Mat & Sat-04

MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.
-04)-MAT & SAT-2
MAT SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (1 - 10): In each of the following questions, there are two words/set of letters/ number to the
left of the sign :: which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third
words/set of letters/numbers and one of the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each
question.
1. Flying : Bird : : Creeping : ?

(A) Aeroplane (B) Snail (C) Ground (D) Flower
2. Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ?

(A) Heat (B) Radiation (C) Energy (D) Temperature
3. Man : Walk :: Fish : ?

(A) Swim (B) Eat (C) Live (D) Sleep
4. Import : Export : : Expenditure : ?

(A) Deficit (B) Saving (C) Debt (D) Tax
5. Ocean : Water : : Glacier : ?

(A) Refrigerator (B) Ice (C) Mountain (D) Cave
6. PRLN : XZTV : : JLFH : ?

(A) NPRT (B) NRPT (C) NTRP (D) RTNP
7. DRIVEN : EIDRVN : : BEGUM : ?

(A) EUBGM (B) MGBEU (C) BGMEU (D) UEBGM
8. 14 : 9 :: 26 : ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 31
Space for rough work
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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.-04)-MAT & SAT-3
9. ACFJ : OUZJ :: SUXB : ?

(A) GNSA (B) GLQZ (C) GKPY (D) GMRB
10. 6 : 24 :: 5 : ?
(A) 23 (B) 22 (C) 26 (D) 20
Directions (11 – 15): In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three are
alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
11. (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Venus (D) Sun
12. (A) JUDGE (B) SCANT (C) CROWD (D) FLUSH
13. (A) Rose (B) Lotus (C) Marigold (D) Lily
14. (A) USTO (B) OOT (C) TTOU (D) SST
15. (A) PUT (B) END (C) OWL (D) ARM
16. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as :

(A) IRDCTIONE (B) NOIETCRID (C) RIDTCENOI (D) NORTECDII
17. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRIV. How can CENTRAL be written in that code ?
(A) DFOUSBM (B) GIRXVEP (C) GJRYVEP (D) GNFJKER
18. If VICTORY is coded asYLFWRUB, then how can SUCCESS be coded in that code language ?
(A) VXEEIVV (B) VXFFHVV (C) VYEEHVV (D) None of these
19. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?

(A) EDRIRL (B) DCQHQK (C) ESJFME (D) FYOBOC
20. In a certain code ‘Kit Mit Fit’ means ‘ I am Laborious’; ‘Zit Rit Kit’ means ‘Laborious Is Dangerous’
and ‘Sit Fis Rit’ means ‘Dangerous Extremely Painful’ then in that language what is code for ‘Is’ ?
(A) Kit (B) Zit (C) Rit (D) Data inadequate
21. In a code STATION is denoted by URCRKMP then BRING is denoted in the same code by :
(A) CSKLH (B) DSGLH (C) KSKPH (D) DPKLI
22. In a certain code ‘289’ means ‘Read from newspaper’, ‘276’ means ‘tea from field’ and ‘85’ means
‘Wall newspaper’. Which of the following number is used for ‘tea’ ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) Either 7 or 6 (D) Either 2 or 6
23. If ‘black’ means ‘white’, ‘white’ means ‘red’, ‘red’ means ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ means ‘blue’, ‘blue’
means ‘green’, ‘green’ means ‘purple’ and ‘purple’ means ‘orange’ then what is the colour of
clean sky ?
(A) green (B) purple (C) blue (D) yellow
24. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what
will be the code for SEARCH ?
(A) 318826 (B) 214673 (C) 214763 (D) 216473
25. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the
following does a fruit grow ?
(A) Water (B) Food (C) Tree (D) Sky
26. Anil, introducing a girl in a party, said, she is the wife of the grandson of my mother. How is Anil
related to the girl ?
(A) Father (B) Grandfather (C) Husband (D) Father-in-law
27. A man said to a woman, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the woman related to
the man ?
(A) Grand daughter (B) Daughter (C) Sister (D) Aunt
28. Introducing Rajesh, Neha said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father”. How
Neha is related to Rajesh ?
(A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Mother (D) Niece
29. Vinod is the brother of Bhaskar. Manohar is the sister of Vinod. Biswal is the brother of Preetam
and Preetam is the daughter of Bhaskar. Who is the uncle of Biswal ?
(A) Bhaskar (B) Manohar (C) Vinod (D) Insufficient data
30. A man said to a woman, “Your brother’s only sister is my mother.” What is the relation of the
woman with the maternal grandmother of that man ?
(A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Niece (D) Daughter
31. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my
father’s son.” Whose photograph was it ?
(A) His own (B) His son’s (C) His father’s (D) His nephew’s
32. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is
your maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father ?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Wife
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) Can’t be determined
33. Introducing a man a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman
related to that man ?
(A) Aunt (B) Wife (C) Mother-in-law (D) Maternal Aunt
34. Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy playing football related to Deepak ?
(A) Son (B) Brother (C) Causin (D) Nephew
35. A is the mother of B. C is the father of B and C has 3 children. On the basis of this information,
find out which of the following relations is correct ?
(A) C has three daughters (B) C has three sons
(C) B is the son (D) None of these
36. If A is to the south of B and C is to the east of B, in what direction is A with respect to C ?
(A) North-east (B) North-west (C) South-east (D) South-west
37. One morning after sunrise, Gopal was facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his
right. Which direction was he facing ?
(A) South (B) East (C) West (D) Data inadequate
38. A boy rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and
rode 2 km. He found himself exactly one km west of his starting point. How far did he ride
northwards initially ?
(A) 1 km (B) 2 km (C) 3 km (D) 5 km
39. Ravi wants to go to the university. He starts from his home which is in the East and come to a
crossing. The road to the left ends is a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is
the university ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
40. In the given figure, P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400

