Cardiology I
Cardiology I
Cardiology I
University of Wisconsin
Madison, Wisconsin
Cardiology I
Cardiology I
Orly Vardeny, Pharm.D., BCACP
University of Wisconsin
Madison, Wisconsin
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4. A 78-year-old man with heart failure with reduced 40 mg orally twice daily. A decision is made to per-
ejection fraction (HFrEF) and creatinine clearance form cardioversion after initiation of an antiarrhyth-
(CrCl) of 45 mL/minute is initiating therapy with mic drug. The patient is scheduled for DCC in 3
eplerenone 25 mg orally every other day. Which days. Which antiarrhythmic drug is the best choice,
option best reflects the frequency of serum potas- representing that recommended in the 2014 ACCF/
sium and SCr monitoring recommended in the 2013 AHA/Heart Rhythm Society (HRS) AF guidelines
American College of Cardiology Foundation/Ameri- for maintenance of NSR, for this patient?
can Heart Association (ACCF/AHA) HF guidelines? A. Digoxin.
A. In 3 days, in 1 week, and then monthly for B. Sotalol.
the first 6 months. C. Amiodarone.
B. Weekly for the first 6 months. D. Flecainide.
C. In 2 weeks and then monthly for the first
6 months. 7. According to the 2012 HRS consensus guidelines for
D. In 1 week and then monthly for the first the catheter ablation of AF, which option best exem-
6 months plifies a patient who is not a candidate for ablation?
A. A patient with paroxysmal AF who has signs
5. A 68-year-old woman with HTN was recently hospi- of HF and is not maintained in NSR with
talized for heart failure with preserved ejection frac- dofetilide.
tion (HFpEF) and newly diagnosed nonvalvular AF B. A patient with persistent AF and palpitations
(NVAF). She is seen today in the cardiology clinic 2 with a history of amiodarone intolerance
weeks after hospital discharge. She is being treated because of hyperthyroidism who is
with metoprolol 12.5 mg orally twice daily, enalapril maintained in NSR with dofetilide.
5 mg orally daily, furosemide 20 mg orally twice C. An asymptomatic patient with permanent AF
daily, and dabigatran 150 mg orally twice daily. She taking no antiarrhythmic medications.
is scheduled to undergo direct current cardioversion D. A patient with paroxysmal AF with
(DCC) in 1 week. Her blood pressure (BP) is 125/80 hospitalizations secondary to rapid ventricular
mm Hg, heart rate (HR) is 140 beats/minute, and response who is not maintained in NSR with
CrCl is 68 mL/minute. Her 12-lead electrocardio- dronedarone and sotalol.
gram (ECG) shows AF and a ventricular response of
139 beats/minute. Which is the best option regarding
8. A 56-year-old patient with HFrEF and a history
a guideline-recommended course of action currently?
of ventricular tachycardia (VT) is seen in the ar-
A. No change in medications. rhythmia clinic. The patient has a biventricular im-
B. Initiate warfarin therapy and discontinue plantable defibrillator that shows no firing for VT
dabigatran now. within the past 6 months. He has New York Heart
C. Increase enalapril to 10 mg orally daily. Association (NYHA) class II HF symptoms, which
D. Increase metoprolol to 25 mg orally twice daily. have been stable for 6 months. His current medica-
tions include spironolactone, carvedilol, lisinopril,
6. A 50-year-old man with nonischemic cardiomyopa- furosemide, and simvastatin. Amiodarone was ini-
thy and HFrEF is admitted to the hospital for AF tiated 6 months ago. In addition to a 12-lead ECG
associated with acute HF exacerbation. He has a and chest radiography, which set of tests would be
biventricular pacemaker (cardiac resynchronization best to monitor for amiodarone toxicity?
therapy [CRT]) with an implantable defibrillator. His A. Slit lamp examination and lipid panel.
BP is 100/80 mm Hg, his HR is 115 beats/minute, B. SCr and sodium assays.
and his laboratory test results are normal. His PR C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and liver
interval is 0.2 second, and his QTc is 480 millisec- function tests (LFTs).
onds. His current medications include carvedilol 25 D. Pulmonary function tests and creatine
mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg orally daily, phosphokinase assay.
spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and furosemide
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Cardiology I
THROMBOEMBOLISM
A. Epidemiology
1. Up to 2,000,000 symptomatic and asymptomatic cases of venous thromboembolism (VTE) occur in
the United States each year, and more than 100,000 patients die of pulmonary embolism (PE).
2. Incidence of VTE doubles in each decade of life after age 50 years.
3. African American individuals are at a higher risk of VTE than are white individuals, whereas
Hispanic people appear to be at a slightly lower risk.
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Table 3. Wells Clinical Model for Evaluating the Pretest Probability of DVTa,b
Clinical Characteristic Score
Active cancer (cancer treatment within previous 6 months or currently receivingon palliative treatment) 1
Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilization of the lower extremities 1
Recently bedridden for ≥3 days or major surgery within the previous 12 weeks requiring
1
general or regional anesthesia
Localized tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system 1
Entire leg swollen 1
Calf swelling at least 3 cm larger than that on the asymptomatic side (measured 10 cm below
1
tibial tuberosity)
Pitting edema confined to the symptomatic leg 1
Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose) 1
Previously documented DVT 1
Alternative diagnosis at least as likely as DVT −2
a
Clinical probability of DVT: Low < 0; moderate 1–2; high > 3. In patients with symptoms in both legs, the more symptomatic leg is used.
b
Calculator available at www.mdcalc.com/wells-criteria-for-dvt/.
DVT = deep venous thrombosis.
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Cardiology I
2. Diagnosis
a. Laboratory tests
i. Serum concentrations of D-dimer are almost always elevated, but a negative D-dimer test
result combined with a low pretest probability score in patients younger than 65 years can
rule out PE.
ii. The patient may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and white blood cell count.
b. Computerized tomography
i. Most commonly used test to diagnose PE
ii. Preferred option for PE diagnosis unless contraindications exist – Contrast dye is typically
used, which can make the test unsuitable for patients with poor renal function.
iii. Positive scan results have good specificity and generally confirm the diagnosis.
iv. Negative scan results may require further diagnostic studies if PE seems likely
because of clinical pretest probability scoring and/or D-dimer results.
v. Both the sensitivity and specificity of the scan are improved with central clots
compared with those that are more peripheral.
vi. False positives are more common for segmental/subsegmental embolism, and
follow-up testing may be needed.
c. Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scanning
i. Measures the distribution of blood f low and airf low in the lungs
ii. When there is a large mismatch between blood f low and airf low in one area of the
lung, the probability is high that the patient has a PE.
iii. Scans with positive findings have good sensitivity and help confirm the diagnosis.
iv. Specificity can be impaired by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and congestive HF.
v. A scan with negative findings also has good specificity and generally rules out the
diagnosis.
vi. An intermediate or low radiologic probability scan lacks sensitivity and requires
further diagnostic studies if PE seems likely.
vii. V/Q scanning is often preferred in patients with renal insufficiency or with allergies to contrast dye.
d. Pulmonary angiography
i. The gold standard for the diagnosis of PE
ii. An invasive test that involves the injection of radiopaque contrast dye into the pulmonary artery
iii. Expensive and associated with a significant risk of morbidity
e. Clinical assessment: Like in DVT, clinical assessment in PE significantly improves the diagnostic
accuracy of noninvasive tests, and it should be routinely performed.
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Table 5. Wells Criteria Clinical Model for Evaluating the Pretest Probability of PE a.b
Clinical Characteristic Score
Cancer +1
Hemoptysis +1
Previous PE or DVT +1.5
Heart rate > 100 beats/minute +1.5
Recent surgery or immobilization +1.5
Clinical signs of DVT +3
Alternative diagnosis less likely than PE +3
a
Clinical probability of PE: Low 0–1; moderate 2–6; high ≥ 7.
b
Calculator available at www.mdcalc.com/wells-criteria-for-pulmonary-embolism-pe/.
DVT = deep venous thrombosis; PE = pulmonary embolism.
F. Treatment of VTE (Domain 1, Tasks 2, 5–, 6, 7; Domain 3, Tasks 1–, 2, 3; Domain 2, Task 5; Domain 5,
Task 1)
1. General treatment principles for patients with VTE (DVT and/or PE)
a. The diagnosis of VTE should be confirmed by objective testing.
b. Options for treatment are as follows:
i. Rapid-acting injectable anticoagulant (unfractionated heparin [UFH], low-molecular-
weight heparin [LMWH], or fondaparinux) transitioned to warfarin (minimum 5 days
of combined therapy)
ii. Rapid-acting injectable anticoagulant transitioned to dabigatran
iii. Sole treatment with rivaroxaban or dabigatran
c. If the patient’s therapy is changed to warfarin, the rapid-acting anticoagulant (UFH, LMWH,
or fondaparinux) should be overlapped with warfarin for at least 5 days and until the INR is
greater than 2 and stable enough to allow the vitamin K antagonist sufficient time to reach its full
anticoagulant effect. (Note: This is a Joint Commission VTE core measure.)
d. UFH is preferred for patients with severe renal insufficiency.
e. When intravenous UFH infusion is used, achieving a therapeutic aPTT in the first 24 hours has
been linked to decreased VTE recurrence rates.
f. Treatment at home is recommended for patients with uncomplicated DVTs and low-risk PEs.
Adequate home circumstances are required for home DVT and PE treatment, which includes well-
maintained living conditions, strong support from family or friends, telephone access, and ability to
return to the hospital quickly if deterioration occurs. Patient must feel well enough to be treated at
home (e.g., does not have severe leg symptoms or comorbidity).
Table 6. Simplified PESI Score to Predict 30-Day Mortality After Symptomatic PEa
Clinical Characteristic Score
Cancer history +1
Age > 80 years +1
Systolic blood pressure < 100 mm Hg +1
Heart rate ≥ 110 beats/minute +1
O2 saturation < 90% +1
a
Clinical probability of PE: Low 0, 1% 30-day mortality, 1.5% recurrent VTE or nonfatal bleeding; high ≥ 1, 8.9% 30-day mortality.
PE = pulmonary embolism; PESI = Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index; VTE = venous thromboembolism.
From: Jiménez D, Aujesky D, Moores L, et al. Simplification of the pulmonary embolism severity index for prognostication in patients with acute
symptomatic pulmonary embolism. Arch Intern Med 2010;170:1383-9.
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g. Warfarin can be initiated on the first day of therapy concurrently with the parenteral
anticoagulation.
h. Anticoagulants should be combined with the use of an elastic compression stocking with an ankle
pressure of 30–40 mm Hg to help prevent postthrombotic syndrome, if possible; stocking use
should continue for at least 2 years.
i. Upper extremity DVTs are generally treated similarly to lower extremity DVTs, but this is based
on limited data.
j. Encourage early ambulation as tolerated by the patient during the initial treatment phase.
k. Target-specific oral anticoagulants (TSOACs)
i. In the RE-COVER trial (double-blind), warfarin was compared with dabigatran 150 mg
twice daily (LMWH treatment was administered for at least 5 days [median of 9 days] to
both arms followed by dabigatran or warfarin with matching placebos and sham INRs in the
dabigatran group) in patients with acute DVT (69%), PE (21.2%), or both (9.5%). Dabigatran
was as effective as warfarin at preventing recurrent VTE or VTE-related death, with similar
major bleeding at 6 months.
ii. In the EINSTEIN trials (open-label), warfarin with enoxaparin cross-coverage at initiation
was compared with rivaroxaban alone (15 mg twice daily for 21 days, followed by 20 mg
once daily) for 3, 6, or 12 months in patients with acute DVT. Rivaroxaban was noninferior to
enoxaparin/warfarin for prevention of recurrent symptomatic VTE as well as major bleeding.
In EINSTEIN-PE, the same rivaroxaban protocol resulted in similar rates of recurrent
symptomatic VTE and fewer instances of major bleeding than warfarin in patients with acute
PE (1.1% vs. 2.2%).
iii. In the AMPLIFY trial (double-blind), warfarin with enoxaparin cross-coverage at initiation
was compared with apixaban alone (10 mg twice daily for 1 week then 5 mg twice daily)
for 6 months in patients with either DVT (65%), PE (25.2%) or both (9.4%). Apixaban was
noninferior to enoxaparin/warfarin for recurrent symptomatic VTE or VTE-related death,
and major bleeding was significantly reduced (0.6% vs. 1.8%).
iv. In the Hokusai-VTE trial (double-blind), warfarin was compared with edoxaban (both
were initiated with LMWH or UFH cross-coverage for at least 5 days and for a median of
7 days in the study) in patients with acute DVT (60%) or PE (40%). The edoxaban dose was
60 mg, which was reduced to 30 mg (17% of the study population) for patients who had a
CrCl of 30–50 mL/minute or weighed 60 kg or less or who were taking the concomitant
P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitor verapamil or quinidine at baseline. Other P-gp inhibitors,
including erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, and itraconazole, were
prohibited at randomization but, during the study, were permitted with the dose adjusted
down to 30 mg. If the P-gp inhibitor was discontinued, the edoxaban dose was increased
to 60 mg again if no other reason for the lower dose existed. Edoxaban was noninferior to
warfarin for preventing recurrent symptomatic VTE, with similar bleeding at a planned
treatment of 3–12 months (40% of patients were treated for 12 months).
v. Rivaroxaban and dabigatran are FDA approved for VTE treatment and prophylaxis after
knee or hip replacement surgery, and edoxaban is under review by the FDA for the treatment
of acute VTE but is not currently FDA approved.
vi. All trials excluded patients with CrCl below 30 mL/minute (estimated with actual body weight).
vii. Note that in all trials of TSOACs, the number of patients with cancer and moderate renal
insufficiency was small; therefore, results may not be generalizable to these patients.
