Exam Part I Jan.

2018

1. According to Dr. George Mora, a heteronormal person is

A. seen as abnormal by his or her own society
B. seen as unusual by members of another society
C. seen as normal by members of another society
D. seen as normal by his or her own society
E. None of the above

2. Which of the following is not a healthy defense mechanism?

A. Humor
B. Suppression
C. Sublimation
D. Altruism
E. Denial

3. Autonomous functions of the ego include

A. perception
B. intuition
C. comprehension
D. language
E. all of the above

4. According to Karl Jaspers, the personal world is abnormal when

A. it separates the person from others emotionally
B. the person cannot live without fear, guilt, or anxiety
C. the person cannot adjust to the external world with contentment
D. the person does not have the ability to achieve insight into one’s self
E. all of the above

5. Pruning refers to
A. excitotoxicity
B. the addition of cells to the nervous system during development
C. the process of eliminating the branching of dendrites of the brain
D. the programmed elimination of neurons, synapses and axons
E. all of the above

6. Which percentage of women uses alcohol during pregnancy?

A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 35 percent
D. 45 percent
E. 60 percent

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7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome?
A. Microphthalmia
B. CNS manifestations
C. Hyperactivity
D. Attention deficits
E. Withdrawal-like symptoms
.
8. In which period is the “band-aid phase” present?
A. Toddler period
B. Preschool period
C. Infancy period
D. Middle years period
E. None of the above

9. Which percentage of teenagers ages 15 to 19 use at least one method of birth

control?
A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 75 percent
E. 95 percent

10. Children born to teenage mothers have a greater chance of

A. becoming teenage parents
B. joining a gang
C. dying before the age of five
D. becoming addicted to a narcotic
E. all of the above

11. The psychological separation from parents in adolescence is called

A. first individuation
B. second individuation
C. third individuation
D. fourth individuation
E. none of the above

12. The transition from adolescence to young adulthood is characterized by

A. the establishment of an adult work identity
B. the need for an intimate relationship
C. separation from family
D. achievement of mental maturity
E. none of the above

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13. Which of the following is true about Piaget’s approach to cognitive
development?
A. Cognitive growth occurs in invariant stages.
B. The sensorimotor stage is from ages 2 years to 7 years.
C. Object constancy is the ability to remember an object once it is out of sight.
D. Preoperational thought is nonsymbolic.
E. Concrete operational thought is illogical.

14. Which of the following is a factor to be considered in adolescent misuse or

rejection of contraceptives?
A. The belief that it interferes with pleasure
B. Lack of education from schools
C. Self-consciousness about use
D. Access to and/or cost of contraceptives
E. All of the above

15. Which of the following medical interventions requires parental consent for
adolescents under the age of 16?
A. Alcohol counseling
B. Treatment for a sexually transmitted disease
C. Inpatient mental health treatment
D. Birth control pills or other contraception
E. Treatment for an AIDS-related illness

16. Compared to nonadopted children, adopted children are more likely to have:
A. problems with drug abuse
B. aggressive behavior
C. learning disturbances
D. conduct disorders
E. all of the above

17. According to Robert Butler, the themes of stock taking; reassessing

commitments to family, work, and marriage; and dealing with parental illness
and death are most common in which stage of life?
A. Adolescence
B. Young adulthood
C. Old age
D. Middle adulthood
E. All of the above

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18. Which of the following is not one of the basic personality traits found to
remain relatively stable throughout life?
A. Openness to experience
B. Confidence8
C. Conscientiousness
D. Neuroticism
E. Extraversion

19. Positive physiological effects of exercise and nutrition in old age include:
A. increased heart volume and weight
B. increased muscle mass and body density
C. decreased heart rate at rest
D. decreased systolic blood pressure
E. all of the above

20. In an infant, social smiling is elicited preferentially by the mother at

A. under 4 weeks of age
B. 4 to 8 weeks
C. 8 to 12 weeks
D. 3 to 4 months
E. more than 4 months

21. A child will refer to him or herself by name at which age?

A. 18 months
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
E. 6 years

22. In which of the following age groups is the stage of preoperational thought
present?
A. Birth to 2 years
B. 2 to 7 years
C. 7 to 11 years
D. 11 through the end of adolescence
E. None of the above

