ICSE Class 10 Physics Question

Paper Solution 2017

PHYSICS (SCIENCE PAPER-1)
SECTION I (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section
Question 1
(a) A brass ball is hanging from a stiff cotton thread. Draw a neat labelled diagram [2]
showing the forces acting on the brass ball and the cotton thread.
(b) The distance between two bodies is doubled. How is the magnitude of gravitational [2]
force between them affected?
(c) Why is a jack screw provided with a long arm? [2]

(d) If the power of a motor be 100 kW, at what speed can it raise a load of 50,000
[2]
N?
(e) Which class of lever will always have MA > 1 and why?
[2]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most of the candidates drew a ball and the string Suggestions for teachers
properly but following errors were observed:
– Give more practice in drawing
− Labelling was missing. diagrams with labelling Also, give
− Directions were not drawn. inputs to students on the mistakes
− Support was missing. made by them.
− A few candidates drew a spring in place of a – While explaining the relation
string. between various quantities,
emphasise the mathematical
(b) Many candidates identified that “it decreases” proportion rather than just saying
but failed to identify the inverse square relation that one quantity increases then the
involved. other decreases or vice versa.
(c) Many candidates just wrote “as force – Advise students to practice
multiplier”. Very few explained with the inverse conversion of one type of unit into
proportion between force and effort arm. another.
– Train students to understand as to
(d) Many candidates failed to convert kW to W. what is exactly asked in the
Some wrote the unit of speed as ms-2 instead of question.
m s-1. – Make it clear to students that the
(e) Some candidates did not understand the meaning increase or decrease of effort and
of the word ‘always’ and mentioned the class of load arm does not depend on the
class of lever.
lever as 1. Most candidates wrote E.A.> L.A. but
did not mention that load lies between the
fulcrum and the effort.

10
 MARKING SCHEME

Question 1
(a) (i) Support

Tension, T

Weight, W

(b) 1
F∝𝑑𝑑2 where F: force, d: distance between centres.

1𝑡𝑡ℎ
F becomes 4 of the initial force.

(c) Increase in torque arm, increases the moment of force,

so, lesser effort is required for turning.

𝑃𝑃 100×1000
(d) 𝑣𝑣 = 𝐹𝐹 = 50000

𝑣𝑣 = 2𝑚𝑚 𝑠𝑠 −1

(e) Class II

As effort arm will always be greater than the load arm.

Question 2
(a) Define heat capacity and state its SI unit. [2]
(b) Why is the base of a cooking pan generally made thick? [2]
(c) A solid of mass 50 g at 150oC is placed in 100 g of water at 11oC, when the final [2]
temperature recorded is 20oC. Find the specific heat capacity of the solid.
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/goC)
How is the refractive index of a material related to? [2]

(d) (i) real and apparent depth?

(ii) velocity of light in vacuum or air and the velocity of light in a given medium?

(e) State the conditions required for total internal reflection of light to take place. [2]

11
Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates wrote the definition of Suggestions for teachers
heat capacity correctly but some of them
confused it with the definition of specific – Difference between specific heat
heat capacity and the same was observed capacity and heat capacity should be
with the unit. It was also observed that explained clearly. Written practice
some students wrote 0K which is the of definitions needs to be
incorrect way of expressing the unit of emphasised.
temperature. – Stress on kelvin as SI unit of
(b) Most of the candidates answered one point temperature and to be used in
correctly but did not write about the key derived units also.
point, increase in heat capacity. – A variety of numericals need to be
(c) Many candidates attempted this numerical practised with emphasis on answers
correctly but some made mistakes in being in decimal.
framing the equation, in substituting the – Train the students to answer as per
values for temperature and in calculation. the question asked and to cover all
(d) Most candidates answered this question required points.
correctly. Some wrote about direct – Due to rote learning students, often
proportion but failed to write about inverse do not realise that the statement
proportion in both the parts. written by them does not convey the
(e) Most of the candidates expressed the correct meaning if they miss a single
conditions required for total internal word or some information. Hence,
reflection of light to take place correctly. make the students aware of the
However, others made the following errors: probable errors which they make.
Only one condition was given.
– Some wrote that light enters from rarer
medium to denser medium.
– Instead of angle of incidence being greater
than critical angle, it was written vice
versa and some wrote incident “ray greater than critical angle”.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 2
(a) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the given mass of the body by
10C. SI unit of heat capacity is J/K or J K-1.

