Chem 171-2-3: Final Exam Review Multiple Choice Problems

1. What is the molar mass of barium perchlorate, Ba(ClO4)2?

a. 189.90 g/mol c. 272.24 g/mol e. 336.20 g/mol
b. 240.24 g/mol d. 304.24 g/mol f. 473.37 g/mol

2. A sample of copper weighing 6.93 g contains how many moles of copper atoms?
a. 9.17 mol c. 0.917 mol e. 0.109 mol
b. 0.0645 mol d. 1.09 mol f. 6.56 x 1022 mol

3. Carbon disulfide is a liquid that can be used in the production of rayon and cellophane. It is manufactured from methane
and elemental sulfur according to the following chemical equation:
CH4 (g) + 4 S (s) Ÿ CS2 (l) + 2 H2S (g)
How many moles of CS2 can be formed by the complete reaction of 10.6 mol of S?
a. 1 mol c. 2.65 mol e. 4 mol
b. 10.6 mol d. 42.4 mol f. 2 mol

4. Which of the following aqueous solutions would you use in a qualitative chemical test to identify a
solution of Ba(OH)2?
a. AgNO3 c. HNO3 e. NaOH
b. BaCl2 d. H2SO4 f. NH3

5. What results would you expect from a litmus test of a solution of Ba(OH)2?
a. red litmus paper will turn blue c. there will be no change with either red or blue litmus paper
b. blue litmus paper will turn red d. both red and blue litmus paper will change color

6. A sample of tungsten occupies a volume of 5.38 cm3. What is the mass, in grams, of this sample of tungsten? (for
tungsten, density = 19.35 g/cm3)
a. 104 g c. 3.60 g e. 5.38 g
b. 0.278 g d. 19.4 g f. 28.9 g

7. A compound has a molecular formula of C12H24O6. What is this compound's empirical formula?
a. CHO c. C2H4O e. C4H8O2
b. C6H12O3 d. C12H24O6 f. CH2O

8. A non-metallic element X forms a compound with potassium that has the formula K2X. Which one of the following
elements could be X?
a. boron c. silicon e. chlorine
b. antimony d. neon f. selenium

9. What is the mass, in grams, of potassium in 12.5 g of K2Cr2O7 (molar mass = 294.40 g/mol)?
a. 1.66 g c. 8.80 g e. 0.0424 g
b. 78.2 g d. 3.32 g f. 12.5 g

10. Calculate the mass percent nitrogen in (NH4)2CO3 (molar mass = 96.09 g/mol).
a. 29.1 % c. 17.9 % e. 14.6 %
b. 35.9 % d. 0.292 % f. 96.1 %
11. Consider the following balanced chemical equation:
3 Mg (s) + B2O3 (s) Ÿ 2 B (s) + 3 MgO (s)
What mass, in grams, of magnesium oxide are formed when 100.0 g of B2O3 is allowed to react to completion with
excess magnesium?
a. 57.90 g c. 115.8 g e. 40.31 g
b. 173.7 g d. 100.0 g f. 19.30 g

12. Which one of the following compounds is not a strong electrolyte?

a. KOH c. Na2CO3 e. HCl
b. CuSO4 d. HNO2 f. NH4Br

13. A gas mixture is composed of 1.00 mol of He, 2.00 mol of Ar, and 2.00 mol Kr. At STP, the partial pressure of He is:
a. 152 torr c. 1.00 atm e. 0.200
b. 22.4 L/mol d. 4.00 g/mol f. 5.00 atm

14. Which of the following substances has the smallest density at 300 K and 1 atm?
a. C (s) c. NH3 (g) e. H2O (l)
b. Ar (g) d. SF6 (g) f. Xe (g)

15. What kind of reactant can convert HSO3– (aq) to SO32– (aq)?
a. oxidizing agent c. reducing agent e. acid
b. base d. precipitating agent f. none of the above

16. For an ideal gas at constant temperature, the number of molecules is

a. inversely proportional to P x V c. inversely proportional to V
b. directly proportional to P x V d. directly proportional to R

17. Compared to the rate of effusion of N2 (g), the rate of effusion of SF6 (g) is:
a. 5.21 times faster c. 2.28 times faster e. 27.2 times faster
b. 5.21 times slower d. 2.28 times slower f. 27.2 times slower

18. When 68.3 mg of Li2C2O4 (molar mass = 101.90 g/mol) dissolves in 200.0 mL of water, the [Li+ (aq)] is
a. 6.70 mol/L c. 0.0335 mol/L e. 0.0346 mol/L
b. 0.00742 mol/L d. 0.00335 mol/L f. 0.00670 mol/L

