XII Chemistry - Frequently Asked Question Bank PDF
XII Chemistry - Frequently Asked Question Bank PDF
XII Chemistry - Frequently Asked Question Bank PDF
2. When CH3–CH = CH – CHO is reduced with (1) H2/Ni and (2) NaBH4, the products formed are in the
order
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH; CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH; CH3CH = CH – CH2OH
(c) CH3CH = CH – CH2OH; CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CH = CH – CH2OH; CH3CH = CH – CH2OH
H O/ H
3. The missing reagent ‘X’ in the reaction CH3MgI + ‘X’ 2
CH3CHOHCH3
4. The compound which reacts with CH3MgI Producing a primary alcohol having more then 2 carbon
atoms is
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH2O (c) (d) CH3CO CH3
7. The order of reactivity of the alkenes (CH3)2 C = CH2; CH3CH = CH2 ; CH2 = CH2
I II III
When subjected to acid catalysed hydration is
(a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II (c) III > II > I (d) II > I > III
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
9. Which of the esters shown, after reduction with LiAIH4 and aqueous work up, will yield two
molecules of a single alcohol?
(a) C6H5COO C6H5 (b)CH3CH2COO CH2CH3 (c) C6H5COO CH2 C6H5 (d) CH3COO CH3
10.
ANSWER KEYS
1.b 2.b 3.b 4.c 5.d 6.a 7.a 8.a 9.c 10.a
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
Properties of alcohols
1. The most preferred reagent for the conversion of alcohol to alkyl chloride is
(a) PCl3 (b) PCl5 (c) SOCl2 (d) HCl/ZnCl2
2.
3.
4. The compound which can produce a white turbidity immediately on adding lucas reagent is
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
H3PO4
9. The product of the following reaction is Product
ANSWER KEYS
1.c 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.c 6.a 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.c
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
Phenols Preparation & Properties
1. Isopropyl benzene is oxidized in the presence of air to compound ‘A’. When A is treacted with
dilute mineral acid, the aromatic product formed is
(a) Phenol (b) benzene (c) benzadehyde (d) acetophonone
6. The reaction of
7. Phenol, when it reacts with concentrated H2SO4 and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
(a) nitro benzene (b)2,4,6 – tri nitrobenzene
(c) O – nitro phenol (d) P– nitro Phenol
8. The mayor product formed on interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and CO2 is
(a) salicylaldehyde (b) salicylic acid (c) phthalic acid (d) benzoic acid
9.
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
10. Which of the following reaction’s will not yield phenol?
ANSWER KEYS
1.a 2.d 3.d 4.c 5.b 6.b 7.c 8.b 9.b 10.d
©Byju’s 9
XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
Test of Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers preparation & properties
1. Which of the following isomeric alcohols will produce turbidity first with lucas reagent.
(a) aliphatic primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) aromatic primary
3. Ortho nitro phenol is less soluble in water than P– and m – nitro phenol because
(a) O-nitro phenol shows intra molecular H –bonding
(b) O-nitro phenol shows inter molecular H-bonding
(c) m.p of O–nitro phenol is lower than those of m and p-nitro phenol
(d) O-nitro phenol is more volatile in steam than those of m-and P-isomers
4. The aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which are easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test
(violet coloration) are
(a) O-cresol and benzyl alcohol (b) m-cresol and P-cresol
(c) benzyl alcohol and P-cresol (d) methyl phenyl ether & benzyl alcohol
5. The reaction
In an example of
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) wittig reaction (c) Ullmann reaction (d) Williamson synthesis
HI
7. C2H5OC2H5 + 4[H] RedP 2X + H2O; X is
(a) ethane (b) ethylene (c) butane (d) propane
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
9. Anisole
10. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with I2 & alkali?
(a) aceto phenone (b) methyl acetate (c) 2-hydroxypropane (d) both a & c
ANSWER KEYS
1.c 2.d 3.a 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.d 9.a 10.d
©Byju’s 11
XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
Preparation of alcohols
1. When CH3–CH = CH – CHO is reduced with (1) H2/Ni and (2) NaBH4, the products formed are in the
order
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH; CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH; CH3CH = CH – CH2OH
(c) CH3CH = CH – CH2OH; CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CH = CH – CH2OH; CH3CH = CH – CH2OH
3. The order of reactivity of the alkenes (CH3)2 C = CH2; CH3CH = CH2 ; CH2 = CH2
I II III
When subjected to acid catalysed hydration is
(a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II (c) III > II > I (d) II > I > III
4.
5. The product formed when ethyl acetate is treated with excess CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis is
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
(a) n-butyl alcohol (b) isobutyl alcohol (c) s – butyl alcohol (d) but – 1 – en -3 –ol
8.
9.
NBS/CCl
10. C6H5CH3 A
4 B C The structure of (C) is
ANSWER KEYS
1.b 2.d 3.a 4.a 5.b 6.c 7.c 8.a 9.c 10.a
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
PROPERTIES OF ALCOHOLS
(a) II > III > IV > I (b) II > III > I > IV (c) I > IV > III > II (d) IV > I > III > II
2. Which is the best method for the conversion of (A) pentan – 3 – ol to 3 – bromo pentane (B)?
HI
MeI + (B) Alcohol
↓NaOH + I2
Yellow precipitate
The compound A is
concH SO Br /CCl
4. CH3 – CH2 – CH– CH3 2 4 A 2 4 C H Br If five isomers of final product
4 8 2
|
OH
C4H4Br2 are obtained, the number of isomers of (A) formed in the reaction is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
7.
8. The compound which can produce a white turbidity immediately on adding lucas reagent is
H PO
10. The product of the following reaction is 3
4 Product
ANSWER KEY
1.b 2.d 3.c 4.c 5.c 6.d 7.d 8.d 9.a 10.c
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
PHENOL PREPARATION AND PROPERTIES
2.
4.
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
6. Identify the reaction / statement which is not correctly represented.
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
9. The reaction of
ANSWER KEY
1.d 2.b 3.c 4.b 5.b 6.c 3.d 5.b 6.b 10.d
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
TESTS OF ALCOHOLS AND PHENOLS, ETHERS-PREPARATION AND PROPERTIES
CONC.H2 SO4
1. Phenol + phthalic anhydride → (X). The product X is used as
∆
2. Phenol on warming with conc.H2SO4 and NaNO2 gives brown colour. On adding NaOH solution,
the colour changes from green to blue. This test is called
(a) victor Meyers test (b) Liebermann’s test (c) Lucas test (d) Baeyer’s test
3. When phenol reacts with dilute neutral FeCl3 solution, a violet colouration is produced. The
structure of violet colour species is
(a) [Fe(OC6 H5 )6 ]4− (b) Fe(C6H5)3 (c) [Fe(OC6 H5 )6 ]3− (d) (FeCl3)(C6H5OH)
4. In zeisel’s method for the determination of methoxyl groups, a sample of 2.68 gm of compound
(A) gave 14.08 gm of AgI. If the molecular weight of compound (A) is 134, the number of (–OCH3)
groups in the compound (A) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5. The crown ethers are heterocydic polyethers, usually with atleast 4 oxygen atoms. The 12-crown-
4ether contains ---------- carbon atoms
(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
7. The reaction
In an example of
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) witting reaction (c) Ullmann reaction (d) Williamson synthesis
HI
8. C2H5OC2H5 + 4[H] RedP 2X + H2O; X is
(a) ethane (b) ethylene (c) butane (d) propane
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XI-STD Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
10. Anisole
ANSWER KEY
1.c 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.c 6.b 7.d 8.a 9.d 10.a
©Byju’s 20
Aldehydes, Ketones &
Carboxylic Acids
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES
H3 O+,Hg+2
2. Identify the product of the reaction Ph C ≡ CMe → ?
3. One mole of symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of aldehyde having a molecular
mass of 44u. The alkane is
(a) SnCl2/HCl H2O/Boil (b) H2/Pd, BaSO4 (c) LIAIH4/ether (d) NaBH4/ether, H3O+
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
SOCl2 H2 dil
6. A → B→ C→ Crotan aldehyde. Then A is
Pd/BaSO4 NaOH
7. When propyne is treated with warm dil. H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4, the major product is
8. 𝐶𝑢
→ Product is
573𝑘
anhy.Ald3
9. C6H6 + CO → C6H5CHO. This reaction is called
HCl(g)
10. When a mixture of ethylene and O2 is passed through an aqueous solution of PdCl2 and CuCl2
catalyst under pressure we get
(a) acetaldehyde (b) Ethanol (c) acetic acid (d) ethylene glycol
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d b a, a b a d a a c a
©Byju’s 23
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES
1
.
2. An organic compound with formula C5H10O gives a crystalline precipitate with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl
hydrazine. It doesnot give any precipitate with tollen’s reagent. It doesnot give precipitate o
warming
with I2 and alkali. It is
3. A is identified as
(a) C3H7OH (b) CH3 – OH (c) CH2 = CH – CH2OH (d) CH2 = CH – CHO
4. Which of the following reagents can be used to purify a sample of acetaldehyde containing
ethanol as
impurity?
6. An organic compound A with molecular formula C3H6Cl2 on treating with aqueous NaOH gave B
which gave orange precipitate with Borche’s reagent and did not reduce tollen’s reagent. A and B
are
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
HCN H+ /H2 O conc.H2 SO4
7. A → B→ C→ Acrylic acid. The starting material A is
(a) HCHO < MeCHO < MeCOMe < PhCOPh (b) HCHO > MeCHO > MeCOMe > PhCOPh
(c) MeCOMe < PhCOPh < HCHO < MeCHO (d) MeCOMe < PhCOPh > HCHO > MeCHO
10. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily de-hydrated.
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c a b b c c c b d c
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
CONDENSATION REACTION
(a) Crotanal dehyde (b) isovaleraldehyde (c) acrolein (d) mesityl oxide
3. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with conc. NaOH solution gives
5. The compound that undergoes reaction with 50% NaOH solution to give the corresponding
alcohol and sodium salt of the corresponding acid is
(a) butanal (b) benzaldehyde (c) phenol (d) benzoic acid
8. Acetal dehyde reacts with malonic acid in the presence of sodium ethoxide at high temperature
gives
(a) acetic acid (b) propanoic acid (c) tartaric acid (d) crotonic acid
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d b a c b c d d c c
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES
1. Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid may be distinguished by the reaction with
(a) Na2CO3 reaction (b) Neutral FeCl3 solution
(c) Sodium ethoxide (d) Dilute acidified KMnO4 solution
4. Which of the following compounds does not give benzoic acid as the product on oxidation with
alkaline KMnO4
(a) methyl benzene (b) ethyl benzene (c) n-propyl benzene (d) tertiary butyl benzene
7. Which of the following is the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl carbon.
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3 (c) CH3COCl (d) CH3CONH2
8. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid “A” and alcohol “B” A reduces febling’s solution and oxidation of
B gives A. The ester is
(a) methyl formate (b) ethyl formate (c) methyl acetate (d) ethyl acetate
9. Which of the following compounds would have the smallest value for pka?
(a) CHF2CH2CH2COOH (b) CH3CF2CH2COOH
(c) CH2FCHFCH2COOH (d) CH3CH2CF2COOH
10. RCOOH is successively treated with PCl5 and kCN. It is then subjected to hydrolysis followed by
clemmanson’s reduction. The final product obtained is
(a) RCH2COCl (b) RCH2COOH (c) RCOCN (d) RCN
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d b b d c a c a d b
©Byju’s 28
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES EXCEPT CONDENSATION
1. The reagent A is
R
2. C6H5CH2CN → C6H5CH2 – CHO. The reagent R used for the above conversion is
(a) NaBH4 (b) H2/Pd-BaSO4 (c) Na/liq.NH3 (d) SnCl2/HCl
3. An organic compound(X) when heated with concentrated NaOH solution followed by acidification
gave the following lactone as the only organic product The compound X is
4.
The compound B is the above reaction
is
5. An acid on treating with calcium hydroxide followed by dry distillation gives 2, 4-dimethyl-3-
pentanone. The acid is
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
8. A is
9. One mole of symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis give two moles of aldehyde having a molecular
formula of 44u. The alkane is
(a) 2-butane (b) ethane (c) propene (d) 1-butane
10. When a mixture of ethylene and O2 is passed through an aqueous solution of PdCl2 and CuCl2
catalyst under pressure we get
(a) acetaldehyde (b) Ethanol (c) acetic acid (d) ethylene glycol
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c d a a c a a b a a
©Byju’s 30
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES EXCEPT CONDENSATION
2. Compound A (molecular formula C3H8O) is treated with acidified K2Cr2O7 to form product
B(molecular formula C3H6O). B forms a shining mirror on warming with ammonical AgNO3. B when
treated with aqueous solution of H2NCONHNH2.HCl and sodium acetate gives a product ‘C’ Identify
the structure of ‘C’
(a) CH3CH2CH = N.NHCONH2 (b)
(a) Lucas reagent (b) 2, 4-DNP (c) Feblings solution (d) NaHSO3
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
4. In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
5. After completion of reactions (I and II), the organic compound(s) in the reaction mixture is (are)
8. Consider the reaction RCHO + NH2 – NH2 ⟶ RCH = N – NH2 What sort of reaction is it?
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
HCN H+ /H2 O conc.H2 SO4
9. A → B→ C→ Acrylic acid. The starting material A is
(a) Acrolein (b) Acetone (c) Acelaldehyde (d) Allylalcohol
10. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily de-hydrated.
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b a c c c c a d c c
©Byju’s 34
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
CONDENSATION REACTION
1. The cross aldol product formed when proponal acts as the electrophile and butanal as nucleophile
is
(a) 3-hydroxy-2-methyl pentanal (b) 3-hydroxy-2-methyl hoxanal
(c) 2-ethyl-3-hydroxy pentanal (d) 2-ethyl-3-hydroxy hexanal
3. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn dust and water gives compound E.
compound E on further treatment with aqueous KOH yield compound F. Compound F is
4. Acetophenone when reacted with a base C2H5ONa yields a stable compound which has the
structure
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
5. Predict the product in the given reaction
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
6.
7. Which of the following reactants on reaction with concentrated NaOH followed by acidijication
gives the following lactone as the product?
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
8. In cannizaro reaction, the intermediates that will be best hydride donor is
10. Acetal dehyde reacts with malonic acid in the presence of sodium ethoxide at high temperature
gives
(a) acetic acid (b) propanoic acid (c) tartaric acid (d) crotonic acid
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c a c c b c d c d
©Byju’s 38
XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS AND THEIR DERIVATIVES
1. Which of the following is obtained when 4 chloro benzene sulphonic acid is treated with excess
sodium acetate?
