TEST 11

Choose the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word whose underlined letter(s) is pronounced differently.
Question 1: A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
Question 2: A. advocate B. manage C. rival D. canal
Choose the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. occur B. manage C. absorb D. display
Question 4: A. develop B. chocolate C. arrangement D. procession
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Who will replace you to monitor the class on the days you are on duty next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
Question 6: We, the young, should take actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned with sewage
processing measures from now on.
A. indifferent to B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
Question 7: You shouldn’t look down on our rivals because they have got a lot of progress this football season.
A. opponents B. aliens C. goalies D. allies
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: Under ideal conditions, the entire life cycle of some insects, for example fleas, living on pets, may only
take 3 weeks, so in no time at all, pets and homes can be infested.
A. very fast B. immeasurably C. unaccountably D. very slowly
Question 9: Most of the female football players will be jobless when the Games are over.
A. employed B. busy C. unemployed D. highly-paid
Choose one of the given options which needs correcting.
Question 10: In this organization, all members are equal. No members will use force against together.
Question 11: Working for this organization will give a chance to help improve international healthy care.
Question 12: The more regularly you practice, the best appetite you get.
Choose the best option to complete the sentences.
Question 13: She dances______ her younger sister, who is 10 years old.
A. beautifully B. as beautiful as is C. beautifully as D. as beautifully as does
Question 14: UNESCO stands_______ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
A. about B. with C. by D. for
Question 15: So nervous about the exam____ he sat in silence although the surrounding students were talking loudly.
A. he was so that B. was C. was he that D. he was that
Question 16: The booklet is printed in big letters______ even the old and young to read with unaided eyes.
A. so that B. in order for C. with a view to D. so as to
Question 17: “Can I help you, Sir?” - “I’m looking for a _______ table.”
A. round wooden fashionable B. wooden round fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 18: Mr. Tony has been under high pressure of workloads recently. _______, he has just been taken to
hospital for nerve broken down.
A. Fortunately B. Therefore C. However D. In contrast
Question 19: Peter said to Jane carrying a heavy suitcase: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” Jane: “_______.”
A. Well done B. That’s very kind of youC. Not a chance D. I don’t believe it
Question 20: You should ______ think about what technical school to apply for; or else, you will waste your time
and money in a few years later.
A. strongly B. extremely C. hardly D. highly
Question 21: You should practice your eyes by looking at other surrounding things every thirty minutes; _______,
they will get strenuous.
A. if so B. if C. therefore D. otherwise
Question 22: A lot of skills and knowledge fields ________
A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. have to prepare and practice D. are had to prepare and practice
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Question 23: _______ as her handwriting was, the teacher was able to make it out and she got a full mark for it.
A. Badly B. As badly C. As bad D. Bad
Question 24: The grape is the ______, juicy fruit of a woody vine.
A. which is smooth B. skin smooth C. skin D. smooth-skinned
Read the passage bellow and then choose a suitable word A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
The Earth's Energy Budget
The way the Earth interacts (25)_______ the sun's energy can be displayed in a diagram called the Earth’s
energy budget. It displays the sun's energy that reaches us and how much of that energy absorbed and reflected is by
the earth and (26)_______ atmosphere. Solar energy reaches earth as electromagnetic radiation. Once the energy
reaches earth, some of it is absorbed by the atmosphere, (27)_______ clouds. Some of it makes it to the earth's
surface, and is (28)_______ by land and oceans. The (29)_______ of energy absorbed affects temperature. The
energy (30)____ is not absorbed by the earth or its atmosphere is reflected back out to space in the same wavelengths
in which it came to earth. On (31)___, the amount of energy coming in is equal to the amount of energy going out.
Therefore, we say the earth's energy budget is balanced. (32)____ more energy was coming in than was going out, the
earth's temperature would increase. On the other hand, if too much energy is reflected, and not absorbed, we'll see a
(33)____ in the earth's temperatures. Of all of the sun's energy that hits the Earth, about 70% is absorbed by the land,
ocean, atmosphere and clouds and about 30% is reflected back into space.
Question 25: A. to B. with C. about D. for
Question 26: A. them B. it C. its D. their
Question 27: A. include B. included C. to include D. including
Question 28: A. injected B. accessed C. soaked D. absorbed
Question 29: A. amount B. number C. plenty D. quality
Question 30: A. whose B. that C. who D. where
Question 31: A. average B. case C. condition D. account
Question 32: A. In case of B. Although C. If D. Unless
Question 33: A. rise B. deduction C. decrease D. fluctuation
Read the following passage and then choose the best answer A, B, C or D.
Comets are bodies that move around in space. They are something likes stars or small planets that move
around the sun. Comets are surrounded by gases and the sun makes those gases look very bright. Dust can get caught
in the gas around the comet and make the comet look like it has a tails.
Halley's Comet is the most famous comet, but we can't see it very often. In fact, it can only be seen from the
Earth when it moves close the sun. This means that this beautiful comet only comes into our sky every 77 years or so.
The last time Halley's Comet was invisible from the Earth was in 1991. Did you see it?
Halley's Comet was named after the English astronomer Edmond Halley. An astronomer studies the star and
planets in the solar system. Edmond Halley was born in London, England, in 1656. He studies astronomy at Oxford
University. In 1676, he left the university to study the astronomy of the Southern Hemisphere. He wrote a brook
about the arrangement of the stars in the sky and the movement of the planets. He made the first accurate map of the
stars we see in the sky. He also observed the moon and studied how the Moon affects the ocean tides. He helped find
a way to measure distances in space. This measurement was used by other scientists to learn about the size of our
solar system and the distances of many star and planets from the Earth.
Halley especially liked to study comets. He read about comets and observed them in the sky. He learned about
the way they moved around the Sun — each comet follows a different path around the Sun and travels at its own
speed. The path and speed of a body as it moves in space is called its orbit. Halley calculated the orbits of comets that
he read about or saw himself. He found the orbits for twenty-four comets.
Halley also noticed that the paths of a comet seen in 1531 and of a comet seen in 1607 were identical to the
path of a comet he had observed in 1682. He concluded that these three comets were, in fact, the same comet. Halley
predicted that the comet would come again in 1758, and it did! This comet was named “Halley’s Comet” and can be
seen from Earth. The first reports of this comet in history were made in 240 B.C. by Chinese astronomers, so we
know that it has been orbiting the Sun to more than 2,000 years. Halley’s Comet is not the only comet in our sky, but
it is the only one that appears regularly and can be predicted. It is also one of the brightest comets, and people can see
it without a telescope.
Like comets, the Earth also travels around the Sun. Sometimes the orbit of t Earth passes through the path of
Hailey’s Comet. Like comets, the Earth also travels around the Sun. Sometimes the orbit of the Earth passes through
the path of Hailey’s Comet. When this When this happens, dust left behind from the comet falls to Earth. The dust
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burns and makes brilliant lights like falling stars in the sky. You can see this happen every year in May and October.
Astronomers predict that Hailey’s Comet will enter our sky again in 2061. Who do you think will see it?
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Hailey’s Comet?
A. It won’t appear again until 2061. B. Chinese astronomers named it “Hailey’s Comet.”
C. It is predictable. D. It is bright.
Question 35: Comets move around__________.
A. every 77 years. B. in the Southern Hemisphere C. the Sun. D. the Earth
Question 36: Comets may look like they have a tail because__________.
A. gases surround the comet B. dust can get caught in the gas around the comet
C. the Sun is very bright D. they appear like bright white stars in the sky
Question 37: Edmond Hailey calculated the orbits for__________.
A. 1607 B. 1682 C. 77 comets D. 24 comets
Question 38: In 240 B.C. __________.
A. there were no comets in the sky B. Chinese astronomers first observed Halley’s comet
C. Halley was born in London, England D. Halley’s Comet did not appear in the sky
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Halley’s Comet can be seen from Earth with naked eyes.
B. Halley’s prediction of the comet’s re-appearance in 1758 was right.
C. He observed the comet of 1682 and named it “Helley’s Comet.”
D. The comets of 1531, 1607 and 1682 were, in fact, the same comet.
Question 40: Edmond Hailey made the first accurate map of__________.
A. the stars. B. England C. the Earth’s orbits D. the Southern Hemisphere
Question 41: The Earth also travels__________.
A. around Hailey’s comet B. every 77 years. C. around the Sun. D. around the Moon.
Question 42: One of Hailey’s contributions to astronomy was__________.
A. giving a name to one of the most famous comets B. drawing a map of the Southern Hemisphere
C. finding a way to measure distances in space D. founding the astronomy department at Oxford University
Question 43: When the paths of the Earth and Hailey Comet cross each other
A. astronomers starts making predictions about its appearance
B. dust from the tail of the comet burn's brightly and looks like ling stars in the night sky.
C. Hailey’s Comet appears in May and October. D. stars begins to fall from the sky.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 44. ___________ I cannot accept it.
A. When I sympathize with your point of view B. Whereas I sympathize with your point of view
C. While I sympathize with your point of view D. While I am sympathizing with your point of view
Question 45. __________ all the cars completed the course.
A. Despite the severe weather conditions B. In spite the severe weather conditions
C. Although the severe weather conditions D. Despite that the severe weather conditions
Question 46. __________ suggested stopping at the next town.
A. Peter who had been driving all day B. Peter who had been driving all day,
C. Peter, who had been driving all day, D. Peter, whose had been driving all day,
Question 47. If I dyed my hair blue, ___________.
A. everyone would laugh at me B. everyone will laugh at me
C. everyone will have laughed at me D. everyone is laughing at me
Question 48. You must go tomorrow _________.
A. if you are ready or not B. even if you are ready or not
C. whether you are ready or not D. even though you are ready or not
Question 49. The days were short, __________.
A. for that it was now December B. for it was now December
C. because of that it was now December D. as for that it was now December
Question 50. He spoke for such a long time __________.
A. so people began to fall asleep B. so that people began to fall asleep
C. that people began to fall asleep D. so as people began to fall asleep

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 TEST 12
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
Question 1. A. parallel B. label C. vessel D. chapel
Question 2. A. typist B. typical C. typing D. stylish
Choose the word marked A, B, C, or D which is stressed differently from the rest.
Question 3. A. attract B. person C. signal D. instance
Question 4. A. verbal B. suppose C. even D. either
Choose the underlined part marked A, B, C, or D in each sentence that should be corrected.