(b) To raise its thermal capacity; so that it imparts sufficient heat at low temperature to
food. Moreover, it keeps the food warmer for a longer time after cooking.

(c) Heat given by solid = Heat taken by water

50 × 𝑐𝑐 × 130 = 100 × 4.2 × 9

100×4.2×9
𝑐𝑐 = = 0.58 J/g oC
50×130

(d) 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷ℎ

(i) Refractive Index = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷ℎ

12
 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙ℎ𝑡𝑡 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
(ii) Refractive Index = 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙ℎ𝑡𝑡 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

(e) Light ray should travel from a denser to a rarer medium.

Angle of incidence(∠ i) should be greater than the critical angle(∠ i c ).

Question 3
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of a monochromatic ray through a prism [2]
when it suffers minimum deviation.
(b) The human ear can detect continuous sounds in the frequency range from 20 Hz to [2]
20,000 Hz. Assuming that the speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1 for all frequencies,
calculate the wavelengths corresponding to the given extreme frequencies of the
audible range.
(c) An enemy plane is at a distance of 300 km from a radar. In how much time the [2]
radar will be able to detect the plane? Take velocity of radio waves as 3 x 108 m s-1.
(d) How is the frequency of a stretched string related to: [2]

(i) its length?

(ii) its tension?

[2]
(e) Define specific resistance and state its SI unit.

Comments of Examiners
(a) Most candidates did not label that the angle of
incidence (∠ i) is equal to the angle of Suggestions for teachers
emergence (∠ e) on the ray diagram or did not
express the same in words. Some candidates – More practice of drawing diagrams
drew the diagram taking a polychromatic ray. needs to be given to students, with all
Many candidates did not mark the arrows on the details included.
diagram. – Explain to the students the meaning
(b) Most candidates calculated the wavelengths of specific resistance and its SI unit.
corresponding to the given extreme frequencies
of the audible range correctly.
(c) While a number of candidates were able to
attempt the question correctly, some made
mistakes in converting the distance from km to m. Some candidates applied a wrong formula.
(d) Many candidates could answer this question correctly but some candidates could not write the
correct relation.
(e) This question was answered correctly by most of the candidates. Some candidates could
not differentiate between resistance and specific resistance.

13
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
(a)

∠𝑖𝑖 = ∠𝑒𝑒.

(b) (𝑖𝑖) 𝜆𝜆1 = v/f 1 = 330/20 = 16.5 m

(𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖)λ2 = v/f 2 = 330/20000 = 1.65 x 10-2 m

(c) 2𝑑𝑑 2𝑑𝑑 2 × 300 × 1000

𝑣𝑣 = ⟹ 𝑡𝑡 = =
𝑡𝑡 𝑣𝑣 3 × 108

= 2 × 10−3 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 or 0.002 second

1
(d) 𝑓𝑓 ∝ , f: frequency, l: length of the string.
𝑙𝑙

𝑓𝑓 ∝ √𝑇𝑇 T: tension in the string.

(e) It is the resistance of the conductor of unit length and unit cross-sectional area.