23. Premack’s principle states that

A. high frequency behaviors can be used to reinforce low frequency behavior
B. a person can learn by imitating the behavior of another person
C. persons will attribute others’ behavior to stable their own personality traits
D. the more people feel capable of controlling a threatening event, the less anxious
they will be

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E. persons will attribute their own behavior to situational causes

24. Learning can be reflected in neural changes in which of the following ways?
A. The growth of new neurons
B. The expansion of existing neurons
C. Changes in connectivity between existing neurons
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

25. Cross-cultural studies

A. are free from experimental bias
B. show that depression is not a universally expressed symptom
C. show that incest is not a universal taboo
D. show that schizophrenic persons are universally stigmatized as social outcasts
E. show that the nuclear family of mother, father, and children is a universal unit

26. True statements about violence and aggression include all of the following
except
A. In the United States, homicide is the second leading cause of death among people
15 to 25 years of age.
B. A young black man is 8 times more likely to be murdered than is a white man of
the same age.
C. Less than 50 percent of people who commit homicides or assaultive behavior have
imbibed significant amounts of alcohol immediately beforehand.
D. The best predictor of violent acts is a previous violent act.
E. More than 70 percent of homicides are committed with handguns.

27. Which of the following statements regarding punishment is not true?

A. Punishment is often more useful than reinforcement.
B. Punishment produces aggressive behavior.
C. Punishment is less useful than extinction.
D. Use of punishment should be carefully supervised.
E. Self-injurious behaviors are the main instances where punishment should be used.

28. Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities has been implicated as

having an influence on aggressive behavior?
A. 45-XO
B. 47-XYY
C. 47-XXY
D. 48-XXXY

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E. 47-XXX

29. Learned helplessness studies

A. used Rhesus monkeys as experimental animals
B. are used as paradigms for clinical depression in humans
C. demonstrated that outcomes were contingent on behavior
D. suggest that cortisol may be specifically decreased in helpless animals
E. involved peer separations

30. Which of the following is not characteristic of a primate totally deprived of

social contact?
A. Abnormally fearful of peers
B. Unable to nurture their young
C. No recovery if greater than 12 months isolation
D. Rapid reattachment if mother returns
E. Self-orality is common

31. Prevalence is the

A. proportion of a population that has a condition at one moment in time
B. ratio of persons who acquire a disorder during a year’s time
C. risk of acquiring a condition at some time
D. standard deviation
E. rate of first admissions to a hospital for a disorder

32. Asian patients seem to achieve a clinical response comparable to those of non-
Asian patients, even though they require a significantly lower dose of
A. lithium
B. antipsychotics
C. tricyclics
D. benzodiazepines
E. all of the above

33. The “choo-choo” phenomenon is associated with which of the following types
of social deprivation in monkeys?
A. Total isolation-reared monkeys
B. Mother-only-reared monkeys
C. Peer-only-reared monkeys
D. Partial isolation-reared monkeys
E. Separation-reared monkeys

34. The increased frequency of aggressive behavior in certain children defined as

abnormal has been correlated with all of the following except
A. brain injury
B. faulty identification models

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C. cultural environment
D. violence in movies
E. curiosity

35. Which of the following statistical procedures is used to evaluate the

frequency of events in a population?
A. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
B. Chi-squared test
C. T-test
D. Discriminant analysis
E. Z-score

36. Attachment theory states that

A. Infants are generally polytropic in their attachments.
B. Attachment occurs instantaneously between the mother and the child.
C. Attachment is synonymous with bonding.
D. Attachment disorders may lead to a failure to thrive.
E. Separation anxiety is most common when an infant is

37. Which of the following statements regarding crossover studies is true?

A. Eliminate selection bias.
B. Is a variation of the double-blind study.
C. Contain a treatment group and a control group.
D. Are a type of prospective study.
E. All of the above

38. Which of the following about the Rorschach Test is true?

A. A standard set of fifteen inkblots serves as the stimulus for the test.
B. All the blots are black and white.
C. It has an inquiry phase to determine aspects of the responses that are crucial to the
scoring.
D. There is no order to the ways in which the cards are shown.
E. It is named after a German psychiatrist.

39. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is most correctly

described as
A. composed of 200 questions
B. generally used as a good diagnostic tool
C. the most widely used personality assessment instrument
D. a good indication of a subject’s disorder when the person scores high on one
particular clinical scale

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E. in the form of ten clinical scales, each of which was derived empirically from
heterogeneous groups

40. Neuropsychological referrals are made for

A. establishing a baseline of performance for assessing future change
B. diagnostic purposes
C. ascertaining if brain impairment is present
D. planning for rehabilitation
E. all of the above

41. Neuropsychological testing is used to assess

A. normal aging
B. early dementia
C. competence
D. a diagnosis of pseudodementia
E. all of the above

42. Neuropsychological deficits associated with left hemisphere damage include

all of the following except
A. aphasia
B. right-left disorientation
C. finger agnosia
D. visuospatial deficits
E. limb apraxia

43. True statements about projective personality tests include

A. They tend to be more direct and structural than objective personality instruments.
B. The variety of responses is limited.
C. Instructions are usually specific.
D. They often focus on latent or unconscious aspects of personality .
E. None of the above

44. An intelligence quotient (IQ) of 100 corresponds to intellectual ability for the
general population in the
A. 20th percentile
B. 25th percentile
C. 40th percentile
D. 50th percentile
E. 65th percentile

45. After taking the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale(WAIS), a patient showed
that poor concentration and attention had adversely influenced the answers on

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one of the subtests. Select the WAIS subtest that most likely screened the patient
for these symptoms.
A. arithmetic
B. block design
C. digit symbol
D. comprehension
E. picture completion

46. The Bender Visual Motor Gestalt test is administered to test

A. maturation levels in children
B. organic dysfunction
C. loss of function
D. visual and motor coordination
E. all of the above

47. Which is not true of the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?

A. It assesses abstract reasoning
B. The patient is told during testing whether their responses are correct or incorrect
C. The examiner changes the principle of sorting when the task is mastered
D. The examiner records the number of trials required to achieve ten consecutive
correct responses
E. It assesses parietal lobe dysfunction

48. In the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

A. digit span is a subtest of the verbal component of the test
B. the average range of IQ is 100 to 120
C. mental retardation corresponds to the lowest 1% of the population
D. the verbal scale is more sensitive to normal aging
E. its latest revision is designed for persons aged 16 to 60

49. According to Wilhelm Reich, which of the following attributes can be

recognized in a person with a compulsive character?
A. Stiffly walking
B. A cold appearance
C. Excessive complaining
D. Sexually suggestive body movement
E. All of the above

50. Gender identity is

a. the morphological sex
b. the sex in which the child is reared
c. sex-typed behaviour
d. the child’s own perception of his or her sex role

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 e. always irreversible after the age of five

51. Which of the following is true with regard to Extinction?

a. tends to occur with non-reinforcement of a conditioned response
b. is a part of death instinct
c. tends to occur with the repetition of the unconditioned stimulus in the absence
of the conditioned response
d. can be followed by spontaneous recovery when the conditioned stimulus
recurs
e. is best inhibited by continuous reinforcement

52. Which one of the following statements about Cognitive dissonance

is correct?
a. is a concept from social psychology
b. is commonly found in schizophrenia
c. is a type of cognitive impairment
d. makes for self-deception
e. was first described by McDougall

53. In Operant conditioning which one of the following is true?

a. is also called Pavlovian conditioning
b. There are both positive and negative reinforcement
c. is sometimes called the method of stimulus substitution
d. can account for novelty in behaviour
e. is also called respondent learning

54. Regarding Repertory grids, which one of the following is true?

a. was described by Eysenck
b. is a form of aversion therapy
c. is used in psychodrama
d. useful in assessing the progress of psychotherapy
e. useful in assessing organic lesions

55. Which one of the following statements about MMPI is true?

a. is a trait test
b. is the Maudsley Mental personality Inventory
c. is available only in individual forms
d. has been standardised in the UK
e. consists of 500 statements

