will However, during high-speed, high-altitude cruising
the blade pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller be flight, less engine power is needed and, therefore, the
the greatest? propeller blade angle is typically greater. Answer (A) is
incorrect because on approach to landing, a low pro-
A Approach to landing. peller blade angle is used so the engine can produce
B Climb following takeoff. maximum power in the event a go-around or missed
C High-speed, high-altitude cruising flight. approach is required. Answer (B) is wrong because a
relatively low blade pitch is used during a climb.
12-10 Propellers
12-42. Answer A. JSPT 12-8 (AC 65-12A)

1 2 - 4 2 . R05 '■■■■< ■ "'■ '■■ ■-■■-:■ H ■■■ ■ ■
The actual distance a propeller moves forward through

Effective pitch is the actual distance a propeller moves
the air during one revolution is known as the
through the air in one revolution. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because geometric pitch represents the theoretical
A effective pitch.
distance a propeller should move through the air in one
B geometric pitch.
revolution. Relative pitch (answer C) is not a commonly
C relative pitch. used term in aircraft maintenance.
The pitch-changing mechanism of the hydromatic pro- The same oil that is used to change the pitch of a pro-
peller is lubricated by •
peller blade is also used to lubricate the pitch-changing
mechanism on a hydromatic propeller. No greases or
A the pitch-changing oil. other lubrication are required for the pitch-change
B using an approved-type grease in a grease gun at
mechanism.
intervals prescribed by the propeller manufac-
turer.
C thoroughly greasing, necessary only during pro-
peller overhaul.
12-44. R05
12-44. Answer A. JSPT 12-16 (AC 65-12A)
What is the result of moving the throttle on a recipro-
When the throttle is opened on an engine which has a
cating engine when the propeller is in the
constant-speed propeller operating in the
constant-speed range with the engine developing cruise
constant-speed range, the propeller governor
power?
increases the blade angle to absorb the additional
engine power and maintain the desired rpm. Answers
A Opening the throttle will cause an increase in
(B) and (C) are incorrect because throttle movement
blade angle. B The RPM will vary directly
will cause the propeller governor to change the
with any movement
propeller blade angle to maintain a constant rpm.
of the throttle. C Movement of the throttle will
not affect the blade
angle. :
12-45. Answer B. JSPT 12-3 (AC 65-12A)

12-45. R05
Propeller blade stations are measured from the hub
Propeller blade stations are measured from the centerline. Each blade has its own set of stations start-
: ing from station zero at the hub centerline and increas-
A index mark on the blade shank. ing out to the blade tip.
B- ub centerline. C
blade base.
12-46. Answer B. JSPT 12-3 (AC 65-12A)
12-46. R05 A propeller is a rotating airfoil and creates thrust the
The thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result same way an airplane's wing creates lift. When the
propeller rotates, an area of decreased pressure forms
in front of the propeller blade, while an area of constant
A an area of low pressure behind the propeller or higher pressure forms in back of the propeller. The
blades. B an area of decreased pressure pressure differential between the front and back of the
immediately in propeller is the source of thrust.
front of the propeller blades. C the angle of
relative wind and rotational velocity
of the propeller.
Propellers 12-11

Why is a constant-speed counterweight propeller nor- Some constant-speed counterweight propellers use an
mally placed in full HIGH PITCH position before the exposed actuating piston to change the pitch of the
engine is stopped? propeller blade. Therefore, when shutting down an
engine equipped with this type of propeller, the pro-
A To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch peller should be placed in the full HIGH PITCH position
changing mechanism. B To prevent hydraulic so that the actuating piston is covered and somewhat
lock of the piston when the protected from corrosion causing moisture by the pro-
oil cools. C To prevent overheating of the peller hub. Answer (B) is incorrect because the oil in
engine during the the propeller hub does not cause hydraulic lock.
next start. Answer (C) is wrong because the propeller blade angle
has little to do with a reciprocating engine overheating
when started.
12-48. R05 12-48. Answer A. JSPT 12-16 ( 1 4 CFR 23.33)

The low pitch stop on a constant-speed propeller is The low pitch stop on a constant-speed propeller is set
usually set so that so that the engine can develop its rated power at sea
level at the rpm specified by the propeller manufacturer.
A the engine will turn at its rated takeoff RPM at If the low pitch stop is improperly set, the engine could
sea level when the throttle is opened to allowable fail to attain rated power. Answer (B) is wrong because,
takeoff manifold pressure. the low pitch stop will not prevent an over-speed
B maximum allowable engine RPM cannot be condition, and answer (C) is incorrect because,
exceeded with any combination of manifold pres- although the propeller setting can limit maximum rpm,
sure, altitude, or forward speed. it has no effect on an engine's manifold pressure.
C the limiting engine manifold pressure cannot be
exceeded with any combination of throttle open-
ing, altitude, or forward speed.

The angle-of-attack of a rotating propeller blade is Propeller angle of attack is the acute angle between
measured between the blade chord or face and which the blade chord and the relative wind. Answer (A) is
of the following? wrong because blade angle, not angle of attack, is the
angle between the blade chord and plane of rotation.
A Plane of blade rotation. B Answer (B) is incorrect because full low-pitch blade
Full low-pitch blade angle. C angle is not the same as the relative airstream.
Relative airstream.

The centrifugal twisting moment of an operating pro- When an object rotates, its center of mass tends to
peller tends to align with its center of rotation. A propeller's center of
mass is typically ahead of its center of rotation.
A increase the pitch angle. Therefore, when a propeller rotates, centrifugal force
B reduce the pitch angle. tries to pull the propeller's center of mass in line with its
C bend the blades in the direction of rotation. center of rotation thereby decreasing the propeller's
pitch angle. Answer (A) is incorrect because aerody-
namic twisting force tends to increase the pitch angle
of rotating propeller blades. Answer (C) is incorrect
because there is no force that bends propeller blades
in the direction of rotation.