SI unit of specific resistance is Ω m

14
Question 4
(a) An electric bulb of resistance 500Ω, draws a current of 0.4A. Calculate the power [2]
of the bulb and the potential difference at its end.
(b) State two causes of energy loss in a transformer. [2]

(c) State two characteristics of a good thermion emitter. [2]

(d) State two factors upon which the rate of emission of thermions depends. [2]

(e) When does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive? [2]

Comments of Examiners
(a) Many candidates attempted this question correctly
but quite a number of candidates wrote incorrect
Suggestions for teachers
formulae/ did wrong substitution and gave
incorrect units. – Give ample practice on numericals
(b) Most candidates stated the two causes of energy and formulae.
loss in a transformer correctly. – Familiarize students with the
probable errors that may be made
(c) Most of the candidates wrote the two
while answering questions which
characteristics of a good thermion emitter
are similar.
correctly.
– Instruct students to read the
(d) Most of the candidates wrote the two factors upon
questions carefully and write the
which the rate of emission of thermions depends points as per the requirement of the
correctly. Some candidates wrote melting point question.
instead of temperature; others wrote area instead
of surface.
(e) Most of the candidates answered correctly but
some candidates wrote neutron electron ratio
instead of neutron proton ratio. Common errors made by candidates were as follows:
– Instead of n:p, p:n was mentioned greater than 82 and in some cases, instead of neutron,
electron was written.
– Some got confused between atomic number and atomic mass.
– Some gave the definition of radioactivity rather than the condition.
– A few candidates could not give two points.

15
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 4
4 4
(a) 𝑃𝑃 = 𝑖𝑖 2 𝑅𝑅 = 10 × 10 × 500 = 80 𝑊𝑊
4
𝑉𝑉 = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 10 × 500 = 200 𝑉𝑉

(b) In transformer energy is lost due to:

– Hysteresis
– Formation of Eddy Currents
– Resistance of primary or secondary coil, (any two)

(c) A good thermionic emitter should have:

– Low work function

– High melting point

(d) Rate of emission of thermions depends on:

– the nature of surface (work function),

– temperature of the surface
– surface area. (any two)

(e) Nucleus of an atom tends to be radioactive when the atomic number is greater than 82 and
imbalance of proton and neutron as compared to a normal stable atom.

SECTION I (40 Marks)

Attempt any four questions from this Section

Question 5
(a) A uniform half metre rule balances horizontally on a knife edge at 29 cm mark when a [3]
weight of 20 gf is suspended from one end.
(i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.
(ii) What is the weight of the half metre rule?
(b) (i) A boy uses a single fixed pulley to lift a load of 50 Kgf to some height. Another [3]
boy uses a single movable pulley to lift the same load to the same height.
Compare the effort applied by them. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) How does uniform circular motion differ from uniform linear motion?
(iii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy.

16
(c) A pulley system with VR = 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height [4]
of 15 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction.
(g = 10 N kg-1)
Calculate:
(i) Distance moved by the effort.
(ii) Work done by the effort.
(iii) M.A. of the pulley system.
(iv) Efficiency of the pulley system.

Comments of Examiners
(a)(i) Some candidates were able to solve this Suggestions for teachers
numerical correctly. Common errors
made by candidates were as follows: – The concept of centre of gravity
– Drew 100 cm scale instead of 50 cm. should be made clear to students and
– Did not understand what the knife edge is? clarify to them that the fulcrum may
– 20 gf weight was suspended at the wrong or may not lie at this point.
end. – Encourage drawing sketches while
– Key labelling such as C.G, weight of the solving numericals.
scale was missing. – More practice of the numericals
(ii) Due to confusion in the diagram, many needs to be given to students.
candidates substituted wrong values of – Students should be made aware that
the torque arm and expressed the answer due to unavailability of effective
with incorrect unit i.e. only ‘g’ in place of control mechanism during nuclear
‘gf’. fusion, only nuclear fission is used
(b)(i) Many candidates could identify that the for the production of electricity.
movable pulley will require less effort but – Acquaint students with the
could not explain it with the M.A. ratio of difference between dE and E.A. and
both pulleys. d L and L.A. Also, sufficient practice

(ii) Most of the candidates answered this in numericals is required.

correctly but some wrote uniform circular
motion is unaccelerated.
(iii) Many candidates answered correctly but
some wrote both nuclear fission and
fusion. A few candidates gave the answer
as “thermionic emission”.
(c) Some candidates made conceptual errors by using 𝐿𝐿 × 𝐿𝐿. 𝐴𝐴. = 𝐸𝐸 × 𝐸𝐸. 𝐴𝐴. to calculate the
distance moved by the effort. Due to calculation errors in the first part, many candidates
got wrong answers in the latter parts. Most candidates answered the third part correctly. In
sub-part (iv) some could not express the answer in percentage.