km north of O.R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The
distance between Q and R is :
(A) 250 km
(B) 100 3 km
(C) 500 km
(D) 125 km
41. A rat runs 20’ towards east and turns to right, runs 10’ and turns to right, runs 9’ and again turns
to left, runs 5’ and then to left, runs 12’ and finally turns to left and runs 6’. Now, which direction is
the rat facing ?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
42. If South-east becomes North, North-east becomes West and so on, what will West become ?
(A) North-east (B) North-west (C) South-east (D) South-west
43. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carom. P, R and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who
is facing west. Then, Q is facing ?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
44. A and B start walking, from a point, in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km.
Then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the
starting point ?
(A) 5 km (B) 4 km (C) 10 km (D) 8 km
45. A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 15 km (B) 6 km (C) 7 km (D) 8 km
46. Vijay’s position is 14th from upwards in a class of 43 students. What will be his position from
downwards ?
(A) 30th (B) 28th (C) 29th (D) 31st
47. Rakesh is on 9th position from upwards and on 38th position from downwards in a class. How
many students are in class ?
(A) 47 (B) 45 (C) 46 (D) 48
48. Some boys are sitting in a line. Mahendra is on 17 th place from left and Surendra is on 18 th place
from right. There are 8 boys in between them. How many boys are there in the line ?
(A) 43 (B) 42 (C) 41 (D) 44
Directions (49-50) : Read following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
(i) P, Q, R, S and T are five friends.
(ii) Q is elder to T.
(iii) R is younger to P.
(iv) P is younger to T.
(v) S is elder to P.
49. Who among the following is the eldest ?

(A) P (B) Q (C) S (D) Data inadequate
50. Who among the following is the youngest ?

(A) P (B) R (C) T (D) Data inadequate
Directions (51-62): Find out the missing term in following series :
51. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 89, ?

(A) 108 (B) 184 (C) 167 (D) 97
52. 5, 16, 51, 158, ……

(A) 1452 (B) 483 (C) 481 (D) 1454
53. 8, 13, 10, 15, 12, 17, 14 ….

(A) 19 (B) 22 (C) 16 (D) 20
54. DILQTYBG?
(A) H (B) I (C) J (D) P
55. 3, 15, 4, 16, 5, 17, 6, ?, 7

(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 15 (D) 13
56. 240, …120, 40, 10, 2

(A) 480 (B) 240 (C) 220 (D) 120
57. BC FG JK ? RS VW
(A) LM (B) OP (C) QR (D) NO
58. 6.25, 9, 12.25, 16, 20.25, 25, 30.25, ?

(A) 36 (B) 32 (C) 28.25 (D) 40.25
59. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P

(A) I11T (B) L11S (C) L12T (D) L11T
60. F3X, H7U, J15R, L31O, ?

(A) M46L (B) N44L (C) N63L (D) N44M
61. 3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ?

(A) 21O (B) 25N (C) 27P (D) 27Q
62. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?