Which of the following is identified as the cambered or The curved, or cambered side of a propeller blade is
curved side of a propeller blade, corresponding to the called the blade back and the flat side is called the
upper surface of a wing airfoil section? blade face. Answer (B) is incorrect because blade
chord is an imaginary line that connects a blade's lead-
A lade back. . \ ...... ; ing edge to its trailing edge. Answer (C) is wrong
B Blade chord. C because the flat side of the blade is called the blade
Blade face. face.
12-12 Propellers
12-52. ;■■■ . R05 . v■ '■:■'. 12-52. Answer B. JSPT 12-25 (AC 65-12A)
■_-. ,, .--./ v. > When a propeller is set in the LOW RPM position, the
Which of the following best describes the blade move blade pitch is high. Therefore, when feathering is
ment of a full-feathering, constant-speed propeller that begun, the propeller blades move directly from high
is in the LOW RPM position when the feathering pitch into the feather position. Answer (A) is wrong
action is begun? ... ..,., .,, , ...., , because the propeller blades do not move into low
pitch before going to the feather position. Answer (C) is
A High pitch through low pitch to feather position. incorrect because in the LOW RPM position, the pro-
B High pitch directly to feather position. peller blades are already in the high pitch position.
C Low pitch through high pitch to feather position.
12-53. Answer C. JSPT 12-30 (AC 65-12A)
12-53. R05 The holding coil on a feathering propeller keeps the
The holding coil on a hydromatic propeller feathering feathering button in the depressed position and pro-
button switch holds a solenoid relay closed that applies vides current to the propeller feathering pump motor.
power to the propeller Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither a
hydromatic propeller governor nor the propeller dome
A governor. . .' feathering mechanism is electrically powered and,
' .... therefore, do not utilize a holding coil.
B dome feathering mechanism. .',.'■
C feathering pump motor. 12-54. Answer B. JSPT 12-11 (AC 65-12A)
Metal tipping is applied to the leading edge and tip of
12-54. R05 wood propeller blades to prevent damage from small
What is the primary purpose of the metal tipping stones or debris which might strike the prop during
which covers the blade tips and extends along the lead- ground operations. This tipping is attached to the blade
ing edge of each wood propeller blade? with countersunk screws in the thick blade sections
and with copper rivets in the thin sections. Answers (A)
A To increase the lateral strength of the blade. and (C) are incorrect because the metal tipping is
B To prevent impact damage to the tip and leading installed for abrasion resistance and provides no lateral
edge of the blade. C To increase the or longitudinal strength to the blade.
longitudinal strength of the blade.
12-55. Answer B. JSPT 12-2 (AC 65-12A)
Blade angle is the acute angle formed by a line per-
12-55. R05 pendicular to the crankshaft centerline and the chord of
Blade angle is an angle formed by a line perpendicular the blade at a specified reference station.
to the crankshaft and a line formed by the
A relative wind. ;
B chord of the blade. C
blade face. 12-56. Answer A. JSPT 12-3 (AC 65-12A)
Propeller blade stations are measured from the hub
12-56. R05 centerline. Each blade has its own set of stations start-
Propeller blade station numbers increase from ing from station zero at the hub centerline and increas-
ing out to the blade tip.
A hub to tip. .."""'
B tip to hub.
: :
C leading edge to trailing edge. 12-57. Answer B. JSPT 12-6 (AC 65-12A)
A propeller blade is an airfoil and is subject to the same
12-57. R05 aerodynamic forces as any other airfoil. On all propeller
The aerodynamic force acting on a rotating propeller blades, the center of lift, or center of pressure, is
blade operating at a normal pitch angle tends to forward of the blade's center of rotation. Therefore,
when a propeller blade is producing lift (thrust), the
A reduce the pitch angle. blade tends to rotate to a higher angle. This is called
B increase the pitch angle. aerodynamic twisting force. Answer (A) is wrong
C bend the blades rearward in the line of flight. because aerodynamic twisting force tends to rotate the
propeller blade to a higher pitch angle, not a low pitch
angle. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no
aerodynamic force that bends propeller blades
rearward in the line of flight.
Propellers 12-13

Which of the following forces or combination of forces With counterweight-type propellers, centrifugal force
operates to move the blades of a constant-speed coun- acting on a set of counterweights tends to rotate the
terweight-type propeller to the HIGH PITCH position? blades to a high pitch angle. Answers (A) and (C) are
incorrect because oil pressure acting on the propeller
A Engine oil pressure acting on the propeller piston-cylinder arrangement tends to drive the pro-
piston-cylinder arrangement and centrifugal peller blades to the LOW PITCH position.
force acting on the counterweights.
B Centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
C Prop governor oil pressure acting on the propeller
piston-cylinder arrangement.
12-59. R05 12-59. Answer C. JSPT 12-20 (ITP-P2)

The purpose of permanently sealing and partially filling Some models of McCauley propellers use dyed oil to
some models of McCauley propeller hubs with dyed aid in the detection of cracks. The propeller hub is per
oil is to manently sealed and partially filled with red-dyed oil. If
red dye appears on the hub or blades, some compo
A provide an always clean separate lubrication of nent in the hub has failed and the propeller should be
the internal parts. B dampen pressure surges removed and serviced. Answer (A) is wrong because
and prevent too rapid the primary purpose of dyed oil is to aid in crack detec
changes in propeller blade angle. C make tion, not to maintain a separate lubrication source.
the location of cracks readily apparent. Answer (B) is incorrect because smooth operation of
the propeller pitch changing mechanism is accom
plished by the propeller governor and the propeller
hub.
,
12-60. R05 :
Which of the following best describes the blade move-
ment of a feathering propeller that is in the HIGH 12-60. Answer C. JSPT 12-25 (AC 65-12A)
RPM position when the feathering action is begun? When a propeller is set in the HIGH RPM position, the
blade pitch is low. Therefore, when the feathering
A High pitch through low pitch to feather position. action begins, the blades must rotate from low pitch
B Low pitch through reverse pitch to feather posi- through high pitch and then to the feather position.
tion. C Low pitch through high pitch to feather Answer (A) is wrong because in the HIGH RPM posi-
position. tion, the propeller blade pitch is low, not high. Answer
(B) is wrong because the propeller does not go through
12-61. R05 reverse pitch before reaching the feather position.
The blade angle of a fixed-pitch propeller
12-61. Answer B. JSPT 12-5 (AC 65-12A)
A is greatest at the tip. A propeller's blade angle decreases from the hub to
B is smallest at the tip. the tip. This is necessary because the further a blade
C increases in proportion to the distance each sec- station is from the hub, the faster the airfoil moves
tion is from the hub. through the air. Therefore, in order to maintain a rela-
tively equal amount of thrust along the entire blade
length, the blade angle must decrease from the hub to
the tip. Answer (A) is incorrect because blade angle is
greatest at the hub, not the tip. Answer (C) is wrong
because blade angle decreases from the hub to the tip.
12-14 Propellers

During operational check of an aircraft using When the feather button is pushed in a normally func-
hydro-matic full-feathering propellers, the following tioning full-feathering hydromatic propeller system, a
observations are made: The feather button, after being holding coil keeps the button in the depressed position
pushed, remains depressed until the feather cycle is until the feather cycle is completed. Furthermore, when
complete, then opens. When unfeathering, it is unfeathering, the feathering button must be held manu-
necessary to manually hold the button down until ally until the propeller blades unfeather and reach low
unfeathering is accomplished. pitch. Both answers (B) and (C) are wrong because no
malfunction is indicated. Both answers (B) and (C) are
A Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are func- wrong because no malfunction is indicated.
tioning properly.
B Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate mal-
functions.
C The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle
indicates a malfunction.
12-63. R05 12-63. Answer A. JSPT 12-55 (AC 43.13-1B)

Inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspec- Dye-penetrant inspection is normally used to detect
tion is accomplished to detect cracks or other defects that are open to the surface.
Answer (B) is wrong because corrosion at the blade tip
A cracks or other defects. is typically visible and does not require dye penetrant
B corrosion at the blade tip. while answer (C) is wrong because dye penetrant can-
C torsional stress. not detect torsional stresses.

