2020 Judgments On Military Law
2020 Judgments On Military Law
2020 Judgments On Military Law
INDEX
t Arising out of SLP (C) No. 6999 of 2017. Arising from the Judgment and Order in Union of India h
v. Balkrishna Ram, 2016 SCC OnLine All 3554 (Allahabad High Court, Special Appeal No. 740
of 2008, dt. 20-12-2016)
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h
5 Union of India v. Shri Kant Shanna, (2015) 6 SCC 773: (2015) 2 SCC (L&S) 386
6 L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, (1997) 3 SCC 261 : 1997 SCC (L&S) 577
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h
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Whereas the claims in respect of above said journeys were already settled by
Embassy of India, United States of America, thereby committed an offence
punishable under Section 60(A) of the Navy Act, 1957
(17) Did between 25 March 2008 and 31 March 2008 whilst performing the duty
of Deputy Director of Adventure, Physical Fitness and Sports Activities (Aero
Adventure) and as Team Leader of the Indian Navy Sky Team Basic Skydiving camp
at Karnal, Haryana forge documents namely quotations and invoice of M/s. Amber
Aviation which were unnumbered and undated, in that he claimed an extra amount
of Rs. 2,00,000/- (Rupees Two Lakh only) by submitting false documents to Naval
Headquarters Adventure Activities (Public Fund) purporting to show that a sum of
Rs. 3,51,750/- (Rupees Three Lakh Fifty One Thousand Seven Hundred and Fifty
only) was paid to M/s Amber Aviation whereas the actual consideration was only Rs.
1,51,750/- (Rupees One Lakh Fifty One Thousand Seven Hundred and Fifty only),
thereby committed an offence punishable under Section 465 of the Penal Code,
1860 read in conjunction with Section 77(2) of the Navy Act, 1957
Arguments by Counsel for the Appellant on Maintainability of CM:
5. The first and foremost contention put forth by Mr. Malhotra, learned senior
counsel appearing for the appellant was that the entire CM proceedings were void ab
initio, reason being that the very constitution of the CM was violative of Section 97(10)
of the Navy Act, 1957 (the Act, for brevity) and the statutory rules and the regulations
made thereunder. According to him, in the CM in the case of the appellant, the
majority of Members were not from the Executive Branch of the Navy. Section 97(10)
makes it clear that out of the five officers comprising such a CM, majority i.e. at least
three Members must be from the Executive Branch, whereas, as per his contention,
only one Member, i.e. the President, was from the Executive Branch. Learned counsel
contended that this aberration was fatal to the composition of the CM and vitiated the
entire proceedings, therefore, on this ground alone, the entire CM proceedings needed
to be set aside.
6. Learned senior counsel for the appellant further stated that the objection as to
constitution and composition of the CM was to be dealt with as provided under
Sections 102 and 103 of the Act. Section 102 of the Act deals with ‘objections raised
by either prosecutor or defence as to the ability of any member of the CM to act
impartially and the manner in which such objection, if taken, is to be dealt with’.
Section 103 of the Act deals with ‘any other objections’ to the composition of the CM,
which also provided that if an objection is taken on grounds other than on impartiality,
the decision thereon has to be rendered by the full court (and not the Trial Judge
Advocate (TJA) alone). Learned counsel contended that, despite written objection to
the legality of the composition of the CM, the Trial Judge Advocate (TJA) dismissed the
same stating that (i) the objection raised by the defence counsel was at a belated
stage; and (ii) in any event, the objection had no merit as, going by the Navy List
2009, not one but three members were from the Executive Branch and, therefore, the
requirement of the proviso to Section 97(10) was met. Sub-sections (6) to (10) of
Section 97 of the Act, which are relevant, are reproduced below:
xx xx xx xx xx xx
xx xx xx xx xx xx
(6) A court-martial shall consist of not less than five nor more than nine officers.
(7) No officer shall be qualified to sit as a member of a court-martial unless—
(a) He is subject to naval law,
(b) He is an officer of the Indian Navy of the rank of lieutenant or higher rank,
and
(c) He is of or over twenty-one years of age,
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(8) A prosecutor shall not be qualified to sit on the court-martial for the trial of
the person he prosecutes.
(9) The officer ordering the court-martial, the officer who was the commanding
officer of the ship to which the accused belonged at the time of the commission of
the alleged offence and the officer investigating the offence shall not be qualified to
sit on a court-martial for the trial of such accused.
(10) Subject to the provisions of sub-sections (7) to (9), officers of the Indian
Navy shall be eligible to sit as members of a court-martial irrespective of the branch
of the naval service to which they belong:
Provided that—
(a) the majority of the members of the court-martial, including the president,
shall be officers of the executive branch of the naval service, and
(b) at trials for offences against sections 34, 35, 55, 55A, 55c and 56, officers
other than officers of the executive branch of the naval service shall not be
eligible to sit.
xx xx xx xx xx xx
xx xx xx xx xx xx
7. Further, Sections 102 and 103 of the Act, which deal with the objections, are
reproduced below:
102. Objections to members.— The following provisions shall apply to the
disposal of objections raised by the prosecutor as well as the accused:—
(a) any member may be objected to on a ground which affects his competency to
act as an impartial judge; and the trial judge advocate may reject summarily
without reference to the members of the court any objection not made on
such grounds;
(b) objections to members shall be decided separately, those to the officer
lowest in rank being taken first: provided that if the objection is to the
president, such objection shall be decided first and all the other members
whether objected to or not shall vote as to the disposal of the objection;
(c) on an objection being allowed by one-half or more of the Officers entitled to
decide the objection, the member objected to shall at once retire and his place
shall be filled up before an objection against another member is taken up;
(d) should the president be objected to and the objection be allowed, the court
shall adjourn until a new president has been appointed by the convening
authority or by the officer empowered in his behalf by the convening
authority; and
(e) should a member be objected to on the ground of being summoned as a
witness, and should it be found that the objection has been made in good
faith and that the officer is to give evidence as to facts and not merely as to
character, the objection shall be allowed.
103. Further objections.—(1) The trial judge advocate shall then ask the
accused whether he has any further objections to make respecting the constitution
of the court; and should the accused raise any such objection, it shall then be
decided by the court, which decision shall be final and the constitution of the court-
martial shall not be afterwards impeached and it shall be deemed in all respects to
have been duly constituted.
(2) If the accused should have no further objection to make to the constitution of
the court or if any objection is disallowed, the members and the trial judge
advocate shall then make an oath or affirmation in the form set out in section 104.
8. The second limb of the argument made by the learned senior counsel was that
the TJA acted illegally in rejecting the objection raised by the appellant with regard to
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the competence or composition of the members of the CM. According to him, the
ruling of the TJA is flawed, for the following reasons:
(i) The TJA could not have rendered the decision by himself as the decision was to
be rendered by the entire Court and not the TJA alone;
(ii) The TJA holding that three members of the five-member CM belonged to the
Executive Branch was itself incorrect on facts because only one Member was from
the Executive Branch and not three as held by the TJA.
9. It was contended that the TJA wrongly stated that, as per the Navy List 2009,
three members belonged to the Executive Branch viz. Commodore Atul Kumar
Kokanathankar, Capt Krishna Mohan Pisapatti and Capt Vinay Kumar. This, according
to learned senior counsel, was factually incorrect. Senior counsel contended that only
Commodore Atul Kumar Kokanathankar belonged to the Executive Branch, whereas
the other Members belonged to different Branches i.e. Capt P. Nagraj Shenoy
(Electrical Branch), Capt Vinay Kumar (Logistics (Supply and Secretariat)), Capt
Krishna Mohan Pisapatti (Logistics (Supply and Secretariat) and Capt Mukesh Kumar
(Electrical Branch). Learned senior counsel further pointed out that the Navy List is
only a publication by a competent authority and cannot override the statutory
provisions; therefore, the opinion of the TJA was not in accordance with the settled
legal principles. The entire CM proceedings, therefore, had been vitiated. In order to
strengthen his stance, the learned senior counsel relied upon the decisions in Union of
India v. Shivendra Bikram Singh ((2003) 6 SCC 359 : AIR 2003 SC 2481), wherein at
Paragraph 32, the Hon'ble Supreme Court held as under:
……. If the very constitution of the Court Martial was not in accordance with law,
then any proceedings taken before such an improper Court Martial was a nullity as
far as the trial is concerned.…..
10. We decided, in view of the importance of this point of law, to hear the response
of the respondents to these questions on maintainability of the CM before taking up
the issue of the merits of the main case. Accordingly, the respondents were asked to
present their initial arguments on this specific legal issue.
Arguments by Counsel for the Respondents on Maintainability of CM:
11. Mr. Anil Gautam, learned counsel appearing for the respondents, vehemently
objected to the arguments raised by the learned senior counsel for the appellant on
the legal validity of the CM proceedings, relying upon Section 97(10) of the Act,
Statutes and the Regulations. He stated that as per Regulation 205 of the Regulations
for the Navy 1991, which is relevant so far as the case of the appellant is concerned,
there is no illegality in the composition of the CM. Learned counsel submits that the
‘Supply and Secretariat’ Branch and the term ‘Supply Officers’ was removed from the
Navy vide an amendment to the Regulations of the Navy dated 17.02.1981 and
instead, ‘Logistics Officers’ were introduced, who became part of the Executive Branch.
This was done with a view to enhance administrative convenience in the Navy, though
Logistics Officers, Naval Architecture and Legal Officers would still not be allowed
command functions. This fact is evident in the amended Para 205(1) in the Navy
Regulations of 1991 and the Navy List, which is prepared annually e.g. Navy List 2009.
The objection of the appellant in this regard was rightly rejected by the TJA, as the
objection was only regarding the competence of those Members to sit in the CM and
was not about their impartiality. It is stated that as per the convening authority's
order, the CM was supposed to commence from 12.07.2008 but on repeated requests
of the appellant that his defence counsel is not available, matter was adjourned from
time to time. Ultimately on 19.09.2011, CM's proceedings commenced and “DA” read
out the composition of the court and it was inquired whether there was any objection
to the same. Both appellant and his defence counsel who later appeared on the same
day, stated that they had no objection as per section 102 and 103. It was only
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thereafter that TJA proceeded as per section 105 of the Navy Act. It was only after the
examination of about 27 witnesses, the appellant thought of making an objection for
the first time, on the competence of the Members. Nonetheless, the learned counsel
has contended that the Supply & Secretariat Branch, mentioned at Regulation 205(2)
of the Navy Regulations, 1965 was deleted and the Branch was merged with the
Executive Branch in 1981 and the Navy Regulations were amended accordingly, as
reflected in Para 2 of the Navy Regulations, 1991. As a consequence, the Logistics
Officers of the Navy became part of the Executive Branch. Para 2411 of the Navy
Regulations 1991 substantiates this, wherein it is mentioned as under:
2411. Specialist Courses. (1) The subjects in which the officers of the
Executive Branch may specialise are gunnery, anti-submarine warfare,
communication, navigation and direction, clearance/deep sea diving, Naval
armament inspection, Hydrographic survey, Logistics and Management, Nuclear
Biological Chemical Damage Control, Provost, Electronic Data Processing and as
promulgated from time to time.
(2) Selection of officers for specialisation will normally be made from amongst
Lieutenants.
(3) of the officers who have qualified as specialists, a limited number may be
selected from time to time for advanced courses.
(4) Executive officers, forming part of the Aviation and Submarine cadres, may
from time to time, undergo specialisation courses peculiar to their cadres.
12. Thus, counsel asserted that Capt. Krishna Mohan Pisapatti and Capt Vinay
Kumar were Executive Branch officers, which fact has been clearly reflected in the
Navy List and thus there was no infirmity in constitution of the CM.
13. As to the role of the TJA in overruling the objection raised by the appellant,
learned counsel contended that the objection regarding constitution of the CM, which
did not attack the impartiality of the Members, were not required to be put to vote of
the CM for the simple reason that the purpose of putting such an objection to vote was
to provide an opportunity to the members of the CM to themselves decide whether
they would like to remain as part of the CM or not in view of the objection so raised.
Learned counsel for the respondents also relied on the decision in Shivendra Bikram
Singh (supra), which has been relied on by the learned senior counsel for the
appellant also, and contended that the Hon'ble Supreme Court had considered the
distinction with respect to an objection about the competence and impartiality in its
judgment. The relevant portion of Para 7 of the aforesaid judgment in this regard is
reproduced hereunder:
The objection to any member of the Court regarding his competency to act as an
impartial judge, must be referred to the members of the Court and disposed of in
accordance with the procedure laid down in that section. At that stage any other
objection, which did not relate to the capacity of the member to act as an impartial
Judge had to be rejected by the trial Judge Advocate……..
14. Without entering into the merits of the case, the learned counsel for the
respondents has summed up that there was no violation of any Statute or the
Regulations framed thereunder in constituting the CM or even otherwise. He also
defended the role of the TJA in responding to the legal challenge as per Sections 97
(10), 102 and 103 of the Act, which, he stated, was in accordance with the role
assigned to the TJA and in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the
Regulations made thereunder.
Consideration by the Tribunal on the Maintainability of CM:
15. Having heard the learned counsel for the parties, before entering into any
finding on the maintainability of the O.A. on merits, the following questions were
required to be answered:
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(i) Whether there was any violation of either of the provisions of the Act or the
Rules and the Regulations made thereunder by the Navy authorities while
convening the CM and constituting the same?
(ii) Whether the TJA had acted illegally in rejecting the objections made by the
appellant with regard to the competence of the Members to sit as Members of the
CM?
16. No doubt, the consideration of the merits of the instant O.A. depended upon
the decision on the two questions framed herein above.
17. We found that the CM comprised of the following five officers of the Indian Navy
as Members:
(i) Commodore Atul Kumar Kokanathankar
(ii) Capt P. Nagraj Shenoy
(iii) Capt Vinay Kumar
(iv) Capt Krishna Mohan Pisapatti, and
(v) Capt Mukesh Kumar
18. According to learned senior counsel for the appellant, out of the Members
constituting the CM, only Commodore Atul Kumar Kokanathankar, the President,
belonged to the Executive Branch as contemplated under Section 97(10) of the Navy
Act, 1957 (the Act, for brevity). Learned counsel contended that Capt P. Nagraj
Shenoy, Member and Capt. Mukesh Kumar, Member, belonged to Electrical Branch,
whereas Capt Vinay Kumar belonged to Logistics Branch and Capt Krishna Mohan
Pisapatti belonged to Logistics Branch, after transfer from Education Branch. Therefore,
the constitution of the CM was in contravention to the mandate of Section 97(10) of
the Act.
19. Learned senior counsel for the appellant next drew our attention to Regulations
122 to 128, 166, 205 to 208, 225 to 241 and 249 read with Appendix IV of the
Regulations, which defines as to who are Executive Officers, and Regulation 135 of the
Regulations, which gives out officers of each branch, to canvass the contention that
the entire CM proceedings failed as it sullied the provisions of Section 97(10) of the
Act.
20. We found that, there was no dispute that so far as convening of the CM is
concerned, Section 97 of the Act empowers the competent authority to appoint the
Presiding Officer and he was required to appoint certain officers eligible to sit in the
CM. In the present case, the main objection raised by learned senior counsel was that
the majority of the members of the CM were not from the Executive Branch of the
naval service.
21. All along, the consistent stand taken by learned senior counsel for the appellant
was that the composition of the CM, as was determined by the convening order was
bad in law because only Commodore Atul Kumar Kokanathankar belonged to the
Executive Branch and the other Members belonged to different Branches like Electrical
Branch and Logistics (Supply and Secretariat). In order to substantiate the aforesaid
stand, learned senior counsel drew our attention to the Navy List of 2009. This ground
of challenge is based on the following grounds:
(a) The Navy Regulations 1965 only mentions ‘Supply and Secretariat Branch’, thus
implying that Logistics Branch officers were not part of the Executive Branch;
(b) Capt Krishna Mohan Pisapatti and Capt Vinay Kumar were Logistics Branch
officers and thus could not be counted as Executive Branch officers;
(c) Consequently, only one officer viz. the President of the CM was a member of the
Executive Branch and not three (out of five) as required vide Section 97(10) of
the Navy Act, 1957.
22. Therefore, according to learned senior counsel, the convening of the CM was
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illegal and, therefore, the proceedings of the CM on that ground were void ab initio.
23. To the contrary, learned counsel for the respondents vehemently opposed the
contention of the learned counsel for the appellant and contended that so far as the
composition of members of the CM is concerned, the learned counsel for the appellant
was trying to mislead the Tribunal by wrongly quoting the Navy List of 2009, which
had no relevance at this stage. Instead, according to learned counsel for the
respondents, the Navy List of 2010 corrected upto 01.10.2010 held the field. As
regards the contention of the learned counsel for the appellant that, as per Section 97
(10) of the Navy Act, the constitution of the CM was wrong, it would be appropriate
that we referred to some of the Regulations, which negate the argument made by him
in this regard. Regulation 205 of the Regulations for the Navy Part III (Statutory) was
amended by the competent authority vide S.R.O. No. 50 of 1981, wherein ‘Supply and
Secretariat’ has been deleted. The relevant portion of the said S.R.O. is reproduced as
under:
S.R.O. 50.—In exercise of the powers conferred by section 184 of the Navy Act,
1957 (62 of 1957), the Central Government hereby makes the following regulations
further to amend the Naval Ceremonial, Conditions of Service and Miscellaneous
Regulations, 1964, published with the notification of the Government of India in the
Ministry of Defence SRO No. 22E, dated the 19th February, 1964, namely:—
xx xx xx xx xx xx
2. In the Naval Ceremonial, Conditions of Service and Miscellaneous Regulations,
1964.—
(a) In regulation 117, in sub-regulation (1) for the words “Executive,
Engineering, Electrical and Supply and Secretariat Branches”, the words
“Executive, Engineering and Electrical Branches” shall be substituted:
(b) In regulation 118, for the words “Executive, Engineering, Electrical and
Supply and Secretariat Branches”, the words “Executive, Engineering and
Electrical Branches” shall be substituted;
(c) xx xx xx xx xx xx
(d) xx xx xx xx xx xx
(f) In regulation 200,—
(i) in sub-regulation (2),—
(A) under the heading “Executive Branch” the following entries shall be added at
the end, namely:—
xx xx xx xx xx xx
(ii) in sub-regulation (5), for the words “Engineering, Electrical and Supply”, the
words “Engineering and Electrical” shall be substituted;
(g) in regulation 205, in sub-regulation (2), paragraph “(d) Supply and
Secretariat” shall be deleted;
(g) in Appendix IV,—
(h) in column relating to EXECUTIVE OFFICERS—,
XX XX XX XX XX XX
24. Thus, branches of the Navy now are: Executive, Engineering, Electrical,
Education, Medical and Shipwright. Further, Regulations for the Navy Part I (Non-
Statutory) also stipulates general provisions on administrative charter of Indian Navy.
Chapter 24, Section II deals with officers of Executive Branch. Regulation 2410(1)
stipulates that on promotion to the rank of Lieutenant, all officers of the Executive
Branch are required to state in order of preference the subjects in which they wish to
specialize. Regulation 2411(1) gives the subjects of specialisation, which includes
“Logistics and Management” as one of the options. The Navy List 2009, which is Indian
Naval Book of Reference 176/2009, clearly mentioned the names of Capt Vinay Kumar
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and Capt Krishna Mohan Pisapati as officers of Executive Branch. Further, both the
Navy List 2009 and the abridged Navy List 2010 have marked specialisation in
brackets against name of each Executive Officer thus, the majority of members of the
CM being from Executive Branch, the composition was correct.
25. After considering the aforesaid aspects, we were of the considered opinion that
there was no illegality or irregularity in the composition of the CM. Therefore, the
contention raised by learned counsel for the appellant as regards the maintainability of
the composition of the CM did not stand.
Arguments by Counsel for the Appellant on merits:
26. On the merits of the case, at the outset, Mr. Sukhjinder Singh, learned counsel
appearing for the appellant, contended that there is no evidence to substantiate
charges against the appellant, therefore, the conviction and sentence awarded by the
CM cannot be sustained. The learned counsel also contended that the CM proceedings
were vitiated on account of the constitution of the CM. It was enough for the appellant
to plead mere apprehension of bias and there was ample material on record to indicate
that the appellant was justified in entertaining apprehension of bias on the part of the
President of the CM.
27. As regards the merits of the case, the learned counsel for the appellant
submitted that the offences, for which the appellant was tried by the CM, were civil
offences triable by ordinary criminal courts, and, therefore, the CM proceedings in
respect of the said offences are totally without authority of law. Further, the basic
ingredients of the offence have not been established for there is no legal evidence in
that behalf and in its absence, the charges allegedly proved against the appellant
must necessarily fail. According to the learned counsel, the entire evidence has been
concocted and, if the same is discarded, then there is no legal basis to convict the
appellant of the alleged offences.
28. Further, according to the learned counsel appearing for the appellant,
throughout the conduct of the disciplinary and Col proceedings, the appellant was not
provided copy of the deposition of witnesses though the same were available, and
despite the request of the appellant to allow him to interview the prosecution
witnesses in terms of Regulation 172 of the Regulations, he was not allowed to do so
by the Commanding Officer. That apart, the appellant was not even provided copies of
the charge sheet, exhibits and the statements of witnesses, on the basis of which
rough charge sheet was read over to him by the Commanding Officer, violating the
provisions of Regulation 151 of the Regulations. Instead, the Commanding Officer
forwarded the same to the convening authority to put the appellant to trial by CM.
Charge No. 1:
29. As regards Charge No. 1, the main thrust of the arguments addressed by the
learned counsel for the appellant was that the CM grossly erred, both factually and
legally, in convicting the appellant under Charge No. 1. He contends that the evidence
of PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, the complainant, should have been treated as unreliable
evidence and the CM ought not to have placed undue reliance on his statement, while
finding the appellant guilty of Charge No. 1, as PW 27 was an interested witness, who
unjustifiably and maliciously harboured ill will towards the appellant.
30. Learned counsel for the appellant submitted that the appellant had no dealing
with Amber Aviation, which fact has not been taken into account by the CM. Further,
the documents produced by the representatives of Amber Aviation did not have the
signatures of the Accounts Manager, Chief Flying Instructor or the Chief Engineer
appointed by the DGCA. Also, there were no seal of authentication from any of the
above named persons. The tenders were opened by a nominated individual by the
Board nominated for that purpose, which is clear from Question Nos. 1149 - 1152 at
page 264. The comparative statement (CST) was processed with the approval of the
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competent authority viz. PDAPSA and COP. The cash was physically collected and
disbursed to the service provider by the Administrative Officer Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan (Q
Nos. 3207 to 3212 at page 680). That apart, there were no allegations/complaints on
any of the activities from any quarter till PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan and PW 4 LME A.
Borah were removed from the team by PDAPSA after alleged molestation of a French
woman by PW 4 LME A Borah in France. Subsequent to their removal, PW 27 Lt Cdr
Karthikeyan made a complaint alleging financial impropriety on the part of the Oi/C of
the team, the appellant. There was no complaint or report of any nature either from
Amber Aviation or Aviation India even at the Board of Inquiry stage. Amber Aviation,
in collusion with Aviation India, at the behest of Capt G.S. Dhillon played a fraud by
bringing false receipts, payment slips, etc and by adducing false evidence through
their representatives viz. PW 7 Mr. Sudharshan Vashist and CW 2 Mr. Awdesh Kumar,
who had no knowledge of the alleged transactions. Learned counsel for the appellant
contended that approval of air field charges for 50 hours @ Rs. 13,230/- per hour and
Rs. 3,500/- per day was accorded from COP. DAPSA file noting at Exhibit D-41 shows
that a total amount of Rs. 4,19,055/- was paid as final settlement to the service
provider. The aircraft journey book and the authorisation book tallies with regard to
the number of hours utilised. As per the quotation received from PW 8 Mr. Sandeep
Sharaf, the cost of aircraft charges per hour was Rs. 13,230/- and at no point of time,
it was intimated that the cost per hour was lesser than that. It came out only in the
deposition before the CM as a conjecture by Amber Aviation and Aviation India
representatives that the cost could have been approximately Rs. 7,500/-. Learned
counsel submitted that nothing in writing from either of the companies has been
brought on record to show that invoicing was done for 25 hours only that too @ Rs.