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Adjust subsequent doses to attain a goal aPTT based on the institution-specific therapeutic range
or
Subcutaneous administration: 17,500 units (250 units/kg) given every 12 hours
(an initial 5000-unit IV bolus dose is recommended to attain rapid anticoagulation)
Adjust subsequent doses to attain a goal aPTT based on the institution-specific therapeutic range
or
Subcutaneous administration: 333 units/kg, followed by 250 units/kg given every 12 hours
(fixed-dose unmonitored dosing regimen)—Not practical for patients weighing more than 80 kg
because of injection volume issues
Low-Molecular-Weight Heparins
Dalteparin: 200 units/kg subcutaneously once daily or 100 units/kg subcutaneously twice dailyb
Enoxaparin: 1.5 mg/kg subcutaneously once daily or 1 mg/kg subcutaneously twice daily;
if CrCl is less than 30 mL/minute: 1 mg/kg subcutaneously once daily
Tinzaparin: 175 units/kg subcutaneously once daily
Factor Xa Inhibitor
Fondaparinux:
For body weight less than 50 kg (110 lb), use 5 mg subcutaneously once daily
For body weight 50–100 kg (110–220 lb), use 7.5 mg subcutaneously once daily
For body weight greater than 100 kg (220 lb), use 10 mg subcutaneously once daily
Contraindicated for CrCl less than 30 mL/minute
a
IV administration preferred because of improved dosing precision.
b
Not FDA approved for treatment of VTE in patients without cancer.
aPTT = activated partial thromboplastin time; CrCl = creatinine clearance; FDA = U.S. Food and Drug Administration; IV = intravenous; VTE
= venous thromboembolism.
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4. Considerations for the use of newer target-specific oral anticoagulants for VTE
a. Study designs of trials differed with respect to initiation, dosing frequency,
and dose-intensity modulation.
b. Insufficient data to recommend use in patients with cancer
c. Few patients with a CrCl less than 60 mL/minute have been studied.
Table 8. Newer Target-Specific Oral Anticoagulants for Treatment of VTE (DVT and/or PE)
Direct Thrombin Inhibitor
Dabigatrana,b
150 mg orally twice daily initiated after initial treatment with LMWH
Factor Xa Inhibitors
Rivaroxabanb
15 mg twice daily (with a meal) for 21 days, followed by 20 mg orally daily (with a meal)
Apixabana,b
10 mg twice daily for 7 days followed by 5 mg twice daily
Edoxabana,b,c
60 mg orally daily (for patients with estimated CrCl > 50 mL/minute and body weight > 60 kg [and not taking
concomitant verapamil, quinidine, erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, or itraconazole]),
initiated after initial treatment with either UFH or LMWH
30 mg orally daily for patients (1) with CrCl 30–50 mL/minute, (2) with body weight of 60 kg or less, or
(3) taking concomitant verapamil, quinidine, erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, or
itraconazole, initiated after initial treatment with either UFH or LMWH
a
Not FDA approved for treatment of VTE as of March 1, 2014.
b
Patients with estimated CrCl < 30 mL/minute not studied.
c
Contraindicated for estimated CrCl < 30 mL/minute.
CrCl = creatinine clearance; DVT = deep venous thrombosis; FDA = U.S. Food and Drug Administration; LMWH = low-molecular-weight
heparin; PE = pulmonary embolism; UFH = unfractionated heparin; VTE = venous thromboembolism.
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Table 9. Duration of Anticoagulation Therapy in Patients with VTE (DVT and/or PE)
Patient Characteristic Therapy Duration Comments
First episode of VTE secondary to 3 months Recommendation applies to both
a transient (reversible) risk factor proximal DVT and PE
First episode of VTE and cancer At least 3 months and Low-molecular-weight heparin is
consider extended duration recommended over warfarin;
until cancer resolves warfarin is recommended over
novel oral anticoagulants
First episode of unprovoked VTE At least 3 months Continue oral anticoagulant therapy
if patient is at low risk of bleeding
and adherent to therapy
The risk-benefit of indefinite
therapy should be reassessed at
periodic intervals
First episode of VTE with At least 3 months Continue oral anticoagulant therapy
inherited or acquired if patient is at low risk of bleeding
thrombophiliaa and adherent to therapy
Several abnormalities or homozygous
traits have at least additive risk
The risk-benefit of indefinite
therapy should be reassessed at
periodic intervals
Second unprovoked VTE Indefinite Applies to patients at low or
moderate risk of bleeding
a
Factor V Leiden; prothrombin G20210A; antiphospholipid antibody syndrome; excess factor VIII; deficiency in protein C, protein S, or
antithrombin.
DVT = deep venous thrombosis; PE = pulmonary embolism; VTE = venous thromboembolism.
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Patient Cases
Questions 1–5 pertain to the following case.
R.R., a 62-year-old, overweight (weight 92 kg, height 60 inches) man, presents to the emergency department with
swelling of his entire right lower extremity, erythema, and soreness of his right calf. He had knee replacement
surgery 2 weeks ago. He reports no shortness of breath, cough, or chest pain. His medical history includes DVT
(after plaster casting for a leg fracture) at age 24 years, diabetes mellitus, HTN, chronic kidney disease, and
dyslipidemia. His estimated 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk is 8%. His medications
are metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, losartan 50 mg orally twice daily, rosuvastatin 10 mg orally daily, and
aspirin 81 mg orally daily. Initial laboratory values include hematocrit 36.5% (normal 42%–52%), prothrombin
time (PT) 10.8 seconds (normal 9.9–11.2 seconds), INR 1.0, aPTT 23.6 seconds (normal 24–36 seconds), platelet
count 255,000/mm3 (normal 150,000–300,000/mm3), and CrCl 48 mL/minute.
1. Which risk level most accurately reflects the clinical probability of this patient’s having a DVT?
A. Low.
B. Moderate.
C. High.
D. Very high.
2. Which is the best diagnostic test to objectively confirm the DVT diagnosis in this patient?
A. D-dimer test.
B. Duplex ultrasound scan.
C. Venography.
D. Computed tomography (CT) scan.
3. Which time interval best represents how long this patient should be treated with anticoagulation therapy?
A. At least 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 12 months.
D. Indefinitely.
4. The decision is made to initiate anticoagulation therapy in the emergency department and to discharge the
patient home and treat him for DVT in the outpatient setting. Which is the best recommendation for an an-
ticoagulant initiation regimen for this patient?
A. Fondaparinux 5 mg subcutaneously daily and warfarin 10 mg/day orally adjusted to an INR of 2–3.
B. Rivaroxaban 15 mg orally daily.
C. Rivaroxaban 15 mg orally twice daily for 21 days and then 20 mg orally daily thereafter.
D. Enoxaparin 100 mg subcutaneously daily and warfarin 5 mg/day orally adjusted to an INR of 2–3.
5. Which is the best course of action currently with respect to the patient’s aspirin therapy taken for primary
prevention of ASCVD?
A. Continue aspirin 81 mg orally daily.
B. Continue aspirin 81 mg orally daily, and revise hthe patient’sis warfarin INR target to 2.0–2.5.
C. Increase the aspirin dose to 325 mg orally daily.
D. Discontinue aspirin while the patient is receiving anticoagulation.
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1. AF is a major risk factor for cardiogenic embolic stroke and systemic arterial thromboembolism.
2. Around 90% of AF thromboembolic complications are stroke related, and the remaining 10% are
systemic embolism.
3. Thromboembolic risks associated with AF
a. Stasis or turbulence of blood flow within the left atrial appendage leads to thrombus formation.
b. Dysfunction of vascular endothelium predisposes to local or systemic hypercoagulability.
c. Conversion to normal sinus rhythm (NSR)—Spontaneous or intentional—May dislodge any
existing left atrial thrombi.
4. Morbidity and mortality associated with AF
a. 15% of all strokes occur in people with AF.
b. The annual stroke risk in untreated patients with AF varies from 1% to greater than 10%
(average is 4.5%), depending on concurrent individual risk factors.
c. Stroke risk in AF increases with age.
i. 1.5% in the 50- to 59-year-old age group
ii. 23.5% in the 80- to 89-year-old age group
5. Classification of AF
a. Acute AF: Onset within previous 48 hours
b. Paroxysmal AF: Terminates spontaneously within 7 days (may recur)
c. Recurrent AF: More than one episode
d. Persistent AF: Duration of more than 7 days without spontaneous termination
e. Permanent AF: Persistence of AF despite electrical or pharmacologic cardioversion attempts
f. Valvular AF: Eur Heart J 2013;34:1471-4: Associated with rheumatic valvular disease, mitral
stenosis, prosthetic heart valves (bioprosthetic and mechanical), or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy;
2012 European Society of Cardiology (ESC) AF guidelines: Associated with rheumatic disease
and prosthetic valves
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c. CHA2DS2-VASc (congestive heart failure, hypertension, age at least 75 years, diabetes, previous
stroke or transient ischemic attack, presence of vascular disease, and age 65–74 years) score –
Well validated; better than CHADS2 score at identifying truly low-risk patients; primarily used
for patients with a CHADS2 score of 0 or 1 to assess the impact of the presence of minor risk
factors on stroke risk; has been validated for patients post AF ablation
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7 8.0 (1.0–26.0)
8 11.1 (0.3–48.3)
9 100 (2.5–100)
a
In patients with a CHADS2 score of 0: 1-year stroke rates in patients with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0 = 0.84%; 1 = 1.75%; 2 = 2.69%; and 3 = 3.2%.
CHA 2DS2-VASc = congestive heart failure, hypertension, age at least 75 years, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, presence
of vascular disease, and age 65–74 years; CI = confidence interval; ESC = European Society of Cardiology; INR = international normalized
ratio; VKA = vitamin K antagonist.
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were excluded from ARISTOTLE trial. Patients with mechanical heart valves were excluded from all trials. Patients with bioprosthetic valves
were excluded from RE-LY, ROCKET-AF, and ARISTOTLE trials.
b
Dose adjusted to 15 mg/day for CrCl 30–49 mL/minute.
c
Dose adjusted to 2.5 mg bid for two or more of the following: Age ≥ 80 years, SCr ≥ 1.5 mg/dL, body weight < 60 kg.
d
Dose adjusted to 30 mg/day if CrCl 30–50 mL/minute, body weight ≤ 60 kg, or concomitant use of verapamil, quinidine, dronedarone;
concomitant use of azithromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, cyclosporine, and ritonavir was prohibited.
bid = twice daily; CHADS2 = congestive heart failure, hypertension, age at least 75 years, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic
attack; CI = confidence interval; CrCl = creatinine clearance; CV = cardiovascular; RR = relative risk; SCr = serum creatinine concentration;
SEE = systemic embolic event; TTR = therapeutic international normalized ratio range.
ii. The 2011 American Heart Association/American Stroke Association (AHA/ASA) guidelines
recommend warfarin over newer target-specific oral anticoagulants for patients with a CrCl less
than 15 mL/minute.
iii. No antidote is currently available for reversing the anticoagulant effect of any of the new
anticoagulants—Management of life-threatening bleeding is unclear. Prothrombin complex
concentrates (PCCs) can normalize elevated prothrombin time levels in patients treated
with direct-acting factor Xa inhibitors, but their utility in bleeding patients remains to be
determined.
iv. Acquisition costs for the newer target-specific oral anticoagulants are about 100 times
that for warfarin.
v. Cost-effectiveness of newer target-specific oral anticoagulants compared with warfarin has
been shown.
vi. Although routine laboratory monitoring is not required with the newer anticoagulants, careful
monitoring and coordination of therapy for invasive procedures are still required.
vii. When deciding which oral anticoagulant to use for patients with AF, consider individual
clinical features, including the ability to adhere to the requirements of therapy, the availability
of the anticoagulation management program, patient preferences, and cost.
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e. During the ROCKET-AF trial, 320 patients had a total of 460 cardioversions or AF ablations,
161 patients treated with warfarin and 160 treated with rivaroxaban. Three strokes occurred in
each group.
11. Considerations during ablation procedures
a. Patients with persistent AF who are in AF at the time of ablation should have TEE to screen for a
thrombus, even if warfarin anticoagulation was used before the procedure. Usually, intraprocedural
echocardiography is used to identify clot formation.
b. The most common anticoagulation strategy is to continue therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin
and to add UFH during the procedure to inhibit activated clotting factors because warfarin just
prevents the formation of active clotting factors. Most centers have abandoned LMWH bridging
because it has been associated with excess bleeding risk.
c. UFH is continued for 12–24 hours post procedure, with a brief interruption for arterial sheath
pull. After the sheath pull, anticoagulation is resumed for 12–24 hours for periprocedural stroke
and PE prevention.
d. Warfarin, if selected for postablation anticoagulation, is reinitiated the evening of the procedure.
e. If a newer oral anticoagulant is selected or dabigatran continued, the oral dose is typically restarted
the morning after the procedure, once hemodynamic stability is assured and intrapericardial
bleeding ruled out.
f. Oral anticoagulation recommended in all patients for at least 2 months after an AF ablation
procedure (consider prolonged therapy of at least 6 months for CHADS2 score of 2 or more)
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Cardiology I
3. Monitoring
a. Administration of UFH by intravenous infusion requires close monitoring because of the
unpredictable anticoagulant patient response. The utility of monitoring subcutaneously
administered UFH is questionable, including at treatment doses.
b. Tests available to monitor UFH therapy in ambulatory patients
i. Activated partial thromboplastin time
(a) The most widely used test to determine the degree of therapeutic anticoagulation
(b) An institution-specific aPTT therapeutic range should be established that correlates with a
plasma heparin concentration of 0.3–0.7 unit/mL by an amidolytic anti-Xa assay.
(c) Should be measured before therapy initiation to determine the patient’s baseline
(d) When monitoring an aPTT during subcutaneous injections, the response to therapy
should be measured at the mid-dosing interval two or three doses after therapy initiation
or a dose change.
ii. Anti-Xa activity (also measured at the mid-dosing interval similarly to aPTT during
subcutaneous administration)
c. Heparin resistance should be suspected in patients who require more than 35,000 units of UFH
during a 24-hour period. In such cases, adjust the UFH dose according to anti-Xa concentrations.