What controls the constant-speed range of a Mechanical stops in the propeller hub limit the con-
constant-speed propeller? stant-speed range of a constant-speed propeller. Both
answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because neither
A ngine RPM. engine rpm nor changes in airspeed dictate the range
B Angle of climb and descent with accompanying of propeller pitch control.
changes in airspeed. C The mechanical
limits in the propeller pitch
range.

For takeoff, a constant-speed propeller is normally set To allow an engine to develop its rated takeoff power, a
; -:
in the constant-speed propeller is normally set in the low
pitch, high rpm position. This places the lightest load
A HIGH PITCH, high RPM position. on the engine, allowing it to develop maximum power.
B HIGH PITCH, low RPM position. • Answer (A) is incorrect because, in the high RPM posi-
C LOW PITCH, high RPM position. tion the propeller blades are set at a low pitch, not a
\ high pitch. Answer (B) is wrong because a HIGH
:
PITCH, low rpm setting is typically used in cruise flight
when full power is not needed.

The high and low pitch stops of Hamilton Standard pro-
12-66. R05 pellers are located in the counterweight assembly.
Where are the high and low pitch stops of a Hamilton However, in some of the more modern constant-speed
Standard constant-speed or two-position counterweight propeller assemblies, the pitch stops are located in the
propeller located? dome assembly.
A In the hub and blade assembly.

B In the counterweight assembly.
C In the dome assembly.
Propellers 12-15

Which of the following statements about The two-position and the constant-speed counter-
constant-speed counterweight propellers is also true weight propellers both use hydraulic force to decrease
when referring to two-position counterweight blade angle and centrifugal force acting on counter-
propellers? "■■-■■-' weights to increase blade angle (answer A). The major
difference between the two is that the constant-speed
A Blade angle changes are accomplished by the use propeller utilizes a governor to boost the oil pressure to
of two forces, one hydraulic and the other cen- a higher level and automatically control the oil flow to
trifugal. and from the propeller, while the two-position propeller
B Since an infinite number of blade angle positions operates at engine lubrication system pressure with
are possible during flight, propeller efficiency is the oil flow controlled by a manual selector valve.
greatly improved. Answer (B) is wrong because a two-position propeller
C The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller does not have an infinite number of positions. Answer
changes pitch to maintain the selected RPM. (C) is incorrect because, with a two-speed propeller,
the pilot can only select a blade angle, not a specific
rpm.

12-68. R05 Propellers are subject to aerodynamic vibrations when
Most engine-propeller combinations have one or more the blade tips travel at near sonic speeds. In addition,
critical ranges within which continuous operation is mechanical vibrations are transmitted from the engine
not permitted. Critical ranges are established to avoid to the propeller. At certain combinations of airspeed
and engine rpm these vibrations can create harmonic
A severe propeller vibration. ■ ' stresses that could lead to metal fatigue and eventual
B low or negative thrust conditions. C propeller blade failure. Therefore, the Type Certificate
inefficient propeller pitch angles. Data Sheets for engine/propeller combinations identify
any critical rpm ranges that are to be avoided to pre-
vent severe vibration. Regulations require that these
ranges be marked on the tachometer with a red arc.
Answer (B) is incorrect because low or negative thrust
conditions are part of normal propeller operation.
Answer (C) is wrong because inefficient pitch angles
do not jeopardize safety and, therefore, are not indi-
cated.
12-69. Answer B. JSPT 12-54 (AC 43.13-1 B)

12-69. R05 Oversize or elongated bolt holes on a wooden pro-
Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of peller are typically cause for rejection. However, some
wood propellers? oversize or worn bolt holes may be repaired by the use
of metal inserts to restore the original diameter. This is
A Solder missing from screw heads securing metal a major repair and must be performed by a certificated
tipping. repair station. Answers (A) and (C) describe defects
B An oversize hub or bolthole, or elongated that are considered minor and, therefore, are not cause
bolt-holes. for rejection.
C No protective coating on propeller.
12-70. Answer A. JSPT 12-33 (AC 65-12A)
12-70. R05 Beta range refers to a reversing-type propeller that can
An aircraft's propeller system beta range :
. operate in a zero or negative thrust range. During
operation in beta range, propeller governor operation is
A is used to produce zero or negative thrust. locked out and all propeller control is accomplished
B is used to achieve maximum thrust during take- with the power lever. Answer (B) is wrong because
off. beta range produces zero or negative thrust, not maxi-
C refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use mum takeoff thrust, and answer (C) is wrong because
at a given engine RPM. there is no term that is commonly used to describe a
propeller's most fuel efficient pitch range.
12-16 Propellers

