This document discusses data communication and networking concepts. It covers topics like internet service providers, network topologies, wide area networks (WANs), point-to-point and multipoint connections, protocols, standards organizations, the ARPANET, and transmission types. It also contains questions to test understanding of these networking fundamentals.
This document discusses data communication and networking concepts. It covers topics like internet service providers, network topologies, wide area networks (WANs), point-to-point and multipoint connections, protocols, standards organizations, the ARPANET, and transmission types. It also contains questions to test understanding of these networking fundamentals.
This document discusses data communication and networking concepts. It covers topics like internet service providers, network topologies, wide area networks (WANs), point-to-point and multipoint connections, protocols, standards organizations, the ARPANET, and transmission types. It also contains questions to test understanding of these networking fundamentals.
This document discusses data communication and networking concepts. It covers topics like internet service providers, network topologies, wide area networks (WANs), point-to-point and multipoint connections, protocols, standards organizations, the ARPANET, and transmission types. It also contains questions to test understanding of these networking fundamentals.
1. There are ______________ Internet C) (a) and (b)
service providers. D) none of the above A) regional 8. The information to be communicated in B) local a data communications system is the C) national and international _______. D) all of the above A) Medium 2. ______ refers to the physical or logical B) Protocol arrangement of a network. C) Message A) Topology D) Transmission B) Mode of operation 9. ________ defines how a particular C) Data flow pattern to be interpreted, and what action D) None of the above is to be taken based on that interpretation. 3. A ______ is a data communication A) Syntax system spanning states, countries, or the B) Semantics whole world. C) Timing A) MAN D) None of the above B) WAN 10. Frequency of failure and network C) LAN recovery time after a failure are measures D) none of the above of the _______of a network. 4. A _______ connection provides a A) Performance dedicated link between two devices. B) Security A) primary C) Reliability B) multipoint D) Feasibility C) point-to-point 11. A television broadcast is an example D) secondary of _______ transmission. 5. Which topology requires a multipoint A) half-duplex connection? B) simplex A) Bus C) full-duplex B) Star D) automatic C) Mesh 12. Data flow between two devices can D) Ring occur in a _______ way. 6. A ________ is a set of rules that A) simplex governs data communication. B) half-duplex A) protocol C) full-duplex B) forum D) all of the above C) standard 13. _______ are special-interest groups D) none of the above that quickly test, evaluate, and 7. In a ______ connection, two and only standardize new technologies. two devices are connected by a dedicated A) Standards organizations link. B) Regulatory agencies A) multipoint C) Forums D) All of the above B) An internet 14. Which agency developed standards C) A LAN for physical connection interfaces and D) None of the above electronic signaling specifications? 21. In a ________ connection, three or A) ISO more devices share a link. B) ITU-T A) point-to-point C) ANSI B) multipoint D) EIA C) (a) and (b) 15. A _______ is a data communication D) none of the above system within a building, plant, or campus, 22. Which organization has authority over or between nearby buildings. interstate and international commerce in A) LAN the communications field? B) MAN A) FCC C) WAN B) IEEE D) none of the above C) ITU-T 16. _______ refers to two characteristics: D) ISOC when data should be sent and how fast it 23. In the original ARPANET, _______ can be sent. were directly connected together. A) Semantics A) routers B) Timing B) host computers C) Syntax C) networks D) none of the above D) IMPs 17. This was the first network. 24. Communication between a computer A) CSNET and a keyboard involves B) NSFNET ______________ transmission. C) ARPANET A) simplex D) ANSNET B) half-duplex 18. Devices may be arranged in a _____ C) full-duplex topology. D) automatic A) mesh 25. Which topology requires a central B) ring controller or hub? C) bus A) Mesh D) all of the above B) Bus 19. _______ is the protocol suite for the C) Star current Internet. D) Ring A) UNIX 26. The _______ is the physical path over B) NCP which a message travels. C) TCP/IP A) Protocol D) ACM B) Signal 20. ________ is a collection of many C) Medium separate networks. D) All the above A) A WAN 27. In a _______ connection, more than A) File transfer and access two devices can share a single link. B) Mail service A) multipoint C) Remote log-in B) point-to-point D) All the above C) primary 3. When data are transmitted from device D) secondary A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 28. _______ refers to the structure or is read by B's _______ layer. format of the data, meaning the order in A) Transport which they are presented. B) Application A) Semantics C) Physical B) Syntax D) None of the above C) Timing 4. __________ provides full transport D) All of the above layer services to applications. 