8,000/-. Therefore, the learned counsel brought out that the CM failed to analyse the
evidence available on record in this regard.
31. Learned counsel for the appellant vehemently contended that the CM failed to
take into consideration the important fact that all along the appellant's case was that
neither the amount was entrusted to him nor did he have any control over it. The
appellant was the DDAPSA during the relevant period and quotations were invited for
the conduct of Skydiving Camp, Delhi Area. Aviation India operated by PW 8 Mr.
Sandeep Sharaf supplied four quotations, including that of Amber Aviation admittedly
in a sealed envelope, which is clear from Q. Nos. 1149 to 1151. No doubt, the
appellant was a part of the three Member Board nominated to open the tender
document and to make a comparative statement. If one goes through the evidence,
according to learned counsel for the appellant, it could be seen that the quotations
were in a sealed envelope and there was no deviation from the standard practice. The
CST document was approved by the PDAPSA PW 28 Capt Virk and the competent
authority viz. COP on 14.02.2007, prior to placing a supply order. No audit objection,
whatsoever, was raised in regard to the approval.
32. Learned counsel for the appellant also pointed out that the proposal in the NHQ
Adventure Activity, Non Public Fund (NPF) for an advance of Rs. 2,00,000/- was
initiated on 15.02.2007 and upon approval by the CFA i.e. PDAPSA on 21.02.2007, a
bearer cheque was collected by PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan, Administrative Officer,
which he admittedly encashed on 21.02.2007. Another proposal was mooted in the
INSCB NPF proposal register (Exhibit P50) and approved by the CFA on 21.02.2007
and a bearer cheque was collected by PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan, which he,
admittedly, encashed on 21.02.2007. PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, ex post facto,
converted this proposal from INSCB as a proposal from Adventure Activity (NPF) vide
Ext. P41 (SI. No. 276 dated 28.03.2007). SI. No. 276 corresponds only to the proposal
dated 28.03.2007). He states that this would prove that PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan also
operated the financial documents in DAPSA. If, at that time, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan
knew that the transaction was false, he should not have ex post facto regularised the
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same at a later date. Learned counsel for the appellant also contended that PW 27 Lt
Cdr. Karthikeyan had played a dominant role in the sanction of Rs. 4,00,000/- for the
above camp, he being the Administrative Officer. He clearly deposed that the Aircraft
Company was paid the amount in cash (Q. Nos. 3207, 3208, 3209 and 3210).
33. Learned counsel for the appellant also tried to contend that PW 27 Lt Cdr.
Karthikeyan was the Administrative Officer and as proved by the evidence of PW 37
Roger Bannister, DW 3 Karan Singh, PW 32 Lt Anand Revi, PW 36 Senthil Kumar and
PW 38 Ashish Ray, he was dealing with payments and accounting. He also pointed out
that both the bearer cheques were encashed by PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan and he
carried the cash to Hissar on 21.02.2007 for disbursement to the vendor
company/representative. It was the same person who, under the instruction of PW 8
Sandeep Sharaf, supplied the quotation Exhibit P22(i), had received the money from
PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan on 21.02.2007 and gave Exhibit P36 receipt on 21.02.2007.
The signature on Exhibit P36 receipt and the signature on Exhibit P22(i) quotation is of
the same person. Therefore, according to learned counsel for the appellant, the
appellant, at no stage, had handled the amount of Rs. 4,00,000/-.
34. Learned counsel for the appellant further contended that Amber Aviation was a
student training Academy, which did not have a service tax number. This itself shows
that Exhibit D55 and Exhibit C1 were fake documents and the transactions related to
some other activities between those two companies. The prosecution conveniently
omitted to refer to these documents, which proves that the case against the appellant
is a story created only to harass the appellant. However, these important factual
aspects were not taken into account by the CM, while finding the appellant guilty of
Charge No. 1.
35. It is also the contention of learned counsel for the appellant that the
prosecution was not able to produce the Form 16A to show that TDS was deducted,
which is clear from the evidence of CW 2 Mr. Avdesh Kumar, though the same could
have been easily produced by them either from the office of Aviation India or the
Amber Aviation. The prosecution also did not produce the 26AS form, which also would
have contained details of the TDS.
36. Mr. Sukhjinder Singh, learned counsel for the appellant further argued that
giving cash advance in adventure activity is a normal practice and such cash advance
is paid through NPF of various sections and once the activity is completed, the cash is
reimbursed to the respective NPFs. In support of this contention, learned counsel
relied on the evidence of PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer and PW 9 Cdr. Chikkara.
37. Based on these contentions, learned counsel for the appellant concluded his
arguments on Charge No. 1 and contended that there is no material to find the
appellant guilty of Charge No. 1 and the findings of the CM, so far as this charge is
concerned, are based on the prosecution evidence, which are full of contradictions and
are not sufficient to find the appellant guilty.
38. After finishing his arguments on Charge No. 1, learned counsel then drew our
attention to Charge No. 17, which is similar to Charge No. 1, and developed his
arguments on Charge No. 17.
Charge No. 17:
39. As regards Charge No. 17, Mr. Sukhjinder Singh, learned counsel for the
appellant pointed out that this charge is defective since during the relevant period
from 25.03.2008 to 31.03.2008, the appellant was neither the DDAPSA nor the team
leader as he was posted on-board INS Sindhuraj (submarine) as its Engineer Officer
(HoD) and on this reason alone, the charge fails.
40. Learned counsel for the appellant pointed out that the appellant was DDAPSA
only till 21.01.2008 and it was during this period that he invited quotations from
certain aviation companies for the conduct of a Skydiving Camp as per the approval of
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the APSO viz. CPS/NHQ, as is evident from Exhibit D-41. The tenders were opened as
part of tender opening by the Board and as per the laid down procedure and the CST
was made, which was approved by the Board and the PDAPSA. Thereafter, the
appellant issued a letter seeking discount to the L1 firm. Subsequently, on
21.01.2008, he handed over his duties to DW 1 Lt Cdr M.V. Birajdar.
41. It was also argued by learned counsel for the appellant that as per the PDAPSA
memo, a Board of Officers was nominated to open the tender and make a CST, in
which the appellant was one of the Board members along with PW 6 A. Panchal and
PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer. Learned counsel further added that, though during chief
examination both PW 6 Panchal and PW 29 Capt Iyer had deposed that the quotations
were brought to them in an open condition, however, subsequently, during cross
examination, they admitted that the quotations were brought to them in sealed covers
and were opened by the Board only. He also argued that the quotation of Amber
Aviation (Ext. P27) was disowned both by PW 35 Mr. Jasbir Singh and PW 7 Mr.
Sudarshan Vashist. Interestingly, no witness suggested that the appellant had
doctored or manipulated Exhibit P27. Furthermore, it was his contention that the
appellant had no role in the documentation subsequent to 21.01.2008 as he was
posted out to an operational Submarine until called upon as Chief Instructor (not as
Oi/C or DDAPSA) to conduct a Skydiving Camp as per Exhibit P24. All the documents,
including the offer of discount from Amber Aviation, receipts and invoices were
received by DW 1 Lt Cdr M.V. Birajdar, who succeeded the appellant, through PW 27 Lt
Cdr Karthikeyan.
42. Learned counsel for the appellant has also brought out that PW 37 Roger
Bannister, who assisted PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, had seen PW 27 making payments
to pilot, engineer and staff of Amber Aviation. It has further come out from his
evidence that there was only one aircraft and that there were no student trainee pilots
(Q. Nos. 4152, 4153, 4155, 4156, 4158, 4159, 4165, 4167, 4170, 4174, 4205 and
4201 at pages 873, 875, 876, 881, 940 and 957). The learned counsel also placed
reliance on the deposition of PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, which stated that the
appellant was handed over a self/bearer cheque by the PDAPSA, the controlling officer,
to carry cash advance to the Skydiving Camp, which was handed over to PW 27 Lt Cdr
Karthikeyan for disbursing and accounting. Furthermore, the evidence of DW 1 Lt Cdr
Birajdar established that PW 27 had made payments and had handed him over the
details of the flying hours, number of jumps undertaken, etc. along with other
documents and bills/invoices and receipts at the end of the camp.
43. According to learned counsel for the appellant, all these evidence prove, beyond
doubt, that the allegation made in Charge No. 17 is nothing but an attempt that was
made only to harass the appellant and to tarnish his character and professional
reputation. He also stated that the prosecution miserably failed to prove that the
appellant had committed the offence under Charge No. 17.
44. Concluding his arguments on Charge No. 17, learned counsel for the appellant
contended that the CM has failed to take note of material contradictions and major
discrepancies in statements of the prosecution witnesses, especially PW 27 Lt Cdr.
Karthikeyan. He further contended that the prosecution had purposely abstained from
producing a number of important witnesses who were neither cited as witnesses nor
examined in the CM, for which adverse inference against prosecution should be taken.
Also, that independent witnesses cited and examined by prosecution have not
supported the case of prosecution, which renders doubtful on the veracity of official
witnesses. He submitted that the CM, despite raising specific contention on aforesaid
points, the respondents have not satisfactorily answered the same. As such, the
findings of the CM on Charge No. 17 cannot be sustained and the appellant should be
acquitted of Charge No. 17 also.
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45. After finishing his arguments on Charge No. 17, the learned counsel proceeded
to argue on Charge No. 11.
Charge No. 11:
46. Learned counsel for the appellant, as regards this charge, emphasised that ex-
gratia grants are generally claimed by participants from the Indian Naval Sports
Control Board (INSCB) for participation in a National/International level competition,
which is evident from the evidence of PW 10 Cdr D.S. Dahiya, who is the Secretary of
INSCB. The role of INSCB has come out from his evidence, according to which, INSCB
is to exercise overall control over sports of the Navy, among other charters. Learned
counsel submitted that the proposal was initiated by PW 10 Cdr Dahiya similar to the
procedure for Regimental Funds in the Army, under the directives of the President,
INSCB, who also happened to be the PDAPSA. A bearer cheque was handed over to
the appellant who was the Oi/C of the Skydiving Team towards seven team members
@ Rs. 7,500/- each. Learned counsel contends that, the ex-gratia money was neither
sought nor contemplated nor a proposal for the same initiated by the appellant at any
stage and, therefore, there was no intent to draw any such amount of cash. Learned
counsel contends that, simultaneously, a proposal from members of the Skydiving
Team was discussed to make a team documentary film and purchase a few souvenirs
and T-shirts for support staff and was agreed by all to contribute the ex-gratia money
for the same. Even the PDAPSA was aware of this and was kept in the picture. Since
the cash was from the NPF, a collective team decision was taken. Admittedly, a
documentary was made by PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, paying Rs. 15,000/- from the
collected pool and T-shirt was designed by him and ordered through M/s. Shiv Naresh
as per MO-1 (T-Shirt red in colour of Shiv Naresh, size 36 in back, logo of SKYDIVE),
which was not procured from any other fund. Learned counsel submitted that, out of
seven, five team members had confirmed this fact in the BOI. This was within the
knowledge of PW 38 Ashish Ray and DW 1 Lt Cdr M.V. Birajdar. Furthermore, it has
come out from the evidence of DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar that ex-gratia amount was used to
make souvenirs, videos, mementoes and T-shirts, which was clearly a team decision.
However, the prosecution failed to put any question in this regard to these witnesses
and purposely omitted to examine certain other material witnesses as well. The
learned counsel contended that, the prosecution heavily relied upon the evidence of
PW 27 Karthikeyan and PW 4 LME A. Borah, who are interested witnesses and deposed
regarding non-receipt of ex-gratia. Learned counsel also stated that it is on record that
PW 4 and PW 27 were expelled from the IN Skydiving team after the alleged
attempted molestation by the latter of a French housekeeping lady during the team's
visit to France World Championship in July-August 2008, which led to debarring of the
team from that competition. PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan was found to have committed
lapses in dealing with the incident. Both PW 4 LME Borah and PW 27 Lt Cdr
Karthikeyan were removed from the skydiving team by DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar, the then
DDAPSA, under the instructions of PDAPSA. Learned counsel for the appellant also
tried to justify his contentions by stating that neither PW 4 LME Borah nor PW 27 Lt
Cdr Karthikeyan had made any complaint about the non-receipt of the ex-gratia
amount at any stage and that was because they were part of the collective decision to
use the money for the common purpose of making a promotion video and purchasing
souvenirs for the skydiving team.
47. As regards the evidence of PWs 4 and 27, learned counsel appearing for the
appellant urged that they being interested witnesses, their evidence having no
credibility, the CM should not have relied upon their evidence to find the appellant
guilty of Charge No. 11. He also submitted that from the evidence of PWs 4 and 27 it
is clear that they had some interest in having the appellant, somehow or other,
convicted for some animus or other. Clearly, the appellant was not guilty of any
wrongdoing in the act of having a video made for promotion of skydiving as an
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adventure activity in the Navy and for procuring souvenirs for the same purpose, after
having taken the contribution from all the members of the team.
48. Learned counsel for the appellant then invited our attention to Charge Nos. 13
to 15 and proceeded to canvass his arguments on Charge Nos. 13 to 15.
Charge No. 13 to 15:
49. Mr. Sukhjinder Singh, learned counsel for the appellant submitted that the
appellant had not signed any of the claim documents pertaining to Charge Nos. 13 to
15. When the original claim documents were produced before the BOI, the appellant
had indicated that the signatures on the documents were not his, that the claims
seemed to be inflated and that they were not the documents he, like other team
members, had handed over to PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan for submission. Learned
counsel submitted that, after coming to know about these false documents, the
appellant wrote an official letter to his Commanding Officer seeking permission for
withdrawal of the inflated claim filed on his behalf, without his knowledge, by PW 27 Lt
Cdr Karthikeyan. Again, after his attachment to INS India, he wrote to the
Commanding Officer, INS India making the same request, but no action was taken. In
this regard, the learned counsel alleged that some of the witnesses, who were ready to
depose in favour of the appellant, were threatened by the prosecution of dire
consequences if they did not give evidence against the appellant. Furthermore, it was
alleged that the original documents pertaining to these claims, which were supposed
to be preserved as per Para 53 of Navy Order (Special) 02/2002, were destroyed by
the respondents, hence it was the photo copies of these documents, secondary
evidence, that were subjected to scrutiny by the handwriting expert. DW 2 Pandit
Ashok Kashyap, handwriting expert, categorically deposed that the signatures were
not of the appellant. In this regard, learned counsel relied upon the decision of the
Bombay High Court in Ramkrishna Girishchandra Dode v. Anand Govind Kelkar (AIR
1999 Bom 89) and contended that in the event of slightest doubt; leave the matter to
the wisdom of the expert.
50. As regards Charge No. 13, learned counsel for the appellant submitted that the
appellant had not signed this claim and his signature contained therein was forged.
Further, it is obvious that as on 03.08.2007 or earlier, a false claim was submitted. PW
21 Mr. Rakesh Kumar, Assistant Accounts Officer deposed that it could have been
submitted to him only after 20.11.2007, after receipt of Exhibit D12 detention
certificate. Learned counsel further submitted that it was PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan
who had prepared false claims (Exhibits D17 to 31) for the entire team and signed
himself on their behalf when team members were not there and got the same passed
within a short span of 05-10 days. Further, DW 2 Pandit Ashok Kashyap deposed that
the suspected signatures marked as Q1 to Q6 were forged and not written by author of
admitted signature marked as A1 to A5. All these evidence would show that the claims
under Charge No. 13 did not bear the signature of the appellant, therefore, the
allegation in Charge No. 13 would not stand.
51. As regards Charge No. 14, learned counsel for the appellant argued that there
is no evidence on record to show that the appellant had signed the claims. In this
regard, he relied on the evidence of PW 18 C.K. Anurag, POME, who deposed to have
been deputed to USA from 13.07.2007 to 07.08.2007 and all documents pertaining to
his deputation, like tickets, boarding passes, receipt for money were taken by PW 27
Lt Cdr Karthikeyan when he had gone to Vizag and he got Rs. 60,000/- as claim,
which he had neither filled nor signed. According to him, all finances were handled by
PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan and similar documents were given to other members of the
team. He also deposed that PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan told him to pay Rs. 27,500/- to
PW 14 B.B. Naidu, LME in lieu of his claim, which he gave being the claim money.
52. As against Charge No. 15, it is contended by learned senior counsel that this
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charge contained allegation of taxi charges for travelling to Eloy (USA), whereas the
claim showed taxi fare to Chicago and back on 04.09.2007 and 21.09.2007. The
charge states “it did on 26 Sep 07”, whereas the claim is dated 01 Nov. According to
the learned counsel, the charge is full of errors; therefore, the same would not stand.
PW 21 Mr. Rakesh Kumar, AAO, in his evidence before the CM, stated that the claims
at Exhibits D27 to D31 in respect of DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan,
PW 4 LME A. Borah, B.R. Kumar and G.M. Rao were passed on 30.11.2007 on
production of Exhibit D13 viz. detention certificate dated 26.11.2007. He also testified
that it was possible that the aforesaid claims were received in bunch after 26.11.2007
and passed in short span between 26.11.2007 and 30.11.2007. It has also come out
from his evidence that he had not examined the Govt of India letter which stated that
for internal travel in USA the travel expenditure was to be borne by the Embassy of
India at Washington DC. He further stated that these claims must have been
forwarded to CDA (Navy) on 26.11.2007.
53. As regards all these charges viz. Charge Nos. 13, 14 and 15, learned counsel
also relied upon the evidence of PW 18 C.K. Anurag. The witness deposed that he got
money within 20 days and handed over the aforesaid documents to PW 27. He also
deposed that he never filled any claim and he did not submit any claim, whatsoever,
in person, for which he got the money. The money was credited by CDA (Navy) for the
claims for USA deputation, which was prepared by PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan.
However, to cover up the misdeeds of PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, PW 4 A. Borah, LME
too supported PW 27. Furthermore, it is clear from the BOI findings that the three
deputation claims amongst others are the only ones which were defective and that all
seven members of the team had been cited for false claims for these three deputations
and it has further come out from the BOI findings that PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan had
additionally filled up few more false claims, which clearly brings out the mala fide
intention of PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan, who was the Administrative Officer entrusted
with several financial and accounting responsibilities. That apart, the original ink
signed exhibits were destroyed by the respondents and what the respondents supplied
to the appellant to defend his case were concocted copies of such documents. It is also
in evidence that PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan had signed only his claims and none of the
other members signed their claims. Further, it has come out from the evidence of PW
18 C.K. Anurag and DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar that they also did not sign their respective
claim documents, which were not questioned by the prosecution. DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar
specifically deposed before the CM that he had brought this matter before the BOI and
wrote letters to his Commanding Officer.
54. According to learned counsel for the appellant, the claims were submitted by
PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan to CDA in November 2007, the BOI commenced in
November 2008, where original documents were made available for scrutiny of the BOI
and investigation commenced in August/September, well within three years and it is
for the respondents to comment why they destroyed the original documents in
violation of NO (Spl) No. 02/2002.
55. Concluding his arguments on Charge Nos. 13 to 15, learned senior counsel for
the appellant submitted that there is no substance in the allegations levelled,
therefore, the findings of CM on these charges also do not stand. The learned counsel,
therefore, contended that the prosecution has not proved the guilt alleged against the
appellant and the appellant deserves acquittal on these charges too.
Arguments by Counsel for the Respondents:
56. On the other hand, Mr. Anil Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents, at the
outset, supporting the findings of the CM, submitted that none of the contentions
raised by the learned senior counsel on behalf of the appellant relating to the
constitution of the CM, in conformity with the mandatory provisions, or even in respect
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of the manner of deciding the objection alleging impartiality or bias of the CM, merits
interference. The CM was competent to adjudicate the matter relating to the offences
alleged against the appellant. As regards the non-adherence of the mandatory
provisions, learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the record would
clearly indicate that ample opportunity was provided to the appellant to mount his
defence. He had cross examined each witness at length and the evidence that has
come on record has been duly analysed and considered by the CM before recording the
findings of guilt on these six charges.
Charge No. 1:
57. As regards Charge No. 1 viz. misappropriation of public funds amounting to Rs.
2,19,055/-, Mr. Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents submitted that as per
the evidence adduced at the CM, the appellant had prepared the tender enquiry dated
05.02.2007 and obtained undated quotations from companies on their letterheads.
Further, he had prepared a forged and undated quotation (Exhibit P22(i)) in the name
of M/s. Amber Aviation and fraudulently prepared a CST, wherein L1 was M/s. Amber
Aviation. The appellant thereafter put up the CST and forged quotations for the
signatures of the board members PW 13 Cdr A.P. Singh and PW 10 Cdr D.S. Dahiya.
After obtaining the signatures on CST, the appellant proceeded with creating a false
letter to Amber Aviation asking them for discount. However, the letter could not have
reached Amber Aviation since it was a fictitious address, which was confirmed by PW
35 Mr. Jasveer Singh. The appellant thereafter moved a file for obtaining approval of
the competent authority for the skydiving camp at Hissar for 50 hrs. of air effort @ Rs.
13,230/- per hour and airfield charges @ Rs. 3,500/- per hour amounting to a total
proposal of Rs. 7,06,500/-. As per the proposal on the file, the hiring of aircraft was to
be done from public fund. The approval was accorded by the competent authority on
14.02.2007. The appellant then generated a false supply order dated 14.02.2007. PW
35 Mr. Jasveer Singh deposed that the said document reflected a wrong address of
their company and their company had not received this supply order.
58. Learned counsel contended that, to generate cash in hand in AA NPF, two
actions were taken by the appellant. Firstly, a loan of Rs. 2,00,000/- was taken from
INSCB and received in cash. This was preceded by the appellant taking up a proposal
for an amount of Rs. 2,00,000/-. This proposal was taken up and signed by the
appellant and approved by PW 28 Capt Virk. After PW 28 Capt Virk perused the cash
book, it was brought out that a total amount of Rs. 4,19,055/- was drawn by the
appellant in cash for hiring aircraft for conduct of sky diving camp at Hissar in
February 2007, which is clearly proved by the cash account book initialled by the
appellant himself. The appellant thereafter generated a false cash receipt of Rs.
4,00,000/- from M/s. Amber Aviation purportedly from Amber Aviation India Private
Ltd dated 21.02.2007 showing that a cash of Rs. 4,00,000/- was received by M/s.
Amber Aviation. This was the covering voucher for the cash withdrawn by the
appellant himself.
59. Mr. Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents further brought out that
having withdrawn a sum of Rs. 4,19,055/- from the AA. NPF, the appellant had to get
the amount reimbursed from AA Public Fund, for which he generated a false summary
of expenditure for an amount of Rs. 4,19,055/- and submitted it to Cdr. Chikkara (PW
9). The proposal was made on the Adventure Activities (Public Fund) account towards
settlement of bills as per payment vouchers of Adventure Activity (Non Public Fund)
for skydiving camp Hissar. The payment was confirmed to have been made to
Adventures Activities (NPF) by PW 9 Cdr. Chikkara through the public fund cash
account book.
60. Learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the CM has rightly
convicted the appellant for having misappropriated public fund amounting to Rs.
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2,19,055/- and there is no basis in the contention of the appellant that it was not the
public fund from where the entrustment was made. With reference to the variation in
the date of receipt of money (in cash) by M/s. Aviation India from the appellant,
learned counsel for the respondents submitted that all the transactions between
Aviation India and Indian Navy were admittedly carried out by the appellant,
therefore, all the documents were made with the knowledge of the appellant and the
firm. The appellant was found guilty for criminal breach of trust, which is corroborated
by both oral and documentary evidence.