2. When acetic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, CO2 gas is evolved. The “Carbon” of
CO2 comes from
(a) carboxyl group (b) methyl group
(c) bicarbonate (d) both carbonyl group and bicarbonate
3. A carboxylic acid gives a ketone on heating through formation of a cyclic transition state. The
ketone formed gives yellow precipitate with I2 and NaOH and does not give addition product with
NaHSO3. The acid is
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
5. C2H5CH = CHCHO ⟶ C2H5CH = CHCOOH. The best oxidizing agent that can be used for the above
conversion is
(a) acidified KMnO4 solution (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) SeO2 in ACOH (d) all the above
6. Even though a carboxylic acid contains diagram group, it does not form oxime with hydroxyl
amine because
(a) NH2OH is less reactive to carboxylic acids
(b) in this case NH2OH acts as reducing agent and oxidized to HNO2
(c) the >C = 0 group enters into resonance with lone pair of –OH group
(d) the –OH group of carboxylic acid reacts with NH2OH
(a) A < D < B < C (b) A < C < B < D (c) C < D < A < B (d) B < A < D < C
LiAlH4
8. CH3COOH → A
H 3 O+
A + CH3COOH → B + H2O ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are
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XI-STD Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
10. Compound (A) C8H9Br, gives light yellow precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3.
Oxidation of A gives an acid B. C8H6O4(B) easily forms anhydride on heating Identify the
compound A.
ANSWER KEYS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b c c c b c d d d a
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Biomolecules Vitamins,
Nucleic Acids & Proteins
XI-STD Biomolecules Vitamins, Nucleic Acids & Proteins (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Which of the following is a ketohexose?
(a) Fructose (b) Glucose (c) Ribose (d) Starch
8. The most common reagent for qualitative and quantitative analysis of amino acids is
(a) Ninhydrin reagent (b) Million’s reagent
(c) Sangar’s reagent (d) Edmann’s reagent
10. Which of the following amino acids does not correspond to the general formula given below
R-CH(𝑁𝐻2 )-COOH
(a) Cysteine (b) Proline (c) Argenine (d) Isoleucine
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a d c c b a b a c b
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XI-STD Biomolecules Vitamins, Nucleic Acids and Proteins (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. Which one of the following is synthesized is our body by sun rays ?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin A
6. GC / AT ratio in E. coli is
(a) Parallel (b) Anti parallel (c) Perpendicular (d) Any direction
10. The relationship between the nucleotide triplets and the amino acids is called
(a) Translation (b) Transcription (c) Replication (d) A genetic code
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a d d b d b d c a d
©Byju’s 44
Chemical Kinetics
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. For the reaction A B + 2C
(a) Rate of formation of B = Rate of formation of C
(b) Rate of formation of C = Double the rate of disappearance of A
(c) Rate of formation of C = Half the rate of disappearance of A
(d) Rate of formation of C = Rate of disappearance of A
2. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) under certain conditions of temperature and partial
pressure of the reactants, the rate of formation of NH3 is 0.001 kg h-1. The rate of conversion of
H2 under same conditions is:
(a) 0.0015 kg h-1 (b) 1.76 x 10-4 kg h-1 (c) 0.002 kg h-1 (d) 0.003 kg h-1
3. For the reaction, A + B C + D. The variation of the concentration of the products with time is
given by the curve:
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) W
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XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
7. The rate constant for the reaction:
2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 is 3.0 x 10-5 sec-1. If the rate is 2.40 x 10-5 M sec-1, then the concentration
of N2O5 (in M) is:
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.8
9. In a reaction of nth order, the half life period is related to initial concentration C0 by
1 1 0.693
(a) t1/2 (b) t1/2 (c) t1/2 C 0n 1 (d)
C on C 0n 1 C on
10. The value of activation energy can be evaluated from the plot of
(a) k vs T (b) 1/k vs T (c) log k vs 1/T (d)logkvs
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a b b a b d d a d b
©Byju’s 47
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. For an endothermic reaction, where H represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mol the
minimum value of the activation energy would be
(a) Less than H (b) zero
(c) greater than H (d) equal to H
2. If the initial concentration is doubled, the time for half of the reaction is also doubled. The order
of reaction is
(a) Zero (b) first (c) second (d) third
4. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is 2 x 10-2 mol L-1 sec-1. If the concentration of the
reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial concentration must have been:
(a) 0.5 M (b) 1.25 M (c) 12.5 M (d) 1.0 M
5. Two first order reactions have half lives in the ratio 3 : 2. Calculate the ratio of time intervals t 1 :
t2. The time t1 and t2 are the time period for 25% and 75% completion for the first and second
reaction respectively.
(a) 0.311 : 1 (b) 0.420 : 1 (c) 0.273 : 1 (d) 0.119 : 1
7. Two reactions, A products and B products have rate constant KA and KB at temperature T
and activation energies EA and EB respectively. If KA > KB and EA < EB and assuming that A for
both the reactions is same then:
(a) At higher temperatures KA will be greater than KB
(b) At lower temperature KA and KB will differ more and KA > KB
(c) As temperature rises KA and KB will be close to each other in magnitude
(d) All of these
©Byju’s 48
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
8. A reaction, A2 + B2 2AB occurs by the following mechanism:
A2 A + A ....... (slow)
A + B2 AB + B ....... (fast)
A + B AB ........ (fast)
Its order would be:
(a) 3/2 (b) 1 (c) zero (d) 2
9. When ethyl acetate was hydrolysed in presence of 0.1 N HCl, the rate constant was found to be
5.40 x 10-5 sec-1. But when 0.1 N H2SO4 was used for hydrolysis, the rate constant was found to
be 6.25 x 10-5 sec-1. Thus it may be concluded that:
(a) H2SO4 is stronger than HCl
(b) H2SO4 is weaker than HCl
(c) H2SO4 and HCl both have the same strength
(d) The data are not sufficient to compare the strength of H2SO4 and HCl
10. The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 kcal/mol. The increase in the rate constant when its
temperature is increased from 298 K to 308 K is:
(a) 10% (b) 100% (c) 50% (d) 63%
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a a d d a d d b a d
©Byju’s 49
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
1. A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two parallel first
order reaction as:
2. With respect to the figure given below which of the following statement is correct:
(a) Ea for the forward reaction is C – B
(b)Ea for the forward reaction is B – A
(c) Ea (forward) > Ea (backward)
(d) Ea (for reverse reaction) = C – A
d[ N 2 ] d[H 2 O]
k1[ NO][H 2 ]; k[ NO][H 2 ]
dt dt
d[ NO] d[H 2 ]
k '1 [ NO][H 2 ]; k ' '1 [ NO][H 2 ]
dt dt
The relationship between k, k1, k’1 and k’’1 is:
(a) k = k1 = k’1 = k’’1 (b) k = 2k1 = k’1 = k’’1
(c) k = 2k’1 = k1 = k’’1 (d) k = k1 = k’1 = 2k’’1
4. A graph plotted between log t50% vs. log concentration is a straight line. What conclusion can
you draw from this graph:
1 1
(a) n = 1 : t1/2 = (b) n = 2: t1/2 =
xxa a
0.693
(c) n = 1 : t1/2 = (d) None of these
k
5. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M
minute. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.0125 M is:
(a) 60 minute (b) 45 minute (c) 7.5 minute (d) 30 minute
(e) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
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XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
6. A reaction involving two different reactants can never be:
(a) Unimolecular reaction (b) I order reaction
(c) II order reaction (d) Bi molecular reaction
7. The rate constant, the energy of activation and the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reactions
at 250C are 3.0 x 10-4 sec-1, 104.4 kJ mol-1 and 6.0 x 1014 sec-1 respectively. The value of rate
constant as T is:
(a) 2.0 x 1018 sec-1 (b) 6.0 x 1014 sec-1 (c) Infinity (d) 3.6 x 1030 sec-1
8. The reaction: X Product follows first order kinetic. In 40 minutes, the concentration of X
changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M, then rate of reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M is:
(a) 1.73 x 10-4 M/min (b) 3.47 x 10-5 M/min
(c) 3.47 x 10-4 M/min (d) 1.73 x 10-5 M/min
9. The rate law of a reaction, A + B Product is rate = K[A]n[B]m. On doubling the concentration of
A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of new rate to the earlier rate of reaction will be:
1
(a) n – m (b) 2n – m (c) m n (d) m + n
2
10. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15
minute. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is:
(a) 60 minute (b) 15 minute (c) 7.5 minute (d)30 minute
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b b b c b a b c b d
©Byju’s 51
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. The half-life of a first order reaction A B + C is 10 minutes. The concentration of A would
be reduced to 10% of the original concentration in
(a) 10 minutes (b) 90 minutes (c) 33 minutes (d) 70 minutes
2. What will be amount of X(t1/2 = 25 minutes) left after 50 minutes in the reaction X Y
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/10
3. The rate equation for a hypothetical reaction is rate = k[A]2[B]3. How many times the rate of
the reaction is increased if the concentrations of both A and B are doubled
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 32 (d) 13
4. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 110–2 s–1. The concentration of the reactants
would be reduced from 1 mole to 0.25 mole in
(a) 102 s (b) 69.3 s (c) 0.5102 s (d) 138.6 s
d[ A ]
5. The rate of the reaction A + B + C P is given by r = – = k[A]1/2[B]1/2[C]1/2. The order of
dt
reaction is
(a) 1 (b) 2½ (c) 1/2 (d) 1½
7. The reaction A + 2B 2C has the rate law, rate = k[A] [B]. Which of the following is an
appropriate rate determining step?
(a) A + 2B C (b) A + C D (c) A + B E (d) 2A C + D
8. The half life of a first order reaction is 2 hours. The time required for the completion of
99.9% of the reaction is
(a) 5 hours (b) 10 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 40 hours
©Byju’s 52
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
10. In the formation of NH3 by Haber’s process N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the rate of appearance of NH3
was measured as 2.50–4 mol litre–1 s–1. The rate of disappearance of H2 will be
(a) 2.510–4 mol litre–1 s–1 (b) 3.7510–4 mol litre–1 s–1
(c) 1.2510–4 mol litre–1 s–1 (d) 510–4 mol litre–1 s–1
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c c c d d c c c a b
©Byju’s 53
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
1. The correct statements from the following are
i) The units of rate and rate constant are same for zero order reactions
ii) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of concentration of reactants
iii) Catalyst affects the value of first order rate constant
iv) Rate of reaction is independent of concentration of reactant if present in excess
(a) i, ii, iii (b) ii, iii, iv (c) i, ii, iv (d) i, ii, iii, iv
2. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
3. For a first order reaction, frequency factor A in the equation K = Ae-Ea/RT will have units of
(a) mol litre-1second-1 (b) second-1 (c) mol-1 litre second-1 (d) mole-2 litre2 second-1
4. The time needed for the disintegration of 50% of a radioactive nuclide is 5 minutes. What is the
time (in seconds) needed for 99.9% disintegration of that radioactive nuclide?
(a) 50 (b) 0.5 (c) 3000 (d) 3.33
6. The rate constant is equal to rate of reaction when molar concentration of reactants is equal to
(a) unity (b) may have any value (c) zero (d) two
10. The minimum amount of energy that the reacting molecules must posses at the time of
collisions in order to produce effective collisions is called
(a) activation energy (b) threshold energy (c) internal energy (d) free energy
©Byju’s 54
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d d b c c a d d a b
©Byju’s 55
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
1. In the reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the rate of the reaction with respect to hydrogen is
2.410-2 moles/litre.sec. The rate of the reaction with respect to ammonia is
(a) 2.410-2 moles/litre.sec (b) 1.610-2 moles/litre.sec
(c) 4.810-3 moles/litre.sec (d) 3.210-2 moles/litre.sec
2. In a catalytic conversion of N2 to NH3 by Haber’s process, the rate of reaction was expressed as
change in the concentration of ammonia per unit time is 4010–3 mol litre–1 s–1. If there are no
side reactions, the rate of disappearance of hydrogen is
(a) 6010–3 mol litre–1 s–1 (b) 2010–3 mol litre–1 s–1
(c) 1200 mol litre–1 s–1 (d) 10.310–3 mol litre–1 s–1
2.303 a
3. If reaction obeys the equation k = log , the order of the reaction will be
t ax
(a) zero (b) first (c) second (d) third
4. If the unit of velocity constant is litre mol–1 s–1, the order of the reaction will be
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
6. How will the rate of reaction, 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 change if the volume of the reaction vessel is
doubled. It will be
(a) one fourth of its initial value (b) one eighth of its initial value
(c) four times of its initial value (d) eight times of its initial value
8. The rate of a reaction is doubled for every 10oC rise in temperature. The increase in reaction
rate as a result of temperature rise from 30oC to 80oC is
(a) 112 (b) 32 (c) 400 (d) 614
9. The rate constants at 27oC and 127oC are 10–4 and 10–2 respectively. Then the activation energy
of the reaction is approximately.
(a) 110 kcal (b) 11 kcal (c) 1.1 kcal (d) 0.11 kcal
10. The half life for a given reaction was doubled as the initial concentration of the reactant was
doubled. The order of the reaction is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d)
©Byju’s 56
XI-STD Chemical Kinetics (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a a b b d b a b b a
©Byju’s 57
Chemistry In
Everyday Life
XI-STD Chemistry In Everyday Life (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Which of the following is not used as an antacid ?
(a) Magnesium hydroxide (b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) Aluminium phosphate
3. Paracetamol is
(a) Both antipyretic and analgesic (b) Analgesic (c) Antipyretic (d) Antimalarial
6. Chloramphenicol is used as an
(a) analgesic (b) antibiotic (c) anaesthetic (d) antiseptic
8. is present in
©Byju’s 59
XI-STD Chemistry In Everyday Life (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b d a a a b b a c a
©Byju’s 60
Coordination
Compounds
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. The common features among the species CN–, CO and NO+ are:
(a) Bond order three and diamagnetic (b) Bond order three and weak field ligands
(c) Paramagnetic and strong field ligands (d) Paramagnetic and π – acceptor ligands
2. [PdCl2(PMe3)2] is a diamagnetic complex of Pd (II). How many unpaired electrons are present in
analogous complex of Ni (II)?
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
3. If EAN of central metal cation M2+ in a non – chelating complex is 36 and atomic no. Of metal M is
26, then the number of monodentate ligand in this complex are:
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) none of these
4. Magnetic moment (spin only) of octahedron complex having CFSE= –0.8∆0 and surrounded by
weak field ligands can be:
(a) √15 BM (b) √8 BM (c) (a) & (b) both (d) None of these
6. An effective atomic number of Co(CO)4 is 35 and hence is less stable. It attanins stability by:
(a) Oxidation of Co (b) Reduction of Co
(c) Dimerisation (d) Both (b) and (c)
7. Which of the following pairs of complexes are isomeric with each other but their aqueous
solutions exhibit different molar conductivities?