29. An unauthorized user is a network A) UDP _______ issue. B) TCP A) Security C) ARP B) Reliability D) none of the above C) Performance 5. The process-to-process delivery of the D) All the above entire message is the responsibility of the 30. ________ is an idea or concept that is _______ layer. a precursor to an Internet standard. A) Transport A) RCF B) Application B) ID C) Physical C) RFC D) Network D) none of the above 6. The ______ layer is responsible for 31. In _______ transmission, the channel moving frames from one hop (node) to the capacity is shared by both communicating next. devices at all times. A) transport A) simplex B) data link B) half-duplex C) physical C) full-duplex D) none of the above D) half-simplex 7. The _______ layer is responsible for 1. The ______ layer adds a header to the delivering data units from one station to packet coming from the upper layer that the next without errors. includes the logical addresses of the A) physical sender and receiver. B) data link A) data link C) transport B) network D) network C) physical 8. The session, presentation, and D) none of the above application layers are the ____ support 2. Which of the following is an application layers. layer service? user network A) IP both (a) and (b) B) port neither (a) nor (b) C) specific 9. The physical, data link, and network D) physical layers are the ______ support layers. 16. The _______ layer coordinates the A) network functions required to transmit a bit stream B) user over a physical medium. C) both (a) and (b) A) data link D) neither (a) nor (b) B) transport 10. The ________ layer is responsible for C) network the process-to-process delivery of the D) physical entire message. 17. The ______ layer is responsible for A) transport the source-to-destination delivery of a B) physical packet across multiple network links. C) network A) network D) data link B) physical 11. The _______ layer lies between the C) data link network layer and the application layer. D) transport A) Data link 18. Mail services are available to network B) Transport users through the _______ layer. C) Physical A) Transport D) None of the above B) Physical 12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a C) Data link ________ protocol. D) Application A) connection-oriented 19. The ____ created a model called the B) reliable Open Systems Interconnection, which C) both a and b allows diverse systems to communicate. D) none of the above A) IEEE 13. The _______ layer links the network B) ISO support layers and the user support C) OSI layers. D) none of the above A) session 20. The _______ layer changes bits into B) transport electromagnetic signals. C) data link A) Physical D) network B) Transport 14. ICMPv6 includes _______. C) Data link A) IGMP D) None of the above B) ARP 21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. C) RARP A) 128 D) a and b B) 32 15. The ____ address uniquely defines a C) 64 host on the Internet. D) variable 22. The_____ address identifies a 28. The physical layer is concerned with process on a host. the movement of _______ over the A) specific physical medium. B) port A) dialogs C) IP B) protocols D) physical C) bits 23. The_________ layer is responsible for D) programs the delivery of a message from one 29. To deliver a message to the correct process to another. application program running on a host, the A) transport _______ address must be consulted. B) network A) physical C) physical B) port D) none of the above C) IP 24. The _________ layer enables the D) none of the above users to access the network. 30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical A) application address that is imprinted on the network B) physical interface card (NIC). C) data link A) 32-bit D) transport B) 6-byte 25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is C) 64-bit equivalent to the combined session, D) none of the above presentation, and application layers of the 31. The _______ layer is the layer closest OSI model. to the transmission medium. A) data link A) Network B) network B) Transport C) physical C) Physical D) application D) Data link 26. When a host on network A sends a 32. The OSI model consists of _______ message to a host on network B, which layers. address does the router look at? A) eight A) logical B) seven B) physical C) five C) port D) three D) none of the above 33. The ________ address, also known 27. As the data packet moves from the as the link address, is the address of a upper to the lower layers, headers are node as defined by its LAN or WAN. _______. A) IP A) Rearranged B) port B) Removed C) specific C) Added D) physical D) Modified 34. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. A) Data link 40. In the OSI model, what is the main B) Transport function of the transport layer? C) Network A) process-to-process message delivery D) None of the above B) node-to-node delivery 35. Why was the OSI model developed? C) synchronization A) The rate of data transfer was D) updating and maintenance of routing increasing exponentially tables B) Standards were needed to allow any 41. _______ is a process-to-process two systems to communicate protocol that adds only port addresses, C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP checksum error control, and length protocol suite. information to the data from the upper D) None of the above layer. 