56. When patient is aroused and threatening, the situation may be helped by
One of the followings:

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 a. avoiding eye contact
b. moving close to the patient
c. holding hands away from the patients
d. moving to a smaller room
e. knowing the patient

57. In a group of people, which one of the following is true?

a. an individual may agree with others even if he feels the group is wrong
b. the absence of others improve productivity
c. the group is more likely to intervene in crisis than someone alone
d. larger group create more conformity
e. female are more likely to conform to group beliefs

58. Regarding Personal Construct Theory, which one of the following is true?
a. emphasizes cognition influences of behaviour
b. postulates core constructs underlay criminality
c. proposes personality in terms of defences
d. using the repertory grid as constructing device
e. includes externally construed concepts as determining influences of
personality

59. Regarding Raven’s Progressive Matrices Test, which of the following is true?
a. is scored as percentage
b. measures recall of learned information
c. correlates highly with IQ scores
d. is suitable as a screening test for people with poor intellectual abilities
e. is relatively complicated to use

60. Regarding the relationship between arousal and performance, which one of
the following is true?
a. has been expressed graphically in a linear form
b. indicates that for every task there is an optimal level of arousal
c. is independent of the type of arousing stimulus
d. may be measured by physiological indices that correlate well
e. shows that maximal arousal is required in exams

61. With regards to the clinical application of learning theory, which one of the
following is true?
a. systemic desensitisation is the appropriate treatment for Obsessive-
Compulsive Disorders
b. a graded hierarchy of feared situations is an essential component of Systemic
Desensitisation

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 c. the expectation of patients have no bearing on the effectiveness of treatment
d. social learning theory emphasises the tendency to conform with the social
norms
e. social learning theory is less effective than classic behavioural approaches in
the management of neurosis

62. Which one of the following regarding Semantic Differentials is correct?

a. are described as forced choice techniques
b. are free from the tendency to evoke social desirability responses in the
respondents
c. are useful in identifying schizophrenic thought disorder
d. characteristically involve the use of limited unipolar adjectival pairs
e. are often used to measure the meaning which people attach to concept

63. Which one of the following is associated with the name Carl Gustav Jung?
a. manic defence
b. Electra complex
c. infantile sexuality
d. extroversion and introversion
e. collective unconscious

64. Which one of the following tools is used to establish classifications systems?
a. Cluster analysis
b. 2-way ANOVA
c. Mann-Whitney U test
d. Path analysis
e. T-test

65. In a study with a repeated measures design which one of the following would
be appropriate?
a. Correlation coefficient
b. Factor analysis
c. Chi-square
d. Cluster analysis
e. ANOVA

66. The following are true regarding dependent variable except one:
a. Is not manipulated by the experimenter
b. Is measured by the experimenter
c. Is statistically analysable
d. Under rigorous experimental control
e. Is important in psychiatric research

67. Which one of the following statements about rating scales is false?
a. They are prone to response sets
b. Graphic scales are preferable to numerical scales

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 c. Concepts used in scales should be operationally defined in order to increase
reliability.
d. Thurstone scales are used to measure depression
e. Observer completed rating scales are prone to the 'halo effect'

68. Which one of the following statements regarding 'present state examination'
is false?
a. Was devised by Wing et al.
b. Is a semi-structured interview
c. Covers patients' symptomatology during the previous 4 weeks
d. Generates information necessary to diagnose alcoholism
e. Was used as a diagnostic instrument in the international pilot study of
schizophrenia

69. Which one of the following is false about placebo?

a. It can cause severe side effects such as dermatitis
b. it can cause dependency
c. the shape and the size are important in placebo effect
d. the doctor-patient relationship is significant in placebo treatment
e. it is an essential component of every double-blind drug trial

70. In a trial of a new psychotropic drug; which one of the following is true?
a. Permission from an ethical committee in not advised
b. double-blind procedures are mandatory by law
c. the patient’s second degree relatives must be included in consenting
d. patients aged 18 and over can give consent
e. the lawyer must be informed

