Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005.

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 160 Sample Paper : Campus Recruitment Test Time : 1½ Hr.

Botany (Medical)

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Topics : Cell : The unit of life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Living World, Biological classification, Morphology & Anatomy
of Flowering Plants, Plant Kingdom, Plant Physiology, Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual reproduction in Flowering
plants, Genetics(Principles of Inheritance & Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance), Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations, Ecosystem Biodiversity & Conservation, and
Environmental Issues.
Instructions:
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Darken only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Darken the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.

1. In Snapdragon, pure line tall plant with red flower 3. The given pedigree chart represents the inheritance
was crossed with dwarf and white flowered plant; of which of the genetic disorders mentioned ?
F1 was test crossed to obtain F 2. What is the
probability of getting progeny with dominant
parental generation traits?
(1) 62% (2) 50%
(3) 25% (4) 0%
2. Select correct match.
a. Palm crease (i) Philadelphia syndrome
b. Gynaecomastia (ii) Turner’s syndrome a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Polydactyly
c. Rudimentary ovaries (iii) Klinefelter’s syndrome c. PKU d. Colour-blindness
d. Chronic myelogenous (iv) Down’s syndrome e. Achondroplasia f. Morphan syndrome
leukemia
g. Porcupine skin h. SCA
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) a, b & f
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) c, d & e
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) c & h
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) f & g

(1)
4. Consider the given figure and select correct option D. Non-pigmented iron bacteria of Kingdom
for labels marked A, B, C & D. Monera in Whittaker system.
(1) A, B & D are correct (2) A & B are correct
B C D
DNA RNA Protein (3) C & D are correct (4) B & D are correct
A
9. Which of the following statement is correct for Virus?
(1) A - DNA dependent DNA polymerase (1) Form plasmodium stage after aggregation in
B - Replication favourable condition
(2) C - DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) Nucleo-proteinous Monerans
A - RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Obligate intercellular parasites of infectious
(3) C - RNA dependent RNA polymerase nature
D - DNA dependent Ribozyme
(4) Have only one type of nucleic acid which is
(4) B - RNA dependent DNA polymerase infectious
D - RNA dependent peptidyl transferase
10. Criteria like DNA base sequencing for classifying
5. Select correct statement. various organisms is considered in
(1) RNA is more labile due to methyl uracil (1) Karyotaxonomy
(2) DNA is preferred for the transmission of genetic (2) Cytotaxonomy
information
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(3) RNA acts as adapter and catalyst
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Presence of thymine confers stability to the
helical structure of DNA 11. Select correct match w.r.t. placentation.

6. How many taxons mentioned in the box belong to a. Placenta forms a ridge on ventral (i) Parietal
lowest category with the maximum number of
suture
common characteristics?
b. Common type of placentation (ii) Basal
Felis, Petunia, Lion, Mangifera indica,
Brinjal, Dicots, Dog, Monocots, Mosses, c. Most advanced type placentation (iii) Axile
Muscidae, Angiosperm, Grasses
d. Ovules on peripheral (iv) Marginal
(1) Nine (2) Seven part of the ovary

(3) Four (4) Six (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

7. The scientific name of a microorganism which is (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
symbiotically associated with the root of most of
12. Features like actinomorphic flower, axile
the higher plants like Pinus, has been standardised
placentation and endospermous seeds are
in accordance to the rules of
common in
(1) ICBN (2) ICNB (1) Solanaceae and Liliaceae
(3) ICNCP (4) ICZN (2) Liliaceae and Fabaceae
8. Organisms having cellular body organisation, with (3) Brassicaceae and Fabaceae
ability to oxidise various inorganic substances and
(4) Graminae and Liliaceae
use the released energy for their ATP production;
are 13. The meristems that occur in mature regions of
roots and shoots of many plants are
A. Nitrifying bacteria of Kingdom Monera in
Linnaeus system. (1) Protoderm and procambium

B. Sulphur bacteria belonging to Kingdom Protista (2) Ground meristems and intercalary meristems
in Haeckel system. (3) Dedifferentiated tissues
C. Holophytic protistans. (4) Redifferentiated tissues

(2)
14. Select incorrectly matched pair. 19. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in
(1) Collenchymatous – Dicot root (1) Requirement of special membrane protein
hypodermis
(2) Direction of transport
(2) Conspicuous – Monocot root
(3) Highly selective nature
parenchymatous
ground tissue (4) Showing transport saturation
(3) Large and well – Dicot stem 20. In photosynthetic pathway of Sorghum plant C4-
developed pith acids are decarboxylated in ________ to start
_________enzyme activity.
(4) Abundant starch – Dicot stem
grains in innermost (1) Mesophyll; PEPcase
layer of cortex
(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO
15. Which of the following tissues is/are obliterated
(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO
due to the continued formation and accumulation of
secondary xylem? (4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase
(1) Primary xylem and pith 21. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs.
(2) Phellem and phelloderm a. Promotes the (i) ABA
abscission of older,
(3) Primary and secondary phloem mature leaves and
(4) Primary phloem only fruits

16. Select correct match. b. Increases the length (ii) Cytokinin

of grape stalk
a. Steroidal hormones (i) Chondriosome
c. Adventitious shoot (iii) Gibberellin
b. Hydrolases (ii) SER formation

c. Oxidative (iii) Lysosomes d. Increases the (iv) Auxins

phosphorylation tolerance of plants
to various kinds of
d. Storage of proteins (iv) Ribosomes stresses
(v) Aleuroplast (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
22. A - Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in
17. Secondary constriction differs from primary protists and monerans.
constriction in being
B - Neelakurinji is annual with distinct vegetative,
(1) Present in all chromosomes near telomere reproductive and senescent phase.