(a) [PtCl2 (NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
(b) [CoCl2(NH3)4]NO2 and [CoCl(NO2) (NH3)4]Cl
(c) [Co(NO2) (NH3)5]Cl2 and [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]Cl2
(d) [CoBr(NH3)5]SO4 and [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]Br
8. A six coordinate complex of formula CrCl3. 6H2O has green colour. A 0.1 M solution of the complex
when treated with excess of AgNO3 gave 28.7g of white precipitate. The formula of the complex
would be:
(a) [Cr(H2O)6)]Cl3 (b) [CrCl(H2O)5 ]Cl2 H2O
(c) [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl 2H2O (d) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3]
10. Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same?
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Cr(CN3)6]3+ and [Cr(CN)6]3–
(c) [FeF6]3– and [Fe(CN6)]3– (d) [Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2–
©Byju’s 62
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1.a 2.c 3.c 4.c 5.a 6.d 7.d 8.b 9.d 10.d
©Byju’s 63
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. Consider the following complex: ]Co(NH3)5CO3]ClO4
The coordination number, oxidation number, no. of d-electrons and number of unpaired d-
electrons on the metal are respectively:
(a) 6,2,7,3 (b) 7,2,7,1 (c) 5,3,6,4 (d) 6,3,6,0
4. In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl, the CO bond strength is expected to increase in the
order:
(a) [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]– (b) [V(CO)6]– < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+
(c) [V(CO)6]– < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] (d) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn (CO)6]+ < [V(CO)6]–
6. Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same?
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ and [Cr(CN)6]3–
3– 3–
(c) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN6)] (d) [Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2–
©Byju’s 64
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
10. The IUPAC name for K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2)NH3] is:
(a) Potassium amminedicyanotetraoxo chromium (III)
(b) Potassium amminedicyanodioxygendioxo chromate(IV)
(c) Potassium amminedicyanosuperoxoperoxo chromate (III)
(d) Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxo chromate (VI)
ANSWER KEY
1.d 2.d 3.a 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.c 8.a 9.d 10.d
©Byju’s 65
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Mains) – Test III Chemistry
1. IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is:
(a) hydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV) (b) dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)
(c) hydrogen hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid (d) hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.
5. There are four complexes of Ni. Select the complex (es) which will be attracted by magnetic field:
(I) [Ni(CN)4]2– (II) [NICl4]2– (III) Ni (CO4) (IV) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(a) I only (b) IV only (c) II, III and IV (d) II and IV
ANSWER KEY
1.d 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.b 9.c 10.d
©Byju’s 66
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. If E.A.N.of central metal cation M2+ in a non-chelating complex is 36 and atomic no. Of metal M is
26, then the number of monodentate ligand is in this complex are:
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of these
4. The π-acid ligand which uses its d-orbital during synergic bonding in its complex compound.
(a) CN- (b) PR3 (c) NO (d) N2
5. Consider the complex [Co(NH3)4 CO3]ClO4, in which coordination number, oxidation number and
number of d-electrons on the metal are respectively.
(a) 6,3,6 (b) 6,2,7 (c) 5,3,6 (d) 5,3,7
6. Select the correct code of TRUE and False for given statement:
(a) Peroxide ion as well as dioxygen molecule both are paramagnetic species
(b) In set of isomers, [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2∙H2O, both compounds can easily loose water
molecule on treatment with conc. H2SO4
(c) During transformation NO → NO+ , bond length and magnetic lkbehaviour decreases
(d) An ether is more volatile than alcohol both having same molecular formula
(a) FFTT (b) FTFT (c) FTTT (d) TFFT
7. In which of the following complex ion the value of magnetic moment (spin only) is √3 BM and
outer d-orbitals is used in hybridization.
(a) [Mn(CN)6]4– (b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Co(CO)4] (d) [Cu(H2O)6]2+
8. The IR stretchin frequencies of free CO, and CO in [V(CO)6]–, [Cr(CO)6]– and [Mn(CO)6]– are 2143
cm–1, 1860 cm–1 and 2000 cm–1 and 2090 cm–1, respectively. Then correct statement about metal
carbonyls is:
(a) ‘C−O’ bond is strongest in the cation and weakest in the anion.
(b) ‘C−O’ bond is weakest in the cation and strongest in the anion.
(c) ‘C−O’ bond is longer in the cation than in the anion.
(d) ‘M−O’ pi bonding is higher in the cation.
10. The inner orbital complex which exhibits both geometrical as well as optical isomerism.
(a) [Cr(en)3]3+ (b) [IrF3(H2O)2(NH3)] (c) [NiCl2(en)2] (d) [Co(CN)2(ox)2]3–
Solution Key:
1.c 2.b 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.a 7.d 8.a 9.c 10.d
©Byju’s 67
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
1. The π – acid ligand which uses its d-orbital during synergic bonding in its complex compound:
(a) NO+ (b) PR3 (c) C6H6 (d) CO
6. In which of the following complex ion the value of magnetic moment (spin only) is √3 B.M and
outer d-orbitals is used in hybridization:
(a) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Mn(CN)6]4- (c) [CuCl5]2– (d) [Co(NH3)6]2+
9. For which of the following dn configuration of octahedral complexes, can not exist in both high
spin and low spin forms:
(I) d3 (II) d5 (III) d6 (IV) d8
(a) I, II, & III (b) II, III & IV (c) I & IV (d) None of these
Solution Key:
1.b 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.b 6.c 7.d 8.c 9.c 10.c
©Byju’s 68
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
1. Consider the following two reaction:
K
Cd2+(aq.) + 4CH3NH2
1 ’A’, ∆G1°
K
Cd2+(aq.) +2H2NCH2 CH2 NH2 2 ’B’, ∆G2°
According to given information the correct statement (s) is/are:
(a) ∆G2° is more negative than ∆G1° (b) Compound ‘A’ is optically inactive
(c) Compound ‘B’ is optically active (d) Formation constant K2 is greater than formation constant K1
3. Which of the following compound has/have effective atomic number equal to the atomic number
of a noble gas?
(a) K[Co(CO)4] (b) K2[Fe(CO)4] (c) [Co(NH3)6] Cl2 (d) [CoCl3(H2O)3]
4. Select correct statement (s) regarding octahedron complex having CFSE = -1.2∆0.
(a) Compound is neither low spin nor high spin complex
(b) Type of hybridisation complex does not depend upon nature of ligands
(c) Magnetic moment of complex compounds is either √15 B.M. or √8 B.M.
(d) All are incorrect statements
©Byju’s 69
XI-STD Coordination Compounds (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
9. Which complex species does/do not exhibit geometrical isomerism and only have two
stereoisomers.
(a) [Co(EDTA)]– (b) [PtBrCl(gly)]– (c)[Co(acac)2(en)]+ (d) [Pd(NO2)(ox)(gly)]
10. Which of the following complex (s) can not exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?
(a) [Ru(en)3]+3 (b) [Co(H2O)Cl3] (c) [PtBrCl(H2O)NH3] (d) [FeBr2(en)2]+
Solution Key:
1.a,b,d 2.a,b,d 3.a,b,d 4.a,b,c 5.a,b,d 6.a,b,c,d 7.ad 8.a,b,d 9.a,c 10.b
©Byju’s 70
d & f Block Elements
XI-STD d & f Block Elements (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
2− 2−
1. CrO4 (yellow) changes to Cr2O7 (orange in pH = x and vice – versa in pH = y. Hence, x and y are:
(a) 6, 8 (b) 6, 5 (c) 8, 6 (d) 7, 7
2−
How many moles of S2O8 are required to oxidise 1 mole of Mn2+?
(a) 2.5 (b) 2. (c) 11.0 (d) 0.4
Solution Key:
1.a 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.b 6.a 7.a 8.b 9.c 10.d
©Byju’s 72
XI-STD d & f Block Elements (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. Which of the following is called Wilkinson’s catalyst?
(a) [Ph3P)3 RhCl] (b) TiCl4+(C2H5)3Al
(c) (C2H5)4 Pb (d) [PtCl2(NH3)2]
3. A metal M and its compound can give the following observable changes in a consequence
ofreactions
4. Sodium thiosulphate is used to remove the unexposed AgBr from photographic films by forming a
complex. In this complex of silver, the coordination number of silver is:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
5. Each of the following ion contains vanadium the +V oxidation state except:
(a) VO+
2 (b) 𝑉(𝑂𝐻)+ 4 (c) VO2+ (d) [VO3∙OH]2–
7. Copper sulphate is prepared by blowing a current of air through copper scrap and dilute H2SO4.
Dilute HNO3 is also added:
(a) to oxidise copper to Cu2+ which then form CuSO4 with dilute H2SO4
(b) to oxidise Fe2+ to iron (III) sulphate, which remains in solution after crystallisation of CuSO4
(c) to speed up the ionisation of H2SO4 to give SO2− 4 ions
(d) which combines with H2SO4 to give a very strong oxidising mixture and oxidise Cu to Cu2+
8. Which two sets of reactants best represent the amphoteric character of Zn (OH)2 ?
Set 1: Zn(OH)2 (S) and OH– (aq)
Set 2: Zn(OH)2 (S) and H2O(l)
Set 3: Zn(OH)2 (S) and H+ (aq)
Set 4: Zn(OH)2 (S) and NH3(aq)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
©Byju’s 73
XI-STD d & f Block Elements (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
9. The false statement about iron (III) hydroxide is that :
(a) it is a weaker base than Fe (OH)2
(b) with concentrated KOH, it forms a complex K3=[Fe(OH)6]
(c) it gradually loses water and transforms into Fe2O3
(d) it exhibits amphoteric properties with its predominating acidic nature
10. AgNO3 (W) + (X)+O2
(X) + H2O ⟶ HNO2 + HNO3
(W) + HNO3 ⟶ Y + NO + H2O
(Y) + Na2S2O3(excess) ⟶ (Z) + NaNO3
Identify (W) to (Z).
(a) W = Ag X =N2O Y = AgNO3 Z = Na2[Ag(S2O3)2]
(b) W = Ag2O X = NO Y = AgNO3 Z = Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(c) W = Ag X = NO2 Y = AgNO3 Z = Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(d) W = Ag2O X = N2 Y = AgNO3 Z = Na[Ag(S2O3)2]
Solution Key:
1.a 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.c 6.a 7.a 8.b 9.b,d 10.c
©Byju’s 74
Electrochemistry
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
Electrolytes and Electrolysis
2. When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate
electrodes are
Cathode Anode
(a) Pure zinc Pure copper
(b) Impure sample Pure copper
(c) Impure zinc Impure sample
(d) Pure copper Impure sample
6. During the electrolysis of an electrolyte, the number of ions produced, is directly proportional to
the
(a) Time consumed (b) Electro chemical equivalent of electrolysis
(c) Quantity of electricity passed (d) Mass of electrons
7. Which of the following compounds will not undergo decomposition on passing electricity through
aqueous solution
(a) Sugar (b) Sodium Chloride (c) Sodium Bromide (d) Sodium Acetate
8. Which of the following metal can be obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous solutions of their
salts
(a) Cu (b) Na (c) Mg (d) K
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C
©Byju’s 76
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
Electrolytes and Electrolysis
Keys and Solutions
1.(b) Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity due to absence of free ions.
2.(d) Impure metal made anode while pure metal made cathode.
5.(b) Water is reduce at the cathode and oxidized at the anode instead of Na+ and 𝑆𝑂42−
1
Cathode : 2H2O + 2e− → H2 + OH− Anode : H2O → 2H+ + 2 O2 + 2e−
8.(a) Na, K and Mg are placed above hydrogen in the electrochemical series. When the aqueous
solutions of these salts are electrolyzed, hydrogen is released at the cathode instead of the
respective metals. Cu is placed below hydrogen in the electrochemical series, when aqueous
solution of copper is electrolyzed, copper is deposited at the cathode.
10.(c) In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from anode to cathode through the external circuit. At
cathode (– ve pole) oxidation and at cathode (+ve pole) reduction takes place.
©Byju’s 77
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis
2. One Faraday charge was passed through the electrolyte cell placed in series containing solutions
of Ag+2 , Ni+2 , Cr+3 . Then the masses of Ag, Ni, Cr deposited will be
(a) 108 gm, 29.5 gm, 17.3 gm (b) 1.08 gm, 2.95 gm, 1.73 gm
(c) 17.3 gm, 108 gm, 2.95 gm (d) 17.3 gm, 10.8 gm, 2.95 gm
3. 965 amp current is passed through molten metal chloride for 1 minute and 40 seconds during
electrolysis. The mass of metal deposited is 9 gm at the cathode. The valency of metal atom is (At.
Wt. of metal atom = 27)
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
5. Two electrolyte cells, one containing acidified FeSO4 and another acidified Fe2(SO4)3 in the series.
The ratio of mass of iron deposited at the cathode in the two cells will be
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 2 (d) 5 : 2
6. How many coulombs of electricity are required for the reduction of 1 mole of 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− to Mn+2 ?
(a) 4.825 × 105 C (b) 48.25 × 105 C (c) 482.5 × 105 C (d) 4825 × 105 C
7. What is the time required (in sec.) for depositing all the silver present in 125 ml of 1M AgNO3
solution by passing a current of 241.25 amperes
(a) 40 sec (b) 55 sec (c) 50 sec (d) 65 sec
9. Three faradays electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) bromide. The weight
of iron metal (at. wt. = 56) deposited at the cathode (in gm) is
(a) 56 (b) 84 (c) 112 (d) 168
10. When a quantity of electricity is passed through CuSO4 solution. 0.16 g of copper gets deposited.
If the same quantity of electricity is passed through acidulated water, then the volume of H2
liberated at STP will be
(a) 4.0 cm3 (b) 56 cm3 (c) 604 cm3 (d) 8.0 cm3
KEY
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. B
©Byju’s 78
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis
Keys and Solutions
1.(a) w = eQ
m = e . Q e = 0.0006735 g/c
= 67.35 × 10−5 g/c
m = 67.5 × 10−5 × 96500
= 67.35 × 10−5 × 965 × 102
= 64,992 · 75 × 10−3
= 64.992
= 65 gm
W1 E1 W 1 56 3
5.(a) = = × = 3:2
W2 E2 W 2 2 56
Mct
7.(c) W =
ZF
1 × 96500 × 13.5
t=
108 × 241.25
t = 50 sec.
56
9.(b) Fe2+ + 2e− → Fe; EFe = 2
= 28
0.16
wt. of H2 = 32
= 5 × 10−3 g
22400
∴ Volume of H2 liberated at STP = × 5 × 10−3 cc = 56 cc.
