CFA Level 1 Practice Test 1 - 300hours

300Hours: CFA Level 1 Practice Test 1
This Chartered Financial Analyst (CFA®) Practice Test has 60 questions.
To best simulate the exam day experience, candidates are advised to allocate an average of 1.5
minutes per question for a total of 90 minutes (1.5 hours) for this session of the exam.
Once completed, please submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,
performance benchmark and answer explanations.

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1. Ethical and Professional Standards
Asmita Mack, CFA, lives in the country of Onionland. Each morning, Asmita crosses the border to
the neighboring country of WDC where she manages client portfolios. This morning, a positive
earnings report was announced for HawkBlack, Inc. (ticker KANE). Asmita would like to invest in
the stock and believes it would benefit her clients as well. WDC has a law that restricts portfolio
managers from investing in securities owned by their clients. Onionland has no such law.
To comply with the Standard, what is the minimum that Asmita must do?
A. Not invest personally in KANE

B. Purchase KANE for her client's portfolio before her personal portfolio
C. Purchase KANE for both portfolios simultaneously

Joyce Price issues weekly investment reports. Joyce looks for trends and commonalities within
the research community. She then presents the findings as her own research and doesn't cite any
sources. Joyce gives them to her boss, Soojung Yu, CFA. Soojung peer-reviews the reports and
does not mention anything about citing sources.
Has Soojung most likely violated the Standards?
A. Yes
B. Yes, if Joyce is a CFA member, charterholder, or candidate
C. No

Henry Williamson, CFA, is also a Fellow of the Society of Actuaries (SOA). Henry is required to
abide by the SOA's Code of Conduct as a fellow. Part of that Code of Conduct is as follows:
PRECEPT 4. An Actuary who issues an Actuarial Communication shall take appropriate steps to
ensure that the Actuarial Communication is clear and appropriate to the circumstances and its
intended audience and satisfies applicable standards of practice.
If Henry issues actuarial communications that do not adhere to the actuarial standards of practice,
what Standard would Henry most directly violate?
A. Knowledge of the Law

B. Loyalty, Prudence, and Care
C. Communication with Clients and Prospective Clients
Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

performance benchmark and answer explanations
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Ronald Pitt manages equity portfolios for a group of high net-worth individuals. His friend, a rich
businessman, also has his portfolio managed by Ronald. Ronald learns of a security recommended
as ‘buy’ by his company’s research team. Ronald thoroughly reads the detailed report and
concludes that the recommended stock is worth buying. He first buys the stock for his friend and
then goes on to buy the stock for other client accounts.
Which of the following statements relating to violation of CFA Institute Standards of Professional
Conduct is most likely true?
A. Ronald violates standard V(A), Diligence and Reasonable Basis

B. Ronald violates standard III (B), Fair Dealing
C. Ronald violates both standards V(A) and III (B)

Which of the following statements does not form part of the performance presentation guidance
provided in the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
A. Terminated accounts should be included while presenting historical performance.

B. All appropriate disclosures to fully explain performance should be made, including
disclosures relating to use of simulation or other models to calculate results.
C. Comparable performance numbers for similar funds of competitors should be provided
along with the company’s own fund.

Joe Tichy, CFA, works with Oasis Investments as an investment advisor. Prior to joining Oasis, Joe
worked with another investment management firm. Joe took no records from the previous firm and
didn’t have a non-compete agreement with the previous firm. Joe remembers some of the clients
of his previous firm and contacts them after he joins Oasis as he feels that some of them might
follow him to the new firm.
Which of the following statements relating to violation of CFA Institute Standards of Professional
Conduct is most likely true?
A. Joe does not violate any of the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct.
B. Joe violates the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, as he must seek
permission from his previous employer before contacting clients of that firm.

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C. Joe should not contact clients of his previous firm as it is against the interest of his
previous employer. As a charter holder, Joe is supposed to be loyal to his previous firm even
after discontinuing employment.

