GOVERNMENT COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

BODINAYAKKANUR – 625582

EE6712-COMPREHENSION

RECORD NOTE BOOK

Certified that this is the bonafide record of work done by

Thiru / Selvi ______________________________________ Reg.No

of SEVENTH Semester BE-ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

during the academic year2018-2019.

Staff-In-Charge Head of the Department

Submitted for the practical examination held on __________________________.

Internal Examiner

1
2
 INDEX

S.NO SUBJECT NAME PAGE NO.

1. CIRCUIT THEORY 3

2 ELCTROMAGNETIC THEORY 16

3 LINEAR AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED

CIRCUITS 29

4 MEASUREMENTS AND

INSTRUMENTATION 40

5 ELECTRICAL MACHINES 49

6 POWER ELECTRONICS AND DRIVES 57

7 POWER SYSTEMS 65

8 CONTROL SYSTEM 72

3
4
 CIRCUIT THEORY

1.The current through the 2 kΩ resistance in the circuit (fig.1) shown is

(a) 0 mA (b) 1 mA
(c) 2 Ma (d) 6 mA
2.Howmany 200W/220V incandescent lamps connected in series would consume same
total power as a single 100W/220V incandescent lamp ?

(a) Not applicable (b) 3

(c) 4 (d) 2
3. The r.m.s value of the current i (t) in the circuit (fig.2) is

(a) 1/2A (b)1/√2 A

(c) 1 A (d) √ 2 A
4. If the 12 Ω resistor draws a current of 1 A as shown in the fig.3, the Value of resistance R is

(a) 4 Ω (b) 6 Ω
(c) 8 Ω (d) 18 Ω

5
5. The number of chords in the graph of the given circuit (fig.4) will be

(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
6. The time constant for the given circuit (fig.5) will be

(a) 1/9 s (b) 1/4 s

(c) 4 s (d) 9
7.Assuming Ideal elements in the circuit (fig.6),the voltage Vab will be

(a) -3V (b) 0V

(c) 3V (d) 5V

6
8. In the figure (fig.7) the current source is 1∟0° A,R = 1Ω, the impedances are ZC =-jΩ and ZL = 2j Ω. The
Thevenin equivalent looking into the circuit across X-Y is

(a)√ 2 ∟0° V, (1 + 2j) Ω (b) 2 ∟45° V, (1 - 2j) Ω

(c) 2 ∟45° V, (1 + j) Ω (d) √2 ∟45° V, (1 + j) Ω
9. In the figure (fig.8) the value of R is

(a) 2.5 Ω (b) 5.0 Ω

(c) 7.5 Ω (d) 10.0 Ω

10.The RMS value of the voltage u(t)= 3 + 4 cos (3t) is

(a)√ 17 V (b) 5 V
(c) 7 V (d) (3 + 2√2) V
11. For the two port network shown in the figure(fig.9) the Z -matrix is given by

(a) Z1 Z1+Z2 (b) Z1 Z1

Z1+Z2 Z2 Z1+Z2 Z2
(c) Z1 Z2 (d) Z1 Z1
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 Z1+Z2 Z2 Z1 Z1+Z2
12. In the figure (fig.10)given, for the initial capacitor voltage is zero. The switch is closed at
t = 0. The final steady-state voltage across the capacitor is

(a) 20 V (b) 10 V
(c) 5 V (d) 0 V
13. For the three-phase circuit shown in the figure (fig.11) the ratio of the currents IR :IY :I B is given by

(a) 1:1:√3 (b) 1:1: 2

(c) 1:1: 0 (d) 1:1:√ 3/2
14. The circuit shown in the figure (fig.12) is in steady state, when the switch is closed at
t = 0.Assuming that the inductance is ideal, the current through the inductor at t = 0+ equals

(a) 0 A (b) 0.5 A

(c) 1 A (d) 2 A

8
15. In the given figure (fig.13), the Thevenin’s equivalent pair (voltage, impedance), as seen at the terminals
P-Q is given by

(a) (2 V, 5 Ω) (b) (2 V, 7.5 Ω)

(c) (4 V, 5 Ω) (d) (4 V, 7.5 Ω)
16. The value of Z in figure (fig.14)which is most appropriate to cause parallel resonance at
500 Hz is

(a) 125.00 mH (b) 304.20 μF

(c) 2.0 μF (d) 0.05 μF
17. In figure(fig.15), Ra , Rb and Rc are 20 Ω , 20 Ω and 10 Ω respectively. The
resistancesR1, R2 and R3 in Ω of an equivalent star-connection are

(a) 2.5, 5, 5 (b) 5, 2.5, 5

(c) 5, 5, 2.5 (d) 2.5, 5, 2.5

9
18. In figure (fig.16), the value of resistance R in Ω is

(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
19. The rms value of the current in a wire which carries a d.c. current of 10 A and a
sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20 A is

(a) 10 A (b) 14.14 A

(c) 15 A (d) 17.32 A
20.Superposition theorem is not usefull to measure

(a).Current (b).Voltage
(c).Power (d).None of the above

21.The superposition therorem is applicable for Both Linear & Nonlinear circuits

(a).True (b).False
22.The current through 4Ω resistor in the fig.17 is?

(a)2.5A (b)5A
(c)2A (d)0A

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23.Find Req (fig.18)?

(a)3/9 Ω (b)4/9 Ω
(c)3/9 kΩ (d)4/9 kΩ
24.The two wattmeter method is used to measure active power on a 3 wire system.If the phase voltage is
unbalanced,then power reading is

(a).Affected by both negative sequence and zero sequence voltages

(b).Affected by negative sequence but not by zero sequence voltages
(c).Affected by zero sequence but not by negative sequence voltages
(d).Not affected by both sequences
25.The real power of a 3 phase network is given by

(a).VIcosФ (b).√3VLIL cosФ

(c).3VLIL cosФ (d).both (B) & (C)
26.Three unequal impedences are connected in star in a 3 phase system.The sum of three line currents will be

(a).thrice the value of each current (b).equal to value of each line current
(c).0 (d).None of above
27. A 3phase ,4 wire system supplies a balanced star load.The current in each phase is 5A. The current in
neutral wire will be

(a) 5A (b)5√3A (c)0A (d)15A

28.An ideal voltage source will charge an ideal capacitor

(a).in infinite time (b).exponentially

(c).instantaneously (d).none of these
29.The internal resistance in an ideal voltage source is

(a).zero (b).infinity
(c).some resistance will exist (d).none
30.Superposition principle is not applicable to a network containing time-varying resistors.

(a) True (b) False

(c)True only in some cases (d).none of these
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31. Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) between terminals A and B of the circuit given below.

(a). 4.16 V, 120

(b) 41.6 V, 120
(c) 4.16 V, 70
41.67
(d) 41.67V, 70

32.Find the current through R2 of the given circuit.

(a) 30.7 mA
.
(b) 104 mA
(c) 74 mA
(d) 134 mA

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33.Find the total current through R3 in the given circuit.

(a) 7.3 mA
(b) 5.5 mA
(c) 12.8 mA
(d) 1.8 mA
34. A 680 load resistor, RL, is connected across a constant current source of 1.2 A. The internal source
resistance, RS, is 12 k . The load current, RL, is
(a) 0A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 114 mA
(d) 1.14 A
35. Determine IN for the circuit consisting of VS, R1, R2, and R3 shown in the given circuit.

(a) 676 ma
(b) 245 mA
(c) 431 mA
(d) 75 mA
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36. A 120 V voltage source has a source resistance, RS, of 60 . The equivalent current source is
(a) 2A
(b) 4A
(c) 200 mA
(d) 400 mA
37. A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 . If a load resistance of 20 is connected to the voltage
source, the load power, PL, is
(a) 2.38 mW
(b) 2.38 W
(c) 238 mW
(d) 23.8 W

38. In a two-source circuit, one source acting alone produces 12 mA through a given branch. The other
source acting alone produces 10 mA in the opposite direction through the same branch. The actual current
through the branch is
(a) 22 mA
(b) 12 mA
(c) 10 mA
(d) 2 mA
39. Find the current through R1 in the given circuit.