36. In the OSI model, as a data packet A) IP moves from the lower to the upper layers, B) TCP headers are _______. C) UDP A) removed D) none of the above B) added 42. The ______ layer establishes, C) rearranged maintains, and synchronizes the D) modified interactions between communicating 37. In the OSI model, when data is devices. transmitted from device A to device B, the A) session header from A's layer 5 is read by B's B) physical _______ layer. C) transport A) session D) network B) physical 43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ C) transport bits long. D) presentation A) 16 38. The seven-layer _____ model B) 32 provides guidelines for the development of C) 48 universally compatible networking D) none of the above protocols. 44. In the OSI model, encryption and A) ISO decryption are functions of the ________ B) OSI layer. C) IEEE A) application D) none of the above B) presentation 39. The Internet model consists of C) session _______ layers. D) transport A) Eight 45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical B) Seven protocol suite developed ____ the OSI C) Five model. D) Three A) five-layer; before B) six-layer; before C) seven-layer; before B) physical D) five-layer; after C) ATM layer 46. The ________ address, also known D) none of the above as the link address, is the address of a 4. A _______ ATM LAN combines node as defined by its LAN or WAN. features of a pure ATM LAN and a A) logical legacy ATM LAN. B) port A) legacy C) physical B) pure D) none of the above C) mixed architecture 47. The _______ model shows how the D) none of the above network functions of a computer ought to 5. A(n) ______ is the interface between a be organized. user and an ATM switch. A) ANSI A) NNN B) CCITT B) UNI C) ISO C) NNI D) OSI D) None of the above 48. The _______ layer ensures 6. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined interoperability between communicating by _________. devices through transformation of data A) DLCI into a mutually agreed upon format. B) VPI A) network C) VCI B) presentation D) a combination of (b) and (c) C) transport 7. In ATM, _______is for short packets. D) data link A) AAL5 1. To handle frames arriving from other B) AAL3/4 protocols, Frame Relay uses a device C) AAL2 called a _________. D) AAL1 A) MUX 8. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is B) VOFR selected, the corresponding table entry C) FRAD is recorded for all switches by the D) none of the above administrator. 2. In Frame Relay, an address can be A) SVC ________ bytes. B) PVC A) 2 to 3 C) either (a) or (b) B) 2 to 4 D) neither (a) nor (b) C) only f2 9. In ATM, the _______layer accepts D) none of the above transmissions from upper-layer 3. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the services and maps them into ATM transmission medium, bit transmission, cells. encoding, and electrical-to-optical A) AAL transformation. B) physical A) AAL C) ATM D) none of the above C) MUX 10. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in D) none of the above length. 17. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed- A) 32 size block of information. B) 16 A) packet C) 12 B) cell D) 8 C) frame 11. The ATM standard defines ______ D) none of the above layers. 18. In ATM, the ______ layer provides A) five routing, traffic management, switching, B) four and multiplexing services. C) three A) ATM D) two B) AAL 12. ________ technology can be adapted C) physical for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). D) none of the above A) ATM 19. In ATM, _____ is for conventional B) X.25 packet switching (virtual-circuit C) Frame Relay approach or datagram approach). D) none of the above A) AAL5 13. VCIs in Frame Relay are called B) AAL3/4 ______. C) AAL2 A) SVC D) AAL1 B) DLCIs 20. Frame Relay provides ________. C) PVC A) SVCs D) none of the above B) PVCs 14. The AAL is divided into _______ C) either (a) or (b) sublayers. D) neither (a) nor (b) A) four 21. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines B) three the number of bytes; it is _____ in the C) two last byte of the address. D) none of the above A) 0 15. _________ is the interface between B) 1 two ATM switches. C) 2 A) NNI D) 3 B) NNN 22. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch C) UNI connects stations. D) none of the above A) legacy 16. Frame Relay networks offer an option B) pure called ______________ that sends C) mixed architecture voice through the network. D) none of the above A) FRAD 23. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in B) VOFR length. A) 24 B) the physical and data link B) 16 layers C) 12 C) only the data link D) 8 D) only the physical layer 24. At the data link layer, Frame Relay 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets uses a protocol that supports requiring no sequencing and no error _____control. control mechanism. A) error A) AAL5 B) flow B) AAL3/4 C) either (a) or (b) C) AAL2 D) neither (a) nor (b) D) AAL1 25. ________ is the cell relay protocol 31. ______ eliminates the varying delay designed by the corresponding Forum times associated with different-size and adopted by the ITU-T. packets. A) Frame Relay A) Frame Relay B) ATM B) ATM C) X.25 C) X.25 D) none of the above D) all of the above 26. In Frame Relay, when ______ is 32. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate selected, it requires establishing and data. terminating phases. A) AAL5 A) a PVC B) AAL3/4 B) an SVC C) AAL2 C) either (a) or (b) D) AAL1 D) neither (a) nor (b) 33. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area 27. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone network that was designed in that connects traditional LANs uses response to demands for a new type ATM technology. of WAN in the late 1980s and early A) legacy 1990s. B) pure A) ATM C) mixed architecture B) Frame Relay D) none of the above C) X.25 28. In ATM, connection between two D) none of the above endpoints is accomplished through 34. The ATM data packet is a cell _______. composed of ______ bytes. A) VCs A) 53 B) TPs B) 52 C) VPs C) 43 D) all of the above D) 42 29. Frame Relay has _______. 1. __________ uses four twisted pairs. A) the physical, data link, and A) 1000Base-LX network layers B) 1000Base-T C) 1000Base-SX 8. Each station on an Ethernet network has D) none of the above a unique _______ address imprinted on 2. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and its network interface card (NIC). 1000Base-CX use _________ block A) 48-bit coding and ________ line coding. B) 32-bit A) 8B/10B; NRZ C) 5-byte B) 4B/5B; NRZ D) none of the above C) 8B/10B; MLT-3 9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of D) 4B/5B; MLT-3 ________Mbps. 3. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. A) 10,000 A) 100Base-FX B) 1000 B) 100Base-T4 C) 100 C) 100Base-TX D) 10 D) none of the above 10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field 4. __________ uses two optical fibers and a contains error detection information. short-wave laser source. A) address A) 1000Base-LX B) preamble B) 1000Base-SX C) CRC C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above D) none of the above 11. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding. 5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of A) 8B6T the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 B) Manchester 01010101 00011000 10101010 C) MLT-3 00001111? D) NRZ A) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F 12. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single B) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F mode fiber. C) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 A) 10GBase-E D) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F B) 10GBase-S 6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are C) 10GBase-L 1s, the address is _________. D) none of the above A) multicast 13. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) B) broadcast that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC. C) unicast A) LLC D) none of the above B) LLU 7. If an Ethernet destination address is C) MAC 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ D) none of the above address. 14. 100Base-TX uses _________ block A) broadcast coding and ________ line coding. B) unicast A) 8B/10B; NRZ C) multicast B) 4B/5B; MLT-3 D) any of the above C) 4B/5B; NRZ D) 8B/10B; MLT-3 15. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the B) Gigabit Ethernet operation of the CSMA/CD access C) Fast Ethernet method and framing. D) Standard A) MAC 22. If an Ethernet destination address is B) MII 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ C) LLC address. D) none of the above A) broadcast 16. _______ is the most widely used local B) unicast area network protocol. C) multicast A) Token Bus D) any of the above B) Ethernet 23. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm C) Token Ring multimode fiber. D) none of the above A) 10GBase-E 17. In Ethernet addressing, if the least B) 10GBase-L significant bit of the first byte is 1, the C) 10GBase-S address is _________. D) none of the above A) multicast 24. Which of the following could not be an B) broadcast Ethernet multicast destination? C) unicast A) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 D) none of the above B) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include C) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 _______ mode. D) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 A) full-duplex 25. __________ uses thin coaxial cable. B) half-duplex A) 10Base2 C) both (a) and (b) B) 10Base5 D) neither (a) nor (b) C) 10Base-F 19. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, D) 10Base-T or higher, twisted-pair cable. 26. In the Ethernet, the _______field is A) 100Base-T4 actually added at the physical layer and is B) 100Base-FX not (formally) part of the frame. C) 100Base-TX A) address D) none of the above B) CRC 20. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses C) preamble _______ encoding. D) none of the above A) AMI 27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of B) Manchester ________Mbps. C) NRZ A) 10,000 D) differential Manchester B) 1000 21. In _________, auto negotiation allows two C) 100 devices to negotiate the mode or data rate D) 10 of operation. 28. The purpose of the _______ is to provide A) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these 35. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps services. Ethernet is _______bytes. A) LLC A) 128 B) LLU B) 80 C) MAC C) 32 D) none of the above D) none of the above 29. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair 36. __________uses two optical fibers and a cable. long-wave laser source. A) 100Base-T4 A) 1000Base-T B) 100Base-TX B) 1000Base-SX C) 100Base-FX C) 1000Base-LX D) none of the above D) none of the above 30. ________ uses fiber-optic cable. 37. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of A) 10Base2 the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. B) 10Base-F A) network C) 10Base-T B) data link D) 10Base5 C) physical 31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least D) none of the above significant bit of the first byte is 0, the 38. 