Simon Leone, CFA, financial analyst at Trinity Investments, provides financial planning and
investment advice to large auto companies. Moto Company, the second largest car manufacturer,
is planning to renew its IT infrastructure and has sought advice from Simon to finance the project.
To better understand the cashflow requirements, Moto Company sends Simon the proposal from
Diwan Technologies, the company internally selected by Moto Company for the project, though the
project is yet to be formally awarded. Simon tells her friend, Jack, who handles the IT Sector
portfolio about the major contract that Diwan Technologies has secured. Acting on the information,
Jack increases his holding of the Diwan Technologies stock.
Which of the following statements is/are most likely correct?
A. By divulging information about the project to her friend, Simon violates Standard III (E),
preservation of confidentiality
B. By acting on information provided by Simon, Jack violates Standard II (A), material
non-public information.
C. Both statements are most likely correct

Which of the following issues most strongly illustrates one of the needs for the Global Investment
Performance Standards?
A. Insider trading
B. Survivorship bias
C. Fraud

Krystal French, CFA, issues monthly investment reports. These reports aggregate a wide number of
analysis reports. Krystal looks for trends and commonalities within the research community.
Krystal then presents the findings as her own research and doesn't cite any sources.
Krystal is most likely in violation of which Standard?

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A. Misrepresentation
B. Performance Presentation
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis

10. Quantitative Methods
If you were to finance a $25,000 car purchase with a 6 year, 5% compounded monthly loan, your
monthly payments will be closest to:
A. 400
B. 410
C. 420

A portfolio manager has a tight tracking error of 50 basis points. The manager expects to be within
this tracking error for a given quarter 85% of the time.
If that expectation is correct and each quarter is independent, the probability that the manager is
within the tracking error for at least 7 of the next 8 quarters is closest to:
A. 35 %
B. 65 %
C. 75 %

The percentage returns for a stock for a 5-year period are provided below:
2008 12%
2009 9%
2010 -2%
2011 12%
2012 8%


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What is the standard deviation of the stock returns? You should treat the 5 year period as the
population, not as a sample.
A. 0.0515
B. 0.2656
C. 0.078

A 10 Year semi-annual 8% coupon bond is selling at $967. If the yields increase by 50 basis points
the price is expected to fall to $924 and if the yields decrease by 50 Basis points the price is
expected to rise to $1010.
The effective duration is closest to:
A. 4.55
B. 17.79
C. 8.89

Which of the following statements regarding Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and Net Present Value
(NPV) is/are most likely correct?
1. If the NPV and IRR methods give conflicting decisions for mutually exclusive projects, the
IRR method should be used to select the project.
2. A project may have positive NPV even if its IRR is less than the cost of capital
3. IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV of the project is zero.
4. A project’s IRR can be positive even if the NPV is negative.
A. Statements 1 and 2 are correct

B. Statements 3 and 4 are correct
C. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct

George purchases a share of stock for $35. At the beginning of the next year, he purchases another
share of the same stock for $40. At the end of each of the two years, the stock pays a dividend of
$1.5. At the end of the second year, George sells both the shares for $45 each.

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The time-weighted rate of return that George earns is:
A. 16.2 %
B. 17.4 %
C. 18.5 %

A bond is selling for 101. It matures in 3 months and pays a coupon of 2 at maturity (in addition to
the face of 100).
The effective annual yield is closest to:
A. 1.0 %
B. 2.5 %
C. 4.0 %

17. Economics
In January, Herman bought 10 apples and 10 pears. In February, the price of apples increased and
Herman only bought 8 apples. At the same time, pears became less expensive and Herman bought
12 pears.
Which of the following inflation indices would be calculated assuming Herman always bought 8
apples and 12 pears?
A. The Laspeyres index

B. The Paasche index
C. The Fisher index

18. Economics
Which of the following forms of trading blocs allow for unrestricted trade of goods and services
among its members?
I. Free trade areas

II. Customs unions
III. Common market
A. I and II
B. II and III

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C. I, II, and III

19. Economics
Which of the following are accurate in an oligopoly with stable equilibrium?
I. Marginal revenue is greater than marginal price.

