PNLE: FON Practice Exam for Infection,

Asepsis, Basic concept of Stress and

Illness

1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR

FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases
norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which
of the following is true with regards to that statement?

A. Pupils will constrict

B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase

2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose

GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease
insulin secretion

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social

development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired
compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe
that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from
wellness to illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals

suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an
earlier stage.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants
his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome
reassured or predicted

A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role

8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

A. One should be held responsible for his condition

B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group

to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks

10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a
certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology

12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and

burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type
of disease?

A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best

described as:

1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5

14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced

symptoms of a disease

A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and

exacerbation

A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic

16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from
recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic

17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their

environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and
geographical environment.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence
and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of
disease.

A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography

19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result

from abnormal response to a stimuli.

A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the
nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a
disease or injury?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health
and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing
normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of
prevention does this belongs?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level
of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an

individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers

29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing

and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain
dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs

to what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis

34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors
pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier

35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been

exposed to a disease.

A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host

36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that

destroys pathogens but not the spores.

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by
development of specific signs and symptoms

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after
being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious
process does this child belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A
minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms
of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?

A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period

41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses
can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission

42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1

43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the
mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that
Lyme disease is transmitted via

A. Direct contact transmission

B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily

depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually

cause by

A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or

laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission

47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin

49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid
immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections?
You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

A. Natural active immunity

B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was
crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected
Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does
TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides

A. Natural active immunity

B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross
contamination and infection

A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be
above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms

54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time
method is

A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand

B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand

55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing

procedure?

A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml

57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and
disinfection?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean

B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable
microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated
protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of
time required for sterilization

58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in
water? You correctly answered her by saying

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes

B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the
water reached 100 degree Celsius

59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and
other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the
human body

A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation

60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in

the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?

A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact

B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under
pressure?

A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by

autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering
the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge,
during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose

B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long
time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1
micromillimeter

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as
injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an

A. Puncture proof container

B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”

66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed

with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal
implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her
cervix. What should be your initial action?

A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the
physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or
remove it

67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers

B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not
thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing
spread of infection?

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries

B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr.
Gatchie, with Neutropenia

69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an

hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an
hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges
an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges
an hour

70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used
for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used
for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used
for this patient?

A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution

73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally

dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking
water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube

B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry
surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not
sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the
sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4

months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile
technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she
must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be
changed.

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand

B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience

77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap
and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field

78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves
prior to a surgical procedure?

A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second
glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up
underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant hand

B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary

80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the

protective items listed below

1. Eye wear or goggles

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5

82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how
high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?

A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to
manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands.
How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle

B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward

84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due
to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the
nurse?

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth

2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after
suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found
in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3

85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing
action is required to prevent contamination?

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish

2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4

86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate

nursing action?

A. Wash gloved hand first

B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses

B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological
symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium

88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the
non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.

A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers

89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of
Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is not a nervous energy

B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress

90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of

Modern Stress Theory?

A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress

91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general

adaptation syndrome?

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress

B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into

HOMEOSTASIS?

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here,
death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion

97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis

B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person

98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and
electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of
adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where
majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the
people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning.
Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off.
What adaptation mode is this?