100Base-FX uses _________ block address is _________. coding and ________ line coding. A) broadcast A) 8B/10B; NRZ B) multicast B) 4B/5B; MLT-3 C) unicast C) 8B/10B; MLT-3 D) none of the above D) 4B/5B; NRZ-I 32. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode 39. Which of the following could not be an fiber. Ethernet unicast destination? A) 10GBase-E A) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 B) 10GBase-S B) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 C) 10GBase-L C) 48:32:21:21:4D:34 D) none of the above D) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 33. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding. 40. _________ uses thick coaxial cable. A) MLT-3 A) 10Base2 B) 4D-PAM5 B) 10Base5 C) Manchester C) 10Base-F D) 8B6T D) 10Base-T 34. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps 41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines Ethernet is ________ bytes. _________ CSMA/CD as the access A) 1200 method for first-generation 10-Mbps B) 1518 Ethernet. C) 1500 A) non-persistent D) none of the above B) p-persistent C) 1-persistent D) none of the above B) 407 42. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables C) 107 that connect each station to a common D) 427 hub. 6 The term ________ means that IP A) 10Base-F provides no error checking or tracking. B) 10Base-T IP assumes the unreliability of the C) 10Base5 underlying layers and does its best to D) 10Base2 get a transmission through to its 1 In IPv6, the _______ field in the base destination, but with no guarantees. header restricts the lifetime of a A) reliable delivery datagram. B) connection-oriented delivery A) version C) best-effort delivery B) next-header D) none of the above C) hop limit 7 The ________ protocol is the D) neighbor-advertisement transmission mechanism used by the 2 In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of TCP/IP suite. decimal 10 means _______. A) ARP A) there are 10 bytes of options B) IP B) there are 40 bytes of options C) RARP C) there are 10 bytes in the D) none of the above header 8 In IPv4, what is the length of the data D) there are 40 bytes in the field given an HLEN value of 12 and header total length value of 40,000? 3 In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 A) 39,988 means _______. B) 40,012 A) there are 10 bytes of options C) 40,048 B) there are 40 bytes of options D) 39,952 C) there are 40 bytes in the 9 In IPv4, what is needed to determine header the number of the last byte of a D) none of the above fragment? 4 In IPv6, the _______ field in the base A) Identification number header and the sender IP address B) Offset number combine to indicate a unique path C) Total length identifier for a specific flow of data. D) (b) and (c) A) flow label 10 The IPv4 header size _______. B) next header A) is 20 to 60 bytes long C) hop limit B) is 20 bytes long D) destination IP address C) is 60 bytes long 5 In IPv4, what is the value of the total D) none of the above length field in bytes if the header is 28 11 In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? discarded in a congested network, the A) 428 decision is based on the _______ field C) The identification field is the in the base header. same for all three A) hop limit datagrams. B) priority D) The offset field is the same C) next header for all three datagrams. D) none of the above 17 In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a 12 In IPv4, which field or bit value value of 100, it means that unambiguously identifies the datagram _______. as a fragment? A) the datagram has not been A) Do not fragment bit ? 0 fragmented B) More Fragment bit ? 0 B) the datagram is 100 bytes C) Fragment offset = 1000 in size D) none of the above C) the first byte of the 13 Which of the following is a necessary datagram is byte 100 part of the IPv6 datagram? D) the first byte of the A) Base header datagram is byte 800 B) Extension header 18 IP is _________ datagram C) Data packet from the upper protocol. layer A) an unreliable and (c) B) a connectionless 14 In IPv4, when a datagram is C) both a and b encapsulated in a frame, the total size D) none of the above of the datagram must be less than the 19 IPv6 allows _________ security _______. provisions than IPv4. A) MUT A) more B) MAT B) less C) MTU C) the same level D) none of the above D) none of the above 15 In IPv6, options are inserted between 20 The IPv4 header field formerly the _________ and the ___________ known as the service type field is data. now called the _______ field. A) base header; extension header A) IETF B) base header; upper-layer data B) checksum C) base header; frame header C) differentiated services D) none of the above D) none of the above 16 An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into 21 A best-effort delivery service such three smaller datagrams. Which of the as IPv4 includes _______. following is true? A) error checking A) The do not fragment bit is set to B) error correction 1 for all three datagrams. C) datagram acknowledgment B) The more fragment bit is set to D) none of the above 0 for all three datagrams. 