Charge No. 17:
61. Learned counsel for the respondents supported the impugned findings for
reasons based by the CM for conviction of the appellant. He submitted that the
contradictions and discrepancies pointed out by learned counsel for appellant are
insignificant in nature and are not having any material effect on genesis of the
prosecution case as there is sufficient material, proved on record, to hold the appellant
guilty. It is settled law that evidence of official witnesses is not to be disbelieved or
discarded merely for the reason that they are official witnesses. Presumption is that
every witness is impartial and independent, unless proved contrary. There is no
presumption for doubting the credibility of official witnesses in principle and
consequently, the statements of official witnesses can be the basis for conviction of an
accused. However, before basing conviction on evidence of official witnesses, strict
scrutiny with care and caution is required. In case evidence of official witnesses is
found cogent, reliable and credible, conviction can be based on evidence of official
witnesses only.
62. Against the contention of learned counsel for the appellant that certain
important witnesses were not examined by the prosecution, learned counsel for the
respondents pointed out that it is the quality of evidence not quantity, which matters
for proving a case. It is not necessary for each and every witness to be examined.
Therefore, non-examination of certain witnesses will not have any adverse effect on
the prosecution case unless the statements of witnesses examined are not found to be
cogent and reliable or prejudice caused to accused for non-examination of such
witnesses is established and also the accused is found incapable to examine such
witnesses in defence for reasons beyond his control.
63. It is the case of the prosecution that the appellant, based on the ‘in principle
approval’ given by the competent authority on 20.12.2008, processed the file relating
to skydiving camp for officers, sailors and dependents in Delhi area and obtained three
quotations, Exhibit P27 from Amber Aviation India Pvt Ltd, Exhibit P28 from Bhatia
Aerospace and Exhibit P29 from Summit Aviation (I) Pvt Ltd. Thereafter CST was
prepared and put up to the Board for signing (Exhibit P31). The Board for CST was
constituted through PDAPSA by Exhibit P 34 memo dated 17.01.2008. PW 29 Capt
V.G. Iyer, PW 6 Lt Cdr Panchal and the appellant were the board members. After the
CST was signed, the appellant allegedly sent a letter seeking discount to the L1 firm,
Amber Aviation India Pvt Ltd (Exhibit P33), which was signed by the appellant himself
on 21.01.2008 being DDAPSA (Aero Adventure). Learned counsel for the respondents
contended that this action of the appellant trying to negotiate with the L1 firm without
the PNC is illegal, since it is not in accordance with CVC guidelines and Defence
Procurement procedures. In this regard, learned counsel for the respondents placed
reliance on Exhibits P18 to 20 and P27 to P35, which the prosecution tried to prove
through PW 6 Lt Cdr A.K. Panchal, to show that two cheques were issued to Amber
Aviation for Rs. 1,51,750/- and to INSA (NPF) for Rs. 2,00,000/-, letter by the
appellant to Amber Aviation asking for discount over the quoted price, letter from
Amber Aviation offering discount over the quoted price, etc. He also placed reliance on
Ext. P58 to show that it was the appellant who had withdrawn the amount of Rs.
2,00,000/- and he also stated that the cheque dated 25.03.2008 contained the
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signature of the appellant in proof of having withdrawn the amount of Rs. 2,00,000/-.
He further relied upon the evidence of PW 5 Royer to prove Exhibit 11B receipt for Rs.
2,00,000/- shown to have been provided to Amber Aviation for conduct of skydiving
camp at Karnal in March 2008 and Exhibit P11A dated 17.06.2008 for Rs. 2,00,000/-
paid to INSA (NPF) being reimbursement of advance drawn for expenditure incurred
for conduct of skydiving camp at Karnal in March 2008. Learned counsel for the
respondents also contended that the fact that the Exhibit P58 cheque was actually
withdrawn by the appellant was corroborated by PW 23 Mr. Mahendra Kumar Bhargava
of State Bank of India and his signatures were proved by DW 2 Pandit Ashok Kashyap,
a handwriting expert. This, according to the learned counsel, shows that though the
appellant was transferred to Vizag, the evidence of DW 3 confirmed that the appellant
still had control over the activities in DAPSA and that was why PW 29 Capt Iyer had
given the self-cheque Exhibit P58 to the appellant and not the incumbent DDAPSA.
Charge No. 11:
64. As regards Charge Nos. 11 i.e. dishonestly inducing the Indian Naval Sports
Control Board and receiving amount on behalf of three officers towards ex-gratia
payment for participating in USPA @ Rs. 7,500/-, which the appellant did not disburse
to them thereby committing an offence under Section 420 of the Penal Code read with
Section 77(2) of the Navy Act, learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the
CM has not committed any error in convicting the appellant and as such, no
interference with the same by this Tribunal is necessary. According to the learned
counsel, the evidence of PW4 Borah, PW 10 Cdr Dahiya, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan and
PW 28 Capt Virk supported the prosecution case. Further, the documentary evidence
also proved that the appellant had committed the offence under Charge No. 11.
Charge Nos. 13, 14 and 15:
65. As regards Charge Nos. 13 to 15, regarding the fraudulent TA/DA claim
submitted to CDA (0) and money received thereto, learned counsel for the
respondents stated that the evidence of PW 16 Cdr Aby Mathew, PW 21 Mr. Rakesh
Kumar, PW 28 Capt Virk and PW 34 R Adm P. Murugesan and the documentary
evidence adduced by the prosecution had been corroborated in material particulars by
the prosecution, therefore, the CM had rightly convicted the appellant for the aforesaid
charges.
66. Mr. Gautam, learned counsel contended that PW 21 Mr. Rakesh Kumar had
confirmed that Exhibits P60 to P62 claims were passed and sent to the appellant's
Individual Pay Account (IPA). If the unexplained case of the appellant is accepted, the
onus of proving that there was no increase in his claimed dues is on the appellant.
Furthermore, these claims had been passed only on furnishing the air ticket and the
boarding pass, which were also required for submitting the TA/DA claims and would
have been only in possession of the appellant. The appellant had not produced his air
ticket and the boarding pass to prove his claim that the TA/DA claims were
fraudulently made by some other person. In its absence, the CM was justified in
finding the appellant guilty of these charges. Moreover, the appellant had not been
able to prove the motive behind any other person producing his original air ticket and
the boarding pass for attaching to his claim. He further submitted that the destruction
of old documents by CDA (0) was in accordance with the regulation in force, which
stipulated that the claims were to be retained by the CDA for a maximum period of
three years and before carrying out the destruction of the documents, approval was
taken. In this regard, learned counsel placed reliance on the evidence of PW 21 Mr.
Rakesh Kumar and Exhibits P64(a) to (d). Further, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan had
specifically stated in his evidence that the claims were prepared, signed and left by
him with the appellant for attaching the detention certificates on receipt from the Eol.
By signing false claim forms, the appellant committed the offence charged against
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him. The learned counsel further submitted that there was a systematic attempt on
the part of the appellant to siphon away funds of the Government by making false
TA/DA claims and that there is voluminous evidence on record to suggest that it was
the appellant who fraudulently made and signed the TA/DA claims.
67. According to Mr. Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents, there is ample
evidence to show that the appellant had knowingly made fraudulent claims in respect
of the journeys, the claims of which were already settled by the PDAPSA based on
team leader's statement of expenditure towards incidental expenditure duly counter-
signed by the Embassy of India, USA. As regards the doubt raised by the learned
counsel for the appellant regarding the differences between the list forwarded by the
appellant and that was counter-signed by the Naval Attache, Mr. Gautam placed
reliance on the evidence of PW 34 R Adm Murugesan, who had proved Exhibit P79 and
clearly stated in his evidence that as per Exhibit P80(b), counter-signed statement of
expenditure forwarded to PDAPSA, the Eol had authorised a payment of US $ 400/- for
taxi charges from LAX airport to Perris Valley, US $ 322.06 towards fuel charges during
the road journey from Perris to Eloy, AZ and US $ 375/- for taxi charges from Perris
Valley to LAX airport as claimed by the team leader in his fax dated 26.03.2007 at
Exhibits P80(m) and (n). Furthermore, PW 28 Capt Virk clearly stated in his evidence
that all the Gol deputation letters during his tenure were drafted by the appellant as
DDAPSA (Aero Adventure) and the appellant was well aware of the fact that the travel
charges were supposed to be settled by the Embassy. He recognised the signatures on
the TA/DA claim (Exhibit P59) to be that of the appellant and he confirmed having
counter-signed the claim. Therefore, there is nothing wrong in the CM finding the
appellant guilty of Charge No. 13.
68. So far as Charge No. 14 is concerned, learned counsel for the respondents
contended that the appellant had once again put up false and fraudulent TA/DA claim.
Relying on the evidence of PW 34 R Adm Murugesan and PW 28 Capt Virk, it was
contended by the learned counsel that the appellant had betrayed the good faith and
confidence reposed in him by the Government and thus withdrew huge amounts on
the basis of forged documents. PW 34 R Adm Murugesan, the Naval Attache at
Washington, who proved Exhibit P76, stated that he received Exhibit P76(b), a fax
message dated 19.07.2007 from the appellant, who was the team leader, requesting
payment towards accommodation and transportation of team members and
parachutes and accessories at Perris and to Arizona and back. The team leader had
sent Exhibit P76(c) invoice purportedly of Perris Valley Skydiving claiming an amount
of US $ 14,160/-, which included an amount of US $ 15000/- for transportation
to/from Arizona. PW 34 then made Exhibit P76(a) note for payment of the amount of
US $ 14,160/- to the personal bank account of the appellant and the same was wire
transferred to his account by the Chancery. Thereafter on 06.08.2007, PW 34 deposed
to have received Exhibit P76(c) fax message from the appellant requesting for
payment of incidental and miscellaneous charges amounting to US $ 5,669/- as per
Exhibit P78(d) list attached therewith, wherein he had claimed an amount of US $
530/- towards taxi charges of 02 cabs from Los Angeles Airport to Perris Valley and an
amount of US $ 425/- towards taxi charges from Perris Valley to Los Angeles Airport
and US $ 360/- towards fuel charges. The learned counsel also stated that it has come
out from the evidence of PW 28 Capt Virk that all the deputation Government of India
letters during his tenure were drafted by the appellant as DDAPSA (Aero Adventure)
and the appellant was well aware of the fact that travel charges were supposed to be
settled by the Embassy. Thus it is clear that the appellant had knowingly made
fraudulent TA/DA claim, based on which the CM found the appellant guilty of Charge
No. 14 and the finding of the CM does not warrant any interference.
69. As far as Charge No. 15 is concerned, learned counsel for the respondents then
canvassed that the TA/DA claim of the appellant was made fraudulently, knowing well
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that his claim in respect of this TA/DA claim had already been settled by the Embassy
of India, USA. According to the learned counsel, PW 28 Capt Virk had clearly brought
out that all the Government of India letters in respect of deputation were drafted by
the appellant as DDAPSA (Aero Adventure) and that the appellant was well aware of
the fact that the travel charges were supposed to be settled by the Embassy.
Furthermore, PW 34 R Adm Murugesan, through whom Exhibit P88 was proved, stated
in his evidence that he had received Exhibit P88(c) fax message on 29.10.2007 from
the appellant requesting for payment of incidental and miscellaneous charges
amounting to US $ 8,243.91 as per Exhibit P88(d) list attached thereto. In the said
list, the appellant had claimed an amount of US $ 485 towards taxi charges of two
taxis from LAX Airport to Perris Valley for seven persons, US $ 440 towards taxi
charges of two taxis from Perris Valley to LAX Airport for seven personnel, US $ 565/-
towards taxi charges of two taxis from O'Hare Airport to Skydive Drop Zone to O'Hare
Airport for seven personnel. It has also come out from his evidence that since the
payment could not be made in USA as the appellant (team leader) was already in
India, PW 34 R Adm Murugesan made Exhibit P88(a) letter based on the team leader's
fax and addressed it to PDAPSA for payment of the incidental charges in India. Along
with the letter, he attached a fresh statement of expenditure after auditing the bills
forwarded by the appellant, wherein he had corrected certain expenditures projected
by the appellant and authorised US $ 8,248.29 for payment to the appellant. This
fresh statement of expenditure was duly counter-signed by PW 34 so that the team
leader could later append his signature on the same page before claiming the amount
in India and the same was made by the appellant, as is evident from Exhibit P88(b).
70. Based on the aforesaid evidence of PW 28 Capt Virk and PW 34 R Adm
Murugesan, the learned counsel for the respondents stated that the evidence on record
admittedly discloses that the appellant had made the fraudulent TA/DA claim and as
such, the evidence on record is sufficient to arrive at the conclusion that the appellant
had committed the offence under Charge No. 15 and so far as this charge is
concerned, the defence has not been able to place any reliable evidence to prove that
the appellant had not made the TA/DA claim fraudulently. Therefore, according to the
learned counsel for the respondents, no interference is warranted so far as Charge No.
15 is concerned.
Charge No. 17:
71. In support of the prosecution case regarding Charge No. 17 viz. forging
documents of M/s. Amber Aviation, Mr. Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents
relied on the evidence of PW 5 Mr. R.S. Royer, PW 6 Lt Cdr A.K. Panchal, PW 7 Mr.
Sudhershan Vashist, PW 9 Cdr Chikkara, PW 23 Mr. M.K. Bhargwa, PW 24 Mr.
Gopinath, PW 28 Capt S.S. Virk, PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer and PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh.
On the basis of their evidence, the learned counsel contended that the CM correctly
found that the appellant had committed forgery and, therefore, the sentence awarded
is proportionate to the gravity of offence committed by the appellant and no
interference by this Tribunal is called for.
72. The learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the appellant had
committed forgery for receiving Rs. 2,00,000/- by submitting false documents to
Naval HQs Adventure Activities (Public Fund) in order to show that a sum of Rs.
3,51,750/- was paid to M/s. Amber Aviation, though the actual consideration was only
Rs. 1,51,750/-, which is clear from the evidence of the prosecution witnesses.
According to him, PW 6 Lt Cdr Panchal has admitted this by proving Exhibits P18 to
P20 and Exhibits P27 to P35. PW 6 has also proved Exhibit P43 payment voucher of
INSA for a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- paid to DDAPSA (Aero Adv) towards advance for
hiring of aircraft for conduct of skydiving camp at Karnal in March 2008. Furthermore,
PW 5 proved Exhibit 11B, receipt for payment of Rs. 2,00,000/- provided by M/s.
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Amber Aviation for conduct of skydiving camp at Karnal in March 2008. It was
thereafter, the appellant took up the proposal for a loan of Rs. 2,00,000/- by way of
self-cheque (Exhibit P58), which bore the signature of the appellant as having
withdrawn the cash amount of Rs. 2,00,000/-. PW 29 Capt Iyer also confirmed that
the two signatures on the reverse of Exhibit P58, a self-cheque, one in his capacity as
Oi/C of the fund and the other was that of the appellant. The withdrawal of this
amount by the appellant was further corroborated by Mr. Mahendra Kumar Bhargava
from State Bank of India. He also confirmed that Exhibit P58 was a self-cheque which
was withdrawn from bank by the appellant, whose signatures were appended at the
reverse of the cheque along with the I Card No. 613984 of the appellant. That apart,
DW 2 Pandit Ashok Kashyap, the handwriting expert, opined that the signature on
Exhibit P58 was that of the appellant.
73. Learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the supporting documents
for payment from NHQ Adventure Activities (Public Fund) generated by the appellant
were false, which is supported by the evidence of PW 7 Sudarshan Vashist. He
deposed that Exhibit P27 was not generated by his company. Furthermore, the
document did not belong to his company since it was not on his company's letterhead.
Additionally, PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh deposed that the document had fake signatures
of Mr. Sudarshan, who was the QCM and that there was a service tax number on the
document, whereas the company did not have a service tax number at all. Mr. Gautam
stated that the evidence of these witnesses (PWs 7 and 35) clearly prove that Exhibit
P27 quotation from Amber Aviation, Exhibit P30 letter of discount from Amber Aviation
were all fake documents. Thus, learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the
evidence on record, no doubt, pointed towards the guilt of the appellant and as such,
the findings arrived at by the CM were correct and do not call for any interference.
Consideration by the Court:
74. Having heard the learned counsel appearing for both the sides, the question
that needs to be considered in this case is, whether the prosecution has proved,
beyond reasonable doubt, that the appellant committed the offences under Charge
Nos. 1, 11, 12, 13, 14 and 17. To start with, we shall consider the contentions of the
parties charge wise.
Charge Nos. 1 and 17:
75. First of all, we shall deal with Charge No. 1, which states that, between
01.02.2007 and 30.11.2007, the appellant was entrusted with a sum of Rs. 4,19,055/-
towards hiring of aircraft charges for the skydiving camp held at Hissar and he
committed a criminal breach of trust by paying only a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- to M/s.
Aviation India as against Rs. 4,19,055/- that was entrusted to him for the purpose.
Accordingly, for undertaking the skydiving camp for Navy personnel and dependents,
the appellant prepared tender enquiry dated 05.02.2007 Exhibit P22(b) and obtained
three undated quotes from registered companies on their letter heads viz. Exhibit P22
(K) quotation from Aviation India, Exhibit P22(1) quotation from Agni Aviation
Consultants and Exhibit P22(J) quotation from Dhillon Aviation India Pvt Ltd. He
thereafter is alleged to have prepared a forged and undated quotation Exhibit P22(I)
purported to be belonging to M/s. Amber Aviation but, in a hurry, it is alleged that, he
erroneously printed the name of the company as “Amber Avijiation” and the quotation
sheet was without the company's logo. He also prepared a CST Exhibit P22(F) with the
said quotation. To prove this charge, the prosecution relied upon the evidence of PW 6
Lt Cdr A.K. Panchal, PW 8 Mr. Sandeep Sharaf, PW 9 Cdr Chikkara, PW 10 Cdr D.S.
Dahiya, PW 13 Lt Commander A.P. Singh, PW 24 Gopinath, PW 28 Capt S.S. Virk and
PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh, MD, Amber Aviation as well as documents Exhibits P22(b),
(e), (f), (k), (I), (j), (i), P36, P40, P41, P44, D-55(a), D-55(b), D56 and P65.
76. Learned counsel for the respondents contended that the fact that the quotations
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of M/s. Amber Aviation were forged was corroborated by the evidence of PW 7 Mr.
Sudarshan Vashist of Amber Aviation and PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh. When PW 7 was
shown Exhibit P22(i), he deposed that Exhibit x P22(i) was not from his company as
the name was written as “Amber Avijiation”. He also stated that the address shown in
Exhibit P22(i) was not of his office. Furthermore, the appellant put up the CST and the
forged quotations for the signature of the Board Members, wherein PW 13 Cdr A.P.
Singh and PW 10 Cdr D.S. Dahiya and the appellant were Members. PW 13 Lt Cdr. A.P.
Singh also corroborated the fact that CST and the quotations were brought to him
either by the appellant, who was the officer in-charge of skydiving team or one of the
sailors working in the skydiving team. PW 13 stated that at the time when he received
the quotations, the appellant had already signed the quotations. PW 10 also clarified
that as per the existing procedures in DAPSA, it was the responsibility of the
concerned Section Officer to put up the quotations to the Board and in this case, being
the officer in charge of skydiving cell, it was the responsibility of the appellant to put
up the quotations. Learned counsel for the respondents pointed out the abnormal
speed at which the entire process was done highlighted that, after sending tender
enquiry Exhibit P22(b) on 05.02.2007, the consequent actions of receiving of quotes,
opening of tenders and preparation of CST, everything was got done within just eight
days, flouting DPM guidelines. The CST was signed on 13.02.2007 and on the same
day, the letter asking for discount was signed by the appellant. The approval was
accorded by the competent authority on 14.02.2007. The appellant moved a file for
obtaining approval of the competent authority for the camp at Hissar for 50 hours of
air effort @ Rs. 13,230/- per hour and airfield charges @ Rs. 3,500/- per hour,
amounting to a total proposal of Rs. 7,06,500/-. As per the proposal on file, the hiring
of aircraft was to be done from Public Fund MH 800(g).
77. Learned counsel for the respondents further contended that, to generate
enough cash in hand in AA NPF, initially a loan of Rs. 2,00,000/- was taken from
INSCB and received in cash. He then relied on Exhibits P5 and R3 of Exhibit P40 (cash
book) to show the entry for drawing this amount from the bank by a self-cheque and
contra entry for crediting to the cash in hand. PW 28 Capt Virk verified Exhibit P40
cash account book and brought out that a total amount of Rs. 4,19,055/- was drawn
by the appellant in cash for hiring aircraft for conduct of skydiving camp at Hissar in
February 2007, as per which, (i) a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- was withdrawn in cash by
the appellant as payment for hiring of civil aircraft; (ii) a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- was
withdrawn in cash by the appellant being payment for hiring of civil aircraft; and (iii) a
sum of Rs. 19,055/- was withdrawn in cash towards final payment of air effort and
airfield charges to M/s. Amber Aviation. Stating so, learned counsel for the
respondents contended that it was the appellant who had withdrawn a sum of Rs.
4,19,055/- in cash from Exhibit P40 AA NPF Cash Account Book, which show that the
appellant was entrusted with the said sum of Rs. 4,19,055/- while he was carrying out
the duties of Deputy Director of Adventure (DDA) Physical Fitness and Sports Activities
(Aero Adventure) towards hiring of aircraft for Hissar Camp in February 2007. It was
thereafter that the appellant generated a false receipt of Rs. 4,00,000/- (Exhibit P36)
purportedly from “Amber Avajiaition India Private Limited” to show that an amount of
Rs. 4,00,000/- was received by M/s. Amber Aviation. Having withdrawn a sum of Rs.
4,19,055/- from the AA NPF, the appellant had to get the amount reimbursed from the
AA Public Fund and accordingly generated a false summary of expenditure (Exhibit
P22(m» and submitted it to PW 9 Cdr Chikkara. Therefore, according to learned
counsel, it was the appellant who signed Exhibit P22(m) and not PW 27 Lt Cdr
Karthikeyan. PW 9 Cdr Chikkara claimed to have made the payment to the appellant
vide Cheque No. 484517 dated 07.11.2007. Therefore, learned counsel for the
respondents contended that it is established, beyond doubt, that the entire amount of
Rs. 4,19,055/-, which was withdrawn from NPF for hiring of aircraft at Hissar, was
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reimbursed from NHQ Adventure Activity (Public Fund).
78. Mr. Gautam, learned counsel for the respondents further contended that as per
the proposal, the Skydiving Camp at Hissar was to commence on 16.02.2007 and after
obtaining approval of the competent authority, he paid a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- as
advance payment to Aviation India on 14.02.2011, which is clear from the evidence of
PW 8 Mr. Sandeep Sharaf, who stated that the appellant contacted Aviation India in
2007 telephonically with regard to the Hissar camp and thereafter came to the office
to discuss about the matter. In this regard, PW 8 Mr. Sandeep Sharaf stated that the
responsibility for providing aircraft was given by the Navy to Aviation India and
accordingly Aviation India had further contacted Amber Aviation for providing the
aircraft at Hissar. For this camp, a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- was received by him from
the Navy in cash and a receipt was given to the appellant and was also accounted for
in Aviation India's bank account. This was corroborated by Exhibit D55(a) receipt
proved through CW 2 Awdesh Sharma. The amount of Rs. 2,00,000/- received as
advance was paid by Aviation India to Amber Aviation through a cheque, after
deducting TDS. This fact is supported by PW 8 Mr. Sandeep Sharaf and PW 35 Mr.
Jasveer Singh, who stated that his company did not provide any quotations to the
Navy. He also stated in his evidence that Exhibit P22(i) is a forged document. The
learned counsel also drew our attention to the statement of CW 2 Mr. Avdesh Kumar
Sharma, who authenticated Exhibit D55(a), the receipt for Rs. 2,00,000/- paid by
Navy to Aviation India, which proved the statement of PW 8 about receipt of fund from
the Navy. Concluding his arguments on Charge No. 1, learned counsel for the
respondents submitted that the appellant had drawn a sum of Rs. 4,19,055/- in cash
and the evidence thereto has proved, beyond doubt, that he had paid only Rs.
2,00,000/- to the agency/vendor concerned and misappropriated the remaining
amount of Rs. 2,19,055/- for his personal use, thus the finding of guilt arrived at by
the CM is to be upheld.