Question 5. Caroline refused taking the job given to her because the salary was not good.
Question 6. I finished college last year, and I am working here for only eight months now.
Question 7. If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later.
Question 8. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 9. The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. hints B. symptoms C. effects D. demonstrations
Question 10. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. wonderful B. acceptable C. pretty high D. reasonable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 11. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
Question 12. Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.
A. thoughtful B. honest C. kind D. pleasant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following incomplete sentences.
Question 13: My father hasn't had much________ with my family since he moved to New York.
A. contact B. meeting C. business D. connection
Question 14: They__________ small cup of coffee after they__________ dinner.
A. drink/ had finished B. drunk/had finished C. drunk/finished D. drank/had finished
Question 15: Hung: "Thank you very much for the lovely party.” - Hoa: "________."
A. Thanks B. You are welcome C. Have a good time D. Cheers
Question 16: She went to college to study history, but changed ________ and is now a doctor.
A. horses in midstreamB. for a better C. hands D. her tune
Question 17: What chemical is this? It’s__________ a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving over C. giving up D. giving off
Question 18: __________ will Mr. Thanh be able to regain control of the company.
A. No matter how does he work hardly B. Not until his work hard
C. Only with hard work D. Only if he works hardly
Question 19: The idea to__________ a visit to the local council residence was welcomed by all the visitors.
A. walk B. pay C. go D. do
Question 20: The girl __________ design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive the award.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. that
Question 21: As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000__________ gave them a standing ovation.
A. viewers B. bystanders C. spectators D. audiences
Question 22: “Goodbye, Susie!” – “___________.”
A. So long B. Yeah C. So so D. The same
Question 23: –“Would you like another coffee?” – “_______________”.
A. Willingly B. It’s a pleasure C. Very kind of your part D. I’d love one
Choose the option marked A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences.
My aunt is one of those people who can talk to anyone about anything. If she goes to a party where she
doesn't know any of the people, she just walks up to the first person that she sees and introduces herself. And yet she
doesn't seem to talk about deeply important things like politics or religion. She always starts off on something very
obvious like the other person's job. Very soon she's talking as if she's known the other person for years. I asked her
once what her secret was. She said that the most important thing in a conversation was listening. People love to talk
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about themselves, so if you allow them to do so, it's very easy to keep a conversation going. You have to listen very
carefully and ask questions. And you have to look interested, too. So don't keep looking at other things in the room
while you're talking to someone.
Another thing that I've noticed is that she only pays people compliments. She says: “I like your hair. Which
hairdresser do you go to?” or “You look very well. Have you been on holiday?” Friendly messages like this seem to
provide an easy way into a conversation.
Question 24. According to my aunt, the most important thing in a conversation was__________.
A. speaking B. discussing C. looking D. listening
Question 25. At parties where she does not know anybody, my aunt normally__________.
A. feels embarrassed and stays away from people B. asks people to introduces themselves to her
C. comes over to the first person and introduces herself D. sits alone and avoids talking to other people
Question 26. My aunt thinks that it's very easy to keep a conversation going if you__________.
A. let people talk about themselves B. let people hear about yourself
C. talk about politics or religion D. ask people about their secrets
Question 27. What should you NOT do when you have a conversation with someone?
A. Looking very interested in his or her story B. Looking at other things in the room
C. Listening very carefully and asking questions D. Paying him or her compliments
Question 28. According to the passage, my aunt often starts a conversation by talking about ________.
A. the other person's wealth B. the other person's health
C. the other person's daily activities D. the other person's job
Choose the word or phrase marked A, B, C, or D that best fits each space in the following text.
In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't
make jokes (29)_____ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way
and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like· interruptions or (30)____ changes of schedule. Punctuality is
very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not
interrupt (31)_______ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (32)____ facts and technical information
and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions.
Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first
names (33)___ a person asks you to.
Question 29. A. while B. as if C. such as D. as
Question 30. A. sudden B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly
Question 31. A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Question 32. A. on B. to C. at D. in
Question 33. A. if only B. as C. unless D. since
Read the following passage adapted and choose the correct answer (corresponding to A, B, C, or D) to each of the
questions that follow.
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of work
because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano practice because it’s
so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be bribed to take exams.
But the story is different when you’re older. Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a
college and did courses in History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there
was no reason to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way
round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t
frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me
and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal. Some people fear going
back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is that, although some parts have
rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were young. It has learnt to think independently
and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the
maturity department. In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated.
Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll get
the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you
can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells
you that you will, with application, eventually get there. I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And
coming back to it, with a teacher who could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts
5
that, at the age of ten, I could never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d
played for my school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those
years before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could
understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 34. It is implied in paragraph 1 that_________.
A. young learners are usually lazy in their class B. parents should encourage young learners to study more
C. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning D. teachers should give young learners less homework
Question 35. The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, _________.
A. they get more impatient with their teachers B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
C. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged D. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
Question 36. The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “__________”.
A. At the beginning B. At the starting point C. For beginners D. First and foremost
Question 37. While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised______.
A. to be able to learn more quickly B. to feel learning more enjoyable
C. to have more time to learn D. to get on better with the tutor
Question 38. In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means_________.
A. impatient because of having nothing to do B. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
C. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice D. staying alive and becoming more active
Question 39. The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “_________”.
A. receive a school or college degree B. arrive at an intended place with difficulty
C. have the things you have long desired D. achieve your aim with hard work
Question 40. All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT_________.
A. young people usually feel less patient than adults B. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
C. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
D. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
Question 41. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process because adult
learners_________.
A. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners B. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners D. have become more patient than younger learners
Question 42. It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you_________.
A. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
B. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
C. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
D. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
Question 43. What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To encourage adult learning. B. To show how fast adult learning is.
C. To explain reasons for learning. D. To describe adult learning methods.
Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each sentence by circling
the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D.
Question 44. She always gets the right answer.
A. She never answers right B. She is always right.
C. She never fails to get the right answer D. She fails to get the right answer all the time.
Question 45. I regret not booking the seats in advance.
A. I wish I booked the seats in advance B. I wish I have booked the seats in advance
C. If only I booked the seats in advance D. If only I had booked the seats in advance.
Question 46. The carpets were so expensive that we didn’t buy them.
A. The carpets were such expensive for us to buy them B. The carpets were too expensive for us to buy them
C. The carpets were too expensive for us to buy D. The carpets were very expensive for us to buy
Question 47. No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party
C. The party is going on without Linda D. No one has seen Linda for ages
Question 48. I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
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 C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
D. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
Question 49. He was suspected of having stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. Suspecting of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
B. He has been investigated for days, suspecting of having stolen credit cards
C. Having suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
D. Suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days
Question 50. John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam
B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam

TEST 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. character B. switch C. chemical D. Christmas
Question 2: A. addition B. advantage C. adventure D. advertise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. kindergarten B. contaminate C. curriculum D. conventional
Question 4: A. attendance B. security C. obedient D. candidate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 5: I received housing benefit when I was unemployed.
A. out of work B. out of practice C. out of fashion D. out of order
Question 6: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your résumé to the company.
A. recommendation B. photograph C. reference D. curriculum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 7: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about”
A. behaving nice B. behaving cleverly C. good behavior D. behaving improperly
Question 8: Punctuality is imperative in your new job.
A. Being late B. Being cheerful C. Being courteous D. Being efficient
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 9: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
Question 10: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last year.
Question 11: The General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) is the name of a set of English qualifications,
generally taking by secondary school students at the age of 15-16 in England
Question 12: I told him I'd prefer to walk , but he insisted to give me a lift .
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 13: It is __________ work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.
A. such unusual a B. such an unusual C. so an unusual D. a so unusual
Question 14: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid________ we asked.
A. four times as much as B. four time as many as C. four time as many as D. four time much than
Question 15: __________, I would give a party.
A. Should she come next month B. If she come next month C. She were to come next month D. If she came here now
Question 16: He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He__________ himself
A. must have hurt B. should have hurt C. will have hurt D. could have hurt
Question 17: The teacher, along with her students, __________ going to school at the moment.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
Question 18: Her mother, __________ has been working for thirty years, is retiring next month.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
Question 19: The man__________ at the blackboard is our teacher.
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 A. standing B. to stand C. stood D. stands
Question 20: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye______ with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
Question 21: We are going to__________.
A. have our house be redecorated B. have our house redecorated
C. have our house to be redecorated D. get our house being redecorated
Question 22: I suggest the room__________ before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. were decorated C. should decorate D. is decorated
Question 13: "Your parents must be proud of your result at school". - " __________________"
A. I am glad you like it. B. Sorry to hear that. C. Thanks. It's certainly encouraging. D. Of course
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about
yourself. Think about how you want to present your (24)______, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals.
Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good
idea to review your resume with a critical eye and (25)______areas that an employer might see as limitations or want
further information. Think about how you can answer difficult' questions (26)______and positively, while keeping
each answer brief. An interview gives the employer a (27)______to get to know you. While you do want to market
yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (28)______.
Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of
something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (29)______. If you are genuinely
interested (30) the job, let the interviewer know that. One of the best ways to show you are keen on a
job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also
(31)______interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. The best way to
impress an employer is to ask questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and
(32)______close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an insightful
comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the (33)______of an interview, it is
appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear; from the employer.
Question 24: A. pressures B. strengths C. practices D. promotions
Question 25: A. hide B. limit C. express D. identify
Question 26: A. accurately B. rightly C. hardly D. sharply
Question 27: A. change B. practice C. way D. chance
Question 28: A. ability B. response C. expression D. respect
Question 29: A. enthusiast B. enthusiasm C. enthusiastic D. enthusiastically
Question 30: A. for B. on C. with D. in
Question 31: A. appear B. show C. conceal D. cover
Question 32: A. spend B. pay C. choose D. make
Question 33: A. end B. close C. finish D. final
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in the fall and
spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and summer quarters. The academic
year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven weeks each beginning in September, January, and
March: the summer quarter, June to August, is composed of shorter sessions of vary length.
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students who wish to
complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of the opportunity to study year
round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most students begin their programs in the fall quarter,
they may enter at the beginning of any other quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year
round, the resources are used effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several disadvantages
as well. Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for them to cover the material required
by most college coursed. Students also find it difficult to complete the assignments in such a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some colleges and
universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty and students have more time to
cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional term provides options for admission during the year
and accelerates the degree programs for those students who wish to graduate early.