II. All companies are producing the same level of output.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Neither I nor II

20. Economics
The exchange rate between two currencies has decreased to 101.34. The price currency has
appreciated by 7.5 percent against the base currency. The initial exchange between the two
currencies was closest to:
A. 94.27
B. 108.94
C. 109.56

21. Economics
Which of the following statements is/are most likely correct?
I. The demand for a country’s currency is a downward-sloping function of its exchange rate.
II. Purchasing power parity refers to the relation between interest rates for two currencies and
changes in their exchange rates.
III. Interest rate parity refers to the relation between countries’ inflation rates and exchange
rates of their currencies.
A. Only statement I is correct

B. Both statements II and III are correct
C. All statements are correct


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22. Economics
Which of the following statements relating to obstacles to efficient allocation of resources is/are
most likely incorrect?
I. Price ceilings set below the equilibrium price lead to shortages, bribery, poor quality and
black marketeering.
II. Subsidies decrease equilibrium quantities and lead to dead weight losses from
overproduction.
III. Production quotas decrease equilibrium quantities and lead to dead weight losses from
underproduction.
A. Both statements I and II

B. Both statements I and III
C. Only statement II

23. Financial Reporting and Analysis
A bookstore earned $200,000 over the past year. At a tax rate of 40%, that bookstore incurs an
income tax expense of $80,000. Under which of the following accounting systems would the
expense typically be categorized as an operating activity?
I. IFRS
II. U.S. GAAP
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II

Company XYZ purchases land for $5,000,000. XYZ intends to hold the land for a long term (20
years) and rent the land out to generate income. Under IFRS, at which price is the company allowed
to use on its financial reports for the value of the land:
I. $5,000,000
II. The current market price
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II

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Medialink is an American company specializing in business intelligence consulting. One of

Medialink's current project is a 2-year commitment with Isotics, with a total estimated revenue of
$2.0 million and estimated cost of $1.0 million. Costs are expected to be spread out evenly over
each month.
After the first month, under IFRS, Medialink's recognized revenue is expected to be closest to:
A. 0
B. USD40,000
C. USD80,000

Given the following data, determine the cash flow from operations:
Sales = $2,100m
Increase in inventory = $200m
Depreciation = $125m
Increase in accounts receivable = $75m
Decrease in accounts payable = $70m
After tax profit margin = 35%
Gain on sale of machinery = $30m
A. USD515m
B. USD545m
C. USD485m

Security Solutions Corp has an outstanding bond obligation on their balance sheet with a carrying
value of $275,000. The bond was issued 5 years ago, and has since lost significant value due to
increasing interest rates. The company intends to re-purchase the bond for $250,000.

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Which of the following statements accurately portrays the transaction that will be recorded to
demonstrate the redemption?
A. Under GAAP, the company will recognize USD25,000 in income but will need to write down
the costs of issuing the debt as a separate transaction.
B. Under GAAP, the company will recognize USD25,000 in income and will not need to make an
adjustment for issuance costs as they are already capitalized within the book value of the
bond.
C. Under IFRS, the company will recognize USD25,000 in income and will need to write down
the costs of issuing the debt as a separate transaction.

Company X acquired Company Y for $800 million. At the time of acquisition, Company Y’s book
value of assets and liabilities was $1.5 billion and $850 million respectively, while fair value
assessment came to $1.8 billion and $1.2 billion respectively.
What amount of goodwill should Company X record on its balance sheet? Is it necessary for
Company X to amortize goodwill?
A. USD150m goodwill, no amortization necessary

B. USD200m goodwill, no amortization necessary
C. USD50m goodwill, amortization is necessary

A company with a net income of $55,000 is looking to compile its operating cash flows for the
period using the indirect method. Over the course of the year, the company saw $8,000 in
depreciation, an increase in deferred tax assets of $750, increase in accounts receivables of $850,
increase in inventories by $350, and an increase in accounts payables of $350.
What is the company’s operating cash flow for the year?
A. USD61,400
B. USD62,200
C. USD62,900

Which of the following statements relating to cash flows classification is/are incorrect?