17
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 5
(a) (i)

(ii) X × 4 = 21 x 20

X = 105 g f weight of half metre rule = 0.105 kg f

(b) (i) Effort applied will be in the ratio 2:1 as M.A. of single fixed pulley is 1 whereas M.A.
of single movable pulley is 2.
(ii) Uniform circular motion is an accelerated motion and Uniform linear motion is an
unaccelerated motion.
(iii) Controlled chain reaction of nuclear fission of a radioactive substance.
(c) (i)Velocity ratio = d E /d L or 4= d E /15⇒ d E = 60 m

(𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝑊𝑊 = 50 × 10 × 60 = 30000 J
175×10
(𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 50×10
= 3.5

𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 3.5
(𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝜂𝜂 = × 100 = × 100 = 87.5%
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 4

Question 6
(a) (i) How is the transference of heat energy by radiation prevented in a calorimeter? [3]
(ii) You have a choice of three metals A, B and C, of specific heat capacities 900 Jkg-
1o -1
C , 380 Jkg-1oC-1 and 460 Jkg-1oC-1 respectively, to make a calorimeter. Which
material will you select? Justify your answer.

18
(b) Calculate the mass of ice needed to cool 150g of water contained in a calorimeter of [3]
mass 50g at 32ºC such that the final temperature is 5ºC.
Specific heat capacity of calorimeter = 0.4 J/gºC
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/gºC
Latent heat capacity of ice = 330 J/g
(c) (i) Name the radiations which are absorbed by greenhouse gases in the earth’s [4]
atmosphere.
(ii) A radiation X is focused by a particular device on the bulb of a thermometer and
mercury in the thermometer shows a rapid increase. Name the radiation X.
(iii) Name two factors on which the heat energy liberated by a body depends.

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most of the candidates wrote about Suggestions for teachers
prevention of conduction instead of
prevention of transference of heat energy by – Discussion needs to be done on
radiation. calorimeter and ways of minimising
(ii) Majority of the candidates answered this part heat losses.
correctly. Some candidates chose the – Explain to students the
material correctly but were incorrect in differentiation between bad
justifying the answer. conductors and good conductors
(b) Lack of clarity of the concept was observed. with reference to the specific heat
For ice, most of the candidates used the capacity.
formula mL only and used the value of latent – More practice should be given to
heat capacity of ice (336 J/g) instead of the
students in solving a variety of
given value 330 J/g. Some candidates did not
questions based on calorimetry.
involve calorimeter in the heat exchange.
Calculation errors were also observed. Also, ask them to use only the
(c) (i) Many candidates gave the answer as UV values given in the question.
radiations or long wavelength radiations. – Give adequate practice in writing
(ii) Most candidates answered correctly except the answers of conceptual questions.
for a few who got confused as to how two
consecutive answers could be the same.
(iii) Most candidates named one factor on which
the heat energy liberated by a body depends
correctly. Some candidates failed to write fall in temperature and mentioned only
temperature.

19
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 6
(a) (i) Both (inner and outer) surfaces of calorimeter are highly polished.

(ii) Metal B is the best option to make a calorimeter.

B has the lowest specific heat capacity; hence it will absorb the least amount of heat.

