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47. A male is a viscous

patient iscancer. polysaccharide
toareceive a percutaneously or polypeptide inserted slime that covers
iscentral
A.
Answer have A. Prostate
a shorter half-life. catheter
92. A79.severely 69.
Answer
74.
86. Chris asks
Serious Animmunocompromised
Reye’s adult
C. Myelosuppression.
D. “Heparin syndrome,
the patient nurse has
inwhether potentially
been
instilled female taking
The
allinto donor patient
overall
fatal
the a drug illness
lumen
blood goal
requires
(Drug ofassociated
ofthe
products cancer
A)a250 that
blood
catheter are chemotherapy
with
highly
to liver
cross-matcheddecrease failure hris15 theto
15. 29. Doctor’s
Answer:
microbes.
(PICC).
B.
Prostate Theadverse
accumulate. He Order:
physician
D. pears
Itasks
tissue enhances effects
is
Infuse
thecanned
orders
stimulated nurse of oral
50
adherenceaninmg
whethercontraceptives include:
water of Amphotericin
intramuscular
by androgens and toTriamterene
the surfaces, insertion injection B in
iswill
resists
suppresseda potassium-sparing
of hurt. mL
Demerol
phagocytic How NS
by
over
for
will engulfment
estrogens. the 4 nurse
transfusion.
A.with metabolized
give
and
risk
Increase
min; Drop the To encephalopathy
ofa prevent
dose
clotting.”
recipient
in skin
factor: large
by GVHD,
to
oil the
A enough cytochrome
solution
prevent
followed
12gtt/mL. is the associated
a physician
by
What to be
containing lethal
p-450
transfusion reaction.
acne. flow with
will
rate tosystem.
heparin the
order:
the
(mL/hr) administration
cancer
is He used
Which
will hascells,
you to been
of but
reduce
set of
the on on
which
small catheter
following
the IVover-the-
enough infusion
postoperativepatient’s
diuretic,
by
reply?
C.
Androgen the white
have and
decreased clientscells,
blood
antagonists taking pain.
willand thisWhen medication
prevents preparing antibiotics should to draw be cautioned
from upcontacting
the medication, against
the the
A. Diphenhydramine
B.always this medication for
to
counterbe
clotting
Headache
pump? tolerable
require (OTC) medication?
and
and hydrochloride
maintain for normal
cross-matching?
dizziness. 6distribution.
months.
patency. block
(Benadryl).
cells. AtThe testosterone
Unfortunately,
this time, he isstimulation
concentration somestarted
of normal
heparin onofaprostate second
cells
used are depends
nurse
eating
microbe.
A.
D. “You
carcinoma
have isfoodscareful
Glycocalyx
will
increased thattoThe
have
cells. are remove high
does
general anesthesia so
absorption.
types in potassium,
the
notof correct
have
cancer the in vial including
effects
you
optionsfrom won’t the narcotics cabinet.
in 2-4 many
options
feelare vegetables,
not B-D.
anything.” androgen fruits,
It is
B. The transfusion
C.A.Early medication
affected
A.
on
packed acetaminophen
the
or including
toblood
patient’s
red
mid-cycle bleeding. (Drug
be administered
age, B)
the
cells (Tylenol)
thatbone
comorbidities,is an marrow.
slowly inducer over
andMyelosuppression
ofthe several
thefrequencycytochrome hours.oflimits p-450
catheter thesystem. body’s You
NORTWESTERN COLLEGE OF NURSING labeled
and
B. “It
dependent. fresh
will be meats. inserted Because rapidly, potassium
and any is very
discomfort water-soluble,
is fleeting.” foods that are
C. Irradiation should
ability
B. ibuprofen (Motrin)
of to
access/flushing. themonitor
prevent
donorcomplications.this blood.
andpatient fight patients infection,
for: produce platelets for clotting, and is not
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
D.B.Thromboembolic
A.
platelets
A.
prepared
42.
C.
11.8
Answer: simethicone.
“TheCentral
ml/hr in venous
insertion waterAlthough
B. accumulate. are
site access often
will be lower
devices
anesthetized. inhave potassium.
are
few complications,
beneficialThreading in pediatricthe
the device
catheter therapy through
D. Acetaminophen A.
manufacture
C. aspirin
risk Increased (Tylenol). red
therapeutic blood cells effects for infection,
oxygen
of Drugportage. A.catheterEven though the effects in
C. plasma
because:
the Afree.
B. albuterol.
36. vein client Patients withpainful.” may develop
advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not clots, toleratingvascular protein well,
a,is b,
MEDICATION/HISTORY of NURSING B.granulocytes
58.8
The ml/hr
decreased not circulation to the kidney and reduced liver function tend
D.
Answer B.
options
D. Increased
brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine (Dimetapp)
obstruction, pneumothorax, hemothorax,
D. Thromboembolic and
adverse d areeffects uncomfortable
complications. of Drug B. and
Oral or distressing
mechanical
contraceptives to problems
the have patient, been (cathetertheytodo
BY : C. C.
as
A.
D.14.1
allow meperidine.
eveidenced
They
“You ml/hr
drugs don’treceive
will to by abnormal
frighten
accumulate sedationchildren. and laboratory
prior have to the
toxic values.
procedure.”
effects. The nurse anticipates that
Answer C. Irradiation
associated C.
not Decreased
breakage).
58. have
Serotonin
with the an ofpotential
Strict therapeutic
theadherence
release
increased donor forrisk blood.This
stimulates lethal
effects outcomes
to protocol of process
vomiting
of stroke, myocardial Drugenhances A.
that eliminates
following myelosuppression
the chemotherapy.
infarction, whiteand deep
longevity blood ofhas. central vein
DOLLY FE ADLAWAN D. B. D. ibuprofen.
which Use ofofthe the following
arms is not
Answer: medicationsrestricted. B. will be prescribed for the client?
cell functioning,
 Answer
thrombosis. D.60.2
Answer
access
Therefore, ml/hr
Decreased thus,
A. packed C. aspirin
devices.
These preventing
serotonin therapeutic
risks They
red Virus-infected
are blood GVHD.
routinely
antagonists effects
cells last
Red of58.8
Diphenhydramine
children
are Drug
weeks
blood
effective ml/hr
who
B. to
cells are
months
in contain HCl
given aspirin to
preventing andisantigens
an sometimes
and and manage years.
I. Multiple Choice/With Answers and Rationale A.
24.lactulose
C. TheyThe cannot
nurse (Chronulac)
isof be dislodged. augmentin to her patient with a sinus oil
administering
increased in women who smoke. Increased skin
antihistamine. pain,
The
antibodies It’s
fever,
patient
treating nausea and usemust
that andprior
will beinflammation
beto taught amatched
blood how transfusion
areto perform
between at an todonorincreased
decreases
dressing and risk the
changes
recipient. oflikelihood
developingatare
The home. of
blood aReye’s
and acne
B.
D. are
ethacrynic
They are
infection.
effects
Which acid
difficult tovomiting
progestin
(Edecrin)
is acetaminophen
the see.
best way
related
excess.
for her
Headache chemotherapy.
tois:insure
and
that
dizziness
she
An example
is giving
effects
itcross-
of an
to the
transfusion
products syndrome.
reaction.
effective
of estrogen excess.
Answer
64.folic in
Chemotherapyoptions
serotoninUse
Option
4 hr(Folvite)
C. Decreased of
Early
15 min 2-4 2 do will
antagonist
or
induces not not
mid-cycle
= 4.25
therapeutic prevent
contain antiemetic
vomiting hrs has
red
bleeding GVHD.
effects [4 not
cells.
by:hrs been
are
of DrugUse
Thus,
+ (15 associated
effectsof acetaminophen
they
A. mins÷60 of require
estrogen
Drug B will mins)] with no Reye’s
deficiency.
induce the
C.
right
Answer: patient?acidC. meperidine. The generic name for Demerol is meperidine.
1. Doctor’s Order: Tylenol supp 1 g pr q 6 hr prn temp > 101; Available: preventsmatch. and
syndrome
53.
A.
Answer treats
The
ondansetron
cytochrome
A. Stimulating C. “The the
and
chemotherapeutic
p-450 common
can (Zofran).
insertion
neuroreceptors be safely
enzyme side site DNAeffects
given
system will beto
in alkylating
the ofofanesthetized.
patients
blood
medulla.
the liver; administration
agents with
thus, fever
such
Threading
increasingas due caused
tothe
nitrogen viral
the by
mustards
catheter
D.
A. thiamine
Call the (Vitamin
patient by B1)
name
Tylenol supp 325 mg (scored). How many supp will you administer? the presence
80.
8. Your patientB. The illnesses.
are
B. has
through
metabolism of
effective
fluoxetine
most
Inhibiting white Ibuprofen
serious
hadthethevein blood
ofbecause
(Prozac).
the Drug adverse
following is not
release cells adversethey: in the
effect
intake:
painful.” effects
transfusion include
of Alprostadil (Prostin
8Pain ozDrug glasses
related product:
A willof GItobe irritation
iced
PICC fever,
tea, VR
insertionand headache,
4down bleeding,
pediatric
oz occurs injection) and in
with
B.
30.
87. Answer ReadThe the
nurse
B. Use name isofice ofA.the
administering
the arms
Therefore,
of catecholamines.
apatient is not an on the patient’s
antibiotic
restricted. to The her
broken
door pediatric
child can patient.
faster and
She
A. 2 supp and of grape
cartons chills. toxic
A.
C.
administrationA month
puncture
exert
C. juice,doses,
Cross-link
paroxetine
Autonomic decreased after
in
¾of neonates
pt both
the DNAreceiving
(Paxil).
of skin.
instability.renal
strands
therapeutic is:
cream,
When and blood hepatic
with
32
inserting
effects.ozcovalent
transfusion
of failure
juice,
PICC
Drug bonds
A1are an
½
lines,
will reported.
between
Limmunocompromised
of
bethe D5W insertion
metabolized IVmove
However,
alkyl and groups
site his
isibuprofen
6faster, onthus
male the
C. sertraline
checks
Answer: Check andthe the
A. lactulose patient’s
patient’s armbandwristband
(Chronulac) and The
verifies client the withcorrect
B. 1 supp patient
A. Apnea. extremities
has
drug
D.
oz of cottage cheese. What
anesthetized
reducing,
D. not
Irritating been
develops fever, guanine
not
and
the (Zoloft).
so will function
associated
increasingnoyou
gastric bases liver
pain record in
is
mucosa. with
on
its
aDNA.
felt. normal
abnormalities, the
as
therapeuticThe the onset fashion.
total
patient ofintake
aeffect.
rash,willThis
Reye’s incirrhosis
lessens
disease.
and diarrhea.
not
Inducing mL
receive
medication
forthethis hasThe
stress
general
cytochrome
impairedby
associated
nurse p-
93. Louie D.
checking
ability
with Check isto
position
Brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine
who tofew, the
metabolize
the
receive ifpatient’s
physician’s
restriction proteinroom
and order, number
because
promotes medication on
ofnormal thethe
liver unit
kardex,
dysfunction.census
activity. Fear mayand listAdministration
vial. Which not ofbetheof
C. 3 supp patient? B.would B.
Bleeding Have
suspect
anesthesia
450 system tendencies. this
orwill nota blood
any,
patient
sedation. side
increase has: transfusion
effects.
Statement the adverse 2 contains
isasks false. effects anursefirst
Unnecessary of Drug generation
what B.ispain theOTC
Drug most
should
B induces be
D. 5 supp common A.16. following
lactulose
eliminated.
type
antihistamine
C.
Nothing
Answer
A. 3,357C. Hypotension.
ml the Are
Doctor’s of used is
aids
infection
related Order: not
All
A. ondansetron to in considered
lines
and he
treat
to the
1 a
the ½ can
could clearance
decongestant.
multiple
Lblood of be NS
(Zofran).one
receivedislodged.
types
to of
transfusion.ofbe ammonia
fromtheNeither
of cancer.
infused
Chemotherapy five
Even
the “rights”
viasmall
transfusion.
agent
over the 7 of drug
has gastrointestinal
catheters
hours; Drop
oftenfaster. been
The
induces administration?
can
nurse
associated be
factor:
vomiting (GI)
readily tract.
15with
Answer: C. 3 supp prevented. cytochrome p-450 system but is not metabolized Thus, the
teaches Answer
Answer:
A.
Ethacrynic
seen.
him
the Right
that
development A. Stimulating
C. Check
dose
approximately acid ofathe
isdisease diuretic.
Reye’s neuroreceptors
1patient’s
inagents. Folic
250,000
syndrome. wristband acid in
and the medulla.
thiamine are Vomitingvitamins, (emesis) which may is
1 g = 1000 mg B. 3,375 D. D.
mlB.gtt/mL. What Are
Graft-versus-host
centrally
Pyrexia.
therapeutic
initiated
The correct
cell
by
byflow cycle-specific
a
stimulating
effects
way nucleus
rate
to of (mL/hr)
identify Drug
of
the
cells B
a
will
(GVHD).
chemoreceptor
will
located
patient
you notpatientssetbe in
before
on the
decreased.
the
contract:
trigger
medulla
giving
IV infusion zone
a called
medication
(CTZ) pump?
the
and
vomiting
is to check
A. Human
C. 3,915Answer B.
be
43. Right
used
How
immunodeficiency
A.Myelosuppression.
mlC. 53.6
peripherally ml/hr by
A. Apnea. route
in
can clientscentral
Allstimulating
itemswith venous
disease liver
are adverse disease
access
(HIV).
visceral as
devices
afferent supplemental (CVADs)
nerves
of the in therapy.
be
the nurse of value
GI tract. in a patient
70. Epinephrine is
center.
the name This on center
the administered
coordinates
medication tocomplex
amedication.
administration areactions
femaleseries patient.
record ofwith
drug.
The
events
However,
thetopercentinvolving
patient’s should apnea
B. Hepatitis
B.An C.
37.
75.
214.3 Right
C Ainfection.
female
receiving chemotherapy who
The nurse is
ml/hr frequency client aware tells the
isathat clinic
the has nurse
stomatitis
patients that
who her
and arethat skin is very
severe diarrhea?
allergic dryeffects
intravenous and of irritated.
D. 3,195 mlD.
appearing expect
Answer allergic
Ondansetron during Answer:
this response
the
agent
A. Cross-link (Zofran)first
D.to toDNA
hour
3,195
rapidly arecent
serotonin
ofml drug
affect:
strands infusionwith antagonist occurs
covalent in
bonds blocks
10-12 between the alkyl of
C. A.
C. Hepatitis
neonates
48.
pharyngeal,
contrast
35.7 The
B
serotonin
What
identification
D.
Which Right ml/hr
with product volume
time
chemotherapy
infection. media
and
congenital
gastrointestinal,
band. would
are
prevents
ofusually
The airthe
heart can can
nurse
and nurse
be safely
also and should
suggest
rapidly
treats
defects. allergic be completed
abdominal
nausea
Clinicians
infused
also tothat ask
which
and
into
wall
the the apatient
client
allowing
of
vomiting.
deciding
patient
contractions
the toapply toiswith
the
following
It
utilize to that
state aproducts?
the
stomatitis
especially
alprostadil dry groups
central
lead
their to
skin?
A.
on
venous
name. Adrenergic
expulsion the drug Theaccess of and
name receptors.
gastric guanine
device on contents.
the (CVAD)? bases
door on
Catecholamine
or the DNA.census Alkylatinglist inhibition
are agents
not does
sufficient are not highlyinduce
proof of
2. Doctor’s Order: Nafcillin 500 mg po pc; Available: Nafcillin 1 gm tab D. West Answer
must D. A.
Nile
A.
useful
be
142.9 glycerin
and diarrhea to
Eggs
viral
prepared disease.
B. Graft-versus-host
in chemicals
ml/hr emollient
single-day resolve.
toreceptors.
intubate Answer:
highly disease
andemetogenic B.alkyl
mechanically 214.3
(GVHD) cancer ml/hr
GVHD
ventilate chemotherapyoccurs
the when
infant. (for white
Careful example, blood
1 ptB. A. =Muscarinic
reactive 500
ItShellfish mlChemotherapy
is dependent on that introduce
patient’s weight radicals and into
height. biologically active
(scored). How many tab will you administer per day? cellsvomiting.
monitoring identification.
Answer:
B.
B. inaspercreame
cisplatin).
C. donorformlC. Right
Crystalloid
Cholinergic
molecules apneablood
The and
Calling
can frequency
orattack
agents
receptors.
thereby
be the
administered
inthe does
patient
options
respiratory depression is
prevent
Thenot2-4
tissues by
five
their
induce
toname
of rights
are vomiting
isofmandatory.
prevent dehydration.
an
proper
not
immunocompromised
selective medication
functioning,
from
asserotonineffective autonomic
In some as recipient.
administration
reuptake
replication,
having
institutions,
and
the are
This
A. 2.5 tabs Answer 1 ozB.
right
C. =
patient Air
instability. 30
myoflex
C. Hepatitis
C. Soy entering
drug,
Concentrated state Chemotherapy,
right
B their the
infection.dose, patient
name;
hyperalimentation right
Hepatitis through
especially
patients
route, B may
righta
is CVAD
fluid
theoralnot
time, can
most will
agents,
hear right
be follow
well
common may
patient.
administered or circulation
have
understand
Frequency
infection an through to
irritating what is not
the the
process
elective inhibitors.
D. can occur
intubation
Nicotinic
transcription. They occurs
receptors. within
increase
Alkylating a month
prior the
agentsto initiation ofhave
available the numerous transfusion.
oflevels the medication. of serotonin.
side Options effects 1 and including 4 may be a
B. 2 tabs spreadthought, the lungs where
viaeffect
nurse
included.
D.
CVAD.
D. acetic
blood
acidic on the
istransfusion.
saying,
acidnurse
fruits gastric it will
and
solution mucosa,
may
Donors be absorbedrespondare whichtoand could
a name cause result awhichno inproblems.
afferent
is not their messages own. to the
alopecia,
C.
solitaryIt
but
is
the
nausea,
dependent
tract nucleus, on
must
vomiting, remember
comorbidities
but these andscreened pathways
that
myelosuppression.
such
by
immunocompromised
as asthma or
do not
questionnaire
project Nitrogen chronic
to the
that transfusion
mustards
obstructive
vomiting have
C. 1.5 tabs includes 240 D.
81.recipients ml
symptoms.The +
59. Methotrexate,
Mandy, 120
aarechemotherapy
patient ml
The
at + 375
riskdonated
calls fortheGVHD. mlthe dose
most + 960
blood
clinic can
widely ml be
is also
today + reduced.
1,500
used tested
because ml = 3,195
forheinfection.
antimetabolite is taking ml (Cottage
The
in canceratorvastatinrisk ofnon-
a31.
lung
25. broad
Answer
center. Thedisease. spectrum
A. Adrenergic
most isimportant of activity
receptors.
instructions against Epinephrine chronic
amorning
nurse lymphocytic leukemia,
(adrenaline) rapidly affects
D. 1 tab Answer: C. 1.5 tabs infection cheese
17.
(Lipitor) with
Answer toA
Doctor’s
chemotherapy
Answer: theisnurse
treat not
agents
B. Shellfish
Order:liquid
A. glycerin
his preparing
does
high atoptions
inMandol roomSome
not
cholesterol
emollient the
300
penetrate client’s
temperature,
2breast
types
and mg 3in
Glycerin
and of hasis50
the contrast so
decreased
mL
central
having pain in
is an itofiscan
media
D5Wnotgive
NPH insulin dose
nervous
emollient toincluded athat
tocontain patient
approximately
both infuse
system when
ofthey
isiodine
IVPB
his regarding
and
(CNS).
used legs. as
15 notices
1for an
You dry,thea
To
Hodgkin’s
D.
both
65. None.
Myeloablation
ofalpha lymphoma,
and beta using and
adrenergic chemotherapeutic and
receptors ovarian eliciting
agents cancer, ais but
sympathetic
useful in cancer are (fight effective
1 g = 1,000 mg 88. use
clumpy
calculating
in 2 instruct
million ingredient.
minutes; Drop
treatsecondary
Jonashim
cracked,
 Answer CNS
chemotherapeutic
the antibiotic ampicillin prescribed
to: precipitate
comesintake.)
and Shellfish
to
factor:
disease
C. Concentrated intodonor
irritated inside
the
10
this
agents also questioning
local
gtt/mL. How
skin.drug the
containbloodinsulin
must
Aspercreme
hyperalimentation
because significant
and
donation
be many vial.
of DNA donor
administered:
and for
The
mL/hr hernurse
amounts
blood
center.
Myoflex
fluid
cross-linkage.
are
will can you to
should:
testing.
He of
are says
be iodine.
set used The
he
on
administered
Alkylating is
the
to Therefore,
hereIV
treat toor a
infusion
agents
incidence flight)
treatment
A.
patient
of call
draw
West response.
the up
who Nilebecause:
physician
andis viral
allergicMuscarinic
administer if
transmission she
to iodinehas
the receptorsany
dose
will
is breathing
unknown,
exhibit are cholinergic
an butdifficulties.
allergic
donor receptors
response
infection and
to
is still
both are iodine
A.donate
pump?
Stop A.
through
are platelets
Intravenously.
muscular
taking
noncell thethe
aches. onlyAcetic
drug
CVAD.
cycle-specific today.
and make
In patients The
acid agents. nurse
solution
an appointment
unable knows istoused take thisfor process
tooral be seenisnext
irrigating,
nutrition, called:
cleansing,
week. and
parenteral
relatively primarily
A.
B.
Answer
rare. Itshake
take
containing destroys located
itD. None.
with
the contrast the
meals
vial at
inmyelocytes
Any parasympathetic
an soair
media it entering
attempt doesn’t
and (muscle cells).
to an cause
disperse
shellfish. the junctions.
right an
These the
heart Cholinergic
upset stomach.
clumps can
products lead do to receptors
nota pulmonary
contain
B.A.A. Directed
Continue200
B.
packing ml/hr
Subcutaneously.
hyperalimentation
54. Hormonal donation.
taking
wounds the
agents drug
infected
is an areand by
option
used makePseudomonas
for
to treat appointment
providing some aeruginosa.
nutritional
cancers. to be seen
support.
An example next week.
Highwould be:
respond
B. Itdraw
take reduces alltoAll ofacetylcholine
the size
medication ofabe the
stimulation.
cancer tumor.
prescribed Cholinergic
even thereceptors include
C.B.B.Stop C.
embolus.
iodine.
Autologous
87.5
C.
38. taking ml/hr
Intrathecally.
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concentrations
A. Thyroxine nurse thethe dose
isair
donation.
drug
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should andmg/kg
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thyroid
new purged
instructions tovial
protein,
cancer. the from to acentral
clinic
minerals, to beifvitamins,
client venous
seen
regarding symptoms
today. lines;
and quinapril
trace
stop should
none sooner.
elements
3. Doctor’s Order: Synthroid 75 mcg po daily; Available: Synthroid 0.15 9. Doctor’s
94. AD.maleOrder: muscarinic
C.
D.
enter After surgery,
not
warm
patient theshare the
patient.
with and the
bottle
blood 7.5
nicotinic
it
pills reduces
under typewith receptors.
AB,anyone
runningIM
the Rh q 12
amount else.
water
factor hr; Available:
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positive chemotherapy
receptors
dissolve needs Kantamycin
theaclump are needed.
blood cholinergic
C.C.
Walk Allogeneic
3.3
D. By
forml/hr
hydrochloride
canACTH be inhalation.
at least
provided. donation. 30
(Accupril).minutes
Dosing Theand
iscarcinoma. call
nurse
not affected if symptoms
tells withdose client:
options continue.
mg tab (scored). How many tab will you administer? 0.35transfusion.
Gm/mL. How B.
receptors
D.
49.
76. ItA Kentmany
destroys tomL
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new
treat thewill
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adrenal
boneyou by nurse administer
nicotine
marrow asks and
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her for toeach
found
preceptor transplant.
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providetoml/hr 13-month-old
take Transfusion
C. Estrogen antagonists free the watermedication but Service
child
Answer: hasto recently
with (blood
veryA.food 200
treat breast little arrived
bank)
ml/hr
only
nutritional sends
cancer. United
type
benefits. O, States
Rh from
Hyperalimentation foreign
A. 1 tab patient?
negative neuromuscular
Answer:
a blood sample
blood
country to C. take
C. draw
with
the unit
his junctions.
all
fromthe
parents
for ofthe the
dose
a patient
nurse
and medication
from needs
to witha new
infuse a prescribed
vial
portacath
childhood into The
this nurseeven
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immunizations.
patient. if
should
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The symptoms
always
preceptor
nurse inspect stop
nurse
Answer Answer
B.
can C. Stop
to rise
provide
D. Glucagon to C. Intrathecally.
slowly taking
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water
treat drug
a lying
and Withand to intrathecal
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carcinoma. to the administration
position clinic to benefits.
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B. 0.5 tab A. 2 knows
ml that: sooner.
the
teaches
reports vial ofthe
that insulin new before
staff nurse: use for solution changes thatremoval may signify loss of
Answer
Muscle aches,Answer
injected
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through
discontinue Ithe
soreness, destroysisthe allergic
theThe15 andthecathe
process
medication
min
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of
weakness
=
eggs. marrow
of
the spinal
0.25
Upon
apheresis
if nausea occurs
hr may further
prior
cord and
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involves questioning,
transplant.
into
signs the of you
Myelo
subarachnoid
myopathy of determine
comes
whole such blood as
B. 1 A.
mlThis donor Frequently patients do not complete
C. 2 tabs fromthat potency.
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71.
fromaThe
space
rhabdomyolysis
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donor. sample
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blood
Walter, entering
a NPH
Greek is
Within insulin
will
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teenage
associated
therapeutic word 
into an be
eggs iswithdrawn
myelos normally
is anaphylaxis.
patient
instrument
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with
effect with
the
will, is the
which uniformly
into
admitted
that
HMG-CoA
be noted isan
patient’s
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syringe
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toreductase
essentially marrow.
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attached
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hospital Clumping,
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Ablation
class antibiotic
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because frosting,
aportacath
vaccines
comes
asantilipemic
brain oftherapy,
centrifuge,
and from andthe
spinal
C. 2.5
B. ml 44. Some central venous access devices In(CVAD) have more thanantagonists one
D. 1.5 tabs Answer: B. 0.5 tab the Answer
Premedicating
agents. and
precipitates
needle
should
acetaminophen
Latin
components
cord. This theword
The C. Estrogen
bacteria
and
he themethods
patient not are
then
patient
ofreceive?
ablatio, will are
signs
placed
(Tylenol)
whole inantagonists
with
which
need not of
blood
options destroyed.
insulin
into
an means
overdose.a A,
diphenhydramine
are
immediate to
damage.
vacutainer.
removal.
separated.
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andOverdoses Dbreast
evaluation this
hydrochloride
Thus,
are One cancer.
situation,
ofmyeloablative
oftoacetaminophen
ineffective the Estrogen
ruleseparated because
(Benadryl)
because
out myopathy. potencyisis
can
portions
the
1 mg = 1,000 mcg D. 1.5 ml lumen.
are used
questionable,
B.withdrawn,
Portacath  Answer:
These to treat multi
it
devices is D.
estrogen
safer 1.5
lumen to
arepreventml not catheters:
hormone-dependent
discard used the
totransfusionvial
obtain and blood cancer,
draw up such
the dose as breast
from ofadonor. new
and Additional
acetaminophen
A. Hepatitis
precipitate
chemotherapeutic
thenmedication doses (Tylenol)
Band
life-threatening
cannot
may the agents
enter
exacerbate will
remaining the destroy
abnormalities
CNS.
the any
components
problem.the bone inExercise
which
marrow.
are ofsamples
reactions
retransfused
willthe
This not or
followingbecause
procedure side
reverse into organs?
the destroys the
18. Answer:
A.
26.
vial. Have
carcinoma.
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an
Jessie Order: A rise
increased
well-known
Ray, slowly
Infuse a risk
newly 1200 fromofadmitted
estrogen mLa lying
infiltration. of to
antagonist
patient,
0.45% Normal a sitting used
has position in
Saline at breast
a seizure disorder Accupril cancer
125 ismyopathy
mL/hr; Drop an
therapy
which is
effects.Directed
and delays risk
B.
normal of clot
inactivated polio
bone
donation
diagnosis. formation.
marrowis collected as well from as the
a blood cancerous donor marrow.
other than The the patient’s
recipient, bonebut
angiotensin-converting
B. Only work awith short while enzyme because (ACE) the inhibitor.
small bore It isclots used off.in would
the and treatment
157 C.
lbsThis
= 71.36
the is is
Factor: being
C. tamoxifen
kg
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C. diphtheria,
a
marrow
donor
60.
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12gtt/min. How
is
Methotrexate
Lungs
71
vacutainer
will
known kgbe (Nolvadex).
match. medication.
will
acellular pertussis,
replaced
to is the a many be This
with
recipient
folate gtt/min
attached a drug,
Which
bone
antagonist.and will
to
tetanus in
is thecombination
of
you
marrow
usually
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regulate
portacath
inhibits transplant.
a family with
enzymesthe
needle drugs surgery
IV?
member to
Myelocytes obtain
required or friend.the other
a
are
for nurse
direct
not
DNA
of hypertension. The client should beare instructed to rise slowly byfrom a lyingThe to
7.5 mg/kg
D. The xA. 71C.
82.Autologous
Which32.
2 kg
muscle
base
Are
chemotherapeutic
question A=of
gtt/min
sample.
patient
D. beneficial
client
532.5
mumps, measles,
issynthesis.
at ifminimal
cells
donation
the ordered
with
mg To
Tumors
following
torisk
isdrugs
patient
for
histoplasmosis
the
prevent him?
rubella
are reduces
receiving
adverse solid
collection
care (MMR)
harm masses
effects
but
has
this breast
to and an
product prohibitively
cancer
order
typically
istoreinfusion
normal associated since
cells, recurrence
forlocated ketoconazole
ofaitthe
expensive.
is
fully the
patient’s first
inactivated
organs. 30
(Nizoral).
time own percent.
Surgery
form blood.of
B. B. Liver
sitting
D.
A.
nurse
12 Any Allow
Estrogen position
Phenobarbitol,
gtt/min teaches different
antagonists and
the 150 to
medications
client permit
can
mg to also
hs do the orbe
which legs
solutions
administered
of thedangle to be
following from
administered
to prevent the
while bed breast
taking momentarily cancer
this in
4. Doctor’s Order: Diuril 1.8 mg/kg po tid; Available: Diuril 12.5 mg he has been
AllogeneicD.
may beneedle
transfused knownwith
performed
donation and syringe
to
is reducetype
collected reduce O, may
Rh tumor
from bea utilized
negative burden
blood blooD. to
and
donor obtain require
other thefactor) sample.