19. A gas mixture contains 3.00 atm of H2 and 1.00 atm of O2 in a 1.00 L vessel at 400K. If the mixture burns to form water
while the temperature is held at 400K, what is the partial pressure of H2O?
a. 5.00 atm c. 2.00 atm e. 1.00 atm
b. 3.00 atm d. 4.00 atm f. 0.500 atm

20. The energy of a photon of light is ______ proportional to its frequency and ______ proportional to its wavelength.
a. directly, directly b. inversely, inversely c. inversely, directly d. directly, inversely
21. Aluminum metal reacts with chlorine according to the following chemical equation:
2 Al (s) + 3 Cl2 (g) Ÿ 2 AlCl3 (s); DH = –1408 kJ
How much heat (in kJ) will be produced when 5.00 g of Al react?
a. –130 kJ c. –261 kJ e. –1408 kJ
b. +130 kJ d. +261 kJ f. –704 kJ

22. The probability of finding an electron at a given point in space is given by the value of ______ at that point.
a. hc/l b. y c. y2 d. l

23. Which set of quantum numbers cannot be correct?

a. n = 2, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2 c. n = 2, l = 1, ml = –1, ms = + 1/2
b. n = 3, l = 1, ml = –1, ms = -–1/2 d. n = 1, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2

24. Which one of the following orbitals can hold two electrons?
a. 2px b. 3s c. 4dxy d. all of the above

25. Rank the following elements in order of DECREASING atomic radius: Mg, Na, P, Si, Ar
a. Mg, Na, P, Si, Ar b. Ar, Si, P, Na, Mg c. Si, P, Ar, Na, Mg d. Na, Mg, Si, P, Ar

26. Element X reacts with chlorine to form a compound with the formula XCl2. The oxide of this element is basic. Element
X is:
a. Rb b. Ca c. Al d. P

27. The elements with the lowest first ionization energies belong to what group?
a. alkali metals b. noble gases c. halogens d. alkaline earth metals

28. Which one of the following metals is most likely to form cations of several different charges?
a. Al b. Cs c. Co d. Ca

29. Crystalline solids:

a. have highly ordered structures b. are usually very soft c. exist only at high temperatures.

30. In which one of the following substances is the kinetic energy greatest relative to the intermolecular forces of attraction?
a. H2O (l) b. NaCl (s) c. CO (g) d CH3OH (l)

31. Which one of the following compounds will have hydrogen bonding as one of its intermolecular forces?
a. H2S b. SiH4 c. HCl d. NH3

32. What is the predominant intermolecular force in CBr4?

a. London dispersion forces b. ion-dipole forces c. ionic bonding d. dipole-dipole forces

33. Which type of intermolecular force is the strongest?

a. London dispersion force b. dipole-dipole force c. hydrogen bonding
34. As the strengths of intermolecular attraction increase, the boiling point of a liquid will
a. increase b. decrease c. remain constant

35. The direct conversion of a solid to a gas is called

a. fusion b. vaporization c. condensation d. sublimation

36. For a given substance, which is generally larger?

a. DH°fus b. DH°vap c. DH°sub

37. Which one of the following statements about phase diagrams (P vs T) is true?
a. the critical point is that beyond which gas and solid are indistinguishable
b. triple point is that at which solid, liquid, and gas are in equilibrium
c. solid is generally found at high T and low P
d liquid is generally found at high T and low P

38. A sphere that sits on the corner of a simple cubic unit cell is shared between how many unit cells?
a. 4 b 1 c 8 d 2

39. As vapor pressure increases, boiling point

a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant

40. As vapor pressure increases, volatility

a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant

41. The resistance of a liquid to flow is called

a. viscosity b. surface tension c. volatility d. capillary action

42. The curvature of the surface of a liquid in a container is called the

a surface tension b. meniscus c capillary action

43. In which of the following states of matter are the particles held the closest together?
a. gas b. liquid c. solid

44. What type of close-packing pattern results in a lattice that has a face-centered cubic unit cell?
a. AAA b. BBB c. ABAB d. ABCABC

45. Which one of the following properties of a liquid is not affected by an increase in intermolecular forces?
a. viscosity b. molecular weight. c. DH°vap d. boiling point

46. Metals atoms are held together by:

a. ionic bonds b. covalent bonds c. London dispersion forces
d. electrostatic interactions between metal cations and delocalized valence electrons
47. A solution is said to contain 28% phosphoric acid by mass. What does this mean?
a. 1 mL of this solution contains 28 g of phosphoric acid
b. 1 L of this solution has a mass of 28 g
c. 100 g of this solution contains 28 g of phosphoric acid
d. 1 L of this solution contains 28 mL of phosphoric acid
e. the density of this solution is 2.8 g/mL