4. Adverse effects
a. Bleeding
i. The presence of concomitant bleeding risks such as thrombocytopenia, the use of other
antithrombotic therapy, and a preexisting source of bleeding increase the risk of UFH-
induced hemorrhage.
ii. The risk of bleeding increases with age.
iii. Recent surgery, hemostatic defects, heavy alcohol consumption, renal failure, peptic ulcers,
and neoplasms also increase the risk of major bleeding while receiving UFH.
b. Bruising from minor trauma and at the sites of subcutaneous injections and venous access is
also common.
c. Local irritation, mild pain, erythema, histamine-like reactions, and hematoma can occur during
UFH administration.
d. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
i. A rare but serious drug-induced problem requiring immediate intervention
ii. A baseline platelet count should be obtained before UFH therapy is initiated.
iii. If the patient has received UFH within the previous 100 days, or if previous UFH exposure is
uncertain, a repeated platelet count should be performed within 24 hours.
iv. Monitoring platelet counts every 2–3 days from days 4 to 14 of UFH treatment or until
discontinuation is recommended for patients for whom the estimated risk exceeds 1%.
v. The incidence of HIT is greater than 1% in postoperative patients receiving prophylactic or
therapeutic UFH doses. The incidence of HIT in medical patients receiving UFH ranges from
less than 0.1% to 1%.
vi. A fall in platelet count of greater than 50% from baseline but not less than 20 x 109/L is most
suggestive of HIT.
e. Long-term use of UFH has been reported to cause alopecia, priapism, and suppressed aldosterone
synthesis with subsequent hyperkalemia.
f. Use of UFH in doses of 20,000 units/day or greater for more than 3–6 months has been associated
with significant bone loss and may lead to osteoporosis.
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
4. Adverse effects
a. Bleeding is the most common adverse effect of the LMWHs.
i. Major bleeding: Incidence is less than 3% and varies among the LMWH preparations,
their indication for use, the patient population, and the dose administered.
ii. Minor bleeding, particularly at the injection site, occurs often with LMWH use.
iii. Epidural and spinal hematomas resulting in long-term or permanent paralysis have been
reported with the use of LMWH during spinal and epidural anesthesia or spinal puncture.
The risk of these events is higher with the use of indwelling epidural catheters and concomitant
use of drugs that affect hemostasis.
b. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
i. The incidence of HIT is lower than that observed with the use of UFH in the postoperative
setting. The risk of HIT in patients treated for VTE is too low to discern a difference between
UFH and LMWH. Risk of HIT should not be a major determinant in selecting a parenteral
anticoagulant for VTE treatment.
ii. LMWHs have almost 100% cross-reactivity with heparin antibodies in vitro; they should be
avoided in patients with an established diagnosis or history of HIT.
c. Osteoporosis: Appears to be lower with the LMWHs than with UFH, but both agents have the
potential to produce osteopenia
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Cardiology I
5. Therapeutic monitoring
a. A CBC and SCr should be measured at baseline.
b. Kidney function should be monitored closely in patients at risk of developing renal failure.
c. Fondaparinux should be discontinued if the CrCl drops below 30 mL/minute.
d. Signs and symptoms of bleeding should be monitored daily, particularly in patients with a baseline
CrCl between 30 and 50 mL/minute. If neuraxial anesthesia has been used, patients should be
closely monitored for signs and symptoms of neurologic impairment.
e. Fondaparinux does not alter coagulation tests such as the aPTT and PT. The role of anti-Xa
monitoring during fondaparinux is not well defined. Patients receiving fondaparinux therapy do not
require routine coagulation testing.
6. Adverse effects
a. Bleeding is the primary adverse effect associated with fondaparinux therapy.
b. The rate of major bleeding in the VTE prophylaxis trials was around 2%–3%.
c. Similar to UFH and the LMWHs, fondaparinux should be used with extreme caution in patients
with neuraxial anesthesia or after a spinal puncture because of the risk of spinal or epidural
hematoma formation.
d. Unlike UFH and the LMWHs, fondaparinux has not been associated with HIT and does not
produce cross-sensitivity in vitro. Fondaparinux has been used in the treatment of HIT.
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Cardiology I
g. Warfarin is a racemic mixture of R- and S-enantiomers that differ with respect to elimination
half-life, metabolism, pathways of oxidative metabolism, and potency.
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Table 17. Consideration for Adjustments of Warfarin Maintenance Dose for Goal INR of 2–3
(after at least 7 days of continuous dosing)a
INR Suggested Change in Total “Weekly” Dosage
<1.5 Give extra daily dose once and increase weekly dose by 10%–20%
1.5–1.9 Increase weekly dose by 5%–15% (may give extra daily dose x 1)b
2.0–3.0 Maintain same dose
3.1–4.0 Hold zero to one daily dose and decrease weekly dose by 5%–20%b
4.1–5.0 Hold up to two daily doses and decrease weekly dose by 10%–20%b
≥5 Hold dose, consider administration of vitamin K
a
Assumes no active bleeding.
b
If transient cause is identified or if previously stable and INR ≤ 0.5 unit is out of range, may not need to increase/decrease weekly dose.
INR = international normalized ratio.
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Cardiology I
8. Therapeutic monitoring
a. Warfarin requires frequent laboratory monitoring to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes and
to minimize bleeding complications.
b. The PT is used to monitor the anticoagulation effects of warfarin.
c. The PT measures the biologic activity of factor II, VII, and X activity and correlates well with
warfarin’s anticoagulation effect.
d. The INR corrects for differences in thromboplastin reagents.
e. Although the INR system has several potential problems, it is currently the best means available
to interpret the PT and is the preferred method for monitoring oral anticoagulation therapy.
f. The recommended target INR and associated goal range are based on the therapeutic indication.
g. For most indications, the target INR is 2.5 with an acceptable range of 2.0–3.0.
h. The target INR is higher for some patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves
(target INR 3.0, range 2.5–3.5).
i. A baseline PT and CBC should be obtained before initiating warfarin therapy.
j. In patients with an acute thromboembolic event, an INR should be measured minimally
every 3 days during the first week of therapy (daily INRs are optimal to minimize need for
cross-coverage with injectable anticoagulants during outpatient DVT treatment).
k. Once the patient’s dose response is established, an INR should be determined every
7–14 days until it stabilizes and, optimally, every 4–6 weeks thereafter.
l. Recent evidence indicates INR recall intervals as long as 12 weeks may be used in patients
with very stable conditions.
m. When the warfarin dose is adjusted for significantly out-of-range INRs (e.g., greater than
4.0 or less than 1.5), an INR should be rechecked within 7 days. For INRs less severely out
of range, a 14-day recall interval is acceptable.
n. For patients with previously stable INR control, avoid changing the warfarin dose for mildly
out-of-range INR (e.g., 1.5–3.5); instead, increase INR monitoring frequency.
9. Patient assessment and management: With each INR, the patient should also be assessed for other
factors that can influence the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
a. Verification of the warfarin dose administered or taken
b. Changes in current medications (prescription, over-the-counter, herbal)
c. Acute illnesses (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
d. Changes in diet (especially foods rich in vitamin K or decreased oral intake)
e. Binge alcohol use
f. Assess patient for signs and symptoms of TE.
g. Assess patient for signs and symptoms of bleeding.
10. Adverse effects
a. Bleeding
i. As with the other anticoagulants, bleeding is the most common adverse effect.
ii. The gastrointestinal (GI) tract and the nose are the most frequent sites of bleeding.
Intracranial hemorrhage is the most serious and feared complication related to warfarin
therapy, often resulting in permanent disability or death.
iii. The annual incidence of major bleeding ranges from 1% in highly selected patient
populations who are carefully managed to greater than 10% in patients who are medically
managed in less structured environments.
iv. Few studies have prospectively evaluated the incidence of minor bleeding, but it is likely to
be greater than 15% annually, even in the most expertly treated patients.
v. Several risk factors for bleeding while taking anticoagulation therapy have been identified.
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Cardiology I
Table 18. Risk Factors for Major Bleeding While Taking Anticoagulation Therapy
Anticoagulation intensity (e.g., INR > 4.0)
Therapy initiation (first few weeks)
Unstable anticoagulation response (INR control)
Age > 65 years
Concurrent antiplatelet drug use
Concurrent nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug use
History of gastrointestinal bleeding
Recent surgery or trauma
High risk of fall/trauma
Heavy alcohol use
Renal failure
Cerebrovascular disease
Malignancy
INR = international normalized ratio.
Reprinted from: Talbert RL, DiPiro JT, Matzke GR, et al., eds. Pharmacotherapy: A Pathophysiological Approach, 8th ed. New York: McGraw-
Hill, 2011. With permission from The McGraw-Hill Companies.
vi. Intensity of anticoagulation therapy appears to be the most powerful risk factor for bleeding.
vii. Patients whose target INR is greater than 3.0 have twice the incidence of major bleeding than
those having a target of 2.5.
viii. Unstable INR control also appears to be associated with an increased risk of bleeding.
ix. The risk of hemorrhage is greatest during the first few weeks of therapy.
x. However, bleeding can occur at any time, and the cumulative incidence steadily increases
over time.
xi. Scoring systems have been developed to assess the risk of major bleeding in patients taking
warfarin. To date, no bleeding prediction rule has shown sufficient predictive accuracy or
had sufficient validation to be recommended for routine use in practice.
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Cardiology I
Table 19. Scoring Systems to Assess the Risk of Major Bleeding in Patients Taking Warfarin (validated only in patients
with AF—Note also that CHADS2 scores correlate with bleeding risk [i.e., higher scores = higher bleeding risk])
Scoring System Criteria Point Scores Risk of Major Bleeding
Outpatient Bleeding Age > 65 years 1 Score MB/pt-yr
Risk Index History of GI bleed 1 Low (0) 3%
History of stroke 1 Intermediate (1–2) 8%
One or more of diabetes, hematocrit < 30%, 1 High (3–4) 30%
SCr > 1.5 mg/dL, or recent MI
HEMORR2HAGES Hepatic or renal disease 1 Score MB/pt-yr
scoring system Ethanol abuse 1 Low (0–1) 1.9%–2.5%
Malignancy 1 Intermediate (2–3)
Older (age > 75 years) 1 5.3%–8.4%
Reduced platelet count or function 1 High (≥4) 10.4%–12.3%
Rebleeding risk 2
Hypertension (uncontrolled) 1
Anemia 1
Genetic factors (CYP2C9 polymorphism) 1
Excessive fall risk 1
Stroke 1
xii. Serious bleeding, such as intracranial hemorrhage, necessitates holding warfarin and
administering of 10 mg of vitamin K by slow intravenous infusion for 1 hour and PCC
administration. Only the four-factor PCC (Kcentra) is FDA approved for warfarin reversal.
The dose of Kcentra is based on the patient’s INR, body weight, and factor IX concentration
of the vial.
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
c. Dietary interactions
i. Vitamin K
(a) Vitamin K can reverse warfarin’s pharmacologic activity, and many foods contain
sufficient vitamin K to reduce the anticoagulation effect of warfarin if a patient consumes
them in unusually large portions or repetitively within a short period.
(b) Patients should be given a list of vitamin K–rich foods and instructed to maintain a
relatively consistent intake. Patients with consistently higher intake of dietary vitamin
K have less variable INR response and warfarin dosing requirements; therefore, it is
important to stress consistency and moderation rather than abstinence.
(c) Abrupt changes in vitamin K intake should be considered when unexplained changes in
the INR occur.
(d) Alternative sources of vitamin K, such as multivitamins and nutritional supplements
(e.g., Sustacal and Ensure), should also be considered.
(e) Patients who require parenteral nutrition should not receive a weekly bolus dose of
vitamin K if they are receiving warfarin therapy.
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
Do not chew, break, or open capsules; this can substantially increase the
bioavailability (once open, the bottle expires in 4 months)
Dosage form Capsules contain many drug pellets with a tartaric acid core (coated with
dabigatran etexilate) that creates an acidic microenvironment to improve
dissolution and absorption independently of gastric pH
Dosing Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
(vitamin K, FFP, PCCs, protamine, and aminocaproic acid are not expected to have any effect)
Converting dabigatran Adjust the starting time of warfarin based on CrCl
to warfarin
CrCl > 50 mL/minute: InitiateStart warfarin 3 days before discontinuing dabigatran
Note: Dabigatran can elevate the INR; the INR will better reflect warfarin’s effect
after dabigatran has been discontinued for at least 2 days
Converting warfarin Discontinue warfarin and initiatestart dabigatran when the INR is below 2
to dabigatran
Converting to or from a When a parenteral anticoagulant is in use, initiatestart dabigatran 0–2 hours before the
parenteral anticoagulant next subcutaneous dose of parenteral drug was to have been administered or when a
continuously administered IV parenteral drug is discontinued
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Cardiology I
Note: Depending on the risk of bleeding, urgency of the procedure, and thrombosis
risk, holding for a shorter period may be considered
Avoid dabigatran in patients taking P-gp inhibitors with CrCl 15–30 mL/minute
Warnings and Risk of bleeding: Dabigatran can cause serious and sometimes fatal bleeding;
precautions promptly evaluate signs and symptoms of blood loss
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Cardiology I
VTE treatment
CrCl ≥ 30 mL/minute: 15 mg once daily orally twice daily with a meal for 21 days;
then 20 mg orally once daily with a meal thereafter
CrCl < 30 mL/minute: Avoid use
VTE prophylaxis
CrCl ≥ 30 mL/minute: 10 mg once daily orally once daily with evening meal
CrCl < 30 mL/minute: Avoid use
Hemodialysis Because of high plasma protein binding, not expected to be dialyzable
Instructions if If a dose is not taken at the scheduled time, administer the dose as soon as possible
missed dose on the same day
Hepatic impairment Avoid use in patients with moderate (Child-Pugh B) and severe (Child-Pugh C)
hepatic impairment or with any hepatic disease associated with coagulopathy
Elderly No significant pharmacokinetic differences in healthy elderly individuals,
but elderly may be at higher bleeding risk from rivaroxaban
Reversal Use of activated charcoal to reduce absorption in case of overdose may be considered
(vitamin K, FFP, protamine, and aminocaproic acid are not expected to have any effect)
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Cardiology I
For UFH being administered by continuous infusion, discontinue the infusion and
initiate rivaroxaban at the same time
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2. Apixaban
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Cardiology I
Reduce dose to 2.5 mg orally bid if two of the following are present: Age > 80 years,
body weight ≤ 60 kg, SCr ≥ 1.5 mg/dL
VTE prophylaxis
2.5 mg orally bid
Hemodialysis Dialysis clearance 18 mL/minute (compared with renal clearance in healthy normal
volunteers of 11 mL/minute), representing a 14% decrease in exposure compared with
an off-dialysis period; 7% of dose removed by hemodialysis
Instructions if If a dose is not taken at the scheduled time, administer the dose as soon as possible on
missed dose the same day, and twice-daily administration should be resumed
Hepatic impairment No dosage adjustment in mild hepatic impairment; avoid use in patients with severe
hepatic impairment
Reversal Use of activated charcoal to reduce absorption in case of overdose may be considered
Benefits of rFVIIa are unknown; limited evidence indicates four-factor PCCs (not
available in the United States) may reverse anticoagulant effect
(vitamin K, FFP, protamine, and aminocaproic acid are not expected to have any effect)
Converting apixaban Apixaban affects INR, so INR measurements made during coadministration with
to warfarin warfarin may not be useful for determining the appropriate dose of warfarin
For patients currently taking apixaban and transitioning to an anticoagulant with rapid
onset, discontinue apixaban and give the first dose of the other anticoagulant (oral or
parenteral) when the next rivaroxaban dose would have been taken
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
3. Edoxaban
Benefits of rFVIIa are unknown; limited evidence indicates four-factor PCCs (not
available in the United States) may reverse anticoagulant effect
(vitamin K, FFP, protamine, and aminocaproic acid are not expected to have any effect)
Converting edoxaban Decrease edoxaban to 30 mg daily and initiatestart warfarin;
to warfarin continue edoxaban until INR ≥ 2.0
OR,
discontinue edoxaban and initiatestart warfarin
(recommend parenteral anticoagulation until INR > 2)
Converting warfarin InitiateStart edoxaban when INR is ≤ 2.5
to edoxaban
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Cardiology I
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Patient Cases
Questions 6–8 pertain to the following case.