22 The IPv4 header size _______. A) is 20 to 60 bytes long C) repeater B) is 20 bytes long D) none of the above C) is 60 bytes long 7. A repeater is a connecting D) none of the above device that operates in the 1. VLANs create _________ _______ layer of the Internet domains. model. A) multicast A) network B) broadcast B) data link C) unicast C) physical D) none of the above D) all of the above 2. A ________ operates in both 8. A _______ regenerates a the physical and the data link signal, connects segments of a layer. LAN, and has no filtering A) router capability. B) bridge A) router C) repeater B) repeater D) passive hub C) bridge 3. A _______ is a device that D) none of the above operates only in the physical 9. In a(n) _______ configuration, layer. the administrator types the port A) bridge numbers, the IP addresses, or B) router other characteristics, using the C) passive hub VLAN software. D) repeater A) automatic 4. A ______ switch is a faster and B) manual more sophisticated router. C) semiautomatic A) two-layer D) none of the above B) four-layer 10. A _______ LAN allows several C) three-layer LANs to be connected. D) none of the above A) wired 5. _________ is just a connector. B) wireless A) A passive hub C) backbone B) An active hub D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b) 11. A backbone is usually a D) neither (a) nor (b) ______. 6. A ______ normally connects A) star LANs and WANs in the Internet B) bus and has a table that is used for C) either (a) or (b) making decisions about the D) neither (a) nor (b) route. 12. A bridge can use the A) router _________ algorithm to create B) bridge a loopless topology. A) multiway tree five layers of the Internet model B) binary tree or seven layers of OSI model. C) spanning tree A) gateway D) none of the above B) router 13. ________ is actually a multiport C) bridge repeater. It is normally used to D) repeater create connections between 19. A ________ is a device in stations in a physical star which the stations are topology. completely unaware of its A) A passive hub existence. B) An active hub A) simple bridge C) either (a) or (b) B) transparent bridge D) neither (a) nor (b) C) passive hub 14. In a _____ backbone, the D) repeater backbone is just one switch. 20. A ______ has a table used in A) star filtering decisions. B) bus A) bridge C) ring B) passive hub D) none of the above C) repeater 15. A spanning tree is a graph in D) none of the above which there is no _____. 21. In a star-topology Ethernet A) arc LAN, _______ is just a point B) loop where the signals coming from C) node different stations collide; it is D) branch the collision point. 16. A ________ bridge can forward A) A passive hub and filter frames and B) An active hub automatically build its C) either (a) or (b) forwarding table. D) neither (a) nor (b) A) dual 22. VLANs can_________. B) transparent A) provide an extra C) simple measure of security D) none of the above B) reduce network traffic 17. A virtual local area network C) either (a) or (b) (VLAN) is configured by D) both (a) and (b) _________. 23. A ________ link acts as a LAN A) hardware in a remote backbone B) physical wiring connected by remote bridges. C) software A) multidrop D) none of the above B) point-to-point 18. A ________ is normally a C) multipoint computer that operates in all D) none of the above 24. A __________ forwards every A) two frame; it has no filtering B) four capability. C) three A) router D) none of the above B) bridge 30. A two-layer switch is a ______. C) passive hub A) router D) repeater B) repeater 25. A _______ is a connecting C) bridge device that operates in the D) none of the above physical and data link layers of 31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ the Internet model. algorithm creates a topology in A) router which each LAN can be B) repeater reached from any other LAN C) bridge through one path only. D) none of the above A) binary tree 26. A _______ can check the MAC B) spanning tree addresses contained in the C) unary tree frame. D) none of the above A) repeater 32. A _____ can be used as a B) bridge connecting device between two C) router internetworks that use different D) passive hub models. 27. ________ is part of the media; A) gateway its location in the Internet B) router model is below the physical C) bridge layer. D) repeater A) A passive hub 33. Membership in a VLAN can be B) An active hub based on _________. C) either (a) or (b) A) MAC addresses D) neither (a) nor (b) B) IP addresses 28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the C) port numbers stations are automatically D) all of the above connected or disconnected 34. A ________receives a signal from a VLAN using criteria and, before it becomes too defined by the administrator. weak or corrupted, regenerates A) automatic the original bit pattern. It then B) semiautomatic sends the refreshed signal. C) manual A) router D) none of the above B) bridge 29. IEEE 802.1d specification, C) repeater defines _________ criteria for a D) passive hub transparent bridges. 35. In a(n) ______ configuration, B) 10 the initializing is done manually, C) 11 with migrations done D) 00 automatically. 3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is A) automatic going from one station in a BSS to B) semiautomatic another without passing through C) manual the distribution system, the D) none of the above address flag is _____. 