less chemotherapy
folic acid
with levothyroxine (Synthroid)
C. Kidney
before
simultaneously.
women
B.
25 Amitriptylene
medication? standing
who have
as
to leucovorin
a measles,
(Elavil), strong
therapy?
10the family
mg
(folinic
hypotensive
QID. history
acid;
ofis
citrovorum
effect.
the disease.The than medication the
Thyroxine
can recipient.
be
doesisthe a not
caps. How many cap will you administer for each dose to a 31 lb child? A. C. Answer
Tachycardia
D.
need
gtt/min
afterward.
administered.
Adrenal to
D. mumps,
be Glands
taken Administration
with meals.
rubella
of
It leucovorin
may be
(MMR)
given
The
known
without
measles as:regard
portion
to food.
of
If
A. 2 caps  Answer D. natural
C.
A.
27
C. This
MMR Valproic
take
gtt/min thyroid
isthe
vaccine acid
medication
a compatible hormone.
issample(Depakote),
grown Answer: on
match.
in It does
anC.
chick 150
empty25
Type not
embryomg gtt/min
O, treat
BID
stomach Rh cells.thyroid
negative cancer. ACTH is an
B.89. 66.
Nurse
A.
Bradycardia
Answer
nausea
Anticipatory
Induction
anterior pituitary
Bryan
A. The
occurs, knows
therapy. nausea
thehormone,
that
client
and
will the
should
vomiting
beage
which withdrawn group
bestimulates
associated
instructed that into uses
the aThe with
tosyringethe
take
adrenal
current
blood chemotherapy
most
aattached
non
has
MMR
glands
units none
colato
vaccine ofoccurs:
oftocarbonated
blood
the
release
does
and
B. 2.5 caps the major
blood D. Phenytoin (Dilantin),
B.
Answer
not
A.
B.
C. Hypotension take
antigens contain
Within
products
Consolidation the
D. Allow
and
the medication
ais: significant
is
first different
safely
24
therapy. hours 100
with
administered
amount mg TID
an antacid
medications
after of egg
chemotherapy. to or
patientssolutions
proteins, of and to
all be
blood
even administered
children
types. It with
is
portacath
beverage needle
and salted and then placed intotoast. a vacutainer. A special aport-a-cath
C. 3 caps glucocorticoids.
C. avoid
simultaneously. exposure to crackers
Itchemotherapy.
does sunlightnotPremedicating
treat or adrenal
dry cancer.A full therapeutic Glucagon iseffect pancreatic may be
alsoD. Constipation
known dramatic
B.
A. Premature
C.
needle
noted
alpha
as
1-5
Pulse the days
inis
cell
universal
egg
1therapy.
used after
infants.
to 2 weeks.
hormone, toA multilumen
allergies donor.
access which
are the extremelycatheter
port-a-cath
stimulates
contains
unlikely with to
device.
glycogenolysis
these separate
have
A syringe agents
and
ports
an anaphylactic iswill and
not
attached
gluconeogenesis.
means and toIt
D. 1.5 caps Answer: A. 2 caps prevent B. D.
aChildren
C.
Answer:
D. limit
administer
reaction.
majorBefore
Rescue alcohol
transfusion
However,
ages agents.
chemotherapy 1-20 to
B. Amitriptyline (Elavil),
therapy. 2 An ounces
reaction
patients
years. agent ifperinfusing
that
the
administration. daydo
blood
10 in
respond
mg typeone
QI port
andto
Elavil egg cannot
Rh is contact
factors
an mix of
antidepressant withthe an agent
10. Doctor’s Order: the sampleHeparin
39. Auranofin (Ridaura)
does is obtained.
7,855 units One Sub
iscancer. of Qthebid; Available:
prescribed primary for a client reasons Heparin for insertion
with rheumatoid 10,000 ofarthritis, a that
donor blood
C.
Answer D.
Adults
 Answer
lowers arenot
infusing
with anaphylaxis should
While ages
A. Tachycardia
portacath
treat
into
incompatible
chemotherapy
B. Liver 21-64
the seizure threshold,
device
pancreatic
another years.
Acetaminophen
is port.
with
Levothyroxine,
the needbe
isthe Thus,inrecipient’s
being so
for agents
a medically
administered.
is
would extensively
especially
frequent notthat
blood.
or be would
controlled
in
long-term metabolized
appropriate
higher besetting incompatible
doses,
blood for where
by this
can
sampling.pathways if given
full
patient.
induce Ato thein
units per ml. How and
55.
Answer: many
the nurse
Chemotherapeutic mL will
C. avoid monitors you administer?
exposure the 0.5
agents client often
to sunlight forproduce signs The ofclientancertain
aAn adverse
should degree effect
be taughtofrelated that
D.19.The elderly above
the
TheDoctor’s
together
resuscitation
Answer
hyperthyroid-like liver.
other can Order:
Toxic
B. Consolidation
medicationsbe
efforts
symptoms doses Rocephin
given age can in
65 are separate
be years.
of acetaminophen deplete
therapy.
including anti-seizuregrams
administered ports
Leucovorin
tachycardia. in 250
simultaneously
drugs. if mL
anaphylaxis
is of
hepatic
used
agent D5W to that to
results. infuse
glutathione,
save or
increases The IVPB
“rescue” the45
vaccines
31 lbs = 14 kg A. 0.79 ml vacutainer medication.
myelosuppression willWhich exert of toothe muchfollowing suction indicates on the ancentral adverse line resulting
effect? in collapse
1.8 mg/kg x 14 kg = 25.2 mg or 25 mg (per dose) basal ketoconazole
minutes; Drop
45.
in
27.
normal
ofmetabolic
Answerthe Some
options
resulting Mrs. line.cells
Jane
C. Before
Factor:
institutions
ina,b rate
Only fromis
and
accumulation
Gately
would cincluding
an antifungal medication.
the
special 12gtt/min. How
dohas
chemotherapy
will not
damaging
not not
of
been
be
portacath
leukopeniA.
infuse
contain
the
expected intermediate
dealing
effects many
egga fat
needles
administration. towith
of Leukopenia
It should
gtt/
emulsion,
protein. minawill
agent, quinine,
chemotherapy
induce uterine cancer for
should
bedoes
such
slow
be
Nausea
you
used
taken as
heart not
regulate
allowing
and
with present
toIntralipid,
which several
rate.
access
vomiting
food the
them leads the
ortoto
IVPB?
into
(N&V)
B. 1.79 ml A.
milk. nausea
immediately Antacids but should is delayed be avoidedseveral for days 2 hours to weeks after because:
it is taken because gastric
95. Dr. A.
Answer
Hypotension 6
Rodriguez gtt/min
central
hepatic D. The
months. Pain management
survive
portacath venous
orders
necrosis.
while
would device. elderly
the access
250
be cancer above
aProlonged
side effect devices
milliliters age
cells isuseof 65
die.
the (CVAD)
packed years.
ofprimary
of bradycardia. acetaminophen
Therapy because:
red
People
focus
toblood rapidly older cells
of patients
Constipation hermay than
reduce (RBC)
currentresult 65
isthe for
years
insymptom
aadmission a use
anto trigger
number 43
of
to
of
C. 0.17 ml are
B. diarrhea
A.
acid The common
is patient’s
needed side to effects
hemoglobin
activate ofthe chemotherapy.
and medication.hematocrit TheSome
are normal.
client should are avoid able concurrent
patient. B.This
percent
hypothyroid 30
A.
77.
increasedgtt/min
Lipid
therapy
The
of
your oncology unit.
cancerous
50. What residue
cell
donated
disease.is risk is
cellsand
the of may
administered
isCoombs
blood.
renal
purpose the Her accumulate
This classification
dysfunction,
induction
vital
of for
number
signs
“tunneling”treatmentin
phase. on the
is
but aCVAD
system
expected
admission of:
single
Consolidation
(inserting and
categorizes
to
overdose
are
the occlude
increase
BP therapy
catheter does
110/64, the
allergic
as catheter.
the
seeks
2-4 notpulse
inches reactions
population
to 78,
D. 1.17 ml these C. anorexia
B. events Answer: prior A. to 0.79actually ml receiving chemotherapy by anticipating, or
C. and
ages. 67 IfRed
use
B.
A. Thrombocytopenia.
precipitate
respirations
complete
under
of
gtt/min
thethe
is blood
alcohol,
usefulcatheter
or cells
in because
life-threatening
skin) 18,
extend and
when clogs,
describing are the affected
temperature
the
theand
there
initial medication
problems
surgeon
first.
isclassifying
no99.2
remission treatment
inserts inoccurringisMorphine
hepatotoxic.
apatient
F.the respiratory
and otherreactions
often
Hickman than
usessulfate The
aremoval
system,
central
client
to
different
6mg drugs.
renal
catheter IV, should
and 4Type
q system, also
hours,
device? I
expecting,
D. proteinuria
C.
avoid Folic acid
exposure to have
levels these
to sunlight,are effects.
normal. because N&V the medication post-chemotherapeutic
increases
B. Anemia.
83.D.Which replacement.
reactions
87
or
prn gtt/min
adrenal
combination
Tunneling: has
administration of been
the are glands.
of immediate
ordered.
following drugs
iswhite not an Answer: thanDuring
adverse hypersensitivity
that
anticipatory C.
your
used
effects 67 assessment
for
is
event gtt/min reactions
induction.
specific but by after
to
rather and
Chemotherapy
lunch,are
the biguanide diabetic mediated
an effect of the drug.your findings
is by:
often
C. Leukopenia.
drug D.
A.
90. metformin
are: The
photosensitivity.
C. Lipids
immunoglobulin
A child
administered BP current
are
is92/60,
admitted necessary
(Glucophage)inpulse E cell
with
intermittent (IgE).
66, count
aonly serious
respirations
therapy? in isthenot
courses most
infection. affected
called
10, of extreme
and After
pulse temperaturechemotherapy.
twocases
therapy. days toPulseprevent
of antibiotics,
98.8. Mrs.
therapy essential
Gately he is
A.
N&V Increasesoccurring the during patient’s the comfort
administration level. chemotherapy is an effect of the
severely Answer:
fatty
D. Hypoalbuminemia.
B. acid
immunoglobulin
is crying
allows D. proteinuria
neutropeniC.
theand (EFA) bone tells deficiency.
G
The (IgG). Auranofin
physician (Ridaura)
orders granulocyteis a gold preparation
transfusions that
forof the is used
A. Hypoglycemia
B.
drug. Decreases themarrow you of
risk sheto isrecover
infection. still experiencing function before severe another pain. course Your action
Answer 33.
as
D.
GIB. Anemia.
C. an
Fat A days.
nurse
antirheumatic.
emulsions
immunoglobulin AtoThe has
red taught
bloodare A Gold very
(IgA).aasks
cell client
toxicity
caustic. thetaking
transfusion is ana adverse xanthine to effect bronchodilator and is evidenced about by
5. Doctor’s Order: Cleocin Oral Susp 600 mg po qid; Directions for mixing: B.next four
Answer
should
chemotherapy
distress
C.
67. Prevents
beverages Medicationsbe D. The
to
theiscurrent
avoid.
mother
given.
patient’s
bound The
white clothes
tonurse protein cell haveis
nurse
count
from
determines
is
having
the used
why? not The
affected
following
that
contact
the
correct
nurse by
with
effect:
client
anemia
responds:
chemotherapy.
the catheter
understands
in
the
The
Add 100 mL of water and shake vigorously. Each 2.5 mL will contain 100 patients
C.A.Lacticin decreased
D.
“Thiswhich
time immunoglobulin
is the
thethe
required
acidosis hemoglobin,
low
onlyto red
treatment
clear M
blood (IgM). leukopenia,
circulating cell
left count
to offer cells reduced
must the
before be
child. granulocyte
rapidly
the” effect that corrected. counts, RBC proteinuria,
D. Enhancement
A. Makes catheter of drug less visible
availability. to other people.
transfusion
D.B.20. information
72.
hematuria,
“This will A contraindication
not
Atherapy correct ifisthe fast aclient
low
isLand for
stomatitis, glomerulonephritis, nephrotic chooses
platelettopical
reliable which
count.
in corticosteroid
treating RBCof the following
hrusage
transfusion inbeverages
syndrome, willa male not patient
or
correct from
cholestatic 60the with
mg of Cleocin. How many tsp of Cleocin will you administer? 11. Doctor’s
chemotherapeutic
A.
61.
SomnolenceDoctor’s
Answer
B. give
Rapid
Order: Demerol 50
male her Order:
A. Lipid the
Patient
distribution next ¼
residuedrugs
mg
ordered
ofof
undergoing
IVP
D5W
the have
may q drug
6
toon
dose
accumulate
hr to precursor
infuse
chemotherapy
of MS.
receptor
prn pain; Available:
over ininfections
cell
2sites.
the maturation
45
maymin; Drop
CVAD inalso children.”
and
Demerol
be in given
occludethe
factor:
75
bone the
the drug
a low white
C. dietary
Answer
“The blood
marrow physician menu?
atopic dermatitis (eczema)
jaundice. Anorexia,
A. immunoglobulin
cell
becomes count. will have
evident.nausea,
Packed to is: and diarrhea are
RBCs
E
explain (IgE). contain
his IgE, rationale very least frequent
little
to common
you.” plasma side effects
serum
and, thus, of the
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Answer
ml 40. administration
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and
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are
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Fenofibrate and
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hyperuricemia. The a
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46.
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cancer
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saliva, colostrum,
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athe newborn’s
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12. Doctor’s
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antitussive.
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 Answer
IgM,type
Answer
uric the
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surgical
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6. Doctor’s Order: Sulfasalazine Oral Susp 500 mg q 6 hr; Directions for C.91. and
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34.
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68. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to attire.”
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type donor simplex
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62.
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A. 5 ml aby
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mask, disc.
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C. 2.5 mlthreatening
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have
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report the catheter.
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infection. glycocalyx
4Topical
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allogeneic
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seizures,
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to
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marrow
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patient’s 3
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toxicity
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life-threatening. in is: little
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(Lamictal)
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an anticonvulsant.
an elevation to within these
body
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blood antigens.
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temperature.
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protects
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D. 2 ml Answer: A. 5 ml C.
B. Enterohepatic
ibuprofen (Motrin) cycling.
59 kgpatient.
= 130 D.eye lbs 28.
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hormone-dependent
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1.75 mg/lbs C.
x cancer,
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oxidase) competes
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nurse lbs = inhibitors
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Answer  
D.
Answer
warned
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22.stimulation
naproxen
Glycocalyx
Answer
patient
granulocytosis.
before
The C. An
physician
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C. Enterohepatic
autologous
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decrease
provides
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the administration
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penicillin a risk
cycling.Drugs
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patient andblooD. the
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An aexample
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What as:
metabolites
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streptococcal typeinserting of and
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reinfusion
pharyngitis.
PICC
intravenous will (IV)wear device a cap, should mask, the and nurse sterile consider gown and starting? gloves.”
A.ofThe
0.9 the patient’s
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nurse
 Answer administers own
cancer
weights
B. Intravesical blood. would
higherthe Itadministration.
is
be:
drugthan recommended
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the Americanpatient via the hasMedical
bile,
an allergicstored in
A. AB.small 73.
Answer
Answer
catheterIn infants C. Infection.
A. aplastic
to and children,
decrease anemia. A foreign
patient the
Aplastic side
body
discomfort effects
in
anemia a blood ofisfirst thegeneration
vessel result increases of over-the-
asince theit risk of
hypersensitivity
Association’s
theRoquefort,
5 percent
A.
reaction. gallbladder,
dextrose
The 1.5 Council
nurse
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x 2 on
delivered
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checks
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solution theAffairs
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the medication order intestines as
cheese. the by safestthe bile
sheet product
andduct, finds and then
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counter
infection. (OTC) antihistamines,
Catheters that come such
outside as diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
thepast, and
B. The type
C.eliminates
Sterile
patient reaction
Strict of
reabsorbed
Answer
B.
A. grape IVaseptic
water
is
Prostate
device
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juice,
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use
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for pancytopenia,
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C. AD.large hydroxyzine
infection.
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inprolongs (Atarax)
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red caused
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cells, infective
and platelets. Ais
7. Your patient has had the following intake: 2 ½ cups of coffee (240 collected gloves
drugs
Heparin sodium
A. Answer:
C.
only
B. onions,the from
and
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C. acetaminophen
garlic,
nurse’s—she blood when
or donor
their
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should other
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D. Thealso type organisms
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hemoglobin and 4clientare
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drop.
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clearance
histamine
administering
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Renal isfrom
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13. Doctor’s Order:
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but are
syndrome. 0.8notblood mg the ofIVprimaryisbolus bid; Reconstitution
problem. Once placed, instructions: these lines do ofnot
D5W IV and 2 oz of grits. What will you record as the total intake in mL for B. number
known
Answer infection.
the
only
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sum
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by sodiumand
gastrointestinal cells
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chloride make
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nurse oronly
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Answer to 1000
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large pain number
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catheterLarge
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A. 2,325 ml Injection. How
components
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and
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The mL
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itexisting
into
Intravascular
acetaminophen.
reactions.
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The othercheddar, involves
medications or Camembert could vessels. aggravate
cheese. Intrathecal already
A. 2 catheter.
ml causeThe
B. 3,265 ml Answer: B. 3,265 ml D. D. Nausea and diarrhea.
require
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Nurse Blessy is doing some patient education used before
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Answer: D.Athe the granulocyte
pharmacist,isphysician, a type ofand white nurse blood are all cell. liable for the mistake
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Rationale:
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144.
Answer: Dr.
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When
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concentration
with bonec.marrow canof lead
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chemotherapy drugs
a prothombin to thrombin Formation of a.Rationale:
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that
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What
b. Doxorubicin
suppression, of
dosage
thromboplastin prolonged bleeding;
andwill the
it is nurse
always givenwhen
administer? in less d.than
conjunction 20,000
Montelukast with cells/mm3,
the rescue drug cause 1. Pregnancy
total
immediate
inhibits alopecia,
transmission but
discontinuation some
between doof not.
the There
medication? is known, accepted method of
b.TIA( transient ischemic attack)preganglionicd.and postganglionic Nasal Polyps neurons in the
2.
A. Renal
spontaneous
A. The nurse
Answer:
leucovorin, and
C- which should
Leucovorin uncontrolled bleeding can
is an use the entire
(Knowledge)
antidote forfactors
folic acidoccur.
50 milliliter vial.
antagonists. Basically, leucovorin preventing disease 
chemotherapy-related alopecia.
b.Vitamins k-dependent collting d. Conversion of Autonomic Palmar-plantar Nervous erythrodysesthesia.
System, often by acting asC.a Constipation. nicotinic receptor antagonist.
B. The
Rationale:
rescues nurse when
the healthy should given determine
in combination the volumewith to administer
Leucovorin, from
Leucovorin the physician.
can enhance 3. Infection 
prothrobin to fibrincells from methotrexate. B.
Answer: Ataxia.
b. disease 
TIA (comprehension) D. Insomnia.
C. This
the
130.Drugs binding concentration
that offact fluoroucil
to destroy of to product
an enzyme
rapidly shoulddividing not cells;
inside betheused. cancer
cell-cycle cells.nonspecific 137. 4.
The Liverclient withofnon-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is being managed with
Answer: Conversion a prothombin to thrombin (Appication) 167.
Rationale:
5. What
Metastatic to type
reduce cancer drugfeverare and therelievefollowing: mildTrihexylphenidyl
to moderate painProcycladine from conditionsuc
D.
(drugs
159. TheWhat nurse
that act is an will
at any administer
time duringdrugs?
anti-neoplastic 4 milliliters.
the cell cycle) vincristine (Vincasar). Which of the following indicates a side effect specific to
Rationale:Parenteral anticoagulants such as heparin work by disrupting Benztropine?
muscleAnswer: aches, B. Ataxia.
toothaches, (UNDERSTANDING)
common cold and headaches.it may also be used
a.145.
alkylating
a. conversion
to The agents.
curemaleofclient with breast c. antitumor
c. to palliative
cancer antibiotics
is receiving (relieve of symptoms)
Tamoxxifen (Nolvadex). The this medication?
Answer D. The prothrombin
nurse will administer to thrombin. A 25 percent solution contains a.toAlopecia a.Answer:
Rationale:
Adrenergic
reduce pain During
Agonists
and the administration
swelling in condition. b. Cholinergic of Fluorouracil. Agonists Monitor for symptoms of
b.nurse
b.to
antimetabolites
control
specifically treatment monitors which all4ofmilliliters.
d.d.laboratory
vinca alkaloids
the value?
above dizziness,
1,2,4,5
weakness,
(Analysis)
and ataxia which are
c. Chest heaviness
signs of cerebral dysfunction
one quarter of a gram per milliliter. Thus, the nurse will administer 4 milliliters c. Cholinergic
Rationale:inPregnancy,
b. Numbness
Antagonists
the toes renal or liver disease,
d. Adrenergic Antagonists
and metastatic
d. Weight gain cancer are that
a. 116.
Activated partial thromboplastin
An aabnormal time would immediately lead to the discontinuation of the medication.
to provide completemass gramofofunregulated, albumin. Theproliferating volume in option cells which 1 would usuallyprovide 106.Most rapid route of drug
contraindications to the use of immunostimulant drugs. Infection, administration is:
Answer:
b. produces
Answer: A.d.alkylating
Triglyceride alla of the or
level above
agents. (Knowledge)
12.5 grams of lump
albumin. The(KNOWLEDGE)
tumor; can be
nurse benign
should or malignant.
determine the volume. It is a.Answer:
Oral C Cholinergic
immunodeficiency disease,Antagonists andc.cancer (Knowledge)
Intravenous
are indications for use of these drugs.
Rationale:
c. Fasting
Rationale: drugs
blood
is antoalkylating used
sugar for cure, control, or palliative (relief of symptoms) Answer: 123.B-The Numbness in the for toesa (Knowledge)
a. antineoplastics
unnecessary seek theagent answer used from in the
cancer physician.treatment A 25that attaches
c.percent
neoplasm an is
solution b.Rationale:
Parenteral nurse is caring
Cholinergic Antagonists. clientCholinergic
d. receiving
Intramuscular chemotherapy
antagonist is a when general an term for
treatment
d. Serum
alkyl of DNA.
sodiummalignancies and
Thepotassium Rationale: A side effect specific to from
this medication is peripheral neuropathy. It
anb.groupcycletocells
acceptable product alkyl
and can group safelyis attached
be used.to the guanine base of d. DNA, at
interphase anaphylactic
agents that bind reaction
to cholinergic occurs
152. The type of immunity achieved through the administration of vaccine receptors the medication.
(muscarinic  The
or nurse
nicotinic) should
and take
prevent is
the number 7 nitrogen atom of the purine ring can be
which
Answer: manifested
actions?
b. Parenteral as numbness
Select all that andapply. tingling
(knowledge)and other cholinergic agonists. The most sensation in the finger and toes.
Answer: C- neoplasm (KNOWLEDGE) the effects
called:  of acetylcholine(ACh)
160.
Answer: TheBclinic Triglyceridenurse provides Level (Knowledge) instructions to a client receiving an Rationale:
A. active
Stopuseful parenteral
the medication. administration
Rationale: amedication.
new and abnormal clinically
a. immunity of these agents areC. generally
Administer
selective acts
blockers
c. titer Oxygen..
moreofrapidly muscarinic than topical
receptors. or
antineoplastic
Rationale:
131.The
99.especially
CentralclinicTamoxifen
nurse
venous provides
access(Nolvadex) Wheninstructions
devices isgrowth
implementing
(CVADs)
of tissue
an antineoplastic
to a client
are
in
thefrequently
plan,some thepart
medication
receiving nurse
an
ofthat
utilized
the
tells
to
body,
may
antineoplastic the enteral
138. The administration,
client with acute with onset
myelocytic of action
leukemia often is occurring
being treated in 15-30
with seconds
Busulfan for
as a characteristic ofand cancer. B.
b. Remove
passive the
immunity  IV line. D. Administer epinephrine
d.Vaccine
client
increase
medication. to? cholesterol,
When implementing triglyceride calcium levels. Complete clientblood count,for
administer chemotherapy. Whatthe is plan,
a distinct the nurse advantage tells the
of using to? CVAD
the IV168.10-20
(Myleran).
E. minutes
The
Positioned
Nicotinic nurse forspecifically
the
receptors IM and
client in
are: 15-30mins
a monitorsfor which
reverse Trendelenburg position.SC. laborator value while the
a. To
platelet
a.To drinkdrinkcount, beverages
beverages serum containing
calcium,
containing alcohol
cholesterol,
alcohol inand
in moderate moderatetriglyceride
amountamount level during
during must thethebe
chemotherapeutic agent administration? body surface. What client is takinga.this
a.Answer:
G-protein active
gated medication?
immunity (Knowledge) c. Found in Preganglionic
evening 117. Chemotherapy
evening
monitored periodically dosing
before is usually
the administration based onofthe this total
medication.
A.should
CVADsthe arenurse less expensive than a peripheral IV. a. Serum calcium inc.smooth
107.Diarrhea
Rationale:
Answer: A. Stopcause:
can
Active Immunity
the medication. occurs when the Prothrombin
patient has received time the vaccine.
b.
b. B. To
ToOnce avoid
eat high hot foods do
fiberadministration before
and
rich foods is possible. high administering
fiber rich foods chemotherapy? b. Ligand gated d.(APPLICATION)
Found muscle
a week b.a.Rapid
Uric
Passiveacidabsorption
Rationale: level
immunity
During isan achieved
anaphylactic by directly
reaction, d. Platelet
c.
administering
the No count
absorption
medication antibodies to a patient.
is immediately
ToA.
c.
c.146.
C. To Get
take
Caustic
the
Chemotherapy
take body massacid
acetylsalicylic
agents indosing
acetylsalicylic smallacid
index is
veins
(BMI).
as
asusually
needed
canneeded based
be for
foravoided. onheadache
headache the total body surface. What
Answer:
b.Delayed
A titerB-isUric a Acid
absorption
measurement (Knowledge) of the amount of d.
antibody No produced
effect on drugs
after a vaccine.
d. B.
To Ask
consult the client
with about
healthcare intake and
providers output.before receiving immunizations. stopped. The nurse assesses the respiratory status and monitors the client
d.should
D.ToThe consultthe
patient nurse
withorhealth do
hisbeforefamilycareadministering
providers
can administer before chemotherapy?
thereceiving
drug at home. immunization Answer: B Ligand gated (Knowledge)
height of the patient on the day of administration. Rationale: vital signs. Busulfan The (Myleran)
physician is
is an antineoplastic
contacted immediately. medication that
and cholinergic
an can cause
emergency
a. C. GetWeigh the body andmass measure indexthe(BMI). Rationale: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors(nAChRs) are receptors
anAnswer:
increase
153.
medication c.uric
Which acid