Question 34: Where would this passage most probably be found?
8
 A. In a American newspaper B. In a dictionary published in the United States
C. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States
D. In a college catalog for a university in the United States
Question 35: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. The Semester System B. The Academic Year C. Universities in the United States D. The Quarter System
Question 36: A semester system__________.
A. has two major sessions a year B. Isn’t very popular in the United States
C. gives students the opportunity to study year round D. has eleven-week sessions
Question 37: How many terms are there in a quarter system?
A. Three regular terms and one summer term B. One regular term and four summer terms
C. Two regular terms and two summer terms D. Four regular terms and one summer term
Question 38: When is the academic year?
A. September to August B. September to June C. June to August D. August to June
Question 39: The word “customary” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by__________.
A. agreeable B. limited C. traditional D. length
Question 40: When may students begin studying in a school that uses a quarter system?
A. Summer semester only B. at the beginning of the academic year
C. at the beginning of any quarter D. September
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. material B. courses C. faculty D. weeks
Question 42: The word “instituted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. recommended B. attempted C. established D. considered
Question 43: Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to trimesters?
A. they provide more options for admission B. They allow students to graduate early
C. they last eleven weeks D. They are long enough to cover the course material
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 44. ______________ ring her up every week.
A. Her sons, both of who work abroad, B. Her sons, both of whom work abroad,
C. Her sons, of whom both work abroad, D. Her sons both of whom work abroad
Question 45. If you tried again______________
A. you can succeed. B. you were going to succeed C. you might succeed. D. you will succeed
Question 46. I always slept by the phone______________
A. in case he rang during the night. B. in the case that he rang during the night.
C. otherwise he rang during the night. D. whether he rang during the night.
Question 47. ______________often shelter in my doorway.
A. People who waiting for the bus B. People whose waiting for the bus
C. People waiting for the bus D. People whom waiting for the bus
Question 48. If the fog gets thicker ______________.
A. the plane may be diverted B. the plane be diverted
C. the plane is diverted D. the plane which will be diverted
Question 49. ______________ please inform the factory at once.
A. Should these biscuits arrive in a damaged condition B. Will these biscuits arrive in a damaged condition
C. Do these biscuits arrive in a damaged condition D. When these biscuits arrive in a damaged condition
Question 50. We must be early; ______________.
A. so that we won't get a seat. B. otherwise we won't get a seat.
C. otherwise we'll get a seat. D. or that we won't get a seat.

TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D whose pronunciation is different from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant
Question 2: A. right B. minority C. communist D. private
Mark A, B, C, o r D to indicate the word differing from the rest in the position of the main stress in the questions.
Question 3: A. journey B. extinct C. swallow D. crisis
Question 4: A. prehistoric B. meteoric C. combination D. favourable
9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
Question 5: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved
world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.
A. offering B. deciding C. trying D. requesting
Question 6: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them.
A. on purpose B. at stake C. in advance D. at ease
Question 7: After her mother died, she was raised by her grandparents.
A. come into B. put up C. brought up D. grown up
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the one that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the questions.
Question 8: China has become the 3rd country in the world which can independently carried out the manned space
activities. A. put in B. put up C. put on D. put off
Question 9: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. separate B. connect C. cooperate D. put together
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 10: We wish today was sunny so that we could spend the day in the country communing with nature.
Question 11: Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
Question 12: A secretary told me an important file had left in the lunch room just the other day.
Question 13: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the 1st team won the trophy 5 times.
Question 14: Having served lunch, the committee members discussed the problem among themselves.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 15: It was only ______ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school.
A. until B. then C. when D. as soon as
Question 16: ________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.
A. Had it been B. If it hadn’t been C. If it had been D. Hadn’t it been
Question 17: ________ is the money given by an organization to pay for someone’s studies.
A. school B. scholarly C. scholar D. scholarship
Question 18: - “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards” - “_____________ .“
A. Good idea, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. You’ve welcome D. Thanks, I will
Question 19: Tom doesn’t know much about computing ________ his brother is an expert at it.
A. whereas B. in contrast C. however D. therefore
Question 20: _______ down to dinner than the telephone rang.
A. No sooner had I sat B. Hardly had I sat C. No sooner I sat D. Scarcely I sat
Question 21: She was ____________she could not say anything.
A. so surprised of the news that B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised at the news that D. so that surprised for the news
Question 22: __________ being tired, I went for a picnic with my family.
A. In spite B. Because of C. Despite D. Though
Question 23: We should participate in the movement _______ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. which organized C. organizing D. organized
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase marked A, B, C, or D provided.
On December 10, 2006, I was going through some hard time. The landlady did not want to release the house
any more so I had to (24)__ and only had one month to find a place. Because Christmas was coming and it was
difficult for me to (25) ___ a suitable accommodation. I had only some money (26) ____. I could not buy a Christmas
tree and some presents for my three boys, (27) __ I had to use the money to find a place to live. Tome, it broke my
heart as I could not prepare the Christmas for my three boys. I have been their only parent since my husband (28) ___
away two years ago. I was so sad and everything was getting on my nerves. Although I managed to solve the problem
myself I could not help (29)__ my sons about the things. When I suddenly woke up at midnight, I found my eldest
son was sitting (30)___ me. He kissed me and said, "Don't worry, Mum. We love you very much and always stand by
you (31)___ happens." At the moment I started weeping, grabbed him and kissed him. His words and love made me
(32)__ all about what I was stressing about. In fact ever since that moment, I have realized that I can overcome any
problems thanks to my sons' love. The most important thing of my life is that my boys are safe and healthy, and they
bring me joy all the time. The memory (33)___ me that nothing really matters, when I have the love of my children.
Question 24. A. transfer B. convert C. move D. change
Question 25. A. notice B. watch C. find D. see
10
Question 26. A. leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left
Question 27. A. because B. although C. as though D. if
Question 28. A. passes B. passed C. has passed D. was passing
Question 29. A. tell B. to tell C. told D. telling
Question 30. A. by B. next C. over D. up
Question 31. A. whenever B. whatever C. whoever D. however
Question 32. A. forget B. to forget C. forgot D. forgetting
Question 33. A. remembers B. minds C. reminds D. misses
Read the following passage adapted and choose the correct answer) to each of the questions that follow.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been.
Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes
and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a
cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability. On
the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric
trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can
lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made
with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than
atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is
flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along
wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or
generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling
water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in
several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an
atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation. Now
scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They may
harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do
use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current
is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off
by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 34: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to______.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
C. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
D. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
Question 35: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Hot wind. B. Steam. C. Gas. D. Petrol.
Question 36: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It can be adapted to various uses. B. It is cheap and easy to use.
C. It is used to drive motor engines. D. It can be made with ease.
Question 37: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Electric magnets. B. Voltages. C. Pipes and radiators. D. Generators or turbines.
Question 38: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are___________.
A. atomic power and water B. water and coal C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas
Question 39: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to___________.
A. new ways B. harmful effects C. scientists D. the tides
Question 40: Electric magnets are used in steel works to___________.
A. boil a jug of water B. test the steel for strength C. lift heavy weights up to ten tons D. heat the molten steel
Question 41: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is they___.
A. are more adaptable B. are more reliable C. do not pollute the environment D. do not require attention
Question 42: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Sunlight. B. Wind. C. Petrol. D. Water.
Question 43: The best title for this passage could be___________.
A. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable” B. “Types of Power Plants”
C. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life” D. “How to Produce Electricity”
11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.
B. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
C. Richard didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
Question 45: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 46: They couldn’t climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
B. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
C. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
D. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
Question 47: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back
B. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
D. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
Question 48: I ran into Peter, a friend of mine, on my may to work this morning.
A. Peter ran into his friend this morning. B. I met Peter unexpectedly on my way to work this morning.
C. Peter and I ran to work this morning D. Peter had to work this morning, but I did not
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair of sentences given in each of the questions.
Question 49: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
C. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
D. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

TEST 15
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in the questions.
Question 1: A. overlooks B. beliefs C. towards D. rights
Question 2: A. apathy B. lethal C. wreath D. brethren
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the one differs from the others in the position of primary stress in the questions.
Question 3: A. thermometer B. ignominious C. popularity D. paralytic
Question 4: A. atmosphere B. indelible C. versatile D. skyscraper
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in the questions.
Question 5: I wanted to prove to my family that I could make something of myself.
A. get through the difficult times by myself B. make up my mind without any help
C. become successful through my own efforts D. put my back into studying
Question 6: The students have to sift through all the journals in the library to find the information their professor
want them to find.
A. sort and select from B. immaculately tidy up C. read carefully D. go over
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the ITALIC
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: In just four short years, his company has made phenomenal progress in delivering great market success.
12
A. impeccable B. unremarkable C. impressive D. inadequate
Question 8: Because we know nothing, in this view, we should treat all things with indifference and make no
judgments.
A. reconciling ourself to something B. becoming annoyed very easily
C. feeling totally different from other people D. showing interest in something
Mark A, B,C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 9: According to classical musical tradition, the term “sonata” is given to those works are written for solo
piano or for a solo wind or stringed instrument.
Question 10: Although assemblage has been a part of art for centuries, its appearance in the West as a serious art
form is quite fairly recent.
Question 11: If she can’t keep up payments she risks to lose her home, as thousands of families have done.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 12: The number of people traveling by air has been growing_________.
A. by leaps and bounds B. from time to time C. slow but sure D. by hook or by crook
Question 13: Salt is manufactured in quantities that exceed those of most, ________, other commercial chemicals.
A. of not all B. not if at all C. are not all D. if not all
Question 14: The boss told the workers that he would try his best to continue running the company and promised not
to_________ any employees during the economic recession.
A. cross out B. shut down C. lay off D. take over
Question 15: The accident is said _______ the driver’s careless driving and the thick fog.
A. to have been resulted in B. to result from C. having resulted in D. to have resulted from
Question 16: I can’t do whatever I want because I am still financially_________ on my parents.
A. determined B. dependable C. reliant D. subject
Question 17: This book was so interesting that I could hardly_________ it.
A. get rid of B. keep myself away from C. tear myself away from D. break away from
Question 18: The harder you study, the more questions you will think of _________ .
A. asking B. to ask C. being asked D. to be asked
Question 19: The previous negotiations didn’t go anywhere, and we intend to start them again next week with a_
slate.