The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to A blade cuff is a metal, wood, or plastic structure that is
attaches to the shank of a propeller blade. The cuff
A distribute anti-icing fluid. ? ,B surface transforms the round shank into an airfoil sec-
strengthen the propeller. C increase the flow tion and is designed primarily to increase the flow of
of cooling air to the engine nacelle. cooling air to the engine nacelle. Answer (A) is wrong
because a slinger ring distributes anti-icing fluid on
propellers, and answer (B) is incorrect because blade
cuffs are not structural parts and provide no strength to
the propeller blades.
12-72. R05
The purpose of a three-way propeller valve is to 12-72. Answer A. JSPT 12-15 (DSA-25)
A three-way propeller valve is a selector valve used in a
A direct oil from the engine oil system to the pro- two-position propeller control system. The three-way
peller cylinder. valve directs oil from the engine lubrication system to
B direct oil from the engine through the governor to the propeller to control a propeller blade's pitch angle.
the propeller. Answer (B) is wrong because a three-way propeller
C permit constant-speed operation of the propeller. valve is not used on propellers that use a governor,
and answer (C) is incorrect because a three-way valve
does not permit constant-speed operation.
12-73. R05
The primary purpose of a propeller is to 12-73. Answer B. JSPT 12-2 (AC 65-12A)
The primary purpose of a propeller is to convert engine
A create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft. B horsepower to useful thrust. Modern propellers can
change engine horsepower to thrust. C provide convert up to 85 percent of an engine's brake horse-
static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in flight. power to thrust horsepower. Answer (A) is wrong
because, although the prop wash coming off a pro-
peller can produce some lift on the fixed airfoils, it is
not the primary purpose of a propeller. Answer (C) is
incorrect because propellers provide neither static nor
12-74. R05 dynamic stability to an aircraft in flight.
A constant-speed propeller provides maximum effi-
ciency by 12-74. Answer B. JSPT 12-16 (AC 65-12A)
A constant-speed propeller achieves maximum effi-
A increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed ciency by allowing the pilot to adjust the propeller blade
decreases. angle as necessary to produce the most efficient blade
B adjusting blade angle for most conditions encoun- angle for most conditions encountered in flight. Answer
tered in flight. (A) is incorrect because increasing blade pitch is just
C increasing the lift coefficient of the blade. one way a constant-speed propeller provides
maximum efficiency. Answer (C) is wrong because the
coefficient on a constant-speed propeller is no greater
12-75. R05 than that of a fixed pitch propeller.
The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller
blade is ■■.■: .! -,■■■ ... .. ■: 12-75. Answer C. JSPT 12-7 (AC 65-12A)
The centrifugal twisting force, sometimes called cen-
'"■■
trifugal twisting moment, acting on a propeller is
A greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tries to
tends to move the blade to a higher angle. decrease a propeller's blade angle. Answer (A) is
B less than the aerodynamic twisting force and incorrect because centrifugal twisting force tends to
tends to move the blade to a lower angle. move the propeller blade to a lower angle, not a higher
C greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and angle, and answer (B) is wrong because centrifugal
tends to move the blade to a lower angle. twisting force is greater than aerodynamic twisting
force.
Propellers 12-17

Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as the A propeller's geometric pitch is the theoretical dis
tance that the propeller will move forward in one revo
A ffective pitch minus slippage. ■> lution. Effective pitch, on the other hand, is the'actual
B effective pitch plus slippage. distance that the propeller moves forward in one rev
C angle between the blade chord and the plane of olution. The difference between geometric pitch and
rotation. "■■■ :
; ■-.:■. effective pitch is called slippage. Therefore, effective
pitch plus slippage is equal to geometric pitch
(answer B). '-■.,-
12-77. R05 ^1-71. Answer C. JSPT 12-2 (AC 65-12A)

Propeller blade angle is the angle between the Propeller blade angle is the acute angle formed by the
propeller blade chord line and the rotational plane of
A chord of the blade and the relative wind. the propeller. Answer (A) is wrong because the angle
B relative wind and the rotational plane of the between the blade chord and the relative wind is called
propeller. the angle of attack. Answer (B) is wrong because the
C chord of the blade and the rotational plane of angle between the relative wind and the propeller's
the propeller. rotational plane is not a factor in propeller operation.

What operational force causes propeller blade tips to Torque bending force, in the form of air resistance,
lag in the opposite direction of rotation? tends to bend cause a propeller's tips to lag in the
direction of rotation. Answer (A) is wrong because
A Thrust-bending force. thrust-bending force tends to pull the blade tips forward
B Aerodynamic-twisting force. as the propeller pulls the aircraft through the air.
C Torque-bending force. Answer (B) is incorrect because aerodynamic-twisting
force tends to turn the propeller blades to a higher
blade angle.

What operational force tends to bend the propeller Thrust bending force tends to bend the propeller tips
blades forward at the tip? forward as the propeller pulls an aircraft through the
air. This force is comparable to the coning action of a
A Torque-bending force. helicopter rotor blade, except that the thrust bending
B Centrifugal-twisting force. : force acts forward instead of upward. Answer (A) is
C Thrust-bending force. wrong because torque bending force, in the form of air
resistance, tends to cause the propeller tips to lag in
the opposite direction of rotation. Answer (B) is incor
rect because centrifugal-twisting force tries to force the
propeller blades to a lower blade angle.
;
,:
12-80. R05 ;
What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle
requirements of a constant-speed propeller during take- 12-80. Answer B. JSPT 12-16 (AC 65-12A)
off? During takeoff, a constant-speed propeller is set for
high speed and a low pitch angle so the engine can
A Low-speed and high-pitch angle. develop its maximum rated power. Cruising flight, on
B High-speed and low-pitch angle. the other hand, does not require maximum power so
C High-speed and high-pitch the propeller can be set for low speed and a high pitch
angle. angle (answer A). Answer (C) is wrong because most
reciprocating engines cannot develop high speed with a
high pitch angle.
12-18 Propellers
12-81. R05 12-81. Answer C. FAR 43 Appendix A (14 CFR 65.81)

(1) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating Neither statement (1) nor (2) is correct. A certificated
authorizes the holder to repair deep scars, nicks, mechanic may perform minor repairs or alterations to
and dents on aluminum propeller blades. propeller blades. Deep scars, nicks, and dents on alu-
(2) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating minum propeller blades and the straightening of pro-
authorizes the holder to perform minor peller blades are major repairs. These repairs may be
straightening of steel propeller blades. performed by a properly certificated repair station or
the propeller manufacturer.
A nly No. 1 is true. ; - -

:
B both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
C neither No. 1 nor No.2 is true.

(1) During takeoff, propeller thrust (pull) is greatest if Only statement (1) is correct. During takeoff, when
the blade angle of attack is low and the engine maximum power and thrust are required, the propeller
power setting is high. blades are set to a low blade angle that allows the
(2) With the aircraft stationary, propeller thrust is engine to turn at a high rpm.
greatest if the blade angle of attack is high and the
engine power setting is high.