79. On Charge No. 1, as against the submissions on behalf of the respondents,
learned senior counsel for the appellant submitted that the entire allegation is based
upon the document Exhibit P22(i) quotation and Exhibit P36 cash receipt, which were
disowned by PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh and the defence of the appellant is that he had
no dealing with Amber Aviation and that neither the amount was entrusted to him nor
did he have any control over it. The appellant was the DDAPSA during the period.
Quotations were invited for the conduct of Sky Diving Camp, Delhi Area. PW 8 Mr.
Sandeep Sharaf is a witness discredited by the Board of Inquiry, which had
recommended debarring of his company. He supplied four quotations, including that of
Amber Aviation in a sealed envelope, which is clear from Question Nos. 1149, 1150
and 1151 at page 264 of the CM proceedings. The appellant was also part of the three
members Board nominated to open the tender document and to make a comparative
statement (CST) along with the Presiding Officer PW 10 Cdr R.S. Dahiya and PW 13
Cdr A.P. Singh. PWs 10 and 13 admitted in their evidence during cross examination, in
contradiction to what they had deposed during chief examination, that the quotations
were in sealed envelope and there was no deviation from the standard practice, which
is evident from the answers to Question Nos. 1558, 1563, 1564, 1565 and 1566 at
page 331 and Question Nos. 1283 to 1296 at page 293 of the C.M. proceedings. The
CST document was approved by PW 28 Capt Virk (PDAPSA) on 14.02.2007 prior to
placing the supply order for an approximately 50 hours of flying @ 13,230 per hour,
air plane rental charges and allied air field charge @ Rs. 3,500/- for the 12 days usage
totalling to Rs. 7,06,500/-, which is clear from the file noting in Exhibit D41. It is
clearly evident from the answers to Question Nos. 4851 to 4853 regarding the tender
process that no one in the entire process, from calling for quotations up to approving
the expenditure, had any observation or doubt on the documentation or the process it
was executed. Further, the CDA (Navy), Mumbai, which audited the document, had
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not raised any objections either on dates and numbers, probably it had the invoice and
receipt, in the document set supplied by Cdr Chikkara, however, the important part of
which was being withheld by the prosecution (Question No. 1196 at page 277). The
witness also clarified that Exhibit P22(d) was faxed to the number shown in Exhibit
P22(d) from the originator of the quotation to Mr. Sharaf's office and further handed
over to DAPSA/NHQ.
80. Learned counsel for the appellant claimed that the service providers were arm-
twisted by the prosecution to indulge in false deposition, otherwise they would have
been reported against for fraudulently carrying out commercial activities when they
were not authorised to do so, leading to closure of their academy. It is for this reason
that Amber Aviation, through Aviation India, gave quotations on documents with
flawed/spurious letterheads, so that in case of any investigation, the documents' origin
could be denied. Learned counsel contended that Amber Aviation unauthorisedly
indulged in commercial activities with the Navy though it was running only a student
training academy which was purportedly meant only for ‘educational’ purposes. As per
Government policy, they were not authorised to put in commercial activities. PW 35
Mr. Jasveer Singh admitted that Col S.P. Khanna, who wrote the letter dated
14.02.2007 to DGCA, is their adviser (see Question No. 3939 at page 833). Learned
counsel further submitted that, accordingly, a proposal in the NHQ Adventure Activity,
Non Public Fund (NPF) for an advance amount of Rs. 2,00,000/- was initiated on
15.02.2007. Upon approval by the Competent Financial Authority (CFA) on
21.02.2007, in this case PDAPSA, a bearer cheque was issued which PW 27 Cdr S.
Karthikeyan (Administrative Officer of the Camp) admittedly collected and encashed
on 21.02.2007. This proposal, evidenced by Exhibit P50, was converted ex post facto
as a proposal from Adventure Activity (NPF) by PW 27 Lt. Cdr. Karthikeyan vide entry
in the register at Serial No. 276 dated 28.03.2007, evidenced by Exhibit P41. Further,
DW 3 Karan Singh, a Logistics Department Sailor (Question Nos. 4893, 4894, 4888
and 4860). To a pointed question (Q. No. 4860), “How was accounting done in DAPSA
with reference to sky diving team and who used to prepare summary of expenditure?
the answer was “Normally Lt Cdr Kartikeyan, who was looking after administrative
work. Normally Lt Cdr Kartikeyan used to come before the team and he used to go
later and used to do all the pending work and formalities”. Another contention of the
learned counsel for the appellant is that the answer given to the specific question,
“You said that Lt Cdr Kartikeyan used to draw advance. Have you personally seen him
draw advance? The answer given by the witness was that “Yes, I don't remember
when”. When the CM asked, “You have mentioned that Lt Cdr Kartikeyan used to draw
advance by writing his initial followed by Cdr Rajesh making proposal in proposal
register?”, the answer given by the witness was, “He made initial in the proposal
register, and sometime I made initial in proposal register.” (Q. No. 4893). Again, when
the CM asked another question showing Exhibit P41, “Where did you put initial when
you were in DAPSA?’, the witness answered that, “Initial is not there, however, Lt Cdr
Kartikeyan has made proposal number 276 dated 28.11.06, but not in my
presence.” (Q. No. 4894). Learned counsel contends that all these would make it clear
that PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan (being the Administrative Officer) had played the
predominant role towards sanction of Rs. 4,00,000/- for the above camp and he also
operated the financial documents in DAPSA. Furthermore, if PW 27 Lt Cdr. Kartikeyan
knew that this transaction was on a fraudulent document, the question that arises is,
why would heex post facto haveregularised the same at a later date. If Question Nos.
3207, 3208, 3209 and 3210 of the CM proceedings are referred to, it would bring out
that PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan also agreed that the Aircraft Company was paid cash.
It would be relevant if we quote Question Nos. 3207 to 3210 and the answers given
thereto. They are:
Q. 3207 Am I correct that in February 2007, the Aircraft firm was paid money in
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cash?
A. I do not remember.
Q. 3208 I show you your deposition in Question-Answer 113(b), you have stated
in February 2007 amount was paid in cash, am I correct?
A. I have stated so in SOI.
Q. 3209 How much was the amount?
A. I am not sure around Rs. 2,00,000/-
Q. 3210 I put it to you that it was Rs. 4,00,000/- and drawn by you?
A. I have stated that I have drawn the money of Rs. 4,00,000/-.
81. Learned counsel contends that, on examination of the aforesaid questions and
answers, it would be clear that PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan was the first person who
knew that cash advance was provided to the airplane operator, as he was the one who
took money from the bank on 21.02.2007 and handed it over to the representative of
the operator.
82. Furthermore, learned counsel avers that it is crystal clear from the evidence of
PW 32 (Lt Anand Revi), PW 36 (Senthil Kumar), PW 37 (Roger Bannister), PW 38
(Ashish Ray) and DW 3 (Karan Singh) that PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan, being the
Administrative officer, dealt with payments and accounting and encashed both the
bearer cheques and carried cash to Hissar on 21.02.2007 for disbursement to the
vendor company/representative. It is further clear from Exhibit P36 that the same
person, under the instruction of PW 8 Mr. Sandeep Sharaf supplied the quotation
Exhibit P22(i), received money from PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan and gave receipt
Exhibit P36 on 21.02.2007.
83. Further, learned counsel has contended that if Exhibit D52, vide which money
was paid to Amber Aviation by Aviation India on 20.02.2007, is referred to, it would
clearly indicate that the camp was nowhere near completion on 20.02.2007 when the
exact invoice amount was paid by Aviation India to Amber Aviation, as the camp
continued till 03.03.2007. Also, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan admittedly collected the
money on 21.02.2007 for an activity which culminated on 03.03.2007, for which
Exhibit D52 was raised on 03.04.2007. Going through the evidence of PW 28 Capt
Virk, it is evident that PW 27 Lt Cdr S. Karthikeyan was nominated by him as Admin
Officer and hence the bearer cheques were handed over to him by his office, he being
the controlling officer of the funds (Q 3286 page 695).
84. Learned counsel has averred that PW 7 Sudharshan Vashist, a representative of
Amber Aviation, has deposed that his company did not deal directly with the Navy. PW
35 Mr. Jasveer Singh, QCM Manager also deposed that the company had never
undertaken charter flights (Q. No. 1056 to 1058 at page 253 of CM proceedings). He
also stated that the company could not undertake commercial activities as Pilot
Training Academies were debarred to do so, lest their licence could be
cancelled/forfeited. Clearly, it is for this reason that Amber Aviation did not have a non
-scheduled operator's permit and it did not possess service tax number. Further, their
commercial department in Dehradun prepared tenders and PW 7 had nothing to do
with the tenders (Q Nos. 1012, 1014, 1018, 1019 and 1020 page 247/248). He further
deposed that he was not even consulted for the same since it was the Accounts
Department which received the payments, receipts, etc. We find no one from the
Commercial/Accounts Department has deposed on this issue.
85. Learned counsel highlights that, all along, the stand taken by the appellant is
that he was not the custodian of public funds and that the custodian of the public fund
was PW 9 Cdr Chikara and that the amount of Rs. 4,00,000/- was withdrawn by PW 27
Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan. It is that fund which was withdrawn and part of which was alleged
to have been misappropriated by the appellant. Further, the amount of Rs. 4,19,055/-
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was reimbursed on the basis of receipts/invoices and other documents. It is also his
case that it was only PW 27 Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan who had withdrawn the amount and
the onus of proving otherwise lies on him only. Further, there is no proof that the
appellant had misused this money or used it for his personal needs. On going through
the evidence, we find that vital aspects regarding clearing of funds after the approval
of PDAPSA, which are available in the summary of evidence, seem to have been
withheld by the prosecution. One of such aspects, which tantamount to withholding of
vital evidence by the prosecution, is the evidence of PW 9 Cdr Chikkara, the Accounts
Officer of the Public Fund, who reimbursed money from the public fund to the
respective non-public funds on receipt of complete set of documents in original. He
has said that he, in turn, had sent the papers to CDA (Navy), Mumbai for audit. He
had confirmed receipt in original of Amber Aviation D/15/12108, based on which he
cleared the funds after the approval of PDAPSA.
86. On going through the evidence of PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer, it is evident that
paying cash advance in adventure activities was a well-practised norm by the Navy's
adventure cell and that cash advance was paid through NPF of various sections. Once
the activity was completed, the cash was reimbursed to the respective NPFs.
87. The charge against the appellant is that of committing offence of criminal
breach of trust. In order to constitute this offence, it is incumbent upon the
prosecution to prove that:
i) The appellant was entrusted with or having dominion over Rs. 4,19,055/-.
ii) He dishonestly misappropriated or converted this amount to his own use.
88. As per the prosecution case, a sanction of Rs. 4,19,055/- was accorded by the
competent authority after processing the documents from the respective firms and the
same was put up for the perusal and approval of Competent Financial Authority (CFA)
which was granted on 14.02.2007. Post approval, a proposal was initiated on the non-
public fund proposal register Ex. P-41 on 15.02.2007 for a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/-.
Admittedly, PW 27 Lt. Cdr. Karthikeyan had withdrawn an amount of Rs. 4,00,000/-
from non-public funds of PDAPSA i.e. Rs. 2,00,000/- from INSCB non-public fund and
Rs. 2,00,000/- from Adventure Activity Fund (non-public) on 21.02.2007. He was
issued bearer cheques which he encashed at Delhi on 21.02.2007 and went to Hissar.
Although he claimed to have handed over the total amount of Rs. 4,00,000/- to
appellant at Hissar Camp in his cabin but the CM failed to take note of the evidence of
DW 1 Lt Cdr Birajdar, who shared his cabin with Lt Cdr. Karthikeyan, that he did not
see PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan paying any amount to the appellant in his cabin, as per
the latter's testimony. It has not come out from the evidence of PW 27 Lt Cdr
Karthikeyan that the appellant had misappropriated the money which he claims to
have handed over to him. We also find substance in the contention of learned counsel
for the appellant that if there was any malpractice on the part of the appellant, PW 27
should have informed his superior officers immediately, but “he slept like Rip Van
Winkle and got up from slumber at his own leisure after two years”, which makes it
difficult to take his evidence at face value.
89. PW 7 Sandeep Sharaf agreed that he had submitted the quotations and that his
company used the aircraft of Amber Aviation for skydiving camp at Hissar. His
company contacted Amber Aviation and it was he who had contacted Amber Aviation,
which makes it clear that the assignment to provide aircraft was given to Amber
Aviation and his company had paid a sum of Rs. 1,96,000/- by cheque after deducting
TDS to Amber Aviation. He further admitted in Exhibit P22 based on fax number
printed by the fax machine and deposed that on top some other company number is
written. He agreed that Gp Capt Sajal Datt Verma had worked with him and that it
could be his printed number on fax.
90. PW 7 Sudarshan Vashist, representative of Amber Aviation admitted that his
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company hired the aircraft to Navy through Sandeep Sharaf of Aviation India and
there was no written contract. Although he disowned receipt Ex. P22 of Rs. 2,00,000/-
in cash by stating that it did not contain his signatures, however, he admitted that his
company received a sum of Rs. 1,90,000/- after TDS deduction.
91. CW 2 Mr. Avdhesh Kumar, on perusal of Ex. D-55 i.e. receipt of Rs. 2,00,000/-
from the Navy, deposed that the receipt is dated 14.02.2007 as made in his system
but the amount of Rs. 2,00,000/- received by his company could be before 14.02.2007
also. Further cheque Ex. D-56 for Rs. 1,95,512/- dated 20.02.2007 was deposited in
the bank on 20.02.2007 and as per Ex. D-55(b) the amount was debited from the
account of Aviation India on 22.02.2007. He further stated that Ex. C-1 payment
voucher dated 20.02. 2007 after deducting Rs. 4,488/- a sum of Rs. 1,95,512/-
towards TDS had been credited to Amber Aviation through a cheque Ex. D-56 of ICICI
Bank on 20.02.2007. Admittedly, PW-27 Karthikeyan had withdrawn Rs. 4,00,000/-
from two non-public funds of Rs. 2,00,000/- each on 21.02.2007. On same day,
according to him, he came from Delhi to Hissar in a taxi. If the amount was withdrawn
by him only on 21.02.2007, how could Aviation India receive Rs. 2,00,000/- from
Navy on or before 14.02.2007. That being so, genuineness of receipt Ex. D-55 issued
by Aviation India to Navy for receiving cash on 14.02.2007 by Sandeep Sharaf, cheque
Ex. D-56 of Aviation India and HDFC deposit slip becomes doubtful. For reasons best
known to prosecution, copy of cheques from NHQ Adventure Advertising nonpublic
fund and that of INSCB non-public fund for the sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- each issued to
PW-27 Karthikeyan, payment vouchers, extracts of cash account book of INSCB has
not been filed.
92. For the same reason, Ex. D-52 invoice dated 03.04.2007 of Amber Aviation
raised on Aviation India raises suspicion as in normal course of business, first invoice
is raised on completion of activity and based on the same, payment is made.
Skydiving camp concluded only on 03.03.2007 and invoice could have been raised
only after 04.03.2007, but the payment has been purportedly made by Aviation India
to Amber Aviation prior to this date.
93. Further, Form 26AS (Ex C2) towards tax deduction also does not help the
prosecution because Amber Aviation did not have a service tax number. Even
otherwise, according to Sandeep Sharaf payment of Rs. 2,00,000/- was received by
him in cash from Navy which he handed over to his accounts department and then
paid the amount to Amber Aviation by cheque after deducting TDS. However, Form
16A was never produced before the CM.
94. PW 28 Captain S.S. Virk, PDAPSA testified that vide entry No. 247 in proposal
register Ex. P-41 he approved Rs. 2,00,000/- on 15.02.2007 to be paid to Amber
Aviation. He also approved final payment of Rs. 4,19,055/- for hiring of aircraft vide
proposal entry No. 25 dated 09.03.2007. In cross examination he further stated that
self-cheques for both the proposals for Rs. 2,00,000/- from two different non-public
funds were to be made for the service provider as advance or they were to be paid in
cash. He further testified that he had no doubt about payment of Rs. 4,19,055/- to
service provider as he had full faith in his officers. On perusal of Ex. P-40, cash
account book of Adventure activities non-public fund, he testified that vide entry No.
6, a sum of Rs. 2,00,000/- was charged off as payment for hiring of the aircraft.
Entries No. 6 to 7 dated 21.02.2007 for Rs. 2,00,000/- each and entry No. 3 dated
18.12.2007 shows a total amount of Rs. 4,19,055/-. According to this witness, fullest
details would be available in Branch Memorandum File (BM file). However, same was
not produced by prosecution by stating that the same was missing.
95. Furthermore, PW 9 Cdr Chikkara stated that a payment of Rs. 4,19,055/- was
made from his public fund to NPF for adventure activity against Receipt
No.D/15/12108 dated 02.03.2007. This receipt, however, was withheld by the
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prosecution. He also stated in his evidence that approval in principle was granted and
the payment was collected by Oi/c or 2IC or one of the sailors and complete set of
financial documents were put up to Oi/c Public Fund. It has also come out during cross
examination that, for any adventure activity, be it sky diving or some other activity,
advance is required to be paid for mobilisation of concerned firm company/service
provider, booking of site, etc. and the aircraft in adventure activity this amount is
required for that purpose. Further, where the advance is required to be paid, it is
sanctioned from one of the NPFs available with the Directorate and later refunded by
the public fund to the said NPF. Referring to Exhibit P22 payment voucher dated
07.11.2007, the witness deposed that he had paid the amount only when the
competent authority proved the same vide Exhibit P42 proposal register. It was duly
proved by PDAPSA and confirmed even charge of the amount of Rs. 4,19,055/- from
his cash account book Exhibit P44 after the approval of the competent authority.
96. In our opinion, whereas clear and unimpeachable evidence is necessary to
convict a person, however, going by the evidence adduced by the prosecution, such
evidence is lacking in this case. The prosecution evidence is inconsistent and there are
material discrepancies in the evidence of the prosecution witnesses. Therefore, the
appellant is entitled to the benefit of doubt. He is, accordingly, acquitted of this
charge.
Charge No. 17:
97. Let us now consider Charge No. 17. The allegation against the appellant in this
charge is that, between 25.03.2008 and 31.03.2008, while performing the duty of
Deputy Director of Adventure, Physical Fitness and Sports Activities (Aero Adventure)
and as team leader of the Skydiving Camp at Karnal, he claimed an extra amount of
Rs. 2,00,000/- by submitting forged documents to show that a sum of Rs. 3,51,750/-
was paid to Amber Aviation when the actual consideration was only Rs. 1,51,750/-.
The CM found the appellant guilty of Charge No. 17 mainly relying upon the evidence
of PW 5 R.S. Royer, PW6 Lt Cdr A.K. Panchal, PW 7 Sudhershan Vashist of Amber
Aviation, PW 9 Cdr Chikkara, PW 23 Mahendra Kumar Bhargawa, PW 24 Mr. Gopinath,
PW 28 Capt S.S. Virk, PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer and PW 35 Mr. Jasveer Singh, Amber
Aviation as well as the documentary evidence, Exhibits P11A, P11B, P18, P19, P20,
P26, P27, P28, P29, P30, P31, P32, P33, P34, P35, P43 and P58.
98. Mr. Sukhjinder Singh, learned counsel has vehemently contended before us
that Section 464 IPC clearly states that a person is said to make a false document
when it is done with dishonest and fraudulent intention, when a part of document is
made with the intention of causing It to be believed that such a document was made,
signed, sealed, executed, transmitted or affixed by or by the authority of a person
whom or by whose authority, the maker knows that it was not made, signed, sealed,
executed or affixed by the said authority. Moreover, if the maker, without a lawful
authority, cancelled or otherwise altered the said document after the document was
made. Only under these circumstances it is said a document is made falsely.
Furthermore, if two views are possible and one of them gives rise to suspicion only, as
distinguished from grave suspicion, the CM will be empowered to discharge the
appellant and at this stage, it is not necessary to see whether the trial will end in
conviction or acquittal. According to the learned counsel, it is not the case of the
prosecution that the appellant had altered any part of the document nor is it the case
of the prosecution that the signatures on the document purported to be of an authority
knowing that it was not made, signed, sealed, executed or affixed by the said
authority. Hence the prosecution has failed to make out a case that the appellant had
made a false document. Since there is no evidence to show that the appellant had
made a false document, it cannot be said that the appellant had committed the
offence of forgery under Section 463 IPC. It is in this background that we have to
approach the charge levelled against the appellant.
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99. Going by the records, we find that during the relevant period i.e. from
25.03.2008 to 31.03.2008, the appellant was neither the DDAPSA nor the team leader
as he was appointed on-board INS Sindhuraj (submarine) as its Engineer Officer
(HoD). He was DDAPSA only till 21.01.2008 and it was during that period, he had
invited quotations from certain aviation companies for the conduct of a Skydiving
Camp as per the approval of the APSO viz. CPS/NHQ, as is evident from Exhibit D-41.
The tenders were opened as part of tender opening by the Board and as per the laid
down procedure and the CST was made, which was approved by the Board and the
PDAPSA. Thereafter, the appellant issued a letter seeking discount to the L1 firm.
Subsequently, on 21.01.2008, he handed over his duties to DW 1 Lt Cdr M.V. Birajdar.
Furthermore, as per the PDAPSA memo, a Board of Officers was nominated to open the
tender and make a CST, in which the appellant was one of the Board members along
with PW 6A. Panchal and PW 29 Capt V.G. Iyer. During examination in chief, both
these witnesses had deposed that the quotations were brought to them in an open
condition, subsequently, during cross examination, they admitted having brought the
quotations to them in sealed covers and were opened by the Board only. Although,
Exhibit P27 quotation was disowned both by PW 35 Mr. Jasbir Singh and PW 7 Mr.
Sudarshan Vashist, however, no witness suggested that the appellant had doctored or
manipulated this document. Furthermore, the appellant had no role in the
documentation subsequent to 21.01.2008 as he was posted out to an operational
Submarine until called upon as Chief Instructor (not as Oi/C or DDAPSA) to conduct a
Skydiving Camp as per Exhibit P24. All the documents, including the offer of discount
from Amber Aviation, receipts and invoices were submitted through PW 27 Lt Cdr.
Karthikeyan to DW 1 Lt Cdr M.V. Birajdar, who succeeded the appellant.
100. Viewed thus, we are of the opinion that the allegation made in Charge No. 17
has not been proved beyond doubt. We find that the prosecution failed to prove that
the appellant had committed the offence under Charge No. 17.
Charge No. 11:
101. In this, the appellant has been charged with the offence under Section 420 of
the Penal Code read with Section 77(2) of the Navy Act. The CM found the appellant
guilty of having misappropriated an amount of Rs. 22,500/- by dishonestly inducing
the Indian Naval Sports Control Board and as Team Leader, received the said amount
on behalf of Lt Cdr S. Karthikeyan, S. Borah and G.M. Rao, which he did not disburse.
102. The evidence of PW 10 shows that based on Proposal No. 51 on Ex. P50 INSCB
proposal register a sum of Rs. 52,500/- was paid to the appellant towards ex-gratia
payment of Rs. 7,500/- each for the following personnel of INSDT:
(i) Lt Cdr N. Rajesh
(ii) Lt Cdr M.R. Birajdar
(iii) Lt Cdr S. Karthikeyan
(iv) B.R. Kumar, POWTR
(v) G.M. Rao, LME
(vi) A. Borah, LME
(vii) A.K. Ray, LRO.
103. He further stated that the payment of Rs. 52,500/- was made to the appellant
through the self-cheque bearing the number 440201 dated 24.08.2007. The self-
cheque was personally collected by the appellant who signed the receipt of the same
on Ext. 51. The fact that the money was actually debited from the INSCB was
substantiated by Ext. 44 INSCB cash account book introduced by PW 9 vide Item No.
22 dated 24.08.2007 where a payment has been made towards ex-gratia to the
skydiving team of seven persons of an amount of Rs. 52,500/-. PW 28 testified that he
had approved the proposal for paying an ex-gratia amount of Rs. 7,500/- from INSCB
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to each of the above-mentioned participant of INSDT for participating in skydiving
championship at Chicago, USA.