2
©Byju’s 79
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
Conductor and Conductance
1. In infinite dilutions, the equivalent conductances of Ba2+ and Cl− are 127 and 76 ohm−1 cm−1
eqvt−1. The equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 at indefinite dilutions is
(a) 101.5 (b) 139.5 (c) 203.5 (d) 279.5
2. Specific conductance of 0.1M nitric acid is 6.3 × 10−2 ohm−1 cm−1. The molar conductance of
solution is
(a) 630 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1 (b) 315 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1
−1 2 −1
(c) 100 ohm cm mole (d) 6300 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1
3. The values of equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are 149.74,
248.1 and 126.4 ohm−1 cm2 eqvt−1. The value ∧∞ 𝑒𝑞 of NH4OH is
(a) 371.44 (b) 271.44 (c) 71.44 (d) None
4. The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO3 are 152, 128 and 111 S cm−1 mol−1 respectively.
What is the molar conductivity of NaNO3
(a) 101 S cm2 mol−1 (b) 87 S cm2 mol−1
(c) – 101 S cm2 mol−1 (d) – 391 S cm2 mol−1
6. If equivalent conductance of 1M benzoic acid is 12.8 ohm−1 cm2 and if the conductance of
benzoate ion and H+ ion are 42 and 288.42 ohm−1 cm2 respectively its degree of dissocaiton is
(a) 39% (b) 3.9% (c) 0.35% (d) 0.039%
8. At 25°C, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and
BaCl2 are 248 × 10−4, 126 × 10−4 and 280 × 10−4 Sm2 mol−1 respectively. 𝜆0𝑚 Ba(OH)2 in Sm2 mol−1 is
(a) 52.4 × 10−4 (b) 524 × 10−4 (c) 402 × 10−4 (d) 262 × 10−4
10. What is the effect of dilution on the equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte
(a) Decrease of dilution (b) Remains unchanged
(c) Increase on dilution (d) None of the above
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C
©Byju’s 80
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
Conductor and Conductance
Key and Solutions
1 127
1.(b) λ∞ BaCl2 = 2
λ∞ Ba2+ + λ∞ Cl− = 2
+ 76 = 139.5 ohm− cm−1 eq−1
4.(b) Now,
∧𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 = ∧𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + ∧𝐾𝑁𝑂3 – ∧𝐾𝐶𝑙 ⇒ ∧0𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 = 128 + 111 – 152 = 87 S cm−1 mol−1
1
5.(a) Since molar conductance ∝ = Molarity
= 42 + 288.42 = 330.42
∧cm 12.8
α= = = 3.9%
∧0m 330.42
1 1
7.(d) Conductance = resistance
= ohm
= ohm− or mho
10.(c) The equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte is increased by dilution, because its value is
equal to the multiple of Kv and the volume of solution. By making dilution the volume of
solution increases which also increase the value of equivalent conductivity.
©Byju’s 81
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
Cell constant and Electrochemical cells
Electrode potential, Ecells Nernst equation and ECS
3. If hydrogen electrode dipped in 2 solution of pH = 3 and pH = 6 and salt bridge is connected the
e.m.f. of resulting cell is
(a) 0.177 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.252 V (d) 0.104 V
5. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 ohm−1 cm−1. The resistance of cell
containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will
be
(a) 0.142 cm−1 (b) 0.66 cm−1 (c) 0.918 cm−1 (d) 1.12 cm−1
6. In an electrochemical cell
(a) Potential energy changes into kinetic energy
(b) Kinetic energy changes into potential energy
(c) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy
(d) Electrical energy changes into chemical energy
7. The standard reduction potential for Li+/Li; Zn2+/Zn; H+/H2 and Ag+/Ag is –3.05, – 0.762, 0.00 and
+0.80 V. Which of the following has highest reducing capacity
(a) Ag (b) H2 (c) Zn (d) Li
8. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+/Fe and Sn2+/Sn electrodes are – 0.44 and – 0.14 volt
respectively. For the given cell reaction Fe2++ Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard EMF is
(a) + 0.0 V (b) – 0.58 V (c) + 0.58 V (d) – 0.30 V
1 1 1
9. Calculate standard free energy change for the reaction Cu(s) + Cl2(g) = Cu2++ Cl− taking place
2 2 2
at 25°C in a cell whose standard e.m.f. is 1.02 volts
(a) – 98430 J (b) 98430 J (c) 96500 J (d) – 49215 J
10. E° for the cell Zn/Zn2+(aq) ⃦ Cu2+(aq)/Cu is 1.10 V at 25°C, the equilibrium constant for the
reaction Zn + Cu2+(aq) is of the order of
(a) 10−28 (b) 10−37 (c) 10+18 (d) 10+1
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B
©Byju’s 82
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
Cell constant and Electrochemical cells
Electrode potential, Ecells Nernst equation and ECS
Key and Solutions
1.(a) In galvanic cell, the salt bridge used to complete the circuit.
10−6
3.(c) Ecell = – 0.059 log 10−3 = – 0.059 log 10−3
= 0.059 × (–3) = 0.177 V
4.(b) In Daniel cell (copper/zinc galvanic cell), the spontaneous chemical reaction between zinc
metal and aqueous copper (II)sulphate is conducted so as to obtain the available chemical
energy released in the form of electrical energy.
1
5.(b) K = × Cell constant
R
Cell constant = K × R; 0.012 × 55 = 0.66 cm−1
6.(c) In the electrochemical cell chemical energy changes into electrical energy.
7.(d) E° = – 3.05 Li+ / Li is most negative (minimum) and hence Li has maximum tendency to lose
electrons or it is the strongest reducing agent.
8.(d) For the cell reaction, Fe acts as cathode and Sn as anode. Hence,
0 0 0
𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 𝐸𝑐𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑑𝑒 – 𝐸𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑑𝑒 = –0.44 – (– 0.14) = – 0.30 V
The negative EMF suggests that the reaction goes spontaneously in reverse direction.
9.(a) ∆G = – nFE°
∆G = – 1 × 96500 × 1.02; ∆G = –98430
0 0.059
10.(b) 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = n
log K
1.10 × 2
log K = 0.059
= 37.2881 or K = 10−37
©Byju’s 83
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
Electrolytes and Electrolysis
1. Which one of the following metals could not be obtained on electrolysis of aqueous solution of its
salts
(a) Ag (b) Mg (c) Cu (d) Cr
3. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at the
cathode and anode are respectively.
(a) H2, O2 (b) O2, H2 (c) O2, Na (d) O2, SO2
4. The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert
electrodes are
(a) Na and Br2 (b) Na and O2 (c) H2, Br and NaOH (d) H2 and O2
5. Which of the following metal can be obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their
salts
(a) Cu (b) Na (c) Mg (d) K
8. The aqueous solution of which of the following decomposes on passing electric current
(a) Canesugar (b) Urea (c) Methanol (d) Potassium iodide
10. The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode. The solution is
(a) Copper chloride in water (b) NaCl in water (c) H2SO4 (d) Water
KEY
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B
©Byju’s 84
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
Electrolytes and Electrolysis
Key and Solutions
1.(b) The reduction potential of Mg is less than that of water (E° = – 0.83V). Hence their ions in the
aqueous solution cannot be reduced instead water will be reduced.
2H2O + 2e− → H2 + 2OH−
4.(c) At cathode H+ reduces to H2 and at anode Br− oxidises to Br2, leaving NaOH in the solution.
5.(d) Na, K and Mg are placed above hydrogen in the electrochemical series. When the aqueous
solutions of these salts are electrolysed, hydrogen is released at the cathode instead of the
respective metals. Cu is placed below hydrogen in the electrochemical series, when aqueous
solution of copper is electrolysed, copper is deposited at the cathode
6.(c) In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from anode to cathode through the external circuit. At
anode (– ve pole) oxidation and at cathode (+ ve pole) reduction takes place.
7.(d)
8.(d) KI is an electrolyte
9.(a) In electrolysis process oxidation occurs at anode and reduction occurs at cathode.
10.(b) Since discharge potential of water is greater than that of sodium so water is reduced at
cathode instead of Na+
1
Cathode : H2O + e− → 2 H2 + OH−
1
Anode : Cl → 2 Cl2 + e−
©Byju’s 85
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis
1. Cadmium amalgam is prepared by electrolysis of a solution of CdCl2 using a mercury cathode. How
long should a current of 4 A be passed in order to prepare 10% by wt. Cd in Cd—Hg amlagam on
cathode of 4.5 g Hg? (atomic wt. of Cd = 112)
(a) 400 sec (b) 215.40 sec (c) 861.6 sec (d) 430.8 sec
2. How much chlorine will be liberated on passing one ampere current for 30 minutes through NaCl
solution.
(a) 0.66 mole (b) 0.33 mole (c) 0.66 gm (d) 0.33 gm
3. Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potential and high currents. If 4.0 × 104 amperes of current
is passed through molten H2O for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced (Assume 100%
current efficiency. At mass of Al = 27 g mol−1)
(a) 9.0 × 103 g (b) 8.1 × 104 g (c) 2.4 × 105 g (d) 1.3 × 104 g
5. Then during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3, 9650 coulombs of charge pass through the
electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited in the cathode will be
(a) 1.08 g (b) 10.8 g (c) 21.6 g (d) 108 g
6. 4 g of copper was dissolved in concentrated nitric acid. The copper nitrate solution on strong
heating gave 5 g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of copper is
(a) 23 (b) 32 (c) 12 (d) 20
7. The number of electrons passing per second through a cross-section of copper wire carrying 10−6
amperes of current per second is found to be
(a) 1.6 × 10−19 (b) 6 × 10−35 (c) 6 × 10−16 (d) 6 × 10−12
8. A certain quantity of electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of AgNO3 and cupric salt
solution connected in series. The amount of Ag deposited is 1.08 gm, the amount of copper
deposited is (atomic weight of Cu= 63.5; Ag = 108)
(a) 0.6454 g (b) 6.354 g (c) 0.3177 g (d) 3.177 g
9. When electricity is passed through the solution of AlCl3, 13.5 gm of Al are deposited. The number
of Faraday must be
(a) 0.50 (b) 1.00 (c) 1.50 (d) 2.00
10. When molten lithium chloride (LiCl) is electrolyzed, lithium metal is formed at the cathode. If
current efficiency is 75% then how many grams of lithium are liberated when 1930 C of charge
pass through the cell? (Atomic weight : Li = 7)
(a) 0.105 (b) 0.120 (c) 0.28 (d) 0.240
KEY
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D 8.C 9. C 10. A
©Byju’s 86
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
Faraday’s Law of Electrolysis
Key and Solutions
0.5 4×t
∴ 112
×2= 96500
⇒ t = 215.40 sec
Mct
2.(c) W = ZF
35.5 × 1 × 30 × 60
W= = 0.66 gm
1 × 96500
+𝑒 −
5.(b) Ag+ → Ag. ⇒ 96500 C will liberate silver = 108 gm
9650 C will liberate silver = 10.8 gm
Wt. of Cu = 0.31777 gm
13.5
9.(c) Eq. of Al = 27⁄3 = 1.5
Thus 1.5 Faraday is needed.
W 1930 × 0.75
10.(a) 7
= 96500
; W = 0.105 gm
©Byju’s 87
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
Conductor and Conductance
1. Specific conductance of 0.1 M nitric acid is 6.3 × 10−2 ohm−1 cm−1. the molar conductance of
solution is
(a) 630 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1 (b) 315 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1
−1 2 −1
(c) 100 ohm cm mole (d) 6300 ohm−1 cm2 mole−1
2. Electrolytic conduction differs from metallic conduction in that in the case of electrolytic
conduction
(a) The resistance increases with increasing temperature
(b) The resistance decrease with increasing temperature
(c) The flow of current does not generate heat
(d) The resistance is independent of the length of the conductor
4. The molar conductivities ∧0𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐴𝑐 and ∧0𝐻𝐶𝑙 at infinite dilution in water at 25°C are 93.0 and
426.2 S cm2/mol respectively. To calculate ∧0𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐 , the additional value required is
(a) ∧0𝐻2 𝑂 (b) ∧0𝐾𝐶𝑙 (c) ∧0𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (d) ∧0𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
6. Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013 Scm−1.
The value of cell constant is :
(a) 3.9 cm−1 (b) 39 m−1 (c) 3.9 m−1 (d) None of these
7. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of formic acid is 200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm−1. The
equivalent conductivity (in Scm2 eq−1) of 0.1 N formic acid is :
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 1 (d) none of these
8. The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of area 100 cm2
separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001 Ω−1. If volume enclosed between two electrode
contain 0.1 mole of salt, what is the molar conductivity (Scm2 mol−1) of salt at same concentration:
(a) 10 (b) 0.1 (c) 1 (d) none of these
9. At 25°C, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and
BaCl2 are 248 × 10−4, 126 × 10−4 and 280 × 10−4 Sm2 mol−1 respectively. 𝜆0𝑚 Ba (OH)2 in Sm2 mol−1 is
(a) 52.4 × 10−4 (b) 524 × 10−4 (c) 402 × 10−4 (d) 262 × 10−4
M
10. The equivalent conductance of solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mhos cm2 and at
32
infinite dilution is 400 mhos cm2. The dissociation constant of this acid is
(a) 1.25 × 10−5 (b) 1.25 × 10−6 (c) 6.25 × 10−4 (d) 1.25 × 10−4
©Byju’s 88
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
KEY
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. A
©Byju’s 89
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
Conductor and Conductance
Key and Solutions
1
3.(a) Since molar conductance ∝ Molarity
4.(d) According to Kohlrausch law the molar conductivity of an electrolyte at infinite dilution is the
sum of conductivities of its ions. Therefore to obtain ∧0𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐 from the conductivity of ∧0𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐴𝑐
and ∧0𝐻𝐶𝑙 the conductivity value of NaCl i.e., ∧0𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 is also needed.
∧0𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐴𝑐 + ∧0𝐻𝐶𝑙 – ∧0𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 = ∧0𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐
i.e., ∧0𝑁𝑎 + ∧0𝑂𝐴𝑐 − + ∧0𝐻 + ∧0𝐶𝑙− – (∧0𝑁𝑎+ + ∧0𝐶𝑙− ) = ∧0𝑂𝐴𝑐 − + ∧0𝐻 = ∧0𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐
Conductivity(I) Conductivity(II)
Cell constant = =
Conductance(II) Conductance(II)
129
Conductivity(II) = 520
S m−1 = 0.2M = 200 mol m−3
129⁄520
Molar conductivity of 0.2 M solution = = 12.4 × 10−4 S m2 mol−1
200
1 1
6.(a) Conductance (G) = R
⇒ 300 ;
l
∵ κ = G (A)
l 0.013
Cell constant (A) = 1
× 300 = 3.9 cm−1
1
7.(a) κ = G.G* ⇒ 200 2 ⇒ 0.01;
κ
∧eq = N
× 1000
0.01
⇒ 0.1
× 1000 ⇒ 100
©Byju’s 90
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
* l 10
8.(b) G = a
= 100
= 0.1; G = 0.0001 S
κ × 1000
∧m = M
∧ 8.0
10.(a) α = ∧0
= 400
= 2 × 10−2
Cα2 1
Kα = (1 − α)
≈ cα2 = 32
× (2 × 10−2)2 = 1.25 × 10−5
©Byju’s 91
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
Electrode potential, Ecells, Nernst equation and ECS
1. The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+│Cu and Cu2+ │Cu⊕ are 0.337 V and 0.153 V, respectively.
The standard electrode potential of Cu⊕ │Cu half cell is
(a) 0.184 V (b) 0.827 V (c) 0.521 V (d) 0.490 V
2. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y and Z are 0.52, –3.03, and –
1.18 V, respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metal is
(a) Y > Z > X (b) X > Y > Z (c) Z > Y > X (d) Z > X > Y
3. Use the following E° for the electrode potentials, calculate ∆G° in kJ for the indicated reaction :
5Ce4+ (aq) + Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O(l) → 5Ce3+ (aq); + 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− (aq) + 8H+ (aq)
𝑀𝑛𝑂4− (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e− → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O(l); E° = + 1.51 V
Ce4+ (aq) + e− → Ce4+ (aq) E° = + 1.61 V
(a) – 9.65 (b) –24.3 (c) –48.25 (d) –35.2
4. A 1.0 M solution of Cd2+ is added to excess iron and the system is allowed to reach equilibrium.
What is the concentration of Cd2+?