No.2 is true. C both No.l and
No.2 are true.
12-83. R05 12-83. Answer B. JSPT 12-58 (14 CFR 23.925)

Longitudinal (fore and aft) clearance of constant-speed Federal Aviation Regulations require that the longitudi-
propeller blades or cuffs must be at least 1/2 inch (12.7 nal clearance between the propeller blades or cuffs
mm) between propeller parts and stationary parts of the and stationary parts of the airplane be at least one-half
aircraft. This clearance is with the propeller blades inch measured with the propeller in the most adverse
pitch position. Since the most adverse pitch position
A at takeoff pitch (maximum thrust) angle. B typically occurs with a high blade angle, answers (A)
feathered or in the most critical pitch configuration. C and (C) are incorrect.
at the lowest pitch angle.
12-84. R05
Constant-speed non-feathering McCauley, Hartzell, 12-84. Answer A. JSPT 12-20 (AC 65-12A)
and other propellers of similar design without counter- Most non-counterweight propellers use oil pressure to
weights increase pitch angle using increase the propeller's blade angle. Answer (B) is
incorrect because spring pressure is typically used to
A il pressure. "- :
>:■-.- decrease a propeller's blade angle. Answer (C) is
B spring pressure. wrong because centrifugal twisting moment tends to
C centrifugal twisting moment. v move the propeller blades into low pitch, not high pitch.
12-85. R05
Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are gen- 12-85. Answer A. JSPT 12-18 (AC 65-12A)
erally used to aid in On constant-speed propellers equipped with counter-
weights, centrifugal force acting on the counterweights
A increasing blade angle. B is used to increase a propeller's blade angle. Answer
decreasing blade angle. C (B) is wrong because the centrifugal force,acting on
unfeathering the propellers. counterweights tends to move the counterweights into
the plane of rotation and increase a blade's pitch.
Answer (C) is incorrect because unfeathering is typi-
cally accomplished by a spring or nitrogen charge.
Propellers 12-19
12-86. R05 12-86. Answer C. JSPT 12-57 (ITP-P2)

When lubricating a Hartzell propeller blade with Hartzell propellers have two grease fittings (zerks) on
grease, to prevent damage to the blade seals, the ser- their hubs. When lubricating these propellers, one zerk
vice manual may recommend on some models to should be removed while grease is pumped into the
other zerk. This prevents pressure buildup in the
A pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade grease chamber and helps avoid damaging the blade
simultaneously. seals. Answer (A) is wrong because servicing both
B remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall zerk fittings simultaneously could damage the propeller
them afterwards. blade seals. Answer (B) is incorrect because removing
C remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade the seals prior to greasing would require removal and
and grease the blade through the remaining fit disassembly of the propeller.
ting. ■: ■ "

The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to When an engine is shut down in flight, the propeller
blades create a substantial amount of drag which
A prevent further engine damage when an engine decreases aircraft performance. Feathering propellers
fails in flight. eliminate this drag by driving the propeller blades to a
B prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in 90 degree angle. Although feathering a propeller pre-
flight. vents it from windmilling and causing further engine
C eliminate the drag created by a windmilling pro- damage (answer A), the primary purpose of feathering
peller when an engine fails in flight. is to eliminate drag. Answer (B) is wrong because pro-
pellers are typically not damaged when an engine fails
in flight.

What normally prevents a Hartzell Compact propeller Hartzell Compact propellers utilize a latch stop called
from going to feather when the engine is shut down on the automatic high pitch stop to hold the blades in a
the ground? low angle when the engine is shut down on the ground.
The latch mechanism is comprised of springs and lock
A Propeller cylinder air pressure. pins that prevent the propellers from feathering once
B A latch mechanism composed of springs and engine rpm falls below a predetermined value. Answer
lock (A) is wrong because propeller cylinder air pressure is
pins. C Accumulator provided typically used to unfeather a propeller. Answer (C) is
oil pressure. wrong because accumulator provided oil pressure is
used in unfeathering.

12-89. R06 During the first run of a newly installed hydromatic pro-
When running-up an engine and testing a newly peller it is necessary to bleed any air that may be
installed hydromatic propeller, it is necessary to exer- trapped in the propeller dome. This is accomplished by
cise the propeller by moving the governor control several full travel movements of the propeller piston,
through its entire travel several times to which forces air back to the engine sump where it is
vented through the breather line.
A seat the blades fully against the low pitch stop.
B free the dome of any entrapped air.
C test the maximum RPM setting of the governor.
12-20 Propellers

Which of the following occurs to cause front cone bot- Front cone bottoming occurs during the installation of a
toming during propeller installation? spline shaft propeller when the apex of the front cone
contacts the ends of the shaft splines. This happens
A The front cone becomes bottomed in the front when the rear cone is too far back on the propeller
propeller hub cone seat before the rear propeller shaft. When this occurs, neither front nor rear cone can
hub cone seat has engaged the rear cone. be tightened into the propeller hub's cone seats. The
B The front cone enters the front propeller hub only way to correct this is to move the rear cone for-
cone seat at an angle causing the propeller ward. Answer (A) is incorrect because the front cone
retaining nut to appear tight when it is only fully engages the front cone seat in the propeller in a
partially tightened. normal installation. Answer (B) is wrong because the
C The front cone contacts the ends of the shaft shape of the front cone and the front cone seat pre-
splines, preventing the front and rear cones from clude the possibility of misalignment during installation.
being tightened against the cone seats in the pro-
peller hub.

What is indicated when the front cone bottoms while Front cone bottoming occurs during the installation of a
installing a propeller? spline shaft propeller when the apex of the front cone
contacts the ends of the shaft splines. This happens
A Propeller-dome combination is incorrect. when the rear cone is too far back on the propeller
B Blade angles are incorrect. shaft. When this occurs, neither front nor rear cone can
C Rear cone should be moved forward. be tightened into the propeller hub's cone seats. The
only way to correct this is to move the rear cone for-
ward. Neither an incorrect propeller-dome combination
(answer A) nor incorrect blade angles (answer B) can
cause front cone bottoming during propeller installation.
12-92. Answer B. JSPT 12-30 (AC 65-12A)

12-92. R06 When the feather button is pushed in a full-feathering
How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromatic pro- hydromatic propeller system, a holding coil keeps the
peller normally stopped after the blades have reached button in the depressed position. The feather button
their full-feathered position? energizes the feathering pump motor which takes oil
from the engine supply tank and directs it to the pro-
A Pulling out the feathering push button. peller governor. The propeller governor ports this oil to
B Electric cutout pressure switch. the propeller piston and drives it to the full feather posi-
C Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam. tion. When the propeller is fully feathered, pressure in
the inboard piston increases rapidly and the electric
cutout switch automatically opens (answer B). This
de-energizes the holding coil which releases the
feather button. Answer (A) is wrong because a
feathering push button does not have to be manually
pulled out. Answer (C) is incorrect because the stop
lugs on the rotating cam stop blade movement when
the blades reach full feather, but do not stop oil
pressure delivery.