(A) ZKU (B) ZKW (C) XKW (D) ZAB
Directions (63-65): Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after another will complete
the given letter series?
63. aa _bb_aa_abbbb_a
(A) bbaa (B) aabb (C) baba (D) abab
64. ba _ b _ aab _ a_b

(A) abaa (B) abba (C) baab (D) babb
65. c_bba_cab_ac_ab_ac
(A) abcbc (B) acbcb (C) babcc (D) bcacb
Directions (66-70): Find the odd one term in following series :
66. 3, 5, 8, 11, 17, 23

(A) 8 (B) 11 (C) 17 (D) 23
67. 905, 180, 175, 35, 30, 6, 1

(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 175 (D) 905
68. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L

(A) G4T (B) J10R (C) M20P (D) P43N
69. 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 13 (D) 22
70. 12, 18, 27, 90, 270, 945, 3780

(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 945 (D) 27
Directions (71-74): A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. Now,
answer the following questions based on this statement :
71. How many cubes have no face coloured ?

(A) 24 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 0
72. How many cubes are there which have only one face coloured ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 24
73. How many cubes have two red opposite faces ?

(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 24
74. How many cubes have three faces coloured ?

(A) 24 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 4
Directions (75- 79): Following questions are based on the figures given below which represent different
positions of the same dice.
75. Which number lies at the bottom face of the dice (i) ?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3
76. Which number lies at the bottom face of the dice (iii) ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4
77. Which number lies opposite 6 ?

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 1
78. Which of the following combinations shows the numbers at the adjacent surfaces of the
number 4?
(A) 3, 2 (B) 6, 2 (C) 2, 3 (D) 6, 3
79. Which of the following numbers does not appear on any one of the adjacent surface of the
number 3 ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1
Directions (80 – 84): Find the missing character in each of the following questions.
80.
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 4 (D) 6
81.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 21
82.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20
83.
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 125 (D) 216

83.
(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 20 (D) 21
Directions (85-87): Study the problem figures carefully and try to establish the relationship between them
from the answer figures. Pick out the figure which most appropriately completes the series.
Problem Figures Answer Figures
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
Directions (90-92): In the following questions there are two sets of figures. One set is problem figures
and the second set is a answer figures. There is some relationship between the first and the second
figure of the problem figures set. If there is similar relationship between the third and fourth figures of the
same set, select the correct figure from the set of answer figures for question mark (?).
Problem Figures Answer Figures
90.
91.
92.
Directions (93-97): In each problem, out of the five figures marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), four are similar
in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different
from the rest.
93.
94.
95.
96.
A B C D
97.
Directions (98-100): In each of the following questions, you are given a fig (x) followed by four alternative
figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (x) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure
which contains fig. (x) as its part.
98.
99.
100.
SAT SECTION – II
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. One light wave is incident upon a plate of refractive index . What is the incident angle i, for which
refractive & reflective waves are mutually perpendicular?
 1  1 
(A) tan–1 (–1) (B) tan–1   (C) tan–1  (D) tan–1  
   – 1
2. A farsighted person cannot focus clearly an objects that are less than 145 cm from his eyes. To
correct this problem, the person wear eyeglasses that are located 2.0 cm in front of his eyes.
What is the focal length that will permit this person to read a newspaper at a distance of 32.0 cm
from his eyes?
(A) 32 cm (B) 34 cm (C) 36 cm (D) 38 cm
3. Fig. shows three similar lamps L1, L2 and L3 connected across a power supply.
If the lamp L3 fuses, how will the current through L1 and L2 change?
(A) Current through L, and L2 will remain same as earlier.
(B) Current through L, will increase and that through L 2 will decrease.
(C) Current through L1 will decrease and that through L2 will increase.
(D) No. current will flow through L1 and L2.
4. A conducting wire of infinite length, carrying a current I, is arranged

in the shape, as shown. If the magnetic field at the centre O of
circular segment is zero, then, calculate the angle .

(A)  = (B)  = 2( – 1 )
4
(C)  = /2 (D) 0 <  < 2
5. Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards each other at speeds 10 m/s and 15 m/s
respectively. After what time will they pass each other?
2
(A) 5 sec (B) 4 sec (C) 2 sec (D) 6 sec
3
6. A staircase contains 3 steps each 10 cm high and 20 cm wide. What should be the minimum
horizontal velocity of a ball rolling off the uppermost plane so as to hit the lowest plane.
(A)1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 3 m/s (D) 4 m/s
7. What thrust is needed to fire a 350-kilogram rocket straight up with an acceleration of 8.0 meters
per second squared?
(A) 2800 N (B) 3430 N (C) 6230 N (D) 630 N
8. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = ax 3/2 where a = 5 m–1/2 s–1. What
is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2m?
10
(A) 10 2 J (B) J (C) 25 2 J (D) 50 J
2
9. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius r with a
period of revolution T. On what power of r, will the square of time period depend if the
gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star is proportional to r –5/2.
(A) T2  r3 (B) T2  r3/2 (C) T2  r5/2 (D) T2  r7/2
10. A boat containing some piece of material is floating in a pond. What will happen to the level of
water in the pond if on unloading the pieces in the pond, the piece sink?
(A) Level of water will go down (B) Level of water will rise
(C) Level of water will remain unchanged (D) No conclusion can be drawn
11. A wave pulse on a string moves a distance of 8m in 0.05s. What would be the wave length of the
wave on the same string if its frequency is 200 Hz ?
(A) 160 m (B) 80 m (C) 1.6 m (D) 0.8 m
12. From what height should a piece of ice fall so that it melts completely? Only one-quarter of the
heat produced is absorbed by the ice. The latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10 5 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg.
(A) 136 km (B) 140 km (C) 68 km (D) None of these
13. A concave mirror of focal length f produces a real image which is “n” times the size of the object.
What is the distance of the object from the mirror.
 f  1  f 
(A) –  n (B) –  n
 f   f  1
 n  1  n 
(C) –   f (D) –  f
 n   n  1
14. The closed loop PQRS is moving into a uniform magnetic field acting at right angles to the plane
of the paper as shown in the following figure. The direction in which the induced current flows in
the loop will be :
(A) Clockwise i.e. along PQRSP