C - In majority of organisms, male gamete is

(2) Heterochromatin
motile and the female gamete is stationary.
(3) Euchromatin (1) All are correct (2) A & B are correct

(4) Attachment site for spindle fibres (3) Only B is incorrect (4) Only A is incorrect

18. What would be the number of bivalents (A) in 23. W hich of the following type of life cycle is
metaphase I and DNA amount in metaphase II (B) associated with the organisms where zygote
in a dividing cell if microspore has 30 develops a thick wall that is resistant to
chromosomes with 10 picogram DNA? desiccation and damage?

(1) Diplontic (2) Haplontic

(1) A = 30, B = 40 Pg (2) A = 60, B = 40 Pg
(3) Haplo-diplontic (4) Diplo-Haplontic
(3) A = 30, B = 60 Pg (4) A = 30, B = 20 Pg

(3)
24. A typical angiosperm anther is 30. Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery of
healthy plants from diseased plants is
(1) Monothecous and tetrasporangiate
(1) Somatic hybridisation
(2) Bilobed and bisporangiate
(2) Embryo culture
(3) Dithecous and trilobed
(3) Androgenic culture
(4) Bilobed and tetrasporangiate
(4) Meristem culture
25. Select correct statement w.r.t. female
gametophyte development in flowering plants. 31. The path of electrons through cytochrome oxidase
in mitochondrial ETS is
(1) Micropylar megaspore undergoes three free
nuclear mitosis (1) NADH  FMN  Fe – S
(2) Six nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and (2) Cyt b  Cyt c1
organised into cells (3) FAD  Fe – S  Q
(3) The large central cell has two nuclei situated (4) Cyt a  Cyt a3
above egg apparatus
32. The main source of biofertilisers in terrestrial
(4) Centrifugal cytokinesis starts after eight- environments are
nucleate stage
(1) Bacteria only
26. Which outbreeding device prevents both Autogamy
and Geitonogamy in papaya? (2) Bacteria and fungi

(1) Self-incompatibility (2) Dichogamy (3) Fungi and BGA

(3) Heterostyly (4) Dioecism (4) Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi

27. Select the incorrect match. 33. The ecological pyramid of number for predator food
chain on a tree is
(1) Apospory - Diploid egg
(1) Straight (2) Inverted
(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo
(3) Spindle-shaped (4) Bell-shaped
(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary
34. Amongst vertebrates the diversity of amphibians
(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper (A), fishes (B), birds (C), reptiles (D), mammals (E)
is correctly represented by
28. In eukaryotes, a gene is literally not defined as
(1) B > C > A > D > E
(1) Cistron
(2) B > C > D > A > E
(2) Functional unit of inheritance
(3) B > D > C > A > E
(3) A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
(4) C > E > B > A > D
(4) DNA sequence which has continuous
information for a polypeptide 35. Most effective device to remove particulate matter
present in the exhaust released from a thermal
29. Classical plant breeding involves power plant is
(1) Improved management practices (1) Scrubber
(2) Domestication (2) Catalytic converters
(3) Hybridisation and selection (3) ESP
(4) More than one option is correct (4) CPCB

(4)
In the following questions (36 to 40), a statement 37. A : Diakinesis represents transition to Metaphase-I.
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). R : Diakinesis is marked by dissolution of
Synaptonemal complex
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the 38. A : An ovule generally has a single embryo sac
assertion, then mark (1). formed from a megaspore.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the R : Generally single megaspore mother cell is
assertion, then mark (2). differentiated in the micropylar region of the
nucellus.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3). 39. A : Genetic codes are degenerate.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : The code is nearly universal
statements, then mark (4).
40. A : Species inventories are more complete in
36. A : Viruses did not find a place in the five
tropical than in temperate countries.
kingdom classification of Whittaker.

R : They are non-cellular organisms with inert R : A large number of species waiting to be
crystalline structure outside the living cell. discovered are in the temperate regions.

 

(5)
 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005.
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 160 Sample Paper : Campus Recruitment Test Time : 1½ Hr.

Botany (Medical)

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

1 (4) 9 (4) 17 (3) 25 (2) 33 (3)

2 (1) 10 (3) 18 (4) 26 (4) 34 (2)

3 (3) 11 (1) 19 (2) 27 (3) 35 (3)

4 (2) 12 (1) 20 (2) 28 (4) 36 (1)

5 (3) 13 (3) 21 (1) 29 (3) 37 (3)

6 (3) 14 (1) 22 (3) 30 (4) 38 (2)

7 (1) 15 (3) 23 (2) 31 (4) 39 (2)

8 (4) 16 (1) 24 (4) 32 (4) 40 (4)

(6)