The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for The purpose of the cones for a spine shaft propeller
propellers that are installed on splined shafts is to installation is to support and align the propeller hub on
the shaft. This is similar to the action of tapered bear-
A position the propeller hub on the splined shaft. ings which position and support a wheel on an axle.
B prevent metal-to-metal contact between the pro- Answer (B) is wrong because you want as much
peller and the splined shaft. metal-to-metal contact as possible between the
C reduce stresses between the splines of the pro- propeller and the splined shaft. Answer (C) is incorrect
peller and the splines of the shaft. because the cones position the propeller on the splined
shaft but have no effect on stress.
Propellers 12-21

Which of the following statements concerning the AC 43.13-1B specifies that when a fixed pitch wooden
installation of a new fixed-pitch wood propeller is propeller has been installed, the bolts should be
:
true? checked for tightness after the first flight, after the first
■' 25 hours of flying, and at least every 50 flying hours
thereafter. This is because the moisture content of the
A If a separate metal hub is used, final track should wood fibers can cause shrinkage after exposure to
be accomplished prior to installing the hub in the heat, causing the bolts to become loose. The fibers
propeller. B NAS close-tolerance bolts can also swell from humidity, which will cause the bolts
should be used to to be too tight. Answer (A) is incorrect because it is not
install the propeller. C Inspect the bolts for possible to establish final track without having the hub
tightness after the first flight installed in the propeller. Answer (B) is wrong because,
and again after the first 25 hours of flying. unless otherwise specified by the propeller manufac-
turer, new AN bolts should be used to install a wood
■ propeller.
12-95. Answer B. JSPT 12-69 (AC 65-12A)

12-95. R06 A loose retaining nut on a spine shaft propeller installa-
If propeller cones or hub cone seats show evidence of tion allows movement between the propeller cones and
galling and wear, the most likely cause is the hub cone seats. If not corrected, this movement
can lead to galling or wear on both the front and rear
A the pitch change stops were located incorrectly, cones and the cone seats. Answer (A) is incorrect
causing the cone seats to act as the high pitch because the setting of the pitch change stops has no
stop. B the propeller retaining nut was not effect on the seating or condition of the cone seats.
tight enough Answer (C) is wrong because the front cone should not
during previous operation. C the front cone bottom against the crankshaft splines.
was not fully bottomed against the
crankshaft splines during installation.
12-96. Answer A. JSPT 12-72 (AC 65-12A)
12-96. R06 Hydraulically operated constant-speed propellers
On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated con- should be placed in the high rpm, low pitch position for
stant-speed propellers, all ignition and magneto check- all ignition and magneto checking. This causes the pro-
ing is done with the propeller in which position? peller to operate as a fixed-pitch propeller and provides
a standard rpm for determining the operating condition
A High RPM. B of the engine. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect
Low RPM. C because operating an engine in the low rpm, high pitch
High pitch range. range for ignition and magneto system checks will not
permit an accurate check.
12-97. Answer B. JSPT 12-57 (ITP-P2) In a

12-97. R06 hydromatic propeller, the spider shaft oil seal pre-' vents
Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic pro- oil from leaking between the spider and the propeller
peller usually indicates a defective shaft and out around the rear cone. Answer (A) is
incorrect because there is oil pressure on both sides of
A piston gasket. the piston gasket, and any leakage remains within the
B spider-shaft oil seal. piston dome and is not apparent on the propeller
C dome-barrel oil seal. exterior. Answer (C) is wrong because leakage from the
dome-barrel oil seal would show up on the front of the
propeller hub.
12-22 Propellers
12-98. R06 12-98. Answer A. JSPT 12-68 (APC)

Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and pro- Bearing blue color transfer, sometimes called Prussian
peller hub is determined by using blue, is used to determine the amount of surface con-
tact between a tapered propeller shaft and the pro-
A bearing blue color transfer. B peller hub. At least 70 percent surface contact is
a micrometer. C a surface required. Neither a micrometer (answer B) nor a sur-
gauge. face gauge (answer C) can determine taper contact
because the two surfaces have nonuniform dimensions
and their profiles do not match exactly.

Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining
the blade tip positions relative to each other. A pro-
A the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect peller out-of-track condition may indicate a bent pro-
to the aircraft longitudinal axis. peller shaft or a blade that is bent. Checking a
B that the blade angles are within the specified tol- propeller's plane of rotation with respect to the air-
erance of each other. craft's longitudinal axis (answer A) is used to diagnose
C the positions of the tips of the propeller blades vibration and is done dynamically with the engine oper-
relative to each other. ating. Answer (B) is wrong because blade tracking
measures the position of the blade tips and does not
consider blade angles. ..,,., .

What is the basic purpose of the three small holes The three small holes (No. 60 drill) in the metal tipping
(No.60 drill) in the tipping of wood propeller blades? of a wooden propeller serve to ventilate and release
moisture formed by condensation between the tipping
A To provide a means for inserting balancing shot and the wooden blade. Answer (A) is wrong because
when necessary. B To provide a means for shot is not used to balance wood propellers. Answer (B)
periodically impregnating is incorrect because wood propellers are not
the blade with preservation materials. C To impregnated for the purpose of preservation.
allow the moisture which may collect between
the tipping and the wood to escape (vent the tip--J
ping). . ......
12-101. R06 12-101. Answer C. JSPT 12-64 (APC)
A fixed-pitch wooden propeller that has been properly Correction of an out-of-track condition on a fixed pitch
installed and the attachment bolts properly torqued wooden propeller is made by inserting paper or brass
exceeds the out-of-track allowance by 1/16 inch. The shims between the inner flange of the metal hub and
excessive out-of-track condition may be corrected by the propeller boss. On flange type shaft propeller
installations, the shim should be placed between the
A slightly overtightening the attachment bolts adja- propeller boss and the propeller shaft flange. Answer
cent to the most forward blade. (A) is wrong because propeller mount bolts should
B discarding the propeller since out-of-track condi- never be tightened beyond the manufacturer's recom-
tions cannot be corrected. mended torque specifications. Answer (B) is incorrect
C placing shims between the inner flange and the because a propeller should not be discarded if the
propeller. out-of-track condition can be corrected by the use of
shims.
Propellers 12-23

Manually feathering a hydromechanical propeller To manually feather a hydromechanical propeller, the
means to propeller control lever is pulled into the feather position.
This action ports governor oil pressure from the
A block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the cylinder in the propeller hub assembly back to the
propeller. B port governor oil pressure to the engine and allows the force of springs, counterweights,
cylinder of the or compressed air to drive the propeller to the feather
propeller. C port governor oil pressure position. Answer (A) is wrong because blocking gover-
from the cylinder of nor oil pressure to the propeller cylinder freezes the
the propeller. blade angle, and answer (B) is incorrect because port-
ing governor oil pressure to the propeller cylinder dri-
ves the propeller blades to the low pitch position.
12-103 R06 12-103. Answer C. JSPT 12-72 (AC 65-12A)

In what position is the constant-speed propeller control Hydrauiically operated constant-speed propellers
placed to check the magnetos? should be placed in the high rpm, low pitch position
when conducting any ignition or magneto checking.
A Full decrease, low propeller blade pitch angle. This results in a set blade angle that provides a stan-
B Full increase, high propeller blade pitch angle. dard rpm for determining the operating condition of the
C Full increase, low propeller blade pitch angle. magneto. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because, if
the propeller were set in the full decrease or high pitch
range for ignition and magneto system checks, the
governor would allow the propeller blade angle to
change and maintain a set rpm. This would make it
very difficult to identify a bad magneto during a mag-
neto check.