104. The crucial question, however, is whether there was any dishonest intention
on the part of the appellant for inducing the Indian Naval Sports Control Board in
receiving the money on behalf of participants of skydiving championship and not
disbursing the same to the other members of the team. It is pertinent to note that
although the amount was received on behalf of seven persons, including the appellant,
but the charge is qua only three persons viz. (i) Lt. Cdr. Karthikeyan, (ii) S. Borah and
(iii) G.M. Rao. The obvious inference is that the other three persons have not made
any claim for their amounts, which substantiates the fact that there was an agreement
among the seven members of the team to utilise the entire ex-gratia amount of Rs.
7,500/- per person for promotions/publicising Sky Diving Team activities, through
preparation of promotional video and arranging for souvenirs.
105. One of the participants Lt. Cdr. Mahesh Birajdar appeared as a defence
witness (DW1) and deposed that the promotional video documentation for the INSDT
was made through Lt. Cdr. Karthikeyan. The expenditure towards this promotional
video was paid out of the ex-gratia amount sanctioned to the team @ Rs. 7,500/-. All
the team members felt the need to make T-shirt for the support staff and they all
consented for making documentary video for skydiving activities and T-shirts out of ex
-gratia amount. The ex-gratia amount was the source of fund for making the said
documentary, T-shirts and some tie pins and other mementoes. During cross
examination, he testified that all the team members had consented for the same. To a
suggestion that when the Government funds were available why the same were not
used for this purpose, he deposed that getting the funds from the Government is a
long drawn affair hence all the team members voluntarily agreed to the above proposal
inasmuch as Lt Cdr Karthikeyan (PW-27), who also handled the funds of the team, got
the video documentary made and designed the T-shirt to be manufactured by a
private company.
106. Lt Cdr Karthikeyan (PW-27) deposed that the team was granted ex-gratia
amount which he did not receive. However, in cross examination, he admitted that a
promotional video was made by him under private arrangement, payment of which
was made by the appellant. He admitted that he did not make any complaint/report to
any authority, whatsoever, on return from USA about non-receipt of the ex-gratia
amount.
107. Surprisingly, PW 4 A. Borah deposed that only during the Bol, did he come to
know that he was entitled to ex-gratia amount of Rs. 7,500/- which he did not get. He
admitted that he did not confront appellant either during the Bol or during the CM
about his ex-gratia amount by stating that he had no occasion to meet the appellant
in the last 3 years or communicate with him. He further deposed that he did not follow
up or made any complaint through his Commanding Officer. The testimony of both
these witnesses Lt Cdr Karthikeyan and A. Borah have to be scrutinized with much
caution, keeping in view the fact that both of them were reportedly expelled from the
sky diving team with regard to a disciplinary incident in France, when the team had
gone there in August 2008 for World Parachuting Championship 2008. The other two
witnesses G.M. Rao POME and B.R. Kumar, POWTR were not examined by the
prosecution.
108. Viewed thus, we are unable to uphold the argument of the learned counsel for
the respondents that the appellant had intention to cause financial loss to the
Government or the Indian Navy. In the circumstances, the CM went wrong in finding
the appellant guilty of Charge No. 11. We see no reason to uphold the findings of the
CM in regard to this charge and the appellant deserves acquittal. We hold so.
Charge Nos. 13 to 15:
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109. Charge No. 13 relates to fraudulent TA/DA claim, in that the appellant claimed
(i) taxi fare paid from Los Angeles Airport, USA to Perris Valley and back on
12.03.2007 and 30.03.2007 respectively amounting to Rs. 24,808/- and (ii) taxi fare
paid from Perris Valley, USA to Eloy, USA and back on 20.03.2007 and 26.03.2007
respectively amounting to Rs. 34,554/-, when the claims in respect of the aforesaid
journey were settled by Principal Director of Adventure, Physical Fitness and Sports
Activities based on Team Leader's statement of expenditure towards incidental
expenditure duly countersigned by Embassy of India, USA, thereby committed an
offence punishable under Section 60(A) of the Navy Act, 1957.
110. Charge No. 14 relates to fraudulent TA/DA claim, in that the appellant claimed
(i) taxi fares paid from Los Angeles Airport, USA to Perris Valley and back on
14.07.2007 and 08.08.2007 respectively amounting to Rs. 23,809/-; and (ii) taxi fare
paid from Perris Valley, USA to Eloy, USA and back on 23.07.2007 and 29.07.2007
respectively amounting to Rs. 31,198/-, when the claims in respect of the aforesaid
journey were already settled by the Embassy of India, USA, thereby committed an
offence punishable under Section 60(A) of the Navy Act, 1957.
111. Charge No. 15 is regarding the fraudulent TA/DA claim, in that the appellant
claimed (i) taxi fares paid from Los Angeles Airport, USA to Perris Valley and back on
25.08.2007 and 03.09.2007 respectively amounting to Rs. 23,519/-; and (ii) taxi fare
paid from Perris Valley, USA to Eloy, USA and back on 04.09.2007 and 21.09.2007
respectively amounting to Rs. 30,818/-, when the claims in respect of the aforesaid
journey were already settled by the Embassy of India, USA thereby committed an
offence punishable under Section 60(A) of the Navy Act, 1957.
112. So far as these three charges are concerned, the common ground taken by
learned counsel for the appellant is that these claims were not raised by the appellant
and that his signatures were forged, which is proved by the report of the handwriting
expert Pt. Ashok Kashyap and further that the claims did not contain his signatures
and they got passed by PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan.
113. The submission of learned counsel for the appellant that these claims were not
made by him is mainly based on the opinion of DW-2 Pt. Ashok Kashyap, a
handwriting expert. It is well settled that science of handwriting is not a perfect
science. Therefore, the evidence of a handwriting expert is required to be received with
great caution. In Banarsi Store v. President of the Union of India (AIR 1953 All 318),
the Court held:
The testimony of an expert is usually considered to be of light value. Since, they
are proverbially biased in favour of the side which calls them. So evidence of an
expert should be approached with considerable caution specially where much
depends upon this evidence. The opinion of experts are not binding upon the judge.
The weights due to their testimony is a matter to be determined by the judge and it
will be proportionate to the soundness of the reasons. A Tribunal should not accept
the mere untested opinions of experts in preference to direct and positive evidence
as to facts. Evidence given by the handwriting expert can never be conclusive
because it is after all opinion evidence.
114. Again, In Shashi Kumar Banerjee v. Subodh Kumar Banerjee (AIR 1964 SC
529), it was observed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court thus:
Expert evidence as to handwriting is an opinion evidence and it can rarely, if ever
take the place of substantive evidence. Before acting on such evidence it is usual to
see if it is corroborated either by clear, direct evidence or by circumstantial
evidence. If the probabilities are against the expert opinion it is of no value.
115. There are umpteen decisions to the same effect that what a handwriting
expert can give is only his opinion and, therefore, since the expert has been procured
by the defence, his testimony requires to be scrutinized with care and requires
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corporation.
116. DW2 clearly stated in his report that it is not possible to conclude with
absolute confidence that these signatures are not appended by the accused as the
document have not been produced in original and only photocopies have been
compared. Moreover, the specimen signatures provided for comparison were chosen by
the appellant and thus their veracity itself is not well established.
117. As regards the reliance placed by learned counsel for the appellant on Para 53
of Navy Order (Special) 02/2002, which provides “security and maintenance of
document of evidence, service and civilian personnel are not to alter, damage, destroy
or modify any charts, books, documents, stores, equipments machinery or such other
things which may be required prior to or during or after BOI”, as per Ex. P64 (a)-(d)
produced by PW 21 Mr. Rakesh Kumar destruction was carried out as per regulation in
force, where in all claims have to be retained by the CDA for a maximum period of 3
years and before carrying out destruction of the documents, approval was taken.
118. It has come in the statement of Naval Attache, PW 34 R. Adm. Murugesan
that he received Ex. P79(b), a fax message dated 17.03.2007 from the appellant who
was the team leader, requesting payment towards' accommodation at Perris and
Arizona and Transportation of team members, parachutes and accessories, at both
places and to Arizona and back. The team leader had enfaxed Ex. P79(c), an invoice
purportedly of Perris valley skydiving, claiming an amount of US $ 11640/- which
included an amount of US $ 1500/- for transportation to/from Arizona. Based on this
fax, he made a note Ex. P79(a) for payment of the amount of US $ 11640/- to the
account of PVAS and the same was wire transferred to PVAS by the chancery.
119. PW 34 further stated that he received a fax message dated 26.03.2007 Ex.
P80(m) from the appellant requesting payment of incidental and miscellaneous
charges amounting to US $ 3231.92/- as per a list attached at P 80(n). In the list, the
appellant had claimed an amount of US $ 400 for taxi charges from LAX airport to
Perris Valley, US $ 375 for taxi charges from Perris Valley to LAX airport and US $
332.06 for fuel charges.
120. As stated by PW-34, due to paucity of time to make the payment in USA, he
generated a letter Ex. P80(a) based on team leaders fax and addressed it to PDAPSA
for payment of the incidental charges in India. Along with the letter, he attached a
fresh statement of expenditure after auditing the bills forwarded by the appellant
wherein he had listed down the same expenditure projected by the team leader, but
individual bill wise, to avoid any confusion he also amplified that the taxi charges
claimed was for 6 personnel so as to substantiate the large sum of US $ 400/- claimed
and to prevent any duplication of claims for the same travel. He allowed the amount
claimed by the appellant for the return taxi fare from Perris to LAX Airport but stated
that the receipts of the expenditure were to be submitted by the team leader on
completion of the journey. He also mentioned that the fuel charges of US $ 332.06/-
was for road journey from Perris to Eloy, AZ as the transport charges of the team were
already being paid by the EOI as per Ex. P79 (c). Total amount paid for the teams
travel was US $ 1822.06/- which included US $ 1500/- paid as per Ex. P79 (c) and US
$ 332.06/- as per P80(b).
121. He further stated that as per Exhibit P80(b), countersigned statement of
expenditure forwarded to PDAPSA, the Eol had authorised a payment of US $ 400/- for
taxi charges from Los Angeles Airport to Perris Valley, US $ 322.06 towards fuel
charges during the road journey from Perris to Eloy, AZ and US $ 375/- for taxi
charges from Perris Valley to Los Angeles Airport as claimed by the team leader in his
fax dated 26.03.2007 at Exhibits P80(m) and (n).
122. PW 34 R Adm Murugesan has categorically stated in his evidence that he
received Exhibit P76(b) fax message dated 19.07.2007 from the appellant requesting
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payment towards accommodation and transportation of team members and
parachutes and accessories at Perris and to Arizona and back. The appellant had sent
Exhibit P76(c) invoice purportedly of Perris Valley Skydiving claiming an amount of US
$ 14,160/-, which included an amount of US $ 15,000/- for transportation to/from
Arizona. PW 34 then made Exhibit P76(a) note for payment of the amount of US $
14,160/- to the personal bank account of the appellant and the same was wire
transferred to his account by the Chancery. Thereafter on 06.08.2007, it was deposed
by PW 34 that he had received Exhibit P76(c) fax message from the appellant
requesting for payment of incidental and miscellaneous charges amounting to US $
5,669/- as per Exhibit P78(d) list attached therewith, wherein he had claimed an
amount of US $ 530/- towards taxi charges of 02 cabs from LAX airport to Perris Valley
and an amount of US $ 425/- towards taxi charges from Perris Valley to LAX Airport
and US $ 360/- towards fuel charges. After auditing the bills forwarded by the
appellant, he made a note Ex. 78(a) and (b) for payment of the amount of US $ 5664/
- to the personal bank account of the appellant and the same was wire transferred to
his account by chancery. The fact that payment of incidental expenditure incurred by
the team leader was made by the Embassy of India at USA stands corroborated from
detention certificate Ex. D-11.
123. PW 34 R Adm Murugesan further stated that he had received a fax message,
Exhibit P88(c), on 29.10.2007 from the appellant requesting for payment of incidental
and miscellaneous charges amounting to US $ 8,243.91 as per Exhibit P88(d) list
attached thereto. In the said list, the appellant had claimed an amount of US $ 485
towards taxi charges of two taxis from LAX Airport to Perris Valley for seven persons,
US $ 440 towards taxi charges of two taxis from Perris Valley to Los Angeles Airport for
seven personnel, US $ 565/- towards taxi charges of two taxis from Chicago O'Hare
Airport to Skydive Drop Zone to O'Hare Airport for seven personnel. It has also come
out from his evidence that since the payment could not be made in USA as the
appellant (team leader) was in India, he made Exhibit P88(a) letter based on the team
leader's fax and addressed it to PDAPSA for payment of the incidental charges in
India. Along with the letter, he attached a fresh statement of expenditure after
auditing the bills forwarded by the appellant, wherein he had corrected certain
expenditures projected by the appellant and authorised US $ 8,248.29 for payment to
the appellant. This fresh statement of expenditure was duly counter-signed by PW 34
so that the team leader could later append his signature on the same page before
claiming the amount in India and the same was made by the appellant, as is evident
from Exhibit P88(b).
124. The fact that the claim for TA/DA as per charge 13 was made stand proved by
PW21 Rakesh Kumar AAO of CDA (N) R.K. Puram who stated that claim Ex. P60 was
received at CDA (N) R.K. Puram and was passed for crediting the amount into the
individual pay account of the accused at Naval Pay Office. Similarly, for charge Nos. 14
and 15, claims Ex. 61 and 62 respectively were received and passed for crediting the
amount into the individual pay account of the accused at Naval Pay Office.
125. Further, PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan had specifically stated in his evidence that
the claims were prepared, signed and left by him with the appellant for attaching the
air travel boarding pass as well as detention certificates on receipt from the Eol. PW 28
Capt Virk also stated in his evidence that all the deputation Government of India
letters during his tenure were drafted by the appellant as DDAPSA (Aero Adventure)
and that the appellant was well aware of the fact that the travel charges were
supposed to be settled by the Embassy. To a specific question as to who had signed
the deputation TA/DA claim Ex. P60, 61 and 62 he confirmed that the signatures are
of the accused and he countersigned the claim.
126. Moreover, none of these claims could have been made without the appellant
giving his airline tickets and boarding passes which are essential supporting
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documents of the TA/DA claim. It is not even his case that his airline tickets and the
boarding passes were forged. If he wanted to rebut this accusation, he could have
produced his boarding passes and other travel documents, which he and he alone
could have given for claims.
127. Last but not the least, what could have been the motive for any of the team
members including Lt Cdr Karthikeyan in filling up the claim for the appellant when
the claimed amount was to go into his account alone and he (Lt Cdr Karthikeyan) was
not to be benefited by the same. By signing false claim forms, the appellant
committed the offence charged against him.
128. We are thus of the view that there is ample evidence to show that the
appellant had knowingly made fraudulent claims in respect of the journeys, the claims
of which were already settled by the PDAPSA based on team leader's statement of
expenditure towards incidental expenditure duly counter-signed by the Embassy of
India, USA. As such, we do find any justification to interfere with the findings of the
CM. We thus uphold the findings of the CM so far as these charges (Charge Nos. 13,
14 and 15) are concerned.
129. We see no substance in the contention of the learned counsel for the appellant
that the appellant was not afforded the opportunity to examine the defence witnesses
and to cross examine the prosecution witnesses. This is factually incorrect. The records
reveal that the appellant was given sufficient opportunity to examine and cross
examine the witnesses.
Conclusion:
130. In sum, we find that, so far as Charge Nos. 1 and 17 are concerned, the CM
was not able to conclusively prove the guilt of the appellant in terms of committing
criminal breach of trust by misappropriating public funds granted for conduct of
adventure camps by the Indian Navy at Hissar in 2007 and Karnal in 2008
respectively. Similarly, we find that, with regard to Charge No. 11, the prosecution
could not conclusively prove that the appellant had cheated PW 27 Lt Cdr Karthikeyan
and PW 4 LME S. Borah of a sum of Rs. 7,500/- each, the ex-gratia payments the
appellant had collected on their behalf. In these cases, we go by the principle that if
any reasonable doubt is created, the benefit of doubt shall go to the accused by
holding that the charge has not been established beyond doubt. Thus, we are of the
opinion that the appellant cannot be held guilty of these charges.
131. However, with regard to Charge No. 13, 14 and 15, wherein the appellant is
charged with making false travel claims in terms of claiming taxi charges during
various official trips to the United States for adventure training activity well knowing
that these amounts had already been claimed by the Embassy of India, we find that
the CM was able to prove conclusively that the appellant was guilty of these charges.
We did not find merit in the defence of the appellant that he did not make the claim
and that someone other than him had signed the travel claim, considering that the
appellant submitted his original air tickets, boarding pass and detention certificates
with the claim and had, on each occasion, received and accepted the amounts falsely
claimed by him.
132. In the result, the O.As stand partly allowed, modifying the sentence awarded
to the appellant by the CM by restricting it to ‘dismissal from service’, on account of
being found guilty of Charge Nos. 13, 14 and 15. The punishment of two years'
rigorous imprisonment and fine are hereby quashed.
133. Miscellaneous applications pending, if any, also stand disposed of.
134. Pronounced in open Court on this the 01st day of July 2020.
———
† Principal Bench at New Delhi
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Disclaimer: While every effort is made to avoid any mistake or omission, this casenote/ headnote/ judgment/ act/ rule/ regulation/ circular/
notification is being circulated on the condition and understanding that the publisher would not be liable in any manner by reason of any mistake
or omission or for any action taken or omitted to be taken or advice rendered or accepted on the basis of this casenote/ headnote/ judgment/ act/
rule/ regulation/ circular/ notification. All disputes will be subject exclusively to jurisdiction of courts, tribunals and forums at Lucknow only. The
authenticity of this text must be verified from the original source.
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2020 SCC OnLine All 535 : AIR 2020 All 97 : (2020) 3 All LJ 307 (FB) : (2020)
143 ALR 127
order to determine the jurisdiction of the High Court which can give relief under Art.
226. The introduction of such a concept may give rise to confusion and conflict of
jurisdictions. Take, for example, the case of an order passed by an authority in
Calcutta, which affects six brothers living, say, in Bombay, Madras, Allahabad,
Jabalpur, Jodhpur and Chandigarh. The order passed by the authority in Calcutta
has thus affected persons in six States. Can it be said that Art. 226 contemplates
that all the six High Courts have jurisdiction in the matter of giving relief under it?
The answer must obviously be ‘No’, if one is to avoid confusion and conflict of
jurisdiction. As we read the relevant words of Art. 226 (quoted above) there can be
no doubt that the jurisdiction conferred by that Article on a High Court is with
respect to the location or residence of the person or authority passing the order and
there can be no question of introducing the concept of the place where the order is
to have effect in order to determine which High Court can give relief under it. It is
true that this Court will give such meaning to the words used in the Constitution as
would help towards its working smoothly. If we were to introduce in Art. 226 the
concept of the place where the order is to have effect we would not be advancing
the purposes for which Art. 226 has been enacted. On the other hand, we would be
producing conflict of jurisdiction between various High Courts as already shown by
the illustration given above. Therefore, the effect of an order by whomsoever it is
passed can have no relevance in determining the jurisdiction of the High Court
which can take action under Art. 226. Now, functioning of a Government is really
nothing other than giving effect to the orders passed by it. Therefore it would not
be right to introduce in Art. 226 the concept of the functioning of Government when
determining the meaning of the words “any person or authority within those
territories”. By introducing the concept of functioning in these words we shall be
creating the same conflict which would arise if the concept of the place where the
order is to have effect is introduced in Art. 226. There can, therefore, be no escape
from the conclusion that these words in Art. 226 refer not to the place where the
Government may be functioning but only to the place where the person or authority
is either resident or is located. So far therefore as a natural person is concerned, he
is within those territories if he resides there permanently or temporarily. So far as
an authority (other than a Government) is concerned, it is within the territories if its
office is located there. So far as a Government is concerned it is within the
territories only if its seat is within those territories.”
39. The first question was answered by the Supreme Court in the following manner:
—
“14. The seat of a Government is sometimes mentioned in the Constitutions of
various countries but many a time the seat is not so mentioned. But whether the
seat of a Government is mentioned in the Constitution or not, there is undoubtedly
a seat from which the Government as such functions as a fact. What Art. 226
requires is residence or location as a fact and if therefore there is a seat from which
the Government functions as a fact even though that seat is not mentioned in the
Constitution the High Court within whose territories that seat is located will be the
High Court having jurisdiction under Art. 226 so far as the orders of the
Government as such are concerned. Therefore, the view taken in Election
Commission, India v. Saka Venkata Subba Rao (AIR 1953 SC 210) and K.S. Rashid
and Son v. The Income Tax Investigation Commission (AIR 1954 SC 207 ) that
there is twofold limitation on the power of the High Court to issue writs etc. under
Art. 226, namely, (i) the power is to be exercised ‘throughout the territories in
relation to which it exercises jurisdiction’, that is to say, the writs issued by the
Court cannot run beyond the territories subject to its jurisdiction, and (ii) the
person or authority to whom the High Court is empowered to issue such writs must
be “within those territories” which clearly implies that they must be amenable to its
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“within” the State. (7) The fact that for the sake of convenience a particular officer
of the said Government issuing an order stays outside the territorial limits of the
High Court is not of any relevance, for it is the Union Government that will have to
produce the record or carry out the order, as the case may be. (8) The orders issued
by the High Court can certainly be enforced against the Union Government, as it is
amenable to its jurisdiction, and if they are disobeyed it will be liable to contempt.
(5) Even if the Officers physically reside outside its territorial jurisdiction, the
High Court can always reach them under the Contempt of Courts Act, if they choose
to disobey the orders validly passed against the Union Government which cannot
easily be visualized or ordinarily be expected. (10) The difficulties in communicating
the orders pertain to the rules of procedure and adequate and appropriate rules can
be made for communicating the same to the Central Government or its officers.”
42. A point on the doctrine of merger arose in Collector of Customs, Calcutta v. East
India Commercial Company Limited, Calcutta15 . In this case a writ petition under
Article 226 was filed before the High Court of Calcutta against an order of confiscation
passed by the Collector of Customs, Calcutta which had been confirmed by the Central
Board of Revenue. Upon a preliminary objection being raised by the Department
placing reliance upon the decision in the case of Saka Venkata Subba Rao to the effect
that since the Central Board of Revenue was not within the territorial jurisdiction of the
High Court, no writ could be issued against it, the matter was referred to a Full Bench
of the High Court wherein the following questions were considered:—
“(i) Whether any writ could issue against the Central Board of Revenue which
was a party to the writ petition and which was permanently located outside the
jurisdiction of the High Court; and (ii) Whether if no writ could issue against the
Central Board of Revenue any writ could be issued against the Collector of Customs
(Original Authority) when the Central Board of Revenue (Appellate Authority) had
merely dismissed the appeal.”
43. On the first question, it was held that the High Court had no jurisdiction to
issue a writ against the Central Board of Revenue in view of the decision in Saka
Venkata Subba Rao. However, on the second question, the Full Bench took a view that
since the Central Board of Revenue had only dismissed the appeal against the order of
Collector of the Customs, Calcutta, the order of the Original Authority was operating
and since the said authority was situate within the jurisdiction of the High Court,
therefore, it had jurisdiction to entertain the petition.
44. The question as to whether the High Court would have jurisdiction to issue a
writ against the original order in spite of the fact that the same had been taken in
appeal to the Central Board of Revenue against which the High Court could not issue a
writ, was considered before the Supreme Court upon an appeal filed against the
judgment of the High Court. Speaking for the Bench, K.N. Wanchoo,J. (as he then
was) observed as follows:—
“4. The question therefore turns on whether the order of the original authority
becomes merged in the order of the Appellate Authority even where the Appellate
Authority merely dismisses the appeal without any modification of the order of the
original authority. It is obvious that when an appeal is made, the Appellate
Authority can do one of three things, namely, (i) it may reverse the order under
appeal, (ii) it may modify that order, and (iii) it may merely dismiss the appeal and
thus confirm the order without any modification. It is not disputed that in the first
two cases where the order of the original authority is either reversed or modified it
is the order of the Appellate Authority which is the operative order and if the High
Court has no jurisdiction to issue a writ to the Appellate Authority it cannot issue a
writ to the original authority. The question therefore is whether there is any
difference between these two cases and the third case where the Appellate
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Authority dismisses the appeal and thus confirms the order of the original authority.