48. The vapor pressure of pure water at 25°C is 23.8 Torr. What is the vapor pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving
18.0 g of glucose (a nonelectrolyte, molar mass = 180 g/mol) in 95.0 g of water?
a. 26.8 Torr c. 23.4 Torr e. 0.451 Torr
b. 0.443 Torr d. 2.46 Torr f. 161.8 Torr

49. In basic solution:

a. [H3O+] = [OH–] c. [H3O+] > [OH–] e. [H3O+] = Kw
b. [H3O+] < [OH–] d. [H3O+] = 0 f. [OH–] = Kw

50. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2 CO2 (g) ÷ 2 CO (g) + O2 (g); DH°= –514 kJ. Increasing the
temperature of this reaction at equilibrium will:
a. increase the concentration of O2 (g) at equilibrium
b. decrease the concentration of CO2 (g) at equilibrium
c. decrease the value of the equilibrium constant
d. cause the reaction to shift to the right
e. have no effect

51. What is the pH of a solution that contains 2.51 x 10–6 M OH–?

a. 8.40 c. 5.60 e. 9.00
b. 3.98 d. 7.00 f. 1.00

52. The stronger an acid is, the __________ its Ka and the ______________ its percent dissociation.
a. larger, greater b. smaller, less c. larger, less d. smaller, greater

53. Consider the equilibrium A ÷ B. If the forward rate constant is much larger than the reverse rate constant, which one of
the following statements must be true?
a. K < 1 c. [B]eq > [A]eq e. Q >1
b. Ea is large d. none of these f. all of these

54. In a certain first order reaction it takes 240 s for the reactant concentration to decrease to 1/16 of its initial value. The
half life of this reaction is
a. 120 s c. 60 s e. 15 s
b. 30 s d. 70 s f. 480 s

55. Consider a 2nd order reaction AŸ products with k = 0.0448 L•mol—1•s—1. If a sample initially has a concentration of
0.140 mol/L of A, what is the concentration in mol/L of A after 20.0 s?
a. 0.896 c. 0.0571 e. –0.756
b. 0.0646 d. 0.124 f. 0.140
56. The pH of a 0.250 M solution of HNO3 (aq) is
a. 0.250 c. 13.40 e. 13.75
b. 0.60 d. 1.78 f. 14.0

57. At 25°C pKa for formic acid = 3.75. For formic acid Ka =
a. 0.57 c. 10.25 e. 1.78 10—4
b. 5.62 x 10—11 d. 1.78 x 1010 f. 1.01

58. At some temperature, a mixture of 2.00 mol H2S, 2.00 mol S2 and some H2 are at equilibrium in a 2.00 L vessel. If K =
100 for the reaction 2 H2 + S2 ÷ 2 H2S, then the [H2]eq is
a. 0.0100 M c. 0.0200 M e. 0.0400 M
b. 0.100 M d. 0.125 M f. 0.141 M

59. A reversible reaction A ÷ B has DH = –40 kJ/mol. If the forward step has an activation energy of 120 kJ/mol, then the
reverse step has an activation energy of
a. –3 kJ/mol c. 3 kJ/mol e. 80 kJ/mol
b. 160 kJ/mol d. –40 kJ/mol f. 120 kJ/mol

60. Which of the following is present in the largest concentration in 1.0 M HClO4 (aq)?
a. HClO4 c. ClO4— e. OH—
b. H2ClO4+ d. HClO3 f. Cl—

61. A catalyst speeds up a reaction principally by

a. increasing T c. increasing K e. increasing A
b. decreasing T d. decreasing Ea f. increasing Ea

62. For the reaction 2 H2 (g) + 2 NO (g) Ÿ N2 (g) + 2 H2O (g), a proposed mechanism is:
step1: H2 (g) + 2 NO (g) Ÿ N2O (g) + H2O (g); slow step 2: N2O (g) + H2 (g) Ÿ N2 (g) + H2O (g); fast
The predicted rate law for this mechanism is
a. Rate = k[N2O][H2] b. Rate = k[H2][NO]2 c. Rate = k[H2]2[NO]2 d. Rate = k[H2][N2O]/[N2]

63. For an acid/base indicator to be useful in a titration, the indicator should have a pKa value that is within one unit (+ 1) of:
a. pKa of the acid being titrated c. pKb of the base being titrated
b. pH at the stoichiometric point d. pH of the initial acid solution

64. Which one of the following comparisons of acid strength is incorrect?

a. pKa of HClO2 < pKa of HClO3 c. pKa of H2SeO4 < pKa of HSeO4–
b. pKa of HC2Cl3O2 < pKa of HC2H3O2 d. pKa of HCl < pKa of HF