S.K. is a 78-year-old, 58-kg woman with a history of uncontrolled HTN, diabetes mellitus, GI bleeding, chronic
kidney disease, and chronic NVAF. Her current medications include metformin, carvedilol, digoxin, aspirin, and
lansoprazole; her SCr is 0.94 mg/dL; and her calculated CrCl is 45 mL/minute.
6. Which is the best choice for S.K.’s CHADS2 score and classification for stroke risk?
A. 0 (Low).
B. 1 (Moderate).
C. 2 (High).
D. 3 (High).
7. Which is the best choice for S.K.’s HAS-BLED score and classification of bleeding risk?
A. 1 (Intermediate).
B. 2 (Intermediate).
C. 3 (High).
D. 4 (High).
8. A decision is made to administer anticoagulants to S.K. Which represents the most appropriate choice?
A. Apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily.
B. Rivaroxaban 20 mg orally daily.
C. Dabigatran 75 mg orally twice daily.
D. Aspirin 81 mg plus clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily.
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Cardiology I
If the LMWH dose is given in the previous 8–12 hours, a 0.5-mg dose of
protamine should be given for every 100 anti−factor Xa units
Table 38. Guidelines for Reversal of an Elevated INR in a Patient Taking Warfarin
INR Recommendation
<5 Lower or hold dose
5–10 Hold one or two doses
≥10 Hold warfarin and give vitamin K (2.5 mg orally); use additional vitamin K, if necessary
Serious bleeding Hold warfarin and give vitamin K (10-mg slow IV infusion) supplemented with
with high INR fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrate, or recombinant factor VIIa;
may repeat vitamin K every 12 hours, if necessary
Life-threatening bleeding Hold warfarin and give prothrombin complex concentrates or recombinant factor
VIIa supplemented with vitamin K (10-mg slow IV infusion); repeat as necessary
INR = international normalized ratio; IV = intravenous.
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Cardiology I
Table 39. Key Elements of Patient Education Regarding Warfarin, Apixaban, Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban, and Edoxaban
Identification of generic and brand names
Purpose of therapy
Expected therapy duration
Dosing and administration
Visual recognition of drug and tablet or capsule dosage strength
Importance of taking exactly as prescribed
What to do if a dose is missed
Importance of prothrombin time/INR monitoring (warfarin only)
Importance of kidney function monitoring (apixaban, dabigatran, and rivaroxaban only)
Recognition of signs and symptoms of bleeding
Recognition of signs and symptoms of TE
What to do if bleeding or TE occurs
Potential for interactions with prescription and over-the-counter medications and natural/herbal products
Dietary considerations (warfarin only) and use of alcohol
MustNeed to take with food (rivaroxaban only)
Expiration of tablets (dabigatran only)
Importance of not crushing or breaking capsule (dabigatran only)
Avoidance of pregnancy
Significance of informing other health care providers that anticoagulant has been prescribed
When, where, and with whom follow-up will be provided
Ensure that the patient can pay for the drug before a final decision on treatment is made
INR = international normalized ratio; TE = thromboembolism.
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Cardiology I
Table 41. Risk Stratification for Determining the Need for Bridge Therapy
Indication for VKA Therapy
Risk Stratum
Mechanical Heart Valve Atrial Fibrillation Venous Thromboembolism
Any mitral valve prosthesis CHADS2 score of 5 or 6 Recent (within 3 months)
Older (caged-ball or tilting disk) Recent (within 3 months) stroke VTE
aortic valve prosthesis or transient ischemic attack Severe thrombophilia (e.g.,
High Recent (within 6 months) stroke Rheumatic valvular deficiency of protein C,
or transient ischemic attack heart disease protein S, or antithrombin;
antiphospholipid antibodies;
many abnormalities)
Bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis CHADS2 score of 3 or 4 VTE within the past
and one of the following: 3–12 months
Atrial fibrillation, previous (Consider VTE prophylaxis
stroke or transient ischemic rather than full-intensity
attack, hypertension, diabetes, bridge therapy)
congestive heart failure, Nonsevere thrombophilic
age > 75 years conditions (e.g.,
Moderate heterozygous factor
V Leiden mutation,
heterozygous factor II
mutation)
Recurrent VTE
Active cancer (treated
within 6 months or
palliative)
Bileaflet aortic valve prosthesis CHADS2 score of 0–2 Single VTE occurred greater
Low without atrial fibrillation and (no previous stroke or than 12 months ago and no
no other risk factors for stroke transient ischemic attack) other risk factors
CHADS2 = congestive heart failure, hypertension, age at least 75 years, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack; VKA = vitamin
K antagonist; VTE = venous thromboembolism.
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Cardiology I
Table 42. Warfarin to Parenteral Anticoagulant Bridge Therapy Guidelines for Invasive Procedures
Thromboembolic
Renal Function Bridge Therapy
Riska
Low All patients Last dose of warfarin on day −6 pre procedure
Hold warfarin day from day −5 through day −1
Consider vitamin K 2.5 mg PO on day −2 or day −1 if INR ≥ 1.5
Resume warfarin 12–48 hours post procedure at usual maintenance
dose (decision based on postoperative assessment of bleeding risk)
High CrCl > 30 mLl/minute Last dose of warfarin on day −6 pre procedure
Hold warfarin day −5 through day −1
Start LMWH on day −3 (or when INR < lower limit of range)
Consider vitamin K 2.5 mg PO on day 2 or day 1 if INR ≥ 1.5
Last dose of LMWH 24 hours pre procedure
(On day −1, give one-half dose of LMWH if patient is receiving
once-daily LMWH)
Resume warfarin 12–24 hours post procedure at usual
maintenance dose (decision predicated on postprocedure
assessment of bleeding risk)
Resume LMWH 24 hours post procedure (or 48–72 hours for
major surgery or high bleeding risk procedure) and continue
until INR > lower limit of therapeutic range
CrCl ≤ 30 mLl/minute Last dose of warfarin on day –6 pre procedure
Hold warfarin day –5 through day –1
Consider vitamin K 2.5 mg PO or 1 mg IV x on day –2 or day –1 pre
procedure if INR ≥ 1.5
Admit on day –1 pre procedure and begin IV UFH (70 units/kg bolus,
15 units/kg/hour infusion and adjust per inpatient protocol)
Discontinue IV UFH 6 hours pre procedure
Resume warfarin 12–24 hours post procedure at the usual maintenance
dose (decision based on postoperative assessment of bleeding risk)
Resume IV UFH 24 hours post procedure (or 48–72 hours for major
surgery or high-bleeding-risk procedure) and continue until INR >
lower limit of therapeutic range
The decision to bridge patients with a moderate risk of thromboembolism should be based on surgery and patient-related factors.
a
CrCl = creatinine clearance; INR = international normalized ratio; IV = intravenous; LMWH = low-molecular-weight heparin; PO = orally;
UFH = unfractionated heparin.
VI. CONSIDERATIONS FOR PATIENT SAFETY AND DELIVERY OF QUALITY PATIENT CARE
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B. Home Management of Warfarin Oral Anticoagulation: Portable Fingerstick INR Devices Are Available for
Monitoring Warfarin Therapy. (Domain 1, Task 5)
1. Self-monitoring at home: Requires that the patient report his or her test results to a health care
professional. The clinician continues to make warfarin dosing decisions.
2. Self-management at home: Highly motivated patients can be trained to manage dosing themselves,
independently altering the warfarin therapy dose according to their INR results.
3. Patients who engage in INR self-monitoring and warfarin self-management report high levels of
satisfaction with care, with modest improvement in percentage time in therapeutic INR range,
compared with those who are medically managed by “usual care.”
4. Home INR testing and self-management require careful patient selection and considerable education.
5. Most benefit is seen in the reduction of thromboembolic complication risk in patients with mechanical
valves who self-manage INRs. Minimal benefit has been shown with self-testing in patients with AF
(e.g., the THINRS [The Home INR Study] trial did not show any benefit of self-testing).
6. Patients with very stable conditions probably do not need the frequent testing usually used with self-
testing and self-management.
2. The NQF has developed national consensus standards for VTE prevention and treatment that will
apply to a variety of health care settings.
a. The outcomes of this effort will provide a framework for measuring the effective
screening, prevention, and treatment of VTE.
b. The NQF’s recommendations include developing organizational policies that address staff education,
treatment protocols, and compliance measurements to improve VTE prevention in the hospital.
c. The ultimate goal of the NQF consensus standards is to facilitate the early promulgation
of VTE policies, risk assessment, prophylaxis, diagnosis, and treatment services as well
as patient education and organizational accountability.
d. To that end, the Joint Commission has developed performance measures to enforce the
NQF’s recommendations.
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Table 44. The Joint Commission’s Proposed Performance Measures for the Prevention and Treatment
of Venous Thrombosis
Number Description of Proposed Performance Measure
1 Documentation of Venous Thromboembolism Risk Assessment/Prophylaxis Within 24 Hours of
Hospital Admission
2 Documentation of Venous Thromboembolism Risk Assessment/Prophylaxis Within 24 Hours of
Transfer to ICU
3 Venous Thromboembolism Patients with Overlap of Parenteral and Warfarin Anticoagulation
Therapy
4 Venous Thromboembolism Patients Receiving Unfractionated Heparin by Nomogram/Protocol
with Platelet Count Monitoring
5 Venous Thromboembolism Discharge Instructions
6 Incidence of Potentially Preventable Hospital-Acquired Venous Thromboembolism
ICU = intensive care unit.
Table 45. The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals on Anticoagulation Therapy Elements of Performance
Use only oral unit-dose products, prefilled syringes, or premixed infusion bags when these types of products
are available – Note: For pediatric patients, prefilled syringe products should be used only if specifically
designed for children
Use approved protocols for the initiation and maintenance of anticoagulant therapy
Before initiating warfarin therapy for a patient, assess the patient’s baseline coagulation status; for all patients
receiving warfarin therapy, use a current INR to adjust this therapy; the baseline status and current INR are
documented in the medical record
Use authoritative resources to manage potential food and drug interactions for patients receiving warfarin
When heparin is administered both intravenously and continuously, use programmable pumps to provide
consistent and accurate dosing
A written policy addresses baseline and ongoing laboratory tests that are required for anticoagulants
Provide education regarding anticoagulant therapy to prescribers, staff, patients, and families; patient/family
education includes the following:
- The importance of follow-up monitoring
- Adherence
- Drug-food interactions
- The potential for adverse drug reactions and interactions
Evaluate anticoagulation safety practices, take action to improve practices, and measure the effectiveness of
those actions in a period determined by the organization
INR = international normalized ratio.
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HEART FAILURE
VII. DIAGNOSIS
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3. NT-proBNP cut points of more than 450 pg/mL for patients younger than 50 years, more than 900
pg/mL for patients 50–74 years of age, and more than 1800 pg/mL for patients 75 years and older are
predictive of HF. May be used to monitor the success of GDMT
4. Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) less than 40% as determined by echocardiography, radionuclide
angiography (MUGA [multiple gated acquisition] blood scan, considered the gold standard for LVEF
measurement), or coronary angiography. Even though a MUGA scan provides the most accurate
assessment of ejection fraction (EF), it is seldom used because of its higher cost and invasiveness.
5. Models that can be used in ambulatory patients to predict mortality
a. Seattle Heart Failure Model (http://SeattleHeartFailureModel.org)
b. Heart Failure Survival Score (http://handheld.softpedia.com/dyn-search.php)
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7. Monitoring
a. SCr assessed within 1–2 weeks after initiation and periodically thereafter
b. Serum potassium concentration assessed within 1–2 weeks after initiation and periodically thereafter
8. Major adverse effects
a. Angioedema
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypotension (potentiated by diuretics)
d. Worsening renal function (e.g., rapid increase of SCr by 30%–50% over baseline)
e. Persistent nonproductive cough
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ii. In the CHARM-Added trial, the addition of candesartan for patients with HF receiving
background ACE inhibitor therapy provided a 15% reduction (hazard ratio 0.85; 95% CI, 0.75–
0.96; p=0.011) in the primary end point of CV death or HF hospitalization, compared with placebo.
iii. Of note, combination therapy is associated with a higher risk of hyperkalemia and increase
in SCr; thus, patients should be carefully selected and closely monitored while receiving
combined ARB and ACE inhibitor therapy. In general, combination of ACE inhibitor and
ARB has fallen out of favor clinically.
3. ARBs for patients with evidence of LV systolic dysfunction post MI with or without HF symptoms
a. Valsartan showed noninferiority to captopril for the end points of mortality alone and fatal
and nonfatal CV events in the Valsartan in Acute Myocardial Infarction (VALIANT) trial;
thus, either ARB or ACE inhibitors are appropriate in this setting.
b. Combining valsartan with captopril was not associated with improvements in clinical outcomes;
however, adverse event rates were higher in this group. Thus, there is no advantage to using
combination therapy for these patients.
c. Use of ARBs in post-MI patients with reduced EF or HF symptoms who are intolerant of
ACE inhibitors is recommended by the ACC/AHA acute coronary syndrome guidelines
(class I recommendation).