(b) Heat gained by ice = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 + 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑚𝑚 (330 + 4.2 × 5 ) = 351𝑚𝑚 J

Heat given out by water and calorimeter= (150 × 4.2 + 50 × 0.4) × (32 − 5)

= 17550 J
17550
Mass of ice = 351

= 50 g

(c) (i) Infra-red radiations of long wavelength

(ii) Infra-red radiations / heat radiations

(iii) mass of the body

Specific heat capacity of the body

Change in temperature of the body (Any two correct factors)

Question 7
(a) A Lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object when the object is placed [3]
at the focal point of the given lens.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation.
(b) A ray of light travels from water to air as shown in the diagram given below: [3]

Air

Water

20
 (i) Copy the diagram and complete the path of the ray. Given the critical angle for
water is 48°.
(ii) State the condition so that total internal reflection occurs in the above diagram.
(c) The diagram below shows a point source P inside a water container. Four rays A, B, [4]
C, D starting from the source P are shown upto the water surface.

AIR

AIR
C D
WATER B 48°
A

P
(i) Show in the diagram the path of these rays after striking the water surface. The
Critical Angle for water air surface is 48°.
(ii) Name the phenomenon which the rays B and D exhibit.

Comments of Examiner
(a) (i) Most of the candidates named the lens
correctly but some of them wrote convex Suggestions for teachers
instead of concave. – Give substantial practice of drawing
(ii) Most of the candidates drew the diagram ray diagrams and to lay stress on
properly but some candidates made the – Drawing arrows on the rays before
following errors: and after the refraction.
– the object was not drawn at the focus. – Drawing dotted line for virtual
– the image drawn was not dotted. image.
– the arrows were missing before and after – Explain the critical angle and TIR
refraction.
clearly with lots of examples.
– the lens was labelled wrongly.
(b) (i) Most of the candidates drew the diagram
correctly. Some completed the diagram
assuming ∠𝐶𝐶 = 42 so they showed total
internal reflection. Others drew the ray along the normal. Several candidates did not mark
the angle of refraction.
(ii) Many candidates wrote the conditions of total internal reflection correctly. Some were not
clear about the concept of critical angle and conditions of total internal reflection.
(c) (i) Very few candidates got the path of all four rays correct.

21
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 7
(a) (i) Concave lens

(ii) A ray shown parallel to the principal axis and appears to be coming from F 2.

A ray shown passing through optical centre and moving un-deviated.

Image shown correctly with object at the focus.

(b) (i)

(ii) ∠𝑖𝑖 should be greater than 48°.

(c) (i)

(ii) Ray B undergoes refraction of light

Ray D undergoes total internal reflection of light.

22
Question 8
(a) Name the factor that determines: [3]
(i) Loudness of the sound heard.
(ii) Quality of the note.
(iii) Pitch of the note.

(b) (i) What are damped vibrations? [3]

(ii) Give one example of damped vibrations.
(iii) Name the phenomenon that causes a loud sound when the stem of a vibrating
tuning fork is kept pressed on the surface of a table.
(c) (i) A wire of length 80 cm has a frequency of 256 Hz. Calculate the length of a [4]
similar wire under similar tension, which will have frequency 1024 Hz.
(ii) A certain sound has a frequency of 256 hertz and a wavelength of 1.3 m.
1. Calculate the speed with which this sound travels.
2. What difference would be felt by a listener between the above sound and
another sound travelling at the same speed, but of wavelength 2.6 m?

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) This part was answered by most of the Suggestions for teachers
candidates except for some who wrote
frequency or pitch. – Explain with lots of examples the
(ii) This part was correctly attempted by most of relation between the characteristics
the candidates except for some who wrote of sound which are subjective in
nature and the corresponding
‘timbre’ or ‘wavelength’. Some had also used
measurable quantities on which
the terms as wave note or wave pattern.
they depend and which are
(iii) Most candidates attempted this part objective in nature. Also, the
correctly except for those who wrote difference between wavelength
‘wavelength’, ‘shrillness’, ‘flatness’. and waveform should be made
(b) (i) Most of the candidates did not write the term clear to students. Explain free,
‘decreasing amplitude’. forced and damped vibrations
(ii) Many candidates did not make it clear clearly.
whether the vibrations were in vacuum or – It is advisable to do at least basic
medium. Some wrote only the name of the numerical using 𝑣𝑣 = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓. The
instrument. qualitative understanding and
interpretation depends on that and
(iii) Most of the candidates answered this correctly
application becomes much clearer.
as ‘forced vibrations’ or ‘resonance’ but a few
candidates wrote the phenomenon as ‘echo’.