A. new B. plain C. clean D. fresh
Question 20: Many young people in the West are expected to leave_________ could be life’s most important
decision - marriage - almost entirely up to luck.
A. what B. that C. which D. who
Question 21: _____ to caring for the poor, Mother Teresa is greatly respected throughout the world.
A. Devoting B. Being devoted C. Having devoted D. Devoted
Question 22: Since drinking water is a________ resource, we should let children know how precious it is, and teach
them to conserve it.
A. limitless B. limited C. limiting D. limitation
Question 23: When disaster________, organisations such as Oxfarm quickly provide help.
A. comes B. approaches C. arrives D. strikes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Peter: “My mother’s much better now.” – Kyle: “______________”.
A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it B. Wonderful! Congratulation
C. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good D. Good news for you
Question 25: Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your party?” – Mary: “________________”.
A. The more the merrier B. That’s right C. Beggars can’t be choosers D. Straight away
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer of the questions.
One of the most difficult questions to answer is how much a job is worth. We naturally expect that a doctor’s
salary will be higher than a bus conductor’s wage. But the question becomes much more difficult to answer when we
compare, say, a miner with an engineer, or an unskilled man working on an oil-rig in the North Sea with a teacher in
a secondary school. What the doctor, the engineer and teacher have is many years of training in order to obtain the
necessary qualifications for their professions. We feel instinctively that these skills and these years, when they were
studying instead of earning money, should be rewarded. At the same time we recognize that the work of the miner
and the oil-rig laborer is both hard and dangerous, and that they must be highly paid for the risks they take.
13
 Another factor we must take into consideration is how socially useful a man’s work is, regardless of the
talents he may bring to it. Most people would agree that looking after the sick or teaching children is more important
than, say, selling secondhand cars or improving the taste of toothpaste by adding a red stripe to it. Yet it is almost
certain that the used car salesman earns more than the nurse, and that research chemist earns more than the school
teacher.
Indeed, this whole question of just rewards can be turned on its head. You can argue that a man who does a
job which brings him personal satisfaction is already receiving part of his reward in the form of a so-called “psychic
wage”, and that it is the man with the boring, repetitive job who needs more money to make up for the soul-
destroying monotony of his work. It is significant that that those jobs which are traditionally regarded as “vocations”
- nursing, teaching and the Church, for example - continue to be poorly paid, while others, such as those in the world
of sport or entertainment, carry financial rewards out of all proportion to their social worth.
Although the amount of money that people earn is in reality largely determined by market forces, this should
not prevent us from seeking some way to decide what is the right pay for the job. A starting point for such an
investigation would be to try to decide the ratio which ought to exist between the highest and the lowest paid. The
picture is made more complicate by two factors: firstly by the “social wage”, i.e, the welfare benefits which every
citizen receives; and secondly, by the taxation system, which is often used as an instrument of social justice by taxing
high incomes at a very high rate indeed. Allowing for these two things, most countries now regard a ratio of 7:1 as
socially acceptable. If it is less, the highly-qualified people carrying heavy responsibilities become disillusioned, and
might even end up by emigration (the so-called “brain-drain” is an evidence that this can happen). If it is more, the
gap between rich and poor will be so great that it will lead social tensions and ultimately to violence.
Question 26: According to the passage, the professional man, such as the doctor, should be well paid because_____.
A. he has spent several years learning how to do his job. B. he knows more than other people about his subject
C. he has to work much harder than most other people
D. his work involves much great intelligence than, say, a bus conductor’s
Question 27: As far as rewarding people for their work is concerned, the writer, believes that ______.
A. we should pay for socially-useful work, regardless of the person’s talent
B. we should pay people according to their talents
C. qualified people should be the highest paid. D. market forces will determine how much a person is paid
Question 28: The argument of the “psychic wage” is used to explain why__________.
A. people who do socially important work are not always well paid
B. people who do monotonous jobs are highly paid
C. you should not try to compare the pay of different professions
D. some professional people are paid more than others
Question 29: In Paragraph 2 and 3, the author indicates that__________.
A. the talented should do more important work. B. unskilled jobs have less social responsibility
C. those with more socially useful jobs earn less. D. people want to pay more to important services
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that a man who does a boring, repetitive job ______.
A. receives less money than he deserves
B. should receive more money as a compensation for the drudgery of his work
C. can only expect more money if his job is a highly-skilled one
D. has no interest in his work apart from the money he receives for doing it
Question 31: The word “disillusioned” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.
A. disagreeable B. disenchanted C. discreditable D. dishonest
Question 32: The author mentions “brain-drain” as an evidence to show that__________.
A. well-educated people are prepared to emigrate whenever they can get a better paid job
B. people with jobs or responsibility expect to be highly paid
C. high taxation is a useful and effective instrument of social justice
D. the poor are generally more patriotic than the rich
Question 33: Which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. It’s difficult to define the social value of a job. B. The market will decide what the right pay is for a job.
C. People should find a proper ratio between high and low pay.
D. Those receiving high salary should carry heavy responsibilities.
Read and mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
14
 The growth of population has its problems as we shall see. As there are more and more mouths (34)___, there
comes a great strain (35)__ the resources of a country; this is real in the case of developing countries with the result
they are unable to push ahead economically. As food is not sufficient there is chronic malnutrition in these countries
especially in women and children resulting in weaker population (36)___ would only economically be a drain on the
country as their productive years will be short. As health and education are the State's (37)_____, they affect the
country's finances. So in developing countries health and illiteracy continue to be the problem. The unwieldy growth
of population leads to the problem of housing and sanitation. In many countries the slums are a (38)__ to the eyes.
Slums grow round big cities and are found with all the drawbacks. These are the areas of disease, filth and crime.
Question 34: A. to be fed B. to feed C. for feeding D. fed
Question 35: A. to B. for C. down D. on
Question 36: A. which B. what C. who D. those
Question 37: A. problem B. job C. affair D. work
Question 38: A. pain B. sore C. hurt D. wound
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
[1]
Widespread evidence links global warming to a series of environmental effects.
[2]
Starving polar bears are eating one another in the Arctic. Flowers are blooming too soon and die. The ice caps are
melting so fast that rising water levels will threaten coastal towns along Florida within several decades. These are just
a few examples of the terrible consequences of climate change discovered by a new research in Nature that paints a
dark portrait of what a warming world will look like in the years to come.
[3]
The researchers analyzed 829 abnormal phenomena - including melting glaciers - along with nearly 30,000
changes in plants and animals and found that about 90% of them are in sync with scientists’ predictions about how
global warming will change the planet.
[4]
“In the past three decades, average global temperatures have risen about 0.60C and are projected to jump by about
1.70C by the end of the century,” says Cynthia Rosenzweig, who leads the Climate Impacts Group at NASA's
Goddard Institute for Space Studies at Columbia University in New York. “We’ve already seen that a relatively low
amount of warming,” she says, “can result in a broad range of changes.”
[5]
The unnatural warming caused by man-made greenhouse gases, especially carbon dioxide produced by cars and
coal-powered plants, brings trouble for entire ecosystems. In North America alone, scientists have identified 89
species of plants, such as the American holly, which have flowered earlier in the spring. In Spain, apple trees bloom
35 days ahead of schedule in response to the higher temperatures. Other wildlife, like the insects that use certain
plants for food and the birds that feed on the insects, must then move forward their seasonal stirrings and mating
patterns to survive.
[6]
To try to follow this time shift, some birds such as robins, the classic symbol of winter’s thaw, are returning to
Colorado from their migrations some two weeks earlier than in years past. All these changes can throw a food chain
in disorder. Some bird species that arrive before the insects reappear may starve to death.
[7]
“Around the world, plants and animals are waking up to an earlier alarm clock than they used to,” says Terry Root,
a biologist from Stanford University.
Question 39: The author describes some unnatural phenomena in paragraph 2 to__________.
A. show a picture of the present world. B. present the results of a recent research
C. indicate the earth is now in great danger. D. call readers’ attention to the new research
Question 40: The analysis of abnormal phenomena on earth shows that__________.
A. scientists made wrong predictions about the future of earth
B. most changes agree with scientists’ previous predictions
C. melting glaciers have caused the worst side effects D. global warming has changed all the plants and animals
Question 41: The word “projected” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.
A. forced B. presented C. indicated D. predicted
Question 42: Why must some birds move about earlier than usual?
A. Because they need to follow some insects for food. B. Because certain trees bloom a month ahead of time.
C. Because the warm weather wakes them up earlier. D. Because the plants they use to hunt food bloom late.
Question 43: According to the fifth paragraph, as a result of climate change__________.
A. the warm weather wakes animals up earlier B. certain trees bloom a season ahead of time
C. the birds need to change patterns of living D. the American holly will flower in late spring
Question 44: What do we know about robins?
A. Farmers depend on them to tell the time B. They used to come back when spring came
15
C. They used to predict the change of weather D. They usually migrate when seasons change
Question 45: Which of the following would be the best title for the text?
A. Man Is to Blame for Global Warming B. Humans Are Causing the World to Heat Up
C. The Terrible Consequences of Climate Change D. Global Warming Is Changing Nature’s Clock
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was astronomical.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.
B. It was its astronomical price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.
C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.
D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.
Question 47: “You should have finished the report by now”, John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Question 48: He is an authority on primitive religion.
A. He is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive religion.
B. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion.
C. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion.
D. He has official permission to practice primitive religion.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.
B. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
C. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
D. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
Question 50: His wife phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document.
A. His wife phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.
B. His wife phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document.
C. His wife phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
D. His wife phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document.

TEST 16
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the one differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the questions.
Question 1:A. entertainment B. manufacture C. recommendation D. supplementary
Question 2:A. generosity B. international C. isolation D. facilities
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part ispronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. catastrophe B. become C. propose D. survive
Question 4:A. pleasure B. conclusion C. measure D. comparison
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the questions.
Question 5: Her husband died. When she heard the news, she fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her husband’s death, she fainted.
B. When she heard the deadly news of her husband, she fainted.
C. When hear the news from her dead husband, she fainted.
D. On hearing the news of her dead husband, she fainted.
Question 6: He cannot practice scuba diving. He has a weak heart.
A. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
B. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is because he has a weak heart.
C. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
D. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him from practicing scuba diving.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of
16
reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of
alcohol, grant rights to people who were denied them, and, most importantly, free slaves. Some women saw
similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Woman like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were
feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists
who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd
Garnison and Wendell Phillips, also supported the rights of women to speak and to participate equally with men in
anti-slavery activities. Probably more than any other movement abolitionism offered women a previously denied
entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and improve the
conditions of others.
When the civil war ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868
and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists worked
tirelessly to influence more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had
yielded to demiulds by feminists, but the states on the Fast Coast resisted more stubbornly than before. A women’s
suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878, but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the
Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.
Question 7: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Women’s suffrage. B. Abolitionists.
C. The Wyoming Territory. D. The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments.
Question 8: The word "it" in line 16 refers to.......
A. Congress B. Nineteenth Amendment C. bill D. vote
Question 9: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?
A. To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president. B. To be elected to public office.
C. To improve the conditions of life that existed at the time. D. To amend the Declaration of Independence.
Question 10: The word "suffrage" in line 12 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. freedom from bondage B. citizenship C. pain D. the right to vote
Question 11: What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee?
A. Citizenship for women B. Citizenship for blacks C. Voting rights for women D. Voting rights for blacks
Question 12: What had occurred shortly after the Civil War?
A. The eastern states resisted the end of the war. B. A women’s suffrage bill was introduced in Congress.
C. Black people were granted the right to vote. D. The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the Union.
Question 13: When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States?
A. after 1878 B. after 1866 C. after 1920 D. after 1870
Question 14: The word "ban" in line 3 most nearly means to........
A. publish B. prohibit C. limit D. encourage
Mark A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 15: The number of homeless people after the flood........dramatically.
A. had increased B. are increasing C. increase D. has increased
Question 16: Neither of them offered to help you, ........?
A. did it B. did they C. did you D. didn’t you
Question 17: As I was walking along the street, I saw.....$100 note on......pavement
A. a - the B. the - a C. a - a D. the - the
Question 18: I think my car has been stolen. .....the police.
A. am not allowed to phone B. am supposed to phone C. should be phoned D. had better phone
Question 19: ......the alarm go off, please leave the building at once.
A. Should B. If C. As D. Unless
Question 20: By the end of the week, you must decide.......or not you want to apply for this post.
A. if B. otherwise C. whether D. rather
Question 21: Teaching small children requires.......patience.
A. a lot B. a few C. a number of D. a great deal of
Question 22: The weather is getting.......due to the effects of global warming.
A. more and more badlyB. worse and worse C. less and less D. belter and better
Question 23: HCR is one of the biggest international and......caring for refugees.
A. agencies B. federations C. groups D. societies
Question 24: He talked as if he.......where she was.
17
 A. is known B. know C. had known D. would know
Question 25: ........after the World War II, the United Nations has been actively carrying out its convention to
stop wars and bring peace to nations worldwide.
A. Having established B. To be established C. To establish D. Established
Question 26: We finally.......at eight o’clock in the morning.
A. put out B. set off C. took after D. took care of
Mark A, B, C, or to indicate the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word(s) in the questions.
Question 27: David Beckham is one of the celebrities who are still popular after their retirement,
A. individuals B. rich people C. bachelors D. famous people
Question 28: The integration of several schools has decreased the number of academic options in our
community.
A. disunion B. division C. separation D. combination
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 29: "Oh no, I’m late for my appointment. ............."
A. Pleased to meet you. B. Catch you later. C. Nice to see you again. D. Catch you now.
Question 30: ~ Nam: "Do you have the time please?" ~ Lan: "............"
A. I am busy right now. I am afraid, B. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here.
C. Yes, I have some time for you. D. I am very sorry. I am already late.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 31: He was way behind with his rent. As a result, he was evicted from his apartment.
A. ejected B. kicked out C. admitted D. dismissed
Question 32: We will find a temporary shelter for the victims of the fire until they have a place.
A. permanent B. brief C. unstable D. shortly
Mark A, B, C, D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 33: There are many benefits that we may be gained by actually taking the time to read a book instead
of sitting in front of the TV or doing some other forms of mindless entertainment.
Question 34: The purpose of traveller’s checks is to protect travellers from theft and accidental lost of money.
Question 35: It is educational that helps enrich the mind and widens our knowledge.
Read the following passage and choose the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Harnessing the wind is one of the cleanest, most sustainable ways to ...(36)...electricity. Wind power produces no
toxic emissions and none of the heat-trapping emissions that contribute ..(37)... global warming. This, and the fact
that wind power is one of the most abundant and .(38)... cost-competitive energy resources, makes it a viable
...(39).. to the fossil fuels that harm our health and threaten the environment....(40).. its many benefits and
significantly reduced costs, wind power is poised to play a major role as we move towards a sustainable energy
future.
Question 36:A. generate B. control C. direct D. manufacture
Question 37:A. to B. into C. on D. for
Question 38:A. increasingly B. increased C. increasing D. increase
Question 39:A. difference B. reference C. alternative D. solution
Question 40:A. Despite B. As for C. Because of D. Thanks to
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
With the advent of the computer age, it was [rashly] predicted by computer manufacturers that technology would
help to save trees and create a paperless office. Unfortunately, far from cutting down on the amount of paper used,
we now used 10% more paper than we did before, a lot of which is used for printing out web pages and emails.
Despite all this, computer companies are still msisting that conventional books will soon disappear, to be
replaced by the handheld e-book. For one particular version of the e-book available at the moment, you hold your
laptop like a book and read the book that you have bought and downloaded over the internet. It is very doubtful,
however, whether this means that the ordinary reader is going to give up using books made of paper easily. Trying
to read an e-book in bright sunshine on a beach, with the sun reflecting off the ocean and when its batteries may be
running dovm is hardly a recipe for a relaxed and carefree vacation. Basically, there is nothing as easy to use as the
common paperback novel and it will take a lot to replace it!
There may still be something to be said for e-books when it comes to weighty academic volumes that students
need to refer to for their studies. Instead of having to carry them around or physically go to a library to read them,
18
they would be able to download the sections they needed and use them on-screen or print them out.
Changes will probably take place anyway in conventional publishing, with the incorporation of digital printing
techniques. It may soon be possible to have a particular book printed on demand over the Net, using digital copies
of the work provided by the publisher. Perhaps in this way we will eventually be able to reduce our consumption of
paper.
Question 41: What disadvantage of the e-book does the author point out?
A. It has to have a power supply B. It can't be taken onto the beach
C. It's rather heavy to hold D. It's not relaxed
Question 42: In what way does the author suggest that the amount of paper we use might be reduced?
A. by only having a book printed when someone requests it B. by involving publishers in the printing of books
C. by creating a paperless office D. by selling books over the Internet
Question 43: The word "rashly" in the passage is closest in meaning to.......
A. increasingly B. surely C. uncertainly D. quickly
Question 44: According to the passage, e-books.......
A. will be used more for leisure reading B. are unlikely to be used by anyone
C. are not at all a good idea D. may be useful when reading for reference
Question 45: What argument did the computer makers use to support the widespread use of computers?
A. Offices would find their work cut by 10% B. Their use would have significant ecological value
C. Conventional books would gradually die out D. Trees would no longer have to be cut down to make paper
Question 46: The word "they" in the passage refers to.......
A. e-books B. volumes C. students D. studies
Question 47: In the passage, the author says that.....
A. laptops are a convenient way to read a novel B. conventional books will soon become a thing of the past
C. readers will easily get used to e-books D. the general reader is reluctant to give up using conventional books
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 48: It’s not worth trying to make her change her mind.
A. There’s no point in trying to make her change her mind. B. It’s no point in trying to make her change her mind.
C. There’s no point to try to make her change her mind.D. It’s no point for trying to make her change her mind.
Question 49: We were surprised because she suddenly came back.
A. She suddenly came back, which almost surprised us.B. She suddenly came back, which was very surprismg.
C. That she suddenly came back made us surprised. D. That she suddenly came back made us surprise.
Question 50: You must never take your helmet off while you are riding a motorcycle.
A. When you are riding a motorcycle, wearing a helmet is not a must.
B. Helmet must be worn at all times when you are riding a motorcycle.
C. If you are riding a motorcycle, you needn't wear a helmet.
D. You needn't wear a helmet whenever you are riding a motorcycle.

TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wanted B. hated C. decided D. stopped
Question 2: A. through B. couple C. double D. trouble
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions from question.
Question 3: A. guarantee B. direction C. opinion D. collision
Question 4: A. emotional B. sympatheticC. indifferent D. responsible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the italic part in each of the following questions.
Question 5: If the headmaster were here, he would sign your paper immediately.
A. currently B. right away C. formally D. right ahead
Question 6: Not until all their demands had been rejected did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfare.
A. sacked B. detected C. reviewed D. turned down
Mark A, B, C, or to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in the questions.
19
Question 7: She denied having stolen the money.
A. avoided B. admired C. advised D. admitted
Question 8: The City Of Hue is very famous for its Royal Tombs.
A. popular B. notorious C. little-known D. infamous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A baby learns the meanings of words as they are spoken by others and later uses him in sentences.
Question 10: Get up early can be very difficult for some people.
Question 11: Only when he was half way through the task did he realize how difficult was it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 12: Two friends Laura and Maria are talking about Maria's house.
~ Laura: "What a lovely house you have!" ~ Maria: "________________"
A. Of course not, it's not costly B. I think so C. No problem D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
Question 13: Harry is talking to Judy after Judy had helped Harry.
~ Harry: "Thanks for your help, Judy." ~ Judy: "________________”
A. It's my pleasure B. With all my heart C. Never remind me D. Wish you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: I haven't read any novels_________ as I have been too busy.
A. recently B. immediately C. already D. finally
Question 15: I was woken by the sound of someone_________ on the door.
A. crashing B. hitting C. bumping D. knocking
Question 16: Water_________ at 100 degree Celsius.
A. has boiled B. boils C. is boiling D. will boil
Question 17: After having a bath, he_________ his supper.
A. has eaten B. ate C. had eaten D. was eating
Question 18: Miss Helen is the only teacher in this school to have lots of_________ in teaching young children.
A. notice B. fuss C. attitude D. experience
Question 19: John is an old friend of mine. We_________ each other_________ ages.
A. are knowing - for B. have known - for C. have known – since D. know - for
Question 20: We haven't seen each other since we_________ school three years ago.
A. leave B. have left C. had left D. left
Question 21: Some people tend to view foreigners with_________.