(B) Anti-clockwise i.e. along PSRQP
(C) Alternating current will be produced i.e. direction of current reverses after regular interval of
time
(D) No current will flow
15. 11.2 L of a gas at STP weighs 14 g. The gas could be :

(A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) N2 (D) CO2
16. Which of the following is combination reaction ?

(I) 2KClO3 heat
,2KCl  3O2 (II) MgO  H2O  Mg(OH)2
(III) 4Al  3O2  2Al2O3 (IV) Zn  FeSO4  ZnSO4  Fe
(A) I, III (B) III, IV (C) II, IV (D) II, III
17. Bleaching powder can be prepared by reacting :

(A) Caustic Soda with chlorine (B) Washing soda with chlorine
(C) Baking soda with chlorine (D) Slaked line with chlorine
18. An aqueous solution with pH = zero is :

(A) Acidic (B) Alkaline (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
19. Although metals form basic oxide, which of the following metals form amphoteric oxide :
(A) Na (B) Ca (C) Zn (D) Cu
20. Sodium hydrogen carbonate solution when added to dilute ethanoic acid. It is observed that :
(A) Colourless, odourless gas is evolved
(B) A precipitate is formed
(C) The mixture becomes warm and blue coloured
(D) Colourless, light brown coloured gas evolved
21. Which of the following elements would lose an electron most easily ?
(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Rb
22. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution then the light gets :
(A) Reflected (B) Scattered (C) Refracted (D) Absorbed
23. The correct formula of Aluminium phosphate is :

(A) Al2(PO4)3 (B) Al(PO4)3 (C) AlPO4 (D) Al3(PO4)2
24. The froth floatation process used for the concentration of sulphide ores is based upon :
(A) The difference in the specific gravity of ore and gangue particles
(B) The magnetic properties of gangue particles
(C) Preferential wetting of ore particles by oil
(D) Preferential wetting of gangue particles by oil
25. Which of the following factors, when increased affect the rate of evaporation adversely?
(A) Temperature of liquid
(B) Surface area of liquid exposed to surrounding
(C) Humidity in air
(D) All the above
26. Two atoms A and B with electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 2 and 2, 8, 7 respectively form a
molecule. What will be the formula of molecule ?
(A) AB (B) AB2 (C) A2B (D) BA
27. Which of the following is not matter?

(A) Smoke (B) Humidity (C) Pain (D) Water
28. What is the atomic number of an element of period 3 and group 17 of the periodic table ?
(A) 10 (B) 4 (C) 17 (D) 21
29. Protoplast is :
(A) Whole protoplasm of cell (B) Plant cell without cell wall
(C) Cytoplasm of the cell (D) Cytosol of cell
30. Osmosis is :
(A) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration
(B) Movement of solvent molecules from lower concentration of solution to higher concentration
of solution
(C) Movement of solvent molecules from hypotonic to hypertonic solution
(D) All of the above
31. Protein fibrils found in muscle cells are :

(A) Collagen and elastin (B) Actin and myosin
(C) Myosin and thrombin (D) None of the above
32. Medullated nerve fibres are covered (ensheathed) with :

(A) Schwann cells only (B) Myelin sheath only
(C) Schwann and myelin sheath both (D) None of the above
33. In photosynthesis oxygen of glucose comes from :

(A) H2O (B) CO2 (C) Both (D) Not determined
34. In anaerobic respiration :

(A) CO2 is always released (B) CO2 is not always released
(C) H2O is always released (D) Both (B) & (C)
35. In myogenic heart, heart beat is :

(A) Controlled by nervous system (B) Not controlled by nervous system
(C) Initiated by muscular tissue (D) Both (A) and (C)
36. In plants male gametes are :

(A) Pollen grain (B) Anther
(C) Formed inside pollen grain (D) Sperm
37. Indigenous breeds of buffalo, cow and fowl is respectively.