(a) 0.16 A
(b) 0.24 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.04 A

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40. A 10 resistor, a 90 mH coil, and a 0.015 F capacitor are in series across an ac source. The impedance
magnitude at 1,200 Hz below fr is
(a) 1,616
(b) 161
(c) 3,387
(d) 1,771
41. In a series RLC circuit that is operating above the resonant frequency, the current
(a) lags the applied voltage
(b) leads the applied voltage
(c) is in phase with the applied voltage
(d) is zero

42. A 15 resistor, a 220 H coil, and a 60 pF capacitor are in series across an ac source. What is the
bandwidth of the circuit?
(a) 138 MHz
(b) 10,866 Hz
(c) 1,907 Hz
(d) 138 kHz

43. A resistor of 3 k , a 0.05 F capacitor, and a 120 mH coil are in series across a 5 kHz, 20 V ac source.
What is the impedance, expressed in polar form?
(a) 636
(b) 3,769
(c) 433
(d) 4,337
44. A 12 resistor, a 40 F capacitor, and an 8 mH coil are in series across an ac source. The resonant
frequency is
(a) 28.1 Hz
(b) 281 Hz
(c) 2,810 Hz
(d) 10 kHz

15
45. The impedance at the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit with L = 20 mH, C = 0.02 F,
and RW = 90 is
(a) 0
(b) 90
(c) 20 k
(d) 40 k

46. A 6.8 k resistor, a 7 mH coil, and a 0.02 F capacitor are in parallel across a 17 kHz ac source. The
coil's internal resistance, RW, is 30 . The equivalent parallel resistance, Rp(eq), is
(a) 1,878
(b) 18,780
(c) 18,750
(d) 626
47. A 200 resistor, a coil with 30 of reactance, and a capacitor of unknown reactance are in series
across an ac source. The circuit is at resonance. Circuit impedance
(a) is 230
(b) is 170
(c) is 200
(d) cannot be determined
48. If the resistance in parallel with a parallel resonant circuit is reduced, the bandwidth
(a) disappears
(b) becomes sharper
(c) increases
(d) decreases
49. A resonant circuit has a lower critical frequency of 7 kHz and an upper critical frequency of 13 kHz. The
bandwidth of the circuit is
(a) 7 kHz
(b) 13 kHz
(c) 20 kHz
(d 6kHz

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50. A 90 resistor, a coil with 30 of reactance, and a capacitor with 50 of reactance are in series
across a 12 V ac source. The current through the resistor is
(a) 9 Ma
(b) 90 mA
(c) 13 mA
(d) 130 mA

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18
 ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY

1.Spherical surfaces at r = 2 and 4 carry uniform charge densities

of 20 nC/m220 nC/m2 and −4 nC/m2−4 nC/m2..The DrDr (electric flux density) at 2 < r < 4 is
(a)−16r2nC/m2−16r2nC/m2
(b)16r2nC/m216r2nC/m2

(c) 80r2nC/m280r2nC/m2
(d)−80r2nC/m2
2. A monochromatic plane wave of wavelength λ=600μmλ=600μm is propagating in the direction as shown in
the figure below. E i,E r,andE tE→i,E→r,andE→tdenote incident, reflected, and transmitted electric field
vectors associated with the wave.

The expression for E rE→r is

(a)0.23E02√(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x−z)32√V/m0.23E02(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x−z)32V/m
(b)−E02√(a^x+a^z)ejπ×104z3V/m−E02(a^x+a^z)ejπ×104z3V/m
(c)0.44E02√(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x−z)32√V/m0.44E02(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x−z)32V/m
(d) E02√(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x+z)3V/mE02(a^x+a^z)e−jπ×104(x+z)3V/m
3. The electric field of an EM wave in dielectric of relative permittivity ϵr = 2
is E =25sin(ωt−3x−4y)a^zE→=25sin⁡(ωt−3x−4y)a^z is incident at an angle 60° to the normal to the dielectric
air interface at y = 0 plane. The magnetic field of the reflected wave is:

(a)−5120πsin(ωt−3x+4y)(4a^x+3a^y)−5120πsin⁡(ωt−3x+4y)(4a^x+3a^y)

(b)−52√120πsin(ωt−3x+4y)(4a^x+3a^y)−52120πsin⁡(ωt−3x+4y)(4a^x+3a^y)
(c)52√120πsin(ωt−3x−4y)(4a^x−3a^y)52120πsin⁡(ωt−3x−4y)(4a^x−3a^y)
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(d)−5120πsin(ωt−3x−4y)(4a^x−3a^y)

4. The input impedance of a lossless transmission line

(a)Periodic with period λ/2

(b)Periodic with period λλ
(c)Periodic with period λ4λ4
(d)Aperiodic

5. A plane wave of wavelength λ is travelling in a direction making an angle 30° with positive x – axis and 90°
with positive y – axis. The E¯E¯ field of the plane wave can be represented as (E0 is a constant)

1
(a)E =y^E0ej(ωt−3√πλx−πλz)E→=y^E0ej(ωt−3πλx−πλz)
(b)E =y^E0ej(ωt−πλx−3√πλz)E→=y^E0ej(ωt−πλx−3πλz)

(c)E =y^E0ej(ωt+3√πλx+πλz)E→=y^E0ej(ωt+3πλx+πλz)

(d)E =y^E0ej(ωt−πλx+3√πλz)E→=y^E0ej(ωt−πλx+3πλz)

6. If C is a closed curve enclosing a surface S, then the magnetic field intensity H H→ the current
density J J→ and the electric flux density D D→ are related by

(a)∫∫sH ⋅ds =∮c(J +∂D ∂t)⋅dl ∫∫sH→⋅ds→=∮c⁡(J→+∂D→∂t)⋅dl→

(b)∬cH ⋅dl =∯s(J +∂D ∂t) ds ∬cH→⋅ dl→=∯s(J→+∂D→∂t)⋅ ds→

(c)∯sH ds =∫c(J +∂D ∂t) dl ∯sH→⋅ ds→=∫c⁡(J→+∂D→∂t)⋅ dl→

( ) = s( + t) s
7. An air-filled rectangular waveguide has inner dimensions of 3cm×2cm3cm×2cm. The wave impedance of
the TE20TE20 mode of propagation in the waveguide at a frequency of 30 GHz30 GHz is (free space
impedance η∘ =377 Ωη∘ =377 Ω)

(a)308 Ω

(b)355 Ω

(c)400 Ω
(d)461 Ω
8. The H H→ field (in A/m) of a plane wave propagating in free space is given by
H =x^53√ηo.cos(ωt−βz)+y^5ηosin(ωt−βz+π2)H→=x^53ηo.cos⁡(ωt−βz)+y^5ηosin⁡(ωt−βz+π2).The time
average power density in Watts is

20
(a)ηo/100 (b)100/η0
(c)50ηo2 ( )50ηo

9. The E E→ field in a rectangular waveguide of inner dimensions a × b is given by

E =ωμh2.(πa).Ho.sin(2πxa).sin(ωt−β.z)y^E→=ωμh2.(πa).Ho.sin⁡(2πxa).sin(ωt−β.z)y^
when H0 is a constant, and a and b are the dimensions along the x – axis and the y – axis respectively. The mode
of propagation in the waveguide is

(a)TE20
(b)TM11
(c)TM20

(d)TE10

10. A load of 50 Ω is connected in shunt in a 2-wire transmission line of Z0 = 50 Ω as shown in the figure. The
2-port scattering parameter matrix (S-matrix) of the shunt element

(a)[ −1/2 1/2

1/2 -1/2]
(b)[0 1
1 0]
(c)[−1/3 2/3
2/3 −1/3]

(d)[1/4 −3/4
−3/4 1/4]
11. A λo2λo2 dipole is kept horizontally at a height of λ02λ02 above a perfectly conducting infinite ground
plane. The radiation pattern in the plane of the dipole (E plane)(E→plane) looks approximately as

(a)

21
(b)

(c)

(d)

12. A right circularly polarized (RCP) plane wave is incident at an angle of 60° to the
normal, on an air-dielectric interface. If the reflected wave is linearly polarized, the
relative dielectric constant ϵr2ϵr2 is

(a)√2

(b)√3

(c)2

(d)3

13.If and assume negative values ina certain frequecy range then the direction of the propagation vector K and
poynting vector S in that frequency range are related are

(a)k and S are parallel

(b)k and S are anti-parallel
(c)k and S are perpendicular to each other
(d)k and S makes an angle that depends on the magnitude of |ε| and |μ|

22
14. A rectangular waveguide of internal dimensions (a = 4 cm and b = 3 cm) is to be operated in TE 11 mode.
The minimum operating frequency is:

(a)6.25 GHz (b)6.0 GHz

(c)5.0 GHz (d)3.75 GHz
15. One end of a lossless transmission line having the characteristic impedance of 75 Ω and length of 1 cm is
short-circuited. At 3GHz, the input impedance at the other end of the transmission line is

(a)0
(b)Resistive
(c)Capacitive

(d)Inductive
16. A uniform plane wave in the free space is normally incident on an infinitely thick dielectric slab (dielectric
constant ϵr=9ϵr=9). The magnitude of the reflection coefficient is

(a)0
(b)0.3

(c)0.5
(d)0.8

17. In the design of a single mode step index optical fiber close to upper cut-off, the single-mode operation is
NOT preserved if

(a)radius as well as operating wavelength are halved

(b)radius as well as operating wavelength are doubled

(c)radius is halved and operating wavelength is doubled

(d)radius is doubled and operating wavelength is halved

18. At 20 GHz, the gain of a parabolic dish antenna of 1 meter diameter and 70% efficiency is

(a)15 dB
(b)25 dB
(c)35 dB

(d)45 dB
19. Which of the following statements is true regarding the fundamental mode of the metallic waveguides
shown?

23
(a)Only P has no cutoff-frequency (b)Only Q has no cutoff-frequency
(c)Only R has no cutoff-frequency (d)All three have cut-off frequencies

20.If a vector field V V→ is related to another vector

field A A→ through V = ×A V→=∇ ×A→ , which of the following is true ? Note : C and
SC respectively refer to any closed contour and any surface whose boundary is C.

(a) cV dl→=∫ c∫A ⋅ ds→⁡

(b) A →= V ⋅ s→
(c) c V dl→=∫ c∫ ×A ⋅ ds→
(d) c ×A dl→=∫ c∫V ⋅ ds→
21. A transmission line terminates in two branches, each of length λ4λ4, as shown. The branches are terminated
by 50Ω50Ω loads. The lines are lossless and have the characteristic impedances shown. Determine the
impedance ZiZi as seen by the source.