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8. Hyperkalemia is a significant complication of MRA therapy. In the RALES trial, the incidence
of hyperkalemia was only 2%, but it was 12% in EMPHASIS-HF. However, outside the rigorous
follow-up of a clinical trial, much higher rates of hyperkalemia have been reported (11 hyperkalemia-
associated hospitalizations per 100 patients treated).
9. The incidence of gynecomastia with spironolactone in the RALES trial was 10% and does not occur
with eplerenone.
10. Careful patient selection and close laboratory monitoring help minimize hyperkalemia-related
complications in these patients.
Table 52. Guidelines for Minimizing the Risk of Hyperkalemia in Patients Treated with MRAs
1. Serum potassium concentrations should be monitored at 3 days, 1 week, and monthly for at least
3 months after initiation of an MRA
2. Discontinue or reduce dose if serum potassium concentration ˃ 5.5 mEq/L
3. Initiate an MRA at a dose appropriate for the patient’s renal function, and increase it at
appropriate intervals
4. The risk of hyperkalemia is increased with the concomitant use of MRAs with higher doses of
ACEIs (captopril ≥ 75 mg/daily; enalapril or lisinopril ≥ 10 mg/daily)
5. Potassium supplements should be discontinued or reduced
6. Diarrhea or other causes of dehydration should be addressed emergently
ACEI = angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor; MRA = mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist.
mEq/L. Consider reinitiating reduced dose after confirming the resolution of hyperkalemia/renal insufficiency for at least 72 hours.
bid = twice daily; CrCl = creatinine clearance; K+ = potassium; MRA = mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist; wk = weeks.
Adapted from: Yancy CW, Jessup M, Bozkurt B, et al. 2013 ACCF/AHA guideline for the management of heart failure: a report of the American
College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines. J Am Coll Cardiol 2013;62:e147-239.
11. Both eplerenone and spironolactone are MRAs, but eplerenone is a selective MRA that has a lower
incidence of endocrine-related adverse effects (i.e., gynecomastia) because of its reduced affinity for
glucocorticoid, androgen, and progesterone receptors.
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3. The African American Heart Failure Trial (A-HeFT) showed a 43% reduction in all-cause mortality
(hazard ratio 0.57; p=0.01) for patients randomly assigned to receive hydralazine plus isosorbide
dinitrate compared with placebo.
4. The 2013 ACCF/AHA HF guidelines removed the specification that the product be a “fixed-dose”
combination. It is jJust stated that hydralazine and nitrates may be given in two pills three times daily.
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Patient Cases
Questions 9 and 10 pertain to the following case.
R.R., a 68-year-old African American woman with HF, presents to your clinic. Comorbidities include HTN
and type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the past year, she has had two hospitalizations for decompensated HF
and significant volume overload with each hospitalization. Her current symptoms are shortness of breath with
minimal exertion and 2+ peripheral edema bilaterally. Other pertinent findings include BP 120/72 mm Hg,
HR 58 beats/minute, SCr 1.60 mg/dL (estimated CrCl 36 mL/minute), BUN 25 mg/dL, potassium 5.1 mEq/L,
sodium 140 mEq/L, hemoglobin A1C 7.1%, digoxin 0.5 ng/mL, and LVEF 28%. Current medications include
enalapril 10 mg twice daily, metoprolol XL (extended release) 150 mg once daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily,
digoxin 0.125 mg daily, and furosemide 40 mg twice daily.
9. Which of the following best describes R.R.’s current HF type, stage, and classification?
A. HFpEF, stage B, NYHA class II.
B. HFpEF, stage C, NYHA class III.
C. HFrEF, stage B, NYHA class II.
D. HFrEF, stage C, NYHA class III.
11. P.N. is a 60-year-old, 78-kg, white man with ischemic cardiomyopathy and LVEF 25%. He was recently
hospitalized with acute MI and acute HF. He underwent percutaneous coronary intervention with bare metal
stent placement to his right coronary artery. He is currently treated with enalapril 10 mg orally twice daily,
carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, furosemide 40 mg/day, aspirin 81 mg/day, clopidogrel 75 mg/day, and atorv-
astatin 80 mg/day. He has stable NYHA class II HF symptoms. Other pertinent clinical findings include BP
114/70 mm Hg, HR 67 beats/minute, 1+ edema bilaterally, SCr 1.0 mg/dL, and potassium 4.0 mEq/L. Other
laboratory values are within normal limits. Which is the best recommendation for this patient currently?
A. Add valsartan 80 mg orally daily.
B. Add spironolactone 25 orally daily.
C. Add hydralazine 50 mg orally three times daily and isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg orally three times daily.
D. Increase enalapril dose to 20 mg orally twice daily.
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Patient Cases
Questions 12 and 13 pertain to the following case.
J.J. is a 62-year-old, 88-kg white man with a history of HTN and intolerance of ACE inhibitors secondary to
cough. He was recently discharged from an HF-related hospitalization and presents to the clinic for follow-up
1 week after hospital discharge. Before hospitalization, his medication regimen included valsartan 80 mg twice
daily, metoprolol XL 100 mg/day, and furosemide 40 mg twice daily. The patient’s condition is now stable, with
no symptoms at rest and some shortness of breath when walking around his home. Other pertinent diagnostic
and laboratory findings include BUN 30 mg/dL, SCr 1.4 mg/dL, potassium 4 mEq/L, LVEF 65%, BP 154/70 mm
Hg, and HR 77 beats/minute.
12. Which of the following best describes J.J.’s HF type and classification?
A. HFpEF, NYHA class III.
B. HFpEF, NYHA class IV.
C. HFrEF, NYHA class III.
D. HFrEF, NYHA class IV.
13. Given J.J.’s persistent symptoms, which is the best recommendation for him?
A. Increase the furosemide dose to 80 mg orally twice daily.
B. Increase metoprolol succinate to 150 mg orally daily.
C. Add eplerenone 25 mg orally daily.
D. Add hydralazine 50 mg orally three times daily plus isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg orally three times daily.
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3. CRT therapy is indicated for patients with LVEF of 35% or less and NYHA class II, III, or ambulatory
class IV symptoms who are receiving GDMT and who fulfill the following criteria:
a. Have sinus rhythm or left bundle branch block (LBBB) with a QRS of 150 milliseconds or greater
on 12-lead ECG or
b. Have non-LBBB pattern with a QRS of 150 milliseconds or greater on 12-lead ECG or
c. Have LBBB with a QRS of 120–149 milliseconds on 12-lead ECG
d. Are undergoing new or replacement device implantation with anticipated ventricular pacing
(greater than 40%)
4. Initial studies observed improvements in NYHA functional class, quality of life, 6-minute walk
distance, exercise test duration, and EF for patients randomly assigned to CRT.
5. In the Comparison of Medical Therapy, Pacing, and Defibrillation in Heart Failure (COMPANION)
trial, CRT was associated with a 19% reduction (hazard ratio 0.81; 95% CI, 0.69–0.96; p=0.014) in
the primary end point of all-cause death or all-cause hospitalization among patients with NYHA
class III–IV HF, LVEF of 35% or less, and QRS of 120 milliseconds or more. The effect of CRT on
all-cause mortality alone did not reach statistical significance (hazard ratio 0.76; 95% CI, 0.58–1.01;
p=0.059). Patients randomly assigned to CRT plus an ICD showed a 20% reduction (hazard ratio 0.8;
95% CI, 0.68–0.95; p=0.01) in all-cause death or hospitalization and a 36% reduction (hazard ratio
0.64; 95% CI, 0.48–0.86; p=0.003) in all-cause mortality.
6. The Cardiac Resynchronization Heart Failure (CARE-HF) study evaluated CRT alone (without an
ICD) in 813 patients with NYHA class III–IV symptoms, LVEF of 35% or less, LV end-diastolic
dimension of at least 30 mm, and QRS duration of 120 milliseconds or more. CRT reduced the
primary end point of all-cause mortality or CV hospitalization by 37% (hazard ratio 0.63; 95% CI,
0.51–0.77; p<0.001). CRT was also associated with a 36% reduction in all-cause mortality (hazard
ratio 0.64; 95% CI, 0.48–0.85; p<0.002).
7. Echocardiographic measurements also improved for the CRT group compared with placebo, including
higher EF, lower end-systolic volume index, smaller area of mitral regurgitation, and shorter
interventricular mechanical delay, suggesting CRT exerted favorable effects on remodeling.
8. The 2012 device guideline update from ACCF/AHA/HRS increased the QRS requirement from
120 milliseconds, which was used in the trials described above, to 150 milliseconds according to
additional data from subgroup analyses and meta-analyses from the (five) trials reporting that patients
who benefited were those with a QRS of 150 milliseconds or greater and that a QRS of less than 150
milliseconds was a predictor of failure to respond to CRT.
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c. An LVAD candidate should have the capacity for meaningful recovery of end-organ function and
quality of life.
d. An LVAD candidate should have no irreversible end-organ damage.
5. The 2013 ISHLT guidelines recommend antithrombotic therapy for mechanical circulatory support
devices consisting of the following: Warfarin at a goal INR of 2–3 and aspirin 81–325 mg/day for
the HeartMate II device and the HeartWare HVAD; warfarin at a goal INR of 2.5–3.5 and aspirin
81–325 mg/day for the pulsatile mechanical circulatory support devices (e.g., the Thoratec PVAD
[paracorporeal ventricular assist device]/IVAD [implantable ventricular assist device]), and warfarin
at a goal INR of 2.5–2.5 and aspirin 81–325 mg/day and dipyridamole 75 mg three times daily for the
CardioWest temporary total artificial heart.
6. Recent data indicate that the HeartMate II device (Thoratec Corp.) thrombosis rates started to
increase in March 2011 and that they have continued to do so.
E. Disease Management and the Role of the Pharmacist (Domain 1, Tasks 5, 6; Domain 2, Tasks 2, 3, 4;
Domain 4, Tasks 1, 4, 6, 7)
1. Pharmacists play a key role in HF management (Pharmacotherapy 2013;33:529-48; J Card Fail
2013;19:354-69).
2. Pharmacist involvement in care has been associated with a decreased HF readmission, all-cause
readmission, and emergency department visits.
3. Ensure use of GDMT.
4. Ensure use of target doses of evidence-based therapy.
5. Avoid/minimize drug-drug and drug-disease interactions.
6. Prevention of adverse reactions and medication errors
7. Medication reconciliation: Assist with patient follow-up, identify signs of worsening HF so
that appropriate therapeutic interventions can be implemented, and prevent the need for
hospitalization/rehospitalization.
8. Resources for health care providers to assist in preventing hospital readmissions for HF: Hospital
to Home (H2H) sponsored by the ACC and Institute for Healthcare Improvement (www.h2hquality.
org/): Patient appointment within 7 days of hospital discharge (See You in 7)
9. Provide patient education/adherence reinforcement (Pharmacotherapy 2013;33:558-80).
10. Dietary counseling
a. Fluid restriction
b. Sodium restriction (1500 mg/day or less)
c. Potassium-containing foods/salt substitutes for patients receiving MRAs
11. Disease education
12. End-of-life discussions when appropriate
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13. Ensure medication access: Assist patients in identifying patient assistance programs.
a. Several Web sites: www.rxassist.org, www.pparx.org, www.patientassistance.com
b Many local communities have programs/resources.
c. Suggest contacting individual companies as well – Some have programs that are not advertised –
Policies/procedures/requirements change often.
F. Quality of Care
1. Several studies have shown that a treatment gap exists between HF guideline–-recommended therapies
and the actual treatments received by patients with HF in both the inpatient and outpatient settings.
a. OPTIMIZE (inpatient)
b. IMPROVE (outpatient)
c. AHA Get With The Guidelines-Heart Failure
2. Performance improvement interventions are quite successful at improving the use of evidence-based
therapies both in the inpatient and outpatient settings: Improvements in use of β-blockers, MRAs,
CRT, ICDs, and delivery of HF education
3. Interventions include the following:
a. Clinical decision support tools (e.g., algorithms, pathways)
b. Structured improvement strategies
c. Chart audits with feedback
ARRHYTHMIAS
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2. Epidemiology
a. The most common arrhythmia found in clinical practice
b. Accounts for about one-third of hospitalizations from arrhythmias
c. Affects 1.5%–2% of the general population
d. Average age is 75–85 years.
e. Sixty percent of those 75 years and older are women.
f. The 3-year incidence in patients with HF is 10%.
g. Mortality rate is double that of patients in NSR and is linked to the severity of the underlying
heart disease.
h. Presentation: 400–600 atrial beats/minute with varying ventricular response (irregularly
irregular rhythm)
i. Symptoms
i. Dizziness
ii. Shortness of breath or exacerbation of HF
iii. Fatigue
iv. Palpitations
v. Syncope
3. Pathophysiologic mechanisms
a. Enhanced automaticity in several rapidly depolarizing foci or reentry involving several circuits
b. Foci usually originate in the pulmonary veins.
c. Foci can also occur in the right atrium.
d. Foci infrequently occur in the superior vena cava or coronary sinus.
e. Longer episodes (greater than 24 hours) are more difficult to terminate because AF causes
mechanical and electrical remodeling of the atrial tissue.
f. Causes
i. Organic heart disease that activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system through atrial stretch
(a) Ischemia/infarction
(b) Hypertensive heart disease
(c) Valvular disorders
(d) Dilated or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(e) In addition, there are disease states that cause right atrial stretch.
(1) Pulmonary embolism
(2) Pulmonary hypertension
ii. Associated with a high degree of adrenergic tone
(a) Surgery/anesthesia induction
(b) Thyrotoxicosis
(c) Alcohol withdrawal
(d) Sepsis
(e) Excessive physical exertion
iii. Perpetuated by high cholinergic tone
(a) After meals
(b) During sleep
iv. Idiopathic
4. Complications
a. Thromboembolic risk
i. Thrombi located in the left atrium; usually found in the left atrial appendage because of
blood stasis, endothelial dysfunction, and systemic hypercoagulability
ii. There is a 5-fold increase in risk of stroke in patients with NVAF compared with patients
without AF.