(A) Sahiwal, surti, Brahma (B) Surti, Sahiwal, Brahma
(C) Brahma, Sahiwal, Surti (D) Brahma, Surti, Sahiwal
38. A permanent irreversible increase in size, volume, form or weight of a plant is known as :
(A) Growth (B) Metabolism
(C) Differentiation (D) (1) and (3) Both
39. Testosterone is secreted by :

(A) Leydig’s cells (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Pituitary gland (D) Thyroid gland
40. Phenotype of F1 generation of monohybrid cross is :

(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 100% Tall (D) 100% Dwarf
1 2
41. If x is a real number such that x(x 2 + 1),  x , 6 are three consecutive terms of an A.P. then the
2
next two consecutive term of the A.P. are :
(A) 14, 6 (B) –2, –10 (C) 14, 22 (D) None of these
42 * The polynomial (ax2 + bx + c) (ax2 – dx – c), a c  0 has :

(A) four real zeros (B) at least two real zeros
(C) at most two real zeros (D) no real zeros
 2   3   
x x x/2
43.* 13 then the number of values of x is :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) none of these
44. If aR, bR then the equation x2 – abx – a2 = 0 has :

(A) one positive root and one negative root
(B) both positive root
(C) both roots negative
(D) non real roots
45. The value of cosec 10º – 3 sec 10º is equal to :

1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
2
 5  7
46. If tan , x and tan are in A.P. and  tan , y and tan are also in A.P., then :
9 18 9 18
(A) 2x = y (B) x > y (C) x = y (D) none of these
cot  5
47. Let f() = and  +  = , then the value of f() .f() is :
1  cot  4
1 1
(A) 2 (B)  (C) (D) none of these
2 2
 
48. If tan x and tan are the roots of the equation 8x2 – 26x + 15 = 0 then cos ( + ) is equal to :
2 2
627 627
(A)  (B) (C) – 1 (D) None of these
725 725
49. In the adjoining figure, PT is tangent at point C of the circle O is the

circum center of ABC. If ACP = 118º then measure of x is :
(A) 28° (B) 32°
(C) 42° (D) 38°
50. Two circles of radii 20 cm and 37 cm intersect in A and B. If O 1 and O2 are their centers and AB =
24 cm then the distance O1O2 is equal to :
(A) 44 cm (B) 51 cm (C) 40.5 cm (D) 45 cm
51. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. Find the
perimeter of the shaded region :
  
(A) r  tan   sec    1
 180 
  
(B) r  tan   sec    1
 180 
   
(C) r  tan   sec     1 
  180 
(D) Can’t be determined
52. O is the centre of a circle. A and B are two points on it such that AOB = 90°.
Semicircles on OA and OB are drawn, they intersect at C. Areas P and Q are
shaded as shown in the figure, then :
(A) Area P > area Q
(B) Area P < area Q
(C) Area P = area Q
(D) Area P = 1/2 area Q
53. A sphere of radius 6cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The radius of
the vessel is 8cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then the surface of the water rises by
(A) 4.5 cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 2cm
54. The height of a cone is 30cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane parallel to the base. If
1
its volume be of the volume of the given cone, then the height above the base at which the
27
section has been made, is :
(A) 10cm (B) 15cm (C) 20cm (D) 25cm
55. In the adjoining figure, D is a point on the side BC of such that ADC =
BAC. Then :
(A) CA2 = CD  CB (B) CA  CB = CD  CA
2
(C) CD = CA  CB (D) CB2 = CA  CD
56. In given figure, AB  DC. Find AD2 in terms of x, a and b.

(A) x2 – a2 –b2 (B) a2 – x2 +b2
(C) x2 – a2 +b2 (D) x2 + a2 +b2
1
57.* If 22x – 1 = x 3 , then the value of x is :
8
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 2
58. If equation (m + 1)x2 + 2(m + 3)x + m + 8 = 0 have equal roots then m =

1 1
(A) (B) 3 (C) 2 (D)
3 2
59. If p(x) = ax2 + bx + c has no real zeros and 16a + 4b + c < 0 then :
(A) c = 0 (B) c > 0 (C) c < 0 (D) None of these
60. If 117 + 47 is divided by 15 then the remainder is :

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2
61. Match the data under ‘A’ appropriately with that under ‘B’.
A B
(1) Land degradation (a) The Deccan Trap
(2) Terrace cultivation (b) Over-irrigation
(3) Black soil (c) The Chambal basin
(4) Ravines (d) Uttaranchal
Choose the answer from the options given below:
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – d ; 3 – a ; 4 – c
(B) 1 – d ; 2 – b ; 3 – c ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – a ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – d
(D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d
62. Consider the following statements.