71. The following are true of null hypothesis testing except one:
a. the power of a study refers to the probability that a type I error will not be
made
b. falsely rejecting a true null hypothesis is called a type I error
c. failure to reject a false null hypothesis is called type II error
d. the larger the study size, The higher is its power for detecting a true difference
between two treatments
e. the null hypothesis is generally rejected if the p-value is less than 0.05

72. The following are true about the reliability of a measurement except one:
a. inter-rater reliability describes the level of agreement between two or more
assessors at the same time
b. intra-rater describes the assessments by same raters of the same materials at
different times
c. test-retest reliability describes the agreement of observers assessing the same
materials at two different times

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 d. alternative form reliability describes two similar forms of the measurement
used to assess the same material
e. split-half reliability involves dividing a measurement into two halves, and
using each half to assess the same material

73. All the following are correct about standard deviation except one:
a. it is a measure of dispersion or scatter of observation
b. it involves taking a square root
c. it increases with the sample size
d. it is an extremely sensitive measure of variation
e. it is calculated from the deviation of individual observations from the mean

74. Which of the following is false regarding the standard error of the mean?
a. it can be used to calculate confidence limits of the mean from random sample
b. it is derived from the standard deviation
c. it is always larger than the standard deviation
d. it depends on the size of the sample
e. it reflects the underlying variation in the population

75. The standard deviation is a statistical measure of one of the following:

a. frequency
b. variability
c. range
d. the significance of departure from the mean
e. correlation

1763. In a skewed distribution, which one of the following is correct?

a. most observations lie to the left of the mean
b. the mean and the median are the same value
c. the mean lie between the median and the shorter tail
d. the mode lies at the peak of the distribution
e. the mode and the mean take the same value

77. Which of the following statements regarding non-parametric statistics is

false?
a. they make an assumptions that the sample should have a normal distribution
b. are less sensitive than parametric tests
c. they are often based on ordered values
d. include the Wilcoxon test
e. include chi square test

78. The following are non-parametric statistical tests except one:

a. the Mann-Whitney test
b. Wilcoxon’s paired comparisons test

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 c. the t test
d. Chi square test
e. Spearman’s rank correlation

79. The following are true about null hypothesis except one:
a. it suggests that the experiment will be inconclusive
b. it attempts to account for differences due to chance
c. it implies that comparison is involved
d. it stands to the opposite to the experimental hypothesis
e. it is rejected when p equal or less than 0.05

80. Satisfactory system of classification in psychiatry should include all the

following except one:
a-research and clinical diagnostic criteria
b-operational definitions
c-mutually inclusive and bilaterally exclusive categories
d- high reliability and validity
e- etiology if known

81. Regarding psychiatric classifications, which one of the following is false?

a-a dimensional classification allows fine distinction to be made
b-to record on every axis is something preferable in multi-axial system
c-low reliability is not important if validity is high
d-are studied internationally
e-reliability may be improved if semi-structured interview is used

82. Which one of the following assessment instruments is completed by the

interviewing therapist rather than by the patient?
a-Beck Depression Inventory
b-Eating Attitude Test
c-General Health Questionnaire
d-Hamilton Rating Scale
e-The State-Trait Anxiety Inventory (Spielberger)

83. Which one of the following is false regarding Ravan’s Progressive

Matrices test?
a-is scored in percentile
b-measures recall of learned information
c-correlates highly with I. Q. scores
d-is suitable as a screening test for general intellectual ability
e-is relatively easy to use

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 84. Regarding atypical antipsychotics, which one of the following endocrine
abnormalities has been shown?
a. Olanzapine produced minimal increase in body mass index
b. Risperidone induces significantly greater elevation in triglyceride than
Olanzapine
c. The Olanzapine- induced elevation of triglyceride plateau by 6 months
d. Elevation in cholesterol and LDL (low density lipids) were consistently
present with both Olanzapine and Risperidone
e. The is a minimal risk for ultimate development of type II Diabetes
Mellitus in patients treated with Olanzapine

85. Antiparkinsonian medications are:

a. given routinely to all patients on antipsychotic medication
b. usually continued after 6 months
c. Decreasing the anticholinergic effects of antipsychotics
d Reducing the likelihood of later tardive dyskinesia
e liver enzymes inducers