No client
absorption
is given level
would such in(Analysis)
the
the asnursebody.
epinephrine. Option A,receiving
question C and D the arehematopoietic
not related to this growth
b. D.
AskAsk
Answer: the d.the Toclient
client about
consult for with the
output height andand
healthcare input weight.
providers before receiving that form ligand-gated ion channels in body
the plasma membranes
Answer
Answer: D- C. Caustic
To consult agents
with in small
health care veins can bebefore
providers avoided. receiving medication.
Rationale:
factor no absorption
erythropoietin it
(Epogen)? means your isn’t able to take ofofnutrients
certain from
c. Weigh
immunizations and
Many chemotherapeutic measure
(Comprehension) the height of the patient
drugs are vesicants (highly active corrosive materials on the day of administration. neurons andeat. on the postsynaptic side of the neuromuscular junction. As
immunization (Application) the a.foodTheThe you
client was diagnosed withdirectlylung cancer
d.
that Ask
Rationale:
Answer:
can theproduce
client
Option
C. Weigh height
A: Clients
tissue and and weight
needeven
measure
damage tothe avoidheight
in low alcoholof thetopatient
concentrations). minimize the riskday of
onExtravasations of
124.
ionotropic client
receptors, with non-Hodgkin’s
nAChRs are lymphoma linkedand is metastis
to being
ion managed
channels andwithdo not use
Rationale:
Answer:
toxicity.Option because
c. Weigh B: antineoplastic
and
Diarrhea measure as one of medications
the height
the common of lower
the the
patient
signs resistance
on the day
of antineoplastic of of the 139. b.
The The
vincristine client
client with was
(Vincasar). an diagnosed
ovarian Which with
cancerof the essential
is receiving
following hypertension
Tamoxifen
indicates a side (Nolvadex).
effect specific to
a administration.
vesicant can (APPLICATION)
result in significant tissue necrosis. Administration into a large second
108.It messengers.
ismedication?
the principle site of drug metabolism.
body, clients needs
administration.
medication must(Knowledge)
betoinformed
avoid notand to received immunization without a health Which c.
this The
of the client
following was diagnosed indicates awithside anemia
effect specific and leukopenia to this medication?
vein Rationale:
is optimal. To assure
CVADs thatspicy
are the client
more high-fiber
expensive obtainsthan foods
optimal which
dosescan
a peripheral ofIV. increase
chemotherapy,
Dosing a.Weak Kidney b. Skin with end-stage
care provider’s
Rationale:
peristalsis.Option To approval
assure C: that
Clients the needclient to obtains
avoid optimal
aspirin to doses
minimize of chemotherapy,
the risk of a. d.
A. Theand client
Alopecia. brittle was nails diagnosed C. Chest renal disease
c.heaviness.
Convulsions
dosing is usually based on
depends on the drug. IV chemotherapeutic agents are not administered atthe total body surface (BSA), which requires an 169. What does the beta 1 effect produce?
dosing is usually based b.c.Facial Stomach
Answer: twitchingb. Theinclient d. was Liverdiagnosed with d. essential
Constipation hypertension
bleeding.
home.accurate They current
are given inon
measurement anthe total
outpatient of body
heightor surfaceand setting
clinic (BSA),
weight which
ifonnot thegiven
dayrequires
of the an
during a.B. Numbness
Decrease in force theoftoes. contraction D. of the Weight heartgain. c. Bronchoconstriction
accurate
132. Mitomycin
administration.
hospitalization. current measurement
(Mutamycin) of height to
is prescribed and weightwith
a client on the day of cancer.
colorectal the All
b.Increase
Answer:
Rationale: d.liver in force
(synthesis)
Epogen ofis contraction
frequently of the heart tod.clients
administered Relation of smoothkidney
in end-stage muscle
administration.
of161.
which are the routes
Epinephrine Options
treats of A what? and B will not except?
administration, provide the information needed. Option Answer: Answer: D- B B.
ConstipationNumbness in the
(Knowledge) toes. (UNDERSTANDING)
Rationale:
Answer: the smooth
Increase in endoplasmic
force of
disease to stimulate their bodies to produce red blood cells. The kidneys reticulum
contraction of of
the the liver
heart cell
(Knowledge) is the principal
D
a.a.
100.will
Oral Alead
Cancer
118. female to inaccurate
Mitomycin patient’s
(Mutamycin) value inis
central c.determining
venous Intravesical
prescribed access c.tothe true body
Urinary
device
a client with total
retention
(CVAD) surface.
becomes
colorectal cancer. All Rationale:
Rationale: Tamoxifen Ametabolism.
side (Nolvadex)
effect specific is an to antineoplastic
this medicationmedication is peripheral thatneuropathy.
may It
organ
Rationale:
naturallyof drug Beta
produce Receptor
erythropoietin Systems to stimulate red blood cell production, but
b.b. Intravenous
infecteD.
of whichWhy
Bronchospasm are would the routes the physician d.
of administration, Intraarterial
order antibiotics except?
d. Hypertension to be given through the line increasecan be calciummanifested levels. as Signs numbness of hypercalcemia and tinglingincludes sensation constipation,
in the finger and toes.
147. Epinephrine
clients with activates renal disease both may the beta1and
not be able beta2-receptors.
to produce the Norepinephrine cytokine
A. The
rather than
Oral. nurse through is caring a peripheral for of a client IV line? who is receiving a chemotherapy. C. Intravesical. Which abdominal 109.What
activates
erythropoietin.
pain, hypotonicity of muscle, nausea and vomiting. Option A, B and
isonlythethe goalbeta1-receptor.
of administering Effect thrombolytics?
of Beta1 Receptor Activation on the
of
A.B.
Answer: the following
ToIntravenous.
prevent
A-B Oral would
infiltration be
(Analysis)of(Knowledge) expected
the peripheral line as a result of the massive cell destruction
D. Intraarterial. that C are signs
125. Activation of
A client hypocalcemia
with
Answer
occurred
Bronchospasm
fromthe thepain chemotherapy? a.Prevent
Heart: embolism of athesarcoma beta1 receptor is receiving leadsBleomycin
c.to increases Prevent (Blenoxane).
ininfection
contractile Theforcenurse in
B. To reduce
Rationale:
Rationale: Mitomycin
Epinephrine and
(Mutamycin)
causes discomfort is an associated
bronchial antitumor
smooth with antibiotic
antibiotic
muscle used in
relaxation administration
theand helps charge
b.Dissolve
and heart for
clots
rate. the client expect the physician to
d. order which diagnostic
Prevent Bleeding procedure?
154. This is a substance released from cells in response to cytotoxic T-cell
ina.Answer:
aLeukopenia
treatment
alleviate small off vein
anal,
A.
bronchospasm, bladder,wheezing,
Oral.(ANALYZING) head and and neck,dyspnea and c.Thrombocytopenia
non-small
that maycell lungduring
occur cancer. A. Pulmonary
Chemotherapyfunction
140.activity. dosing studies usually (PFT’s). based on the C. total Cranial x-ray. What
body surface.
b.
There Anemia
C.Rationale:
Toislessen
no pill... the
form chance
of this of an
medication/ allergic reaction
options d.Hyperuricemia
b, to
C, the
and antibiotic
D, are routes of
anaphylaxis. When given intramuscularly
Mitomycin (Mutamycin) is an antitumor antibiotic used in the or subcutaneously, epinephrine should B.
Answer:
170. Stress
the nurse
b.
a. Interferons test.
Dissolve do before
Where are Muscarinic 3 receptors clot administering
(Application) c. colony chemotherapy?
found? D. Electrocardiogram
stimulating factor (ECG).
D.treatment
To
medication.
has attempt
a rapid onset
of to sterilize
and short
anal, bladder, theduration
catheter
breast, of andaction.
cervical, prevent havinghead
colorectal, to removeand it and
neck, a.Rationale:
Get the body mass
thrombolytics index work(BMI) by dissolving a major clot quickly. This helps
Answer: d. Hyperuricemia (Analysis) b.Interleukins
a. GIT d. monoclonal
c. Visceral smooth muscle antibody
non-small cell lung cancer. There is no pill form of this medication. b.restart
Ask theblood
Answer: client about
flow
A. Pulmonary to the intake heart aand
function andoutput helps
studies prevent
(PFT’s). damage
(KNOWLEDGE) to the heart muscle.
Rationale:
Answer D. To Increase level of uric acid theto(Hyperuricemia) in thehaving body istocommon b. Myocardium d. Neuromuscular junction
isattempt to sterilize catheter and prevent remove it c. Weight anda.measure the(Blenoxane)
height of theispatient on the antibiotic
day of administration
133.
162. The
following What nurse
thetype ofproviding
treatment drug is teachings
forTerbutaline?
leukemias a client receiving cyclophosphamide Rationale:
Answer: Bleomycin
Interferons (Knowledge) an antitumor that can cause
Microorganisms that infect CVADs areand often lymphomas
coagulase-negative because chemotherapy
staphylococci, d. Ask theaclient for thenurse, height andare weight
(Cytoxan).
a. 119.
Cholinergic
results The The
in massive nurse
clientagonist with tells a the client
testicular cancer is
cell destruction.Options which of the
being following?
c. treated
Adrenergic
A, B, and through with
C are usually Etoposide
antagonist noted, but 110.Asinterstitial
Rationale: competent pulmonary
Interferons fibrosis.
are you
substances Pulmonary
aware thatfunction
vasodilator
naturally-produced tests and chest
are andusedreleasedx-ray are
mainly byto
which can be eliminated by antibiotic administration the catheter. If an Answer: C Visceral smooth muscle (Knowledge)
a.b. Eat foods
(Etopophos).
Adrenergic
increase rich
uric acid in
agonist potassium
Which c. of the
Adrenergic
level is specifically following side
antagonist effect
related to massive c.
d. take
is the
specifically
Acetylcholine medicationassociated for food with treat:done
human while
cells on
that this have treatment.
been invaded by the viruses. It can be released from
unsuccessful in eliminating the microorganism, the CVADcellmust destruction
be removed. Rationale: The M3 muscarinic receptors are located at many places in the
this medication? a.Diabetes
Answer:cells in response to measure
other stimuli, such as of c. cytotoxic Hypertension
T-cellthe activity.
CVAD
b. Increase use lessens the
fluid intake 2-3 liters per day need for peripheral IV lines and, thus,
d. Eat foods rich in purine the risk of body, C- e.g.,Weight smooth and muscles, the theendocrine
height the patient
glands, the on exocrine dayglands,
of lungs,
148. A. Chest pain.
TheBclinic nurse C. Alopecia. b.Atrial
administration
126. fibrillation
The (Analysing)
client with an ovarian cancer is d.
receiving Hypotension
Tamoxifen (Nolvadex).
Answer:
infiltration. Adrenergic
In this caseprovides
agonist
however, instructions
(Knowledge)
the antibiotics to a client are given receiving an antineoplastic
to eradicate pancreas and the brain. In the CNS, they induce emesis.
B. Edema.
medication.
microorganisms
Rationale: Whenfrom
Terbutaline, implementing
thesold CVAD. under the
CVAD the plan, use
brand thehas nurse
name tells
thisBricanyl
effect, D.but
the client
among in thisto? case,isthe
others, a Rationale: Which
155. To
Whichof assure
theimmunefollowingthatstimulantthe clientisobtains
indicates a side optimal
usually effect
used specific fordoses
treatment of this
to chemotherapy,
ofmedication?
blood-related
Answer: c, hypertension (compression)
Answer:
a.To Orthostatic hypotension.
antibiotics
drink
β2adrenergic B- Increase
beverages givenfluid
arereceptor through intake
containing
agonist, 2-3
theused liters
alcohol
CVAD as atoper day (Analysis)
in"reliever"
eliminate
moderate the
amount
inhaler infective during
in the agent. evening. dosing
the The
management A. isWeak
cancers?
171. What
usually andbased brittleon nails. the total body surface (BSA), which requires an
C. Convulsions.
Rationale: cyclophosphamide Rationale:
accuratea. current
B. Interferons
Facial isarea long Phenylephrine
measurement
twitching. term medical ofand height Methoxamine
condition
c. and in
colony
D. Constipation. weightwhich most
stimulatingonthe commonly
the blood
day of
factor theused into the
pressure treat?
b.To
third
of drink
option
asthma beverages
would notand
symptoms containing
occur. as can cause
alcoholhemorrhagic
a tocolytic in moderatecystitis.
(anti-contraction amount Encourage
during the
medication) the
evening.
to delay a. Nasal congestion c. Blurred vision
arteries
administration. is
b.Interleukins persistenly elevated.
Option A and B will notd.provide monoclonal the information
antibody needed. Option
c.Answer:
client
pretermToto consult
increase
labor D. for Orthostatic hypotension.
with their tofluid
uphealth 48 care intake
hours. 2-3 liters
providers (UNDERSTANDING)
per day,
before unless immunization.
receiving contraindicated. .
b. lead
Hypertension d. Constipation
d.Rationale:
To eat highWhile
101.Cyclophosphamide, fiberon richetoposide busulfan,infusion, blood
foods and camustinepressure is are all classified monitored as: throughout D willAnswer: to inaccurate
D. Constipation. value (ANALYZING)
determining the true body total surface.
a. and itnurse
should 111.Beta
Answer: blocker
c. colony should stimulating be avoided factorin which
is (Understanding) of the following condition?
163.
134. Alkylating
The
The 2 types is be
agent ofadministered
cholinergic
monitoring a patient slowly over
receptors a patient are? 30-60
c. receiving minutes
Antimetabolitean IV to infusion
avoid hypotension.
of an Rationale:
Answer A Nasal
Tamoxifen
Congestion
(Nolvadex)
(Knowledge)
an antineoplastic medication that may
b.
Answer:Antibiotic c. to consult d. Natural product a.Bronchial
141. The
Rationale: nurse asthma
is caring
Interferons for are a client
usually
increase calcium levels. Signs of hypercalcemia includes include constipation,who is
indicated c.
receiving for Hypertention
a chemotherapy.
hepatitis C, Kaposi Which
sarcoma, of
antineoplastic
a. Nicotinic and Alphawith
medication. 1 During healththe care
c. providers
infusion,
Muscarinic the andbefore
patient receiving
Epinephrine complains immunization.
of pain
120.
(Comprehension) The nurse is providing teachings to a client receiving cyclophosphamide theb.Angina
Rationale:
following
and AIDS-related
abdominal Decongestants
would pain, behypotonicity
expected
complex. These amedicines
asof muscle,
Interleukins result of are d.
nauseahelp
theusually myocardial
reduce
massive
and for cell
renal
vomiting. infarction
the destruction
swelling
carcinomas in your
thatand
and redness
b. Beta 3 and at the insertion site. The
Muscarinic d Gnurse protein should
and ligand take which gatedactions
Answer:
(Cytoxan).
Rationale: A.Because
Alkylating
The nurse agent tells (Analysis)
antineoplastic the client to which lower
medications of the the resistance of the body, occurred
following? nasal
severe passages
from and ease the stuffiness and sinus pressure. They come as
the chemotherapy?
thrombocytopenia.
EXCEPT?
Rationale:
clients must Alkylating
be informed agent not is to an alkylating
received agent
immunizations used in cancer
without a treatment
health care that a.Answer:
nasal
Leukopenia a. Bronchial asthma (knowledge)
sprays, c. Thrombocytopenia
A. EatDfoods
a.Answer:
Increase the
Galkyl flow richrate
protein inand potassium.
of ligand
the medication gated (Knowledge) 127. The nurse is evaluating the medical history of a client who will be
attaches
b.provider's thean
B. Increase
Notify physicianfluidgroup
approval.Option intaketotoDNA A:2-3 Clientsliters need per day. to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of b.Rationale: Anemia
156.
receiving At what angina,hypertension,myocardial
phase in the(Elspar).
Asparaginase cell cycleThe d.are
nurse
infarction
Hyperuricemia
cells resting?
contacts
are all related to the beta
the health care provider if
Rationale: Acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) are of two types: muscarinic blockers.
172.a.G0 What Bronchial
is Methacholine asthma isusedthe condition
to treat? which c.G2 cause the airway path to the
c.toxicity.
C. Take
Apply aOption
heat B:iceDiarrhea
theormedication compress as to
with one
food.theofsite the common signs of antineoplastic which of the following is noted in the history?
(mAChR)
102.An and nicotinic (nAChR) spicy based on the agonist activities canofincrease
the natural lungs
a.B.G1 toD-swell and narrow.(Analysing) d. M
D. Eatanti-estrogent
d.medication
Administer foodsneeds richtoinavoid
an antidote antineoplastic
purine.
as prescribed and drug. high-fiber foods which Answer: Urinary retention
Hyperuricemia
A. Diabetes Mellitus type II. c. Asthma
C. Asthma.
alkaloids, muscarine
Option C:and nicotine,
needc.respectively. These receptorstheare function
a.Cyclophophamide
peristalsis. Clients to avoid Tamoxifenaspirin to minimize risk of b.Answer:
Rationale:
Glaucoma
B. Pancreatitis.
a.G0 (Knowledge)
Increase level of uric acid (Hyperuricemia) D. Ischemic heart in the
disease.body is common
different.
b.Metrotrexate
bleeding. d.per day. Vincristine 112. Rationale:
following A client
the treatment resting
is on lipid- stage(
forlowering cells are
leukemias drug neither
and therapy.
lymphomas dividing
To evaluate nor preparing
because to divide)
thechemotherapy
effect of anti-
Answer: C-Increase fluid
Answer: A- Increase the flow rate of the medication (Application) intake to 2-3 liters (ANALYZING) d. Hypertension
lipedemics,
results
Answer: in massive
C the
Asthma nurse
cell will check which
destruction.
(Knowledge) Option laboratory
A, B and blood
C are component
usually noted,to be but an
164. Rationale:
Rationale: What ADVERTISEMENTS
Extravasation
receptors aremay involved occurinduring the infusion of chemotherapy.
the Parasympathetic division? Signs Answer: B. Pancreatitis. (EVALUATION)
Answer:
149. The C.
nurse Tamoxifen
is monitoring (synthesis)
the laboratory results of a male client receiving lowered
157. uric
increase Aby this
patient
acid medication?
is receiving
level is specifically her third course
related to of 5-fluorouracil
massive therapy
cell destruction. and knows
ofa. Cyclophosphamide
which are pain, redness canand cause swelling hemorrhagic cystitis.
on the insertion Encourage
site. The infusion the client
must to Rationale:
Rationale: Provocholine
One of the (methacholine
majoradverse toxicitieseffect chloride)
associated is a cholinergic
with asparaginase drug that
therapy
Adrenergic
Rationale:
antineoplastic is a receptors
medication
medications. that
The is used
nurse to
plans c.
prevent Cholinergic
to may breast
initiate bleeding receptors
cancer in women
precautions if and a.HDLthat
causes stomatitisb.
wheezing
Total
is a cholesterol
potential
and shortness oftestbreath
c.of
andbe
LDL
antineoplastic
is used as a test therapy.d. All
What
to determine
of willis
stop increase
and their
the physician fluid is intakenotified. to 2-The 3 liters per day,
physician unlessorder contraindicated.
the administration the pancreatitis.
above Pancreatic function should performed before and during
treat breast
c. Cholinergic cancer
receptors in women and men. d. Norepinephrine receptors the nurse teach her about this problem?
ofwhich
an antidotelaboratory and ais heat valueoriscold noted? compress is done. 142.whether
The client you ismay
the administration
a. Aspirin should
receivinghave
be oftaken asthma.
the Cisplatin
medication.
toand
Provocholine
prevent
(Platinol-AQ).
the
is Which
development
only administered
of the following
of stomatitis.
in a side
clinical
a. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3 c. Clotting time of 8 minutes setting
effect is and
related is toused the for testing
medication? not to treat any conditions.
121. The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving an Iv infusion of an
103.Anti-neoplatic
Answer:
b. Platelet count ofdrugs
C Cholinergic 45,000 that
receptors are(Knowledge)
cells/mm3 cell-cycle specific, d. Hemoglobin killing celss countinofthe S phase. a.Answer
15g/dl b. She: b.should
Depressed
total watch
tendonacetate
cholesterol for and (compression)
reflexes(Megace) isc.prescribed
report black, tarry stools immediately.
Tinnitus for a client with
135. antineoplastic
The nurse is medication.
monitoring the During
laboratory the infusion,
results the
of a patient
male complains
client receiving of pain 128.
Rationale:total
c. she Megestrol
should cholesterol
increase includes
her intakelow of foodsdensity lipoprotein
containing fiber(LDL, andorcitric
“BAD”) acid.
a. Cyclophophamide
Rationale: Receptors. The parasympathetic c. Vincristine
nervous system uses chiefly b. Photosensitivity d.reviews
Ptosisthethesympathetic
and
antineoplastic redness at
medications. the insertion The site.
nurse The
plans nurse to should
initiate take
bleeding which actions?
precautions Select
if 173.
cholesterol
d. Which
advanced breast
She of
and high
should the following
examine cancer.
density her is
The truenurse
lipoprotein
mouth regarding
daily (HDL, for client’s
or “GOOD’)cholesterol.
bleeding, painfulhistory Nervous
areas andand system?
contacts
b.
Answer:Metrotrexate
acetylcholine (ACh) count as its of neurotransmitter, d. Tamoxifen
although peptides (such as
which thatb.apply.
alllaboratory Platelet
is value is
45,000 cells/mm3
noted?
(Knowledge) Answer: the
Cholesterol
C- Tinnitus
a.ulcerations.
It produces
physician if (Knowledge)
is abronchoconstriction,
waxy, which of thesubstance
fat-like following pupillary is
found constriction
documented
in every cell inandthe in vasoconstriction
client’s
your body.history?
cholecystokinin)
Rationale: The normal can bevalue used.for The ACh acts
platelet is 150,000on two to types
450,000 of receptors,
cells/mm3. theWhen Rationale: Cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), an alkylating medication, may cause
A. Reinsert
a.muscarinic
White
Answer: blood
b. and the IV
cells
Metrotrexate countat a of distal
6,000/mm3
(Application) part of the same vein. b.A. Pulmonary
Norepinephrine primarily activates the sympathetic
embolism. C. Bronchial or adrenergicasthma. receptors
platelet count isnicotinic
less thancholinergic50,000 receptors.minor trauma can lead to episodes ototoxicity,
cells/mm3, tinnitus, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia,m hypocalcemia and
b.of B.
PlateletIncrease count the flow
of 45,000 rate of
iscells/mm3 the medication. c. There
B.
Answer: are
Gouty arthritis. two
d. Option
She adrenergic
should examine receptors, her the
mouth Nicotinic
whendaily D. and
Ischemic
it; for bleeding, Muscarinic
heart receptors
disease.
painful areas
Rationale:
prolonged
C.isNotify
Metrotrexate
bleeding;
theofleukemia
physician.
when a synthetic
less thancompound 20,000 cells/mm3, that interferes spontaneouswith celland 113.The
growth nephrotoxicity. action of medication A: is a sign is inotropic
of hypermagnesemia. Options B and D are and
c.uncontrolled
Clotting
and to time
treat bleeding 8 minutes can and other
occur.Option from of
A: cancer
Normal white blood cell count is 4,000 d.ulcerations.
This system
a.Decreased is also known as the “restingc.-and
(Comprehednion)
afterload -digesting
Increase heart“system rate
165. D. How
Applymany a count
heat muscarinic
orofice receptortotypes
compress the site. are there? side effects not related to this medication.
d.toHemoglobin
11,000/mm3. 15g/dl Rationale:
b.Increase
Answer:the The force
A. Pulmonary symptomsof contraction of stomatitis consist
embolism.(EVALUATION) d. Isofused paintoortreat burning CHFin the mouth,
a. 4E. Administer c. 5 Option C: Normal clotting time is 8-15 minutes. Option D:
an antidote as prescribed.
Normal
104.Salbutamol hgb is 13.5-17.5
is an exampleg/dl. of: difficulty
Answer:
Rationale: Bswallowing,
Megestroltaste
Norepinephrine acetate changes,
primarily (Megace) viscous
activates is ansaliva,
the dryness, agent
sympathetic
antineoplastic cracking, that and
or adrenergic treats
b. 6 d. 8 143. The client
fissures,
Answer: b.and with with
Increase or non-hodgkins
without
the force bleeding of lymphoma mucosa.
contraction is(evaluation)
receiving
She should Idarubucin
avoid consuming foods
Answer:
a. Generic B- PlateletName count of 45,000c.cells/mm3 Manufacture’s(Knowledge) Name receptors
breast (Knowledge)
endometrial cancer. This medication is contraindicated for patients
Answer: C. normal
Notify the physician. (ANALYZING) (Idamycin).
containing
Rationale:
with Which
the
a history citric
term ofacid the
inotropicfollowing
and
of thrombophlebitis and foods
state would
that
is most indicate
are hot or
commonlyused
pulmonary tospicy
the nurse
or
embolism high
in that
in the client
fiber.
reference is
Assessing
to
Rationale:
b. Trade The
Name
150. What "triggers" an immune system response? value for platelet is 150,000 d. to 450,000
Drug Name cells/mm3. Rationale: Norepinephrine is a chemical released from the sympathetic
Answer: C 5 count (Knowledge) experiencing
stoolsdrug anthat
issystem adverse
important buteffect is not related
torelated totocontraction
the is medication?
It stomatitis, ofand as aspirin should not bea
Whena.Rationale:
platelet
Antigen Extravasation
entering isthe lessbody thanmay50,000 occur
c. Antibody duringentering
cellls/mm3, the infusion
minor thetraumabody can lead to Signs various
of chemotherapy. nervous inaffect
response the strength stress. of classified heart muscle.
a neurotransmitter,
Rationale:
of which There
are are
pain, five
redness subtypes and of
swelling muscarinic on the AChRs
insertion based
site. on
The infusion must a. Dysrhythmia
used during this therapy. c. Because
Nausea and vomiting
episodes
Answer: of prolonged
b. Fever a. Generic Name (evaluation) bleeding; when less than 20,000
d. Redness/swelling at an injury site cells/mm3, chemical that is released from
129. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results of a male client neurons. the release of norepinephrine
receiving
pharmacological activity: M1-M5. All five are found in the CNS,the while b. Weight loss d. Peripheral toneuropathy
stop andGeneric
spontaneous
Rationale: the
andphysician
uncontrolled
drug contains is notified.
bleeding theThe can
same physician
occur.
chemical may order
substance a M1-M4
asadministration
drug that affects other organs
antineoplastic of the body,
medications. Theitnurse is also referred
plans as a stress hormone. if
to initiate bleeding precautions
are
was ofalso
an found protected.
antidote
originally in andvarious a heat tissues:
Trade or cold M1compress
AChRs
is also are common
is done. in secretory glands; 158. A laboratory
patient is receiving is value ismethotrexate and is experiencing severe bone
Answer: a. Antigen entering the Name body (Knowledge) known as Ventolin,proventil. which noted?
M2 AChRs are found in cardiac tissue; M3 AChRs are found in smooth marrow
136.Rationale:
A client When an antigen I enters
lose mythehair body, fromthe immune systemThe produces Answer: A. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3. which
A- suppression.
Dysrhythmia The
(Applying) nurse will expect C. Clotting intervention time ofto8be ordered
minutes.
muscles andasked, in secretion “Why will glands. chemotherapy?”
with
Rationale: this drug
Idarubicin to reduce
(Idamycin) this problem?
and Daunorubicin (Daunoxome) may cause
antibodies against it. It is like
appropriate response by the nurse is based on which of the following? a battle with the army (antibody) fighting off the B. Platelet count of 45,000 cells/mm3 D. Hemoglobin count of 15g/dl.
a.invader
It is difficult(antigen).to predict A type of white blood cell called a lymphocyte recognizes a. A transfusion
cardiotoxicity (such asofDysrhythmia, whole blood fatigue, c.  filgrastim shortness (Neupogen) of breath), therapy
b.166. What typebeing
the antigen as
All chemotherapy of cholinergic
foreigntotal
causes antagonists
and producesare
alopecia the following:
antibodies that are Nicotine
specific to that b. leucovorinand
cardiomyopathy rescue ECG changes. Option d. epoetin B: Weight alfa (Epogen) gain nottherapy weight loss is a
c.Hexamethonium
antigen.
Special shampoos Tripethaphan?
can be used to prevent alopecia side effect. Option C: is a usual side effect that can last for 2-3 days. Option D:
d.a.Chemotherapy
Synthetic affects normal cells c. depolarizing
that divide often is not a side effect related to this medication.
b. alkaloid d. Ganglionic blockers
174. The following are cholinergic effects EXCEPT? Answer: D Ganglionic blockers (Knowledge)
a. Bronchoconstriction c. Pupillary constriction Rationale: A ganglionic blocker (or ganglioplegic) is a type of medication that
b. Decrease in blood pressure d. Vasoconstriction inhibits transmission between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons in the
Autonomic Nervous System, often by acting as a nicotinic receptor antagonist.
Answer: D Vasoconstriction (Knowledge)
Rationale: Release of acetylcholine from parasympathetic nerves activates 167. What type of drug are the following: Trihexylphenidyl Procycladine
post junctional muscarinic receptors present on airway smooth muscle, Benztropine?
submucosal glands, and blood vessels to cause bronchoconstriction, mucus a. Adrenergic Agonists b. Cholinergic Agonists
secretion, and vasodilatation, respectively. . These changes are due to c. Cholinergic Antagonists d. Adrenergic Antagonists
increased parasympathetic nerve activity.
Answer: C Cholinergic Antagonists (Knowledge)
175. An Anticholinergic drugs use preoperatively to decrease salivation, Rationale: Cholinergic Antagonists. Cholinergic antagonist is a general term for
nasopharyngeal and Bronchial Secretions? agents that bind to cholinergic receptors (muscarinic or nicotinic) and prevent
a. Atropine c. Plicamicin the effects of acetylcholine(ACh) and other cholinergic agonists. The most
b. Metoprolol d. Secobarbital clinically useful of these agents are selective blockers of muscarinic receptors.