(a)200 Ω

(b)100 Ω
(c)50 Ω

( )25 Ω
22. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω and a resistance of 0.1 Ω/m. If the line is
distortionless, the attenuation constant (in Np/m) is

(a)500
(b)5
(c)0.014

(d)0.002
23. The electric field component of a time harmonic plane EM wave traveling in a nonmagnetic lossless
dielectric medium has an amplitude of 1 V/m. If the relative permittivity of the medium is 4, the magnitude of
the time-average power density vector (in W/m2) is

24
(a)130/π
(b)160/π

( )1120/π
(d)1240/π

24.A plane wave having the electric field

component E i=24cos(3×108t−βy)a^z)E→i=24cos⁡(3×108t−βy)a^z) V/m and traveling in free space is
incident normally on a lossless medium with μ=μ0μ=μ0 and ε=9ε0ε=9ε0 which occupies the region y ≥ 0. The
reflected magnetic field component is given by

(a)110π os(3×108t+βy)a^xAm
(b)120πcos(3×108t+βy)a^xAm
(c)−120πcos(3×108t+βy)a^xAm
(d)−110πcos(3×108t+βy)a^xAm

25. In the circuit shown, all the transmission line sections are lossless. The characteristic impedance of the line
with shorted section is 30 Ω30 Ω and characteristic impedance of the section with load ZLZL is 302–
√ Ω302 Ω. The Voltage tanding Wave Ratio (V WR) on the 60 Ωlineis:

(a)1.00

(b)1.64
(c)2.50

(d)3.00
26. A transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is terminated by a 50 Ω load. When excited by a
sinusoidal voltage source at 10 GHz, the phase difference between two points spaced 2 mm apart on the line is
found to be π/4 radians. The phase velocity of the wave along the line is

(a)0.8 × 108 m/s (b)1.2 × 108 m/s

(c)1.6 × 108 m/s (d)3 × 108 m/s

25
27. Consider the following statements regarding the complex oynting vector → for the power radiated
by a point source in an infinite homogeneous and lossless medium. Re( )Re( →) denotes the real part
of → , S denotes a spherical surface whose centre is at the point source, and n^n^denotes the unit surface
normal on S. which of the following statements is TRUE ?

(a)Re(P. )Re( →) remains constant at any radian distance from the source
(b)Re( .)Re( →) increases with increasing radial distance from the source

(c).sRe(P. ).n^ ds. ∯sRe(P→)⋅ n^ s→ remains constant at any radial distance from the source
(d).sRe(P.).n^ ds. ∯sRe( →)⋅ n^ ds→ decreases with increasing radial distance from the source
28. A transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is terminated in a load impedance ZL. The VSWR of
the line is measured as 5 and first of the voltage maxima in the line is observed at a distance of λ/4 from the
load. The value of ZL is

(a)10 Ω
(b)250 Ω
(c)(19.23 + j46.15) Ω
(d)(19.23 – j46.15) Ω

29. The electric and magnetic fields for a TEM wave of frequency 14 GHz in a homogenous medium of relative
permittivity εr and relative permeability μr = 1 are given by
E =E ej(ωt−280πy)u^zVmE→=E ej(ωt−280πy)u^zVm and H=3ej(ωt−280πy)u^xAmH=3ej(ωt−280πy)u^xA
m
Assuming the speed of light in free space to be 3 × 108 m/s, the intrinsic impedance of free space to be 120π, the
relative permittivity εr of the medium and the electric field amplitude EpEp are
(a)εr = 3, Ep = 120π

(b)εr = 3, Ep = 360π
(c)εr = 9, Ep = 360π

( )εr = 9, Ep = 120π
30. The modes in a rectangular waveguide are denoted by TE mn/TMmn where m and n are the eigen numbers
along the larger and smaller dimensions of the waveguide respectively. Which one of the following statements
is TRUE?

(a)The TM10 mode of the waveguide does not exist

(b)The TE10 mode of the waveguide does not exist
(c)The TM10 and the TE10 modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies
(d)The TM10 and the TM01 modes both exist and have the same cut-off frequencies

26
31. The electric field of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave in free space, travelling along the
positive x direction, is given byE =10(a^y+ja^z)e−j25xE→=10(a^y+ja^z)e−j25x The frequency and
polarization of the wave, respectively, are:

(a)1.2 GHz and left circular (b)4 Hz and left circular

(c)1.2 GHz and right circular (d)4 Hz and right circular
32. The radiation pattern of an antenna in spherical co-ordinates is given by
F(θ)=cos2θ,0≤θ≤π/2F(θ)=cos2θ,0≤θ≤π/2.The directivity of the antenna is
(a)10 dB
(b)12.6 dB

(c)11.5 dB
(d)18 dB
33. A transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 100 Ω is used to match a 50 Ω section to a 200 Ω
section. If the matching is to be done both at 429 MHz and 1 GHz, the length of the transmission line can be
approximately:
(a)82.5 cm
(b)1.05 m

(c)1.58 m
(d)1.75 m
34.The direction of vector A. A→ is radially outward from the origin,
with A=krn|A→|=krn where r2=x2+y2+z2r2=x2+y2+z2and kk is a constant. The value of n for
which .A =0∇ →.A→=0

(a)-2
(b)-1
(c)0
(d)1

35. An infinitely long uniform solid wire of radius a carries a uniform dc current of density J J→ .The
magnetic field at a distance r from the center of the wire is proportional to

(a)r for r < a and 1/r2 for r > a

(b)0 for r < a and 1/r for r > a

(c)r for r < a and 1/r for r > a

(d)0 for r < a and 1/r2 for r > a

36. An infinitely long uniform solid wire of radius a carries a uniform dc current of density J J→ .A hole of
radius b (b < a) is now drilled along the length of the wire at a distance d from the center of the wire as shown
below.
27
The magnetic field inside the hole is

(a)uniform and depends only on d

(b)uniform and depends only on b
(c)uniform and depends on both b and d
(d)non uniform
37. Consider a vector field A (r )A→(r→). The closed loop line integral Adl ∮ A→⋅ dl→ can be expressed
as

(a) s(.×A )ds ∯s(∇ →×A→)⋅ ds→ over the closed surface bounded by the loop.
(b)(.A )dv∰(∇ →⋅ A→)dv over the closed volume bounded by the loop.
(c)(.A )dv∭(∇ →⋅ A→)dv over the open volume bounded by the loop.

( )(.×A ). s ∬(∇ →×A→). s→. over the open surface bounded by the loop.
38. The divergence of the vector field A =xa^x+ya^y+za^zA→=xa^x+ya^y+za^z

(a)0

(b)1/3
(c)1

(d)3
39. The return loss of a device is found to be 20 dB. The voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) and magnitude of
reflection coefficient are respectively,

(a)1.22 and 0.1

(b)0.81 and 0.1
(c)-1.22 and 0.1
(d)2.44 and 0.2

28
40. Match column A with column B.

(a)1 → , 2 → Q, 3 → R

(b)1 → R, 2 → P, 3 → Q
(c)1 → Q, 2 → , 3 → R
(d)1 → R, 2 → Q, 3 →
41. E=−(2y3−3yz2)x^−(6xy2−3xz2)y^+(6xyz)z^E=−(2y3−3yz2)x^−(6xy2−3xz2)y^+(6xyz)z^is the electric
field in a source free region, a valid expression for the electrostatic potential is:

(a)xy3 – yz2
(b)2xy3 – xyz2
(c)y3 + xyz2

(d)2xy3 – 3xyz2
42. The directivity of an antenna array can be increased by adding more antenna elements, as a large number of
elements

(a)Improves the radiation efficiency

(b)Increases the effective area of the antenna
(c)Results in a better impedance matching
(d)Allows more power to be transmitted by the antenna
43. Consider the 3 m long lossless air-filled transmission line shown in the figure. It has a characteristic
impedance of 120π Ω, is terminated by a short circuit, and is excited with a frequency of 37.5MHz What is the
nature of the input impedance (Zin) ?

29
(a)Open
(b)Short
(c)Inductive

(d)Capacitive
44. A coaxial cable with an inner diameter of 1 mm and outer diameter of 2.4 mm is filled with a dielectric of
relative permittivity 10.89. Given μ0=4π×10−7H/mμ0=4π×10−7H/m and ε0=10−936πFmε0=10−936πFm the
characteristic impedance of the cable is:

(a)330 Ω

(b)100 Ω
(c)143.3 Ω

( )16 Ω
45. Two positive charges QQ and 4Q4Q are separated by a distance dd in air. A third charge qq is so placed that
the entire system is in equilibrium. The charge qq is equal to

(a)−2Q/3
(b)Q/3

( )−4Q/9
(d)−5Q/3
46. A current sheet J =10u^yA/mJ→=10u^yA/m lies on the dielectric interface x = 0 between two dielectric
media with εr1=5,μr1=1εr1=5,μr1=1 in Region–1 (x < 0) and εr2=2,μr2=2εr2=2,μr2=2 Region–2 (x > 0). If the
magnetic field in Region-1 at x = 0 is H 1=3u^x+30u^yA/mH→1=3u^x+30u^yA/m the magnetic field in
Region-2 at x = 0+ is

(a) 2=1.5u^x+30u^y−10u^zAm →2=1.5u^x+30u^y−10u^zAm

(b)H 2=3u^x+30u^y−10u^zAmH→2=3u^x+30u^y−10u^zAm
(c)H 2=1.5u^x+40u^yAmH→2=1.5u^x+40u^yAm
(d)H 2=3u^x+30u^y+10u^zAm

47. Consider a closed surface surrounding a volume V. If r r→ is the position vector of a point inside S,
with n^n^ the unit normal on S, the value of the integral .s5r n^ ds ∯s5r→⋅ n^ ds→ is

(a)3 V (b)5 V
30
(c)10 V (d)15 V
48. Two infinitely long wires carrying current are as shown in the figure below. One wire is in the y–z plane
and parallel to the y–axis. The other wire is in the x–y plane and parallel to the x–axis. Which components of
the resulting magnetic field are non-zero at the origin ?