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Table 54. Nonacute Setting and Chronic Maintenance Rate Control Therapy of AF
Loading Dose Maintenance
Drug Onset Major Adverse Effects
(Oral) Dose (Oral)
Rate Control
25–100 mg Hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure
Metoprolol Same as maintenance 4–6 hours
twice daily and asthma exacerbation, heart block
Propranolol (for Hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure
60–90 80–240 mg in
thyrotoxicosis- Same as maintenance and asthma exacerbation, heart block
minutes divided doses
associated AF)
120–360 mg/day Hypotension, heart failure
in divided doses; exacerbation, heart block
Diltiazem Same as maintenance 2–4 hours
slow release
available
120–360 mg/day Hypotension, heart failure
in divided doses; exacerbation, heart block, digoxin
Verapamil Same as maintenance 1–2 hours
slow release interaction
available
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Table 54. Nonacute Setting and Chronic Maintenance Rate Control Therapy of AF (continued)
Loading Dose Maintenance
Drug Onset Major Adverse Effects
(Oral) Dose (Oral)
Rate control in patients with heart failure and without accessory pathway
Digoxin toxicity; GI, neurologic and
0.125–0.375 mg/ electrophysiologic changes
Digoxin 0.5 mg/day 2 days
day Goal concentrations for AF are higher
(typically, 1–2 ng/mL) than for HFrEF
800 mg/day for 1 week See Table 574
Amiodarone 600 mg for 1 week 1–3 weeks 200 mg/day
400 mg for 4–6 weeks
AF = atrial fibrillation; GI = gastrointestinal; HFrEF = heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
Originally published in: Fuster V, Rydén LE, Cannom DS, et al. ACC/AHA/ESC 2006 guidelines for the management of patients with
atrial fibrillation—executive summary: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice
Guidelines and the European Society of Cardiology Committee for Practice Guidelines (Writing Committee to Revise the 2001 Guidelines for
the Management of Patients With Atrial Fibrillation). Circulation 2006;114:700-52. Published online before print August 2, 2006.
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b. Rhythm control
i. Prevention of AF may stop the progression to persistent or permanent AF.
ii. Indication
(a) Symptomatic patients despite adequate rate control
(b) Hemodynamically unstable condition
(c) Patients with HF
(d) AF secondary to a trigger or substrate (e.g., ischemia, hyperthyroidism) that has been corrected
(e) Not an option for permanent AF
iii. Pharmacologic cardioversion
(a) Class Ic
(1) Flecainide
(2) Propafenone
(3) Note: Avoid in patients with structural heart disease.
(b) Class III
(1) Sotalol—Not efficacious for conversion to sinus rhythm, but beneficial in prevention
of recurrence
(2) Amiodarone—More effective than other agents; 61%–86% success rate
(3) Dofetilide
(4) Dronedarone – Although included in the guidelines, adverse effects and black box
warnings have all but eliminated this agent as a therapeutic option: Increased risk
of HF and death in patients with recent symptomatic HF), liver toxicity, interstitial
lung pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis
(c) “Pill-in-the-pocket” cardioversion for hemodynamically stable, recurrent symptomatic
paroxysmal AF
(1) Single oral loading dose of propafenone or flecainide may terminate AF in
ambulatory outpatients already taking a β-blocker, diltiazem, or verapamil (to
prevent rapid AV conduction if atrial flutter occurs).
(2) Prior safety of the agent should have been shown for the patient in-hospital.
(3) Patients may not have sinus or AV node dysfunction, bundle-branch block, QT-
interval prolongation, Brugada syndrome, or structural heart disease.
iv. Maintenance of sinus rhythm: When comparing rate control with rhythm control, there was
no difference in mortality, stroke, or quality of life (NEJM 2002;347:1825-33), and study
confirmed that chronic anticoagulation therapy is needed in either rate or rhythm control.
Moreover, rhythm control had a statistically significant increase in hospitalizations and
adverse drug effects.
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(2) ANDROMEDA
(A) Dronedarone versus placebo in patients hospitalized with severe HF (NYHA
class III or IV) and severe LV systolic dysfunction (LVEF around 35% or less)
(B) Patients given dronedarone had a 2-fold increase in mortality related to
worsening of HF.
(3) ATHENA
(A) Dronedarone decreased the incidence of hospitalization caused by CV events.
(B) Dronedarone reduced the incidence of death in patients with AF.
(4) DIONYSOS
(A) Patients taking dronedarone for the prevention of recurrent AF were half as
likely to remain in sinus rhythm as patients taking amiodarone.
(B) However, these patients were less likely to discontinue antiarrhythmic therapy
because of adverse effects.
(5) PALLAS
(A) Evaluated the use of dronedarone compared to placebo in patients with
permanent AF and at least one other ASCVD risk factor
(B) Study was discontinued early because of the significant excess of CV events in
the dronedarone group compared to placebo.
c. Direct current cardioversion (DCC)
i. Indication
(a) When rapid ventricular response does not respond to pharmacologic measures
(b) When patient is hemodynamically unstable
(c) When patient finds symptoms unacceptable
(d) Contraindicated with digitalis toxicity and hypokalemia
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Figure 2. Cardioversion of hemodynamically stable AF, the role of TEE, and subsequent anticoagulation strategy.
AF = atrial fibrillation; DCC = direct current cardioversion; LA = left atrium; LAA = left atrial appendage; OAC = oral anticoagulant; SR = sinus
rhythm; TEE = transesophageal echocardiogram.
Reprinted with permission from the European Society of Cardiology. Originally published in: Camm AJ, Kirchhof P, Lip GYH, et al. Guidelines
for the management of atrial fibrillation: the Task Force for the Management of Atrial Fibrillation of the European Society of Cardiology (ESC).
Eur Heart J 2010;31:2369-429.
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Patient Cases
H.W. is a 50-year-old man with symptomatic paroxysmal AF and HTN. He is seen in the arrhythmia clinic,
where he is refusing ablation. His current medications include apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily, enalapril
10 mg orally twice daily, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg orally daily, and metoprolol tartrate 50 mg orally twice
daily. His laboratory test results are normal (with apixaban coagulation effects), BP 120/70 mm Hg, and HR
75 beats/minute. He has no LV hypertrophy on ECG, and his QTc is 400 milliseconds. His LVEF is 65% on
echocardiography, and he has no evidence of clot. He attests to high medication adherence.
17. A decision is made to start rhythm control for H.W. Which would be the best antiarrhythmic drug to treat
H.W. currently?
A. Amiodarone.
B. Dofetilide.
C. Dronedarone.
D. Flecainide.
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A. Medication Reconciliation
E. Ensure that 12-lead ECG is obtained and QTc interval determined for appropriate antiarrhythmic agents
causing torsades de pointes.
F. Prevent adverse drug events by ensuring the drug’s appropriateness according to the patient’s
comorbidities and medication profile.
H. Historian: Identify the Medications the Patient Has Taken in the Past to Treat the Arrhythmia. Make
recommendations according to the patient’s past treatments and current disease states.
J. Keep Nurses and Physicians Up to Date on Current Cardiac Medication Literature and Ongoing Trials.
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K. Ensure Medications Can Be Obtained by the Patient According to Cost and/or Formulary.
Table 56. Oral Antiarrhythmic Medications (classification, mechanism, drugs, and indication)
Vaughan-
Williams Indicationsa Drugs Mechanism of Action
Classification
AF, atrial flutter, paroxysmal Channel blocked: Na
supraventricular tachycardia, (intermediate association
ventricular arrhythmias and dissociation), K, Ach, α
Quinidine
a
Disopyramide – Only paroxysmal ECG manifestations:
supraventricular tachycardia May ↑ sinus rate;
↑ QT (not dose related);
↑ QRS high dose
Ia
Channel blocked: Na
(intermediate association
and dissociation), K, Ach
Disopyramide ECG manifestations:
May ↑ sinus rate;
↑ QT (not dose related);
↑ QRS high dose
Ventricular arrhythmias Channel blocked: Na
(fast association and dissociation)
Ib Mexiletine
a
Used most commonly as add-on to ECG manifestations: May ↓ sinus rate,
amiodarone and not as sole agent generally do not affect QRS or QT
AF and atrial flutter, paroxysmal Channel blocked: Na
supraventricular tachycardia, (slow association and dissociation), β
Propafenone
ventricular arrhythmias ECG manifestations:
May ↓ sinus rate; ↑ PR, ↑ QRS
Ic a
May precipitate atrial flutter in Channel blocked: Na
patients with AF if no rate-controlling (slow association and dissociation)
agent coadministered Flecainide
ECG manifestations:
May ↓ sinus rate; ↑ PR, ↑ QRS
AF, atrial flutter, paroxysmal Channel blocked: β, indirect CaECG
ß-Blockers
II supraventricular tachycardia, manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate
(i.e., metoprolol)
ventricular arrhythmias
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Table 56. Oral Antiarrhythmic Medications (classification, mechanism, drugs, and indication) (continiued)
Vaughan-
Williams Indicationsa Drugs Mechanism of Action
Classification
Amiodarone: Supraventricular and Channel blocked: K, Na, Ca, β, α, Ach
ventricular arrhythmias Amiodarone ECG manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate,
Dronedarone: Paroxysmal or persistent ↑ PR, ↑ QRS, ↑ QT
atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter Channel blocked: K, Na, Ca, β, α, Ach
Sotalol: Ventricular arrhythmias; Dronedarone ECG manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate,
maintenance of AF and flutter ↑ PR
III Dofetilide: Supraventricular
Channel blocked: K, β
arrhythmias; atrial flutter and
Sotalol ECG manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate,
fibrillation conversion
may ↑ PR, ↑ QT (dose related)
Channel blocked: K
Dofetilide ECG manifestations: ↑ QT
(dose related)
AF, atrial flutter, paroxysmal Diltiazem Channel blocked: CaECG
IV
supraventricular tachycardia Verapamil manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate
AF Channel blocked: Positive inotropic
effect, enhanced vagal tone, and
Additional
Digoxin decreased ventricular rate to fast
agents
atrial arrhythmias
ECG manifestations: ↓ Sinus rate
a
Including off-label uses.
Ach = acetylcholine; AF = atrial fibrillation; Ca = calcium; ECG =, electrocardiographic; K = potassium; Na = sodium.
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Table 57. Antiarrhythmic Medications (oral class I and III agents only) Properties and Dosing
Mechanism of Action, Pharmacokinetics,
Drug Contraindications, Adverse Effects, Dosing
Drug Interactions
Class Ia – Na+ channel blockers
Quinidine MOA: Strong vagolytic and anticholinergic Sulfate (extended release): 300 mg PO every
(Quinidex, properties, 8–12 hours
Quinaglute) Na+ and K+ channel blockage Gluconate (extended release): 324–648 mg PO
PK: Half-life 5–9 hours every 8–12 hours
Substrate CYP3A4
Inhibitor CYP2D6
AEs: Nausea/vomiting/diarrhea (30%)
TdP (first 72 hours, not dose related)
“Cinchonism”: CNS symptoms, tinnitus
Thrombocytopenia, rash, pruritus
DIs: Warfarin, digoxin
Disopyramide MOA: Potent Na+ and M2 blockade, Ach; strong Initial dose 400–800 mg/day in
(Norpace, negative inotrope divided doses; IR every 6 hours,
Norpace CR, PK: Half-life 4–8 hours CR every 12 hours
Rythmodan, Substrate CYP3A4 Maximum 1200–1600 mg/day
Rythmodan- Dose adjustment required for renal insufficiency
CIs: Glaucoma
LA)
AEs: Anticholinergic adverse effects
TdP
ADHF
Class Ib – Na+ channel blockers
Mexiletine MOA: Inactive Na+ channel blocker VT maintenance: 200–300 mg
(Mexitil) PK: Half-life 12–20 hours every 8 hours
Substrate CYP2D6, CYP1A2 Maximum of 1200 mg/day
Inhibitor CYP1A2
CIs: Third-degree AV heart block
AEs: GI upset (administer with food); CNS: Tremor,
dizziness, ataxia, nystagmus
Class Ic – Na+ channel blockers (***avoid with HF or post MI)
Propafenone MOA: Na+ and Ca2+ channel blocker; ß-blocker AF conversion: 600 mg (IR) PO × 1
(Rythmol) PK: Half-life 10–25 hours (efficacy 45% in 3 hours)
Substrate CYP2D6, CYP1A2
Inhibitor CYP2D6 AF maintenance:
IR: 150–300 mg PO every 8 hours
CIs: HF NYHA III–IV, liver disease, valvular
SR: 225–425 mg PO every 12 hours
disease (TdP), CAD, VT
AEs: Metallic taste, dizziness
DIs: Propafenone may ↑ digoxin concentrations,
may decrease warfarin metabolism, has β-blocker
properties and pharmacokinetic interaction increasing
β-blocker concentrations – Need to monitor HR
and reduce β-blocker dose if necessary to prevent
symptoms/heart block
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Table 57. Antiarrhythmic Medications (oral class I and III agents only) Properties and Dosing (continued)
Mechanism of Action, Pharmacokinetics,
Drug Contraindications, Adverse Effects, Dosing
Drug Interactions
Class Ic – Na+ channel blockers (***avoid with HF or post MI) (continued)
Flecainide MOA: Strong Na+ channel blockade; vagolytic, AF conversion: 300 mg PO × 1
(Tambocor) anticholinergic, and negative inotrope (efficacy 50% in 3 hours)
PK: Half-life 10–20 hours
Substrate CYP2D6 AF maintenance: 50–200 mg PO bid
Inhibitor CYP2D6
CIs: HF, CAD, valvular/LV hypertrophy (TdP)
AEs: Dizziness, tremor, HF exacerbation, VT, atrial
flutter (in patients with AF)
DI: May increase digoxin concentrations; flecainide
concentrations increased by haloperidol, cimetidine,
and fluoxetine
Class III – K+ channel blockers
Amiodarone MOA: K+, Na+, Ca2+ channel blocker, ß-blocker AF/VT conversion/maintenance: 600–800 mg/
(Cordarone, PK: Half-life 26–107 days (chronic oral dosing), day in divided doses until 10 g total; then
Pacerone) large volume of distribution (high affinity for 100–400 mg/day maintenance
adipose tissue)
*** Maintenance doses are often started before
Substrate CYP3A4, CYP1A2, CYP2C9 the patient completes the 10-g loading dose.
