MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION IN

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

SET – D – 100 Items

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.1 only.

1. It is from which it may be clearly drawn certain facts pleaded by either party are certain, undisputed and
indubitable which dispense with the hearing or trial of the case.
A. Summon
B. Operation Report
C. Affidavit
D. Mandamus

2. It is a report that may be rendered after any successful police operation that leads to the arrest of any
member or some members of syndicated crime group.
A. Post Investigation
B. After Operation Report
C. Pre-operation Report
D. After SOCO Report

3. It is a report rendered by the team leader of the SOCO that conducted the scene of the crime
operations, processing or investigation.
A. SOCO Report
B. After SOCO Report
C. Agent Report
D. Certiorari

4. It is a report rendered by a documented agent who answers an intelligence requirement.

A. Agent Report
B. Affidavit
C. Post Action Report
D. Final Sketch

5. A proposal remains an offer even if not answered and irrespective of the length of time that has
passed. It only becomes an agreement when accepted by the other party.
A. Agreement-Proposal
B. Tactical Interrogation Report
C. Affidavit
D. Memorandum of Agreement

6. A book containing charges and showing a continuous dealing with persons generally. To be admissible
in evidence, it must be kept and the charges made in the usual course of business.
A. Book of Accounts
B. Police Blotter
C. Case Book
D. None of these

7. Who is called as the person responsible for and in charge of the investigation of the case?
A. Case at Work
B. Case Officer
C. Team Leader
D. The Prober

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8. What is the official police record or log where all types of operational and under cover dispatches shall
be recorded containing the 5 "W" and 1 "H of an information?
A. Spot Report
B. Blog
C. Police Blotter
D. Investigation Report

9. This refers to an immediate initial investigative or incident report addressed to higher headquarters
pertaining to the commission of the crime, occurrence of natural or man-made disaster or unusual
incidents involving loss of lives and damage of properties.
A. Blog
B. Police Blotter
C. Spot Report
D. All of these

10. It is an intelligence report rendered regarding any illegal activity or violation of laws being observed by
intelligence operatives within a given area of responsibility. This is the usual basis of case operations
hence, information received should be cared, validated, countered checked, analyzed and evaluated.
A. Intelligence
B. Post Investigation Report
C. Case Analysis
D. Summary of Information

11. Generally, these are very serious crimes that happen frequently or regularly that they can serve as
directory of the crime situation.
A. Index crimes
B. Non-Index crimes
C. Violent crimes
D. Property crimes

12. ___ means the number of crimes solved after the arrest of the suspects and filing of charges against
them.
A. Crime Solution Efficiency
B. Crime Rate
C. Crime Trend
D. Clearance Efficiency

13. ___ means the number of crimes considered solved because the suspects have been identified and
charged but they remain at large.
A. Crime Solution Efficiency
B. None of these
C. Crime Incidence
D. Crime Clearance Efficiency

14. What is called the number of crimes reported as index or non-index crimes within a given period?
A. Crime Volume
B. Crime Incidence
C. Crime Rate
D. Crime Trend

15. It is the basic indicator of the frequency of known criminal activity. It represents the number of reported
offenses.
A. Crime Volume
B. Crime Trend
C. Crime Rate
D. All of these

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16. Which of the following represents the percentage change in crime based on data reported in a prior
equivalent period?
A. Crime Rate
B. Crime Volume
C. Crime Trend
D. Crime Incidence

17. The measure that gives an index of crime occurring in a particular jurisdiction for a specific time period
is called –
A. Crime Rate
B. Crime Incidence
C. Crime Volume
D. Crime Trend

18. Which of the following was created for under the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002?
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. National Drug Enforcement Unit
C. Narcotics Command
D. None of the above

19. Under Republic Act No. 9165, are there how many members of the Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)?
A. 12
B. 17
C. 10
D. 14

20. Which among the following statements is correct?

A. The PDEA Director General is appointed by the President
B. RA 9165 was enacted on 2006
C. There are two permanent consultants of the DDB
D. A and C

21. With the advent of R.A 9165, the DDB is considered the policy making body on dangerous drugs, ___
is the implementing arm.
A. NBI
B. PDEA
C. PNP
D. DND