(a)x, y, z components
(b)x, y components
(c)y, z components

(d)x, z components
49. The parallel branches of a 2 – wire transmission line are terminate in 100 Ω and 200 Ω resistors as shown in
the figure. The characteristic impedance of the line is Z0 = 50 Ω and each section has a length of λ/4. The
voltage reflection coefficient ΓΓ at the input is

(a)−j7/5
(b)−5/7
(c)j5/7

(d)5/7
50. For a Hertz dipole antenna, the half power beam width (HPBW) in the E-plane is

(a)360° (b)180°

(c)90° (d)45°

31
32
 LINEAR AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUIT

1. The output of an AND gate with three inputs, A, B, and C, is HIGH when ________.

a.A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

b.A = 0, B = 0, C = 0

c.A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

d.A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

2. If a 3-input NOR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will result in a HIGH
output?

a.1

b.2

c.7

d.8

3. If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a LOW into one of the inputs, and the output is
HIGH, the gate is a(n):

a.AND

b.NAND

c.NOR

d.OR

4. A device used to display one or more digital signals so that they can be compared to expected timing
diagrams for the signals is a:

a.DMM

b.spectrum analyzer

c.logic analyzer

d.frequency counter

33
5. When used with an IC, what does the term "QUAD" indicate?

a.2 circuits

b.4 circuits

c.6 circuits

d.8 circuits

6. A truth table illustrates how the input level of a gate responds to all the possible output level combinations.

a. True

b. False

7. A NOR gate output is LOW if any of its inputs is LOW.

a. True

b. False

8. As a rule, CMOS has the lowest power consumption of all IC families.

a. True

b. False

9. A popular waveform generator is the Johnson shift counter.

a .True

b. False

10. Good troubleshooting is done by looking at the input signal and how it interacts with the circuits.

a. True

b .False

11 .The gates in this figure are implemented using TTL logic. If the input of the inverter is open, and you apply
logic pulses to point B, the output of the AND gate will be ________.

a. a steady LOW

b. a steady HIGH

c. an undefined level

d. pulses

34
12. The gates in this figure are implemented using TTL logic. If the output of the inverter is open, and you
apply logic pulses to point B, the output of the AND gate will be ________.

a. a steady LOW

b .a steady HIGH

c. an undefined level

d. pulses

13. If A is LOW or B is LOW or BOTH are LOW, then X is LOW. If A is HIGH and B is HIGH, then X is
HIGH. These rules specify the operation of a(n) ________.

a.AND gate

b.OR gate

c.NAND gate

d.XOR gate

14. A major advantage of ECL logic over TTL and CMOS is ________.

a. low power dissipation

b. high speed

c. both low power dissipation and high speed

d. neither low power dissipation nor high speed

15. The output of an XOR gate is HIGH only when ________.

a. both inputs = 0

b .both inputs = 1

c. the two inputs are unequal

d. both inputs are undefined

16. The output of an OR gate with three inputs, A, B, and C, is LOW when
________.

a.A = 0, B = 0, C = 0

b.A = 0, B = 0, C = 1

c.A = 0, B = 1, C = 1

35
 d. all of the above

17. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean algebra?

a .Inversion

b.AND

c.OR

d. complementation

18. Output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero for a(n):

a.OR gate

b.NOT gate

c.AND gate

d.NOR gate

19. How many pins does the 4049 IC have?

a.14

b.16

c.18

d.20

20. Which of the following choices meets the minimum requirement needed to create specialized waveforms
that are used in digital control and sequencing circuits?

a. basic gates, a clock oscillator, and a repetitive waveform generator

b. basic gates, a clock oscillator, and a Johnson shift counter

c. basic gates, a clock oscillator, and a De Morgan pulse generator

d. basic gates, a clock oscillator, a repetitive waveform generator, and a Johnson shift count

21. TTL operates from a ________.

a.9-volt supply

b.3-volt supply

c.12-volt supply

36
 d.5-volt supply

22. The output of a NOR gate is HIGH if ________.

a. all inputs are HIGH

b. any input is HIGH

c. any input is LOW

d. all inputs are LOW

23.The switching speed of CMOS is now ________.

a. competitive with TTL

b. three times that of TTL

c. slower than TTL

d. twice that of TTL

24. The format used to present the logic output for the various combinations of logic inputs to a gate is called
a(n):

a. Boolean constant

b. Boolean variable

c. truth table

d. input logic function

25. The power dissipation, PD, of a logic gate is the product of the ________.

a. dc supply voltage and the peak current

b. dc supply voltage and the average supply current

c.ac supply voltage and the peak current

d.ac supply voltage and the average supply current

26. If a 3-input AND gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will result in a HIGH
output?

a.1

b.2

c.7

37
 d.8

27. The Boolean expression for a 3-input AND gate is ________.

a.X = AB

b.X = ABC

c.X = A + B + C

d.X = AB + C

28. A CMOS IC operating from a 3-volt supply will consume ________.

a. less power than a TTL IC

b. more power than a TTL IC

c. the same power as a TTL IC

d. no power at all

29. What does the small bubble on the output of the NAND gate logic symbol mean?

a. open collector output

b. Tristate

c. The output is inverted.

d. none of the above

30. A NOR gate and an OR gate operate in exactly the same way.

a. True

b. False

31. Which of the following is used as a passive component in electronic circuits?

a. Tunnel diode

b. Capacitor

c. Transistor

38
 d. Vacuum tube

Peak inverse voltage will be highest for

32.
a. half wave rectifier

b. full wave rectifier

c. bridge rectifier

d. three phase full wave rectifier

33. The relation between plate current and plate voltage of a vacuum diode is called
a. Richardson Dushman equation

b. Langmuir Child law

c. Ohm's law

d. Boltzmann's law

34. Which one of the following gain equations is correct for a MOSFET common-source amplifier?
(gm is mutual conductance, and RD is load resistance at the drain)
a. AV = gm/(1 - RD)

b. AV = gm/RD

c. AV = gm/(1 + RD)

d. AV = RD/gm

35. Figure represents a

a. Tunnel diode

b. PNP transistor

c. Photo sensitive diode

39
 d. Photo emissive diode

A differential amplifier is invariably used in the I/P stage of all OP-amps. This is done basically to produce
36. the OP-amp with a very high.
a. CMRR

b. Bandwidth

c. slew rate

d. open-loop gain

37. Assertion (A): Hall effect is used to find the type of semiconductor.
Reason (R): When a specimen of semiconductor carrying current I lies in a magnetic field the force on
electrons and holes is in opposite directions.
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

38. In a JFET, the drain current is maximum when

a. VGS = 0

b. VGS is not zero but is slightly negative

c. VGS is negative

d. VGS is negative and equal to VDS

39. Higher value of ripple factor indicates

a. poor rectification

b. ideal rectification

c. r.m.s. value to peak value

40
 d none of the above

40. In an n channel JFET, VGS = VGS(off). Then

a. ID is zero

b. ID may be zero or positive

c. ID is positive

d. ID may be zero or negative

41. The circuit shown in the figure is best described as a

a. bridge rectifier

b. ring modulator

c. frequency discriminator

d. voltage doubler

42. The O/P Power of a power amplifier is several times its input power. It is possible because
a. power amplifier introduces a -ve resistance

b. there is +ve feed back in the circuit

c. step up transformer is use in the circuit

d. power amplifier converts a part of I/P d.c. power into a.c. power

43. In forward active region, the operation of a BJT

a. both junctions are forward biased

41
 b. both junctions are reverse biased

c. emitter base junction is forward biased and base collector junction is reverse biased

d. emitter base junction is reverse biased and base collector junction is reverse biased

44. The merging of a hole and an electron is called

a. recombination

b. covalent bonding

c. thermal union

d none of the above

45. To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use

a. resistor between source and load

b. inductor between source and load

c. capacitor between source and load

d. either (a) or (b)

46. For a base current of 10 μA, what is the value of collector current in common emitter if β dc = 100
a. 10 μA

b. 100 μA

c. 1 mA

d. 10 mA

47. The load impedance ZL of a CE amplifier has R and L in series. The phase difference between output and
input will be
a. 180°

b. 0

c. more than 90° but less than 180°

42
 d. more than 180° but less than 270°

To protect the diodes in a rectifier and capacitor input filter circuit it is necessary to use
48.
a. surge resistor

b. surge inductor

c. surge capacitor

d. both (a) and (b)

49. In a CE amplifier the input impedance is equal to the ratio of

a. ac base voltage to ac base current

b. ac base voltage to ac emitter current

c. ac emitter voltage to ac collector current

d. ac collector voltage to ac collector current

50. For a system to work, as oscillator the total phase shift of the loop gain must be equal to
a. 90°

b. 45°

c. 270°

d. 360°

43
44
 MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION
1) If one meter A requires 80 mA to give full scale deflection and another meter B requires 60 mA
to give full scale deflection, then the
a. Meter A is more sensitive
b. Both meters are equally sensitive
c. Meter B is more sensitive
d. Insufficient data