If a flanged propeller shaft has dowel pins A flanged propeller shaft with dowel pins allows pro-
peller installation in only one position on the crankshaft.
A install the propeller so that the blades are posi- Answer A is incorrect because while the propeller can
tioned for hand propping. only be installed in one position, the crankshaft can be
B the propeller can be installed in only one position. rotated so that the blades are in any position relative to
C check carefully for front cone bottoming against the aircraft. Answer C is incorrect because centering
the pins. cones are used in splined shaft installations.

Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers The shank, or base of an adjustable pitch propeller is
are not permitted to be made on which of the following subject to more stress than any other portion of the
propeller blade areas? propeller blade. Therefore, no repairs are permitted to
the shanks of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propeller
A hank. blades. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because
B Face. repairs to a propeller blade face and back are permit-
C Back. ted provided the repair does not materially affect the
., ;■■ :::-. strength, weight, or performance of the blade.
/■
12-106. Answer C. JSPT 12-56 (AC 43.13-1 B)
An aluminum alloy propeller blade should only be
12-106. R07 straightened in accordance with the propeller manu-
Which of the following methods is used to straighten facturer's approved procedures. When blade straight-
bent aluminum propeller blade that is within repairable ening is allowed, it's cold worked only.
limits?
A Careful heating to accomplish straightening,

followed by heat treatment to restore original
strength.
B Either hot or cold straightening, depending on the
location and severity of damage.
C Cold straightening only. .
12-24 Propellers
12-107. R07 12-107. Answer B. JSPT 12-54 (AC 43.13-1B)

It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller Rotating propellers are constantly subjected to high cen-
blades be repaired as soon as possible in order to trifugal loads and severe vibration. Therefore, any
scratch, nick, or gouge can create a stress concentration
A maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics that could develop into a crack and lead to fatigue failure.
between the blades. Answer (A) is incorrect because minor nicks have little
B eliminate stress concentration points. C effect on a blade's aerodynamic characteristics.
equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades. Although propellers must be accurately balanced to
minimize centrifugal loads and reduce vibration (answer
C), small nicks do not materially change propeller bal-
ance.
12-108. R07 12-108. Answer A. JSPT 12-55 (AC 43.13-1B0

Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufac- Repairs of minor defects on aluminum propeller blades
turer, repairs of nicks, scratches, gouges, etc. on alu- should be made parallel to the length of the propeller
minum propeller blades must be made blade. Answer (B) is incorrect because repairs that are
made perpendicular to the blade axis can lead to
A parallel to the length of the blade. B fatigue cracking. Answer (C) is wrong because it is
perpendicular to the blade axis. C so as to return impossible to return a damaged area to its original
the damaged area to the original dimensions. dimensions if material must be removed.
12-109. R07
Minor surface damage located in a repairable area, but 12-109. Answer A. JSPT 12-55 (ITP-P2)
not on the leading or trailing edges of aluminum Repairs on the face or back of a propeller blade are
blades, may be repaired by first made with a spoon-like riffle file, which is used to dish
out the damaged area. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A filing with a riffle file. half round or flat files should not be used on the face or
B filing with a half round or flat file. back of aluminum propeller blades since they have a
C rough sanding and applying a proper filler. tendency to remove too much material. Answer (C) is
wrong because fillers are never used on aluminum pro-
peller blades.
12-110. R07
After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the 12-110. Answer B. JSPT 12-55 (AC 43.13-1B)
affected surface should be polished with To make sure that all minor scratches or file marks are
removed after a repair is made to an aluminum pro-
A ine steel wool. peller blade you should polish the affected surface with
B very fine sandpaper. very fine sandpaper. The sandpaper should be moved
C powdered soapstone. parallel to the length of the blade and, once the sand-
ing is complete, the repaired area should be treated
with an appropriate protective coating. Steel wool
(answer A) should not be used on aluminum propeller
blades because steel particles could become embed-
ded in the propeller and cause dissimilar metal corro-
sion. Answer (C) is incorrect because powdered
soapstone is typically used as a lubricant, not a polish-
ing compound.
12-111. R07
When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it 12-111. Answer A. JSPT 12-54 (AC 65-12A)
should be cleaned with When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it
should be cleaned with mild soap and water. Answer
A mild soap and water. (B) is wrong because if you use steel wool to clean an
B steel wool. aluminum propeller blade, steel particles could become
C methyl ethyl ketone. embedded in the aluminum and lead to dissimilar
metal corrosion. Methyl ethyl ketone (answer C) is a
powerful solvent that can remove the protective coating
on aluminum propeller blades and, therefore, should
not be used for cleaning.
Propellers 12-25
12-112. R07 12-112. Answer C. JSPT 12-54 (AC 43.13-1 B)

What method would be used to inspect an aluminum Of the choices given, dye-penetrant inspection is the
propeller blade when a crack is suspected most effective method of detecting cracks on an alu-
minum propeller blade. Although a bright light (answer A)
A use a bright light. is a valuable tool for assisting in visual inspection, it is
B magnetic particle. not a reliable means of detecting small cracks. Answer
C dye-penetrant. (B) is incorrect because magnetic particle inspection is
only effective on ferrous materials such as iron or
steel.
12-113. R07 12-113. Answer B. FAR 43, Appendix A

Removal of propeller blade tips within Type Certificate According to FAR Part 43, Appendix A, shortening pro-
Data Sheet limits when correcting a defect is peller blades, or retipping wooden blades, is a major
repair. All propeller major repairs must be performed by
A major alteration. B an appropriately certificated repair station or the pro-
a major repair. peller manufacturer. Answer (A) is incorrect because a
C permitted under the privileges and limitations of propeller major alteration involves changes in blade,
a powerplant rating. hub, or governor design, or the installation of parts not
approved for the propeller. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a powerplant rating entitles a technician to
perform only minor repairs or alterations to propellers.