Cd2+ (aq) + Fe(s) → Cd(s) + Fe2+ (aq); E° = 0.037
(a) 0.195 (b) 0.097 (c) 0.053 (d) 0.145
6. The E° at 25°C for the following reaction at the indicated concentrations is 1.50 V. Calculate the
∆G in kJ at 25°C : Cr(s) + 3Ag+ (aq, 0.1 M) → Ag(s) + Cr3+ (aq, 0.1 M)
(a) – 140.94 (b) – 295 (c) –212 (d) –422.83
7. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the cell would be
(the value of 2.303RT / F is 0.059 V)
(a) 0.1777 V (b) – 0.177 V (c) 0.087 V (d) 0.059 V
9. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard emf of the cell is found to be
0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25°C will be
(a) 1 × 10−10 (b) 29.5 × 10−2 (c) 10 (d) 1 × 1010
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. A
©Byju’s 92
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
Electrode potential, Ecells, Nernst equation and ECS
Key and Solutions
n1 E⊖ ⊖
1 − n2 E2 2 × 0.337 – 1 × 0.153
𝐸3⊖ = n3
= 1
= 0.521 V
2.(a) The smaller the reduction potential of a substance, the more is its reducing power. (Y > Z > X).
° ° °
3.(c) 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 = 𝐸𝑅𝑃(𝑅𝐻𝑆) – 𝐸𝑅𝑃(𝐿𝐻𝑆)
= 1.61 – 1.51 ⇒ 0.10 V
∆G° = –nFE° ⇒ – 5 × 96500 × 0.10 J
∆G° = – 48.25 kJ
0.0591 x
0.037 = 2
log (1 − x)
x = [Fe2+] ⇒ 0.947 M
∴ [Cd2+] = 0.053 M
= – 0.694 V
6.(d) ∆G = ∆G° + Rt ln Q
[Cr3+ ]
⇒ – nFE° + 2.303 RT log [Ag+ ]3
(0.1)
∆G = – 3 × 96500 × 1.50 + 8.314 × 298 × 2.303 log (0.1)3
⇒ – 422838.3 J or – 422.83 kJ
©Byju’s 93
XI-STD Electrochemistry (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
8.(c) At 298 K standard electrode potential of NHE electrode is 0.00V
9.(d) ∆G = – nFE°
∆G = – 2.303 RT log K ; nFE° = 2.303 RT log K
nFE° 2 × 96500 × 0.295
log K = 2.303RT = 2.303 × 8.314 × 298
log K = 9.97 = K = 1 × 1010
©Byju’s 94
Halo Alkanes &
Halo Arenes
XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
PREPARATION OF HALO ALKANES AND HALO ARENES
1. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction with
concentrated HCl at room temperature?
(a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH (b)
(c) (d)
2. Toluene reacts with halogen in the presence of iron(III) chloride giving ortho and parahalo
compounds. The reaction is
(a) Electrophilic elimination reaction (b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) Free radical addition (d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2
(c) R – OH + HX → R – X + H2O
(d)
©Byju’s 96
XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
5. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
6. The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide.
(a) CH3 C H CH2 Cl (b) CH3 C H CH3 (c) CH3 CH2 C H2 (d) CH3 CH2 C H2
𝐵𝑟2
7. In the following reaction → The major product is
ℎ𝜈
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
8. What will be the product in the following reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
HNO2 HF ∆
9. Ph – NH2 → A→ B→ C, C is
O°C BF3
(a) (b)
Ph - N ≡ NB𝐹4−
(c) (d) Ph - F
10.
ANSWER KEYS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d b a a c b c c d b
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
SN1 & SN2 MECHANISM
1. Which of the following alkyl halide will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
(a) (CH3)3 C – F (b) (CH3)3 C – Cl (c) (CH3)3 C – Br (d) (CH3)3 C – I
3. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH–
ion?
4. Arrange the following in the increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution
(a) I < II < III (b) I < III < II (c) III < I < II (d) III < II < I
5.
Which of the following statements are correct about the mechanism of this reaction?
I. A carbocation will be formed as an intermediate in the reaction
II. OH– will attach the substrate (II) from one side Cl– will leave it simultaneously from other side
III. An unstable intermediate will be formed in which OH– and Cl– will be attached by weak bonds.
IV. Reaction proceeds through SN1 mechanism
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & IV (d) I, II & III
6. For the following (a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br– the increasing order of nucleophilicity could be
(a) Br– < Cl– < I– (b) I– < Br– < Cl– (c) Cl– < Br– < I– (d) I– < Cl– < Br–
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
7. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the nucleophiles is
9. The organic chloro compound which shows complete stereo-chemical inversion during a
SN2 reaction is
(a) CH3Cl (b) (C2H5)2CHCl (c) (CH3)3CCl (d) (CH3)2CHCl
DMF
10. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type R – Br + Cl– → R – Cl + Br–
Which one of the following has the highest relative rate?
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d a a c c c d c a b
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
PROPERTIES OF HALO ALKANES & HALO ARENES
6. An alkyl bromide produces a single alkene when it reacts with sodiumethoxide and ethanol, this
alkene on hydrogenation produces 2-methyl butane. What is the alkyl halide?
(a) 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethyl propane (b) 1-bromo butane
(c) 1-b room-2-methylbutane (d) 2-bromo-2-methyl butane
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
8. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
9. The correct order of increasing reactivity of C – X bond towards nucleophile in the following
compound is
(a) III < II < I < IV (b) I < II < IV < III (c) II < III < I < IV (d) IV < III < I < II
10. Which of the following compound has dipole moment different from rest of the compounds.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c d b c c c a d b c
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
PREPARATION OF HALO ALKANES & HALO ARENES
2.
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
3. When ethylbenzene is treated with one equivalent of N-bromosuccinimide in CCl4, the major
product obtained is
4. Hydrogen chloride gas is passed through an organic compound of a molecular formula C4H10O at
room temperature to obtain the product C4H9Cl. The product is
5. →
𝑁𝐵𝑆/𝐶𝐶𝑙4
X, X is
6. In the conversion of optically active (R) form of 2-chlorobutane to (R) form of 2-bromobutane, the
following sequence of reaction is carried out
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
7. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
𝐵𝑟2
8. In the following reaction → The major product is
ℎ𝛾
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
10.
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
Topic: SN1 & SN2
2.
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
4. Which of the following statement are correct about the following reactions?
5.
(a) IV < III < I < II (b) I < II < IV < III (c) IV < III < II < I (d) IV < II < III < I
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
7.
Which of the following statements are correct about the mechanism of this reaction?
I. A carbocation will be formed as an intermediate in the reaction
II. OH– will attach the substrate (II) from one side Cl– will leave it simultaneously from other side
III. An unstable intermediate will be formed in which OH– and Cl– will be attached by weak bonds.
IV. Reaction proceeds through SN1 mechanism
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & IV (d) I, II & III
(2) (3)
(1) CH3O– CN– (4)
DMF
10. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type R – Br + Cl– → R – Cl + Br–
Which one of the following has the highest relative rate?
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a d d d b b c d c b
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
PROPERTIES OF HALO ALKANES & HALO ARENES
Mg/ether C6 H5 COCH3
3. (CH3)2CHBr → A→ B
The product B in the above reaction is
(a) 2-phenyl-3-methyl butan-2-ol (b) 2-phenylpentan-2-ol
(c) 2-phenylpentan-2-ol (d) propan-2-ol and ethyl benzene
5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the solvoysis of 3-bromo-3-
methylhexane?
(a) Polar solvents accelerate the reaction
(b) The intermediate involves SP2 carbon
(c) The rate of the reaction at a particular temperature depends only on the concentration of
3-bromo-3-methyl hexane
(d) The reaction involves inversion of configuration
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XI-STD Halo Alkanes & Halo Arenes (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
8. The major product formed on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O–/CH3OH is
(a) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 (b) CH3CH = CHCH3
(c) CH3CH2CH = CH2 (d) CH3CH2CH2OCH3
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
10. The correct order of increasing reactivity of C – X bond towards nucleophile in the following
compound is
(a) III < II < I < IV (b) I < II < IV < III (c) II < III < I < IV (d) IV < III < I < II
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a c a c d a c c d b
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Metallurgy
XI-STD Metallurgy (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Heating of Ores with flux to remove non fusible mass is called
(a) Smelting (b) Calcination (c) Roasting (d) Cupellation
6. Leaching is a process of
(a) Reduction (b) Concentration (c) Refining (d) Oxidation
ANSWER KEY:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a b a d d b d c d d
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XI-STD Metallurgy (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. Hydrometallurgy is useful in the extraction of
(a) Sn (b) Al (c) Hg (d) Ag
8. Duralumin is an Alloy of
(a) Al and Mg (b) Mg and Ni (c) Al, Mg, Mn and Cu (d) Al and Ni
Answer Key :
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d c a c a b d c c a
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Compounds
Containing Nitrogen
XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
Preparation and Properties of Amines
1. Aniline is not the major product in one of the following reactions. Identify that reaction.
𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑜ℎ𝑜𝑙𝑖𝑐 𝐾𝑂𝐻
(a) C6H5OH + NH3 → (b) C6H5NO2 + Zn Powder →
300° 𝐶
300° 𝐶 𝐻𝐶𝑙
(c) C6H5Cl + NH3 → (d) C6H5NO2 + Fe + H2O →
𝐶𝑢2 𝑂
2. Which of the following amides will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH3CONH2 (b) CH3CH2CONH2 (c) C6H5CONH2 (d) CH3CONHCH3
3. Amongst the given set of reactants, the most appropriate for preparing 2° amine is ______
(a) 2° R – Br + NH3
(b) 2° R – Br + NaCN followed by H2/Pt
(c) 1° R – NH2 + RCHO followed by H2/Pt
(d) 1° R – Br (2 mol) + Potassium phthalimide followed by H2O+/heat
4. The reducing agent used for preparing aniline from nitro benzene in the laboratory is
(a) LiAlH4 (b) Na / C2H5OH (c) Sn/HCl (d) Fe – steam and HCl
6. Arrange the following in the correct order of their basic character in gaseous phase
(I) NH3 (II) RNH2 (III) R2NH (IV) R3N
(a) IV > III > II > I (b) III > IV > II > I (c) III > II > IV > I (d) I > II > III > IV
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
7. Aniline is treated with Br2 water at room temperature to give the following product
8. Aniline when treated with chloroform in presence of basic medium, gives following compound
9. Acetamide is treated separately with the following reagents. Which one of these would give
methylamine?
(a) PCl5 (b) Sodalime (c) NaOH + Br2 (d) Hot concentrated H2SO4
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
10.
Answer Keys
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d c c c a d a c b
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
Test of Amines, Basicity, Diazonium salts, Cyanides and Isocynaides
2. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of
hydrochloric acid is used primarily to
(a) Supress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling
(b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol
(c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid
(d) Neutralise the base liberated
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
6.
List – I List – II
A. HVZ reaction 1. NaNO2 + HCl
B. Clemmensen reduction 2. hydrazine + KOH(alc)
C. Diazotisation 3. Sn/HCl
D. Wolf-Kishner reduction 4. Zn-Hg/Conc. HCl
5. Cl2/red P
The correct matching is
(a) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 (b) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(c) A – 2, B – 5, C – 1, D – 3 (d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 5
8. Which of the following product is obtained when methyl isocynaide reacts with chlorine
(a) CH3N = CCl2 (b) CH3NCl – CCl2 (c) ClCH2NC (d) Cl2CHNC
10. Electrophilic and Nucleophillic reagents give addition on the same atom of the molecule in
(a) Cyanide (b) Isocyanide (c) Aldehyde (d) Ketone
Answer Keys
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d a a b c d c a a b
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
Preparation and Properties of Amines
JEE Advanced
2. An aromatic amine(A) was treated with alcoholic potash and another compound ‘Y’ then a foul
smelling gas was formed with formula C6H5NC, ‘Y’ was formed by reacting a compound ‘Z’ with Cl2
in presence of slaked lime. The compound ‘Z’ is
(a) C6H5NH2 (b) CH3OH (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CHCl3
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
5.
𝑁𝐻3 𝐻𝑁𝑂3
7. C6H5Cl → X; X→ Z; X + Z → A; the no. of σ and π bonds in ‘A’ are
𝐶𝑢2 𝑂, 200°𝐶 0 − 5°𝐶
(a) 25σ, 6π (b) 25σ, 7π (c) 27σ, 7π (d) 27σ, 6π
9. Which of the following compounds will dissolve in an alkali solution after it has undergone
reaction with Hinsberg reagent?
(a) (C2H5) NH (b) (CH3)3N (c) CH3NH2 (d) C6H5NHC6H5
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
10.