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I. Cash collections from sales are operating cash flows whereas cash tax payments are
financing cash flows.
II. Cash used for purchase of property, plant and equipment and cash generated from sale of
assets are examples of investing cash flows.
III. Changes in debt are operating cash flows whereas sale/repurchase of stocks are financing
cash flows.
A. Both statements I and III are incorrect

B. Only statement III is incorrect
C. Only statement II is incorrect

Unearned revenue can be best classified as which type of an account?
A. Asset
B. Liability
C. Income

You are given the following financial ratios for an anonymous company:
Net profit margin = 2%
Total asset turnover = 5.0
Financial leverage = 5.0
This company’s return on equity is closest to:
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 50 %

Which one of the following is not a quantitative criterion necessitating a company to disclose
separate information about any operating segment?

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A. The segment constitutes 10 percent or more of combined operating profit, assets, or
revenue.
B. The combined revenue from external customers for all reportable segments is less than 75
percent of the total company revenue.
C. A single customer represents 20 percent or more of the company’s total revenue.

A company had equipment worth $50 million on 1 January. During the year, they purchased
equipment for $10 million. On 31 December, the equipment account showed $40 million. All figures
are shown at cost, before depreciation.
The amount of equipment sold during the end of the year, at cost, would be closest to:
A. 0
B. USD20 million
C. USD40 million

35. Corporate Finance
Which of the following examples would best be described as a drag on liquidity?
A. Early payment to creditors

B. A delinquent account receivable
C. A reduced line of credit

Of the following, which is the least necessary qualification for a member of a company's Board of
Directors?
A. Being in good standing with management

B. Having attentive and competent expertise
C. Regularly attending meetings

The market values of a firm’s capital are given below:

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Total debt: $7 million
Outstanding preferred stock: $2 million
Outstanding common stock: $12 million
Before-tax cost of debt: 8%
Before-tax cost of common equity: 12%
Before-tax cost of preferred stock: 9%
Assuming company’s marginal tax rate is 35%, what is the weighted average cost of capital
(WACC) for the firm?
A. 10.4 %
B. 10.0 %
C. 9.5 %

Meta Corp. sells 15,000 units of its product at a price of $10 per unit. The company’s fixed costs
are $12,000 and interest expense is $3,000. The variable cost per unit is $7.
Meta Corp’s degrees of operating leverage and financial leverage are:
A. Degree of operating leverage = 1.1, Degree of financial leverage = 1.36

B. Degree of operating leverage = 1.36, Degree of financial leverage = 1.1
C. Degree of operating leverage = 1.36, Degree of financial leverage = 1.36

39. Equity Investments
You are provided with the following information on a non-callable, non-convertible preferred stock:
Face value: £65.00
Annual dividend: £6.35
Maturity: Perpetual
Embedded options: None
Required rate of return: 8.75%

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The intrinsic value of this stock is closest to:
A. GBP53
B. GBP63
C. GBP73

You are provided with the following information on a non-callable, non-convertible preferred stock:
Face value: $50
Annual dividend: $2.50
Maturity: Perpetual
Embedded options: None
Required rate of return: 6.25%
The intrinsic value of this stock is closest to:
A. USD40
B. USD50
C. USD60

A stock priced at £35.73 is projected to pay dividends of £1.50, £2.00, and £2.50 at the end of the
next three years. At the time of the third dividend, the stock is expected to be worth £36.23.
If the required rate of return for this stock is 10%, the intrinsic value of the stock is closest to:
A. GBP32
B. GBP34
C. GBP36

You are provided the following information about a company Shoes4You:

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Current stock price: $35
Shares outstanding: 1,000,000
Past year earnings: $4,000,000
Net book value: $28,000,000
Past year free cash flow: $8,000,000
Dividend payout ratio: 20%
Cost of equity capital: 11%
Expected dividend growth rate: 3%
The justified forward P/E ratio for Shoes4You is closest to:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 9

Danny and Jack, both equity analysts, are discussing the types of orders in equity markets. During
their discussion, Danny makes the following statements:
I. “Market orders are orders to buy or sell a security at the best price available.”
II. “A ‘buy’ limit order is placed above the current market price.”
Jack agrees with Danny and adds:
III. “Stop loss orders are orders where a trader borrows stock, sells it, and then purchases the
stock later to return the stock back to the original owner.”
Which of the statements made by Danny and Jack is/are incorrect?
A. Both statements I and III are incorrect

B. Both statements II and III are incorrect
C. Only statement II is incorrect


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Dividends on a stock are expected to grow at 25% for three years, after which, they are expected to
grow at 3% per annum, indefinitely.
If the last dividend paid was $1.25 and the required return rate is 12%, the value of the stock is:
A. USD24.58
B. USD32.63
C. USD28.91

45. Fixed Income
How are upward-sloping yield curves explained by the Pure Expectations Theory?
A. There are separate markets for long-term and short-term securities, and the long-term
market demands greater returns.
B. Future interest rates are expected to rise.
C. Investors in long-term securities demand a risk premium for tying their money up longer.

46. Fixed Income
Keisha is looking to avoid purchasing power risk as much as possible. She should consider
investing in which type of security?
A. TIPS
B. Floats
C. Bullet bonds

47. Fixed Income
Which of the following statements relating to Z-spread, Option-adjusted spread (OAS) and option
cost for callable and putable bonds is/are most likely correct?
I. For callable bonds, Z-spread is greater than OAS and option cost is greater than 0
II. For callable bonds, Z-spread is less than OAS and option cost is greater than 0
III. For putable bonds, Z-spread is less than OAS and option cost is greater than 0
A. All three statements are correct

B. Only statement II is correct
C. Only statement I is correct

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48. Fixed Income
Erin purchases a ten-year TIPS bond with a $25,000 face value. This particular issue pays
semiannual coupons at a rate of the CPI + 125 basis points, with a floor of 5%. CPI rates for the
first three reset dates are 3.25%, 4.75%, and 5.25%.
The payout from this bond over the first three coupons is closest to:
A. USD2,200
B. USD3,300
C. USD4,400

49. Fixed Income
The Kenyan government issues two new series of 10-year optionless bonds. They are completely
identical, except that one is denominated in Kenyan Shillings (KES) and the other in British Pounds
(GBP). Which offering will most likely be given a higher rating by Moody’s?
A. Kenyan Shillings
B. British Pounds
C. Both will be the same

50. Fixed Income
Quanced Design is rated Ba1 by Moody's. The company announced a new issue of 5%, 20-year
bonds.
These securities will be rated:
A. Ba1
B. No higher than Ba1
C. Not enough information

51. Derivatives
Haspiess Systems, Inc. and Signicomp Manufacturing enter into a netted interest rate swap, with a
notional $75M. Haspiess will pay a fixed 5%, and Signicomp will pay LIBOR + 75bp. LIBOR is 3.5%.

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The first semiannual payment will be closest to:
A. Haspiess paying Signicomp USD600,000

B. Signicomp paying Haspiess USD600,000
C. Haspiess paying Signicomp USD300,000

52. Derivatives
The stock of Angle Industries is currently trading at $60 per share. A 90-day call option on the
stock is priced at $7.50. The exercise price of this option is $55.
If the applicable risk-free rate of interest is 8%, what is the price of a 90-day put option on Angle
Industries with an exercise price of $55?
A. USD1.47
B. USD11.37
C. USD13.53

53. Derivatives
Which of the following are the least likely methods of terminating a swap?
A. Purchasing a swaption
B. Selling the swap to a counterparty
C. Returning the swap to the exchange