A. suspiciously B. suspect C. suspicious D. suspicion
Question 22: We must do it_________ otherwise it will be too late!
A. lately B. slowly C. immediately D. finally
Question 23: Who_________ the car at time of the accident?
A. drove B. had driven C. drives D. was driving
Question 24: After I_________ finished working, I switched off the machine.
A. to have B. having C. had D. have
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Last week, I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives people
much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The
students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the word, spend the morning studying. In the
afternoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such as helping on the farm, looking after people with learning
difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.
One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social
backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available.
A quarter of students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. "I
really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people", as Barbara
Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. "You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you
don't like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn't believe how much less I argued with my sister."
To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to
work.
Question 25: What is the writer's opinion of Atlantic College?
A. It doesn't give good value for money. B. Its way of teaching is successful.
20
 C. It doesn't allow students enough study time. D. Its students are taught to like each other.
Question 26: The word "argued" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. admired B. regarded C. quarreled D. respected
Question 27: What can a reader find out from this text?
A. how to get along better with other people B. how to become a student at Atlantic College
C. what kind of program Atlantic College offers D. what the British education system is like
Question 28: What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. give an opinion about a particular student B. give an opinion about a special type of education
C. describe his own experience of education D. describe the activities the students do in their free time
Question 29: The word "opportunity" in paragraph one is CLOSEST in meaning to__________.
A. chance B. idea C. lucky D. respect
Question 30: How has Barbara changed since being at Atlantic College?
A. She finds it easier to get on with other people. B. She knows a lot about other countries.
C. She prefers her new friends to her family. D. She is more confident than her sister now.
Read and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about
yourself. Think about how you want to present your strengths, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals.
Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good
idea to review your résumé with a critical eye and (31)__ areas that an employer might see as limitations or want
further information. Think about how you can answer difficult questions (32)___ and positively, while keeping each
answer brief. An interview gives the employer a (33)____ to get to know you. While you do want to market yourself
to the employer, answer each question with an honest response. Never say anything negative about past experiences,
employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that.
You should also be enthusiastic. If you are genuinely interested (34)_____ the job, let the interviewer know that.
Question 31: A. hide B. limit C. express D. identify
Question 32: A. rightly B. sharply C. accurately D. hardly
Question 33: A. chance B. way C. practice D. change
Question 34: A. on B. for C. in D. with
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Who talk more - men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist Deborah
Tannen, who has studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a stereotype. According to
Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more - in private situations, where they use conversation as the "glue" to hold
relationships together. But, she says, men talk more in public situations, where they use conversation to exchange
information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these differences even in children. Little girls often
play with one "best friend", their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups; their
play usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, boys are often better at
mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers studied
conversation between children age 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very differently to
their son than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls.
Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is
also far more talk about emotions, especially sadness, with daughters than with sons.
Question 35: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Women talk more than men. B. It's stereotype that women talk more than men.
C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public
D. Little girls and little boys have different ways of playing.
Question 36: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Parents do not talk much about sadness with their sons.
B. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.
C. Study at Emoiy University can help to explain the differences between communication styles of boys and girls.
D. An Emory University found that parents talk more with their daughters than with their sons.
Question 37: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Women talk more in some situations, men talk more in others.
B. Men and women have different styles of talking, which may begin in childhood.
21
 C. According to Deborah Tannen, the belief that women talk more is partly right but most wrong and
oversimplified. D. Men are more sociable than women
Question 38: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the passage?
A. Girls are thought to be more talkative than boys. B. Parents give more love to their daughters than their sons.
C. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters. D. Boys don't like showing their emotions.
Question 39: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. Boys don't like to be with their parents as much as girls do.
B. A recent study found that parents talk differently to their sons and daughters.
C. Parents don't enjoy talking with their sons as much as with their daughters.
D. Girls have more practice discussing sadness than boys do.
Question 40: Which word could best replace "startling"?
A. interesting B. annoying C. surprising D. beginning
Question 41: Which word is similar in meaning to "glue" in the first paragraph?
A. game B. sticky substance C. rope D. means
Question 42: The word "they" in the passage refers to__________.
A. men and women B. situations. C. men D. women
Question 43: Which can be used as a synonym of the word "emotions"?
A. thinking B. feelings C. worries D. anger
Question 44: Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word "verbal"?
A. being very talkative B. deriving from verbs
C. connected with the use of spoken language D. using very loud noise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the one that best combines each pair of them in the following questions.
Question 45: I admire her achievements. However, I don't really like her.
A. Whatever her achievements, I don't really like her. B. I don't really like her for I admire her achievements.
C. Even though I admire her achievements, I don't really like her.
D. Although I admire her achievements, I really like her.
Question 46: The girl was not allowed to have any friends, so she felt lonely.
A. Not having friends, they made the girl feel lonely. B. Having a few friends, the girl felt lonely.
C. Having many friends, the girl felt lonely. D. Deprived of friends, the girl felt lonely
Question 47: Mr. Smith is a professor. His car was stolen yesterday.
A. Mr. Smith, who is a professor, his car was stolen yesterday.
B. Mr. Smith, who his car was stolen yesterday, is a professor.
C. Mr. Smith, whose car was stolen yesterday, is a professor. D. His car was stolen yesterday, he is a professor.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the one that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Is it necessary to meet your sister at the airport?
A. Did your sister have to be met at the airport? B. Was your sister met at the airport?
C. Does your sister have to be met at the airport? D. Does your sister have to meet at the airport?
Question 49: "If I were you, I would ask the teacher for help," John said to Tom.
A. John advised Tom not to ask the teacher for help. B. John advised Tom to ask the teacher for help.
C. John told Tom that he would ask the teacher for help. D. John told Tom to ask the teacher.
Question 50: I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to her.
A. I wish I went to the airport to say goodbye to her. B. If only I had gone to the airport to say goodbye to her.
C. If only I went to the airport to say goodbye to her. D. I wish I have gone to the airport to say goodbye to her.

TEST 18
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
Question 1. A. attracts B. humans C. follows D. genders
Question 2. A. open B. other C. only D. smoking
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.
Question 3. A. finish B. visit C. passion D. invite
Question 4. A. stimulate B. romantic C. permission D. pollutant
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in the questions.
Question 5. I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
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 A. be lonely B. be special C. be quiet D. be private
Question 6. The old people in the neighborhood are constantly visiting each other.
A. quite often B. rarely C. continuously D. occasionally
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in the questions.
Question 7. The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. interesting B. simple C. complicated D. boring
Question 8. There is practically no difference between the two options.
A. virtually B. hardly C. usually D. exactly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 9. Dad has just come back home from a shop.
- Dad: "I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!" - Son: "_________ "
A. Have a nice day B. The same to you! C. What a lovely toy! Thanks.D. What a pity!
Question 10. Sam is talking to Mai on the first day at school.
- Sam: "How long does it take you to get to school?" - Mai: " _____."
A. About 2 kilometres B. 2 years ago C. About 15 minutes D. 15 pounds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following questions.
Question 11. The pupils haven't done their homework, what is too bad.
Question 12. My daughter has learned English at the age of 8.
Question 13. I'm looking forward to attend your wedding this spring.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14. She told him________ give up hope.
A. not give B. to not give C. not to give D. to give not
Question 15. Her mother asked her to________ the table for the evening meal.
A. place B. lay C. spread D. put
Question 16. To save energy, we should remember to________ the lights before going out.
A. turn down B. turn on C. turn off D. turn up
Question 17. You'll get a cold if you_________ your warm clothes.
A. haven't changed B. won't change C. didn't change D. don't change
Question 18. She sings as_________ as her mother.
A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautify
Question 19. My dad is a_________ smoker. He smokes every day.
A. strong B. hooked C. plentiful D. heavy
Question 20. Britain's Prince William arrived_________ Hanoi on Wednesday for his first visit to Vietnam. A. at
B. to C. on D. in
Question 21. Health officials said both men and women should avoid_________ to places where Zika cases have
been confirmed if they plan to have children.
A. to travel B. being travelled C. travelling D. to travelling
Question 21. Mrs. Smith, _________ has a lot of teaching experience, is going to join our school in September.
A. whose B. who C. whom D. that
Question 23. Michael_________ water sports when he was younger.
A. is used to play B. is used to playing C. used to playD. used to playing
Question 24. Almost everyone for home by the time we arrived.
A. left B. leaves C. had left D. leave
Question 25. That's a nice coat, and the colour________ you well.
A. suits B. matches C. shows D. fits
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century Peter
Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890,
during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a
living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as
well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame
von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the
music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.
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 Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the
dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now some scholars who argue
that he committed suicide.
Question 26. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT______.
A. She had economic troubles. B. She was generous.
C. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music. D. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.
Question 27. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well-known?
A. the richness and melodic drama of the music B. its lively, capricious melodies
C. its repetitive and monotonous tones D. the ballet-like quality of the music
Question 28. It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _________.
A. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
B. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
C. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages
Question 29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing. B. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music. D. the patronage of Madame von Meck.
Question 30. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets D. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
Question 31. According to the passage, "Swan Lake" and "The Sleeping Beauty" are_________.
A. songs B. operas C. plays D. dances
Question 32. Which of the following could best replace the word "terminated"?
A. hated B. resolved C. discontinued D. exploited
Question 33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "behind"?
A. in back of B. concealing C. going beyond D. supporting
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The tourist industry is (34)________ to be the largest industry. Before 1950 one million people travelled
abroad each year but by the 1900s the figure (35)________ to 400 million every year. Such large numbers of
tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in the Alps the skiers are destroying the mountains
they came to enjoy. Even parts of Mount Everest in the Himalayas are reported to be covered (36)____ old tins, tents,
and food that have been (37)____. But at a time when we have greater freedom to travel than ever before, more
and more people are asking how they can enjoy their holidays without causing problems by spoiling the countryside.
Now there is a new holiday guide called "Holidays That Don't Cost The Earth". It tells you how you can help the
tourist industry by asking your travel agent the right questions (38)____ you go on holiday.