2) To produce a change in deflection of 1.5 mm of the galvanometer of Wheatstone bridge,

a change of 5 Ω in the unknown arm of bridge is required. The sensitivity is
a. 0.2 mm / Ω
b. 0.3 mm / Ω
c. 0.4 mm / Ω
d. 0.5 mm / Ω

3) Resolution of an instrument is specified as an

a. Absolute value
b. Percentage of full scale deflection
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these

4) If a voltmeter can measure up to 150 V and it has 150 scale divisions where each division can
read to ¾ divisions. Then the resolution of the voltmeter is
a. 0.5 V
b. 0.25 V
c. 0.75 V
d. 1 V

5) The smallest change which can be measured by the transducer of the range of 0 to 150 N
force and resolution of 0.1 % of full scale is
a. 0.1 N
b. 0.15 N
c. 0.3 N
d. 0.35 N

6) Zero drift or bias describes the effect

a. Where the zero reading of an instrument is modified by a change in ambient conditions
b. Where the zero reading is achieved by increasing sensitivity

45
c. Where the zero reading is achieved by increasing linearity
d. None of these

7) The zero drift is measured in units of

a. Volts – °C
b. Volts / °C
c. °C / volts
d. (volts)2 / °C

8) The sensitivity drift is also known as scale factor drift defines the amount by which an
instruments sensitivity of measurement varies as ambient conditions change. It is measured in units
of
a. (angular degree / bar) / °C
b. °C / (angular degree / bar)
c. (angular degree – bar) / °C
d. °C / (angular degree – bar)

9) In indicating instruments, the controlling and restoring torque can be obtained by using
a. Spring
b. Gravity
c. Either by spring or by gravity
d. Neither by spring nor by gravity

10) The restoring torque in a spring controlled indicating instrument is

a. Directly proportional to the angle of deflection of moving system
b. Directly proportional to the sine of angle of deflection of moving system
c. Inversely proportional to the angle of deflection of moving system
d. Directly proportional to the square of the angle of deflection of moving system

11) The deflecting torque in a permanent magnet moving coil type instrument is
a. Directly proportional to the angle of deflection of moving system
b. Directly proportional to the current flowing through it
c. Directly proportional to the angle
d. Inversely proportional to the current flowing through it

12) The spring which is used for producing controlling torque in indicating instruments
are made up of materials which is / are
a. Non – magnetic
b. Not subjected to much fatigue
c. Low specific resistance and low temperature resistance coefficient
d. All of these

46
13) If the control springs of PMMC instrument is made up of large moment of inertia, then it can be
used as
a. Ammeter
b. Fluxmeter
c. Ballistic galvanometer
d. Wattmeter

14) The ratio of maximum current (with shunt) to the full scale deflection current (without current)
in a permanent magnet moving coil instrument is known as
a. Sensitivity
b. Multiplying factor
c. Multiplying power
d. Both (b) and (c)

15) The multiplying factor of a PMMC used as ammeter is

a. Directly proportional to the shunt resistance
b. Inversely proportional to the shunt resistance
c. Inversely proportional to the series resistance
d. Directly proportional to the series resistance

16) The voltage multiplication factor of a PMMC instrument is

a. Directly proportional to the required series resistance
b. Directly proportional to the shunt resistance
c. Inversely proportional to the shunt resistance
d. Directly proportional to the required series resistance

17) A moving coil ammeter requires a potential difference of 0.4 V across it for full scaledeflection.
It has fixed shunt resistance of 0.01 ohm with a coil circuit resistance of R = 1kohm. The value of
shunt required to give full scale deflection when the total current is 10 A is equal to
a. 0.02 ohm
b. 0.04 ohm
c. 0.05 ohm
d. 0.06 ohm

18) A PMMC instrument gives full scale deflection at 40 mV potential difference and 8 mA
current. What will be the required shunt resistance when it is used as ammeter of range 0 – 10 A?
a. 0.002 ohm
b. 0.003 ohm
c. 0.004 ohm
d. 0.005 ohm

47
19) A permanent magnet moving coil gives full scale deflection at 40 mV potential difference and 8
mA current. What will be the required series resistance when it is used as voltmeter of range 0 – 200
V?
a. 19556 ohm
b. 20163 ohm
c. 23884 ohm
d. 24995 ohm

20) In electrodynamic instruments, the operating field is produced by

a. Permanent magnet
b. Fixed coil
c. Moving coil
d. All of these

21) The sensitivity of Wheatstone bridge is defined as ratio of

a. Deflection of the galvanometer to the unit fractional change in the value of unknown
resistance
b. Square of the deflection of the galvanometer to the unit fractional change in the value of unknown
resistance
c. Deflection of the galvanometer to the twice of the unit fractional change in the value of unknown
resistance
d. Unit fractional change in the value of unknown resistance to the deflection of the galvanometer

22) The sensitivity of the bridge is maximum when

a. P / R = Q / S = 0
b. P / R = 1
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

23) During a test, the strain gauge with resistance of 200 ohm undergoes a change of 0.120 ohm and
the strain of the gauge is 1.2 X 10 -4. Then the gauge factor will be
a. 4
b. 5
c. 4.5
d. 6

24) If C4 is the capacitance and R4 is the resistance of Hay’s bridge, then the Q factor of Hay’s
bridge is given by
a. 1 / (ω C4 R4)
b. ω C4 R4
c. (ω C4) / R4

48
d. (ω R4) / C4

25) The Hay’s bridge is suitable for the measurement of inductances of coils with Q factor
a. More than 10
b. Less than 1
c. More than 1
d. Less than 10

26) Anderson bridges is suitable for the measurement of

a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. All of these

27) Induction wattmeters can be used with

a. Only AC supply
b. Only DC supply
c. Both AC and DC supply
d. None of these

28) The frequency and supply voltage of induction wattmeters are

a. Constant, constant
b. Constant, variable
c. Variable, constant
d. Variable, variable

29) In induction type wattmeter both current and pressure coils are required. For obtaining the
required phase difference
a. Shaded pole principle is used
b. Two separate ac magnets are used
c. Only one ac magnets are used
d. All of these

30) The scale of induction wattmeter extends over

a. 70 degree
b. 120 degree
c. 180 degree
d. 300 degree

31) In induction watt – hour meter, due to shunt magnet the torque is not zero power factor. It can
be compensated by using
a. Shading ring

49
b. Power factor compensator
c. Drilling holes in the disc on a diameter
d. Both (a) and (b)

32) For friction compensation in an induction watt-hour meter is done by making

a. The ratio of the shunt magnet flux and series magnet flux large with the help of two shading
bands
b. The ratio of the series magnet flux and shunt magnet flux large with the help of two shading bands
c. The ratio of the shunt magnet flux and series magnet flux large with the help of three shading
bands
d. The ratio of the series magnet flux and shunt magnet flux large with the help of three shading
bands

33) The phase difference between two waveforms in the below figure is given by

a. ∅ = sin -1 Y1 / Y2
b. ∅ = sin -1 Y2 / Y1
c. ∅ = tan -1 Y2 / Y1
d. ∅ = tan -1 Y1 / Y2

34) Function of transducer is to convert

a. Electrical signal into non electrical quantity
b. Non electrical quantity into electrical signal
c. Electrical signal into mechanical quantity
d. All of these

35) Potentiometric transducers are used for the measurement of

a. Pressure
b. Displacement
c. Humidity
d. Both (a) and (b)

36) The most common application of float system is

a. To monitor the fuel tank level in motor vehicle

50
b. To monitor the flow of solid
c. To monitor the flow of liquid
d. All of these

37) Capacitive devices are used for the level measurement of

a. Only liquid
b. Solid in powdered form
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

38) In ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source is placed at the

a. Bottom of the vessel containing the liquid
b. Top of the vessel containing the liquid
c. Middle of the vessel containing the liquid
d. Far from the vessel containing the liquid

39) In the beginning, all the outputs of the successive approximation type register is at
a. Logic zero
b. Logic one
c. Toggling
d. None of these

40) Q meter is used to measure the properties of

a. Inductive coils
b. Non inductive coils
c. Capacitive coils
d. Both (a) and (c)

41) Considering cost of instruments, which is better choice, active or passive?

a. Active instruments
b. Passive instruments
c. Cost of both active and passive instruments are approximately same
d. None of these

42) In deadweight gauge, weights are added on the top of piston until the piston reaches a
datum level. The datum level is known as
a. Null point, where the downward force balances the fluid pressure
b. Lowest point of the container
c. Highest level of fluid in the container
d. None of these

51
43) The accuracy of the deflection type instruments and of the null type instruments depends on
a. Linearity, calibration of spring
b. Calibration of spring, linearity and calibration of weights
c. Linearity and calibration of spring, calibration of weights
d. Both depends on calibration of weight

44) In terms of usage, deflection type instruments are

a. More convenient than null type instrument
b. Less convenient than null type instruments
c. Both are equally convenient
d. None of these

45) The output of an analogue instrument varies

a. Continuously and can have an infinite number of values within its range of instruments
b. In discrete steps and can have an infinite number of values within its range of instruments
c. Continuously and can have an finite number of values within its range of instruments
d. In discrete steps and can have an infinite number of values within its range of instruments

46) To read and record a measurement, the indicating type instruments

a. Always requires human intervention
b. Does not requires human intervention
c. Requires human intervention only when the instrument consists of a rotating pointer moving
against a scale
d. Requires human intervention only when the instrument consists of a rotating scale moving against
a pointer

47) The electromagnetic effect is generally utilized for

a. Ammeters
b. Voltmeters
c. Wattmeters and watt – hour meters
d. All of these

48) The electrostatic effect is utilized for

a. Ammeters
b. Voltmeters
c. D.C. ampere – hour meters
d. Wattmeters

49) The instrument which can be used only with the D.C. supply is

52
a. PMMC instrument b. Electrodynamometer instrument
c. Hot – wire instrument d. Split phase induction type instrument

50) The instrument which can be used only with the A.C. supply is / are
a. Induction type
b. Electrostatic type
c. Electrodynamometer type
d. All of these

53
54
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1.Direct water cooling of rotor winding presents

(a) no mechanical difficulties

(b) lesser mechanical difficulties
(c) greater mechanical difficulties
(d) none of the above

2.The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its final steady temperature rise is called

(a) heating time constant

(b) cooling time constant
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

3.In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about ______ than the heating time constant because
cooling conditions are worse at standstill.