(1) Arid soils are extremely clayey.
(2) Iron content is responsible for the colour of Red and Yellow soils.
(3) Bhangar is coarser and relatively less fertile than Khadar.
Which of the following do you agree with?
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – True
(B) 1 – False ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False
(D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
A B
(1) Expansion of agriculture (a) Chinkara
(2) Mahua and Kadamba (b) Community participation
(3) Joint Forest Management (c) Sacred Groves
(4) Black buck (d) Depletion of flora and fauna
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – d ; 3 – a ; 4 – c (B) 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – a ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – d (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d

(1) In India, Rajastan has the largest area under permanent forests.
(2) Reserve forests are the most valuable from the conservation perspective.
(3) North-eastern states have a high percentage of reserved forests.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False (B) 1 – False ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – True (D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
65. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

(1) Gujarat is the first state in India to make rain water harvesting compulsory.
(2) Rain water harvesting is practised only in low rainfall regions.
(3) The practice of bamboo drip irrigation is found in Meghalaya.
(4) In western Rajastan, the practice of rain water harvesting is on the decline.
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 4 and 1 (D) 1 and 2
66. Which of the following statements is / are incorrect?

(1) Multi-purpose projects are hailed as ‘temples of modern India’.
(2) Multi-purpose projects integrate rural and urban economies.
(3) Multi-purpose projects cannot be blamed for large scale displacement of local communities.
(4) Dams and irrigation have reduced the gap between the rich and the poor famers.
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) All the four (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
A B
(1) Small-grained cereals (a) Pulses
(2) Legumes (b) Millets
(3) Garden cultivation (c) Bio-diesel crop
(4) Jojoba (d) Horticulture
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – d ; 4 – c (B) 1 – d ; 2 – b ; 3 – c ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – a ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – d (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d

(1) Jute is gradually being replaced by synthetic fibers like nylon.
(2) India is the third largest producer of cotton in the world.
(3) Rubber can be grown in tropical as well as sub-tropical areas.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – True (B) 1 – True ; 2 – True ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False (D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
69. Monazite sand is rich in

(A) radium (B) iridium (C) thorium (D) uranium
70. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

(1) Gold and platinum occur in placer deposits.
(2) Copper is found in the Khetri mines in Rajastan.
(3) Aluminium is a heavy metal.
(4) Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of manganese ore in India.
(A) All the four (B) None of the four (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
71. Bhilai Steel Plant is located in

(A) Orissa (B) Chattisgarh (C) Bihar (D) Jharkhand
72. Tourism development in the interior parts of the Himalayas is

(A) rapid.
(B) not encouraged for strategic reasons.
(C) encouraged but the response is lukewarm.
(D) encouraged and the response is good.
A B
(1) Children of God (a) The Muslim League
(2) Conservatives (b) The Hindu Maha Sabha
(3) M R Jayakar (c) Sanatanis
(4) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Harijan
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – d ; 3 – a ; 4 – c (B) 1 – d ; 2 – b ; 3 – c ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – a (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d

(1) Satyagraha seeks to appeal to the conscience of the oppressor.
(2) Gandhi organized his first Satyagraha in India in 1919.
(3) Hindu-Muslim unity was the objective of Gandhi in taking up the Khilafat issue.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ;3 – True (B) 1 – True ; 2 – False ;3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False (D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – False
A B
(1) Mazzini (a) Sardinia – Piedmont
(2) Cavour (b) Red Shirts
(3) Marianne (c) Young Italy
(4) Garibaldi (d) France
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – d ; 3 – a ; 4 – c (B) 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – c ; 2 – a ; 3 – d ; 4 – b (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d

(1) The Oudh Kisan Sabha was headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
(2) Alluri Sita Rama Raju led a militant guerilla movement of tribal peasants in Bengal.
(3) Chauri Chaura incident was the immediate cause for the Civil Disobedience Movement being
called off.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False (B) 1 – False ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – True (D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – False

(1) The Simon Commission had only one Indian member.
(2) The Muslim League cooperated with the Simon Commission.
(3) In 1929, India was given dominion status.
(4) The demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’ was formalized by the Congress at the Lahore Session in
1929.
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 4 and 1 (D) 1 and 2