Surface treatment to counter the effects of dye-pene- After performing a dye-penetrant inspection on a pro-
trant inspection on a propeller is accomplished by peller, all penetrant residue should be removed using a
solvent approved by both the penetrant and propeller
A washing off with solvent. manufacturer. Answer (B) is wrong because alcohol
B wiping with alcohol. may not remove all the penetrant and developer from
C rinse the blade in alodine solution. the blade surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
alodine solution is a protective surface treatment for
aluminum alloys that does not effectively remove dye
penetrant.
12-115. R07 12-115. Answer B. JSPT 12-54 (AC 43.13-1B)

One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum Dye penetrant inspections allow a properly trained
propeller utilizing dye-penetrant inspection procedure technician to differentiate between cracks and
is that scratches on aluminum propeller blades. Answer (A) is
wrong because dye penetrant can only detect cracks or
A defects just below the surface are indicated. other defects that are open to the surface. Answer (C)
B it shows whether visible lines and other marks is incorrect because overspeed damage typically
are produces no visible damage and, therefore, cannot be
actually cracks rather than scratches. C detected by dye-penetrant inspection.
it indicates overspeed condition.
12-116. Answer C. JSPT 12-54 (AC 43.13-1B)
12-116. R07 Rotating propellers are constantly subjected to high
The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt centrifugal loads and severe vibration. Therefore, any
repairing of minor surface defects such as scratches, scratch, nick, or gouge can create stress concentra-
nicks, gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy propellers is to tions that could develop into a crack and lead to fatigue
prevent failure. Answer (A) is incorrect because promptly
repairing minor surface defects does little to prevent
A corrosion. corrosion. Answer (B) is wrong because a minor sur-
B unbalanced aerodynamics. face defect will not result in a aerodynamic imbalance.
C fatigue failure.
12-26 Propellers

Which of the following generally renders an aluminum A transverse crack is a crack that is parallel to a pro-
alloy propeller unrepairable? peller blade's chord. Transverse cracks of any size are
not repairable and render a propeller unairworthy.
A Any repairs that would require shortening and Answer (A) is incorrect because blades can be short-
re-contouring of blades. B Any slag inclusions or ened and recontoured if damage does not exceed the
cold shuts. C Transverse cracks of any size. manufacturer's specified limits. Answer (B) is wrong
because slag inclusions or cold shuts may be permissi-
ble if they fall within the manufacturer's limts.
12-118. R07
Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade 12-118. Answer B. JSPT 12-56 (AC 43.13-1B)
may be accomplished by Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade is
considered a major repair and, therefore, can only be
A the holder of a mechanic certificate with a performed by an appropriately rated repair station or
power-plant rating. the propeller manufacturer. Both answers (A) and (B)
B an appropriately rated repair station or the manu- are incorrect because neither a powerplant or airframe
facturer. rating entitles a technician to perform or supervise
C a person working under the supervision of major repairs to propellers.
the holder of a mechanic certificate with both
air-frame and powerplant ratings.

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FUEL AND FUEL METERING

7-1. A03 7-1. Answer C. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A)

7-2. ,■ A04 7-2. Answer A. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-9A)

7-4. A04 7-4. Answer C. JSPT 7-22 (AC 65-12A)

7-5. A04 7-5. Answer A. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A)

7-6. B03 7-6. Answer A. JSPT 7-63 (AC 65-12A)

7-7. B03 7-7. Answer A. JSPT 7-68 (AC 65-12A)

7-8. B03 7-8. Answer A. JSPT 7-68 (AC 65-12A)

7-9. C01 7-9. Answer A. JSPT 7-51 (AC 65-12A)

7-10. M01 7-10. Answer B. JSPT 7-60 (AC 65-12A)

C Power lever position.

7-14. M01 7-14. Answer B. JSPT 7-64 A full-authority electronic

7-16. M01 7-16. Answer A. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-9A) Turbine

7-17. M01 7-17. Answer C. JSPT 7-69 (TEP2) Part of the

7-18. M01 7-18. Answer C. JSPT 7-69 (TEP2)

7-19. Answer A. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-12A)

7-21. Answer C. JSPT 7-30 (AC 65-12A)

7-23. Answer B. JSPT 7-26 (AC 65-12A)

7-24. Answer B. JSPT 7-35 (ITP-P2)

7-27. M02 7-27. Answer B. JSPT 7-34 (AC 65-12A) During

7-28. Answer B. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A) The

7-29. Answer C. JSPT 7-20 (AC 65-12A) As both

7-30. M02 7-30. Answer C. JSPT 7-30 (AC 65-12A)

7-31. M02 7-31. Answer A. JSPT 7-34

7-32. M02 7-32. Answer A. JSPT 7-26 (AC 65-12A)

7-33. M02 7-33. Answer B. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A)

7-34. M02 7-34. Answer A. JSPT 7-40 (AC 65-12A)

7-35. M02 7-35. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-36. M02 7-36. Answer A. JSPT 7-40 (AC 65-12A)

7-37. -'■■' * M02 ■: :

7-38. M02 7-38. Answer C. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A) The

7-39. M02 7-39. Answer B. JSPT 7-34 (AC 65-12A) In a

7-40. M02 7-40. Answer A. JSPT 7-39 (AC 65-12A)

7-42. M02 7-42. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

7-43. M02 7-43. Answer A. JSPT 7-36

7-44. Answer A. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-45. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

7-48. Answer B. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-49. Answer A. JSPT 7-28 (AC 65-12A) In float-type

7-51. Answer A. JSPT 7-35 (ITP-P2)

7-55. M02 7-55. Answer B. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-56. M02 7-56. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-57. M03 7-57. Answer B. JSPT 7-44 (AC 65-12A)

7-58. M03 7-58. Answer C. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

7-60. M03 7-60. Answer C. JSPT 7-24 (AC 65-12A)

7-63. Answer B. JSPT 7-32 (AC 65-12A)

7-64. Answer A. JSPT 7-41 (AC 65-12A)

7-67. Answer B. JSPT 7-23 (AC 65-12A)

7-69. Answer A. JSPT 7-32 (AC 65-12A)

7-70. M03 9-62. Answer A.

7-71. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

7-73. M04 ■■ ■■■:■■'■ 7-73. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A)

IDLE I\r1 FULL IDLE M FULL

Figure 6. Fuel/Air Ratio Graphs.

7-74. M04 7-74. Answer A. JSPT 7-53 (AC 65-12A) Pressure

7-75. M04 7-75. Answer A. JSPT 7-33 (AC 65-12A)

7-76. M04 7-76. Answer A. JSPT 7-69 (AC 65-12A)

7-77. Answer C. JSPT 7-60 (AC 65-12A) Most fuel

7-79. - M04 7-79. Answer C. JSPT 7-27 (AC 65-12A) Both