Answer: A Atropine (Knowledge) 168. Nicotinic receptors are:

Rationale: Atropine Injection is given before anesthesia to decrease mucus a. G-protein gated c. Found in Preganglionic
secretions, such as saliva. During anesthesia and surgery, atropine is used to b. Ligand gated d. Found in smooth muscle
help keep the heart beat normal. Atropine sulfate is also used to block or
reverse the adverse effects caused by some medicines and certain type of Answer: B Ligand gated (Knowledge)
pesticides. Rationale: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors(nAChRs) are cholinergic receptors
that form ligand-gated ion channels in the plasma membranes of certain
176. Drug Used to relieve urinary retention? neurons and on the postsynaptic side of the neuromuscular junction. As
A. Bethanecol C.Plicamicin ionotropic receptors, nAChRs are directly linked to ion channels and do not use
B.Biperidnin D. Secobarbital second messengers.

Answer: A. Bethanecol (Knowledge) 169. What does the beta 1 effect produce?
Rationale: It is a Direct-acting Urecholine Drug. a. Decrease in force of contraction of the heart c. Bronchoconstriction
b.Increase in force of contraction of the heart d. Relation of smooth muscle
177. What side effects should the nurse expect when giving anticholinergic? Answer: B Increase in force of contraction of the heart (Knowledge)
A. Bronchospasm and excessive salvation C.Palpitation and Dry Mouth Rationale: Beta Receptor Systems
B.Headache, Hypotension and Bradycardia D. All of the Above Epinephrine activates both the beta1and beta2-receptors. Norepinephrine
activates only the beta1-receptor. Effect of Beta1 Receptor Activation on the
Answer: C. Palpitation and Dry Mouth (Knowledge) Heart: Activation of the beta1 receptor leads to increases in contractile force
Rationale: Anticholinergic Effects are ( ABCDEFGHI ):Abnormal and heart rate.
urination/urinary retention, Blurred vision due to pupillary dilation, Constipation,
Dry Mouth, Erectile dysfunction, Flushing and fatigue, Glaucoma worsening, 170. Where are Muscarinic 3 receptors found?
Headache, Increased HR. a. GIT c. Visceral smooth muscle
b. Myocardium d. Neuromuscular junction
178. The following are true of cholinergic drugs EXCEPTS.
A. Acts via stimulation of cholinergic nerve fibers Answer: C Visceral smooth muscle (Knowledge)
B.Known to be sympathomimetic Rationale: The M3 muscarinic receptors are located at many places in the
C.May act on nicotinic and muscarinic receptors body, e.g., smooth muscles, the endocrine glands, the exocrine glands, lungs,
D. Produce response similar tgo acetylcholine pancreas and the brain. In the CNS, they induce emesis.

Answer: B. Known to be sympathomimetic (Knowledge) 171. What are Phenylephrine and Methoxamine most commonly used to treat?
Rationale: Known as cholinomimetics a. Nasal congestion c. Blurred vision
b. Hypertension d. Constipation
179. Which patient is at most risk for fluid volume deficient?
A. A patient who has been vomiting and having diarrhea for 2 days. Answer A Nasal Congestion (Knowledge)
B. A patient with continuous nasogastric suction. Rationale: Decongestants These medicines help reduce the swelling in your
C. A patient with an abdominal wound vac at intermittent suction. nasal passages and ease the stuffiness and sinus pressure. They come as
D. All of the above are correct. nasal sprays,

Answer: D. All of the above are correct (Evaluation) 172. What is Methacholine used to treat?
Rationale: As the nursing administering Magnesium sulfate IV, you must a. Urinary retention c. Asthma
monitor for reduced deep tendon reflexes because the patient could quickly b. Glaucoma
develop hypermagnesemia. In addition, seizure precautions should be initiated d. Hypertension
due to the patient’s low magnesium level. Answer: C Asthma (Knowledge)
Rationale: Provocholine (methacholine chloride) is a cholinergic drug that
180. A patient is admitted with exacerbation of congestive heart failure. What causes wheezing and shortness of breath and is used as a test to determine
would you expect to find during your admission assessment? whether you may have asthma. Provocholine is only administered in a clinical
A. Flat neck and hand veins setting and is used for testing and not to treat any conditions.
B. Furrowed dry tongue
C. Increased blood pressure and crackles throughout the lungs 173. Which of the following is true regarding the sympathetic Nervous system?
D. Bradycardia and pitting edema in lower extremities a. It produces bronchoconstriction, pupillary constriction and vasoconstriction
b. Norepinephrine primarily activates the sympathetic or adrenergic receptors
Answer: C. Increased blood pressure and crackles throughout the lungs c. There are two adrenergic receptors, the Nicotinic and Muscarinic receptors
(Comprehension) d. This system is also known as the “resting -and -digesting “system
Rationale:  Patients with CHF are in fluid volume overload and the heart cannot
compensate for the extra fluid volume; therefore, the fluid starts to “backup”.
Answer: B Norepinephrine primarily activates the sympathetic or adrenergic
You would find an increased blood pressure and crackles in the lungs. You
receptors (Knowledge)
would also see pitting edema in the lower extremities but NOT bradycardia.
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a chemical released from the sympathetic
nervous system in response to stress. It is classified as a neurotransmitter, a
181. In which part of the circulatory system is an IV placed? chemical that is released from neurons. Because the release of norepinephrine
A. Artery C. Potassium affects other organs of the body, it is also referred to as a stress hormone.
B. Veins D. Calcium

Answer: B. Veins (Knowledge)