(1) Napoleon III was the chief architect of the new Paris.
(2) Bombay was the first Indian city to get smoke nuisance legislation.
(3) Singapore became an independent nation in 1948.
(4) The film ‘Raja Harischandra’ was made by Dada Saheb Phalke in 1913.
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) All the four (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4
A B
(1) Cowries (a) Italy
(2) Spaghetti (b) The Maldives
(3) El Dorado (c) Britain
(4) Corn Laws (d) The City of Gold
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d (B) 1 – d ; 2 – b ; 3 – c ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – a ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – d (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – d ; 4 – c
80. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Vernacular Press Act?
(1) It sought to restrict the freedom of the native press in India.
(2) It was passed in 1878.
(3) It encouraged the publication of newspapers.
Choose from the options given below:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 1 (D) All the three
81. The inhabitants of the Balkans were broadly known as

(A) the Aryans (B) the Scandinavians (C) the Slavs (D) the Ottomans
82. Which of the following statements is / are incorrect about Phan Chu Trinh?
(1) He favoured monarchy.
(2) He was hostile to the ideals of the West.
(3) He differed with Phan Boi Chau.
(4) He was the author of ‘The History of the Loss of Vietnam’.
(A) All the four (B) None of the four (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
83. The East India Company’s motive in offering advances to weavers was
(A) to ensure high quality work (B) to control the moneylenders
(C) to improve the weavers’ economic condition (D) to eliminate competitors
84. ‘Pride and Prejudice’ was written by

(A) Henry Fielding (B) Charles Dickens (C) Jane Austen (D) Richardson

(1) Belgium is an example of Majoritarianism.
(2) Tamils in Sri Lanka have been unhappy despite the best efforts of the Sri Lankan government
to share power with them.
(3) Belgium formerly had a unitary government.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ;3 – True (B) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – False ; 2 – True ; 3 – False (D) 1 – False ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
86. Match the data under ‘A’ appropriately with that under ‘B’ with regard to the government of
Lebanon.
A B
(1) President (a) Orthodox Christian
(2) Prime Minister (b) Maronite Catholic Christian
(3) Deputy Prime Minister (c) Shia Muslim
(4) Speaker (d) Sunni Muslim
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – d ; 3 – a ; 4 – c (B) 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – c ; 2 – a ; 3 – d ; 4 – b (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d

(1) Union and State Governments in India have exclusive jurisdictions on their respective
subjects of administration.
(2) Creation of the tier of local government in India is in opposition to the principles of federalism.
(3) The Constitution of India does not specify who the residuary powers rest with.
(A) 1 – False ; 2 – True ;3 – False (B) 1 – False ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
(C) 1 – True ; 2 – False ;3 – False (D) 1 – True ; 2 – False ; 3 – True
88. Which of the following statements is / are correct with respect to India?
(1) Defence is a union subject.
(2) Banking is a state subject.
(3) Marriage is a concurrent subject.
(4) The Union Government is empowered to legislate on state subjects if necessary.
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 4 and 1 (D) 1 and 3

(1) Political expression of social divisions is always dangerous.
(2) All of us have multiple identities.
(3) Democracy encourages diversity.
(4) Overlapping differences are easier to accommodate.
(A) 1 and 4 (B) All the four (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4
A B
(1) Civil Rights Movement (a) The 1990s
(2) The Black Power Movement (b) 2001
(3) UN Conference against Racism (c) 1966 – 75
(4) Disintegration of Yugoslavia (d) 1954 – 68
(A) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – c ; 4 – d (B) 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – a
(C) 1 – a ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – d (D) 1 – b ; 2 – a ; 3 – d ; 4 – c
91. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) Both communalism and secularism are related to religion.
(2) Feminism is a gender-based argument.
(3) Secularism is as harmful as communalism.
Choose from the options given below:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 1 (D) 2 but not 1 and 3
92. The Green Belt Movement was

(A) led by Mugabe in Zimbabwe (B) led by Nasser in Egypt
(C) led by Nkrumah in Ghana (D) led by Wangari Maathai in Kenya
93. Which of the following countries have / has two-party system?

(1) The USA (2) The UK (3) India (4) China
(A) 1 and 2 (B) None of the four (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
94. Between 1950 and 2000, the rate of economic growth was relatively higher in countries under
(A) colonial rule (B) monarchy (C) democracy (D) dictatorship
95. Which of the following symbolizes the fundamental spirit of democracy?