A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode

Answers and Rationales

1. C. Lungs will bronchodilate. To better understand the concept :

The autonomic nervous system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and
PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC
Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your
heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels,
Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today and your
varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or
FLIGHT mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to
stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person
FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS
Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture
of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to
bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher
demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy
clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through
 obstacles during running. The client’s gastric motility will DECREASE
Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor
running.
2. C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation. If
vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is
true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the
fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or
FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this
is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are
all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store
utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will
decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion
that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited
when the SNS dominates.
3. A. Illness. Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory,
standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective
state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous
experience, peer advice etc.
4. A. Symptom Experience. A favorite board question are Stages of
Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that
person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient
will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick
role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some
activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask
someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is
now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional
advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of
 the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent
patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last
stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the
sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.
5. D. Dependent patient role. In the dependent patient role stage,
Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to
accept or reject the professional’s decisions but patients are usually
passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.
6. B. Assumption of sick role. Acceptance of illness occurs in the
Assumption of sick role phase of illness.
7. C. Medical care contact. At this stage, The patient seeks for
validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what
he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why
is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the
probable outcome of this experience.
8. A. One should be held responsible for his condition. The nurse
should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or
someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his
societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to
seek competent help.
9. C. Risk factor
10. A. Susceptibility. Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a
pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while
susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance
means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and
repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A
susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of
 resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that
can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if
a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be
impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.
11. A. Syndrome. Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain
disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest
TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other
diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means
COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize
a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or
other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE
SYNDROME.
12. D. Iatrogenic. Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted
from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently
exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial
thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant
diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells.
Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular
accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the
hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly
caused by E.Coli.
13. B. 2 and 3. Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as
IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.
14. C. Exacerbation
15. A. Chronic. A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized
by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC
Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to
 manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months
that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.
16. D. Organic. As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that
causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems.
Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases
wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical
change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered
due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of
the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are
anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON
PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of
the brain and it’s supporting structure which manifests different sign
and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic
alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses
without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as
INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that
causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as
ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.
17. B. Ecology. Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM
and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases
in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the
Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the
purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked
during the previous boards.
18. A. Epidemiology. Refer to number 17.
19. C. Inorganic. Refer to number 16.
20. C. Tertiary. Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked
frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in
preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition,
knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those
that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments.
Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic
treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc.
Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of
functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to
alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for
an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose
among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc. The confusing part is
between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To
best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated
with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY
PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on
PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in
cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN
THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent
coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a
another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as
ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to
TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.
21. D. None of the above. The nurse never increases the person’s
susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person’s susceptibility
to illness.
22. B. Secondary. Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH
MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and
symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent
deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are
required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical
examinations, Diagnostics etc.
23. A. Primary. PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by
the workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries
and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the
nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.
24. A. Primary
25. B. Secondary
26. C. Tertiary
27. D. Radio and Television. An actual board question, The best way to
disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by
RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than
publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to
disseminate is through the internet.
28. B. Neuman. The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha
Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman’s. She stated
that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual
are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined
health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not
Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of
health.
29. D. 1,2,3,4. All of the following are correct statement about health.
The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from
 Walter Cannon’s homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude
Bernard’s concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is
Neuman’s Theory.
30. C. Cannon. Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or
the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated
Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the
ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as
Wellness that is influenced by individual’s culture.
31. D. Lifestyle
32. B. Age
33. A. Surgical Asepsis. Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE
TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN
TECHNIQUE.
34. D. Carrier
35. B. Contact
36. B. Disinfectant. Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while
Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things.
Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill
their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets
in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including
their spores.
37. C. Disinfection. Both A and B are capable on killing spores.
Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE
designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also
known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of
removing pathogens but not their spores.
38. C. Illness period. In incubation period, The disease has been
introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the
pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to
multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when
the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is
when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is
characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or
refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the
PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is
characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it’s gradual
disappearance.
39. B. Prodromal period. To be able to categorize MEASLES in the
Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik’s Spot and Rashes
must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and
symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to
appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs
and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever,
fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik’s spot heralds
the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of
this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also
known as 10 day measles.
40. A. Incubation period. Anthrax can have an incubation period of
hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question
stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the
incubation period.
41. D. Mode of transmission. Mode of transmission is the weakest link
in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using
 the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based
precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.
42. C. 4,5,3,6,2,1. Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The
etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will
need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL
OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the
process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting
to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the
ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the
RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to
produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and
sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their
colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by
ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE
HOST]. By imagining the Ant’s life cycle, we can easily arrange the
chain of infection.
43. D. Vector borne transmission. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia
Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.
44. D. Non Specificity. To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen
should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to
these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON
SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans
but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially
AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases
due to impaired immune system.
45. C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver. The
hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross
 contamination in hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the
single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross
contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial
infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the
hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the
major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the
spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.
46. A. Droplet transmission
47. A. Skin. Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our
first line of defense against infection.
48. A. Creed. Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person’s
susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress
a person’s immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility.
Color of the skin could affect person’s susceptibility to certain skin
diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a
fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for
cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.
49. C. Artificial active immunity. TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary
dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with
completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2.
Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but
on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not
occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because
what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made
immunoglobulin.
50. D. Artificial passive immunity. In this scenario, Agatha was already
wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would
 not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system
produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti
toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of
agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is
not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to
immediately supress the invasion.
51. D. Handwashing. When you see the word HANDWASHING as one
of the options, 90% Chance it is the correct answer in the local board.
Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see question from 1988
to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it but is
not the correct answer.
52. B. Friction. The most important aspect of handwashing is
FRICTION. The rest, will just enhance friction. The use of soap lowers
the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of friction.
Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to
create the lather that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but
friction is the most essential aspect of handwashing.
53. D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms. Hands
are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with
surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required to keep the hands
above the waist. The rationale is because in medical asepsis, Hands
are considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit
contamination of the lower arm, The hands should always be below
the elbow.
54. C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand. Each hands requires atleast 15 to
30 seconds of handwashing to effectively remove transient
microorganisms.
55. B. 10 seconds. According to Kozier, The minimum time required
for watching each hands is 10 seconds and should not be lower than
that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 seconds.
56. C. 2-4 ml. If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap
is recommended for handwashing procedure.
57. A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean. Equipments
with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than those with small lumen.
B C and D are all correct.
58. C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is
required. Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of
sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you should boil
articles for atleast 15 minutes.
59. D. Radiation. Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by
a boiling water, ethylene oxide gas and autoclave or steam under
pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods. Ethylene oxide
gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will
alter its consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never
performed. Radiation using microwave oven or Ionizing radiation
penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.
60. B. Terminal disinfection. Terminal disinfection refers to practices
to remove pathogens that stayed in the belongings or immediate
environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged. An
example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light.
Concurrent disinfection refers to ongoing efforts implented during
the client’s stay to remove or limit pathogens in his supplies,
belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread of
the disease. An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client
 with radium implant on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after
each voiding.
61. C. Shake the linens to remove dust. NEVER shake the linens. Once
soiled, fold it inwards clean surface out. Shaking the linen will further
spread pathogens that has been harbored by the fabric.
62. C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge,
during the autoclave. Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps
and scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to minimize stiffening
caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL
microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently
discovered microorganism that is invulnarable to extreme heat.
Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks. Only the
same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in
plating of these metals.
63. D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1
micromillimeter. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. Masks
will not function optimally when wet. Masks should be worn not
greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness after 4 hours. N95
mask or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1
micromillimeter.
64. D. Yellow trashcan. Infectious waste like blood and blood products,
wet diapers and dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans.
65. A. Puncture proof container. Needles, scalpels and other sharps
are to be disposed in a puncture proof container.
66. C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead
container. A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy
are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a LEAD CONTAINER
 in order to prevent damage on the client’s normal tissue. Calling the
physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices.