It seems to us that on principle it is difficult to draw a distinction between the first
two kinds of orders passed by the Appellate Authority and the third kind of order
passed by it. In all these three cases after the Appellate Authority has disposed of
the appeal, the operative order is the order of the Appellate Authority whether it
has reversed the original order or modified it or confirmed it. In law, the appellate
order of confirmation is quite as efficacious as an operative order as an appellate
order of reversal or modification. Therefore, if the Appellate Authority is beyond the
territorial jurisdiction of the High Court it seems difficult to hold even in a case
where the Appellate Authority has confirmed the order of the original authority that
the High Court can issue a writ to the original authority which may even have the
effect of setting aside the order of the original authority when it cannot issue a writ
to the Appellate Authority which has confirmed the order of the original authority.”
45. A similar view had been taken earlier in Burhanpur National Textile Workers’
Union, Burhanpur v. Labour Appellate Tribunal of India at Bombay16 , wherein it was
stated as follows:—
“26. …The power to compel an inferior tribunal so to certify its record must of
necessity be territorial in extent and has been rendered more so by the manner in
which Article 226 has been framed in the Constitution. If we cannot make our writ
run to the Appellate Tribunal at Bombay so as to compel it to certify its record to us
or to bind it with our consequent order; we have no jurisdiction to interfere with its
decision at all. To interfere with the order of the Industrial Court in such
circumstances would be improper. I regret I have to refer to my decision given
when sitting with Choudhuri, J. in -- “Ramkrishna v. Daoosingh”, AIR 1953 Nag 357
(E), that the Court does not do indirectly what it cannot do directly and this Court
should be loath to quash an intermediate order so as to get rid of a subsequent
order by implication. Further, our action in quashing the order of the Industrial
Court would place that Court and the Registrar on the horns of a dilemma. Under
the Act they would be bound by the order of the Appellate Tribunal, and equally
bound to give effect to our order. If we do not quash the order of the Appellate
Tribunal and leave it operative, we indirectly compel the Industrial Court to disobey
that order. The Industrial Court and the Registrar are thus exposed to a
commitment for contempt at the instance of the Appellate Tribunal and equally at
our instance, if they disobey our writ. Such a situation cannot be allowed to arise
and is against the practice of Courts.”
46. The aforementioned decisions were on the principle that once an order of an
original authority is taken in appeal to the appellate authority, which is located beyond
the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court, it is the order of the appellate authority
which is the effective order after the appeal is disposed of, and as the High Court
cannot issue a writ against the appellate authority for want of territorial jurisdiction, it
would not be open to the High Court to issue a writ to the original authority though
the same may be within its territorial jurisdiction. In other words, once the appeal is
disposed of, though the appellate authority may have merely confirmed the order of
the appellate authority and dismissed the appeal, the High Court could not issue a writ
to the original authority, which was within its territorial jurisdiction, since it would
have the effect of setting aside the order of the appellate authority which was located
beyond the jurisdiction of the High Court. The effect of the decisions was thus to hold
that even if the cause of action originally arose within the territorial jurisdiction of a
High Court, if the appeal lay to an authority beyond its territorial jurisdiction, the order
of the appellate authority could not be subjected to challenge before that High Court
within whose jurisdiction the original cause of action arose.
47. Another effect of the above decisions was that the only High Court, at that point
of time, which could exercise jurisdiction to issue any direction, order or writ to the
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clause (2), the jurisdiction of the High Court could now be invoked if the cause of
action arose wholly or in part within the territorial jurisdiction of that High Court.
54. It is thus seen that the Constitution (Fifteenth) Amendment introduced the
concept of cause of action, which the Supreme Court, in its majority judgment in the
case of Khajoor Singh, had held to be not included in the language of Article 226.
55. In view of Section 141 CPC, the procedure provided under the Code of Civil
Procedure, may not be held to be applicable to writ proceedings, however, the concept
of cause of action having been introduced by virtue of the Constitution (Fifteenth)
Amendment, the phraseology used in Section 20(c) and Article 226(2) of the
Constitution being pari materia, the meaning assigned to the expression “cause of
action” in the context of its use under Section 20(c), may be adverted to. This is more
so, for the reason that the expression “cause of action” has not been defined in the
Constitution.
56. Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure recognises the territorial jurisdiction of
Courts, inter alia, wherever the cause of action wholly or in part arises.
57. The judicially settled meaning which the expression “cause of action” has
acquired, has been summarised in Mulla's Code of Civil Procedure17, in the following
words:—
“In the restricted sense, ‘cause of action’, means the circumstances forming the
infraction of the right or the immediate occasion for the action. In the wider sense it
means the necessary conditions for the maintenance of the suit, including not only
the infraction of the right, but the infraction coupled with the right itself.
Compendiously the expression means every fact which it would be necessary for the
plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the
court. Every fact which is necessary to be proved, as distinguished from every piece
of evidence which is necessary to prove each fact, comprises ‘cause of action’. It
has to be left to be determined in each individual case as to where the cause of
action arises. The cause of action means the circumstances forming infraction of the
right or immediate occasion for action. It is left to be determined in each individual
case as to where the cause of action arises. The cause of action in suit/petition has
no reference to the defence taken in the suit nor is it related to the evidence by
which the cause of action is established.
A suit is always based on a cause of action. There can be no suit without a cause
of action and such cause of action having accrued to the plaintiff, the jurisdiction of
the court in a matter of contract will depend on the situs of the contract and the
cause of action arising through connecting factors. A cause of action is a bundle of
facts which taken with the law applicable, gives the plaintiff a right to relief against
the defendant. It must include some act done by the defendant since in the
absence of an act no cause of action can possibly accrue. It is not limited to actual
infringement of right sued on, but includes all the material facts on which it is
founded. It does not comprise evidence necessary to prove such facts, but every
fact necessary for the plaintiff to prove to enable him to obtain a decree. Everything
which if not proved would give the defendant a right to immediate judgment must
be part of the cause of action; but it has no relation whatever to the defence which
may be set up by the defendant nor does it depend upon the character of the relief
prayed for by the plaintiff. ‘A cause of action’ means every fact, which, if traversed,
it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a
judgment of the court. It is a media upon which the plaintiff asks the court to arrive
at a conclusion in his favour. In legal parlance the expression ‘cause of action’ is
generally understood to mean a situation or a state of facts that entitle a party to
maintain an action in a court or a tribunal; a group of operative facts giving rise to
one or more bases for suing; a factual situation that entitles one person to obtain a
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remedy in court from another person.”
58. The classical definition of the expression “cause of action”, referred to in Mulla's
Code of Civil Procedure, is found in the case of Cooke v. Gill18 where in the words of
Lord Brett it was stated thus:—
“‘Cause of action’ means every fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff
to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the court.”
59. The expression “cause of action” has been defined in Halsbury's Laws of
England19, as follows:—
“20. Cause of action. “Cause of action” has been defined as meaning simply a
factual situation, the existence of which entitles one person to obtain from the court
a remedy against another person. The phrase has been held from earliest time to
include every fact which is material to be proved to entitle the plaintiff to succeed,
and every fact which a defendant would have a right to traverse. “Cause of action”
has also been taken to mean that a particular act on the part of the defendant
which gives the plaintiff his cause of complaint, or the subject-matter of grievance
founding the action, not merely the technical cause of action.
The same facts or the same transaction or event may give rise to more than one
effective cause of action.
A cause of action arises wholly or in part within a certain local area where all or
some of the material facts which the plaintiff has to prove in order to succeed arise
within that area.”
60. In A.B.C. Laminart Private Limited v. A.P. Agencies, Salem20 , the meaning of
the expression “cause of action” was explained thus:—
“12. A cause of action means every fact, which if traversed, it would be
necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of the
court. In other words, it is a bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to
them gives the plaintiff a right to relief against the defendant. It must include some
act done by the defendant since in the absence of such an act no cause of action
can possibly accrue. It is not limited to the actual infringement of the right sued on
but includes all the material facts on which it is founded. It does not comprise
evidence necessary to prove such facts, but every fact necessary for the plaintiff to
prove to enable him to obtain a decree. Everything which if not proved would give
the defendant a right to immediate judgment must be part of the cause of action.
But it has no relation whatever to the defence which may be set up by the
defendant nor does it depend upon the character of the relief prayed for by the
plaintiff.”
61. The aforementioned position has been reiterated in South East Asia Shipping
Company Limited v. Nav Bharat Enterprises Private Limited21 , wherein it has been
observed as follows:—
“3. It is settled law that cause of action consists of bundle of facts which give
cause to enforce the legal injury for redress in a court of law. The cause of action
means, therefore, every fact, which if traversed, it would be necessary for the
plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of the court. In other
words, it is a bundle of facts, which taken with the law applicable to them, gives the
plaintiff a right to claim relief against the defendant. It must include some act done
by the defendant since in the absence of such an act no cause of action would
possibly accrue or would arise…”
62. The meaning of the expression “cause of action”, as understood in English Law,
had been summarised in Paragon Finances v. DB Thakerar and Company22 , wherein
referring to the earlier decisions in Letang v. Cooper23 , approved in Steamship Mutual
Underwriting Association Limited v. Trollope & Colls Limited24 , the expression “cause of
action” has been held to mean every fact which is material to be proved to entitle
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plaintiff to succeed - every fact which the defendant would have a right to traverse.
The observations made, in this regard, by Millet LJ, are as follows:—
“The classic definition of a cause of action was given by Brett J in Cooke v. Gill
[L.R.] 8 CP 107 at p. 116:
“Cause of action” has been held from the earliest times to mean every fact which
is material to be proved to entitle the plaintiff to succeed,--every fact which the
defendant would have a right to traverse.”
In the Thakerar case Chadwick J cited the more recent definition offered by Diplock
LJ in Letang v. Cooper, (1965) 1 QB 232 CA at pp. 242-243, and approved in
Steamship Mutual Underwriting Association v. Trollop & Colls Ltd., (1986) 6
ConLR 11 at p. 30:
“A cause of action is simply a factual situation the existence of which entitles one
person to obtain from the court a remedy against another person.”
I do not think that Diplock LJ was intending a different definition from that of
Brett J. However it is formulated, only those facts which are material to be proved
are to be taken into account. The pleading of unnecessary allegations or the
addition of further instances or better particulars do not amount to a distinct cause
of action. The selection of the material facts to define the cause of action must be
made at the highest level of abstraction.”
63. In Rajasthan High Court Advocates' Association v. Union of India25 , the
meaning of the expression “cause of action” was compendiously held to include every
fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to
support his right to the judgment of the Court, as distinguished from every piece of
evidence which is necessary to prove each fact. As to where the cause of action arises
would have to be left to be determined in each individual case. It was stated thus:—
“17. The expression “cause of action” has acquired a judicially-settled meaning.
In the restricted sense cause of action means the circumstances forming the
infraction of the right or the immediate occasion for the action. In the wider sense,
it means the necessary conditions for the maintenance of the suit, including not
only the infraction of the right, but the infraction coupled with the right itself.
Compendiously the expression means every fact which it would be necessary for the
plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the
Court. Every fact which is necessary to be proved, as distinguished from every piece
of evidence which is necessary to prove each fact, comprises in “cause of action”. It
has to be left to be determined in each individual case as to where the cause of
action arises…”
64. While considering the meaning of the expression “cause of action” in Ambica
Industries v. Commissioner of Central Excise26 , it was held that although in view of
Section 141 CPC, the provisions thereof would not apply to writ proceedings, the
phraseology used in Section 20(c) CPC, and Article 226(2), being in pari materia, the
decisions of the Supreme Court rendered on interpretation of Section 20(c) shall apply
to writ proceedings also keeping in view the expression “cause of action” used in
Article 226(2), it was stated, that indisputably even if a small fraction thereof accrues
within the jurisdiction of the Court, the Court would have jurisdiction in the matter
though the doctrine of forum conveniens may also have to be considered. The
observations made in this regard are as follows:—
“40. Although in view of Section 141 of the Code of Civil Procedure the provisions
thereof would not apply to writ proceedings, the phraseology used in Section 20(c)
of the Code of Civil Procedure and Clause (2) of Article 226, being in pari materia,
the decisions of this Court rendered on interpretation of Section 20(c) CPC shall
apply to the writ proceedings also. Before proceeding to discuss the matter further
it may be pointed out that the entire bundle of facts pleaded need not constitute a
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cause of action, as what is necessary to be proved, before the petitioner can obtain
a decree, is material facts. The expression material facts is also known as integral
facts.
41. Keeping in view the expression “cause of action” used in Clause (2) of Article
226 of the Constitution of India, indisputably even if a small fraction thereof
accrues within the jurisdiction of the Court, the Court will have jurisdiction in the
matter though the doctrine of forum conveniens may also have to be considered.”
65. As we have already taken note of, the expression “cause of action” having not
been defined in the Constitution, the meaning envisaged under Section 20(c) CPC,
may be adverted to for the purpose of understanding the meaning of the expression
“cause of action”.
66. The meaning of “cause of action” in the context of territorial jurisdiction of a
High Court was subject matter of consideration in Navinchandra N. Majithia v. State of
Maharashtra27 , and it was held that a High Court will have jurisdiction if any part of
cause of action arises within the territorial limits of its jurisdiction even though the
seat of a Government or authority or residence of person against whom direction, order
or writ is sought to be issued is not within the said territory. In the facts of the case,
where a writ petition had been filed before the Bombay High Court for quashing of a
criminal complaint filed at Shillong on the ground that it was false and had been filed
with mala fide intention of causing harassment and putting pressure on the petitioner
to reverse the transaction relating to transfer of company shares, which had entirely
taken place at Mumbai, and alternatively, making a prayer for issuance of writ of
mandamus to State of Meghalaya for transfer of investigation to Mumbai Police, it was
held, that the Bombay High Court erred in dismissing the writ petition on ground that
it had no jurisdiction to quash the complaint filed at Shillong as prayed for. It was held
that the relief sought by the writ petitioner, though is one of the relevant criteria for
consideration, but not the sole consideration in the matter. Drawing inference from the
provision under clause (2) of Article 226, it was stated that maintainability or
otherwise of a writ petition in a High Court depends on whether the cause of action for
filing the same arose, wholly or in part, within the territorial jurisdiction of that Court.
67. Referring to the meaning of the expression “cause of action” as given in Black's
Law Dictionary28, Stroud's Judicial Dictionary of Words and Phrases29 and also the
definition as per Lord Esher, M.R., in Read v. Brown30 , it was stated that in legal
parlance the expression “cause of action” is generally understood to mean a situation
or state of facts that entitles a party to maintain an action in a Court or a Tribunal; a
group of operative facts giving rise to one or more bases for suing; a factual situation
that entitles one person to obtain the remedy in Court from another person. The
observations made in the judgment are extracted below:—
“17. From the provision in clause (2) of Article 226 it is clear that the
maintainability or otherwise of the writ petition in the High Court depends on
whether the cause of action for filing the same arose, wholly or in part, within the
territorial jurisdiction of that Court.
18. In legal parlance the expression “cause of action” is generally understood to
mean a situation or state of facts that entitles a party to maintain an action in a
court or a tribunal; a group of operative facts giving rise to one or more bases for
suing; a factual situation that entitles one person to obtain a remedy in court from
another person. (Black's Law Dictionary)
19. In Stroud's Judicial Dictionary a “cause of action” is stated to be the entire
set of facts that gives rise to an enforceable claim; the phrase comprises every fact,
which, if traversed, the plaintiff must prove in order to obtain judgment.
20. In “Words and Phrases” (4th Edn.) the meaning attributed to the phrase
“cause of action” in common legal parlance is existence of those facts which give a
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party a right to judicial interference on his behalf.
x x x
34. When the Constitution was framed, Article 226, as it originally stood therein
provided that
“every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to
which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in
appropriate cases any Government, within those territories directions, orders or
writs…”. Some of the decisions rendered by different High Courts during the
earlier years of the post-Constitution period have given a wider perspective
regarding the jurisdiction of the High Court and pointed out that a High Court
can exercise powers under Article 226 even in respect of tribunals or authorities
situated outside the territorial limits of its jurisdiction if such tribunal or authority
exercises powers in such a manner as to affect the fundamental rights of persons
residing or carrying on business within the jurisdiction of such High Court [vide
K.S. Rashid Ahmed v. Income Tax Investigation Commission (AIR 1951 Punj 74),
M.K. Ranganathan v. Madras Electric Tramways (1904) Ltd. (AIR 1952 Mad 659),
Aswini Kumar Sinha v. Dy. Collector of Central Excise and Land Customs (AIR
1952 Ass 91). It was Subba Rao, J. (as the learned Chief Justice then was) who
observed in M.K. Ranganathan case that:
“If a tribunal or authority exercises jurisdiction within the territories affecting
such rights it may reasonably be construed that the authority or the tribunal
functioned within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court and, therefore, is
amenable to its jurisdiction.”
35. But a Constitution Bench of this Court has held in Election Commission, India
v. Saka Venkata Subba Rao (AIR 1953 SC 210) thus:
“[T]he power of the High Court to issue writs under Article 226 of the
Constitution is subject to the two-fold limitation that such writs cannot run
beyond the territories subject to its jurisdiction and the person or authority to
whom the High Court is empowered to issue such writs must be amenable to the
jurisdiction of the High Court either by residence or location within the territories
subject to its jurisdiction.”
36. It was the said decision of the Constitution Bench which necessitated
Parliament to bring the Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution by which clause (1
-A) was added to Article 226. That clause was subsequently renumbered as clause
(2) by the Constitution Forty-Second Amendment. Now clause (2) of Article 226
reads thus:
“226(2). The power conferred by clause (1) to issue directions, orders or writs
to any Government, authority or person may also be exercised by any High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of such power, notwithstanding
that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is
not within those territories.”
37. The object of the amendment by inserting clause (2) in the article was to
supersede the decision of the Supreme Court in Election Commission v. Saka
Venkata Subba Rao and to restore the view held by the High Courts in the decisions
cited above. Thus the power conferred on the High Courts under Article 226 could
as well be exercised by any High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the
territories within which “the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises” and it is no
matter that the seat of the authority concerned is outside the territorial limits of the
jurisdiction of that High Court. The amendment is thus aimed at widening the width
of the area for reaching the writs issued by different High Courts.
38. “Cause of action” is a phenomenon well understood in legal parlance.
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Mohapatra, J. has well delineated the import of the said expression by referring to
the celebrated lexicographies. The collocation of the words “cause of action, wholly
or in part, arises” seems to have been lifted from Section 20 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, which section also deals with the jurisdictional aspect of the courts. As
per that section the suit could be instituted in a court within the legal limits of
whose jurisdiction the “cause of action wholly or in part arises”. Judicial
pronouncements have accorded almost a uniform interpretation to the said
compendious expression even prior to the Fifteenth Amendment of the Constitution
as to mean “the bundle of facts which would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove,
if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the court”.
39. In Read v. Brown, (1888) 22 QBD 128, Lord Esher, M.R., adopted the
definition for the phrase “cause of action” that it meant
“every fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed,
in order to support his right to the judgment of the court. It does not comprise
every piece of evidence which is necessary to prove each fact, but every fact
which is necessary to be proved”.
40. The Privy Council has noted in Mohd. Khalil Khan v. Mahbub Ali Mian (AIR
1949 PC 78) that the aforesaid definition adopted by Lord Esher M.R. had been
followed in India. Even thereafter the courts in India have consistently followed the
said interpretation without exception for understanding the scope of the expression
“cause of action”.”
68. Cause of action, in legal parlance, has been understood as a situation or “state
of facts” which entitles a party to maintain an action before a Court or Tribunal. It
would refer to the existence of those facts set forth in the plaint upon which the party
seeks a right to judicial interference on his behalf. Facts which would have no bearing
on the lis or the dispute involved in the case, would, therefore, not give rise to a cause
of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the Court.
69. It may be necessary at this stage to take notice of the distinction between the
terms “right of action” and “cause of action”.
70. The distinction between the two terms has been referred to in American
Jurisprudence31, wherein it has been stated as follows:—
“Although the courts sometimes confuse the term ‘cause of action’ and ‘right of
action’ and state that right of action at law arises from the existence of a primary
right in the plaintiff and the invasion of that right by some delict on the part of the
defendant, in a legal sense, these terms are not synonymous or interchangeable. A
right of action is the right to presently enforce a cause of action - a remedial right
affording redress for the infringement of legal right belonging to some definite
person, a cause of action is the operative facts which give rise to such right of
action. Right of action does not arise until the performance of conditions precedent
to the action and may be taken away by the running of the statute of limitation,
through an estoppel, or by other circumstances which do not affect the cause of
action. There may be several rights of action and one cause of action and rights
may accrue at different times from the same cause.”
71. The aforementioned distinction, was also recognised in Code Pleading by
Phillips32, which has been referred to in an article by Oliver L. McCaskill33, “The
Elusive Cause of Action”, and it was stated thus:—
“It should be borne in mind that a right of action is a remedial right belonging to
some person, and that a cause of action is a formal statement of the operative facts
that give rise to such remedial right. The one is matter of right, and depends upon
the substantive law; the other is matter of statement, and is governed by the law of
procedure. The terms, ‘right of action’ and ‘cause of action,’ are therefore not
equivalent terms, and should not be used interchangeably.”
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72. We may also gainfully refer to Code Remedies by Pomeroy34, wherein it has
been stated as follows:- “Every judicial action must therefore involve the following
elements: a primary right possessed by the plaintiff, and a corresponding primary
duty devolving upon the defendant; a delict or wrong done by the defendant which
consisted in a breach of such primary right and duty ; a remedial right in favor of the
plaintiff, and a remedial duty resting on the defendant springing from this delict, and
finally the remedy or relief itself. Every action, however complicated or however
simple, must contain these essential elements. Of these elements, the primary right
and duty and the delict or wrong combined constitute the cause of action in the legal
sense of the term, and as used in the codes of the several States. They are the legal
cause or foundation whence the right of action springs, this right of action being
identical with the ‘remedial right’ as designated in my analysis. In accordance with the
principles of pleading adopted in the new American system, the existence of a legal
right in an abstract form is never alleged by the plaintiff; but, instead thereof, the
facts from which that right arises are set forth, and the right itself is inferred
therefrom. The cause of action, as it appears in the complaint when properly pleaded,
will therefore always be the facts from which the plaintiff's primary right and the
defendant's corresponding primary duty have arisen, together with the facts which
constitute the defendant's delict or act of wrong From one cause of action, that is,
from one primary right and one delict being a breach thereof, it is possible, and not at
all uncommon, that two or more remedial rights may arise, and therefore two or more
different kinds of relief answering to these separate remedial rights. This is especially
so when one remedial right and corresponding relief are legal, and the other equitable;
but it is not confined to such cases If the facts alleged show one primary right of the
plaintiff, and one wrong done by the defendant which involves that right, the plaintiff
has stated but a single cause of action, no matter how many forms and kinds of relief
he may claim that he is entitled to, and may ask to recover; the relief is no part of the
cause of action.”
73. The relation between “right of action” and “cause of action” has been further
analysed in the article “Actions and Causes of Action” by O.L. McCaskill35, wherein
referring to the observations made by Phillips in Code Pleading36, it has been stated
thus:—
“Judge Phillips describes the cause of action in this fashion:
“The question to be determined at the threshold of every action is, whether
there is occasion for the state to interfere. Therefore, when a suitor asks that the
public force be exerted in his behalf, he must show that there is, prima facie,
occasion for the state to act in his behalf. That is, he must show a right in
himself, recognized by law, and a wrongful invasion thereof, actual or
threatened. And since both rights and delicts arise from operative facts, he must
affirm of himself such investitive fact or group of facts as will show a consequent
legal right in him, and he must affirm of the adversary party such culpatory fact
or facts as will show his delict with reference to the right so asserted. The formal
statement of operative facts showing such right and such delict shows a cause
for action on the part of the state and in behalf of the complainant, and is called
in legal phraseology, a cause of action.”