Answer Keys
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b c a d c b c d c b
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XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
Test of Amines, Basicity, Diazonium salts, Cyanides and Isocynaides
5. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily
nitrosoamine is
(a) methylamine (b) ethylamine (c) diethylamine (d) triethylamine
©Byju’s 125
XI-STD Compounds Containing Nitrogen (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝐶𝑢2 (𝐶𝑁)2 𝐻 + ⁄𝐻2 𝑂
6. In the reaction, C6H5NH2 → (A) → (B) → (C) the product (C) is
0 − 5°𝐶 𝐾𝐶𝑁
(a) C6H5CH2NH2 (b) C6H5COOH (c) C6H5OH (d) all the above
Answer Keys
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d c c c b c d b b
©Byju’s 126
p – Block Elements
XI-STD p – Block Elements (Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Phosphorus forms its chloride in its first excited state in which the percentage of p-character in
the hybridized orbital of phosphorus is
a) 75 b) 20 c) 50 d) 60
4. The number of unprotonated oxygen atoms linked to phosphorous in H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4
respectively are
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 1, 0 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 1, 1
6. In P4O10 the number of oxygen atoms which are not acting as bridges
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
7. A and B are two gases. ‘A’ is identified with the glass rod dipped in NH3 and B is identified with
the glass rod dipped in HCl. Then A, B are
a) HCl, NO2 b) HCl, NH3 c) NH3, HCl d) NH3, SO2
8. The trend that is not observed down the group in hydrides of V A group elements is
a) bond length decreases b) bond angle decreases
c) reducing nature increases d) bond energy decreases
9. Calcium cyanamide on treatment with steam under pressure gives ammonia and
a) calcium carbonate b) calcium hydroxide
c) calcium oxide d) calcium bicarbonate
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
D D C D C B B A A D
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. Which among the following does not give oxyacid on hydrolysis ?
a) SCl4 b) NO2 c) OF2 d) PCl5
5. The chalcogen which has the number of electrons in penultimate and antipenultimate shell
a) oxygen b) sulphur c) selenium d) tellurium
8. Semiconducting chalcogen is
a) oxygen b) selenium c) polonium d) arsenic
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C B D A D D A B B A
©Byju’s 129
XI-STD p – Block Elements (Mains) – Test III Chemistry
1. O-Cl-O bond angle is least in
a) ClO2- b) ClO3- c) ClO4- d) all have same bond angle
4. Two gases A and B can respectively bleach the vegetable coloured matter by oxidation and
reduction
a) SO2 and Cl2 b) Cl2 and O3 c) Cl2 and SO2 d) O3 and Cl2
7. -
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
10. -
excited state if chlorine forms an inter halogen compound A, then which of the following is correct
about A.
a) the molecule is pyramidal b) in the molecule Cl is in sp3d hybridization
c) central atom will have two lone pairs d) the molecule has T shape
a) i and ii b) only ii c) ii, iii and iv d) i, ii and iii
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A A C C D C C C B C
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
1. XeF4 is formed by Xe in its
a) first excited state b) second excited state
c) third excited state d) fourth excited state
4. Number of bond pairs and lone pairs present respectively on the central atom of xenon
difluoride are
a) 4, 4 b) 2, 3 c) 6, 1 d) 4, 2
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B D A B D C A A D C
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. Which of the following is used for drying of ammonia ?
A) conc. H2SO4 B) CaO C) P2O5 D) anhydrous CaCl2
4. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is
an example of
A) oxidation B) reduction C) neutralization D) oxidation and reduction
10. The CN ion and N2 are isoelectronic. But in contrast to CN , N2 is chemically inert because of
A) low bond energy
B) absence of bond polarity
C) unsymmetrical electron distribution
D) presence of more number of electrons in bonding orbital
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B B A D A D B D C B
©Byju’s 133
XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test II Chemistry
1. When AgNO3 is heated strongly, the products formed are
A) NO and NO2 B) NO2 and N2O C) NO2 and O2 D) NO and O2
7. Among the species O 2 , O 22 , CO and O 22 , a sigma bond only is present in:
A) O 22 B) O 22 C) CO+ D) O 2
9. Which of the following is the correct order of gradually decreasing basic nature of oxides:
A) Al2O3. MgO, Cl2O7, SO3 B) Cl2O7, SO3, Al2O3, MgO
C) SO3, Cl2O7, MgO, Al2 D) MgO, Al2O, SO3, Cl2O7
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C C B B C B A C C A
©Byju’s 134
XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
1. Which of the following does not have S - S linkage:
A) S 2 O 82 B) S 2 O 62 C) S 2 O 52 D) S 2 O 32
3. At ordinary temperature and pressure, among halogens, chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and
iodine is a solid. This is because
A) The specific heat is in the order Cl2 > Br2 > I2
B) Intermolecular forces among molecules of chlorine are the weakest and those in the iodine the
strongest
C) The order of density is I2 > Br2 > Cl2
D) The order of stability is I2 > Br2 > Cl2
9. When cold NaOH reacts with Cl2 which of the following is formed ?
A) NaClO B) NaClO2 C) NaClO3 D) None
10. One gas bleaches the colours of flowers by reduction and the other by oxidation. The two gases
are respectively
A) CO and CO2 B) H2S and Br2 C) SO2 and Cl2 D) NH3 and SO2
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test III Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A A B B A B B C A C
©Byju’s 136
XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
1. Bleaching power is obtained by the interaction of chlorine and
A) Dry slaked lime B) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2
C) Dry calcium oxide D) Conc. Solution of Ca(OH)2
2. In the manufacture of bromine from seawater, the mother liquor containing bromides is treated
with
A) CO2 B) Cl2 C) I2 D) SO2
7. When SO2 is passed through an aqueous solution of iodine, it becomes colourless. This is due to
A) Bleaching of SO2 B) Formation of HI
C) Combination of SO2 and I2 D) Formation of HIO3
9. Assertion (A) : In the preparation of HBr from NaBr, HNO3 is used in preference to H3PO4.
Reason (R ) : HNO3 is a stronger acid than H3PO4
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true
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XI-STD p – Block Elements (Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A B A B D D B C D C
©Byju’s 138
Polymers
XI-STD Polymers (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
MCQ [One Correct Option]
1. Thermosetting polymers
(a) Normally remain soluble. (b) do not melt or soften on heating.
(c) cross linking occurs during heating (d) All are correct.
3. In vulcanization of Rubber
(a) Sulphur reacts to form a new compound. (b) Sulphur cross links are introduced.
(c)Sulphur forms a very thin protective layer over rubber (d) All statements are correct.
6. A high molecular weight molecule which does not contain repeating structural units is called a
(a) Polymer (b) Macromolecule (c) Both A and B (d) None of these.
7. Which one of the following molecules cannot serve as a monomer for an addition polymer?
(a) ClCH=CH2 (b) CH2 =CHCN (c)CH2 =CH-C6 H5 (d) CH3 - COOH
8. Polymers which contain a foreign molecule in addition to the recurring unit are known as
(a) Telomers (b) Addition polymers
(c) Synthetic polymers (d) Condensation polymer.
ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d b b b b b d a c c
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XI-STD Polymers (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
MCQ [One Correct Option]
(c) (d)
ANSWERS KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d a a b a b c c b d
©Byju’s 141
XI-STD Polymers (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
MCQ [One Correct Option]
1. Among cellulose, polyvinyl chloride,Nylon and natural rubber, the polymer in which the inter
molecular force of attraction is weakest is
(a)Nylon (b)Polyvinyl chloride (c) Cellulose (d) Natural Rubber
5. Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer Neoprene on polymerization?
(a) CH2=CHCl (b) CCl2=CCl2 (c) CH2=CCl –CH=CH2 (d) CF2=CF2
6. A Polymer which has better light transmission properties than even glass is
(a) Perspex (b) Bakelite (c) Buna-s (d) Polyethyl Acrylate.
ANSWERKEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
d c d b c a a,c,d b,c,d b, c a,c,d
©Byju’s 142
XI-STD Polymers (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
MCQs] [One Correct Option]
1. When polythene bags are burnt the nomious fumes produced are
(a) Hcl, HCN, CO (b)CO2 ,H2 O (c) CS2, NO2 ,CO2 (d) All the Above
2. When the unit of polythene is treated with B2 H6 , Followed by alkaline H2 O2 the product obtained
is
(a) CH3 CH2 OH (b) CH3 COOH (c) CH3 COCH3 (d) None of these.
Passage: An Aromatic compound (C8 H7Cl) decolorizes Br2 /H2 O. In presence of Pt when heated , (A)
forms a homopolymer. Ozonolysis of mother compound gives aldehydes as the products. Mother
compound can also be to obtain renowned oxidizing agent (MCPBA).
6. When the ozonized product is treated with PCl5 the new product obtained is
©Byju’s 143
XI-STD Polymers (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
Assertion [Reason ,Type]
Each Question contains statement 1 (Assertion ) and Statement -2 (Reason) of these statements,
Mark correct choice if
(a) Statements-1 and 2 are true and statement is a correct explanations for statements-1.
(b) Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement -2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1.
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(d) statement-1 is false,statement-2 is true.
ANSWERS KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a a a a c a b b d d
©Byju’s 144
Solid State
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions:
(a) a = b = c and 𝛼 = 𝛽 = 𝛾 = 90° (b) a = b ≠ 𝑐 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛼 = 𝛽 = 𝛾 = 90°
(c) a ≠ 𝑏 ≠ 𝑐 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛼 = 𝛽 = 𝛾 = 90° (d) a b c and 900 , 900
2. The number of atoms per unit cell in a simple cubic, face-centred cubic and body-centred cubic
x y
are x, y and z respectively, then is ;
z
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 4
3. A compound formed by elements X,Y and Z. Atoms of Y forms ccp lattice and X occupies half the
octahedral voids and Z occupies half the tetrahedral voids. The formula of compound is :
(a) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍3 (b) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍4 (c) 𝑋2 𝑌𝑍3 (d) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍2
4. Atoms of element B forms hcp lattice and those of the element A occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral
voids. The formula of the compound formed by these elements A and B is :
(a) 𝐴3 𝐵4 (b) 𝐴4 𝐵3 (c) 𝐴2 𝐵3 (d) 𝐴3 𝐵2
5. In a solid , oxide ions are arranged in CCP. Cations ‘A’ occupy one sixth of the tetrahedral voids
and cations ‘B’ occupy one third of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :
(a) 𝐴𝐵𝑂3 (b) 𝐴𝐵2 𝑂3 (c) 𝐴2 𝐵𝑂3 (d) 𝐴2 𝐵2 𝑂3
10. The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have
coordination number of eight. The crystal class is
(a) Simple cubic (b) Body centred cubic (c) Face centred cubic (d) None
©Byju’s 146
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B C D B A D C D A B
©Byju’s 147
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. Lithium forms BCC crystals. The atomic radius of lithium if the edge of side of a unit cell of lithium
is 351 pm
(a) 702pm (b) 152pm (c) 175pm (d) 504pm
2. How many unit cells are present in 39 g of potassium that crystallizes in body-centred cubic
structure
𝑁
(a) 𝑁𝐴 (b) 4𝐴 (c) 0.5𝑁𝐴 (d) 0.75𝑁𝐴
3. In a closed packed array of N spheres ,the total number of tetrahedral and octahedral holes are :
(a) 3 N (b) N (c) 2N (d) 4 N
4. If a metal crystallizes in face-centred cubic and body-centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’.
Then the ratio between radius of metal atom in FCC to the BCC is
(a) √3 ∶ √2 (b) 2√2 ∶ √3 (c) √2 ∶ √3 (d) 2 : √3
5. An element has a body-centred cubic structure with cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the
element is 7.2 g/cc. How many atoms are present in 208 g of the element?
(a)24.17× 1023 (b) 12.7× 1023 (c) 6.023× 1023 (d) 3 × 1023
8. The ratio between fraction of the volume occupied by the spheres in a hexagonal close packed
structure to the cubic close packed structure would be:
(a) 1:2 (b) 1.08 : 1.00 (c)1.42 : 1.00 (d) 1 : 1
9. A metal crystallizes into two cubic phases, face centred cubic and body centred cubic whose unit
cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 nm, respectively. The ratio of densities of FCC and BCC will be:
(a) 3.5 : 3.0 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1.259 : 1 (d)1 : 1.5
10. NH4Cl crystallizes in a body-centered cubic type lattice with a unit cell edge length of 387 pm.
The distance between the oppositely charged ions in the lattice is
(a) 335.1 pm (b) 83.77 pm (c) 274.46 pm (d) 137.23 pm
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B C A C A D A D C A
©Byju’s 148
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Mains) – Test III Chemistry
1. In a solid lattice ,the cation has left a lattice site and is located at interstitial position ,the lattice
defect is :
(a) F-centre (b) Schottky defect (c)Vacancy defect (d) Frenkel defect
2. Analysis shows that a metal oxide has the empirical formula of M 0.96O1.00 . The percentage of
M 3 ions in this crystal is:
(a) 91.7% (b) 16.8% (c) 8.3% (d) 96%
3. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g?
(a) 2.57 × 1021 (b) 5.14 × 1021 (c) 1.28 × 1021 (d) 1.71 × 1021
4. If NaCl is dopped with 104 mole % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be :
(a) 6.02 × 1012 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (b) 6.02 × 1017 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
(c) 6.02 × 1014 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (d) 6.02 × 1015 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
5. Which one of the following statements is wrong about Zinc blende type structure
(a) Each zinc ion is surrounded by four sulphide ions tetrahedrally
(b) Sulphide ions form FCC arrangement
(c) AgBr has zinc blende type structure
(d) Cuprous halides have zinc blende type structure
6. AgCI has same structure as that of NaCl . The edge length of unit cell of AgCl is found to be 555
pm and the density of AgCl is 5.561 g/cc. The percentage of sites that are unoccupied is:
(a) 0.066% (b)0.003% (c)0.087% (d)0.245%
10. An ionic compound AB has ZnS type structure. If the radius of A+ is 22.5 pm, then the
ideal radius of B– would be
(a) 54.35 pm (b) 100 pm (c) 145.16 pm (d) none of these
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
D C A B C D D A D B
©Byju’s 149
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. Which is not the property of crystalline solid ?
(a) Isotropic (b) Sharp M.pt
(c)A definite and regular geometry (d) High intermolecular forces
2. The number of atoms per unit cell in a simple cubic, face-centred cubic and body-centred cubic
x y
are x, y and z respectively, then is ;
z
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 4
3. A compound formed by elements X,Y and Z. Atoms of Y forms ccp lattice and ‘X’ occupies half the
octahedral voids and ‘Z’ occupies half the tetrahedral voids. The formula of compound is :
(a) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍3 (b) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍4 (c) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍2 (d) 𝑋𝑌2 𝑍2
4. Atoms of element B forms hcp lattice and those of the element A occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral
voids. The formula of the compound formed by these elements A and B is :
(a) 𝐴3 𝐵4 (b) 𝐴4 𝐵3 (c) 𝐴2 𝐵3 (d) 𝐴3 𝐵2
5. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure , ‘A’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all
the face centred atoms along one of the axis are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the
solid will be :
(a) 𝐴𝐵2 (b) 𝐴2 𝐵 (c) 𝐴4 𝐵3 (d) 𝐴3 𝐵4
6. In a solid , oxide ions are arranged in CCP. Cations ‘A’ occupy one sixth of the tetrahedral voids
and cations ‘B’ occupy one third of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :
(a) 𝐴𝐵𝑂3 (b) 𝐴𝐵2 𝑂3 (c) 𝐴2 𝐵𝑂3 (d) 𝐴2 𝐵3 𝑂3
7. If the unit cell of a mineral has cubic close packed (ccp) array of oxygen atoms with ‘m’ fraction of
octahedral holes occupied by aluminium ions and ‘n’ fraction of tetrahedral holes occupied by
magnesium ions , then’ m’ and ‘n’ respectively are
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) 1, (c) , (d) ,
2 8 4 2 2 4 8
10. The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have
coordination number of eight. The crystal class is
(a) Simple cubic (b) Body centred cubic (c) Face centred cubic (d) None
©Byju’s 150
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A C D B D A A D A B
©Byju’s 151
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
1. If a metal crystallizes in face-centred cubic and body-centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’.
Then the ratio between radius of metal atom in FCC to the BCC is
(a) √3 ∶ √2 (b) 2√2 ∶ √3 (c) √2 ∶ √3 (d) 2 ∶ √3
2. An element has a body-centred cubic structure with cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the
element is 7.2 g/cc. How many atoms are present in 208 g of the element?