Inhibitor CYP3A4, CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2,
CYP2C19, intestinal P-glycoprotein
CIs: Iodine hypersensitivity, hyperthyroidism, third-
degree AV heart block
AEs: Pulmonary fibrosis (1.7% in outpatient setting),
thyroid dysfunction (2%–23%),
hepatotoxicity (3%–20%), neurologic toxicity (4%–
9%), TdP (< 1%), AV block (14%), photosensitivity
(3%–10%), visual disturbances (4%–9%), sinus
bradycardia
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Table 57. Antiarrhythmic Medications (oral class I and III agents only) Properties and Dosing (continued)
Mechanism of Action, Pharmacokinetics,
Drug Contraindications, Adverse Effects, Dosing
Drug Interactions
Class III – K+ channel blockers (continued)
Amiodarone Since the 2007 guidelines were published, new AEs of AF/VT conversion/maintenance: 600–800 mg/
(Cordarone, optic neuritis and neuritis leading to blindness were day in divided doses until 10 g total; then
Pacerone) added to prescribing information and require regular 100–400 mg/day maintenance
ophthalmologic examinations (including funduscopy
and slit lamp examination) *** Maintenance doses are often started before
the patient completes the 10-g loading dose.
***Most AEs are dose-dependent; reduce to lowest
effective dose
***Does not increase mortality in HF
DIs:
Warfarin (reduce dose by 25%–50%, recheck INR
accordingly), digoxin (reduce dose by 50%), statins
(simvastatin 20 mg maximal dose)
Dabigatran effects increased but not clinically
relevant,dabigatran
Sotalol MOA: K+ channels, blocks ß1- and ß2-receptors AF conversion: No effect!
(Betapace) PK: Renally eliminated
AF maintenance:
Half-life 30–40 hours
Dose 80–160 mg
CIs: Baseline QTc > 0.45 seconds or CrCl < 40 mL/ Twice daily; CrCl > 60 mL/minute
minute in atrial arrhythmias only Daily; CrCl 40–60 mL/minute
AEs: HF exacerbation, bradycardia, AV heart block, Contraindicated; CrCl < 40 mL/minute
bronchospasm, TdP 3%–8% within 3 days of
initiation VT maintenance:
Dose 80–160 mg
***Ideally initiated in hospital, because of Twice daily; CrCl > 60 mL/minute
proarrhythmia Daily; CrCl 30–60 mL/minute
DIs: Has β-blocker properties, so the dose of Every 48 hours; CrCl 10–30 mL/minute
concomitant β-blockers may need tapering after Every 72 hours; CrCl > 10 mL/minute
sotalol initiation; monitor HR
Dofetilide MOA: K+ channel blocker only AF conversion/maintenance:
(Tikosyn) PK: Renal and hepatic elimination (CrCl > 60 mL/minute)
Half-life 6–10 hours 500 mcg PO twice daily
Substrate CYP3A4 (CrCl 40–60 mL/minute)
250 mcg PO twice daily
(CrCl 20–40 mL/minute)
CIs: Baseline QTc > 0.44 seconds or CrCl 125 mcg PO twice daily
< 20 mL/minute Contraindicated CrCl < 20 mL/minute
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Table 57. Antiarrhythmic Medications (oral class I and III agents only) Properties and Dosing (continued)
Mechanism of Action, Pharmacokinetics,
Drug Contraindications, Adverse Effects, Dosing
Drug Interactions
Class III – K+ channel blockers (continued)
Dofetilide AEs: TdP (0.8%; 4% if not renally dosed), REMS:
(Tikosyn) dizziness, diarrhea ***Ensuring dofetilide is prescribed only
by certified prescribers, dispensed only by
***Does not increase mortality in HF certified dispensers (retail pharmacy must be
enrolled in TIPS), and dispensed for use only
DIs: CYP3A4 inhibitors or cation drug transport with documentation of safe use conditions
system inhibitor drugs secreted by the kidney
(ketoconazole, verapamil, trimethoprim, megestrol, ***Educating health care providers about the
dolutegravir, prochlorperazine), HCTZ (should be risks and the need to initiate and reinitiate
discontinued as concentrations of dofetilide increase) therapy in a hospital (at least a 72-hour
stay) that can provide calculations of CrCl,
continuous ECG monitoring, and cardiac
resuscitation; do not initiate if QTc is > 0.44
second or 0.5 second in patients with baseline
conduction abnormalities; obtain QTc 2–3
hours after first five doses, reduce by 50%
if QTc ↑ > 15% (QTc should never exceed
0.5 second or 0.55 second in patients with
baseline conduction system abnormality);
if QTc prolongs by more than 15% or 0.5
second in patients with baseline conduction
abnormalities of baseline after any dosage
adjustment, dofetilide must be discontinued
and deemed treatment failure; before the
patient is discharged, the health care facility
must either provide a free 7-day supply of
dofetilide and the medication guide to patients
or ensure the patient’s take-home prescription
is filled
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Patient Case
18. A 75-year-old man with a history of MI, AF, and stage C HFrEF presents to the clinic 2 weeks after hospital-
ization for VT ablation. His current medications include amiodarone 400 mg/day (after a 5-g loading dose
administered during his recent hospitalization), aspirin 81 mg orally daily, warfarin 5 mg orally daily (INR
2.4), simvastatin 40 mg orally daily, lisinopril 20 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, meto-
prolol succinate 100 mg orally twice daily, and digoxin 0.25 mg orally daily. His estimated CrCl is 55 mL/
minute, and other chemistry test and LFT results are normal. Serum digoxin concentration is 1.5 ng/mL. His
BP is 120/70 mm Hg, and HR is 59 beats/minute. Which is the best course of action currently?
A. Decrease his warfarin dose to 2.5 mg orally daily, and decrease his amiodarone dose to 200 mg orally daily.
B. Decrease his simvastatin dose to 20 mg orally daily, and decrease his amiodarone dose to 200 mg orally daily.
C. Decrease his warfarin dose to 2.5 mg orally daily, and decrease his digoxin dose to 0.125 mg orally daily.
D. Decrease his simvastatin dose to 20 mg orally daily, and decrease his digoxin dose to 0.125 mg orally daily.
A. Prevention of TE in Patients with Valvular Heart Disease or Prosthetic Heart Valves (Domain 1, Tasks 2, 3)
1. Patients with valvular AF are considered at “high risk” of cardioembolic stroke and should receive
anticoagulation and, in some cases, added aspirin.
2. Patients with mechanical valve prosthesis without AF are at high risk of thromboembolic
complications (mainly cardioembolic stroke and valve thrombosis) and require lifelong antithrombotic
prophylaxis.
3. Prosthetic valves are made of various materials that differ in thrombogenicity.
a. Newer materials reduce thrombogenicity, and future materials such as polymerics may reduce
thrombogenicity even more.
b. Bioprosthetic valves are less thrombogenic, but they are not as durable as mechanical valve
prosthesis and are thus more prone to failure, requiring replacement.
c. Because valve position, type, and materials affect thrombogenicity, correct use of anticoagulation
therapy requires a determination of exactly which valve(s) has(have) been replaced and the type
of prosthesis used so that mistakes in anticoagulation are avoided.
4. Risk factors for thrombosis
a. Annual risk of TE ranges from 4% to 23% without prophylaxis.
b. Prophylaxis reduces the risk of TE to less than 2% a year.
c. Risk of TE is highest in the early postsurgical period because of exposed valvular components
(e.g., suturing ring, valve surfaces). After about 3 months, endothelialization occurs, and TE risk
decreases.
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5. Types of valves
a. Mechanical prosthetic valves
i. Three basic types of mechanical valves: Caged-ball/disk, tilting disk, and bileaflet
ii. Older caged-ball and tilting disk valves are more thrombogenic than bileaflet valves.
iii. Annual TE event rate in patients who receive anticoagulation treatment to an INR of 2.5–4.9
(a) Bileaflet 0.5% a year
(b) Tilting disk 0.7% a year
b. Bioprosthetic valves
i. Bioprosthetic valves use a ring of material from an animal source (e.g., porcine, bovine).
ii. Porcine valves use the tissue valve from pig hearts (usually aortic valves).
iii. Pericardial valves use tissue from the bovine pericardium to make the valve leaflets, which
are supported by a synthetic frame.
iv. Less thrombogenic and less durable than mechanical valves
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6. Position of valves: Valve position influences thrombogenicity. Mechanical mitral valves are more
thrombogenic than mechanical aortic valves.
7. Antithrombotic prophylaxis
a. Intravenous adjusted-dose UFH or subcutaneous LMWH can be used postoperatively after valve
insertion as a transition to warfarin and continued until INR is therapeutic and stable.
b. A recent observational study suggests that discontinuation of warfarin after placement of a
bioprosthetic aortic valve is associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism and CV death;
therefore, future guidelines may suggest anticoagulation after aortic bioprosthetic surgery, as
they now do for mitral bioprosthetic valve placement (JAMA 2012;308:2118-25).
c. In the only study reported with mechanical heart valves and a target-specific oral anticoagulant
(phase II, open-label, RE-ALIGN trial), patients treated with dabigatran had increased
thrombotic and bleeding risk, compared with patients treated with warfarin, and the trial was
terminated prematurely. Dabigatran is the only newer oral agent that specifically carries a
contraindication for use in patients with mechanical heart valves.
d. All patients with a mechanical valve should receive lifelong warfarin therapy adjusted to the
recommended INR range.
e. Patients with bioprosthetic valves and AF should receive lifelong anticoagulation therapy.
Although not contraindicated in current (January 1, 2014) product labeling of dabigatran,
rivaroxaban, and apixaban, these agents have not been studied in this group of patients.
f. Patients with either mitral stenosis or a bioprosthetic heart valve were enrolled in the ENGAGE-
AF trial comparing edoxaban and warfarin, but results in this important subgroup have not yet
been presented or published.
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Patient Cases
19. A 78-year-old woman with a history of permanent AF, dyslipidemia, HTN, and prior GI bleed is hospital-
ized with planned St. Jude mechanical aortic valve surgery for aortic stenosis. Diagnostic angiography be-
fore surgery revealed no significant coronary artery disease. Her CrCl is 55 mL/minute, and her medications
at the time of admission for surgery were enalapril 10 mg orally twice daily and atorvastatin 40 mg orally
daily. Which is the best antithrombotic regimen for stroke prevention for this patient after surgery?
A. Aspirin 325 mg orally plus warfarin orally at a goal INR of 2–3.
B. Dabigatran 150 mg orally twice daily.
C. Warfarin at a goal INR of 2.5–3.5.
D. Warfarin orally at a goal INR of 2–3.
20. A 68-year-old patient with a medical history of HTN and bicuspid aortic stenosis and bioprosthetic valve re-
placement 2 years ago presents with AF. Current medications are metoprolol succinate 100 mg orally twice
daily and aspirin 325 mg orally daily. The patient has a HAS-BLED score of 2 and a CrCl of 80 mL/minute.
Which is the best antithrombotic strategy for stroke prevention for this patient currently?
A. Add clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily.
B. Add warfarin at a goal INR of 2.5–3.5.
C. Dabigatran 150 mg twice daily.
D. Discontinue aspirin and add warfarin at a goal INR of 2–3.
A. Epidemiology
1. Most common type of valvular heart disease
2. Affects up to 5% of the elderly older than 75 years
3. High risk of SCD in symptomatic patients
4. Most common cause is calcific aortic stenosis.
C. Severe Aortic Stenosis: Defined by Doppler echocardiography as a maximum aortic jet velocity greater
than 4 m/second, mean transvalvular pressure gradient greater than 40 mm Hg, and continuity equation
valve area less than 1.0 cm2 or valve area index less than 0.6 cm2
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G. TAVR with SAPIEN Valve (Edwards): Placed primarily by using a transfemoral approach and, less
preferably, a transapical approach. FDA approved according to the PARTNER trial
1. PARTNER (Placement of AoRtic TraNscathetER Valve) trial was a prospective, unblinded,
multicenter randomized trial that compared medical management with TAVR in patients who were
not considered surgical candidates (cohort B) and with aortic valve replacement (AVR) in patients
deemed high-risk operable (cohort A).
2. Cohort B results: Compared with medical management of TAVR
a. Reduced all-cause mortality by 38% at 1 year (p<0.001)
b. Reduced the composite of all-cause mortality and rehospitalization at 1 year by 38% (p<0.001)
c. 2-fold increased risk of major bleeding (p<0.001)
d. 2-fold increased risk of stroke (p=0.03)
e. Improved quality of life
3. Cohort A results: Compared with AVR
a. Noninferior for 1-year mortality (24.2% vs. 26.8%; hazard ratio 0.93; 95% CI, 0.71–1.22,
p=0.001 for noninferiority)
b. Increased risk of stroke at 1 year (8.3%–4.3%; p=0.04)
c. Reduced bleeding risk at 1 year (14.7% compared with 25.7%; p<0.01)
d. Two-year outcomes showed similar mortality and stroke risk between TAVR and AVR.
e. PARTNER II trial comparing TAVR and AVR in patients at intermediate surgical risk is ongoing,
with expected completion in 2015.
I. Medical Therapy for the Inoperable Patient or the Symptomatic Patient Awaiting Surgery/TAVR
1. Maintain sinus rhythm if the patient develops AF (administer an antiarrhythmic agent).
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2. Avoid hypotension.
3. Digoxin for HF and depressed LVEF
4. Angina
a. First-line therapy: β-Blocker
b. Second-line therapy: Calcium channel blocker
c. Avoid long-acting nitrates because reduction in preload may lead to worsening symptoms.