Question 34. A. seen B. considered C. figured D. regarded
Question 35. A. were rising B. had risen C. has risen D. rose
Question 36. A. under B. with C. beneath D. by
Question 37. A. thrown away B. launched C. littered D. disposed
Question 38. A. after B. as soon as C. before D. when
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Under the Medicare insurance policy, people approaching 65 may enroll during the seven- month period that
includes three months before the sixty-fifth birthday, the month in which the birthday falls, and three months after the
birthday. However, if they wish the insurance coverage to begin when they reach 65, they must enroll three months
before their birthday. People who do not enroll within their first enrollment period may enroll later, during the first
three months of each year. Those people, however, must pay 10% additional for each twelve- month period that
elapsed since they first could have enrolled. The monthly premium is deducted from social security payments,
railroad retirement or civil service retirement benefits.
Question 39. The period after the sixty-fifth birthday during which people may apply for Medicare is .
A. one month B. January 1 to March 31 yearly C. a quarter of a year D. seven months
Question 40. You can infer that people over 65 who enroll two years after they could have enrolled pay 10% more
for two years and then could .
A. continue to pay more than people who enrolled before they were 65 B. pay less than people who enrolled before 65

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 C. pay the same as people who enrolled before 65 D. be excluded from the Medicare plan completely
Question 41. To start coverage by Medicare on their sixty-fifth birthday, people must apply______.
A. three months before their birthday B. seven months before their birthday
C. four months before their birthday D. the month in which their birthday occurs
Question 42. The author's purpose is to________.
A. tell people when they may enroll in Medicare B. stimulate enrollment in Medicare
C. describe the benefits of Medicare D. advertise Medicare
Question 43. The word "deducted" in the passage can be replaced by________.
A. subtracted B. protected C. escaped D. taken away
Question 44. The word "elapsed" in the passage most closely means________.
A. finished B. passed C. ended D. expired
Question 45. People would pay 10% more for their insurance if they________.
A. were under 65 B. enrolled after their sixty-fifth birthday
C. applied seven months before their sixty-fifth birthday D. enrolled in a private plan
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46. Jim has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.
A. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.
B. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.
C. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.
D. Jim has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.
Question 47. My sister didn't leave the car key. I couldn't pick her up at the airport.
A. If my sister have left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
B. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
C. If my sister had left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
D. If my sister left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48. Chatting with friends is interesting.
A. People chatting with friends are interesting. B. The only interesting thing is chatting with friends.
C. The friends we chat with are interesting. D. It is interesting to chat with friends.
Question 49. She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
Question 50. They asked me to send my latest photo.
A. My latest photo was sent by them. B. I was sent their latest photo.
C. The latest photo they asked about was sent to me. D. I was asked to send my latest photo.

TEST 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. society B. delegate C. president D. protection
Question 2: A. packed B. punched C. pleased D. finished
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. elegant B. authentic C. departure D. inherit
Question 4: A. brochure B. achieve C. purchase D. teacher
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long
periods covering by water.
Question 6: Besides rainfall in the desert is low, it is one of the most important climatic factors in the formation of
desert erosion features.
Question 7: Regardless of the homes from which students come, every one of whom usually has at least one person
who cares.
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Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: ______ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced
Question 9: ______ had the curtain been raised than the light went out.
A. Only when B. Scarcely C. Hardly D. No sooner
Question 10: A washing machine of this type will certainly ______ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
Question 11: Don’t park your car before the office building, _____ you will have to pay for a fine.
A. therefore B. unless C. because D. or
Question 12: Buy me a newspaper on your way back, _____?
A. will you B. don’t you C. can’t you D. do you
Question 13: People should not have children unless they are ______ to being responsible parents.
A. allowed B. promised C. involved D. committed
Question 14: ______ so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t
Question 15: The teacher told the pupils that salt water _____ at a lower temperature than fresh water.
A. froze B. would freeze C. freeze D. freezes
Question 16: He has declared _____ building a new bridge.
A. about B. against C. to D. in
Question 17: Although the producer is __ to the reactions of his audience, he feels he must portray a ‘real’ situation.
A. enthusiastic B. respectful C. sarcastic D. sympathetic
Question 18: I am _____ tired to think about that problem now.
A. very B. nearly C. far too D. much more
Question 19: The Jackson won’t contribute to the Red Cross unless you _____.
A. go down on your knees B. stand on your own feet C. are on your last legs D. keep your head
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: The teacher asked students to discuss the situation: “Which is better, supermarkets or traditional
markets?” - Jennifer: “I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets.”
- Katherine: “_________. Each has its own features.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more. B. That’s completely true.
C. I disagree with you. D. I can’t help thinking the same.
Question 21: Ann and Matthew are talking about the effects of global warming.
- Ann: “Does the global warming worry you?” - Matthew: “_______”
A. What a shame! B. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter.
C. I can’t bear to think about it. D. I don’t like hot weather.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: “Edwards seems like a dog with two tails this morning”. “Haven’t you heard the news? His wife gave
birth to a baby boy early this morning.”
A. very proud B. very exhausted C. extremely dazed D. extremely pleased
Question 23: Shyness, the most common form of social anxiety, occurs when a person’s apprehensions are so great
that they inhibit his making an expected or desired social response.
A. discharge B. trigger C. restrain D. defer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Nowadays, it was rather easy to buy a modern TV, and it does pack a punch to bring to life some really
awesome visuals.
A. have little effect on something B. make bad things happen
C. produce the results that aren’t intended C. prevent something from coming into use
Question 25: But what most prevents women from reaching the boardroom, say bosses and headhunters, is lack of
hands-on experience of a firm’s core business.
A. insignificant B. impractical C. unavailable D. untested
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Mr. Brown said, “Could you please wait here about half an hour?”
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A. Mr. Brown asked me if I had been able to wait there about half an hour.
B. Mr. Brown asked me if I could wait there about half an hour.
C. Mr. Brown asked me to wait there about half an hour.
D. Mr. Brown asked me if I was pleased to wait there about half an hour.
Question 27: Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
A. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, they decided to move to a bigger house.
B. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child that they decided to move to a bigger house.
C. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child did they decide to move to a bigger house.
D. Only when had Alice and Charles had their second child than they decided to move to a bigger house.
Question 28: The spectators were so excited to see the race that they did not pay so much attention to that little
incident.
A. Such excitement were the spectators to see the race that they did not pay attention to that little incident.
B. So excited were the spectators to see the race that they didn’t pay so much attention to that little incident.
C. The spectators paid full attention to the race with excitement, so they didn’t realize that little incident.
D. The spectators did not pay so much attention to that little incident because they were excited to see the race.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The most successful candidates aren’t always the best educated. They’re the best trained in the
technique.
A. The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education.
B. The most successful candidates are people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated.
C. The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique.
D. The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique.
Question 30: It is raining cats and dogs outside. I want to climb the mountain today but I can’t.
A. It is the heavy rain that prevents me from climbing the mountain today.
B. I find it rather hard to climb the mountain despite a heavy downpour outside.
C. The heavy rain makes it posssible for me to continue going climbing today.
D. I can’t carry out my mountain climbing because there are many cats and dogs falling out the sky.
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
TAKE A LOOK AT THE WORK
“To (31) ______ that students will be successful in school, parents need to look for indicators of school
bonding,” said principal Mary Smith. “Talk of friends, (32) _______ about school, and a sense of belonging to a class
and the school are indicators of that.” “They also need to look for signs of academic engagement,” added Smith. By
looking at the work their child brings home from school, they can often see indicators that he or she “is becoming an
independent learner and (33) ___ age-appropriate responsibility for personal success.” “Parents can tell a lot about a
teacher’s curriculum by looking at the work their children bring home,” said Tim Messick. “If teachers present a
curriculum (34) ___ has real-life connections and actively engages kids, and if those kids can articulate at the end of
the day some of the exciting learning they have experienced, parents will be very happy.” “Parents should also expect
to see assignments marked and returned promptly,” said Chris Rose. “If it is obvious that only the students are doing
the work, it (35) ___ a very negative impression. If that’s the case - if the parents don’t think the teacher is doing his
job - maybe they’re right.”
Question 31: A. approve B. prove C. insure D. ensure
Question 32: A. enthusiasm B. enthusiastic C. enthuse D. enthusiastically
Question 33: A. setting B. maintaining C. assuming D. solving
Question 34: A. what B. whom C. who D. that
Question 35: A. trusts B. creates C. draws D. takes
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
People travel for a lot of reasons: Some tourists go to see battlefields or religious shrines. Others are looking
for culture, or simply want to have their pictures taken in front of famous places. But most European tourists are
looking for a sunny beach to lie on.
Northern Europeans are willing to pay a lot of money and put up with a lot of inconveniences for the sun
because they have so little of it. Residents of cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam spend a lot of their
winter in the dark because the days are so short, and much of the rest of the year in the rain. This is the reason why
the Mediterranean has always attracted them. Every summer, more than 25 million people travel to Mediterranean
resorts and beaches for their vacation. They all come for the same reason, sun!
27
 The huge crowds mean lots of money for the economies of Mediterranean countries. Italy’s 30,000 hotels are
booked solid every summer. And 13 million people camp out on French beaches, parks and roadsides. Spain’s long
sandy coastline attracts more people than anywhere else. 37 million tourists visit yearly, or one tourist for every
person living in Spain.
But there are signs that the area is getting more tourists than it can handle. The Mediterranean is already one
of the most polluted seas on earth. And with increased tourism, it’s getting worse. The French can’t figure out what to
do with all the garbage left by campers around St. Tropez. And in many places, swimming is dangerous because of
pollution.
None of this, however, is spoiling anyone’s fun. The Mediterranean gets more popular every year with
tourists. Obviously, they don’t go there for clean water and solitude. They tolerate traffic jams and seem to like
crowded beaches. They don’t even mind the pollution. No matter how dirty the water is, the coastline still looks
beautiful. And as long as the sun shines, it’s still better than sitting in the cold rain in Berlin, London, or Oslo.
Question 36: The writer seems to imply that Europeans travel mostly for the reason that ______.
A. they want to see historic remains or religious spots.
B. they are interested in different cultural traditions and social customs.
C. they would like to take pictures in front of famous sites.
D. they wish to escape from the cold, dark and rainy days back at home.
Question 37: In paragraph 2, cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam are mentioned _____.
A. to show that they are not good cities in terms of geography and climate.
B. to suggest that these cities lack places of historic interest and scenic beauty.
C. to prove that they have got more tourism than they handle.
D. to tell us how wealthy their people are.
Question 38: According to the passage, which of the following countries attracts more tourists than the others?
A. Italy B. Spain C. Greece D. France
Question 39: The word “solid” in paragraph 3 means most nearly the same as ______.