36. A _______ is a three-layer A) 11 device that handles packets B) 00 based on their logical C) 10 addresses. D) 01 A) router 4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method B) repeater used in the PCF sublayer is C) bridge ______. D) none of the above A) polling 37. A three-layer switch is a kind of B) controlled ________. C) contention A) bridge D) none of the above B) router 5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an C) repeater AP is called an _________. D) none of the above A) an infrastructure network 38. Some new two-layer switches, B) an ad hoc architecture called _______ switches, have C) either (a) or (b) been designed to forward the D) neither (a) nor (b) frame as soon as they check 6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing the MAC addresses in the mechanism can include up to header of the frame. ______addresses. A) come-through A) six B) go-through B) five C) cut-through C) four D) none of the above D) none of the above 1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a 7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is data rate of _____Mbps. roughly equivalent to the physical A) 11 layer of the Internet model. B) 22 A) baseband C) 6 B) radio D) 1 C) L2CAP 2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is D) none of the above going from a station to an AP, the 8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with address flag is _____. ________ mobility is either A) 01 stationary (not moving) or moving 14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP only inside a BSS. is sometimes referred to as A) ESS-transition ____________. B) no-transition A) an infrastructure network C) BSS-transition B) an ad hoc architecture D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b) 9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, D) neither (a) nor (b) is roughly equivalent to the LLC 15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a sublayer in LANs. timer used for collision avoidance. A) baseband A) BSS B) L2CAP B) ESS C) radio C) NAV D) none of the above D) none of the above 10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is 16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer going from one AP to another AP frame has ______ fields. in a wireless distribution system, A) four the address flag is _____. B) six A) 10 C) five B) 01 D) none of the above C) 11 17. Bluetooth uses ______method in D) 00 the physical layer to avoid 11. A Bluetooth network is called a interference from other devices or ________. other networks. A) scatternet A) FHSS B) bluenet B) DSSS C) piconet C) FDMA D) none of the above D) none of the above 12. A Bluetooth network consists of 18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used _____ primary device(s) and up to when data integrity is more ____ secondary devices. important than avoiding latency. A) one; seven A) SCL B) one; five B) ACO C) five; three C) ACL D) two; six D) SCO 13. In Bluetooth, the current data rate 19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is is ____Mbps. roughly equivalent to the MAC A) 11 sublayer in LANs. B) 5 A) L2CAP C) 2 B) radio D) none of the above C) baseband D) none of the above 20. IEEE has defined the specifications B) APs for a wireless LAN, called C) BSSs _______, which covers the D) none of the above physical and data link layers. 26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology A) IEEE 802.5 that connects devices (called B) IEEE 802.11 gadgets) in a small area. C) IEEE 802.2 A) VLAN D) IEEE 802.3 B) wired LAN 21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with C) wireless LAN ________ mobility can move from D) none of the above one ESS to another. 27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses A) BSS-transition _________. B) ESS-transition A) FHSS C) no-transition B) OFDM D) none of the above C) DSSS 22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses D) either (a) or (c) _________. 28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses A) DSSS _________. B) OFDM A) DSSS C) FHSS B) OFDM D) either (a) or (c) C) FHSS 23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method D) either (a) or (c) used in the DCF sublayer is 29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of _________. stationary or mobile wireless A) CSMA/CA stations and an optional central B) CSMA/CD base station, known as the access C) ALOHA point (AP). D) none of the above A) BSS 24. The RTS and CTS frames in B) CSS CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden C) ESS station problem. The RTS and CTS D) none of the above frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve 30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for the exposed station problem. wireless LANs defines two A) cannot; cannot services: ______ and _______. B) can; cannot A) ESS; SSS C) cannot; can B) BSS; ESS D) can; can C) BSS; ASS 25. In IEEE 802.11, communication D) BSS; DCF between two stations in two 31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used different BSSs usually occurs via when avoiding latency (delay in two ________. data delivery) is more important A) ESSs than integrity (error-free delivery). A) SCL B) DCF B) ACL C) either (a) or (b) C) ACO D) neither (a) nor (b) D) SCO 38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is 32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of coming from an AP and going to a _____Mbps. station, the address flag is A) 5.5 _______. B) 2 A) 00 C) 1 B) 11 D) none of the above C) 10 33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of D) 01 _____Mbps. 39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ A) 22 form a network called a B) 11 _________. C) 2 A) piconets: bluenet D) 1 B) scatternet; piconets 34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with C) piconets: scatternet ________mobility can move from D) bluenet; scatternet one BSS to another, but the 40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses movement is confined inside one _________. ESS. A) OFDM A) ESS-transition B) FHSS B) no-transition C) DSSS C) BSS-transition D) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above 41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of 35. The access method in Bluetooth is _____Mbps. ________. A) 6 A) TDD-TDMA B) 2 B) CDMA C) 1 C) FDMA D) none of the above D) none of the above 1 If the maximum amplitude of a 36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs sine wave is 2 V, the minimum use ________ types of frames. amplitude is ________ V. A) five A) 2 B) six B) 1 C) -2 C) four D) between -2 and 2 D) none of the above 2 _________ can impair a signal. 