(a) 2 to 3 times greater

(b) 3 to 4 times greater
(c) 4 to 5 times greater
(d) none of the above

4.By which of the following methods motor rating for variable load drives can be determined ?

(a) Method of average losses

(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Equivalent power method
(e) All of the above.

5.Which of the following methods does not take into account the maximum temperature rise under
variable load conditions ?
(a) Equivalent power method
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Method of average losses
(d) Equivalent torque method

55
6.Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be called

(a) “supercharged”
(b) “inner cooled”
(c) “conductor cooled”
(d) any of the above

7.In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and rotor conductors are made

(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
(d) any ofthe above

8.With direct water cooling it is possible to have ratings of about

(a) 200 MW
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW

9.The resistivity of water should not be less than

(a) 10 Q m
(b) 100 Q m
(c) 1000 Q m
(d) 2000 Q m

10.Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient _____ times that of air

(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5

11.The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is ______ times that of air

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

12.With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to increase the rating of a single unit to

(a) 50 MW (b)100 MW (c)200 MW (d)none of the above

56
13.The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less as the rotor moves in a medium of smaller density.

(a) air
(b) hydrogen
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

14.cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and field winding losses to a cooling medium circulating
within the winding insulation wall

(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
(d) Any of the above

15.The increase in heat dissipation by air blasts is due to increase in

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) any ofthe above
16.On which of the following variables heat convected depends ?

(a) Power density

(b) Temperature difference between heated surface and coolant
(c) Thermal resistivity, density, specific heat
(d) Gravitational constant
(e) All of the above
17.Which of the following methods is used for air cooling of turbo-alternators ?

(a) One sided axial ventilation

(b) Two sided axial ventilation
(c) Multiple inlet system
(d) All of the above

18.Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators can be used for machines of rating upto

(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW

57
19.Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen cooling ?

(a) Increase in efficiency

(b) Increase in ratings
(c) Increase in life
(d) Smaller size of coolers
(e) All of the above
20.Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in ______ transformers, decreases the overall cost of the
transformer

(a) small size

(b) medium size
(c) large size
(d) any of the above size

21.Which of the following materials is used in the manufacture of resistance grids to be used in the starters of
large motors ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Cast iron

22.Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are known as ______ .

(a) conductors
(b) semiconductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors

23.________ has a lowrelative permeability and is used principally in field frames when cost is of primary
importance and extra weight is not objectionable.

(a) Cast steel

(b) Aluminium
(c) Soft steel
(d) Cast iron

24.______is extensively used for those portions of magnetic circuit which carry steady flux and need superior
mechanical properties ?

(a) Grey cast-iron

(b) Cast steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Stainless steel

58
25.Hot rolled sheets have ______ value of permeability

(a) zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) none of the above

26.The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat into their surroundings by which of the following
modes of heat dissipation ?

(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) All of the above

27. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?

(a) Low voltage winding

(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding

28. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when

(a) load is unbalanced only

(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(d) none of the above

29. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when

(a) load is balanced only

(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(d) none of the above

30. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against

(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself

(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
(d) none of the above

59
31. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because it has

(a) small air gap

(b) large leakage flux
(c) laminated silicon steel core
(d) fewer rotating parts

32. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer ?

(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) Any of the above

33. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for transformer core ?

(a) Low hysteresis loss

(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength

34.The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have

(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance

35. Noise level test in a transformer is a

(a) special test

(b) routine test
(c) type test
(d) none of the above

36. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ?

(a) Core insulation voltage test

(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test

37. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at

(a) leading power factor (b) lagging power factor

(c) unity power factor (d)zero power factor

60
38. Helical coils can be used on

(a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers

(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers

39. Harmonics in transformer result in

(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
(d) all of the above

40. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually

(a) copper core

(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
(d) mild steel core

41. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be

(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W

42. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is

(a) average value

(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value

43. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces

(a) hysteresis loss

(b) eddy current losses
(c) copper losses
(d) all of the above

44. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?

(a) Primary winding

(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding

61
45. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around

(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload

46. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because

(a) the current on secondary side is negligible

(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer

47. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by

(a) low power factor wattmeter

(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter

48. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be

(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen

49. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by

(a) mica varnish

(b) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
(d) any of the above

50.Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type

(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type

62
 POWER ELECTRONICS AND DRIVES

1. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular application depends
on

(a) Speed control range and its nature

(b) Starting torque

(c) Environmental conditions

(d) All of the above.

2. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives ?

(a) Synchronous motors

(b) Squirrel cage induction motor

(c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors

(d) Any of the above.

3. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery

(a) AC slip ring motor

(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor

(c) DC compound motor

(d) Any of the above.

4. The motor normally used for crane travel is

(a) AC slip ring motor

(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor

(c) Synchronous motor

(d) DC differentially compound motor

63
5. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when the major consideration
involved is

(a) high starting torque

(b) low starting current

(c) speed control over limited range

(d) all of the above.

6. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor preferred is

(a) synchronous motor

(b) squirrel cage induction motor

(c) wound rotor induction motor

(d) dc motor

7. When quick speed reversal is a consideration, the motor preferred is

(a) synchronous motor

(b) squirrel cage induction motor

(c) wound rotor induction motor

(d) dc motor.

8. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for

(a) fan and pump drives

(b) drive of a crane

(c) running it as generator

(d) constant load drive.

64
9. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of

(a) duty

(b) starting torque

(c) limitations on starting current

(d) all of the above.

10. As compared to squirrel cage induction motor, a wound rotor induction motor is preferred when the major
consideration is

(a) high starting torque

(b) low windage losses

(C) slow speed operation

(D) all of the above.

11. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above

(a) 1 kW

(b) 10 kW

(c) 20 kW

(d)100kW

12. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is

(a) high power factor

(b) better efficiency

(c) lower cost

(d) all of the above.

65
13. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for

(a) power factor improvement

(b) improved cooling

(c) reversal of direction

(d) speed regulation

14. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is

(a) AC slip ring motor

(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor

(c) Synchronous motor

(d) Single phase motor

15. The characteristics of drive for. crane hoisting and lowering is

(a) smooth movement

(b) precise control

(c) fast speed control

(d) all of the above.

16. A switch has ………………

a)One state
b)Two states
c)Three states
d)None of the above

17. A relay is ……….. switch

a)A mechanical
b)An electronic
c)An electromechanical
d)None of the above

66
18. The switch that has the fastest speed of operation is ………….. switch

a)Electronic
b)Mechanical
c)Electromechanical
d)None of the above

19. The most inexpensive switch is ………….. switch

a)Electronic
b)Mechanical
c)Electromechanical
d)None of the above

20. The main disadvantage of a mechanical switch is that it………….

a)Is operated mechanically

b)Is costly
c)Has high inertia
d)None of the above

21. When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally the output is ………………

a)VCC
b)0
c)VCC/2
D)2VCC

22.. The maximum speed of electronic switch can be ………….. operations per second

a)104
b)10
c)1000
d)109

23.. A relay is superior to a mechanical switch because it ……………

a)Is relatively inexpensive

b)Does not require moving contacts
c)Combines control with power amplification
d)None of the above

67
24. When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the output is …………..

a)VCC
b)0
c)VCC/2
d)VCC/3

25. ………………. multivibrator is a square wave oscillator

a)Monostable
b)Astable
c)Bistable
d)None of the above

26. An astable multivibrator has ………….

a)One stable state

b)Two stable states
c)No stable state
d)None of the above

27. If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating circuit, then output will be …….

a)20 V
b)10 V
c)0 V
d)None of the above

28.. If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw-tooth wave, then output will be ………….

a)Square
b)Triangular
c)Sine
d)Rectangular

29. A bistable multivibrator has …………..

a)Two stable states

b)One stable state
c)No stable state
d)None of the above

68
30. If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, the output will be …………

a)Sine wave
b)Sharp narrow pulses
c)Rectangular wave
d)Triangular wave

31. Which is a donor atom?

a) Trivalent atom b) Aluminum c) Boron d) Pentavalent atom

32. In an n-type semiconductor, free electrons are called

a) Minority carriers b) Valence electrons c) Majority carriers d) Charge carriers