(A) Power sharing (B) Two-party system
(C) Universal Adult Franchise (D) Diversity
96. Read this statement:

“We have not inherited the world from our forefathers; we have borrowed it from children.”
Which aspect of development does the statement throw light on?
(A) The need to accelerate the pace of industrialization
(B) Sustainability
(C) The need to learn lessons from history
(D) The need to focus on the development of children
97. The credit activities of lenders in the informal sector are supervised by
(A) the Reserve Bank of India (B) Commercial Banks
(C) Cooperative Societies (D) None

(1) The unorganized sector offers better job security.
(2) Tertiary sector is independent of primary and secondary sectors.
(3) Tertiary sector has the largest share in GDP in developed economies.
(4) TISCO is a private sector enterprise.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) None of the four (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
99. Which of the following statements is / are true about MNCs?

(1) They control production in more than one country.
(2) They look for cheap labour.
(3) They sell their products globally.
(4) They sometimes collaborate with local companies.
(A) None of these (B) All the four (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
100. COPRA
(A) is an Act for regulating formal credit. (B) was enacted in 2005.
(C) is an Act for Consumer Protection. (D) is an agency of the UN.
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 04)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(MAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C
9. D 10. D 11. D 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. A 16. C
17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. D 22. C 23. A 24. B
25. D 26. D 27. C 28. A
29. C 30. D 31. B 32. B
33. B 34. B 35. D 36. D
37. A 38. B 39. A 40. A
41. C 42. C 43. A 44. A
45. A 46. A 47. C 48. A
49. D 50. B 51. B 52. C
53. A 54. C 55. B 56. B
57. D 58. A 59. D 60. C
61. C 62. B 63. A 64. B
65. B 66. B 67. D 68. B
69. B 70. D 71. C 72. D
73. A 74. C 75. A 76. A
77. C 78. D 79. B 80. C
81. B 82. A 83. D 84. B
85. D 86. B 87. C 88. D
89. A 90. C 91. D 92. A
93. D 94. D 95. C 96. B
97. A 98. D 99. C 100. C
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 04)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(SAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D
9. D 10. A 11. D 12. A
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. D
17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. C 26. B 27. C 28. C
29. B 30. D 31. B 32. C
33. B 34. B 35. D 36. C
37. B 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. C 44. A
45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A
49. A 50. B 51. B 52. C
53. A 54. C 55. A 56. C
57. B 58. A 59. C 60. A
61. A 62. A 63. B 64. A
65. B 66. C 67. A 68. B
69. C 70. D 71. B 72. B
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. D
77. B 78. C 79. D 80. A
81. C 82. C 83. D 84. C
85. D 86. A 87. C 88. D
89. A 90. B 91. D 92. D
93. A 94. D 95. A 96. B
97. D 98. A 99. B 100. C

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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.

-04)-MAT & SAT-2

1. Flying : Bird : : Creeping : ?

2. Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ?

3. Man : Walk :: Fish : ?

4. Import : Export : : Expenditure : ?

5. Ocean : Water : : Glacier : ?

6. PRLN : XZTV : : JLFH : ?

7. DRIVEN : EIDRVN : : BEGUM : ?

Space for rough work

9. ACFJ : OUZJ :: SUXB : ?

11. (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Venus (D) Sun

12. (A) JUDGE (B) SCANT (C) CROWD (D) FLUSH

13. (A) Rose (B) Lotus (C) Marigold (D) Lily

14. (A) USTO (B) OOT (C) TTOU (D) SST

15. (A) PUT (B) END (C) OWL (D) ARM

16. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as :

19. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

40. In the given figure, P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400

Space for rough work

49. Who among the following is the eldest ?

50. Who among the following is the youngest ?

Directions (51-62): Find out the missing term in following series :

51. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 89, ?

52. 5, 16, 51, 158, ……

53. 8, 13, 10, 15, 12, 17, 14 ….

55. 3, 15, 4, 16, 5, 17, 6, ?, 7

Space for rough work

56. 240, …120, 40, 10, 2

58. 6.25, 9, 12.25, 16, 20.25, 25, 30.25, ?

59. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P

60. F3X, H7U, J15R, L31O, ?

61. 3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ?

62. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?

64. ba _ b _ aab _ a_b

Space for rough work

Directions (66-70): Find the odd one term in following series :

66. 3, 5, 8, 11, 17, 23

67. 905, 180, 175, 35, 30, 6, 1

68. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L

69. 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42

70. 12, 18, 27, 90, 270, 945, 3780

71. How many cubes have no face coloured ?

73. How many cubes have two red opposite faces ?

74. How many cubes have three faces coloured ?

Space for rough work

77. Which number lies opposite 6 ?

(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 4 (D) 6

Space for rough work

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 21

(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20

(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 125 (D) 216

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 20 (D) 21

Problem Figures Answer Figures

Space for rough work