54. Alternative Investments
The commodity market initially grew due to producers desiring a hedging vehicle. Recently
institutions like pension plans and hedge funds have looked to commodities as a way to diversify
and grow, respectively.
Which of the following least describes the impact this institutional money has had:
A. Contango has become less extensive

B. Rolls have become more expensive
C. Potential for bubbles has increased


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Which of the following hedge fund strategies would most accurately be described as event-driven?
A. Purchasing and restructuring distressed debt/equity

B. Selecting individual securities while remaining market-neutral
C. Speculating market volatility by purchasing and selling options in the manufacturing sector

Management fees in private equity are ________ those in hedge funds in that _________.
A. different from; fees are based on committed capital, not assets under management
B. similar to; fees are based on assets under management
C. different from; fees are based on assets under management, not committed capital

57. Portfolio Management and Wealth Planning
The early 21st century saw a few significant stresses on the stock market. The markets dipped
deeper and more quickly than many were expecting might happen.
Which of the following statistical metrics most accurately describes this event?
A. High kurtosis
B. Positive skewness
C. Low mean

You are given the following portfolio:
Company Name Amount Invested Standard Deviation
Isotics 15,000 0.3
Ambiss 5,000 0.1

The portfolio's standard deviation, if the covariance is 0.05, is closest to:
A. 0.2

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B. 0.23
C. 0.26

Which of the following is least identified as a weakness of the top-down portfolio creation
framework?
A. It is difficult to divide risk up within an investment team.

B. Investment managers don't seek to maximize their respective returns.
C. Dividing a portfolio into a team might lead to excess trading and inefficient tax exposure.

The standard deviation of the market portfolio is 0.2. The beta of a company with standard
deviation 0.6 and market correlation of 0.4 is closest to:
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.2

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What is the minimum that Asmita must do to comply with the Standard?

What is the minimum that Asmita must do to comply with the Standard?

What Standard would Henry most directly violate if he issues actuarial communications that do not adhere to the actuarial standards of practice?

What Standard would Henry most directly violate if he issues actuarial communications that do not adhere to the actuarial standards of practice?

300Hours: CFA Level 1 Practice Test 1

This Chartered Financial Analyst (CFA®) Practice Test has 60 questions.

1. Ethical and Professional Standards

A. Not invest personally in KANE

2. Ethical and Professional Standards

Has Soojung most likely violated the Standards?

3. Ethical and Professional Standards

A. Knowledge of the Law

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

4. Ethical and Professional Standards

A. Ronald violates standard V(A), Diligence and Reasonable Basis

5. Ethical and Professional Standards

A. Terminated accounts should be included while presenting historical performance.

6. Ethical and Professional Standards

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

7. Ethical and Professional Standards

Which of the following statements is/are most likely correct?

8. Ethical and Professional Standards

9. Ethical and Professional Standards

Krystal is most likely in violation of which Standard?

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

10. Quantitative Methods

11. Quantitative Methods

12. Quantitative Methods

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

13. Quantitative Methods

The effective duration is closest to:

14. Quantitative Methods

A. Statements 1 and 2 are correct

15. Quantitative Methods

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

The time-weighted rate of return that George earns is:

16. Quantitative Methods

The effective annual yield is closest to:

A. The Laspeyres index

I. Free trade areas

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

C. I, II, and III

Which of the following are accurate in an oligopoly with stable equilibrium?

I. Marginal revenue is greater than marginal price.

Which of the following statements is/are most likely correct?

A. Only statement I is correct

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

A. Both statements I and II

23. Financial Reporting and Analysis

24. Financial Reporting and Analysis

Submit your answers at go.300hours.com/L1Mock1 to get your score,

25. Financial Reporting and Analysis

Medialink is an American company specializing in business intelligence consulting. One of

26. Financial Reporting and Analysis

Increase in inventory = $200m

Increase in accounts receivable = $75m

Decrease in accounts payable = $70m

After tax proﬁt margin = 35%

Gain on sale of machinery = $30m