86. Which one of the following is a sign of intoxication with lithium?

a. Drowsiness
b. Fine tremor of the hands
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Hyperparathyroidism

87. Which one of the following is caused by barbiturate intoxication?

a. Lethargy
b. Drowsiness
c. Increased slow activity in EEG
d. Increased reflexes
e. Paradoxical excitement

88. Which one of the following is a proved Basic Principle in

Neuropharmacology?
e. pharmacodynamics concern with the study of how the body absorbs, distributes and
eliminates a drug
f. agonist is an agent occupies receptors leading to a stimulus which evokes a
response
g. contragonist is an agent occupies receptors but it produces no stimulus and
therefore no response
h. partial agonist is an agent which occupies receptors and it leads to a potent
stimulus
i. antagonist is an agent which induces a stimulus and an opposite response

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 89. Which one of the following definitions is an accurate Quantitative
Variable in Neuropharmacology?
a. Zero-order elimination follows an exponential decline
b. zero-order elimination means that the rate of elimination is
proportional to the drug concentration
c. plasma half-life is the time taken for the plasma concentration to fall
by half
d. biological half-life is the time taken for the total amount of the drug in
the serum to decline by one half
e. steady state means that the amount of drug entering the body equals
the half life of the drug

90. Donepezil (Aricept) is:

a. an acetylcholine inhibitor
b. used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease
c. avoided in patients with heart block
d. used with an average dose from 20-30 mg daily
e. most effective in severs cases

91. Which one of the following is a common adverse event of lithium?

a. Muscle twitching
b Ataxia
c Course tremors
d leucocytosis
e. Slurred speech

92. Which one of the following is a recognized cardiovascular side

effect of tricyclic antidepressants?
a. Bradycardia
b. prolong the P-R interval on the ECG
c. hypertension
d. ST elevation on ECG
e. T inversion on ECG

93. Which one of the following is safe in combination with monoamine

oxidase inhibitors?
a. L-tryptophan
b. pethidine
c. pseudoephedrine
d. one pint of beer
e. banana skin

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 94. In neuroleptic malignant syndrome which one of the following is a
recognized feature?
a. hypothermia is common
b. level of consciousness is preserved
c. mortality around 1 %
d. muscle tone is deceased
e. the blood pressure is labile

95. Tardive dyskinesia :

a.Is characterized by athetoid movements of face and mouth.
b.Frequently involves limbs and trunk
c.Is commoner in patients receiving intermittent anticholinergic therapy.
d.The over all prevalence for people receiving long term neuroleptic
therapy is 45%.
e. The use of a more potent dopamine-blocking drug aggravates the
condition in short term.

96. Following oral administration drugs are characteristically

absorbed:
a. Mainly in the stomach unless they are enteric coated
b. Primarily by active transport
c. Better when in the ionized form
d. Less readily in the presence of food in the gut
e. More slowly than when given by the intramuscular injection

97. Which of the following is a drug of choice in depressed patient

with recent myocardial infarction?
a. Flouxetine
b. Venlafaxine
c. Citalopram
d. Paroxetine
e. Sertraline

98. Which one of the following has been shown regarding the atypical
anti-psychotic drugs?
a. Clozapine has high affinity for D2 site, but it has low affinity for 5HT2
and 5HT3 receptors
b. Risperidone has a lower affinity for D2 and 5HT2 receptors than
Clozapine
c. Quetiapine has a high affinity to D2 and moderate affinity for the
muscarinic Binding site
d. Olanzapine has relatively low muscarinic and histaminergic blockade
e. Ziprasidone has the highest 5HT2/D2 ratio

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 99. atypical antipsychotic drugs:
a. have no incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms
b. are selective dopamine D2 or D3 receptor antagonists
c. are all 5-HT2 antagonists
d. have been shown to have limbic selective action in pre-clinical tests
e. are all effective in primary enduring negative symptoms

100. Which one of the following is a weight neutral medication?

a. Clozapine
b. Olanzapine
c. Risperidone
d. Ziprasidone
e. Quetiapine

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