A nurse should never attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her
bare hands.
67. A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers. Leeches, in leech
therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD
container. They are never re used as this could cause transfer of
infection. These leeches are hospital grown and not the usual leeches
found in swamps.
68. A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries. Never
recap needles. They are directly disposed in a puncture proof
container after used. Recapping the needles could cause injury to the
nurse and spread of infection. B C and D are all appropriate. Standard
precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia
are not given fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the
non infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe
infection on an immunocompromised patients.
69. D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges
an hour. TB patients should have a private room with negative air
pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per hour. Negative pressure
room will prevent air inside the room from escaping. Air exchanges
are necessary since the client’s room do not allow air to get out of
the room.
70. C. Droplet precaution. Droplet precaution is sufficient on client’s
with RUBELLA or german measles.
71. B. Airborne precaution. Measles is highly communicable and more
contagious than Rubella, It requires airborne precaution as it is
 spread by small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and
disperesed by air movements.
72. D. Contact precaution. Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin.
It is generally caused by GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin
to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching another
person’s skin.
73. A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube. The
digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple errors like this
would not cause harm to the patient. NGT tube need not be sterile,
and so is colostomy and rectal tubes. Clean technique is sufficient
during NGT and colostomy care.
74. C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile. Human
skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains normal flora of
microorganism. A B and D are all correct.
75. C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile
technique. Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to
be honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best method to
enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered sterile
only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is
a team effort of each nurse. If a scrubbed person leave the sterile
field and area, he must do the process all over again.
76. B. The non dominant hand. Gloves are put on the non dominant
hands first and then, the dominant hand. The rationale is simply
because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non
dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves,
8 of them will put the gloves on their non dominant hands first.
77. C. Before surgical hand scrub. The nurse should put his goggles,
cap and mask prior to washing the hands. If he wash his hands prior
to putting all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as
these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.
78. D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are
on. The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when they are
both on the hands. Not doing so will break the sterile technique.
Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the second gloves. You
cannot slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb
would not be able to enter the cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply
picking it up with the first 2 fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion.
Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.
79. A. The glove of the non dominant hand. Gloves are worn in the
non dominant hand first, and is removed also from the non dominant
hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10 people removing gloves,
8 of them will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of
the non dominant hand.
80. D. 2,3,1,4,5. The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in
moisturizing his hand before surgical procedure and after
handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, Mstands for MASK, Ey stands for
eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don
the gloves first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic
and I advise you use it because you can never forget Camey hand and
body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]]
81. A. 4,3,5,1,2. When the nurse is about to remove his protective
devices, The nurse will remove the GLOVES first followed by the
 MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover, etc. This is
to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.
82. C. 6 inches. Even if you do not know the answer to this question,
you can answer it correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS into a
receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, The mouth of the NSS
bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it
contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches
above it, that is too high, chances are, as you pour the NSS, most will
spill out because the force will be too much for the buoyant force to
handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely into a
receptacle as the height increases between the receptacle and the
bottle. 6 inches is the correct answer. It is not to low nor too high.
83. A. The tip should always be lower than the handle. A sterile forcep
is usually dipped into a disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if
the tip is HIGHER than the handle, the solution will go into the handle
and into your hands and as you use the forcep, you will eventually
lower its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip
thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the
tip should always be lower than the handle. In situation questions
like this, IMAGINATION is very important.
84. C. 1,2,3,4. All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are
disposed INSIDE the client’s room to prevent contamination outside
the client’s room. The nurse is correct in using Mask the covers both
nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the
gloves and before and after you enter the client’s room. Gloves and
contaminated suction tip are thrown in trashcan found in the clients
room.
85. C. 1,2,3. Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.
86. D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves. Gloves are
the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing and therefore, the
first to be removed to prevent spread of microorganism as you
remove the mask and gown.
87. C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response. All stressors
evoke common adaptive response. A psychologic fear like nightmare
and a real fear or real perceive threat evokes common manifestation
like tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension etc.
ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be both REAL or
IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing
abnormally through a damage vessel. Homeostasis is the one that
refers to dynamic state of equilibrium according to Walter Cannon.
88. A. Hans Selye. Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an
intriguing theory about stress that has been widely used and
accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of
human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome
which is characterized by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and
EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation syndrome controls stress through
a particular body part. Example is when you have been wounded in
your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should
protect that particular damaged area, it will also produce
inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and facilitate
healing process. Another example is when you are frequently lifting
heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles
hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of heavy lifting.
89. B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to
it. Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to
exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all correct.
90. A. Stress is essential. Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live
normally without stress. It is essential because it is evoked by the
body’s normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive
mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are
encountered by the body. Man can encounter stress even while
asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are multifactorial, No diseases
are caused by a single stressors. Stress are sometimes favorable and
are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable stress is
when a carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work.
He then develops calluses on the hand to lessen the pressure of the
hammer against the tissues of his hand. He also develop larger
muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to
adaptations to decrease that particular stress.
91. D. Death can ensue. Death can ensue as early as the stage of
alarm. Exhaustion results to a prolonged exposure to stress.
Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and
characterized by being able to adapt.
92. A. Stage of Alarm. Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of
alarm. This is when the adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When
someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat faster, you
vessels constricted and bp increased.
93. B. Stage of Resistance
94. A. Stage of Alarm. Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm.
Resistance is absent in the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is
increased in the stage of resistance.
95. B. Stage of Resistance
96. D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require
time. Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive
response requires time for it to act. It requires energy, physical and
psychological taxes that needs time for our body to mobilize and
utilize.
98. D. Technological adaptive mode
99. C. Sociocultural adaptive mode. Sociocultural adaptive modes
include language, communication, dressing, acting and socializing in
line with the social and cultural standard of the people around the
adapting individual.
100. B. Psychologic adaptive mode