22. The NBI Director is a consultant to the DDB as per RA 9165. This statement is _.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially True
D. Partially False

23. The President designates the Chairman of the DDB from among the 3 permanent members who shall
serve for a term of _.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 5 years

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24. The Chairman of the DDB, under the provision of RA 9165 shall have a rank of __.
A. Secretary
B. Under Secretary
C. Bureau Chief
D. Division Head

25. Which drugs are called “distorters”?

A. Depressant
B. Hallucinogen
C. Stimulants
D. Solvents

26. Which among the following is not among the solvents/inhalants?

A. Rugby
B. Gasoline
C. Mescaline
D. Thinner

27. The popular “Golden Triangle” of narcotics is located in –

A. Southwest Asia
B. Southeast Asia
C. Northwest Asia
D. Northeast Asia

28. ___ are those whose activities revolve almost entirely around drug use and securing supplies. They
show strong psychological dependence on the drug.
A. Hippies
B. Hardcore drug addicts
C. Hardcore sex deviates
D. Hardcore rockers

29. All but one is among the seven deadly sins which causes drug abuse and alcoholism.
A. Pride
B. Ego
C. Greed
D. Lust

30. Gluttony is "food trip" in the lingo of junkies, __ is the “I can’t do syndrome”.
A. Greed
B. Laziness
C. Envy
D. None of these

31. What is the commonly physical indicator of marijuana use?

A. Dilated pupils
B. Bloodshot eyes
C. Presence of “tracks”
D. Poor judgment

32. In order to set off fire, remove one or all of its elements as follows, except –
A. Combustible materials
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. Temperature

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33. This occurs when solid fuels are not capable of producing sufficient quantities of gas during pyrolysis to
sustain a flame. If access to the oxidant (air) is limited, this may result.
A. Glowing combustion
B. Flaming combustion
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Explosive combustion

34. ____ is the process of determining the origin, cause and responsibility as well as the failure analysis of
fire or explosion.
A. Fire Analysis
B. Fire Cause
C. Fire Spread
D. None of the above

35. The circumstances or agencies that bring a fuel and an ignition source together with proper air or
oxygen is called –
A. Fire retardant
B. Fire cause
C. Fire spread
D. Fire hazard

36. It is the movement of fire from one place to another. It is also known as similar to “trailers”.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire cause
C. Fire spread
D. Fire retardant

37. Which of the following describe the word Rekindle?

A. return to flaming combustion after incomplete extinguishment
B. fire reigning at some time after being put out
C. re-ignition of combustible materials
D. All of these

38. One of the following is defined as any act that would remove or neutralize fire hazard.
A. Blasting
B. Retailing
C. Abatement
D. Abrogation

39. An open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of
smoke or fire.
A. Ducker
B. Damper
C. Dusting
D. Ember

40. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system.
A. Dumper
B. Jumper
C. Connector
D. Circuit

41. What happens when series of electrical appliances or devices are used beyond current capacity?
A. There is an abatement
B. There is overloading
C. There is short circuiting
D. There is intent to burn

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42. ___is an enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to
the top of the building.
A. Sprinkler system
B. Vertical shaft
C. Emergency hallway
D. Fire in the hole

43. What is the Revised Fire Code of the Philippines?

A. R.A 9514
B. P.D 1185
C. R.A 9262
D. R.A 1101

44. What is known as the BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004?
A. R.A 9514
B. P.D 1185
C. R.A 9263
D. R.A 1101

45. Under the law, the head of the Fire Bureau should have the rank of –
A. Director General
B. Deputy Director General
C. Director
D. Chief Superintendent

46. Chief of City/Municipal Fire Station should have a rank of –

A. Senior Inspector
B. Inspector
C. Chief Inspector
D. Superintendent

47. ___ means expectation, remembrance or in contemplation of law.