23
(c) (i) Most candidates scored well in this question.
(ii) 1. This part was attempted well by most of the candidates.
2. Some candidates showed the working of the problem but failed to write the difference
felt by the listener.Also, some used the terms shrillness and loudness interchangeably,
without actually knowing the difference.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 8
(a) (i) Intensity/ amplitude of the sound wave

(ii) wave form/ number of overtones present in the waves

(iii)Frequency of the wave

(Any other correct factor)

(b) (i) The periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude due to the presence of a resistive force
are called as damped vibrations.

(ii) – A vibrating tuning fork in air

– Oscillations of a simple pendulum in air

– A slim branch of a tree pulled and released (Any one)

(iii) Forced vibration or resonance
𝑓𝑓1 𝑙𝑙
(c) (i) = 𝑙𝑙2
𝑓𝑓2 1

256 𝑙𝑙
1024
= 802

80×256
𝑙𝑙2 = 1024

𝑙𝑙2 = 20 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

(ii) 𝑉𝑉 = 256 × 1.3 = 332.8 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 −1

𝑉𝑉 332.8
𝑓𝑓 = 𝜆𝜆
= 2.6
= 128 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻

As f in 2nd case is less, ∴ sound is shriller in 1st case.

24
Question 9
(a) (i) Name the colour code of the wire which is connected to the metallic body of an [3]
appliance.
(ii) Draw the diagram of a dual control switch when the appliance is switched ‘ON’.
(b) (i) Which particles are responsible for current in conductors? [3]
(ii) To which wire of a cable in a power circuit should the metal case of a geyser be
connected?
(iii) To which wire should the fuse be connected?
(c) (i) Explain the meaning of the statement 'current rating of a fuse is 5A'. [4]
(ii) In the transmission of power, the voltage of power generated at the generating
stations is stepped up from 11kV to 132kV before it is transmitted. Why?

Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most of the candidates attempted this part
correctly but in some cases, following errors Suggestions for teacher
were observed:
– Candidates wrote the colour code for all the − Train the students to read the
three wires which implies that they did not question carefully, ascertain the
know which wire is connected to the requirement and answer it.
metallic body of the appliance. − Explain the working of dual
– Some did not write the colour code but control switches with a diagram
and emphasise that the students
identified the wire as earth wire.
practice drawing diagrams.
– Some wrote incorrect colour.
− Explain the concept of earthing
(ii) Most candidates did not draw the diagram
clearly to the students with the
correctly. Vague diagrams were drawn by a concept of potential.
few candidates, such as physical appearance of − Explain the relation 𝑃𝑃 = 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 in
a switch. In some cases, load was connected relation to the power transmission.
directly to the live wire. Proper labelling was
not done by many candidates.
(b) (i) While many candidates answered correctly,
some wrote protons/ neutrons or positive and
negative charges.
(ii) A few candidates gave the answer as ‘neutral’ or ‘live’ wire.
(iii) Most candidates attempted this part correctly.
(c) (i) Most of the candidates wrote about the maximum limit of current through the wire but
failed to write about the melting of wire in case the current exceeds.
(ii) Many candidates wrote about minimising the power losses but failed to write about the
decrease of current due to increased voltage. Some did not understand the question and
wrote vague answers.

25
 MARKING SCHEME
Question 9
(a) (i) Green / Yellow

(ii)

(b) (i) Electrons

(ii) Earth wire

(iii) Live wire

(c) (i) It can afford a maximum current of 5A. If current in the circuit exceeds beyond 5A,
fuse blows.
(ii) For given electric power, the current becomes low at a high voltage and therefore the
loss of energy due to heating in the line wire becomes less.