37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an A) Noise optional access method that can B) Attenuation be implemented in an infrastructure C) Distortion network (not in an ad hoc network). D) All of the above A) PCF 3 ________is the rate of change C) 57 KHz with respect to time. D) 10 KHz A) Time 9 In a time-domain plot, the B) Frequency horizontal axis is a measure of C) Amplitude ________. D) Voltage A) phase 4 A signal is measured at two B) signal amplitude different points. The power is P1 C) frequency at the first point and P2 at the D) time second point. The dB is 0. This 10 _______ data are continuous and means ________. take continuous values. A) P2 equals P1 A) digital B) P2 is zero B) analog C) P2 is much larger than P1 C) (a) or (b) D) P2 is much smaller than D) none of the above P1 11 Frequency and period are 5 Baseband transmission of a ______. digital signal is possible only if we A) proportional to each other have a ____ channel. B) inverse of each other A) bandpass C) the same B) low-pass D) none of the above C) high rate 12 When propagation speed is D) low rate multiplied by propagation time, 6 ________ is a type of we get the ________. transmission impairment in which A) wavelength of the signal the signal loses strength due to B) throughput the resistance of the transmission C) distance a signal or bit has medium. traveled A) Distortion D) distortion factor B) Attenuation 13 A _________ sine wave is not C) Noise useful in data communications; D) Decibel we need to send a _______ 7 A sine wave in the ______ signal. domain can be represented by A) single-frequency; one single spike in the _____ composite domain. B) composite; single- A) time; phase frequency This is the B) frequency; time correct answer. C) time; frequency C) single-frequency; double- D) phase; time frequency 8 If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 D) none of the above KHz and the lowest frequency is 14 The _________ product defines 52 KHz, what is the highest the number of bits that can fill the frequency? link. A) 5 KHz A) delay-amplitude B) 47 KHz B) frequency-amplitude C) bandwidth-period 22 For a ______ channel, we need D) bandwidth-delay to use the Shannon capacity to 15 _______ signals can have only a find the maximum bit rate. limited number of values. A) noiseless A) Digital B) noisy B) Analog C) low-pass C) (a) or (b) D) bandpass D) None of the above 23 What is the bandwidth of a signal 16 Before data can be transmitted, that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 they must be transformed to MHz? ________. A) 1 KHz A) periodic signals B) 3 MHz B) electromagnetic signals C) 4 MHz C) aperiodic signals D) none of the above D) low-frequency sine waves 24 _____ signals can have an 17 Data can be ________. infinite number of values in a A) digital range. B) analog A) Analog C) (a) or (b) B) Digital D) none of the above C) (a) or (b) 18 ________ is a type of D) None of the above transmission impairment in which 25 A(n)_________ signal is a the signal loses strength due to composite analog signal with an the different propagation speeds infinite bandwidth. of each frequency that makes up A) digital the signal. B) analog A) Noise C) either (a) or (b) B) Distortion D) neither (a) nor (b) C) Attenuation 26 A periodic signal completes one D) Decibel cycle in 0.001 s. What is the 19 Signals can be ________. frequency? A) digital A) 1 Hz B) analog B) 100 Hz C) either (a) or (b) C) 1 KHz D) neither (a) nor (b) D) 1 MHz 20 A sine wave is ________. 27 The _____ of a composite signal A) periodic and discrete is the difference between the B) aperiodic and discrete highest and the lowest C) periodic and continuous frequencies contained in that D) aperiodic and continuous signal. 21 _______ data have discrete A) period states and take discrete values. B) bandwidth A) Analog C) frequency B) Digital D) amplitude C) (a) or (b) 28 ________ is a type of D) None of the above transmission impairment in which an outside source such as D) peak amplitude crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) Noise B) Distortion C) Attenuation D) Decibel 29 _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) Amplitude B) Phase C) Frequency D) Voltage 30 Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A. A) one-half B) twice C) the same as D) indeterminate from 31 As frequency increases, the period ________. A) increases B) decreases C) doubles D) remains the same 32 If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) low-pass B) low rate C) bandpass D) high rate 33 For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. A) low-pass B) bandpass C) noisy D) noiseless 34 In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. A) phase B) frequency C) slope