A. Abatement
B. Abeyance
C. Acceptance
D. Determined

48. When a person has been charged for a complaint, he is considered –

A. an accused
B. a criminal
C. a suspect
D. guilty

49. To Acquit is to verdict not guilty; __ is to verdict guilty.

A. Adjourn
B. Adjudge
C. Convict
D. Prosecute

50. What defense is used when there is a plea stating that at the time of the crime the accused was
elsewhere?
A. Defense of Stranger
B. Defense of Alibi
C. Defense of Insanity
D. Defense Attorney

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51. What injury refers to pattern injuries made by a human or animal?
A. Blunt
B. Bite
C. Abrasion
D. Laceration

52. A bailiff is someone who ___.

A. escort large amount of money
B. supervise offenders and maintain order during legal proceedings
C. protect privacy
D. collect bail

53. Which of the following appropriately define Embezzle?

A. To defend one’s own property
B. To encourage rebellion
C. To misappropriate funds
D. To make political connection

54. ___ is any species of proof that may legally be admitted to court in settlement of an issue.
A. Evidence
B. Signal
C. Determination
D. Data

55. It is a sexual perversion involving an inanimate object, or a specific body part, as the sole stimulator for
sexual gratification.
A. Fetishism
B. Frottage
C. Fellatio
D. Sodomy

56. The Latin word “animo furandi” means –

A. with intent to steal
B. with intent to kill
C. with intent to frame up
D. with intent to kidnap

57. What defines genealogy?

A. family history
B. offspring
C. period of pregnancy
D. genetic influence

58. What phase of criminal investigation follows up initial leads developed during the preliminary
investigation and opens up new areas of inquiry?
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive Reasoning
C. In-depth Investigation
D. Final Investigation

59. __ is a writ or order from a court, prohibiting a person, or a group from carrying out a given action, or
ordering a given action.
A. Certiorari
B. Mandamus
C. Injunction
D. Bench Order

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60. What is the temporary order, made until another order takes its place or a specific event occurs?
A. Gag Order
B. Interim Order
C. Bench Order
D. All of these

61. __ is the powers given to governmental agencies and other entities to investigate violations of laws and
to gather information regarding laws that are proposed to be enacted.
A. Police power
B. Investigatory Power
C. Legislative power
D. Judicial Power

62. What kind of a confession that is made by a party, such a confession being admissible in evidence
against the party?
A. Juridical confession
B. None of these
C. Judicial confession
D. Admission

63. What is a Jurat?

A. certificate stating the time and place of an affidavit and the person before whom it was sworn
B. an open admission
C. premises of a jail or prison
D. title part of an affidavit

64. LASCIVIOUS means -

A. lustful
B. abandoned
C. sexy
D. coca cola shape

65. What do we call an assembly of persons including the suspect, viewed for identification purposes by a
crime victim or witness?
A. Illegal assembly
B. Police mug filing
C. Line up
D. Criminal formation

66. LOAN SHARKING means –

A. 5-6 system of loaning
B. Bank fraud
C. lending of money at exorbitant interest rates
D. None of these

67. It is a lawsuit or the process of bringing a suit against another person in accordance with the
procedures of law.
A. Charge
B. Litigation
C. Legal matter
D. Legalistic

68. Mala in se means –

A. Prohibited by law
B. Malpractice
C. Forbidden
D. Evil in themselves

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69. What is the act of exclusively controlling of a particular business or trade, manufacture of particular
article, sale of the whole supply?
A. Cosa Nostra
B. Monopoly
C. Good control
D. Supply control

70. Which is nearest to the meaning of Notorious?

A. Hired killer
B. Hardened criminal in prison
C. Highly recognized or blatant
D. High regard to authority

71. Null means –

A. Void
B. Unknown
C. Vehement
D. Under oath

72. Persona non grata means –

A. personal matter
B. unacceptable person
C. threatened
D. person in authority

73. Provoke means –

A. to arouse
B. to urge
C. to stimulate
D. all of these

74. To annul, overthrow, or vacate by judicial decision is to ___.

A. Return
B. Quickly react
C. Quash
D. Litigate

75. The number of members of a body that must necessarily be present in order for the body to transact
business; required to render legitimate to any actions voted on or taken by any limited membership
body is called –
A. Mastery
B. Majeure
C. Quorum
D. Quasi