Rationale:  The vein is a rapid route for distribution of fluids and drugs.
 189. A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter at the
182.A
196. When
new IVthe sitenurse
is required
teaches every
a skill
fewsuchdaysastoself-injection
prevent infection of insulin
and toother
the 202. A month after receiving a blood transfusion an immunocompromised male
bedside. The nurse would be sure to check which results before initiating the
patient,
major what is the best way to set up the teaching/learning session?
complications. patient develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse
flow rate of the client’s intravenous (IV) solution at 100 mL/hour?
A.a.True
Provide written pamphlets forC. instruction
Both A & B would suspect this patient has:
A. Serum osmolality C. Portable chest x-ray film
B.b.False
Show a video, and allow the patient D. Nonetoofpractice
the above as needed on his own. a. Nothing related to the blood transfusion. c. Myelosuppression
B. Serum electrolyte levels D. Intake and output record
c. Verbally explain the procedure, and provide written handouts for b. Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) d. An allergic response to a recent
reinforcement.
Answer: A. True (Evaluation) medication
Answer: C. Portable chest x-ray film (Comprehension)
Rationale:
d. After demonstrating
 Recommendations the procedure,
for IV siteallow changes
the patient
vary from to do72-96
several
hours.
return
Rationale: Before beginning administration of IV solution, the nurse should
demonstrations.
However, most health care settings have policies for every 72 hours. The site Answer: Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). (Evaluation)
assess whether the chest radiograph reveals that the central catheter is in the
changing decreases the chance of infection and other complications. Rationale: GVHD
proper place. Thisoccurs when white blood cells
is necessary to prevent infusion in donor blood
of IV fluid intoattack the or
pulmonary
Answer: D After demonstrating the procedure, allow the patient to do several tissues
subcutaneous tissues. The other options represent items that are useful for athe
of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can occur within
183.
return
A Nurse
demonstrations.
has written(Application)
a prescription to discontinue an intravenous (IV) line. month
nurse toof be
theaware
transfusion. Options
of in the general1 and
care4ofmay
this be a thought,
client, but theybutdothe
notnurse
relate to
The nurse should
Rationale: Returnobtain which itemallows
demonstration from the unit nurse supply area forthe
to evaluate applying
patient’s must remember
this procedure. that immunocompromised transfusion recipients are at risk for
pressure to the site
newly learned after
skills. Theremoving
techniques the inIVthe catheter?
other options are incorrect because GVHD.
A.those
Elasticsuggestions
wrap do not allow for evaluation of the patient’s
C. Adhesive bandage technique. 190. The nurse has a prescription to hang a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag of
B. Betadine swab D. Sterile 2 × 2 gauze 203. Jonas comes
5% dextrose intowith
in water the 20
local
mEqblood donation center.
of potassium chlorideHeand
says he istohere
needs add tothe
197. The nurse is aware that the patients who are allergic to intravenous donate platelets only today. The nurse knows this process is
medication to the IV bag. The nurse should plan to take which actioncalled:
Answer:
contrastD.mediaSterileare 2 × 2
usually
gauze also(Evaluation)
allergic to which of the following products? a. Directed donation.
immediately c. Allogenic
after injecting the potassium chloride into the port of thedonation.
IV bag?
a. Eggs  A dry sterile dressing such
Rationale: c. Soy as a sterile 2 × 2 is used to apply b.
A. Autologous donation
Rotate the bag gently. d. Apheresis
C. Prime the tubing with the IV solution.
pressure
b. Shellfishto the discontinued IV site. d. This
Acidic material
fruits is absorbent, sterile, and B. Attach the tubing to the client. D. Check the solution for yellowish
nonirritating. A Betadine
Answer: B Shellfish swab would irritate the opened puncture site and
(Analysis) Answer: D Aphresis (Knowledge)
discoloration.
would not stop
Rationale: Some the types
blood of flow. An adhesive bandage
contrast media contain or elastic
iodine as anwrap may be
ingredient. Rationale: The process of apheresis involves removal of whole blood from a
used to cover
Shellfish alsothe site once
contain hemostasis
significant amounts hasofoccurred.
iodine. Therefore, a patient who donor.
Answer:within an instrument
A. Rotate that is essentially
the bag gently. (Evaluation)designed as a centrifuge, the
is allergic to iodine will exhibit an allergic response to both iodine containing components of whole blood are separated.
Rationale: After adding a medication to a bag oneofofIVthe separated
solution, portions
the nurse is
should
184. The nurse
contrast mediaisand preparing
shellfish. a continuous
These products intravenous (IV) infusion
do not contain iodine.at the then withdrawn,
agitate or rotate and the remaining
the bag gently to mixcomponents are retransfused
the medication evenly in theinto the
solution.
medication cart. As the nurse goes to insert the spike end of the IV tubing into donor. Directed
The nurse shoulddonation is collected
then attach from amedication
a completed blood donor otherThe
label. than the can
nurse
the IV bag,
198. Some thetypes
tubing of drops and the spike endiodine
contrast media contain hits the as top of the medication
an ingredient. Shellfish recipient, but the donor is known to the recipient and is
then prime the tubing. The IV solution should have been checked for usually
cart.
alsoThe nursesignificant
contain should take which of
amounts action?
iodine. Therefore, a patient who a family member
discoloration before or friend. autologous
the medication wasdonation
added tois the
the solution.
collectionTheandtubing
reinfusion
is
A.is allergic to
Obtain a new IV bag.
iodine will exhibit an allergic response to both iodine containing of the patients own blood.
attached to the client last. allogenic donation is collected from a blood donor
B.contrast
Obtain new IV
media and tubing.
shellfish. These products do not contain iodine. other than the recipient.
C.a.Wipe the spike
Hepatitis B end ofc.the tubing with
Diphtheria, Betadine.
Acellular Pertussis, Tetanus (DTaP) 191. All are Anticholinergics except:
D.b.Scrub the spike
Inactivated Polioend d. of Mumps,
the tubingMeasles,
with an Rubella
alcohol swab. 204. A neighbor tells nurse Maureen he has to have surgery and is reluctant to
a. Amphetamines c. Benztropine
Answer: B. Obtain new IV tubing (Comprehension) have any blood product transfusions because of a fear of contracting an
b. Atropine d. Biperiden
Rationale: infection. He asks the nurse what are his options. The nurse teaches the
Answer: D The Mumps,nurseMeasles,
should obtain
Rubella new(Analysis)
IV tubing because contamination has
person that the safest blood product is:
occurred and could cause systemic infection to the client. There is no need to
Rationale: The measles portion of the mmr vaccine is grown in chick embryo Answer:
A. A Amphetamines
An allogenic product. (Knowledge) c. An autologous product.
obtain a new IV bag because the bag was not contaminated. Wiping with
cells. the current mmr vaccine does not contain a significant amount of egg Rationale:
B. Amphetamines
A directed are Adrenergic agonists.
donation product. This means product. 
d. A cross-matched that these are
Betadine or alcohol is insufficient and is contraindicated because the spike will
proteins, and even children with dramatic egg allergies are extremely unlikely drugs that stimulate the adrenergic receptors
be inserted into the IV bag.
to have an anaphylactic reaction. however, patients that do respond to egg
contact with anaphylaxis should be in a medically controlled setting where full Answer: C An autologous product (Evaluation)
185. What is the Majorcan Extracellular Cation? 192. Directthis
Rationale: acting cholinergic/cholinomimetic
process drug
is the collection and reinfusion of the patients
resuscitation efforts be administered if anaphylaxis results. the vaccines in
A.options
Magnesium C. Potassium a. 5-FU it is recommended by the american
own blood. c. Pyridostigmine
medical associations council on
a,b and c do not contain egg protein.
B. Sodium D. Calcium b. Pilocarpine
scientific affairs as the safest product since itd.eliminates Tamoxifenrecipient
Answer: B. Sodium (Knowledge) incompatibility and infection. the product in option 1 is collected from a blood
199. Drugs can cause adverse events in a patient. Bone marrow toxicity is one
Rationale:  Regulates Body Fluids; Attracts Water. Answer:
donor B Pilocarpine
other (Knowledge)
than the recipient. the process in option 2 is also collected from a
of the most frequent types of drug-induced toxicity. The most serious form of
blood donorPilocarpine
Rationale: other than isthe recipient,
a drug but on
that act themuscarinic
donor is known to theproducing
receptors recipient
bone marrow toxicity is:
and is usually
response a family
similar to themember or friend. cross-matching significantly
acetylcholine
186. What might
a. Aplastic Anemia the medical staff call a capped off IV?
c. Leukocytosis enhances compatibility. it does not detect infection.
A.b.Hepwell
Thrombocytosis C. PRN adapter d. Granulocytosis
B. Heparin lock D. All of the Above 193. An anti-hypertensive (beta-blocker) that induces bronchospasms, thus
205. A female patient
contraindicated amongneeds a whole
patients blood transfusion. In order for transfusion
with asthma.
Answer: A Aplastic Anemia (Evaluation) services (the blood bank) to prepare the correct product a sample of the
a. Amphetamines c. Prazosin
Answer:
Rationale:D. All of the Anemia
Aplastic Above (Evaluation)
is the result of a hypersensitivity reaction and is patient’s blood must be obtained for:
b. Metoprolol d. Propanolol
Rationale: These IVitaccesses
often irreversible. are for intermittent
leads to pancytopenia, a severedrugs, such asinnarcotics
decrease and
all cell types: a.A complete blood count and differential c. A blood culture and sensitivity
antibiotics, and are
red blood cells, keptblood
white patent withand
cells, periodic flushes
platelets. of saline and/or heparin.
a reduced number of red blood b. A bloodB type and cross-match. d. A blood type and antibody
However,
cells causes mosthemoglobin
health caretosettings
drop. aare decreasing
reduced number theofuse
whiteof heparin
blood cellsfor make Answer: Metoprolol (Evaluation)
screen. 
Rationale: Beta blockers are widely used in the management of cardiac
intermittent
the patientflushing.
susceptible Recommendations
to infection. and,fora patencyreduced are numbernormally for 2-5ml
of platelets of
cause Answer:
conditions B A blood type
and thyrotoxicosis,and cross-match.
and to reduce (Evaluation)
perioperative complications.
saline everynot
the blood eight hours.
to clot as easily. treatment for mild cases is supportive.
Rationale:
Asthma and This is needed
chronic to utilize
obstructive the correct
pulmonary type of(COPD)
disease donor blood and toclassic
have been
transfusions may be necessary. severe cases require a bone marrow
match the donor product with
contraindications the patient.
to the use of beta Incompatibleofmatches
blockers because would result in
their potential
transplant.
187. The nurse option 2 is aninitial
is making elevated platelet
rounds on the count. option
nursing unit3tois assess
an elevatedthe white severe adverse
for causing events and possible death. The tests in options 1 and 3 are
bronchospasm
count. option
condition 4 is an clients.
of assigned elevatedThe granulocyte
nurse notes count.
that aa granulocyte is a type(IV)
client’s intravenous of
unnecessary. The test in option 4 is utilized to determine the patient’s blood
white
site bloodpale,
is cool, cell.and swollen, and the solution is not infusing. The nurse
type
194. and
The presence
following of antibodies
drugs to blood
are correctly antigens.
matched It does not determine donor
except:
concludes that which complication has occurred? blood compatibility with the patient.
A.200. The most serious adverse C.
Infection effect of Alprostadil (Prostin VR pediatric
Infiltration a. Adrenergic Blocker: Salbutamol c. Anticholinergic: Ipratropium
B.injection)
Phlebitisadministration in neonates D. Thrombosis
is: b. Adrenergic: Epinephrine d. Cholinergic: Pilocarpine
206. Drug that blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin?
a. Apnea c. Hypotension a. Amitryptiline (Elavil) c. Isocarboxacid(Marppan)
Answer:
b. Bleeding
C. Infiltration
tendencies (Knowledge)d. Pyrexia Answer: A b. Adrenergic Blocker:
Fluoxetine Salbutamol (Knowledge)
(Prozac) d. Lithium carbonate(Quilonium)
Rationale: An infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying Rationale: c. Salbutamol is not a adremergic blocker. It is a direct-acting
inAnswer:
subcutaneousA Apnea tissue. Pallor, coolness, and swelling are the results of IV fluid
(Knowledge) adrenergic.Answer: A. Amitryptiline (Elavil) (KNOWLEDGE)
being deposited
Rationale: in theare
All items subcutaneous
adverse reactions tissue.ofWhen the pressure
the drug. However,inapneathe tissues Rationale: Tricyclic Antidepressant ( Amitryptiline) drugs that
exceeds
appearing theduring
pressure theinfirst
thehour
tubing, the flow
of drug of the
infusion IV solution
occurs in 10-12 willpercent
stop. The of 195. Whenincrease
given a scheduled
serotonin and morning medication,inthe
norepinephrine patient
nerve cellsstates, “I haven’t
by blocking the
corrective
neonatesaction is to remove the catheterClinicians
with congenital heart defects. and start deciding
a new IVtoline at another
utilize alprostadil seen that pill before.ofAre
reuptake you neurotransmitters.
these sure it’s correct?” The nurse checks the
site.
must Infection,
be prepared phlebitis, and thrombosis
to intubate and mechanicallyare likelyventilate
to be accompanied by
the infant. Careful medication
207. Drug useadministration
as mood elevator record for
andpatients
verifies with
that depression
it is listed. Which
. is the
warmth at theforsite,
monitoring apneanot or respiratory depression
coolness. is mandatory. In some nurse’s best a. response?
Haloperidol (Haldol) c. Thioridazine(Mellaril)
institutions, elective intubation occurs prior to initiation of the medication. a. “It’s listedb.hereLorazepam(Ativan)
on the medication sheet, so d. you
Tranylcypromin(Parnate)
should take it”
188. The nurse is inserting an intravenous line into a client’s vein. After the b. “Go ahead c. and take it, and then I’ll check with your doctor about it”
initial
201.stick, the nurse
The nurse wouldthat
is aware continue to advance
the following the catheter
solutions in which
is routinely used to flush c. “It wouldn’tAnswer: D. Tranylcypromine(Parnate)
be listed here if it were not ordered (KNOWLEDGE)
for you”
situation?
an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a patient is: Rationale:
d. “Let me check on the order Drug usefirst
as mood
beforeelevator
you takeforit” patients with
A.a.The
0.9 catheter advances
percent sodium easily.
chloride c. Sterile water depression.Drugs that increase levels of monoamine
B.b.The vein is dextrose
5 percent distendedinunder waterthe needle. d. Heparin Sodium
solution neurotransmitters in nerve cells inhibiting monoamine oxidase.
Answer: D “Let me check on the order first before you take it” (Application)
C. The client does not complain of discomfort.
Rationale:
208. movementWhendisorder
giving medications,
characterizedthe asnurse shouldmovements
involuntary always listen of to andand
body
D.Answer:
Blood return
A 0.9 shows
percentinsodium
the backflash
chloridechamber
(Knowledge) of the catheter.
honor any concernsprotrusion
extremities,tongue or doubtsand expressed
rolling,lipbysucking
the patient. If the patient
and smacking doubts
,chewing
Answer:
Rataionale: 0.9 percent sodium chloride is normal saline.ofThis
D. Blood return shows in the backflash chamber the catheter.
solution has the an order, the dyskinesia.
nurse should check the written order and/or check with the
Rationale: The IV catheter has entered the lumen of the vein successfully motion,facial
same osmolarity as blood. Its use prevents red cell lysis. The solutions given in prescriber. a. Acute dystonia
when
optionsblood
2 andbackflash shows in solutions
3 are hypotonic the IV catheter.
and can Thecausevein red
should
cell have
lysis. been
The
distended b. Akathesia
solution inbyoption
the tourniquet before the vein
4 may anticoagulate the was cannulated.
patient and resultClient discomfort
in bleeding.
varies with the client, the site, and the nurse’s insertion technique and is not a c. Pseudoparkinsonism
reliable measure of catheter placement. The nurse should not advance the d. Tardive Dyskinesia
catheter until placement in the vein is verified by blood return.
243. When assessing for side effects expected in a patient taking analeptics, 242. Is a neurologic disorder that affects the control of sleep and wakefulness.
Answer: d Answer:
the nurse wouldD.monitor
(Analysis) Tardivefor Dyskinesia
which effect?(KNOWLEDGE) movement disorder Answer: aa.1Answer: hour ADHDbefore meals (Comprehension)
B. Anti-alzheimer agents (KNOWLEDGE)c. Migraine
Rationale:a.characterized
Taking Insomnia as involuntary
the prescribed movements
daily dosage
c. Hypotension of body
to keep and level of the
the blood Rationale:b.Sucralfate Narcolepsy
Rationale: isAnti-alzheimer
a gastric protective agentsagent. drugs Itthat works by
improved. forming
Insomnia a
the cognitive
drug constant and having a sample
b.extremities,tongue
Hypertension protrusiondrawn andforBradycardia
d. serum drug
rolling,lip leveland
sucking before taking protective layer function on the for ulcer
mild totomoderate
serve as aAlzheimer'sbarrier against disease.acid, bile salts, and
the morning dose.Option
smacking ,chewingA: Wearing a medical
motion,facial tag allows any medical care
dyskinesia. enzymes in Answer:
the stomach. B. Narcolepsy Taken by (KNOWLEDGE)
mouth on an empty stomach at least 1 hour
provider toAnswer: know that the client (EVALUATION)
B. Insomnia is on seizure medication. Option B: Alcohol use before
219. Drugsor 2Rationale:
hours
used toafter eating.Options
Narcolepsy
treat muscle is B and D are
an incurable
weakness. incorrect.condition
neurologic Option C: in Do
whichnot
can increase
209. used Rationale:
in ADHDthe blood levels
Analeptics
and ofare
narcolepsy. phenytoin and may that
CNS stimulants increase
include side effects.
a wide variety take an antacid patients
a. for unexpectedly
at least 30 minutes
Antiparkinsonism fall asleep before inc.the
or after
middle taking
of the
Anti-myasthenia sucralfate.
normal
gravisdaily
Option C: of Taking it with milk
a. medications
Chlopromazine usedwilltoand
impair
treat the absorption.
depression,
Haloperidol ADHD and respiratory activities.
b. Anti-alzheimerPeople with agents narcolepsy experience d. Skeletal excessive daytime
muscle relaxants
depression.
b. LithiumStimulant carbonate drugs
and elevate
Diazepam mood, alertness, energy, 235. Whatsleepiness
is
c. the priority andnursing
intermittent,
intervention
uncontrollable
for a client episode
receiving of falling
an asleep
228. A client c. is prescribed
stamina, and muscle
Methylphenidate with Carbamazepine
power hence making
& amphetamines (Tegretol) for thehyperactive.
the person treatment of antiemetic? during
Answer: theC. day time.
Anti-myasthenia gravis (KNOWLEDGE)
bipolar disorder.
d. Which of theand
Risperidone following laboratory results indicates that the
clozapine a.Monitor intake Rationale: and output. Anti-myasthenia gravis Drugs used to treat muscle
client is experiencing a side effect of this medication? b.Keep
251. Many items
receivesfar away
weakness infrom
Chlorpromazine the bed.
patients with(thorazine).
myastheniaA gravis. few days later, he
244. A nurse working with patients who are diagnosed with ADHD is aware
      a.Neutrophil
Answer: count of 1,200/mm3. & amphetamines (ANALYSIS)
C. Methylphenidate c.Give the client
experienced privacy muscle
generalized by letting him walking
rigidity involvingaround the neck the androom. arched back.
such patients often take CNS stimulant drugs. These medications are
      b.Platelet count of 160,000/mm3. d.Keep
220. do
What bed
Drugs
you thatin
calllow theposition
relieve movement with disorders
muscular side rails associated
spasms up. with anti-psychotics?
potentRationale:
with a highDrugs usedforforabuse
potential Narcolepsy also for attention
and dependence. Based on this
      c.Uric acid level of 4mg/dl. disorder or ADHD also used for obese clients .
deficit/Hyoeractivity A. Extrapyramidal A Antiparkinsonism
symptoms C. Parkinson's c. Anti-myasthenia
disease gravis
potential, how are these classified?
      d.SGPT (ALT)stimulates
level 50 units per liter of serum. B.Answer: d Keep bed in low
B Anti-alzheimer position
agents D. with sided.rails up (Application)
Skeletal muscle relaxants
a.DrugsSchedule I the release ofc.sympatheticSchedule neurotransmitters;
III Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Steven-Johnson's syndrome
primarily
b. Schedule II stimulates the cerebrald.cortex.
Schedule IV Rationale: Antiemetics can cause drowsiness; hence the priority nursing
Answer: a Neutrophil count of 1,200/mm3 (Evaluation) interventionAnswer: is to protect the client
D.Skeletal muscle fromrelaxants
injury such(KNOWLEDGE)
as raising the side rails and
Answer: A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (knowledge)
Rationale:
210. Carbamazepine
DrugsAnswer:
commonly is used
prescribed to treat seizures and nerve pain such as keeping theRationale:
bed in lowSkeletal position.muscle Optionrelaxants
A is not the Drugs most thatpriority
relieve intervention.
muscular
B. Schedule II to treat EPS.
(COMPREHENSION) Rationale: Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), also known as extrapyramidal
trigeminal a. neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. It causes a decreased level of
Amantadine Options B and spasms C willand riskpainthe associated
client for fall.with traumatic injuries and spastic
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high misuse potential with or side effects (EPSE) if drug-induced, are movement disorders,
platelet count, b. white
without
blood cells, and neutrophil count. The normal range for
Benztropine
known dependence to develop, yet these medications have chronic debilitating disorders, like cerebral palsy. which include
neutrophil c. is 1,500 to 8,000/mm3).Options B, C, and D all have a normal value. acute and tardive symptoms
236. ALL are benzodiazepines except:
Diphenhydramine
accepted clinician use.
d. All of the above 221. Drug that a. blocks Chlorodiazepoxide
the reuptake norepinephrine andc. serotonin. Midazolam
229. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed to a client with alcohol withdrawal. 252. The nurse should always monitor signs of Lithium toxicity because it has
245. This is generally used as sedative-hypnotics, pre anesthetics and anti- b. Diazepam
    a. Amitriptyline (Elavil) c. d. There(Prozac)
Fluoxetin are no exceptions
Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an very
    b.narrow
Clozapine therapeutic
(Leponex) range. What is the therapeutic d. Isocarboxacidrange of(Marplan)
Lithium
Answer:
convulsants D. All of the above(KNOWLEDGE)
understanding of the treatment regimen? carbonate? Answer: D. There are no exceptions
a.Rationale: Amantadine, Benztropine
Antidepressants c. CNSand Diphenhydramine
depressants are
A.Answer:
0.1 to 0.5 mEq/L Chlorodiazepoxide,
C.(Elavil)
1.35 to[Knowledge]
1.45 mEq/L
      a."Thiscommonly
medicationprescribed
causes a to blurring of vision".
treat EPS Rationale:
a Amitriptyline Diazepam and Midazolam are all
b. Psychotherapeutic drugs d. . Anti-epileptic agnets
      b."This medication will cause a decrease platelet and white blood cell count B.Rationale:
0.5 to 1.5This mEq/L
under medication D. 1.5is to
the benzodiazepine used2.0 to mEq/L
class.mental/mood
treat Chlorodiazepoxide problems is asuch
sedative
as &
in my blood". depression.hypnotic It may help medication
improveused moodtoand treatfeelings
anxiety,ofinsomnia
well-being, while Diazepam
relieve
211. MoodAnswer: stabilizerC.that CNS depressants
controls the manic (KNOWLEDGE)
phase of manic-depressive
      c."I'll have my physician to lower my dosage once I started to feel okay". Answer:
anxiety and B. produces
0.5
tension,
to 1.5 help amEq/L
calming effectbetter,
you(knowledge)
sleep and Midazolam
and increase is used
your for anesthesia,
energy level.
disorders. Rationale: CNS depressants are types of drug that slows the brain
      d."Drinking grapefruit can decrease the side effects with this medication". This medication
Rationale: trouble
Within thissleeping
belongs range, to aand
most agitation.
class of medications
people will respond called
to the tricyclic
drug without
activity, which causes the muscles
a. Amantadine(Symmetral) c. to relax and calms
Risperidone and soothes a
( Risperdal)
person.. CNS Carbonate
depressants(Quilonium)
are used to treat insomnia, anxiety, antidepressants.
symptoms of toxicity.
b. Lithium d. Haloperidol (Haldol)
Answer: d (Comprehension) 237. The following are nursing implications regarding narcotics EXCEPT:
panic attacks, and seizures. They are sometimes called sedatives
Rationale: Diazepam (Valium) can cause side effects such as sleepiness and 253. All area.Monoamine
222.Antidote Monitor oxidase
for Diazepam effectiveness
toxicityinhibitors of analgesia
except:
or tranquilizers
Answer: B. Lithium Carbonate (Quilonium) (KNOWLEDGE)
drowsiness. Meanwhile, grapefruit can reduce the metabolism of this drug. A.   Atropine
a. Imipramineb. Monitor (Tofranil)  I & O and bowel movements
C. Naloxone c. Phenylzine (Nardil)
Rationale: Antimanic/Mood stabilizer (Lithium Carbonate ) Used as
This can result in increased pharmacologic effect of Valium as well as its side B.   Flumanezil c. Watch
b. Isocarboxacid D.out
(Marplan) for possible tolerance
Pyridostigmine and dependence
d. Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
246. Drugsmood that stimulate
stabilizera:To specific
contrilareamanicof the brainof or
phase spinal cord.
manic-depressive
effects. d. Watch out for respiratory depression and hypertension
a.disorderCNStoStimulants
prevent recurrentc.manic Anti-depressants
and depressive episodes.
b. Narcotics d. CNS depressants Answer:B.a Flumanezil
Answer: Imipramine(knowledge) (Tofranil) [Evaluation]
230. Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety.
212. generally used as sedative-hypnotics, pre-anesthetics and Rationale: Flumazenil isWatch
Rationale: Answer:
Imipramine D. can help outyour
a competitive for respiratory
child controldepression
benzodiazepine nighttime
receptor andantagonist
hypertension
bed-wetting. that
Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the Imipramine(ANALYSIS)
belongs to a class of medications called tricyclic antidepressants. It
anticonvulsants.Answer: A. CNS Stimulants (KNOWLEDGE) can be used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.
medication? Rationale:
works by restoring theMonitoring
balance ofeffectiveness
certain naturalof substances
analgesia, monitoring of I & O
(neurotransmitters