5. Heart failure
a. Cautious use of diuretics (avoid dehydration)
b. First-line β-blocker and ACE inhibitor or ARB (monitor for hypotension and worsening
symptoms with addition of vasodilator)
6. Hypertension
a. First-line β-blocker
b. Second-line ACE inhibitor or ARB
Patient Case
21. A 78-year-old woman who underwent TAVR 1 month ago presents for follow-up at surgical clinic. She de-
veloped postoperative AF and received a 1-week course of amiodarone while hospitalized and aspirin 81 mg
orally daily with warfarin anticoagulation since hospital discharge. She has maintained sinus rhythm since
hospital discharge. Her surgeon wants to discontinue her oral anticoagulation nowcurrently. Which is the
best strategy for stroke prevention currently?
A. Aspirin 325 mg orally daily indefinitely.
B. Aspirin 81 mg orally daily indefinitely.
C. Clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily for 3 months.
D. Aspirin 81 mg orally daily plus clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily for at least 2 months.
XVII. DEFINITION, DIAGNOSIS, AND TREATMENT GOALS (5TH WORLD SYMPOSIUM 2013)
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A. Reassessment – Should include functional class determination and a 6-minute walk test every 3–6
months, with RHC less often
B. Satisfactory Condition – Functional classes I and II, ambulated 380 m or greater (or 1250 ft) during
6-minute walk test, with a cardiac index of 2.2 L/minute/m2 or greater and an mPAP less than 12 mm Hg
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C. Therapy Options
1. Initial therapy with one agent from the endothelin pathway, prostacyclin pathway, or nitric oxide
pathway (most common in practice), followed by sequential combination therapy; or
2. Initial therapy with combination therapy of two agents from different classes/having differing actions
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Table 64. Overview of PAH Treatment Options (5th World Symposium) (continued)
Drug/Mechanism/
Indication Dose Adverse Effects Considerations
Bosentan 62.5–125 mg PO Peripheral edema Severe drug interactions with glyburide
(Tracleer) twice daily 5%–14%, hypotension (increased LFT results) and cyclosporine
Nonselective Initiate at 62.5 mg 7%, increased LFTs (decreased efficacy of both cyclosporine and
endothelin receptor orally twice daily 11%, flushing 7%– bosentan)
antagonist for 4 weeks; then 14%, palpitations 5%, Monitor LFTs monthly (repeat if >3 times
(ETA and ETB) increase to 125 anemia 3% baseline to confirm; if >5 x baseline,
mg twice daily discontinue; if >3 and ≤5 x baseline, reduce dose
Class II–IV PAH Patients weighing to 62.5 mg daily; repeat LFTs every 2 weeks if
<40 kg should >3 x baseline
receive 62.5 mg Monitor hemoglobin/hematocrit at initiation, 1
twice daily month, 3 months, and every 3 months thereafter
Potential teratogen; if childbearing age, use two
contraceptive methods (reduced efficacy of
hormonal contraceptives); monthly pregnancy
test required; decreases concentrations of
norethindrone and ethinyl estradiol
Bosentan is a substrate of CYP2C9 and CYP3A
Bosentan is an inducer of CYP3A and CYP2C9
Bosentan is a substrate of OATP
Efficacy decreased with inducers, and toxicity
increased with inhibitors of CYP 2C9 and 3A4
Concomitant cyclosporine contraindicated
(bosentan concentrations increased 4-fold
and cyclosporine concentrations decreased by
50), glyburide contraindicated (increased LFT
values, bosentan concentrations decreased 30%
and glyburide increased 40%)
May decrease the concentrations/efficacy of
simvastatin, lovastatin, atorvastatin
Animal data indicate increased concentrations of
bosentan when tacrolimus coadministered
Warfarin coadministration showed no significant
INR changes
Coadministration with sildenafil reduces
sildenafil concentrations by 63% and increases
bosentan concentrations by 50% (no dose change
recommended)
Discontinue bosentan 36 hours before initiating
ritonavir; then initiate bosentan at 62.5 mg daily
or every other day
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Table 64. Overview of PAH Treatment Options (5th World Symposium) (continued)
Drug/Mechanism/
Indication Dose Adverse Effects Considerations
Ambrisentan 5–10 mg PO once Peripheral edema 17%, Caution with cyclosporine – Maximal dose is 5
(Letairis) daily hypotension 0%, mg daily
Selective endothelin increased LFT results Contraindicated in patients with idiopathic
receptor antagonist 0%–2.8%, flushing pulmonary fibrosis
(ETA only) 4%, palpitations 5%, Potential teratogen (see above comments)
fluid retention, anemia Measure Hgb at initiation, 1 month, and
Class II–II PAH (decreases in Hgb of periodically thereafter
0.9–1.2 g/dL observed Coadministration with cyclosporine resulted in
within first few weeks 2-fold increases in ambrisentan concentrations –
of initiation) Limit ambrisentan dose to 5 mg orally daily
Macetentana 10 mg PO once Anemia (13%), REMS: Potential teratogen; if childbearing age,
(Opsumit) daily nasopharyngitis/ use two contraceptive methods (reduced efficacy
Nonselective pharyngitis (20%), of hormonal contraceptives); monthly pregnancy
endothelin receptor bronchitis (12%), test required
antagonist (ETA and headache (14%), Periodic Hgb/Hct monitoring (recommended at
ETB) influenza (6%), and initiation and as clinically indicated; studies
urinary tract infection required laboratory tests at baseline, 3 months, 6
(9%) months, and every 6 months thereafter)
Baseline LFTs and, if clinically indicated, signs
of liver failure such as nausea, vomiting, right
upper quadrant pain, anorexia, vomiting,
etc. (trials did not show increased risk of
hepatotoxicity)
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Table 64. Overview of PAH Treatment Options (5th World Symposium) (continued)
Drug/Mechanism/
Indication Dose Adverse Effects Considerations
Tadalafil 40 mg PO Headache, flushing, Half-life 17.5 hours
(Adcirca) once daily; indigestion, nausea, May augment effects of other vasodilators when
Phosphodiesterase initiate 20 mg backache, myalgia, used in combination (especially prostacyclin,
inhibitor PO once daily nasopharyngitis, α-blockers, antihypertensives, alcohol)
if concomitant respiratory tract Contraindicated in patients receiving nitrates
Class II–IV PAH
ritonavir infection If CrCl = 31–80 mL/minute, initiate 20 mg PO once
daily and titrate as tolerated
If CrCl < 30 mL/minute or hemodialysis, avoid use
If Child-Pugh class A or B, initiate 20 mg PO once
daily and titrate as tolerated
If Child-Pugh class C, avoid use
Tadalafil is a CYP3A substrate
Avoid use with potent CYP3A4 inhibitors
(erythromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole,
grapefruit juice)/inducers (rifampin,
carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital)
When initiating ritonavir, discontinue tadalafil
at least 24 hours before starting ritonavir; then
reinitiate tadalafil at 20 mg daily after at least 1
week of ritonavir
Riociguat 1 mg PO three Headache, dyspepsia, P-gp and BCRP substrate (consider lower dose for
(Adempas) times daily up to GERD, gastritis, patients receiving concomitant strong inhibitors;
sGC stimulatorb 2.5 mg PO three nausea, vomiting, cyclosporine is an inhibitor of BCRP)
times daily (can dizziness, hypotension,
For chronic No experience with CrCl < 15 mL/minute
be tapered to bleeding, anemia,
thromboembolic
0.5 mg PO three diarrhea, constipation Contraindicated with nitrates and NO donors
PH and class II–IV
times daily if including specific PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil,
PAH
intolerance) tadalafil, vardenafil) or nonspecific PDE-5
inhibitors (dipyridamole, theophylline)
Potential teratogen; if childbearing age, use two
contraceptive methods (reduced efficacy of
hormonal contraceptives); monthly pregnancy
test required
Black box warning regarding embryo/fetal
toxicity: REMS for female patients regardless of
childbearing potential; pharmacies must register
and dispense only to authorized users
a
SERAPHIN study results: Macitentan 10 mg daily reduced the risk of the primary composite end point - Death, atrial septostomy, lung transplantation,
initiation of treatment with intravenous or subcutaneous prostanoids, or worsening of PAH - By 45% compared with placebo with hazard ratioHR
0.55 (97.5% CI, 0.39–0.76; p<0.001). Other results included a significant increase in 6-minute walk of 12.5 m and a reduction in hospitalizations.
b
sGC is an enzyme in the cardiopulmonary vasculature that serves as the receptor for NO. Activation of sGC by NO causes synthesis of cGMP,
regulating vascular tone, proliferation, fibrosis, and inflammatory processes. Riociguat has a dual mechanism of action: (1) Sensitizes sGC to
endogenous NO through stabilization of the sGC-NO complex and (2) direct agonist of sGC (not NO-dependent). Riociguat induces vasodilation
through stimulation of the NO-sGC-cGMP pathway by increasing concentrations of cGMP.
AAD = antiarrhythmic drug; BCRP = human breast cancer resistance protein; cGMP = cyclic guanosine monophosphate; CI = confidence interval;
CrCl = creatinine clearance; CYP = cytochrome P450; ET antagonists = endothelin antagonists; FDA = U.S. Food and Drug Administration; GERD =
gastroesophageal reflux disease; Hct = hematocrit; Hgb = hemoglobin; HR = heart rate; INR = international normalized ratio; IV = intravenous; LFT
= liver function test; NO = nitric oxide; OATP = organic anion transport protein; PAH = pulmonary arterial hypertension; PDE-5 = phosphodiesterase
type-5; P-gp = P-glycoprotein; PO = orally; REMS = Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies; sGC = soluble guanylate cyclase.
Reference: Galie N, Corris PA, Frost A, et al. Updated treatment algorithm of pulmonary arterial hypertension. J Am Coll Cardiol 2013;62(25
suppl):D60-72.
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Table 65. Cost Comparison of Oral Agents Used to Treat PAH in Nonresponders to CCB Therapy
Drug AWP Unit Price 30-Day Supply
Riociguat (Adempas, Bayer AG) 2.5-mg tablets $100.00/tablet tid $9000.00
Bosentan (Tracleer, Actelion) 125-mg tablets $136.80/tablet bid $8208.00
Macitentan (Opsumit, Actelion) 10-mg tablets $273.60/tablet daily $8208.00
Ambrisentan (Letairis, Gilead) 10-mg tablets $257.93/tablet daily $7737.90
Sildenafil (Revatio, Pfizer) 20-mg tablets $25.72/tablet tid $2314.80
Tadalafil (Adcirca, Lilly) 20-mg tablets $34.85/tablet x 2 tablets daily $2091.00
AWP = average wholesale price; bid = twice daily; CCB = calcium channel blocker; PAH = pulmonary arterial hypertension; tid = three times
daily.
From: Red Book Online [Internet]. Greenwood Village, CO: Truven Health Analytics, 2014. Available at http://www.redbook.com/redbook/
online/. Accessed January 20, 2014
Patient Cases
Questions 22 and 23 pertain to the following case.
P.L. is a 35-year-old woman with PAH associated with HIV infection who has dyspnea and fatigue with activities of daily
living but not at rest. Her LFT results are normal, hemoglobin concentration is 13.5 g/dL, and CrCl is 90 mL/minute.
22. Which option best represents the World Health Organization (WHO) functional class in which her PAH
symptoms fall?
A. I.
B. II.
C. III.
D. IV.
23. P.L. is unresponsive to vasodilator testing. Concomitant medications include ritonavir-boosted atazanavir
and tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/emtricitabine. Atazanavir is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which is the best first-
line therapy for treatment of PAH in P.L.?
A. Sildenafil.
B. Ambrisentan.
C. Bosentan.
D. Macitentan.
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29. Zannad F, McMurray JJ, Krum H, et al. Eplerenone 4. Camm AJ, Lip G, De Caterina R, et al. 2012 fo-
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4. Answer C 9. Answer: D
Answer C (rivaroxaban 15 mg orally twice daily for 21 The patient’s EF is less than 40%; therefore, she has
days, followed by 20 mg orally daily thereafter) is correct. HFrEF, not HFpEF (LVEF greater than 50%), making
OptionAnswers A, B, and D have either incorrect doses OptionAnswer A and OptionAnswer B incorrect. The
or frequencies. See Tables 7 and 8 for dosing guidelines. patient has symptoms with minimal activity and is there-
fore in NYHA class III rather than II, making Option-
5. Answer D Answer A and OptionAnswer C incorrect. The patient
Many patients do not have an indication for dual anti- has structural heart disease, as evidenced by her reduced
thrombotic therapy. In this case, whether the patient LVEF, and has symptoms; therefore, she does not have
should even receive aspirin for primary prevention is stage-B HF, making OptionAnswer A and OptionAn-
controversial, with the U.S. Preventive Services Task swer C incorrect. The patient has stage-C HF (structural
Force recommending no aspirin at all because this pa- heart disease and symptoms) and reduced EF, making
tient’s 10-year ASCVD risk is less than 10%, whereas Answer D correct.
the AHA/American Diabetes Association(ADA) recom-
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10. Answer: D
The patient has sinus bradycardia and an HR of 50 beats/
minute. Therefore, increasing the metoprolol dose (Op-
tionAnswer A) and adding diltiazem (Option Answer
B) are incorrect because this would increase the risk of
heart block. Nitrates are contraindicated in severe aortic
stenosis because they are venodilators, reducing preload
and then LV volume, which may lead to worsening myo-
cardial ischemia and hypotension because of reduced
cardiac output, making Option Answer C incorrect. An-
swer D, amlodipine, is a second-line antianginal agent
for a patient with severe aortic stenosis. Amlodipine does
not lower HR but may increase coronary artery blood
flow; it would therefore be preferred in a patient unable
to tolerate other agents secondary to bradycardia.
11. Answer: D
For a patient in sinus rhythm, combination therapy with
low-dose aspirin and clopidogrel is recommended for at
least 3 months in patients undergoing TAVR, making
Answer D correct. There is no published experience with
prasugrel and TAVR, making Option Answer C incor-
rect. Anticoagulation would be indicated only for a pa-
tient with another reason for anticoagulation, such as AF,
and in those situations, there are no specific guideline
recommendations regarding triple therapy with antico-
agulation plus dual antiplatelet therapy or anticoagula-
tion with a single antiplatelet agent. Option Answer A
and Option Answer B contain anticoagulation and are
incorrect because the patient is in sinus rhythm.
12. Answer: C
The only agent that requires LFT monitoring is bosentan,
a selective endothelin antagonist. Therefore, Answer C is
correct, and OptionAnswers A, B, and D are incorrect.
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