76. What are called mug shots gathered in police files and displayed in groups?
A. Photo Album
B. Rouges Gallery
C. Police Line Shots
D. Any of the above

77. It is moving surveillance where it does not matter if the surveillant will be detected by the subject.
A. Multiple shadow
B. Rough Tailing
C. Stakeout
D. No shadow

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78. To recall or revoke; annulment of a law by a subsequent statute.
A. Remunerate
B. Repeal
C. Activate
D. Manipulate

79. It is an order by the court compelling a person to appear in court as witness.

A. Ante Order
B. Gag Order
C. Subpoena
D. Judicial Notice

80. The disguise or secret observation of places, persons, things and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities and or the activities of suspected criminals is known as –
A. Clandestine
B. Operation Alpha
C. Camouflaging
D. Surveillance

81. What is another term for sexual intercourse from among the following?
A. copulation
B. sodomizing
C. coitus
D. vomitus

82. This is a kind of moving surveillance where the subject is kept constantly in view; also called as close
tail.
A. 1-man shadow
B. Tight Tailing
C. Rough Tailing
D. Discreet

83. These are extremely small physical matters that can be used to tract suspected persons.
A. Micro device
B. Trace evidence
C. Latent prints
D. Lead

84. It is a crime scene where no evidence has been introduced or removed, except by the person/s
committing the crime. It is also called uncontaminated scene.
A. True Scene
B. Corpus Delicti
C. Wide Scene
D. Actual Area

85. These are the essential and determining facts on which the final conclusion of law is predicted.
A. Crime Scene
B. Ultimate facts
C. Factum Probans
D. Testimonial Evidence

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86. What are called the invisible energy of the electromagnetic spectrum that causes substances emit
visible light?
A. Color Wheel
B. Ultra-energy
C. Ultra violet
D. Fluorescence lamp

87. In investigation, using an assumed or fictional identity to obtain information or evidence is called –
A. Clandestine element
B. Undercover
C. Manipulation
D. Engagement

88. The term VERACITY means –

A. Verdict
B. Truthfulness
C. Overt Action
D. Original

89. It is a generic term use to refer to activities such as gambling, prostitution, and pornography which are
illegal because they offend the moral standards of the community.
A. Immorality
B. Hate Crimes
C. Public Order
D. Vice Crimes

90. The intentional and voluntary giving up, relinquishment, or surrender of some known right is called –
A. Waiver
B. Deliberate
C. Loss
D. Premeditation

91. What do we call a woman who survives her husband?

A. Widow
B. Paramour
C. Widower
D. None of these

92. What is the law known as “Clean Air Act”?

A. R.A 8794
B. R.A 8749
C. R.A 8750
D. R.A 8705

93. What is the Seatbelt law in the Philippines?

A. R.A 8794
B. R.A 8750
C. R.A 8749
D. R.A 8705

94. The conditions for driver’s license holder while operating a motor vehicle are as follows, except –
A. A - wear eyeglasses
B. B - drive with special equipment for upper limbs
C. D - daylight driving only
D. F – female driver

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 95. The color of vehicle plate intended for foreign diplomat, consuls, and other dignitaries is –
A. Green with white background
B. Blue with white background
C. Red with white background
D. Black with yellow background

96. These signs are also known as “caution signs.” These signs have an equilateral triangular shape with
one side horizontal and having red borders.
A. Regulatory signs
B. Warning signs
C. Informative signs
D. Traffic Enforcement mechanisms

97. A steady green traffic light means –

A. Yield
B. Go
C. Stop
D. No Parking

98. A single dotted line is a pavement marking which indicate the following, except –

A. On two lane road

B. Over taking is possible
C. On a one-way street
D. No over taking

99. What kind of document is issued to a person who desires to learn how to drive?
A. Mission order
B. Student’s driver permit
C. Duty Detail Order
D. None of these

100. The maximum allowable speed in a crowded street, approaching intersections or blind corners, and
passing school zones is –
A. 20 kph
B. 30 kph
C. 25 kph
D. 40 kph

-End of Mock Board Exam-

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