A. seeming to be hard to book B. being uncomfortable to live in
C. having no spaces inside D. having less people than normal
Question 40: The latter half of the last sentence in paragraph 3, “or one tourist for every person living in Spain”
means _.
A. all the 37 million people living in Spain are tourists. B. every Spanish is visited by a tourist every year.
C. every person living in Spain has to take care of a tourist annually.
D. every year almost as many tourists visit Spain as there are people living in that country.
Question 41: The word “tolerate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. exclude B. endure C. reject D. neglect
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following factors might spoil the tourists’ fun at Mediterranean
resorts and beaches?
A. Polluted water B. Crowded buses C. Traffic jams D. Rainy weather
Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
While some forecasting methods had limited success predicting the 1997 El Nino a few months in advance,
the Columbia University researchers say their method can predict large El Nino events up to two years in advance.
That would be a boon for governments, farmers and others seeking to plan for the droughts and heavy rainfall El
Nino can produce in various parts of the world.
Using a computer, the researchers matched sea-surface temperatures to later El Nino occurrences between
1980 and 2000 and were then able to anticipate El Nino events dating back to 1857, using prior sea-surface
temperatures. The results were reported in the latest issue of the journal Nature.
The researchers say their method is not perfect, but Bryan Weare, a meteorologist at the University of
California, Davis, who was not involved in the work, said it “suggests El Nino is indeed predictable.” “This will
probably convince others to search around more for even better methods,” he added.
The new method “makes it possible to predict El Nino at long lead times,” said lead author Dake Chen of
Columbia University’s Lamont-Doherty Earth Observatory. “Other models also use sea-surface temperatures, but
they have not looked as far back because they need other data, which is only available for recent decades,” Chen said.
The ability to predict the warming and cooling of the Pacific is of immense importance. The 1997 El Nino, for
example, caused an estimated $20 billion in damage worldwide, offset by beneficial effects in other areas, said David
Anderson, of the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts in Reading, England. The 1877 El Nino,
28
meanwhile, coincided with a failure of the Indian monsoon and a famine that killed perhaps 40 million in India and
China, prompting the development of seasonal forecasting, Anderson said.
When El Nino hit in 1991 and 1997, 200 million people were affected by flooding in China alone, according
to a 2002 United Nations report.
While predicting smaller El Nino events remains tricky, the ability to predict larger ones should be increased
to at least a year if the new method is confirmed, Anderson wrote in an accompanying commentary.
El Nino tends to develop between April and June and reaches its peak between December and February. The
warming tends to last between 9 and 12 months and occurs every two to seven years.
Chen said the new forecasting method does not predict any major El Nino events in the next two years,
although a weak warming toward the end of this year is possible.
Question 43: The Columbia University researchers studied the relationship between the past EI Nino occurrences and
__.
A. the droughts and heavy rainfall B. some forecasting methods
C. wind direction and ocean current D. sea-surface temperatures
Question 44: The word “a boon” in paragraph 1 probably means ______.
A. new information B. living condition C. good news D. scientific evidence
Question 45: It is stated in the passage that Bryan Weare ______.
A. worked at the California University, but he used to live at the Columbia University.
B. didn’t do research on El Nino with researchers.
C. had set up a special institute in America to study El Nino.
D. made a contribution to predicting El Nino, which was highly praised by other meteorologists.
Question 46: The word “immense” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. main B. enormous C. essential D. special
Question 47: According to the passage, it takes about ______ for El Nino to reach its peak.
A. less than 3 months B. 4 months C. 8 months D. 9 to 12 months
Question 48: The word “tricky” in paragraph 8 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. cunning B. difficult C. normal D. common
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The method used by the Columbia University researchers can predict El Nino a few months in advance.
B. According to a 2002 United Nations report, the flooding in China caused by El Nino in 1991 and 1997
affected 200 million Chinese people.
C. The 1877 El Nino happened at the same time as a failure of the Indian monsoon and a famine killed
perhaps 40 million in India and China.
D. Due to the severe damage El Nino can cause to human life and property, many researchers have devoted
themselves to El Nino-related research.
Question 50: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?
A. Study: El Nino can be predicted B. El Nino: Millions of people threatened with hunger
C. Evidence: Effects of El Nino on human lives D. Research: How Does the El Nino Develop?

TEST 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each o f the following questions.
Question 1: A. durian B. endure C. induce D. procedure
Question 2: A. heir B. exhaust C. height D. honest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. applicant B. ambitious C. essential D. performance
Question 4: A. confirm B. entrance C. highland D. weather
Question 5: A. dependence B. disastrous C. prediction D. compliment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
italic part in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Bone and ivory are light, strong and accessible materials for Inuit artists
A. economic B. available C. natural D. beautiful

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Question 7: City developed at the point where the Hudson and Passaic rivers mingle with the water of the Atlantic
Ocean.
A. associate B. mix C. part D. socialize
Question 8: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants.
A. assisted B. promoted C. prevented D. realized
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in the questions.
Question 9: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of pre-cautionary measures. A.
physical B. damaging C. severe D. beneficial
Question 10: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with
other countries.
A. restricted B. expanded C. boosted D. balanced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 11: A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events are usually
imaginary
Question 12: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their heath will be affected and early death.
Question 13: When you are writing or speaking English it is important to use language that includes both men and
women equally the same.
Question 14: Not until he got home he realized he had forgotten to give her the present.
Question 15: The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam.
Mark A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 16: I’m afraid I’m not really________ to comment on this matter.
A. qualitative B. qualifying C. quality D. qualified
Question 17: The team were eager to make________ the loss of the previous match.
A. up with. B. off with C. away with D. up for
Question 18: ~ Lora: "Do you mind if I turn on the fan?" ~ Laika: "__________."
A. Not at all B. Not enough C. Not for me D. Never mind
Question 19: No matter how angry he was, he would never________ to violence
A. refuse B. resist C. resolve D. resort
Question 20: He came________ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. in for B. over C. off D. out of
Question 21: ________ make a good impression on her.
A. Only by so doing I can B. Only by doing so can I C. Only by doing so I can D. Only so doing can I
Question 22: They live on a busy road________ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. It must have been B. There must have C. It must be D. There must be
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each o f the questions.
Question 23: Having been delayed by heavy traffic, ________.
A. she was unable to arrive on time B. it was impossible for her to arrive on time
C. her being late was intolerable D. it was difficult for her to arrive on time
Question 24: ________, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. As he might feel tired B. He felt very tired though C. Tired as it was D. Tired as he might feel
Question 25: She regretfully told him that________.
A. she had left the tickets at home B. she would leave the tickets at home
C. she left the tickets at home D. she would have left the tickets at home
Question 26: ________, he would have learned how to read.
A. If he could go to school as a child B. If he has been able to go school as a child
C. Were he able to go to school as a child D. Had he been able to go to school as a child
Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In addition to the challenge to be excellent, American schools have been facing novel problems. They must
(27)__ with an influx of immigrant children, many of whom speak little or no English. They must respond to
demands (28)____ the curriculum reflect the various cultures of all children. Schools must make sure that students
develop (29)___ skills for the job market, and they must consider the needs of nontraditional students, such as
teenage mothers. Schools are (30)________ these problems in ways that reflect the diversity of the US educational
system. They are hiring or training large numbers of teachers of English (31)________ a second language and, in
some countries, setting up bilingual schools. They are opening (32)________ the traditional European-centered
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curriculum to embrace material from American, Asian, and other cultures. Schools are also teaching cognitive skills
to the (33)________ 40 percent of American students who do not go on to higher education. In the (34)________ of a
recent report by the Commission on Achieving Necessary Skills, "A strong back, the willingness to work, and a high
school diploma were once all that was necessary to (35)________ a start in America. They are no longer. A well-
developed mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to put knowledge to work are the new keys
(36)______ the future of our young people, the success of our business, and the economic well.being of the nation".
Question 27: A. do B. fight C. cope D. stay
Question 28: A. whether B. who C. that D. what
Question 29: A. base B. basis C. basics D. basic
Question 30: A. distributing B. discharging C. delivering D. addressing
Question 31: A. as B. with C. like D. from
Question 32: A. on B. up C. for D. into
Question 33: A. fairly B. mostly C. slightly D. nearly
Question 34: A. ways B. directions C. minds D. words
Question 35: A. take B. bring C. get D. make
Question 36: A. for B. to C. at D. in
Read and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviours. It is common to
think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human leamingoccurs outside the classroom,
and people continue to learn throughout their lives. Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to
talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the
sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings,
friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects
such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn
which behaviours are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for
interacting with other children.
After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as
getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job. Because learning continues throughout our lives and
affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to
understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service
workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviours. Employers, politicians, and
advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behaviour of workers, voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who
study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain
later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in
behaviour and how behaviour changes as a result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single
stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of
learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as
lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behaviour
and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation, that is, by watching
others perform behaviours. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.
Question 37: Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?
A. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions
B. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life
C. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older
D. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school
Question 38: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?
A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills
C. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom D. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
Question 39: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as
examples of______.
A. the areas of learning which affect people's lives B. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves
C. the changes to which people have to orient themselves D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
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Question 40: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?
A. literacy and calculation B. right from wrong C. life skills D. interpersonal communication
Question 41: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to______.
A. the great influence of the on.going learning process B. the exploration of the best teaching methods
C. the need for certain experiences in various areas D. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves
with the study of learning because they need to______.
A. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning
B. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
C. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
D. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest
Question 43: The word "retrieves" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. gains B. recovers C. creates D. generates
Question 44: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviours
B. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviours
C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge
D. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used
Question 45: According to the passage, the stimulus in simple forms of learning______.
A. makes associations between behaviours B. is associated with natural phenomena
C. is created by the senses D. bears relation to perception
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: "Why don't we go out for dinner?" said Mary.
A. Mary requested a dinner out. B. Mary ordered a dinner out.
C. Mary demanded a dinner out. D. Mary suggested a dinner out.
Question 47: "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week," Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
Question 48: My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not cut class so often."
A. My friend prohibited me from cutting class so often. B. My friend advised me not to cut class so often.
C. My friend suggested not cutting class so often. D. My friend warned me against cutting class so often.
Question 49: We've run out of tea.
A. We didn’t have any tea. B. There's no tea left.
C. There's not much more tea left. D. We have to run out to buy some tea.
Question 50: The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
B. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.

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