Question 10
(a) Answer the following questions based on a hot cathode ray tube. [3]
(i) Name the charged particles.
(ii) State the approximate voltage used to heat the filament.
(iii) What will happen to the beam when it passes through the electric field?
(b) State three factors on which the rate of emission of electrons from a metal surface [3]
depends.
(c) (i) What are free electrons? [4]
(ii) Why do they not leave the metal surface on their own?
(iii) How can they be made to leave the metal surface? (State any two ways)

26
Comments of Examiners
(a) (i) Most of the candidates attempted this part
correctly but some confused thermionic Suggestions for teacher
emission with radioactive phenomenon and
gave the answer as 𝛼𝛼, 𝛽𝛽 and 𝛾𝛾. − Concept of free electrons needs to be
(ii) Most of the candidates were confused with explained to the students and
different ways of emission of
household voltage and hence wrote 220V or
electrons also needs to be discussed.
vague values such as 1000V.
− Explain working of cathode ray tube
(iii)Most candidates wrote partial answers to this
thoroughly to the students.
part, such as:
– deflects towards screen.
– deflects and forms parabolic path, but
direction was missing.
– deflects towards positive terminal.
(b)Most of the candidates wrote answered correctly. Some candidates wrote melting point instead
of temperature. Many candidates wrote area and missed out the word surface.
(c) (i) Most of the candidates had a vague idea of free electrons. They wrote that all valence
electrons are free electrons.
(ii) Some candidates wrote that free electrons do not possess any energy. In some answers, the
word sufficient was missing. Lack of clear idea of why they can’t leave the metal surface
was observed.
(iii) One way, i.e. of heating was given correctly by most candidates. Some wrote ‘burning’
instead of heating. A few wrote ‘nuclear energy’.

MARKING SCHEME
Question 10
(a) (i) Cathode rays / high speed electrons
(ii) 6 V
(iii) The beam will get deflected towards the positive plate

(b) (i) Temperature of the metal surface

(ii) Surface area of the metal.
(iii) Nature of metal surface.

(c) (i) Electrons in outer orbits are attracted weakly by the nucleus and so they are loosely bound
and are called free electrons.
(ii) They do not have sufficient kinetic energy.
(iii) By imparting heat energy or light energy or electrical energy to the metal surface.

Note: For questions having more than one correct answer/solution, alternate correct
answers/solutions, apart from those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted.

27
Topics found
difficult/ • Conversion of units.
confusing by • Numerical on moment of force.
candidates • Advantages of movable and fixed pulley.
• Problems on calorimetry.
• Ray diagrams for lenses and prism.
• Reason for stepping up voltage during power transmission.
• Dual control switch.
• Numerical based on sound
• Specific resistance and its unit.
• Causes of energy losses in the transformer.

Suggestions • Focus more on conceptual learning rather than rote learning.

for • Make observations and try to relate your learning with it.
• Always participate in class discussion.
candidates
• Learn to write answers precisely and to the point.
• Avoid selective study. All topics are covered in Section I which is
compulsory.
• Avoid changing the order of sequence of questions and numbering system
while attempting the paper.
• Write in a neat and a legible handwriting.
• Learn the principles, laws and definitions accurately.
• While writing the answers it is not only important to cover all the points but
also to present them in a proper sequence.
• It is advisable to state the meaning of the symbols if the answer is
given in terms of any formula. Do not use any abbreviations which are
not standard.
• The answers need to be given in SI units unless it is asked otherwise.
• It is advisable to solve at least last five years question papers.
• It is advisable to learn tables and squares up to 30. This will save a lot
of time spent on calculation.
• It is advisable to present the final answer in the decimal form. Answer
in fraction is treated as incomplete calculation.
• Units should be written without spelling errors.

28