“From the foregoing definitions of right of action and cause of action, it will be
seen that the former is a remedial right belonging to some person, and that the
latter is a formal statement of the operative facts that give rise to such remedial
right. The one is matter of right, and depends upon the substantive law; the other
is matter of statement, and is governed by the law of procedure.”
“It will appear, without further analysis, that a statement of facts, to constitute a
cause of action, must show a right of action; that to show a right of action, it must
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state facts to show (I) a primary right and its corresponding duty, and (2) the
infringement of this right by the party owing this duty. From the one set of facts
the law raises the primary right and duty, and to the other set of facts the law
attaches a remedial right, or right of action….”
74. The distinction between “cause of action” and “right of action” was noticed by a
Full Bench of this Court in Sardar Balbir Singh v. Atma Ram Srivastava37 , in the
context of Order II of the CPC, and referring to the decisions in Whitfield v. Aetna38 ,
Emory v. Hazard Powder Company39 , Weldon v. Neal40 , Cooke v. Gill18 , Robinson v.
Unicos Property Corporation Limited41 , Dorman v. J.W. Ellis and Company Limited42 ,
Sidramappa v. Rajashetty43 and Gurbux Singh v. Bhooralal44 , it was observed as
follows:—
“48. What does the expression ‘cause of action’ as used in Order II of the Code of
Civil Procedure connote? An all embracing definition of the term ‘cause of action’ is
not to be easily found. It may mean one thing for one purpose and something
different for another depending, for example, on the question whether the principle
of res judicata applies or whether an amendment of pleading is permissible or
whether a pleading is good upon demurrer and so on. Cause of action has sometime
been defined as being the fact or facts which establish or give rise to a right of
action, the existence of which affords a party a right to judicial relief. The facts
which comprise the cause of action are those which, if traversed, the plaintiff is
obliged to prove in order to obtain a judgment, or those facts which the defendant
would have the right to traverse, or as observed in Whitfield v. Aetna, (1906) 205
US 489 “a cause of action is the reverse of a defence, which is defined as whatever
tends to diminish the plaintiff's cause of action or to defeat recovery in whole or in
part”; or as laid down in Emory v. Hazard Powder Co., (22 SC 476) “a cause of
action arises where there has been an invasion of a legal right without justification
or sufficient cause”; or that a cause of action is that single group of facts which is
claimed to have brought about an unlawful injury to the plaintiff and which entitles
him to relief. It consists of a right belonging to one person and some wrongful act
or omission by another by which that right has been violated. It has been variously
stated that a cause of action cannot exist without the concurrence of a right, a duty,
and the default and is the subject of an action. It has also been defined as the
subject of an action, or the wrong for which the law prescribes a remedy. While
dealing with an application for amendment of plaint the Supreme Court observed in
A.K. Gupta and Sons v. Damodar Valley Corporation, (AIR 1967 SC 96):
“The general rule, no doubt, is that a party is not allowed by amendment to
set up a new case or a new cause of action particularly when a suit on new case
or cause of action is barred: Weldon v. Neal, (1887) 19 QBD 394. But it is also
well recognised that where the amendment does not constitute the addition of a
new cause of action or raise a different case, but amounts to no more than a
different or additional approach to the same facts, the amendment will be
allowed even after the expiry of the statutory period of limitation.”
Then dealing with the connotation of the term ‘cause of action’ in the context of
an application for amendment of pleading the Supreme Court observed:
“The expression ‘cause of action’ in the present context does not mean ‘every
fact which it is material to be proved to entitle the plaintiff to succeed’ as was said
in Cooke v. Gil, (1873) 8 CP 107 (116), in a different context for if it were so, no
material fact could ever be amended or added and, of course, no one would want to
change or add an immaterial allegation by amendment. That expression for the
present purpose only means a new claim made on a new basis constituted by new
facts. Such a view was taken in Robinson v. Unicos Property Corpn. Ltd., (1962) 2
All ER 24, and it seems to us to be the only possible view to take. Any other view
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would make the rule futile. The words ‘new case’ have been understood to mean
‘new set of ideas’ Dorman v. J.W. Ellis and Co. Ltd., 1962-1 All ER 303. This also
seems to us to be a reasonable view to take. No amendment will be allowed to
introduce a new set of ideas to the prejudice of any right acquired by any party by
lapse of time.”
The term ‘cause of action’, however, for the purpose of Order II means ‘cause of
action’ which gives occasion for and forms the foundation of the suit. (See AIR 1970
SC 1059 (Sidramappa v. Rajashetty), and AIR 1964 SC 1810, Gurbax Singh v.
Bhooralal).
There is, however, a ‘distinction’ between ‘cause of action’ and the ‘right of
action’. These terms are not synonymous and interchangeable. A right of action is a
right to presently enforce a cause of action a remedial right affording redress for the
infringement of a legal right belonging to some definite person; a cause of action is
the operative facts which give rise to such right of action. The right of action does
not arise until the performance of all conditions precedent to the action, and may be
taken away by the running of the statute of limitations, through an estoppel, or by
other circumstances which do not affect the cause of action. There may be several
rights of action and one cause of action and rights may accrue at different times
from the same cause.
49. Cause of action should also be distinguished from ‘remedy’ which is the
means or method whereby the cause of action or corresponding obligation is
effectuated and by which a wrong is redressed and relief obtained. The one
precedes and gives rise to the other, but they are separate and distinct from each
other and are governed by different rules and principles. The cause of action is the
obligation from which springs the “action”, defined as the right to enforce an
obligation, A cause of action arises when that which ought to have been done is not
done or that which ought not to have been done is done. The essential elements of
a cause of action are thus the existence of a legal right in the plaintiff with a
corresponding legal duty in the defendant, and a violation or breach of that “right or
duty” with consequential injury or damage to the plaintiff for which he may
maintain an action for appropriate relief or reliefs. The right to maintain an action
depends upon the existence of a cause of action which involves a combination of a
right on the part of the plaintiff and the violation of such right by the defendant.
The duty on the part of the defendant may arise from a contract or may be imposed
by positive law independent of contract, it may arise of contractus or ex delicto. A
cause of action arises from the invasion of the plaintiff's right by violation of some
duty imposed upon the defendant in favour of the plaintiff either by voluntary
contract or by positive law.”
75. The meaning of the two expressions was again considered by a Division Bench
of this Court in Daya Shankar Bhardwaj v. Chief of the Air Staff, New Delhi45, and it
was reiterated that the two are neither synonymous nor interchangeable. The meaning
of the term “right of action” as provided in American Jurisprudence Vol. 146 was
considered and it was stated as follows:—
“13. …A right of action arises as soon as there is an invasion of right. But ‘‘cause
of action’ and ‘‘right of action’ are not synonymous or interchangeable. A right of
action is the right to enforce a cause of action (American Jurisprudence 2nd Edition
vol. 1.) A person residing anywhere in the country being aggrieved by an order of
government Central or State or authority or person may have a right of action at
law but it can be enforced or the jurisdiction under Art. 226 can be invoked of that
High Court only within whose territorial limits the cause of action wholly or in part
arises. The cause of action arises by action of the government or authority and not
by residence of the person aggrieved.”
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76. The expression “cause of action” has been held to have no relation whatever to
the defence which may be set up by the defendant nor does it refer to the character of
the relief prayed for by the plaintiff, and it would be referable entirely to the grounds
set forth in the plaint. The observations made by Lord Watson in the Privy Council
judgment of Chand Kaur v. Partab Singh47 would be apposite in this regard:—
“The cause of action has no relation whatever to the defence which may be set
up by the defendant, nor does it depend upon the character of the relief prayed for
by the plaintiff. It refers entirely to the ground set forth in the plaint as the cause of
action, or, in other words, to the media upon which the Plaintiff asks the Court to
arrive at a conclusion in his favour.”
77. The meaning of the expression “cause of action”, in the context of the territorial
jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226(2), was considered in State of Rajasthan
v. Swaika Properties48 , and it was observed that in order to invest the High Court with
jurisdiction to entertain the petition the transaction in question must be an integral
part of the cause of action. In the facts of the case it was held that the service of
notice on the respondent at its registered office at Calcutta within the territorial limits
of the State of West Bengal, in respect of acquisition proceedings initiated by
Rajasthan State Government regarding land situate in Jaipur, could not give rise to a
cause of action within the territorial jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court unless the
service of such notice was an integral part of the cause of action. The observations
made in the judgment are as follows:—
“8. The expression “cause of action” is tersely defined in Mulla's Code of Civil
Procedure:
The ‘‘cause of action’ means every fact which, if traversed, it would be necessary
for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of the court.
In other words, it is a bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to
them gives the plaintiff a right to relief against the defendant. The mere service of
notice under Section 52(2) of the Act on the respondents at their registered office
at 18-B, Brabourne Road, Calcutta i.e. within the territorial limits of the State of
West Bengal, could not give rise to a cause of action within that territory unless the
service of such notice was an integral part of the cause of action. The entire cause
of action culminating in the acquisition of the land under Section 52(1) of the Act
arose within the State of Rajasthan i.e. within the territorial jurisdiction of the
Rajasthan High Court at the Jaipur Bench. The answer to the question whether
service of notice is an integral part of the cause of action within the meaning of
Article 226(2) of the Constitution must depend upon the nature of the impugned
order giving rise to a cause of action. The notification dated February 8, 1984 issued
by the State Government under Section 52(1) of the Act became effective the
moment it was published in the official Gazette as thereupon the notified land
became vested in the State Government free from all encumbrances. It was not
necessary for the respondents to plead the service of notice on them by the Special
Officer, Town Planning Department, Jaipur under Section 52(2) for the grant of an
appropriate writ, direction or order under Article 226 of the Constitution for
quashing the notification issued by the State Government under Section 52(1) of
the Act. If the respondents felt aggrieved by the acquisition of their lands situate at
Jaipur and wanted to challenge the validity of the notification issued by the State
Government of Rajasthan under Section 52(1) of the Act by a petition under Article
226 of the Constitution, the remedy of the respondents for the grant of such relief
had to be sought by filing such a petition before the Rajasthan High Court, Jaipur
Bench, where the cause of action wholly or in part arose.”
78. The question of territorial jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226(2)
again came up for consideration in Oil and Natural Gas Commission v. Utpal Kumar
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Basu11 , and it was held that territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in
part, arises, is to be decided on facts pleaded in the petition, disregarding the truth or
otherwise thereof.
79. In the facts of the case, the mere fact that the petitioner company, having its
registered office at Calcutta, had responded to an advertisement published in a
Calcutta newspaper, inviting tenders at Delhi, for the works to be executed in Gujarat,
had sent its tender to the Delhi address from Calcutta and also made representations
from Calcutta against non-consideration of its offer, held, did not disclose that even a
part of cause of action arose within the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court,
and it had no jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition. The observations made in the
judgment are as follows:—
“5. Clause (1) of Article 226 begins with a non obstante clause --
notwithstanding anything in Article 32 -- and provides that every High Court shall
have power “throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction”,
to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government,
“within those territories” directions, orders or writs, for the enforcement of any of
the rights conferred by Part III or for any other purpose. Under clause (2) of Article
226 the High Court may exercise its power conferred by clause (1) if the cause of
action, wholly or in part, had arisen within the territory over which it exercises
jurisdiction, notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or the
residence of such person is not within those territories. On a plain reading of the
aforesaid two clauses of Article 226 of the Constitution it becomes clear that a High
Court can exercise the power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement
of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution or for any
other purpose if the cause of action, wholly or in part, had arisen within the
territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, notwithstanding that the seat
of the Government or authority or the residence of the person against whom the
direction, order or writ is issued is not within the said territories. In order to confer
jurisdiction on the High Court of Calcutta, NICCO must show that at least a part of
the cause of action had arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of that Court.
That is at best its case in the writ petition.
6. It is well settled that the expression “cause of action” means that bundle of
facts which the petitioner must prove, if traversed, to entitle him to a judgment in
his favour by the Court. In Chand Kour v. Partab Singh, ILR (1889) 16 Cal 98, Lord
Watson said:
“… the cause of action has no relation whatever to the defence which may be set
up by the defendant, nor does it depend upon the character of the relief prayed for
by the plaintiff. It refers entirely to the ground set forth in the plaint as the cause of
action, or, in other words, to the media upon which the plaintiff asks the Court to
arrive at a conclusion in his favour.”
Therefore, in determining the objection of lack of territorial jurisdiction the court
must take all the facts pleaded in support of the cause of action into consideration
albeit without embarking upon an enquiry as to the correctness or otherwise of the
said facts. In other words the question whether a High Court has territorial
jurisdiction to entertain a writ petition must be answered on the basis of the
averments made in the petition, the truth or otherwise whereof being immaterial.
To put it differently, the question of territorial jurisdiction must be decided on the
facts pleaded in the petition. Therefore, the question whether in the instant case
the Calcutta High Court had jurisdiction to entertain and decide the writ petition in
question even on the facts alleged must depend upon whether the averments made
in paragraphs 5, 7, 18, 22, 26 and 43 are sufficient in law to establish that a part of
the cause of action had arisen within the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court.”
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80. The question as to whether location of head office of a company within the
territorial jurisdiction of a High Court would automatically give it jurisdiction was
subject matter of consideration in Eastern Coalfields Limited v. Kalyan Banerjee49 . In
the facts of the case, a challenge to termination of service of an employee was raised
where the company was having its head office in West Bengal. The services of the
employee were terminated at a place in Jharkhand State by his appointing authority
whose office was also located at the same place. The termination order was not subject
to sanction of the head office. In such circumstances, no part of the cause of action
having arisen in West Bengal, it was held, that mere location of the head office of the
company in West Bengal would not confer jurisdiction upon Calcutta High Court to
entertain such a petition. It was reiterated that “cause of action” for the purpose of
Article 226(2), must be assigned the same meaning as under Section 20(c) CPC. It
would mean a bundle of facts which are required to be proved; however, the entire
bundle of facts pleaded, need not constitute a cause of action as what is necessary to
be proved is material facts whereupon a writ petition can be allowed.
81. A question as to whether order of Supreme Court could confer territorial
jurisdiction on a High Court in matters in which High Court is lacking the same was
considered in Satya Prakash v. State of U.P.50 . In this case reliance was placed upon
prior order of the Supreme Court dismissing the appellant's petition under Article 32
with liberty to move the appropriate Court including the High Court of Delhi, if so
advised. The offence having been committed within the jurisdiction of Allahabad High
Court, it was held that the Supreme Court's order could not be construed to confer any
territorial jurisdiction on Delhi High Court when it does not possess such jurisdiction.
82. The nature of facts which give rise to “part of cause of action” within the
territorial jurisdiction of a High Court in the context of clause (2) of Article 226 came
up for consideration in the case of Union of India v. Adani Exports Ltd.51 and it was
held that in order to confer jurisdiction on the High Court to entertain a writ petition,
the Court must be satisfied from the entire facts pleaded in support of the cause of
action that those facts do constitute a cause so as to empower the Court to decide a
dispute which has, at least in part, arisen within its jurisdiction. Each and every fact
pleaded in the application may not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that those facts
give rise to a cause of action within the Court's territorial jurisdiction unless those
facts are such which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in the case.
Facts which have no bearing with the lis or the dispute involved in the case, were held,
to be not giving rise to a cause of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the
Court concerned. The observations made in the judgment are being extracted below:—
“15. Article 226(2) of the Constitution of India which speaks of the territorial
jurisdiction of the High Court reads:
“226(2). The power conferred by clause (1) to issue directions, orders or writs
to any Government, authority or person may also be exercised by any High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of such power, notwithstanding
that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is
not within those territories.”
16. It is clear from the above constitutional provision that a High Court can
exercise the jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, wholly or in part, arises. This provision in the Constitution has come up for
consideration in a number of cases before this Court. In this regard, it would suffice
for us to refer to the observations of this Court in the case of Oil and Natural Gas
Commission v. Utpal Kumar Basu, (1994) 4 SCC 711 wherein it was held: “Under
Article 226 a High Court can exercise the power to issue directions, orders or writs
for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the
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Constitution or for any other purpose if the cause of action, wholly or in part, had
arisen within the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction,
notwithstanding that the seat of the Government or authority or the residence of
the person against whom the direction, order or writ is issued is not within the said
territories. The expression ‘‘cause of action’ means that bundle of facts which the
petitioner must prove, if traversed, to entitle him to a judgment in his favour by the
court. Therefore, in determining the objection of lack of territorial jurisdiction the
court must take all the facts pleaded in support of the cause of action into
consideration albeit without embarking upon an enquiry as to the correctness or
otherwise of the said facts. Thus the question of territorial jurisdiction must be
decided on the facts pleaded in the petition, the truth or otherwise of the averments
made in the petition being immaterial.”
17. It is seen from the above that in order to confer jurisdiction on a High Court
to entertain a writ petition or a special civil application as in this case, the High
Court must be satisfied from the entire facts pleaded in support of the cause of
action that those facts do constitute a cause so as to empower the court to decide a
dispute which has, at least in part, arisen within its jurisdiction. It is clear from the
above judgment that each and every fact pleaded by the respondents in their
application does not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that those facts give rise to a
cause of action within the court's territorial jurisdiction unless those facts pleaded
are such which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in the case.
Facts which have no bearing with the lis or the dispute involved in the case, do not
give rise to a cause of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the court
concerned. If we apply this principle then we see that none of the facts pleaded in
para 16 of the petition, in our opinion, falls into the category of bundle of facts
which would constitute a cause of action giving rise to a dispute which could confer
territorial jurisdiction on the courts at Ahmedabad.”
83. The meaning of the expression “cause of action” was discussed in National
Textile Corporation Limited v. Haribox Swalram52 , while considering the facts giving
rise to the Court's territorial jurisdiction, in the context of Article 226(2), and it was
held that only those facts give rise to a cause of action within a Court's territorial
jurisdiction which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in that case,
and not otherwise. It was stated thus:—
“10. Under clause (2) of Article 226 of the Constitution, the High Court is
empowered to issue writs, orders or directions to any Government, authority or
person exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of such power, notwithstanding that
the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is not
within those territories. Cause of action as understood in the civil proceedings
means every fact which, if traversed, would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove in
order to support his right to a judgment of the court. To put it in a different way, it
is the bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to them, gives the
plaintiff a right to relief against the defendant. In Union of India v. Adani Exports
Ltd., (2002) 1 SCC 567 in the context of clause (2) of Article 226 of the
Constitution, it has been explained that each and every fact pleaded in the writ
petition does not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that those facts give rise to a
cause of action within the court's territorial jurisdiction unless those facts pleaded
are such which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in the case.
Facts which have no bearing with the lis or dispute involved in the case, do not give
rise to a cause of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the court
concerned. A similar question was examined in State of Rajasthan v. Swaika
Properties. (1985) 3 SCC 217. Here certain properties belonging to a company
which had its registered office in Calcutta were sought to be acquired in Jaipur and
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a notice under Section 52 of the Rajasthan Urban Improvement Act was served
upon the company at Calcutta. The question which arose for consideration was
whether the service of notice at the head office of the company at Calcutta could
give rise to a cause of action within the State of West Bengal to enable the Calcutta
High Court to exercise jurisdiction in a matter where challenge to acquisition
proceedings conducted in Jaipur was made. It was held that the entire cause of
action culminating in the acquisition of the land under Section 152 of the Rajasthan
Act arose within the territorial jurisdiction of the Rajasthan High Court and it was
not necessary for the company to plead the service of notice upon them at Calcutta
for grant of appropriate writ, order or direction under Article 226 of the Constitution
for quashing the notice issued by the Rajasthan Government under Section 52 of
the Act.
It was thus held that the Calcutta High Court had no jurisdiction to entertain the
writ petition.”
84. The territorial scope of an order of a High Court under Article 226 and the
meaning of the expression “cause of action” in the context of clause (2) of Article 226
was subject matter of consideration in Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. v. Union of India53
Taking into consideration that the phraseology used in Section 20(c) of the Code of
Civil Procedure, 190854 and clause (2) of Article 226 are in pari materia, the decisions
of the Supreme Court rendered on interpretation of Section 20(c) CPC were held to be
applicable to writ proceedings also and it was held that even if a small fraction of
cause of action accrues within the jurisdiction of the Court, the Court will have
jurisdiction in the matter. The observations made in the judgment in this regard are as
follows:—
“6. Cause of action implies a right to sue. The material facts which are imperative
for the suitor to allege and prove constitute the cause of action. Cause of action is
not defined in any statute. It has, however, been judicially interpreted inter alia to
mean that every fact which would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if
traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of the Court. Negatively
put, it would mean that everything which, if not proved, gives the defendant an
immediate right to judgment, would be part of cause of action. Its importance is
beyond any doubt. For every action, there has to be a cause of action, if not, the
plaint or the writ petition, as the case may be, shall be rejected summarily.
7. Clause (2) of Article 226 of the Constitution of India reads thus:
“226(2). The power conferred by clause (1) to issue directions, orders or writs
to any Government, authority or person may also be exercised by any High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of such power, notwithstanding
that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is
not within those territories.”
8. Section 20(c) of the Code of Civil Procedure reads as under:
“20. Other suits to be instituted where defendants reside or cause of action
arises.--Subject to the limitations aforesaid, every suit shall be instituted in a
court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction—
(a)-(b) x x
(a) the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.”
9. Although in view of Section 141 of the Code of Civil Procedure the provisions
thereof would not apply to writ proceedings, the phraseology used in Section 20(c)
of the Code of Civil Procedure and clause (2) of Article 226, being in pari materia,
the decisions of this Court rendered on interpretation of Section 20(c) CPC shall
apply to the writ proceedings also. Before proceeding to discuss the matter further
it may be pointed out that the entire bundle of facts pleaded need not constitute a
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cause of action as what is necessary to be proved before the petitioner can obtain a
decree is the material facts. The expression material facts is also known as integral
facts.
10. Keeping in view the expressions used in clause (2) of Article 226 of the
Constitution of India, indisputably even if a small fraction of cause of action accrues
within the jurisdiction of the Court, the Court will have jurisdiction in the matter.”
85. The principle that the question of territorial jurisdiction to entertain a writ
petition must be arrived at solely on the basis of averments made in the petition, the
truth or otherwise thereof being immaterial was reiterated placing reliance upon the
judgments in Chand Kaur v. Partab Singh47 , Oil and Natural Gas Commission v. Utpal
Kumar Basu11 , State of Rajasthan v. Swaika Properties48 , Aligarh Muslim University v.
Vinay Engineering Enterprises (P) Ltd.10 , Union of India v. Adani Exports Ltd. and
National Textile Corporation Ltd. v. Haribox Swalram52 , and it was stated thus:—
“11. In Chand Kour v. Partab Singh (1887-88) 15 IA 156 it was held: (IA pp.
157-58)
“The cause of action has no relation whatever to the defence which may be set
up by the defendant, nor does it depend upon the character of the relief prayed for
by the plaintiff. It refers entirely to the grounds set forth in the plaint as the cause
of action, or, in other words, to the media upon which the plaintiff asks the court to
arrive at a conclusion in his favour.”
12. This Court in Oil & Natural Gas Commission v. Utpal Kumar Basu, (1994) 4
SCC 711 held that the question as to whether the Court has a territorial jurisdiction
to entertain a writ petition, must be arrived at on the basis of averments made in
the petition, the truth or otherwise thereof being immaterial.
13. This Court in Oil and Natural Gas Commission case held that all necessary
facts must form an integral part of the cause of action. It was observed: (SCC p.
719, para 8)
“So also the mere fact that it sent fax messages from Calcutta and received a
reply thereto at Calcutta would not constitute an integral part of the cause of
action.”
14. In State of Rajasthan v. Swaika Properties, (1985) 3 SCC 217 this Court
opined that mere service of a notice would not give rise to any cause of action
unless service of notice was an integral part of the cause of action. The said decision
has also been noticed in Oil and Natural Gas Commission. This Court held: (SCC p.