(a) 24.17 × 1023 (b) 12.7 × 1023 (c) 6.023 × 1023 (d) 3 × 1023
3. A face centred cubic lattice is made up of a single type of atom and one of its corner is left
unoccupied per unit cell. The packing fraction of such solid is:
(a) 0.74 (b) 0.68 (c) 0.54 (d) 0.717
4. An element crystallizes in FCC lattice having edge length of 400 pm. The maximum diameter which
can be placed in interstitial sites without disturbing the structure is:
(a) 200 pm (b) 117.1 pm (c) 141.4 pm (d) 173.2 pm
5. Silver has a cubic unit cell with edge length 408 pm. Its density is 10.6 g/cc. Then the crystal
structure of silver is:
(a) BCC (b) FCC (c) HCP (d) Primitive
6. CdO has structure similar to NaCl with density 8.27 g/cc. If the radius of O 2 is 1.24 pm. Then the
ionic radius of Cd 2 is :
(a) 1.1 pm (b)2.25 pm (c) 1.48 pm (d) 1.96 pm
7. In diamond , carbon atom occupy FCC lattice points as well as alternate tetrahedral voids. If edge
length of the unit cell is 356 pm, then the radius of carbon atom is:
(a) 77.07 pm (b)154.14 pm (c)251.7 pm (d)89 pm
9. A metal crystallizes into two cubic phases, face centred cubic and body centred cubic whose unit
cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 nm, respectively. The ratio of densities of FCC and BCC will be:
(a) 3.5 : 3.0 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1.259 : 1 (d)1 : 1.5
10. Lithium boro hydride crystallizes in an orthorhombic system with 4 molecules per unit cell. The
unit cell dimensions are a=6.8 A0, b=4.4 A0 and c= 7.2A0 ; if the cell molar mass is 21.76 then the
density of the crystal is
(a) 0.6708 gm/cc (b)1.6708 gm/cc (c)2.6708 gm/cc (d) 3.6708 gm/ cc
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C A D B B A A C C A
©Byju’s 152
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
1. Analysis shows that a metal oxide has the empirical formula of M 0.96O1.00 . The percentage of
M 3 ions in this crystal is:
(a) 91.7% (b) 16.8% (c) 8.3% (d) 96%
2. For a crystal ,the angle of diffraction 2 is 900 and the second order line has a ‘d’ value of 2.28
0 0
A . The wavelength (in A ) of X-rays used in Bragg’s diffraction is :
(a) 1.61 (b) 2.00 (c) 2.28 (d) 4.00
4. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g?
(a) 2.57 10 (b) 5.14 1021 (c) 1.28 1021 (d) 1.711021
21
5. If NaCl is dopped with 104 mole % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be :
(a) 6.02 × 1012 mol−1 (b) 6.02 × 1017 mol−1
14 −1
(c) 6.02 × 10 mol (d) 6.02 × 1015 mol−1
2
6. The limiting radius ratio of the complex Ni CN 4 is:
(a) 0.225-0.414 (b)0.414-0.732 (c)0.155-0.225 (d)0.732-0.99
7. AgCl has same structure as that of NaCl . The edge length of unit cell of AgCl is found to be
555 pm and the density of AgCl is 5.561 g/cc. The percentage of sites that are unoccupied is:
(a) 0.066% (b)0.003% (c)0.087% (d)0.245%
9. What is the maximum ratio of foreign atom radius (i.e., H atom) to host atom (i.e., Ti radius) that
can be occupied in tetrahedral voids without causing a strain in the host lattice
(a)0.225 (b)0.414 (c) 0.732 (d)0.9
10. Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements.
I. In an anti-fluorite structure, anions form FCC lattice and cations occupy all tetrahedral voids.
II. If the radius of cations and anions are 0.2 Å and 0.95 Å then coordinate number of cation in
the crystal is 4.
III. An atom/ion is transferred from a lattice site to an interstitial position in Frenkel defect.
IV.Density of crystal always increases due to substitutional impurity defect.
(a) TFFF (b) FTTF (c) TFFT (d) TFT
©Byju’s 153
XI-STD Solid State (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C A C A B B D D A D
©Byju’s 154
Solutions
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. Calculate the mass percentage of ethanol in a solution obtained by dissolving 50g of ethanol in
250g of water.
(a) 16.667 (b) 27.667 (c) 11.667 (d) 16.868
2. 25ml of benzene is mixed with 150ml of toluene. Calculate the volume percentage of toluene in
the solution.
(a) 96.77 (b) 85.72 (c) 15.77 (d) 75.52
3. In a sample of water (200g) contains 6 × 10−4 g of dissolved oxygen. Calculate the ppm
concentration of oxygen.
(a) 14 (b) 19 (c) 07 (d) 3
4. 234g of benzene is mixed with 460g of toluene. Calculate the mole fractions of benzene and
toluene in the solution.
(a) 0.28 (b) 0.625 (c) 0.985 (d) 0.76
5. Calculate the molarity of a solution obtained by dissolving 10g of NaOH in 1500cc of solution.
(Molecular mass of NaOH = 40)
(a) 9.1667 M (b) 0.6968 M (c) 0.1667 M (d) 3.1697 M
6. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in a solution containing 30% by mass of carbon
tetrachloride.
(a) 0.822 (b) 0.32 (c) 0.462 (d) 0.992
7. Calculate the molarity a solution of potassium iodide if the density of 20% (w/w)
solution is 1.202g/cc.
(a) 2.55M (b) 0.34 M (c) 6.15 M (d) 1.45M
8. A Solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% (w/w). what is the molality of glucose in the
solution? If the density of the solution is 1.2g/cc.
(a) 0.61m (b) 0.7m (c) 0.44m (d) 2.69m
9. How many grams of dibasic acid (Mol. Wt = 200) should be present in 100mL of its aqueous
solution to give decinormal strength
(a) 1g (b) 2g (c) 10g (d) 20g
10. Specific gravity of commercial sulphuric acid is 1.8 and it is 98% pure. Volume of this acid
required for preparing 7.2 litres of decinormal sulphuric acid is
(a) 10mL (b) 20mL (c) 72mL (d) 4mL
11. If 50mL of 0.1M NaCl and 50mL of 0.1M BaCl2 are mixed, molarity of Chloride ion in the resulting
solution will be
(a) 0.2M (b) 0.3M (c) 0.15M (d) 0.1M
Key(c)
©Byju’s 156
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. B
©Byju’s 157
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. Calculate the solubility of nitrogen gas in 1L of water if the partial pressure of nitrogen is 0.98bar.
KH of nitrogen = 76.5kbar.
(a) 14.19 × 10−5 moles/litre (b) 7.11 × 10−4 moles/litre
(c) 17.14 × 10−4 moles/litre (d) 12.16 × 10−3 moles/litre
2. Henry’s law constant for carbon dioxide in water is 1.67 × 108 Pa at 298K. Calculate the quantity
of carbon dioxide in 500ml of soda water when packed under a pressure of 2.5atm of CO2 at 298K
(a) 0.568moles/500cc (b) 0.01moles/500cc
(c) 1.0923moles/500cc (d) 0.0413moles/500cc
3. Vapour pressures of chloroform and dichloromethane are respectively equal to 200mm and
400mm of Hg at 298K. Calculate the vapour pressure of a mixture obtained by mixing 17g of
dichloromethane and 29.875g of chloroform at 298K. Also calculate the mole fraction of
chloroform in vapour phase.
(a) 0.49 (b) 0.84 (c) 0.29 (d) 0.71
4. Benzene and toluene forms ideal solution at 300k. The vapour pressures of benzene and toluene
at 300K are 90 mm and 32mm respectively. Also calculate the composition of toluene vapours at
equilibrium.
(a) 0.263 (b) 0.563 (c)0.36 (d) 0.8
5. The vapour pressure of pure solvent ‘X’ is 0.85bar at a certain temperature. 0.5g of a non –
volatile solute is added to 39g of ‘X’. The vapour pressure of solution is 0.845bar. Calculate the
molar mass of solute.
(a) 682g/mol (b) 396g/mol (c) 172g/mol (d) 226g/mol
7. Benzene and toulene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75torr and that of toulene is 22torr. The partial pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution
containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toulene in torr is
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 37.5 (d) 53.5
8. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298K is 1.0 x 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298K
and 5 atm pressure is
(a) 4 x 10-4 (b) 4 x 10-5 (c) 5 x 10-4 (d) 4 x 10-6
9. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 2
mol of Xand 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature if 1 mol of Y is further added to
this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure(in mm Hg)
of X and Y in their pure state will be respectively
(a) 200 and 300 (b) 460 and 610 (c)400 and 600 (d) 500 and 600
©Byju’s 158
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
10. From the diagram given below which compound would be most easily purified by
recrystallization from water?
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) KBr
(d) KNO3
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
©Byju’s 159
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test III Chemistry
1. Vapour pressure of pure water is 23.8mm at 298K. 50g of urea is added to 850g of water.
Calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure.
(a) 0.26 (b) 0.078 (c) 0.2648 (d) 0.0176
2. 18g of glucose is added to 1kg of water. At what temperature, the solution will boil at 1atm
pressure? (Boiling point of pure water is 373K, Kb = 0.52K kg 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
(a) 373.52 (b) 489.57 (c)378.92 (d) 368.62
3. 50g of ethylene glycol is mixed with 800g of water. Calculate the freezing point of solution.
(freezing point of Water = 273K, Kf = 1.86K kg 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1)
(a) 248.125K (b) 262.124K (c) 271.125K (d) 259.115K
4. A 5% solution (w/w) of cane sugar in water has a freezing point of 272.7K. Calculate the freezing
point of 5% solution (w/w) of glucose in water. (freezing point of water = 273K)
(a) 262.93K (b) 272.43K (c) 257.33K (d) 289.41K
5. 200cc of aqueous solution contains 1.3g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution is 2.6
× 10−3 bar at 300K. Calculate the molecular mass of protein.
(a) 42,950 (b) 56,150 (c) 78,650 (d) 62,250
6. The vapour pressure of water at 23°C is 19.8 mm. 0.1 mole of glucose is dissolved in 178.2 g of
water. What is the vapour pressure (in mm) of the resultant.
(a) 19.0 (b) 19.602 (c) 19.402 (d) 19.202
7. Two elements A and B form compounds of formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20.0g of
benzene 1.0g of AB2 lowers freezing point by 2.3°C whereas 1.0g of AB4 lowers freezing point by
1.3°C. The Kf for benzene is 5.1 K Kg/mol. The atomic masses of A and B are
(a)27, 45 (b) 42, 25 (c) 52, 48 (d) 48, 52
8. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 300cc of 2% (m/v) solution of
urea with 300cc of 3.42% solution of sucrose at 20°C? (R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1)
(a) 5 atm (b) 5.2 atm (c) 2.6 atm (d) 4.5 atm
9. If the elevation in boiling point of solution of 10g of solute (molecular weight=100) in 100gm of
water is ∆Tb, The ebulloscopic constant of water is
(a) 10 (b) 10∆Tb (c) ∆Tb (d) ∆Tb/10
10. The boiling point of a solution of 0.11g of a substance in 15g of ether was found to be 0.1 0c
higher than that of pure ether. The molecular mass of the substance will be (Kb=2.16 K Kg/mol)
(a) 148 (b) 158 (c) 168 (d) 178
©Byju’s 160
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test III Chemistry
11. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that
(i) the vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
(ii) the vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
(iii) only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
(iv) only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point
(a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) i, iv (d) i, ii, iii
Key: (c)
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
©Byju’s 161
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Mains) – Test IV Chemistry
1. 1.8g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 25g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point of 1.62K.
Calculate the percentage association of benzoic acid in benzene. (K f = 5 K kg mol−1 )
(a) 84.1 (b) 71.7 (c) 90.2 (d) 18.6
2. 0.6cc of acetic acid having density 1.06g/cc is dissolved in 1litre of water. The depression in
freezing point is 0.0205K. Calculate the dissociation constant of acetic acid.
(a) 2.74 × 10−2 (b) 1.69 × 10−5 (c) 6.38 × 10−4 (d) 8.9 × 10−5
3. Which of the following will have hightest boiling point at 1 atm pressure?
(a) 0.1m NaCl (b) 0.1m Sucrose (c) 0.1m BaCl2 (d) 0.1m glucose
5. Osmatic pressure of 0.1M aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 300K is 4.92 atm. What will be the
percentage ionization of the salt?
(a) 73% (b) 59% (c) 49% (d) 62%
7. 0.1m aqueous solution of NaBr freezes at -0.3350 C at atmospheric pressure, Kf for water is 1.860C.
The percentage dissociation of the salt in solution is
(a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 58 (d) 98
8. The Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is
(a) 91.3% (b)87% (c) 100% (d) 74%
9. 12.2g of C6H5COOH is dissolved in 1kg of CH3COCH3 (Kb = 1.9k kg mol-1) and in 1 kg C6H6 (Kb=2.6 K
Kg/mole) separately - The elevations of boiling point are 0.190C and 0.130C respectively. In which
solution is benzoic acid dimerizing.
(a) Benzene (b) Acetone (c) In both (d) None
10. Calculate the freezing point of 0.1m HX solution which is 30% dissociated and Kf of water is 1.86
K.Kg. mol−1
(a) – 0.242° C (b) + 0.242° C (c) – 0.962° C (d) + 0.562° C
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A
©Byju’s 162
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. 5g of NaCI is dissolved in 1000g of water. If the density of the resultant solution is 0.997g/cc,
calculate the mole fraction of solute.
(a) 0.0143 (b) 0.0253 (c) 0.0019 (d) 0.00153
2. Calculate the molality of a solution made by mixing equal volume of 30% (w/w) H2SO4
(density = 1.22g/cc) and 70% (w/w) of H2SO4 (density = 1.6g/cc)
(a) 6.8m (b) 8.9 m (c) 7.58m (d) 11.36m
3. 400g of 20% (w/w) solution is cooled. 50g of solute is precipitated. What is the mass percentage
of the remaining solution?