33. In an n-type semiconductor, holes are called

a) minority carriers b) majority carriers c) protons d) charge carriers

34.What is the barrier potential of germanium at25˚C

a) 0.7V b) 0.3V c) 0.5V d) 0.4V

35.The barrier potential for a silicon diode at 25˚C is approximately

a) 0.4V b) 0.3V c) 0.7V d) 0.5V

36. Each pair of positive and negative ions at the junction is called a/an
a) Anion b ) Positron c) Cation d) Dipole

37. When temperature increases, barrier potential_________.

a) Remains the same
b) Decreases c) Increases
d) Either increases or decreases depending on the semiconductor material used

38.Avalanche effects occurs at

a) Higher reverse voltages b) Lower reverse voltages c) Higher forward voltages d) Lower forward
voltages

39. The creation of free electrons through zener effect is also known as
a) Avalanche emission b) Thermionic emission c) Low-field emission d) High-field emission

40. Zener effect only depends on the

a) High-speed minority carriers b) High-speed majority carriers
c) Intensity of the electric field d) Intensity of the magnetic field

41. What temperature is inside the diode right at the junction of the p and n-type materials?
a) Junction temperature b) Ambient temperature c) Internal temperature d) Absolute
temperature

42. What is the input control parameter of a FET?

a) Gate voltage b) Source voltage c) Drain voltage d) Gate current

43.One of the important diode parameters which gives the magnitude of current the diode
Candle without burning.
a) Reverse saturation current b) Reverse current c) Forward current d) Forward
breakdown current
69
44.The maximum reverse voltage that can be applied be fore current surges is called
a)Reverse recovery time b)Maximum junctionvoltage c)Forwardvoltage
d)Reversebreakdownvoltage

45.What is the other name of Esaki diode?

a.Diac b.Hot-carrierdiode c.Shockleydiode d.Tunneldiode

46.The most important application of Schottky diodes is in

a) Digital computers b) Power supplies c) Amplifier circuits d) Voltage regulators

47.A diode is an on linear device because

a. It produces an on linear graph b. Its current is not directly proportional to its voltage
c. It has a built-in barrier potential d. It can rectify alternating current

48. The sum of the resistance of the p-region and then-region is called
a) Junction resistance b) Extrinsic resistance c) Intrinsic resistance d) Bulk resistance

49. What is the typical bulk resistance of rectifier diodes?

a) Lessthan1Ω b) Greaterthan1Ω c) Equalto1Ω d) It depends on the level

50. The reverse bias diode capacitance is termed as

a) Transition region capacitance b) Diffusion capacitance c) Storage capacitance d) Reverse
capacitance

70
 POWER SYSTEMS

1) The inductance of a power transmission line increase with

a) Decrease in line length
b) Increase in diameter of conductor.
c) Increase in spacing between the phase conductor
d) Increase in load current carried by the conductor

2) The increase in resistance due to non uniform distribution of current in conductor is known as _______
effect.
a)skin b)corona c)loss d)ferranti

3)The charging current of a 400kV transmission line is more than that of a220 kV line of the length.
a)true b) false

4)Corona losses are minimized when

a) Conductor size is reduced
b) Smoothness of conductor is reduced
c) Sharps point provided in the line hardware
d) Current density in conductor is reduced

5)Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission lines to
a) Reduce transmission line losses
b) Increase mechanical strength of the line
c) Reduce corona
d) Reduce sag

6)Series capacitive compensation in EHV transmission line is used to

a) Reduce the line loading
b) Improve the stability of the system
c) Reduce the voltage profile
d) Improve the protection of the line

7)For enhancing the power transmission in a long EHV transmission line ,the most preferred method is to
connect a
a) Series inductive compensator in the line
b) Shunt inductive compensator at the receiving end
c) Series capacitive compensator in the line
d) Shunt capacitive compensator at the sending end

8)The selection of size of conductor for a distributor in a distribution system is governed by

a) Corona loss
b) Temperature rise
c) Radio interference
d) Voltage drop

9)The rated voltage of a 3-phase power system is given as

a) Rms phase voltage b) Peak phase voltage
c) Rms line to line voltage d) Peak line to line voltage

71
10)The undesirable property of an electrical insulating material is
a) High dielectric strength
b) High relative permittivity
c) High thermal conductivity
d) High insulation resistivity

11)In a power system the 3 phase fault MVA is always higher than the single-line-ground fault MVA at a bus
a)true b)false

12)For an unbalanced fault with paths for zero sequence currents at the point of fault
a) The negative and zero sequence voltages are minimum
b) The negative and zero sequence voltages are maximum
c) The negative sequence voltages is minimum and zero sequence voltage is maximum
d) The negative sequence voltage is maximum and zero sequence voltage is minimum

13)For a fault at the terminals of a synchronous generator the fault current is maximum for a
a) 3-phase fault
b) 3-phase to ground fault
c) Line-to-ground fault
d) Line to line fault

14)The transient stability of the power system can be effectively

improved by
a) Improving generator excitation
b) Phase shifting transformer
c) Single pole switching of circuit breakers
d) Increase the turbine valve opening

15)The use high speed circuit breakers

a) Reduces the short circuit current
b) Improves system stability
c) Decreases system stability
d) Increases the short circuit current

16)The load carrying capability of a long AC transmission line is

a) Always limited by the conductor size
b) Limited by stability considerations
c) Reduced at low ambient temperature
d) Decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors

17)Steady state stability of a power system is the ability of the powersystem to

a) Maintain voltage at the rated voltage level
b) Maintain frequency exactly at 50Hz
c) Maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times
d) Maintain synchronism

18)The distance relay with inherent directional property is known as -____relay

a)directional b)MHO c)differential d)mechanical

72
19)The insulation level of a 400kV ,EHV over head transmission line is decided on the basis of
a) Lighting over voltage
b) Switching over voltage
c) Corona inception voltage
d) Radio and TV interference

20)If the fault current is 2000A,the relay setting is 50%and CT ratio is 400:5 the plug setting multiplier will be
a) 25A
b) 15A
c) 10A
d) 50A

21)Resistance switching is normally employed in

a) All breakers
b) Bulk oil breakers
c) Minimum oil breakers
d) Air blast circuit breakers

22)Reactance relay is normally preferred for protection against

a) Earth faults
b) Phase faults
c) Open-circuit faults
d) None of these

23)In an inverse definite minimum time electromagnetic type overcurrent relay the minimum time feature is
achieved because of
a) Saturation of the magnetic circuit
b) Proper mechanical design
c) Appropriate time delay element
d) Electromagnetic damping
24)The interrupting time of a circuit breaker is the period between the instant of
a) Initiation of short circuit and the arc extinction on an opening operation
b) Energizing of the trip circuit and the arc extinction on an
opening operation
c) Initiation of short circuit and the parting of primary arc contacts
d) Energizing of the trip circuit and the parting of primary arc
contacts

25) The transmission line distance protection relay having the property of being inherently directional
a. Impedance relay
b. MHO relay
c. OHM relay
d. reactance relay

26)keeping in view the cost and overall effectiveness ,the following circuit breaker is best suited for capacitor
bank switching
a)vacuum
b)air blast
c)SF6
d)oil

73
27)A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect
a)an alternator
b)a transformer
c)a transmission line
d)a bus bar

28)which material is used in controlling chain reaction in a nuclear reactor

a)Thorium
b)heavy water
c)Boron
d)Beryllium

29)In a thermal power plant ,the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using
a. H.P steam
b. L.p steam
c. Direct heat
d. Flue gases

30)For harnessing low variable water heads the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and
runner adjustable vanes is
a)Kaplan b)Francis c)Pelton d)impeller

31) What is / are the main disadvantage of using oil as the quenching medium in the circuit
breakers?
a. Need periodical replacement.
b. Risk of formation of explosive mixture with air.
c. Possibility of causing fire hazards.
d. All of the above.

32) A three phase, 33 kV oil circuit breaker is rated 1200 A, 2000 MVA, 3s. What is
its symmetrical breaking current?
a. 1200 A
b. 3600 A
c. 35 kA
d. 104.8 kA

33) A thermal protection switch provides protection against what?

a. Overload
b. Temperature
c. Short circuit
d. Over voltage

34) Which of the following circuit breakers is used for the railway electrification?
a. Air blast circuit breaker
b. SF6 circuit breaker
c. Bulk oil circuit breaker
d. Minimum oil circuit breaker

74
35) Which circuit breaker is preferred to be installed in extra high voltage AC system?
a. Bulk oil type circuit breaker
b. Air blast circuit breaker
c. SF6 circuit breaker
d. Vacuum circuit breaker

36) Which among these circuit breakers produce the least arc energy?
a. Plain oil
b. Minimum oil
c. Air blast
d. Air break

37) The rating of the circuit breaker is usually determined on the basis of ____________ fault.
a. Symmetrical
b. Line to line
c. Single line to ground
d. Double line to ground

38) Which of the following circuit breaker is highly reliable and has a least maintenance?
a. Oil circuit breakers
b. Air blast
c. Vacuum circuit breakers
d. SF6 circuit breakers

39) Circuit breakers usually operate under

a. Steady short circuit current
b. Sub transient state of short circuit current
c. Transient state of short circuit current
d. None of these

40) What is the making capacity of the circuit breaker?

a. Less than the asymmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker
b. Greater than the asymmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker
c. Equal to the asymmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker
d. Equal to the symmetrical breaking capacity of the breaker

41) What is the general ratio of the cross sectional area of the two metals used in the A.C.S.R
conductors?
a. 1 : 8 b. 1 : 4
c. 4 : 3 d. 2 : 1

75
32) Assertion(A): The maximum operating temperature of overhead line conductors made
of aluminium or copper is restricted to 75 °C.
Reason (R): conductors beyond this limit may shatter the insulator.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.