Rationale: CNS Stimulants are drugs that stimulate the brain or
       a.5-10 mcg/ml. c.45-65 mcg/ml. suchAntidote
254. (input
as norepinephrine) & output)
for Narcotic in and boweland
the brain
toxicity movements
it is not belongand watching
to Monoamine out for oxidase
spinal
a. Anti cord.depressants
The actions of these stimulants c. mimic
CNS depressants
those of the
       b.15-40 mcg/ml.   d.50-90 mcg/ml.
neurotransmitters
b. Psychotherapeutic of the sympathetic
drugs nervous
d. Anti-Epileptic
system. agents Atropine possible tolerance
A.inhibitors. C. Naloxone and dependence are all nursing implications
regarding narcotics.
B. Flumanezil D. Pyridostigmine
Answer: b 15-40 mcg/ml (Evaluation) 223. Treats migraine and cluster headaches.
247. What is Answer:
the mechanism
C. CNS depressants(ANALYSIS)
of action of amphetamines?
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range of phenobarbital is 15-40 mcg/ml.      a. 238. Anti-migraine drugs arec. contradicted
Carbamezepine Fluoxetine among patients with:
a.Rationale:
They stimulate
CNS Depressants
areas of the generally
brain associated
used as sedative-
with mental Answer: C. Nalocxone
hypnotics,pre-anesthetics
alertness and anticonvulsants a. Allergies with aspirin
     b. Ergotamine d. Lithium carbonate c. Bradycardia
231. A geriatric patient is prescribed with Cimetidine (Tagamet) for the Rationale: Naloxone,
b. Anti-coagulant which is effectivelytherapy an antidoted.to opioid overdose, will
Hypertension
b. Increased drowsiness completely reverse the effects of an opioid overdose.
treatment of heartburn. Which of the following is the most frequent CNS side Answer: b Ergotamine (knowledge)
213. Drug c. uses as Causes
moodtheelevator
patientforto depressive
relax the brain disorders.
effect? Answer: D. Hypertension
Rationale: Ergotamine is an ergopeptine (ANALYSIS)
and part of the ergot family of
d. Lowers a. Anti thedepressants
mood of the patient c. CNS depressants 255. Whichitof
       a.Agitation. c.Headache.
b. Psychotherapeutic drug d. Anti-Epileptic agents alkaloids; isthe
Rationale: following
structurally is abiochemically
Anti-migraine
and local are anesthetic
drugscloselythatcause
that can
relatedalso tobeergoline.
used forIt of
vasoconstriction
       b.Drowsiness. d.Somnolence.  cardiac
possessesdysrrhythmia?
cranial
structural arteries o relieve
similarity migraine
to several attacks. Common
neurotransmitters, andside haseffects
biologicalare
Answer: A. Amphetamines stimulate the areas of the brain A.activity
Desflurane C. Propofol
associated
Answer: A.with Antidepressants
mental alertness drugs(APPLICATION)
(KNOWLEDGE) as ahypertension,
vasoconstrictor. dysrhythmia
It is usedand stroke therefore
medicinally for treatment clients of with
acute
Answer: a Agitation (Evaluation) B.migraine
Lidocaine uncontrolledD.hypertension
attacks.  Succinylcholine are contradicted and should have their
Rationale:
Rationale: Amphetamines
Antidepressantsisdrugs a drugforwhichDrugincreases
uses as mood people’s
elevator
Rationale: Cimetidine an H2-receptor antagonist passes the blood brain BP monitored
energy,
depressive makes them excited and reduces their desire for food.
disorders.
barrier, and central nervous system side effects can happen. Most common 224. Specific
Answer: B. Lidocainetreatment for petit mal or absence seizures:
(analysis)
Effects of Amphetamines are mood elevation(euphoria), increased
serious
214. Usedsideto effects are confusion,
treatalertness,
psychotic disordersagitation,
. fatiguedepression, and disorientation.       a.239.
Rationale: All of the isfollowing
Carbamazepine
Lidocaine a moderately are side effects
potent c.ofPhenytoin
local Morphine EXCEPT:
anesthetic. The main
mental decreased and drowsiness.
Options B, C, and D: They are considered as the less common side effect. manifestations a. of Depression
      b. Ethosuximide its toxic accident of vitalaresignsneurologic d. Valproic
signs, with Acidconvulsions and
a. Antimanic c. CNS stimulant
b. isAntipsychotics/Neuroleptics d. andAntidepressants no, or slight,b.cardiac Drowsiness
effects onand thesedation
intact heart.
248. This drug used for neonate respiratory
232. A client has been given Ondansetron (Zofran). For which depression incondition
some cases
should c. Severe arthralgia
Answer: b Ethosuximide (Knowledge) and myalgia
COPD in adults
the nurse administer this medication to the postoperative patient? Raionale:
256. Drug that d. relieves
Ethosuximide Tolerance is aand
muscles dependence
medication
spasms usedpain
and to treat absence
associated withseizures.
traumatic It may
a.Answer:
       a.Vomiting.
B. Antipsychotics/ Neuroleptics
Triptans c. c.Abdominal(KNOWLEDGE)
Analeptics (Doxapram)
infection. be used byspastic
itself orchronicwith other antiseizure medications such aspalsy. valproic acid.
Rationale: Antipsychotics/ Neuroleptics used to( treat psychotic injuries and debilitating disorders, like cerebral
b. Ergot
       b.Incisional pain. Alkaloids. d. d.Atelectasis. Caffeine)
Analeptics Answer: C. Severe arthralgia and Myalgia (ANALYSIS))
disorders. A.Ethosuximide
Dantrolene is taken
(dantrium) by mouth. Side effects are generally
C. Lidocaine minimal. 
(xylocaine)
Rationale: Depression
B. Levodopa+Carbidopa (sinement)of vitalD.signs, drowsiness(Anectine)
Succinylcholine and sedation, and
Answer: aAnswer:VomitingC.(Analysis)
Analeptics (Doxopram) (KNOWLEDGE) 225. A common tolerance side and effect dependence
of this drugare all side hyperplasia:
is gingival effects of Morphine. While
215. DrugsRationale:
that alleviate pain and cause loss of stimulant
consciousness .
Rationale: Ondansetron is usedistoaprevent
Doxopram respiratorynausea and vomitingthat encourages
that may be      a. Diazepam severe arthralgia and myalgia arec.allPhenobarbital related to muscle pain.
a. General
breathing by Anesthetics
stimulating both peripheral c.
and Narcotics
central Answer: A. Dantrolene (dantrium) (knowledge)
caused by surgery or by medicine to treat cancer (chemotherapy or radiation).      b. Phenytoin d. Procainamide
b. Local Anesthetics d. None of the Above Rationale: Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant used formatched?
treatment of chronic
Options B,chemoreceptors.
C, and D, are notDoxopram
related towas this introduced
medication.more htan 25 years ago 240. Which of the following drug pair is correctly
into the neonatology to treat neonates struggling with persistent spasticity
Answer: that a. differs
b Phenytoin from
Anticonvulsant: other commonly
(Knowledge) levodopa used (Sinemet)muscle relaxants in acting
Answer: A.apnoea
idiopathic General of Anesthetics(KNOWLEDGE)
prematurity peripherally on muscle, ratherphenytoin
than centrally on theofspinal cord oraroundbrain. the
233. A client is prescribed with Omeprazole (Omepron). The nurse determines b.
Rationale: Gingival Antimanic:
hyperplasia is an ( Dilantin)
overgrowth gum tissue
Rationale: General Anesthetics drugs that alleviate pain and cause Dantrolene can cause acute liver injury which can be severe and even fatal.
that the client is receiving its therapeutic effect if which of the following is stated teeth. Therec. are Anti-Parkinsonian:
a number of causeslithium for this(Quilonium)
condition, but it's often a symptom
249. Which loss of following
of the consciousness during major
are Included in the surgeries.
family of CNS stimulants?
by the client: of poor orald.hygiene Antipsychotics:
or a common chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
side effect of Phenytoin.
a. Amphetamines
        a.Relief of nausea and vomiting. c. Anorexiants 257. All of the following
Answer: inhibits gastric chlorpromazine
D. Antipsychotic: acid secretion EXCEPT: (Thorazine) (ANALYSIS)
216. Used b. to moderate sever pain.
        b.DecreaseAnaleptics
diarrheal episodes. d. All of the above A.226.
Aluminum
Used for hydroxide
Rationale:
refractory C. Esomeprazole
Chlorpromazine
seizures (CPZ), marketed
not responding to otherunder the trade names
anticonvulsants.
a. General Anesthetics
c. c. Narcotics B.   Cimetidine D. Ranitidine
        c.The absence of constipation. Thorazine and
  a. Carbamazepine Largactil
(Tegretol)     among
      others, is an antipsychotic
c. Haloperidol (Haldol)
b.
Answer: Local
D. All of the above (ANALYSIS) None of the Above
Anesthetics d.
        d.Relief from GERD. medication.(Thorazine
     b. Chlorpromazine It is primarily used to  d. treat psychotic(Dormicum)
Midazolam disorders such as
Rationale: Amphetamines, analeptics and anorexiants are all Answer: D. Ranitidine
schizophrenia (knowledge)
Answer: in C. Narcostics of(KNOWLEDGE)
Answer: dincluded
Relief fromthe GERDfamily CNS stimulants. They are therapeutics
(Analysis) Answer: aRanitidine
Rationale: Carbamazepine reduces(Tegretol)
the secretion [Knowledge]
of gastric acid in the stomach by
Rationale: Narcostics Used to moderate sever pain.
Rationale:used for ADHD,
Omeprazole narcolepsy
is used to treatand appetiteofcontrol
symptoms gastroesophageal reflux 241. A benzodiazepine
Rationale:
blocking theCarbamazepine
effect of histamine used is as onaanticonvulsant
an sedative-hypnotic,
histamine as alocated
medication
H2-receptors muscle relaxant
used primarily
on the inand
disease (GERD) and other conditions caused by excess stomach acid. It is parietal ascells
an anticonvulsant:
the treatment of epilepsy
lining the stomach and neuropathic
wall pain. It is not effective for absence or
217. Drugs
250. Used to treat actepilepsy
also used tothat promote on healing
the brainoftoerosive
suppress appetite.(damage to your
esophagitis a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
myoclonic seizures. c.
a. Amphetamines
Anti depressants c. CNS depressants
esophagus caused by stomach acid).Optionsc.B, Anorexiants
a. C, and D are not related to 258. The most important Phenobarbital organ of(Luminal)
the digestive system that contains gastric
b. Analeptics
b. Psychotherapeutic drugs d. d.Saxenda
Anti-Epileptic agents
this medication. 227.The nurse
acid. b. isDiazepamgiving instructions(Valium) to a client receiving Phenytoin. The d. nurse
Answer: C. D. Anorexiants
Anti-Epileptic(KNOWLEDGE)
agents (KNOWLEDGE) A.concludes that the
Small intestine Phenytoin
client
C. Large has(Dilantin)
aintestine
sufficient knowledge if the client states that:
Answer: Answer: B.D. Diazepam
B.   Stomach
a."Wearing a medical Mouthtag (Valium)
alert (KNOWLEDGE)
is not required".
Rationale: Anorexiants are drugsUsed
Rationale: Anti-Epileptic agents that actto treat epilepsy
on the brain t and other
suppress     b."Alcohol Rationale:
is permitted Benzodiazepines
in while takinghave clinically useful antianxiety,
this medication".
234. A client has been
seizure
appetite. Theyprescribed
disorders with Sucralfate
have a stimulant effect on(Carafate) for the treatment
the hypothalamic and
of gastric ulcer.     c."I can sedative-hypnotic,
take the medicine amnestic,
with milk". anticonvulsant and skeletal muscle
limbic The nursewhich
regions, instruct the client
control satiety.that
Theythisare
medication
used as is taken?for
therapy Answer: B. Stomach
    d."Have relaxant
the serum properties.
phenytoinDiazepam level takenis before the onlygiving benzodiazepine
the medication". approved
       drugs
218. a.1 hourthatbefore meals.
improve
obesity. the cognitive function. Rationale: stomach is the most important organ of digestive system because it
       b.1 hour
a. after meals.
Antiparkinsonism c. Anti-myasthenia gravis for the treatment of skeletal muscle spasm and spasticity of CNS
contains gastric origin. acid.
       c.At the
b. same time with anagents
Anti-alzheimer antacid. d. Skeletal muscle relaxants
       d.Lunch time.
 279.It Which
259. does
secretes NOTthat
gastrin belong?
stimulates parietal cells to produce acid. a. aluminum
288. + magnesium
A contraindication (Maalox)
for topical corticosteroid c. omeprazole
usage in a (omepron)
male patient with
A.a.Parietal
benzotropine
cells C. Chief cells c. levodopa b. cimetidine
atopic dermatitis(tagamet)
(eczema) is: d. ranitidine (zantac)
B.b.Mucous
carbidopa
cells D. G cells d. carbonara A. Parasite infection B. Viral infection.
Answer: C. Omperazole
C. Bacterial infection (omepron) D. Spirochete
(analysis) infection
Answer:D.D.G carbonara (analysis) Rationale: This rebound is theorized to the result of an overproduction of the
Answer: cells
Rationale: All are antiparkinsonism. These drugs are drugs that control the stomach acid-stimulating
Answer B: Viral Infection (knowledge)
hormone gastrin in response to PPI-
Rationale: g cell secretes gastrin that stimulates parietal cells to produce acid.
symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. related acid suppression.
Rationale: Topical agents When produce theamedication is stopped,
localized, rather the extraeffect.
than systemic gastrin in
260. Gastric cells that releases pepsinogen the blood
When treating
signalsatopic
the dermatitis
stomach towith work a steroidal
overtime preparation,
to produce acid.the site is
vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses, such as herpes simplex or
A.280. Antacids,
Parietal cells H2, proton
C. Chiefpump
cellsinhibitor, and pepsin inhibitor are all?
a. anti-spamodics c. antiemetics 270. Anti-diarrheal
varicella-zoster, present
drug that
a riskmayof disseminated
cause acute glaucomainfection. Educate the patient
B. Mucous cells D. G cells
b. laxatives d. anti-ulcer a. diphenoxylate
using hydrochloride
topical corticosteroids w/atropine
to avoid crowds or people known c. bothto have
Answer: D. anti-ulcer (knowledge) b. loperamide
infections and (diatabs)
to report even minor signs of an infection.d.Topical none ofcorticosteroid
the above
Answer: C. Chief
Rationale: cells class of drugs used for gastric acid suppression are the
The primary usage results in little danger of concurrent infection with these agents.
Rationale: chiefinhibitors,
proton pump cells release pepsinogen,
omeprazole, the precursor
lansoprazole, of pepsin (degrades
pantoprazole and Answer: D. none of the above (knowledge)
proteins to peptides)
rabeprazole. Rationale:
289. Several
In infants and types of drugs have
children, the potential
the side effects to precipitate
of first generation acute angle
over-the-counter
closureantihistamines,
(OTC) glaucoma. These suchinclude
as diphenhydramine
adrenergic, cholinergic
(Benadryl)andandanticholinergic,
hydroxyzine
261.
281.Cells of the
Which stomach
of the the correctly
following stomach describes
epitheliumDomperidone
that serete gastric
(Motilium) and antidepressants,
(Atarax) include: anticoagulants and sulfa-based agents.
hydrochloric acid and intrinsic
Metoclopramide ( Plasil) ? factor. A. Reye’s syndrome. B. Cholinergenic effects
A.Anti-emetic
Parietal cells
drugs C. Chief cells C. Used for gastroparesis 271. Most effective
C. Paradoxical CNSantiemetic
stimulation. in suppressing
D. Nauseanausea and vomiting caused by
and diarrhea
B.Pro
Mucous
kineticcells
agents D. G cells D. All of the above cancer treatment
a. meclizine
Answer: C – (bonamine)
Paradoxical CNS stimulation (knowledge) c. used for gastroparesis
Answer: Answer: C – Used
A. Parietal cells for gastroparesis (analysis) b. metoclopramide
Rationale: Typically,(plasil)
first generation OTC antihistamines
d. all of the above
have a sedating effect
Rationale:
Rationale: cells ofGastroparesis is a diseasethat
the stomach epithelium in which thegastric
secretes stomach cannot empty
hydrochloric because of passage into the CNS. However, in some individuals, especially
itself
acid andof intrinsic
food in afactor
normal fashion.
(necessary for Symptoms
vitamin B12include heartburn, nausea,
absorption) Answer:and
infants B. Metroclopramide
children, paradoxical (plasil)
CNS (knowledge)
stimulation occurs and is manifested by
vomiting, and feeling full quickly when eating. Treatments include Rationale: The
excitement, 5-HT3-receptor
euphoria, antagonists,
restlessness, regardedFor
and confusion. asthis
the reason,
‘gold standard’ in
use of first
medications
262. and hydrochloric
It neutralizes possibly surgery.
acid antiemetic therapy,
generation OTC antihistamines
are the first-linehas treatment
declined, and for moderately
second generation
and highly
product
emetogenic
usage chemotherapy
has increased. Reye's and radiotherapy
syndrome regimensresponse
is a systemic in adults to
and children.
a virus. First
A. Histamine-2 C. Proton pump inhibitor
282. Bulk former laxative generation OTC antihistamines do not exhibit a cholinergic effect. Nausea and
B. Antacids D. Pepsin inhibitor 272. Which
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) C. Mineral oil diarrhea areofuncommon
the following when anti-ulcer agents produces
first generation hypermagnesemia?
OTC antihistamines are taken
B. Hyosine Butylbromide D. Psyllium ( C-lium ) a. antacids c. omeprazole
Answer: B. Antacids (knowledge) b. famotidine
290. Reye’s syndrome, a potentially fatal illness d. sucralfate
associated with liver failure
Rationale:
Answer: Abecause it is the
– Bisacodyl one who neutralizes hydrochloric acid.
(knowledge) and encephalopathy is associated with the administration of which over-the-
Rationale: Bisacodyl is an organic compound that is used as a stimulant Answer:(OTC)
counter C. Omeprazole
medication? (analysis)
263. Drugsdrug.
laxative usedItas mood
works elevators
directly for colon
on the depressive disorders.
to produce a bowel movement.  Rationale: The U.S.(Tylenol)
A. Acetaminophen Food and Drug B. Ibuprofen
Administration(Motrin)
(FDA) is informing the
A. Psychotherapeutic drugs C. Antidepressants public that prescription proton
C. Aspirin pump inhibitor (PPI)
D. Brompheniramine drugs may cause
/psudoephedrine low serum
(Dimetapp)
B.283.
Narcotics
Which of the following drugs is D.NOT
CNScorrectly
Depressants
matched with its side effect? magnesium levels (hypomagnesemia) if taken for prolonged periods of time (in
A. Bisacodyl : diarrhea C. Loperamide: constipation most cases,
Answer: C – longer
Aspirinthan one year). 
(synthesis)
Answer: C. Antidepressants
B. Buscopan (knowledge)
: anti-cholinergenic D. Promethazine: hyperemesis Effects Rationale: Virus-infected children who are given aspirin to manage pain, fever,
Rationale: Because it is used as elevators for depressive disorders 273.inflammation
and Also known as aredigestive system risk of developing Reye's syndrome. Use
at an increased
Answer: D – Promethazine (analysis) a. acetaminophen
of gastrointestinal systemhas not been associated with c. tummy
Reye'ssystem
syndrome and can be
264. Used toPromethazine
Rationale: treat epilepsy isand other seizures. antihistamine. It is used to treat
a first-generation b. stomach
safely givensystem
to patients with fever due to virald.illnesses. mouth Ibuprofen adverse
A.allergies,
Narcoticstrouble sleeping, and C. Anti-migrain
nausea. It may agents
help with some symptoms effects include GI irritation and bleeding, and in toxic doses, both renal and
B.associated
Psychotherapeutic drugs cold.
with the common D. Anti-epileptic
It may also be agents
used for sedating people who Answer:failure
hepatic A. Gastrointestinal
are reported. system
However, (knowledge)
ibuprofen has not been associated with
are agitated or anxious. Rationale:
the onset ofTheReye's
gastrointestinal
disease. Brompheniramine/psudoephedrine
tract is an organ system within humans contains
anda first
Answer: D. Anti-epileptic agents (knowledge) other animals
generation OTC which takes in food,
antihistamine and digests it to extract
a decongestant. and absorb
Neither energy
agent has beenand
284. Anti-cholinergenic
Rationale: as per the book, drug
it isthat
usedsuppresses painfuland
to treat epilepsy spasms
othercaused by
seizures nutrients, and
associated withexpels
the development
the remaining of waste
Reye'sassyndrome.
feces. The mouth, esophagus,
smooth muscle contractions, especially tubular organs like the stomach and stomach and intestines are part of the gastrointestinal tract.
intestines
265. Variety of drugs that treat and prevent nausea and vomiting 291. The nurse is aware that the patients who are allergic to intravenous
A. Bisacodyl
A. Antidiarrheals C. (Dulcolax)
Anti-spasmodics C. Hyosine Butylbromide (Buscopan) 274. Alsomedia
contrast knownare asusually
gastrointestinal
also allergictractto which of the following products?
B. AntiemeticsB. Domperidone ( Motilium) D. Psyllium ( C-lium )
D. Laxatives a. esophagus
A. Eggs B. Shellfish c. alimentary canal
b. digestive system
C. Soy D. Acidic fruits d. intestine
Answer:B.AAntiemetics
Answer: – Bisacodyl(knowledge)
( Dulcolax ) (knowledge)
Rationale: Bisacodyl is an organic compound that is used as a stimulant Answer: C. B –Alimentary canal (knowledge)
Shellfish (analysis)
Rationale: It is used to treat and prevent nausea and vomiting
laxative drug. It works directly on the colon to produce a bowel movement.  Rationale: Somethe wholetypespassage
of contrast
alongmedia
whichcontain
food passes
iodine through
as an ingredient.
the body from
266. All can be used as anti-emetics EXCEPT mouth to also
Shellfish anus.contain
It includes the esophagus,
significant amounts ofstomach, and intestines
iodine. Therefore, a patient who is
a.285. Proton pump inhibitor
buscopan c. metoclopramide allergic to iodine will exhibit an allergic response to both iodine containing
b. lorazepamA. Cimetidine ( Tagamet ) C. Sucralfate (Iselpin)
d. scopolamine 275. Which
contrast of the
media andfollowing
shellfish.isThese
NOT an accessory
products of the
do not digestive
contain system?
iodine.
B. Esomeprazole ( Nexium ) D. Ranitidine ( Zantac ) a. salivary glands c. gallbladder
Answer: A. Buscopan (knowledge) b. liver
292. A 13-month-old child recently arrived ind.the small intestine
United States from a foreign
Answer: BAn– antiemetic
Rationale: Esomeprazoledrug (isNexium ) (knowledge)
effective against nausea and vomiting. These country with his parents and needs childhood immunizations. His mother
Rationale: Esomeprazole, sold under
are typically used to treat motion sickness theand
brand
thenames Nexium
side effects among others,
of opioid Answer:that
reports D. small intestineto(analysis)
he is allergic eggs. Upon further questioning, you determine that
is a medication
analgesics, which
general reduces stomach
anesthetics, acid. It is used
and chemotherapy to treat
directed against cancer. Rationale:
the allergy Accessory
to eggs is anaphylaxis.
digestive organ:
Which
An of
organ
the following
that helpsvaccines
with digestion
shouldbut he is
gastroesophageal
Buscopan is used to reflux disease, peptic
treat abdominal pain, ulcer disease,and
esophageal andbladder
Zollinger–Ellison
spasms, part of the digestive tract. The accessory digestive organs are the tongue,
not receive?
syndrome.
and Effectiveness is similar to other proton pump inhibitors. It is taken
renal colic. salivary glands,
A. Hepatitis B pancreas, liver, and gallbladder.
by mouth or injection into a vein.  B. Inactivated polio
267. Antiemetic drug that increases stomach emptying and increasing lower 276. CNS stands
C. Diphtheria, acellular
for? pertussis, tetanus (DTaP)
286. What sphincter
esophageal vitamin must be taken with Histamine-2 receptor antagonists?
pressure a.D. Mumps,
central station
measles, rubella (MMR) c. central nervous system
A. Vitamin
a. butamirate (sinecod) A C.ranitidine
c. Vitamin B12
(zantac) b. circulatory system d. community national service
B. Vitamin
b. metoclopramide B6
(plasil) D.promethazine
d. Vitamin C (Phenergan) Answer: D. Mumps,measles,rubella (MMR ) (analysis)
Answer: C. The
Rationale: Central
measles
Nervousportion
System
of the
(knowledge)
MMR vaccine is grown in chick embryo
Answer:B.CMetoclopramide
Answer: – Vitamin B-12 (knowledge)
(knowledge) Rationale:
cells. The central
The current MMRnervous
vaccinesystem (CNS)
does not contain is the part of the nervous
a significant amount ofsystem
egg
Rationalemetoclopramide
Rationale: : Vitamin B-12 isleads
a crucial B vitamin.
to increased It is needed
gastric for nerve
emptying by tissue
enhancing consistingand
proteins, of the brain and spinal
even children with dramatic
cord. TheeggCNS allergies
is so named
are extremely
becauseunlikely
it
antral contractions as well as decreasing postprandial fundus relaxation. is
health, brain function, and the production of red blood cells. Cobalamin integrates
to have anthe received information
anaphylactic and coordinates
reaction. However, patients andthat influences
do respondthe to activity
egg
another name
However, for vitamin
the prokinetic B-12. Deficiency
properties can resultare
of metoclopramide when levels
limited to of
thevitamin B- of all parts
contact withofanaphylaxis
the body. should be in a medically controlled setting where full
12 are too low. This can lead to irreversible
proximal gut. Mechanism of action of metoclopramide. neurological symptoms. resuscitation efforts can be administered if anaphylaxis results. The vaccines in
277. Which
options a,b and
doesc NOT
do notbelong?
contain egg protein.
287.Francis
268. Walter,receives
teenagea patient is admitted
medication to the
to reduce hospital
gastric because Which
hyperacidity. of a. diazepam c. midazolam
acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses
medicine reduces the secretion of hydrochloric acid? of acetaminophen can b. lorazepam
293. A client has been given Ondansetron (Zofran). Ford.which dikolam
condition should
a.precipitate
aluminum life-threatening
hydroxide (allum) abnormalities inc.which of the(zantac)
ranitidine following organs? Answer:
the nurseD.administer
dikolam (analysis)
this medication to the postoperative patient?
b.A. Lungs
aspirin (aspillet) B. Liver d. sucralfate (Carafate)   Rationale:
    a.Vomiting.
All are CNS Depressant drugs. These c.Abdominal
are used infection.
to sedative-
C. Kidney D. Adrenal glands   hypnotics, pre-anesthetics,
    b.Incisional pain. and anticonvulsants
d.Atelectasis.
Answer: C. ranitidine (zantac) (analysis)
Answer: BRanitidine
Rationale: – Liver (application)
(zantac) is a histamine H2-receptor antagonists and 278. Used
Answer: to treat moderate
a Vomiting (Analysis)to severe pain
Rationale:
proton pumpYes, acetaminophen
inhibitors are the main canclasses
cause serious liver damage
of drug used to inhibit ifgastric acid
you take too a. nicotine Ondansetron is used to prevent nausea
Rationale: c. morphine
and vomiting that may be
much.
secretion.It is very important to follow your doctor's directions and the directions b. heroine
caused d. none
by surgery or by medicine to treat cancer of the above or radiation).
(chemotherapy
on the medicine label. ... Follow dosing directions and never take more than Answer: B,
Options C. C,
morphine
and D, are
(knowledge)
not related to this medication.
directed;
269. Whichevenof thea following
small amount
drugsmore than directed can
produces rebound acidity cause liver
when damage. Rationale: Opioid drugs bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and
discontinued? other areas of the body. They tell your brain you're not in pain. They are used
to treat moderate to severe pain that may not respond well to other pain
medications.
294. The cell and Coombs classification system categorizes allergic reactions and is useful in describing and classifying patient reactions to drugs. Type I reactions are
immediate hypersensitivity reactions and are mediated by:
A. Immunoglobulin E (IgE B. Immunoglobulin G (IgG).
C. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) D. Immunoglobulin M (IgM).