(a) 8.57 (b) 6.47 (c) 9.66 (d) 3.51
4. Specific gravity of commercial sulphuric acid is 1.8 and it is 98% pure. Volume of this acid required
for preparing 7.2 litres of decinormal sulphuric acid is
(a) 10mL (b) 20mL (c) 72mL (d) 4mL
5. If 50mL of 0.1M NaCl and 50mL of 0.1M BaCl2 are mixed, molarity of Chloride ion in the resulting
solution will be
(a) 0.2M (b) 0.3M (c) 0.15M (d) 0.1M
6. 50mL of 0.2N K2Cr2O7 is required to oxidise 40mL FeSO4 solution in acidic medium. The weight of
iron present in litres if atomic weight of iron is 56.
(a) 14g (b) 1.4g (c) 140g (d) 28g
7. The density of 2M solution of acetic acid (molecular weight 60) is 1.02g/mL. The morality of
solution is
(a) 1.0m (b) 2m (c) 2.22 m (d) 2.25m
8. In the aqueous of sulphuric acid, the mole fraction of water is 0.849. The molality of the solution
is
(a) 8.9m (b) 0.19m (c) 9.8m (d) 15m
10. Rectified spirit contains 95% ethanol by weight, the molefraction of ethanol will be
(a) 0.881 (b) 0.99 (c)0.118 (d) 0.81
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A
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XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
1. Calculate the concentration of carbon dioxide in a soft drink bottle with a partial pressure of
carbon dioxide of 4atm at 298K. The Henry’s constant for carbon dioxide at 298K is
3× 10−2 molL−1 atm−1
(a)0 .51mol/L (b) 0.2mol/L (c) 0.12mol/L (d) 0.84mol/L
2. At 370 𝐶 and 0.8atm partial pressure, the solubility of nitrogen is 5.6× 10−4mol/L.A deep sea
water diver breathes compressed air at a partial pressure a nitrogen equal to 4.0atm. The total
volume of the blood in his body is 5L. After some time, he comes back to surface where the
partial pressure of nitrogen is 0.8atm. Calculate the volume of nitrogen escaped during his return
from depth to the surface at 370 𝐶 and 1 atm pressure.
(a) 1.2L (b) 0.28L (c) 0.8L (d) 1.5L
3. The vapour pressure of benzene and toluene at 850 C is 950mm and 370mm respectively.
Calculate the composition of the mixture which boils at 850 C
(a) 0.44,0.66 (b) 0.78,0.22 (c) 0.5,0.5 (d) 0.672,0.328
4. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. The total vapour pressure of mixture of A and B is
given by the equation P = 250 – 120 XA, where XA is the mole fraction of A in the liquid mixture.
Calculate the total vapour pressure of equimolar mixture of A and B.
(a) 190mm (b) 240mm (c) 360mm (d) 110mm
5. Benzene and toluene forms ideal solutions at 200C. The vapour pressures of pure benzene and
toluene are 75mm and 22mm respectively at 200C. In a mixture of benzene and toluene, if the
mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase is 0.63, calculate the total vapour pressure of the
solution.
(a) 46.15mm (b) 38.65mm (c) 29.35mm (d) 39.65mm
6. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution at 300K. The vapour pressure of a solution containing 1
mole of A and 3 moles of B is 550mm of Hg. On adding one more mole of B to the solution, the
vapour pressure increases by 10mm of Hg. Calculate the vapour pressures of pure A and B.
(a) 400mm,600mm (b) 350mm,550m (c) 470mm,530mm (d) 580mm,220mm
7. Two liquids A and B form ideal solution. A mixture of A and B is placed in a cylinder fitted with a
piston. The piston is pulled out isothermally so that volume of vapour increases and volume of
liquid decreases. When negligibly small amount of liquid is remaining, the mole fraction of A in
vapour phase is 0.6. if the vapour pressure of pure A and B are 0.6atm and 1.5atm respectively.
Calculate the total pressure at which the liquid is almost vapourized.
(a) 0.8atm (b) 0.4atm (c) 0.56atm (d) 0.26atm
8. Benzene and toulene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75torr and that of toulene is 22torr. The partial pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution
containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toulene in torr is
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 37.5 (d) 53.5
9. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298K is 1.0 x 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298K
and 5 atm pressure is
(a) 4 x 10-4 (b) 4 x 10-5 (c) 5 x 10-4 (d) 4 x 10-6
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XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
10. A solution containing benzene and toluene in the same ratio of 6:4 has a vapour pressure of
667.06 mm of Hg at 850C. A solution at same temperature containing C6H6 and C6H5CH3 in the
ratio of 4:6 has vapour pressure of 559.74, what would be the mole ratio of benzene and toluene
which would boil at this temperature. (Atmospheric pressure = 760mm of Hg)
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 2:3
ANSWERKEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C B D A D A A A A B
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XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
1. Calculate the mass of non – volatile solute (Mwt=40) which should be added to 342g of octane to
reduce the vapour pressure to 60% of its initial value.
(a) 240g (b) 150g (c) 180g (d)3760g
2. The Osmotic pressure of the blood is 7.65atm at 370 C. How much glucose should be dissolved in
100cc of the solution so that it can be used for an intravenous injection?
(a) 2.8g (b) 6.9g (c) 5.4g (d) 7.2g
3. An aqueous solution contains 5% by mass of urea and 10% by mass of glucose. Calculate the
freezing point of this solution. (𝐾𝑓 = 1.86 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
(a) −3.080 C (b) −6.070 C (c)- 8.020 C (d) −3.030 C
4. A mixture contains 0.55g of camphor and 0.045g of an organic solute freezes at 1570C. The
freezing point of pure camphor is 178.40C. The organic solute contains 93.5% carbon and 6.5%
hydrogen. Calculate the molecular formula of the solute(𝐾𝑓 = 37.7 𝑘𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
(a) (C6 H5 )2 (b) (C4 H5 )3 (c) (C2 H4 )2 (d) (C5 H5 )2
5. A solution of urea has a boiling point of 100. 180C. Calculate the freezing point of the same
solution.
(K f = 0.52K kg mol−1 and K f = 1.86K kg mol−1 )
(a) – 4.7430C (b) – 2.6430C (c) – 0.5830C (d) – 0.6430C
6. The temperature of a city was found to be -9.3°C. A car was used whose radiator was filled with 5L
of water. What quantity fo antifreezing agent ethylene glycol were added to water of radiator in
order to use the car for travelling? (Kf of water is 1.86K Kgmol-1)
(a) 3200g (b) 1670g (c) 1550g (d) 2100g
7. Two elements A and B form compounds of formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20.0g of
benzene 1.0g of AB2 lowers freezing point by 2.3°C whereas 1.0g of AB4 lowers freezing point by
1.3°C. The Kf for benzene is 5.1 K Kg/mol. The atomic masses of A and B are
(a) 27, 45 (b) 42, 25 (c) 52, 48 (d) 48, 52
8. If the elevation in boiling point of solution of 10g of solute (molecular weight=100) in 100gm of
water is ∆Tb , The ebulloscopic constant of water is
(a) 10 (b) 10∆Tb (c) ∆Tb (d) ∆Tb/10
9. At 100C, the osmotic pressure of urea is 500mm. The solution is diluted and temperature is raised
to 250 C, when the osmotic pressure is found to be 105.3mm, The extent of dilution will be
(a) 2 times (b) 5 times (c) 6 times (d) 4 times
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XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test III Chemistry
10. Compartments A and B have the following combinations of solution
A B
1. 0.1 M KCl 0.2M KCl
2. 0.1% (m/v) NaCl 10%(m/v) NaCl
3. 18g/L C6H12O6 34.2 g/L Sucrose
4. 20% (m/v) C6H12O6 10% (m/v) urea
The solution in which compartment B is hypertonic
(a) 1,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 3,4 (d) 1,4
ANSWERKEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
C C D A D C A C B A
©Byju’s 167
XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
1. 0.1m aqueous solution of NaBr freezes at -0.3350 C at atmospheric pressure, Kf for water is 1.860C.
The percentage dissociation of the salt in solution is
(a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 58 (d) 98
2. The Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is
(a) 91.3% (b) 87% (c) 100% (d) 74
3. Tritium T3 (an isotope of H) combines with flourine to form weak aid TF, which gets ionized to give
T⨁ A freshly prepared aqueous solution of TF has pT (equivalent of PH) of 1.5 and freezes at -
0.3720C. If 600 mL of freshly prepared solution were allowed to be retained for 24.8 years,
calculate the ionization constant of TF (given Kf for H2O = 1.86)
(a) 7.299×10-3 (b) 14.598×10-3 (c) 7.299×10-2 (d) 14.599×10-2
4. 12.2g of C6H5COOH is dissolved in 1kg of CH3COCH3 (Kb = 1.9k kg mol-1) and in 1 kg C6H6 (Kb=2.6 K
Kg/mole) separately - The elevations of boiling point are 0.190C and 0.130C respectively. In which
solution is benzoic acid dimerizing.
(a) Benzene (b) Acetone (c) In both (d) None
5. A current of dry air was bubbled through a bulb containing 26.66g of an organic compound in
200g of H2O, then through a bulb at same temperature containing water and finally through bulb
containing anhydrous CaCl2 . The loss of mass in the bulb containing water was 0.087g and the
gain in the mass of CaCl2 tube was 2.036g ,the molecular mass of organic substance is
(a) 56.25 (b) 53.75 (c) 46.25 (d) 64.75
6. The values of observed and calculated molecular weights of silver nitrate are 92.64 and 170
respectively. The degree of dissociation of silver nitrate is
(a) 60% (b) 83.5% (c) 46.7% (d) 60.23%
7. A 0.2m aqueous solution of KCI freezes at −0.680C. Calculate the osmotic pressure of the
solution at 273K. (K f = 1.86K kg mol−1)
(a) 4.18atm (b) 5.26atm (c) 8.15atm (d) 7.25atm
8. A 0.01m aqueous solution of K3[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]freezes at −0.070C. What is the degree of dissociation
of the complex? (K f = 1.86K kg mol−1)
(a) 58% (b) 69% (c) 45% (d) 92%
9. 1g of monobasic acid when dissolved in 100g of water lowers the freezing point by 0.168 0C. 0.2g
of the same acid when dissolved and titrated requires 15.1cc of 0.1N alkali. Calculate the
dissociation constant of the acid. (K f = 1.86K kg mol−1)
(a) 0.003 (b) 0.026 (c) 0.08 (d) 0.0004
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XI-STD Solutions (JEE Advance) – Test IV Chemistry
10. 1.1g of CoCI3.6NH3 (M = 267) was dissolved in 100g of water. The freezing point of the solution
was – 0.290C. Determine the molecular formula of the complex. (K f = 1.86K kg mol−1)
(a) [Co(NH3 )5 𝐶𝑙]CI2
(b) [Co(NH3 )4 𝐶𝑙2]Cl
(c) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
(d) [Co(NH3 )3 𝐶𝑙3]
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B B A A B B C D A C
©Byju’s 169
Surface Chemistry
XI-STD Surface Chemistry (JEE Mains) – Test I Chemistry
1. There is no scum formation when hard water is being used. The Washing powder can be
(a) C17 H35COO Na
(b) R SO3 Na
5. Chromatography is based on
(a) Chemical Adsorption (b) Physical Adsorption
(c) Hydrogen Bonding (d) Sedimentation
10. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when jpassed through the filter
paper. The liquid can be described as
(a) A Suspension (b) Oil (c) Colloidal Sol (d) True Solution
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b d d c b b b a b c
©Byju’s 171
XI-STD Surface Chemistry (JEE Mains) – Test II Chemistry
1. The separation of colloidal particles from those of Molecular dimensions is known as
(a) Photolysis (b) Dialysis (c) Pyrolysis (d) Peptisation
2. In which one of the following properties emulsions differ from colloidal sols?
(a) Tyndall effect (b) Brownian Movement
(c) Electrophoresis (d) Size of the particles of the dispersed phase.
5. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log (𝑥⁄𝑚) Vs log P is linear with slope equal to
( n being whole number)
1
(a) K (b) log K (c) n (d) 𝑛
9. Energy of Activation of forward and backward reactions are equal in cases (numerical values)
where
(a) ∆𝐻 = 𝑂 (b) No catalyse is present
(c) ∆𝑆 = 𝑂 (d) Stoichiometry is the mechanism
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
b d c d d a a a a c
©Byju’s 172
XI-STD Surface Chemistry (JEE Advance) – Test I Chemistry
1. Among the following, the surfactant that will form micelles in Aqueous solution at the lowest
Molar concentration at ambient conditions is
(a) CH3 (CH2 )15 N + (CH3 )3 Br − (b) CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO3 − Na
− +
(c) CH3 (CH2 )6 COO Na (d) CH3 (CH2 )11 N + (CH3 )3 Br −
2. Among the electrolytes 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 , 𝐶𝑎 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐴𝑙2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 and 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 , the most effective coagulating
agent for 𝑆𝑏2 𝑆3 sol is
(a) Na2 SO4 (b) Ca Cl2 (c) Al2 (SO4 )3 (d) NH4 Cl
6. The addition of Alcohol to a saturated aqueous solution of Calcium acetate first forms a sol and
then gets converted to a gelatinous mass called solid Alcohol which is a
(a) Solid Sol (b) Aerosol (c) Solid form (d) Gel
9. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective in causing coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol?
(a) KBr (b) 𝐾2 𝑆𝑂4 (c) 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟𝑂4 (d) K3[Fe (𝐶𝑁)6 ]
10. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains colourless. Then it is
(a) O-in-W (b) W-in-O (c) O-in-O (d) W-in-W
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
a c a b d d d d a a
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XI-STD Surface Chemistry (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
MCQs ( One Correct Option)
4. When KClO3 is heated, it decomposes to KCl and O2 . If some MnO2 is added, the reaction goes
much faster because
(a) MnO2 acts as catalyst (b) MnO2 converts KClO3 into KCl
(c) It provides heat (d) None of these
5. In oxidation of oxalic acid by 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 , the colour of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 disappears slowly at the start of
reaction but disappears very fast afterwards. This is an example of
(a) Induced catalysis (b) Auto catalysis (c) Negative catalysis (d) Enzyme catalysis
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XI-STD Surface Chemistry (JEE Advance) – Test II Chemistry
6. In the stoichiometry of Natural faujasite a zeolite with formula
Nax [ (AlO2 )56 (SiO2 )136 ] 250 H2 O, the value of x is
(a) 12 (b) 56 (c) 136 (d) 256
9. 400ml of standard gold sol is just prevented from coagulation by the addition of 0.96g of starch
before adding 1ml of 10% NaCl solution, the gold number will be
(a) 2.4 (b) 76 (c) 240 (d) 24
10. The rate of a certain biochemical reaction catalysed by an Enzyme in human body is 104 times
faster than when it is carried out in the laboratory. The activation energy of this reaction is
(a) Zero (b) Different in two cases
(c) The same in both the cases (d) None of these
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c c a a b b b b d b
©Byju’s 175
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