65. If each of the following salt solutions has a concentration of 1.0 M, which one has pH = 7.00?
a. KClO2 (aq) b. NaBr (aq) c. NH4Cl (aq) d. Na3PO4 (aq)
66. Which one of the following reactions has a negative value of DS?
a. LiBr (s) Ÿ LiBr (aq) c. 2 KN3 (s) Ÿ 2 K (s) + 3 N2 (g)
b. I2 (s) Ÿ I2 (g) d. Ni (s) + F2 (g) Ÿ NiF2 (s)

67. When a metal cation reacts with molecules that can donate electron pairs, a ___________ forms.
a. strong acid b. complex ion c. neutral solution d. buffer solution

68. Which one of the following methods could be used to increase the solubility of Fe(OH)2 (s)?
a. add Fe(NO3)2 (aq) b. raise the pH c. add HCl (aq) d. add KCl (s)

69. A buffer solution is made by dissolving 0.150 mol HNO2 (pKa = 3.45) and 0.350 mol KNO2 in 500 mL of water. The
pH of this solution is:
a. 3.08 b. 3.82 c. 10.10 d. 10.92

70. A certain reaction has DH° = +50 kJ/mol and DS° = +100 J/K•mol. This reaction is:
a. spontaneous at all temperatures c. spontaneous only above 500 K
b. not spontaneous at any temperature d. spontaneous only below 200 K

71. 0.300 mol of NaHC2O4 (pKa = 4.19) is dissolved in 1.00 L of water. Which one of the following could be added to form
a buffer solution with pH = 4.50?
a. 0.300 mol NaOH b. 0.613 mol Na2C2O4 c. 0.147 mol H2C2O4 d. 0.150 mol HCl

72. What is the concentration of CO32– in 0.40 M H2CO3 (aq)? For carbonic acid, Ka1 = 4.3 x 10–7, and Ka2 = 5.6 x 10–11.
a. 4.3 x 10–7 M b. 0.40 M c. 5.6 x 10–11 M d. 2.3 x 10–8 M

73. Which of the following aqueous salt solutions (all 0.100 M) has the lowest pH?
a. Na3PO4 b. Na2SO4 c. NaCl d. AlCl3

74. In which of the following molecular orbitals is the probability of finding an e– at the internuclear axis NOT equal to 0?
a. s2p b. p*2p c. p2p d. s*2s

75. Consider P2. Head to head overlap of two 3p orbitals (one on each P atom) leads to the formation of
a.. one s3p and one s*3p MO c. one p3p and one p*3p MO
b. one s3p and one p3p MO d. two p3p and two p*3p MO’s

76. For which element is the ground state electron configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d8?
a. Kr b. Fe c. Cu d. Zn e. Ni

77. Which of the following elements is the most paramagnetic?

a. Fe b. P c. Ar d. Sc e. Cs

78. What is meant by the term “normal boiling point”?

a. T = 25°C b. P = 1 atm c. bp of pure solvent d. bp when there are no intermolecular forces
79. Consider a Galvanic cell represented by the following line notation: Zn(s) | Zn2+ (aq) || Cu2+ (aq) | Cu (s). Which
statement about this cell is not true?
a. The mass of the zinc electrode will increase as the cell discharges.
b. The copper electrode is the cathode.
c. Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the copper electrode.
d. The cathode half reaction is Cu2+ + 2 e– Ÿ Cu.
e. The concentration of Cu2+ (aq) will decrease as the cell discharges.

80. An electrolytic cell runs with a current of 1.00 A for 30.0 min. What mass (in g) of iron can be plated from FeCl2 (aq) in
this cell?
a. 0.520 g b. 1.04 g c. 838 g d. 8.71 x 10–3 g e. 16.6 g
Chem 171-2-3: Final Exam Review Multiple Choice Problems ANSWES

1. E 28. C 55. D
2. E 29. A 56. B
3. C
30. C 57. E
4. D
31. D 58. B
5. A
32. A 59. B
6. A
33. C 60. C
7. C
34. A 61. D
8. F
35. D 62. B
9. D
36. C 63. B
10. A
37. B 64. A
11. B
38. C 65. B
12. D
39. A 66. D
13. E
40. A 67. B
14. C
41. A 68. C
15. B
42. B 69. B
16. B
43. C 70. C
17. D
44. D 71. B
18, F
45. B 72. C
19. C
46. D 73. D
20. D
47. C 74. A
21. A
48. C 75. A
22. C
49. B 76. E
23. D
50. C 77. A
24. D 51. A
78. B
25. D 52. A
79. A
26. B 53. C
80. A
27. A 54. C