Answer A – Immunoglobin IgE (analysis)

Rationale: The least common serum immunoglobulin (Ig) binds very tightly to receptors on basophils and mast cells and is involved in allergic reactions. Binding of the
allergen to the IgE on the cells results in the release of various pharmacological mediators that result in allergic symptoms. IgG is the major Ig (75 percent of serum Ig
is IgG). Most versatile Ig because it is capable of carrying out all of the functions of Ig molecules. IgG is the only class of Ig that crosses the placenta. It is an opsonin, a
substance that enhances phagocytosis. IgA, the second most common serum Ig is found in secretions (tears, saliva, colostrum, and mucus). It is important in local
(mucosal) immunity. IgM, the third most common serum Ig, is the first Ig to be made by the fetus and the first Ig to be made by a virgin B cell when it is stimulated by
antigen. IgM antibodies are very efficient in leading to the lysis of microorganisms.

295.Drugs can cause adverse events in a patient. Bone marrow toxicity is one of the most frequent types of drug-induced toxicity. The most serious form of bone
marrow toxicity is:
A. Aplastic anemia. B. Thrombocytosis.
C. Leukocytosis D. Granulocytosis

Answer A – Aplastic anemia (knowledge)

Rationale : Aplastic anemia is the result of a hypersensitivity reaction and is often irreversible. It leads to pancytopenia, a severe decrease in all cell types: red blood
cells, white blood cells, and platelets. A reduced number of red blood cells causes hemoglobin to drop. A reduced number of white blood cells make the patient
susceptible to infection. And, a reduced number of platelets cause the blood not to clot as easily. Treatment for mild cases is supportive. Transfusions may be
necessary. Severe cases require a bone marrow transplant. Option 2 is an elevated platelet count. Option 3 is an elevated white count. Option 4 is an elevated
granulocyte count. A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell.

296.  The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health

297. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by
A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King

298. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care
of the ill person
A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger

299. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when
those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman

300. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which
are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse
301. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities
contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in
such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau

302. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines.
Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

303.. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
 304. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows
access to higher human spirit.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

305.. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring
creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the
illness.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

306. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent

307. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is .

A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy

308. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another

A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

309. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character

310. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution

311.What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care

312. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that
statement?
A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator

313. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?
A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management

314.   This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

315. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
 D. Total patient care

316. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?  
A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards

317. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.  
A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent

318. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.  
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care

319. Who developed the first theory of nursing?  

A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale

320. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.  

A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando

321.According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a
sense of commitment and responsibility.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leninger
D. Swanson
This is Jean Watson's definition of Nursing as caring. This was asked word per word last June 06' NLE. Benner defines caring as
something that matters to people. She postulated the responsibility created by Caring in nursing. She was also responsible for
the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL. Leininger defind the 4 conservation principle while Swanson introduced the 5 processes of
caring.

322. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark Period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

323. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King

324. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsyochologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

Modifying variables in Becker's health belief model includes DEMOGRAPHIC : Age, sex, race etc. SOCIOPSYCHOLOGIC :
Social and Peer influence. STRUCTURAL : Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it and CUES TO ACTION :
Which are the sign and symptoms of the disease or advice from friends, mass media and others that forces or makes the
individual seek help.

325.Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL

A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad

326. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awareness
 B. Self Actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth

The peak of maslow's hierarchy is the essence of mental health.

327. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40
C. Notes in Nursing
D. Notes in hospital

328. She described the four conservation principle.  

A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse

Myra Levin described the 4 Conservation principles which are concerned with the Unity and Integrity of an individual. These are
ENERGY : Our output to facilitate meeting of our needs. STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY : We must maintain the integrity of our
organs, tissues and systems to be able to function and prevent harmful agents entering our body. PERSONAL INTEGRITY :
These refers to our self esteem, self worth, self concept, identify and personality. SOCIAL INTEGRITY : Reflects our societal
roles to our society, community, family, friends and fellow individuals.

329. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy

330. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.
A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self actualization

Pender developed the concept of HEALTH PROMOTION MODEL which postulated that an individual engages in health
promotion activities to increase well being and attain self actualization. These includes exercise, immunization, healthy lifestyle,
good food, self responsibility and all other factors that minimize if not totally eradicate risks and threats of health.

331. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson

The wholistic theory by Martha Rogers states that MAN is greater than the sum of all its parts and that his dignity and worth will
not be lessen even if one of this part is missing. A good example is ANNE BOLEYN, The mother of Queen Elizabeth and the wife
of King Henry VIII. She was beheaded because Henry wants to mary another wife and that his divorce was not approved by the
pope. Outraged, He insisted on the separation of the Church and State and divorce Anne himself by making everyone believe
that Anne is having an affair to another man. Anne was beheaded while her lips is still saying a prayer. Even without her head,
People still gave respect to her diseased body and a separate head. She was still remembered as Anne boleyn, Mother of
Elizabeth who lead england to their GOLDEN AGE.

332. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

Disease are alteration in body functions resulting in reduction of capabilities or shortening of life span.

333. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel

334. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
335. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period

Protestantism emerged with Martin Luther questions the Pope and Christianity. This started the Dark period of nursing when the
christian faith was smeared by controversies. These leads to closure of some hospital and schools run by the church. Nursing
became the work of prostitutes, slaves, mother and least desirable of women.

336. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?
A. She documents it and charts it whenever is necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She chart only when the patient is acutely ill

337. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the
environment to pursue health
A. Ecologic model
B. Health Belief model
C. Health promotion model
D. Health prevention model

Pender developed the concept of HEALTH PROMOTION MODEL which postulated that an individual engages in health
promotion activities to increase well being and attain self actualization. These includes exercise, immunization, healthy lifestyle,
good food, self responsibility and all other factors that minimize if not totally eradicate risks and threats of health.

338. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive
behavior?
A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness to n illness
C. Perceived threat to an illness
D. Perceived curability to an illness

If a man think he is susceptibe to a certain disease, thinks that the disease is serious and it is a threat to his life and functions, he
will use preventive behaviors to avoid the occurence of this threat.

339. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanism

The theory of Health as the ability to maintain homeostasis was postulated by Walter Cannon. According to him, There are
certain FEEDBACK Mechanism that regulates our Homeostasis. A good example is that when we overuse our arm, it will
produce pain. PAIN is a negative feedback that signals us that our arm needs a rest.

340. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life.
Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
There are only 2 theorist of FAITH that might be asked in the board examinations. Fowler and Westerhoff. What differs them is
that, FAITH of fowler is defined abstractly, Fowler defines faith as a FORCE that gives a meaning to a person's life while
Westerhoff defines faith as a behavior that continuously develops through time.

341. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?

A. Heridity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

342. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those
who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.
A. Henderson
B. Oem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman

In self care deficit theory, Nursing is defined as A helping or assistive profession to person who are wholly or partly dependent or
when people who are to give care to them are no longer available. Self care, are the activities that a person do for himself to
maintain health, life and well being.
343. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action

344. Who was the first president of the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montegro
D. Ricardo Mendoza

Anastacia Giron Tupas founded the FNA, the former name of the PNA but the first President was Rosario Montenegro.

345. Who Founded the PNA ?

A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montegro
D. Ricardo Mendoza

346. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?

A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural 
D. Cues to action

347. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental

348. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.
A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital

349. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy?

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness

350. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark

351. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just
A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler

352. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through
A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression

353. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his
experience.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud

354. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the
behavioral system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
 C. Neuman
D. Johnson

355. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal
environment.

A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy
356. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a
sense of commitment and responsibility.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson

357. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self awareness
B. Self actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth

358. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY
A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper

359. Self-care deficit theory was proposed by:

A. Virginia Henderson
B. Betty Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Dorothea Orem

356. Which theory defines nursing as the science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person and
environment transformation?
A. Goal attainment theory
B. Henderson's definition of nursing
C. Roy's adaptation model
D. Faye Glen Abdelah's theory

357. Typology of twenty one Nursing problems were explained by:

A. Imogene King
B. Virginia Henderson’s
C. Faye G.Abedellah
D. Lydia E. Hall

358. "Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process". This definition was stated by:
A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Jean watson
C. Faye Glen Abdelah
D. M. Rogers

359. Which of the following statements is related to Florence Nightingale?

A. Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process.
B. The role of nursing is to facilitate "the body’s reparative processes" by manipulating client’s environment.
C. Nursing is the science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and enhances person and environment transformation
D. Nursing care becomes necessary when client is unable to fulfill biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs.

360. Which of the following is NOT a concept related to Roy's Adaptation Model?
A. Focal Stimuli
B. Cognator Subsystem
C. Role function
D. Flexible line of defense

361. According to Roy's adapatation theory, which subsystem responds through four cognitive responds through four cognitive-
emotive channels (perceptual and information processing, learning, judgment, and emotion)?
A. Regulator Subsystem
B. Cognator Subsystem
 C. Physiologic Mode
D. Self Concept-Group Identity Mode

362. The "humanistic science of nursing" was explained by:

A. Rogers (1970)
B. Ida Orlando (1960)
C. Nightingale (1860)
D. Neuman (1972)

363. Imogene King's "goal attainment theory" is a type of:

A. Need theories
B. Interaction theories
C. Outcome theories
D. Humanistic theories

364. Which of the following theory has used "General Systems Theory" as a framework for its development?
A. Florence Nightingale's Environment Theory
B. Hildegard E. Peplau's Psychodynamic Nursing Theory
C. Martha E.Roger’s: Science of Unitary Human Beings
D. Neuman's model

365. Transcultural Model of Nursing was proposed by:

A. Joyce Travelbee
B. Rosemarie Rizzo Parse
C. Madeleine Leininger
D. Ida Jean Orlando

366. According to Neuman Systems Model, the increase in energy that occurs in relation to the degree of reaction to the stressor
is termed as:
A. Reconstitution
B. Lines of resistance
C. Primary prevention
D. Secondary Prevention

367. Which is NOT a concept explained in Dorothy Johnson's Behavioral Systems Model?
A. Affiliation
B. Dependency
C. Achievement
D. Energy fields

368. According to Rogers' theory "continuous and mutual interaction between man and environment' is termed as:
A. Pattern
B. Integrality
C. Resonancy
D. Helicy

369. Watson's carative factors include all the following, EXCEPT:

A. Forming humanistic-altruistic value system
B. Instilling faith-hope
C. Cultivating sensitivity to self and others
D. Strengthening flexible lines of defense

370. Which is NOT a concept related to Faye Abdellah's theory?

A. Susternal Care Needs
B. The twenty-one Nursing Problems
C. Restorative Care Needs
D. Therapeutic Self-care Demands

371. Statements that explain the relationship between the concepts in a theory:
A. Propositions
B. Assumptions
C. Predictions
D. Process

372. “Social inclusion, intimacy and the formation and attachment of a strong social bond” are explained in which subsystem of
Jhonson's model -
A. Dependency subsystem
B. Attachment or affiliative subsystem
 C. Achievement subsystem
D. Aggressive subsystem

373. The major concepts of Health Belief Model includes all, EXCEPT;
A. Perceived Susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived benefits
D. Perceived interaction

374. The major concepts of Health Belief Model includes all, EXCEPT;
A. Perceived Susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived benefits
D. Perceived interaction

375. The sequential phases of interpersonal relationship in Peplau's theory includes all, EXCEPT:
A. Orientation 
B. Identification 
C. Restoration
D. Exploitation 

376. The principles of concervation of energy, structural integrity, personal integrity and social integrity were explained by:
A. Lydia Hall
B. Myra Estrine Levine
C. Betty Neuman
D. Hildegard Peplau

377. Who explained about "Care, Cure and Core as three independent but interconnected circles of the nursing model"?
A. Patricia Benner
B. Rosemary Rizzo Parse
C. Lydia Hall
D. Jean Watson

378. Meaning, Rhythmicity, Cotranscendence are the three major concepts of:
A. Transcultural Nursing Theory
B. Unitary Human Being Theory
C. Self-care Deficit Theory
D. Human Becoming Theory

380. Caring consists of carative factors that result in the satisfaction of certain human needs". This explanation was stated by:
A. Sister Calista Roy,
B. Jean Watson
C. Dorothea Orem
D. Florence Nightingale

381.  The term which refers the "irreducible, pan dimensional energy field identified by pattern and integral with the human
field"  is:
A. Unitary Human Being
B. Environment
C. Health
D. Nursing

382. Which of the following nursing theory is based on the general systems framework?
A. Fay Abdellah- Topology of 21 Nursing Problems
B. Virginia Henderson -The Nature of Nursing
C. Hildegard Peplau -Interpersonal Relations Model
D. Imogene King's Theory of Nursing

383. Concept related to Betty Neuman’s System Model of Nursing is:

A. Pattern
B. Rhythmicity
C. Dependency
D. Open system

384. According to Roy's Adaptation Model, the adaptive modes includes all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Physiologic Needs
B. Self Concept
C. Role Function
D. Interdependence
E. Achievement
385. Which theory states " Nursing is a helping profession"?
A. Hildegard Peplau's Interpersonal Theory
B. Abdellah’s 21 Nursing Problems
C. Theory of Goal Attainment
D. Roy's Adaptation Model

386. Which of the following in NOT a concept related to personal system in Imogene King's Theory?
A. Perception
B. Self
C. Body image
D. Organization

387. Which nursing theory states that 'nursing is the interpersonal process of action, reaction, interaction and transaction"?
A. Roy's adaptation model
B. Self-care deficit theory
C. Imogene King's theory
D. Roger's unitary human beings

388. All the following are concepts related to Levin's Conservation Principles, EXCEPT:
A. Historicity
B. Specificity
C. Helicy
D. Redundancy

389. Which of the following is an organismic response  as per Levin's Four Conservation Principles?
A. Flight or fight
B. Adaptation
C. Communication
D. Transaction

390. When applying Roy's Adaptation Model in caring a patient, the type of stimuli which needs to be assessed as per are all the
following, EXCEPT;
A. Focal Stimulus
B. Contextual Stimulus
C. Perceptual Stimuli
D. Residual Stimulus

391.  Who described about 5 levels of nursing experience from novice  to expert?

A. Patricia E. Benner
B. Ernestine Wiedenbach
C. Myra Estrine Levine
D. Faye Glenn Abdellah

392. Cognator subsystem is a concept related to:

A. Jhonson's Behaviour System Model
B. Imogene King's Goal Attainment Theory
C. Roy's Adaptation Model
D. Neuman's System's Model

393. Cognator subsystem involves all the following cognitive-emotive channels, EXCEPT:
A. perceptual and information processing
B. self concept
C. learning
D. judgment
E. emotion

394. Each subsystem in Johnson's Behavioural System model is composed of four structural characteristics, except:
A. Drives
B. Set
C. Choices
D. Observable behavior
E. Demands

395. "The practice of activities that individual initiates and perform on their own behalf in maintaining life, health and well being"
is:
A. Self care agency
B. Self care
C. Therapeutic self care demand
D. Nursing systems
396. Category of self care requisites according to Orem's theory of nursing includes all, except:
A. Universal
B. Developmental
C. Health deviation
D. Fundamental

397. Nursing is “an external regulatory force which acts to preserve the organization and integration of the patients behaviors at
an optimum level under those conditions in which the behaviors constitutes a threat to the physical or social health, or in which
illness is found”

398. This definition of nursing was given by

A. Orem
B. Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Johnson
E. Rogers

399. "The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to
health or its recovery (or to peaceful death) that he would perform unaided if he had the necessary strength, will or knowledge.
And to do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible"
This definition of nursing was given by:
A. Nightingale
B. Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Henderson
E. Rogers

400. Which level of needs in Maslow’s hierarchy includes love, friendship, intimacy, and family?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Belongingness
D. Safety
E. Physiological

401. In a theory, a statement of relationship between concepts is called

A. Conceptual model
B. Hypothesis
C. Proposition
D. Construct

402. Which nursing model was developed by Joyce Travelbee (1926-1973)?

A. Human-to-Human Relationship Model
B. Human becoming theory
C. The theory of health as expanding consciousness
D. From Novice to Expert

403. “Each human being perceives the world as a total person in making transactions with individuals and things in
environment”. This assumption is stated by:
A. Neuman's system model
B. Nightingale's theory
C. Peplau's Interpersonal Relations model
D. Imogene King’s conceptual framework

404. Notes on Nursing: What it is, What it is not was written by:
A. Virginia Henderson
B. Betty Neuman
C. Imogene King
D. Dorothea Orem
E. Florence Nightingale

405. Ernestine Wiedenbach's conceptual model of nursing is called:

A. The Helping Art of Clinical Nursing
B. Modeling and Role Modeling Theory
C. Health As Expanding Consciousness
D. Human-To-Human Relationship Model

406. A system of nursing care in which patients are placed in units on the basis of their needs for care as determined by the
degree of illness rather than on the basis of a medical specialty is:
A. Primary nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Progressive patient care
D. Case method
407. Which of the following terms refers to the branch of philosophy that deals with questions concerning the nature, scope, and
sources of knowledge?
A. Epistemology
B. Epidemiology
C. Metaphysics
D. Ontology
E. Etymology

408. A theory of knowledge emphasizing the role of experience, especially experience based on perceptual observations by the
senses is:
A. Constructivism
B. Empiricism
C. Rationalism
D. Infinitism

409. Metaphysics is a branch of philosophy which deals with :

A. The study of valid argument forms
B. Theory of knowledge
C. Moral philosophy
D. The study of the nature of reality

410. According to Peplau's interpersonal model, during which phase of nursing process, the patient participates in goal setting
and has a feeling of belonging and selectively responds to those who can meet his or her needs?
A. Orientation
B. Identification
C. Exploitation
D. Resolution

411. Deliberative Nursing Process Theory was explained by:

A. Hildegard Peplau
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Ida Jean Orlando
D. Patricia Benner

412. Which of the following is NOT a concept related to Nightingale theory?

A. "Poor or difficult environments led to poor health and disease".
B. "Environment could be altered to improve conditions so that the natural laws would allow healing to occur".
C. The goal of nursing is “to put the patient in the best condition for nature to act upon him”.
D. "Human beings are open systems in constant interaction with the environment ".

412. General Systems Theory was first proposed by:

A. Ludwig von Bertalanffy
B. Kurt Lewin
C. Melanie Klein
D. Margaret Mahler

413. Who is a proponent of object relations theory?

A. Abraham Maslaw
B. Jean Piaget
C. Erik Erikson
D. Melanie Klein

414. Which of the following concept is NOT  related to Freud's psychoanalytic theory?
A. Phallic stage
B. Pleasure principle
C. Oedipus complex
D. Symbiosis and Separation

415. Kohlberg's theory of moral development includes following stages, except:

A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation
B. Individualism and Exchange
C. Good Interpersonal Relationships
D. Maintaining the Social Order
E. Primary circular reactions

416. The term used to describe the understanding of beliefs, desires, motivations, and emotions as mental states that are
ascribed to one’s self and others: (Tasman 3rd, P 139; 2008)
A. Theory of mind
B. Attribution theory
C. Self-verification theory
D. Self-evaluation maintenance theory
417. Which theory explains depression as a process of “turning aggression inward?”
A. Beck's cognitive model
B. Freud's Psychoanalyric model
C. Interpersonal model
D. Engel’s biopsychosocial theory

418. Which theory explains how exposure to trauma that is impossible to avoid may lead to apathy, passivity, and a conviction
that escaping future traumatic events is also impossible?
A. Attribution theory
B. Bowlby's attachment theory
C. Information processing theory
D. Seligman’s theory of learned helplessness

419. Nursing is defined as “action which assist individuals, families and groups to maintain a maximum level of wellness, and the
primary aim is stability of the patient/client system, through nursing interventions to reduce stressors.’ ’
This definition is given by:
A. Orem
B. Peplau
C. Neuman
D. Rogers

420.  According to Piaget, the term used to describe the awareness that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer
visible:
A. Oedipal complex
B. Object permanence
C. Theory of mind
D. Inferior complex

421.  During cognitive development, object permanence is a characteristic feature of:

A. Sensory-motor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Formal operational stage

422. Biopsychosocial model was first proposed by:

A. Jay Forrester
B. Norbert Wiener
C. Callista Roy
D. George Engel

423.Which theory states that " phenotype results from an interaction between genotype and environment  " in the context of
development of a mental disorder?
A. Biological theory
B. Neurochemical theory
C. Stress-diathesis model
D. Stress-adaptation model

424. The interdisciplinary science of the structure of regulatory systems:

A. Cybernetics
B. Quantum mechanics
C. Atom theory
D. Negentropy 

425. All the following people are associated with cybernetics, EXCEPT:
A. Norbert Wiener
B. Warren McCulloch
C. Heinz von Foerster
D. Erwin Schrödinger

426. Which nursing theory defines person as "a developing organism that tries to reduce anxiety caused by needs"?
A. Peplau's Interpersonal Theory
B. Ernestine Wiedenbach
C. Comfort Theory
D. Tidal Model of Mental Health

427. According to Peplau's interpersonal theory, following definition refers to:

"A word symbol that implies forward movement of personality and other ongoing human processes in the direction
of creative, constructive, productive, personal and community living."
A. Person
B. Environment
C. Health
D. Nursing
428. Trophicognosis is a concept explained by:
A. Levin
B. Orem
C. Rogers
D. Watson

429. Health/wellness is “the condition in which all parts and subparts (variables) are in harmony with the whole of the client. This
definition was given by:
A. Maslow
B. Neuman
C. Peplau
D. Newman

430. Which Thorndike’s laws (principles) on learning states that the S-R connection is strengthened by use and weakened with
disuse?
A. Law of effect
B. Law of readiness
C. Law of exercise
D. Law of primacy

431. A branch of physics providing a mathematical description of much of the dual particle-like and wave-like behavior and
interactions of energy and matter:
A. Chaos theory
B. Quantum theory
C. String theory
D. General theory of relativity

432.  A theory that has accrued such persuassive empirical support that is accepted as truth:
A. Rule
B. Model
C. Law
D. Framework

433. A broad theory aimed at describing large segments of the physical, social or behavioural world:
A. Grand theory
B. Middle-range theory
C. Utility theory
D. Philosophy

434.  Health is a word symbol that implies forward movement of personality and other ongoing human processes in the direction
of creative, constructive, productive, personal and community living.
This definition of health was given by:
A. Peplau's theory
B. Levin's conservation principles
C. Tidal model of nursing
D. McGill Model

435. A homeostatic body system is constantly in a dynamic process of input, output, feedback, and compensation, which leads
to a state of balance."
This concept is related to:
A. Peplau
B. Neuman
C. Rogers
D. Henderson

436. The process of developing specific predictions from general principles is:
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C. Critical thinking
D. Synectics

437. What is the nature of reality?"

This question is pertaining to which branch of philosophy?
A. Axiology
B. Epistemology
C. Methodology
D. Ontology

438. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?

A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
B. Self perception
C. Love and belongingness
D. Physiologic needs

Option A: Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Theory defined Nursing as “The act of assisting others in the provision and management
of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at home level of effectiveness.” Choices B, C, and D are from Abraham
Maslow‘s Hierarchy of Needs.
439. Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
A. Love and belonging
B. Physiologic needs
C. Self actualization
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above

440. n what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client inobtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH
STATUS after a disease or injury? 
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above

Rationale:c.Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLA. Primary refers to preventions that aim in preventing the diseas
a. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention deal with early diagnostics ,case
finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat
anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter
the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetics fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self-monitoring of glucose among
diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc

441. 30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel

442. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer

This theory was called GRAND THEORY because boykin and schoenofer thinksthat ALL MAN ARE CARING, And that nursing
is a response to this unique call.According to them, CARING IS A MORAL IMPERATIVE, meaning, ALL PEOPLE willtend to help
a man who fell down the stairs even if he is not trained to do so.

443. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau

Travelbee's theory was referred to as INTERPERSONAL theory because she postulated that NURSING is to assist the individual
and all people that affects this individual to cope with illness, recover and FIND MEANING to this experience. For her, Nursing is
a HUMAN TO HUMAN relationship that is formed during illness. To her, an individual is a UNIQUE and irreplaceable being
in continuous process of becoming, evolving and changing. PLEASE do remember, that it is PARSE who postulated the theory
of HUMAN BECOMING and not TRAVELBEE, for I read books that say it was TRAVELBEE and not PARSE

444.