33) For high voltage transmission lines, why are conductors suspended from towers?
a. Increase the clearance from ground.
b. Reduce clearance from ground.
c. Take care of increase in length.
d. Reduce the environmental effects.

44) In India, which types of poles are commonly used for distribution?
a. Wooden poles
b. RCC poles
c. Steel poles
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. None of these

45) Which among these are the properties for the line supports?
a. Higher mechanical strength
b. Light in weight
c. Easy accessibility of conductors for maintenance
d. All of these

46) What is the maximum permissible limit of voltage for the line supports?
a. 30 kV
b. 20 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 44 kV

47) To prevent rotting oil the wooden poles which oil is impregnated to it?
a. Kerosene oil
b. Mineral oil
c. Creosote oil
d. All of these

48) Steel poles are painted so as to prevent it from ____________.

a. Corrosion
b. Borer
c. Termites
d. All of these

76
49) Which among these is not a type of steel poles?
a. Rail poles
b. Tubular poles
c. Rolled steel joints
d. None of these

50) What is the usual span of the RCC poles?

a. 250 – 400 m.
b. 80 – 150 m.
c. 50 – 105 m.
d. 10 – 75 m.

77
78
 CONTROL SYSTEMS
1. Mechanical impedance is the ratio of
a. rms force to rms velocity

b. rms force to rms displacement

c. rms velocity to rms displacement

d. none of the above

2. For the system in the given figure. The transfer function C(s)/R(s) is

a G1 + G2 + 1

b G1 G2 + 1

c G1 G2 + G 2 + 1

d G1 G2 + G1 + 1

3. Whether a linear system is stable or unstable that it

a is a property of the system only

b depends on the input function only

c both (a) and (b)

d either (a) or (b)

79
4.
For the system of the given figure the transfer function =

a.

b.

c.

d.

5. In the given figure shows pole-zero plot. If steady state gain is 2 the transfer function G(s) is

a.

b.

c.

d.

80
6. In the given figure shows pole-zero plot. If steady state gain is 2 the transfer function G(s) is

a.

b.

c.

d.

7. For the system of the given figure, the damping ratio of closed loop poles is

a. 1.5

b. 1

c. 0.5

d. 0.25

81
8. Assertion (A): Potentiometers can not be used as error detectors in position control systems.
Reason (R): The resolution of a potentiometer places an upper limit on its accuracy
a. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

c. A is correct but R is wrong

d. R is correct but A is wrong

9.
For a first order system having transfer function , the unit impulse response is
-t/T
a. e

b. T e-t/T

c.

d. T2 e-t/T

10. For the given figure C(s)/R(s)

a.

b.

c.

82
 d.

11. A stepper motor is

a. a two phase induction motor

b. is a kind of rotating amplifier

is an electromagnetic transducer used to convert an angular position of shaft into electrical

c.
signal

is an electromechanical device which actuates a train of step angular movements in

d.
response to a train of input pulses on one to one basis

12. In a two phase ac servomotor rotor resistance is R and rotor reactance is X. The speed curve will be
linear if

a.
R << 1

b.

c.

d. X2 = R

13. In the given figure, the input frequency is such that R = X C. Then

a. v0 lags vi by 45°

b. v0 lags vi by 90°

83
 c. v0 leads vi by 45°

d. v0 leads vi by 90°

14. From the noise point of view, bandwidth should

a. be large

b. not be too large

c. should be as large as possible

d. should be infinite

15.
First column elements of Routh's tabulation are 3, 5, , 2. It means that there
a. is one root in left half s plane

b. are two roots in left half s plane

c. are two roots in right half s plane

d. is one root in right half s plane

16. When a unit step voltage drives a lag network the output
a. remains constant at unit step value

b. increases exponentially from zero to final value

c. decreases exponentially from 1 to 0

d. either (b) of (c) depending on values of R and C

17. For the given figure C(s)/R(s)

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 a.

b.

c.

d.

18..For the circuit in the given figure,

a.

b.

c.

d.

19. A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of poles lies on jω axis. The system is

a. Stable

b. Unstable

c. limitedly stable

d. either (a) or (c)

85
 20. In the given figure the input frequency is such
that R << Xc, then

A a. v0 lags vi by 90°
.

B b. v0 leads vi by 90°
.

C c. v0 and vi are in phase

.

D d. either (b) or (c)

.
21. In the given figure, of potentiometer V0 = Vi (R0/Ri) only when

a. RL = 0

B b.RL = ∞
.

C c.RL is neither low nor high

.

D d.RL is low but not zero

.
.

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22.
A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function The closed loop transfer function is

a.

b.

c.

d.

23. Bellows converts

a. pressure difference into displacement

b. pressure difference into voltage

c. displacement into pressure difference

d. either (a) or (c)

24. Assertion (A): The steady state response, of a stable, linear, time invariant system, to sinusoidal
input depends on initial conditions.
Reason (R): Frequency response, in steady state, is obtained by replacing s in the transfer function
by jω
a. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

c. A is correct but R is wrong

d. R is correct but A is wrong

25. Consider the systems with following open loop transfer functions

87
 If unity feedback is used, the increasing order of time taken for unit step response to settle is

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 3, 1, 2

c. 2, 3, 1

d. 3, 2, 1

26. The phase margin and damping ratio have no relation.

a. True

b. False

27. For the transport lag G(jω) = e-jωT, the magnitude is always equal to
a. 0

b. 1

c. 10

d. 0.5

28. The log magnitude curve for a constant gain K is a

a. horizontal straight line

b. horizontal straight line of magnitude 20 log K decibels

c. an inclined line having slope K

d. an inclined line having slope -K

88
29. The compensator of the given figure is a

a. lag compensator

b. lead compensator

c. lag-lead compensator

d. none of the above

30. If error voltage is e(t), integral square error =

a. e2(t) dt

b.

c.

d. none of the above

31. A lag compensator is essentially a

a. low pass filter

b. high pass filter

c. band pass filter

d. either (a) or (b)

89
32. Stepper motors find applications in
a. X-Y plotters

b. numerically controlled machining equipment

c. printers

d. all of the above

33. For type 2 system, the magnitude and phase angle of the term (jω)2 in the denominator, at ω = 0, are
respectively
a. 0 and - 90°

b. 0 and + 90°

c. infinity and - 180°

d. infinity and + 180°

34. In an integral controller

a. the output is proportional to input

b. the rate of change of output is proportional to input

c. the output is proportional to rate of change of input

d. none of the above

35.
In Bode diagram (log magnitude plot) the factor in the transfer function gives a line having slope
a. -20 dB per octave

b. -10 dB per octave

c. -6 dB per octave

d. -2 dB per octave

90
36. In the given figure the input is x(t) = A sin ωt. The steady state output y(t) =

a. A sin (ωt + φ) where φ = tan-1 |G(jω)|

b. |G(jω)| A sin [ωt + ∠G(jω)]

c. |G(jω)| A sin [2ωt + ∠G(jω)]

d. A G(jω) sin [ωt + ∠G(jω)]

.
37. In the given figure x6 =

a. de(ax1 + bx2 + cx3)

b. (a + b + c) (x1 + x2 + x3) (d + e)

c. (ax1 + bx2 + cx3) (d + e)

d. a b c d e (x1 + x2 + x3)

A negative feedback system has . The closed loop system is

38. stable for
a. K > 20

b. 15 < K < 19

c. 8 ≤ K ≤ 14

d. K<6

91
39.
For the given figure,

a.

b.

c.

d.

40. For the control system in the given figure, the value of K for critical damping is

a. 1

b. 5.125

c. 6.831

d. 10

41. Bode magnitude plot is drawn between

a. magnitude of network function and ω

b. B magnitu e an og ω

c. dB magnitude and ω

d. loge (magnitude) and log ω

92
42.
For the system in the given figure,

a.

b.

c.

d. none of the above

43. In the given figure, if R = XC, voltage gain is

a. 0 dB

b. 3 dB

c. -3 dB

d. 20 dB

44. For the circuit in the given figure, V2(s)/V1(s) =

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 a.

b. 1/(1+RCs)

c.

d.

45. The system in the given figure, has

a. good gain and phase margin

b. poor gain and phase margin

c. good gain margin but poor phase margin

d. poor gain margin but good phase margin

46. The given figure shows a pole zero diagram. The transfer function G(j1) is

a. 0.5 ∠0

94
 b. 2.7 ∠- 31°

c. 2 ∠45°

d. 2 ∠- 67.4°

47. For very low frequencies, v0/vi in the given figure equals

a. 1

b. 0

c. ∞

d. 0.5

48. In a minimum phase system

a. all poles lie in the left half plane

b. all zeros lie in the left half plane

c. all poles lie in the right half plane

d. all except one pole or zero lie in the left half plane

49. The first column of a Routh array is

How many roots of the corresponding characteristic equation are in left half s-plane?

95
 a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

50.
For the given figure, time constant RC = . Then

2 2
a. s +2 s+1

b.

c. s2 + 1

d.

96