223, para 8)
“The answer to the question whether service of notice is an integral part of the
cause of action within the meaning of Article 226(2) of the Constitution must
depend upon the nature of the impugned order giving rise to a cause of action.”
15. In Aligarh Muslim University v. Vinay Engg. Enterprises (P) Ltd., (1994) 4
SCC 710 this Court lamented: (SCC p. 711, para 2)
“2. We are surprised, not a little, that the High Court of Calcutta should have
exercised jurisdiction in a case where it had absolutely no jurisdiction. The contracts
in question were executed at Aligarh, the construction work was to be carried out at
Aligarh, even the contracts provided that in the event of dispute the Aligarh court
alone will have jurisdiction. The arbitrator was from Aligarh and was to function
there. Merely because the respondent was a Calcutta-based firm, the High Court of
Calcutta seems to have exercised jurisdiction where it had none by adopting a
queer line of reasoning. We are constrained to say that this is a case of abuse of
jurisdiction and we feel that the respondent deliberately moved the Calcutta High
Court ignoring the fact that no part of the cause of action had arisen within the
jurisdiction of that Court. It clearly shows that the litigation filed in the Calcutta
High Court was thoroughly unsustainable.”
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16. In Union of India v. Adani Exports Ltd., (2002) 1 SCC 567 it was held that in
order to confer jurisdiction on a High Court to entertain a writ petition it must
disclose that the integral facts pleaded in support of the cause of action do
constitute a cause so as to empower the Court to decide the dispute and the entire
or a part of it arose within its jurisdiction.
17. Recently, in National Textile Corpn. Ltd. v. Haribox Swalram, (2004) 9 SCC
786 a Division Bench of this Court held:
(SCC p. 797, para 12.1)
“12.1. As discussed earlier, the mere fact that the writ petitioner carries on
business at Calcutta or that the reply to the correspondence made by it was
received at Calcutta is not an integral part of the cause of action and, therefore, the
Calcutta High Court had no jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition and the view to
the contrary taken by the Division Bench cannot be sustained. In view of the above
finding, the writ petition is liable to be dismissed.”
18. The facts pleaded in the writ petition must have a nexus on the basis
whereof a prayer can be granted. Those facts which have nothing to do with the
prayer made therein cannot be said to give rise to a cause of action which would
confer jurisdiction on the Court.”
86. The situs of the office of the respondents was held to be not relevant for the
purposes of territorial jurisdiction and it was held in the context of clause (2) of Article
226 that a place where appellate/revisional order is passed may give rise to a part of
the cause of action although the original order was made at a place outside the said
area, and when a part of an action arises within one or the other High Court it would
be for the litigant who is the dominus litis to have his forum conveniens that is to
choose his forum. The observations made in the judgment in this regard are as
follows:- “23. A writ petition, however, questioning the constitutionality of a
parliamentary Act shall not be maintainable in the High Court of Delhi only because
the seat of the Union of India is in Delhi. (See Abdul Kafi Khan v. Union of India, AIR
1979 Cal 354).
1. Learned counsel for the appellant in support of his argument would contend that
the situs of framing law or rule would give jurisdiction to the Delhi High Court
and in support of the said contention relied upon the decisions of this Court in
Nasiruddin v. STAT, (1975) 2 SCC 671 and U.P. Rashtriya Chini Mill Adhikari
Parishad v. State of U.P., (1995) 4 SCC 738. So far as the decision of this Court
in Nasiruddin v. STAT is concerned, it is not an authority for the proposition that
the situs of legislature of a State or the authority in power to make subordinate
legislation or issue a notification would confer power or jurisdiction on the High
Court or a Bench of the High Court to entertain a petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution. In fact this Court while construing the provisions of the United
Provinces High Courts (Amalgamation) Order, 1948 stated the law thus: (SCC p.
683, para 37)
“37. The conclusion as well as the reasoning of the High Court is incorrect. It
is unsound because the expression ‘‘cause of action’ in an application under
Article 226 would be as the expression is understood and if the cause of action
arose because of the appellate order or the revisional order which came to be
passed at Lucknow then Lucknow would have jurisdiction though the original
order was passed at a place outside the areas in Oudh. It may be that the
original order was in favour of the person applying for a writ. In such case an
adverse appellate order might be the cause of action.
The expression ‘‘cause of action’ is well known. If the cause of action arises
wholly or in part at a place within the specified Oudh areas, the Lucknow Bench
will have jurisdiction. If the cause of action arises wholly within the specified
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Oudh areas, it is indisputable that the Lucknow Bench would have exclusive
jurisdiction in such a matter. If the cause of action arises in part within the
specified areas in Oudh it would be open to the litigant who is the dominus litis
to have his forum conveniens. The litigant has the right to go to a court where
part of his cause of action arises. In such cases, it is incorrect to say that the
litigant chooses any particular court. The choice is by reason of the jurisdiction of
the court being attracted by part of cause of action arising within the jurisdiction
of the court. Similarly, if the cause of action can be said to have arisen part
within specified areas in Oudh and part outside the specified Oudh areas, the
litigant will have the choice to institute proceedings either at Allahabad or
Lucknow. The court will find out in each case whether the jurisdiction of the court
is rightly attracted by the alleged cause of action.”
2. The said decision is an authority for the proposition that the place from where an
appellate order or a revisional order is passed may give rise to a part of cause of
action although the original order was at a place outside the said area. When a
part of the cause of action arises within one or the other High Court, it will be for
the petitioner to choose his forum.
3. The view taken by this Court in U.P. Rashtriya Chini Mill Adhikari Parishad,
(1995) 4 SCC 738 that the situs of issue of an order or notification by the
Government would come within the meaning of the expression “cases arising” in
clause 14 of the (Amalgamation) Order is not a correct view of law for the reason
hereafter stated and to that extent the said decision is overruled. In fact, a
legislation, it is trite, is not confined to a statute enacted by Parliament or the
legislature of a State, which would include delegated legislation and subordinate
legislation or an executive order made by the Union of India, State or any other
statutory authority. In a case where the field is not covered by any statutory
rule, executive instructions issued in this behalf shall also come within the
purview thereof. Situs of office of Parliament, legislature of a State or authorities
empowered to make subordinate legislation would not by itself constitute any
cause of action or cases arising. In other words, framing of a statute, statutory
rule or issue of an executive order or instruction would not confer jurisdiction
upon a court only because of the situs of the office of the maker thereof.
4. When an order, however, is passed by a court or tribunal or an executive
authority whether under provisions of a statute or otherwise, a part of cause of
action arises at that place. Even in a given case, when the original authority is
constituted at one place and the appellate authority is constituted at another, a
writ petition would be maintainable at both the places. In other words, as order
of the appellate authority constitutes a part of cause of action, a writ petition
would be maintainable in the High Court within whose jurisdiction it is situate
having regard to the fact that the order of the appellate authority is also required
to be set aside and as the order of the original authority merges with that of the
appellate authority.”
87. It was also held that if a small fraction of cause of action accrues within the
jurisdiction of the Court, the Court would have jurisdiction in the matter; however, the
same by itself may not be considered to be a determinative factor compelling the High
Court to decide the matter on merits and in appropriate cases the Court may refuse to
exercise its discretionary jurisdiction by invoking the doctrine of forum conveniens.
Reference in this regard was made to the judgments in the cases of Bhagat Singh
Bugga v. Dewan Jagbir Sawhney55 , Madanlal Jalan v. Madanlal56 , Bharat Coking Coal
Ltd. v. Jharia Talkies & Cold Storage (P) Ltd.57 , S.S. Jain & Co. v. Union of India58 and
New Horizons Ltd. v. Union of India59 .
88. The principle with regard to the doctrine of forum conveniens was stated by
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Lord Kinnear in Sim v. Robinow60 in the following manner, which is being extracted
below:—
“The general rule was stated by the late Lord President in Clements v. Macaulay,
4 Macph. 593, in the following terms:
‘In cases in which jurisdiction is competently founded, a court has no
discretion whether it shall exercise its jurisdiction or not, but is bound to award
the justice which a suiter comes to ask. Judex tenetur impertiri judicium suum;
and the plea under consideration must not be stretched so as to interfere with
the general principle of jurisprudence.’ And therefore the plea can never be
sustained unless the court is satisfied that there is some other tribunal, having
competent jurisdiction, in which the case may be tried more suitably for the
interests of all the parties and for the ends of justice… In all these cases there
was one indispensable element present when the court gave effect to the plea of
forum non conveniens, namely, that the court was satisfied that there was
another court in which the action ought to be tried as being more convenient for
all the parties, and more suitable for the ends of justice.”
89. The principle has been further explained in the judgment of House of Lords in
Tehrani v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (Scotland)61 and it has been
stated thus:—
“25. The existence of jurisdiction is one matter, the exercise of the jurisdiction is
another… A court will decline to exercise jurisdiction if there is available an
alternative forum more appropriate for deciding the dispute in question.”
90. The doctrine of forum non conveniens was also considered by the U.S. Supreme
Court in Gulf Oil Corporation v. Gilbert62 and it was held that the doctrine can never
apply in a case where there is absence of jurisdiction. The observations made in the
judgment in this regard are as follows:—
“The principle of forum non conveniens is simply that a court may resist
imposition upon its jurisdiction even where jurisdiction is authorised by the letter of
a general venue statute. These statutes are drawn with a necessary generality and
usually give a plaintiff a choice of courts, so that he may be quite sure of some
place in which to pursue his remedy. But the open door may admit those who seek
not simply justice but perhaps justice blended with some harassment. A plaintiff
sometimes is under temptation to resort to a strategy of forcing the trial at a most
inconvenient place for an adversary, even at some inconvenience to himself.”
91. The invocation of the jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 in a case
where cause of action wholly or in part had arisen within its territorial limits even
though the seat of the Government or authority or residence of a person against whom
the direction, order or writ was sought was not within the said territory was considered
in Om Prakash Srivastava v. Union of India63 and the order of the High Court refusing
to consider the writ petition merely by observing that though it may have jurisdiction
but another High Court may deal with the matter more effectively, was held to be not
a correct way to deal with the petition and the appeal was disposed of remitting the
matter to the High Court for fresh hearing on merits.
92. The expression “cause of action” in the context of clause (2) of Article 226 was
explained referring to Black's Law Dictionary, Stroud's Judicial Dictionary and
Halsbury's Laws of England (4th Edn.). Reference was also made to the decisions in Oil
and Natural Gas Commission v. Utpal Kumar Basu11 , Bloom Dekor Ltd. v. Subhash
Himatlal Desai64 , Sadanandan Bhadran v. Madhavan Sunil Kumar65 , South East Asia
Shipping Company Limited v. Nav Bharat Enterprises (P) Ltd.21 , Rajasthan High Court
Advocates’ Association v. Union of India25 , Gurdit Singh v. Munsha Singh66 ,
Navinchandra N. Majithia v. State of Maharashtra27 . The observations made in the case
of Om Prakash Srivastava (supra) in this regard are as follows:—
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“7. The question whether or not cause of action wholly or in part for filing a writ
petition has arisen within the territorial limits of any High Court has to be decided
in the light of the nature and character of the proceedings under Article 226 of the
Constitution. In order to maintain a writ petition, a writ petitioner has to establish
that a legal right claimed by him has prima facie either been infringed or is
threatened to be infringed by the respondent within the territorial limits of the
Court's jurisdiction and such infringement may take place by causing him actual
injury or threat thereof.
8. Two clauses of Article 226 of the Constitution on plain reading give clear
indication that the High Court can exercise power to issue direction, order or writs
for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the
Constitution or for any other purpose if the cause of action wholly or in part had
arisen within the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction
notwithstanding that the seat of the Government or authority or the residence of
the person against whom the direction, order or writ is issued is not within the said
territories. (See ONGC v. Utpal Kumar Basu, 1994) 4 SCC 711).
9. By “cause of action” it is meant every fact, which, if traversed, it would be
necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of the
Court. In other words, a bundle of facts, which it is necessary for the plaintiff to
prove in order to succeed in the suit. (See Bloom Dekor Ltd. v. Subhash Himatlal
Desai, (1994) 6 SCC 322).
10. In a generic and wide sense (as in Section 20 of the Civil Procedure Code,
1908) “cause of action” means every fact, which it is necessary to establish to
support a right to obtain a judgment. (See Sadanandan Bhadran v. Madhavan Sunil
Kumar, (1998) 6 SCC 514 : 1998 SCC (Cri) 1471).
11. It is settled law that “cause of action” consists of a bundle of facts, which
give cause to enforce the legal inquiry for redress in a court of law. In other words,
it is a bundle of facts, which taken with the law applicable to them, gives the
plaintiff a right to claim relief against the defendant. It must include some act done
by the defendant since in the absence of such an act no cause of action would
possibly accrue or would arise. [See South East Asia Shipping Co. Ltd. v. Nav
Bharat Enterprises (P) Ltd., (1996) 3 SCC 443).
12. The expression “cause of action” has acquired a judicially settled meaning. In
the restricted sense “cause of action” means the circumstances forming the
infraction of the right or the immediate occasion for the reaction. In the wider
sense, it means the necessary conditions for the maintenance of the suit, including
not only the infraction of the right, but also the infraction coupled with the right
itself. Compendiously, as noted above, the expression means every fact, which it
would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his
right to the judgment of the court. Every fact, which is necessary to be proved, as
distinguished from every piece of evidence, which is necessary to prove each fact,
comprises in “cause of action”. (See Rajasthan High Court Advocates’ Assn. v.
Union of India, (2001) 2 SCC 294).
13. The expression “cause of action” has sometimes been employed to convey
the restricted idea of facts or circumstances which constitute either the
infringement or the basis of a right and no more. In a wider and more
comprehensive sense, it has been used to denote the whole bundle of material
facts, which a plaintiff must prove in order to succeed. These are all those essential
facts without the proof of which the plaintiff must fail in his suit. (See Gurdit Singh
v. Munsha Singh, (1977) 1 SCC 791).
14. The expression “cause of action” is generally understood to mean a situation
or state of facts that entitles a party to maintain an action in a court or a tribunal; a
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group of operative facts giving rise to one or more bases of suing; a factual
situation that entitles one person to obtain a remedy in court from another person
(see Black's Law Dictionary). In Stroud's Judicial Dictionary a “cause of action” is
stated to be the entire set of facts that gives rise to an enforceable claim; the
phrase comprises every fact, which if traversed, the plaintiff must prove in order to
obtain judgment. In Words and Phrases (4th Edn.) the meaning attributed to the
phrase “cause of action” in common legal parlance is existence of those facts, which
give a party a right to judicial interference on his behalf. (See Navinchandra N.
Majithia v. State of Maharashtra [(2000) 7 SCC 640 : 2001 SCC (Cri) 215).
15. In Halsbury's Laws of England (4th Edn.) it has been stated as follows:
“‘‘Cause of action’ has been defined as meaning simply a factual situation, the
existence of which entitles one person to obtain from the court a remedy against
another person. The phrase has been held from earliest time to include every fact
which is material to be proved to entitle the plaintiff to succeed, and every fact
which a defendant would have a right to traverse. ‘‘Cause of action’ has also
been taken to mean that a particular act on the part of the defendant which
gives the plaintiff his cause of complaint, or the subject-matter of grievance
founding the action, not merely the technical cause of action.”
93. The Supreme Court in the aforementioned case of Om Prakash Srivastava while
remitting the matter to the High Court made the following observations:—
“18. In the instant case the High Court has not dealt with the question as to
whether it had jurisdiction to deal with the writ petition. It only observed that the
Delhi High Court may have jurisdiction, but the issues relating to conditions of
prisoners in the State of U.P. can be more effectively dealt with by the Allahabad
High Court. As noted supra, there were two grievances by the appellant. But only
one of them i.e. the alleged lack of medical facilities has been referred to by the
High Court. It was open to the Delhi High Court to say that no part of the cause of
action arose within the territorial jurisdiction of the Delhi High Court. The High
Court in the impugned order does not say so. On the contrary, it says that
jurisdiction may be there, but the Allahabad High Court can deal with the matter
more effectively. That is not certainly a correct way to deal with the writ petition.
Accordingly, we set aside the impugned order of the High Court and remit the
matter to it for fresh hearing on merits…”
94. The law with regard to determination of the territorial jurisdiction of a High
Court again came to be analysed in Alchemist Limited v. State Bank of Sikkim67 , and
taking note of the amendment of Article 226 in the year 1963, wherein accrual of
cause of action had been made an additional ground to confer jurisdiction on the High
Court under Article 226, it was held, that after 1963, cause of action is relevant and
germane for determination of the jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 and
that a writ petition could now be instituted in the High Court within territorial
jurisdiction of which, cause of action, in whole or in part, arises.
95. Explaining the meaning of “cause of action”, it was further held, that, in a
particular case, whether facts averred by the writ petitioner constitute a part of cause
of action, has to be determined, on the basis of question whether such facts constitute
a material, essential or integral part of the cause of action, and in determining the said
question, the substance of the matter and not the form thereof has to be considered.
The observations made in the judgment are as follows:- “16. It may be stated that by
the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, Clause (1-A) was renumbered
as Clause (2). The underlying object of amendment was expressed in the following
words:
“Under the existing Article 226 of the Constitution, the only High Court which has
jurisdiction with respect to the Central Government is the Punjab High Court. This
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involves considerable hardship to litigants from distant places. It is, therefore,
proposed to amend Article 226 so that when any relief is sought against any
Government, authority or person for any action taken, the High Court within whose
jurisdiction the cause of action arises may also have jurisdiction to issue appropriate
directions, orders or writs.”
The effect of the amendment was that the accrual of cause of action was made
an additional ground to confer jurisdiction on a High Court under Article 226 of the
Constitution.
17. As Joint Committee observed:
“This clause would enable the High Court within whose jurisdiction the cause of
action arises to issue directions, orders or writs to any Government, authority or
person, notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or the
residence of such person is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court. The
Committee feels that the High Court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action
arises in part only should also be vested with such jurisdiction.”
18. The legislative history of the constitutional provisions, therefore, makes it
clear that after 1963, cause of action is relevant and germane and a writ petition
can be instituted in a High Court within the territorial jurisdiction of which cause of
action in whole or in part arises.
19. The question for our consideration is as to whether the assertion of the
appellant is well founded that a part of cause of action can be said to have arisen
within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana. Whereas,
the appellant Company submits that a part of cause of action had arisen within the
territorial jurisdiction of that Court, the respondents contend otherwise.
20. It may be stated that the expression “cause of action” has neither been
defined in the Constitution nor in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It may,
however, be described as a bundle of essential facts necessary for the plaintiff to
prove before he can succeed. Failure to prove such facts would give the defendant a
right to judgment in his favour. Cause of action thus gives occasion for and forms
the foundation of the suit.
21. The classic definition of the expression “cause of action” is found in Cooke v.
Gill, (1873) 8 CP 107 wherein Lord Brett observed:
“‘‘Cause of action’ means every fact which it would be necessary for the
plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgment of
the court.”
22. For every action, there has to be a cause of action. If there is no cause of
action, the plaint or petition has to be dismissed.
23. Mr. Soli J. Sorabjee, Senior Advocate appearing for the appellant Company
placed strong reliance on A.B.C. Laminart (P) Ltd. v. A.P. Agencies, (1989) 2 SCC
163 and submitted that the High Court had committed an error of law and of
jurisdiction in holding that no part of cause of action could be said to have arisen
within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana. He
particularly referred to the following observations: (SCC p. 170, para 12)
“12. A cause of action means every fact, which if traversed, it would be
necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of the
court. In other words, it is a bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to
them gives the plaintiff a right to relief against the defendant. It must include some
act done by the defendant since in the absence of such an act no cause of action
can possibly accrue. It is not limited to the actual infringement of the right sued on
but includes all the material facts on which it is founded. It does not comprise
evidence necessary to prove such facts, but every fact necessary for the plaintiff to
prove to enable him to obtain a decree. Everything which if not proved would give
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the defendant a right to immediate judgment must be part of the cause of action.
But it has no relation whatever to the defence which may be set up by the
defendant nor does it depend upon the character of the relief prayed for by the
plaintiff.”
24. In our opinion, the High Court was wholly justified in upholding the
preliminary objection raised by the respondents and in dismissing the petition on
the ground of want of territorial jurisdiction.
25. The learned counsel for the respondents referred to several decisions of this
Court and submitted that whether a particular fact constitutes a cause of action or
not must be decided on the basis of the facts and circumstances of each case. In
our judgment, the test is whether a particular fact(s) is (are) of substance and can
be said to be material, integral or essential part of the lis between the parties. If it
is, it forms a part of cause of action. If it is not, it does not form a part of cause of
action. It is also well settled that in determining the question, the substance of the
matter and not the form thereof has to be considered.
26. In Union of India v. Oswal Woollen Mills Ltd., (1984) 2 SCC 646 the
registered office of the Company was situated at Ludhiana, but a petition was filed
in the High Court of Calcutta on the ground that the Company had its branch office
there. The order was challenged by the Union of India. And this Court held that
since the registered office of the Company was at Ludhiana and the principal
respondents against whom primary relief was sought were at New Delhi, one would
have expected the writ petitioner to approach either the High Court of Punjab and
Haryana or the High Court of Delhi. The forum chosen by the writ petitioners could
not be said to be in accordance with law and the High Court of Calcutta could not
have entertained the writ petition.
27. In State of Rajasthan v. Swaika Properties, (1985) 3 SCC 217 the Company
whose registered office was at Calcutta filed a petition in the High Court of Calcutta
challenging the notice issued by the Special Town Planning Officer, Jaipur for
acquisition of immovable property situated in Jaipur. Observing that the entire
cause of action arose within the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court of Rajasthan
at Jaipur Bench, the Supreme Court held that the High Court of Calcutta had no
territorial jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition.
28. This Court held that mere service of notice on the petitioner at Calcutta
under the Rajasthan Urban Improvement Act, 1959 could not give rise to a cause of
action unless such notice was “an integral part of the cause of action”.
29. In ONGC v. Utpal Kumar Basu, (1994) 4 SCC 711 this Court held that when
the Head Office of ONGC was not located at Calcutta, nor the execution of contract
work was to be carried out in West Bengal, territorial jurisdiction cannot be
conferred on the High Court of Calcutta on the ground that an advertisement had
appeared in a daily (The Times of India), published from Calcutta, or the petitioner
submitted his bid from Calcutta, or subsequent representations were made from
Calcutta, or fax message as to the final decision taken by ONGC was received at
Calcutta inasmuch as neither of them would constitute an “integral part” of the
cause of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the High Court of Calcutta
under Article 226(2) of the Constitution.
30. In CBI, Anti-Corruption Branch v. Narayan Diwakar, (1999) 4 SCC 656, A was
posted in Arunachal Pradesh. On receiving a wireless message through Chief
Secretary of the State asking him to appear before CBI Inspector in Bombay, A
moved the High Court of Guwahati for quashing FIR filed against him by CBI. An
objection was raised by the department that the High Court of Guwahati had no
territorial jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition. But it was turned down. The
Supreme Court, however, upheld the objection that Gauhati High Court could not
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have entertained the petition.
31. In Union of India v. Adani Exports Ltd., (2002) 1 SCC 567 a question of
territorial jurisdiction came up for consideration. A filed a petition under Article 226
of the Constitution in the High Court of Gujarat claiming benefit of the Passport
Scheme under the EXIM policy. Passport was issued by Chennai Office. Entries in
the passport were made by the authorities at Chennai. None of the respondents was
stationed within the State of Gujarat. It was, therefore, contended that the Gujarat
High Court had no territorial jurisdiction to entertain the petition. The contention,
however, was negatived and the petition was allowed. The respondents approached
the Supreme Court.
32. The judgment of the High Court was sought to be supported inter alia on the
grounds that (i) A was carrying on business at Ahmedabad; (ii) orders were
placed from and executed at Ahmedabad; (iii) documents were sent and
payment was made at Ahmedabad; (iv) credit of duty was claimed for export
handled from Ahmedabad; (v) denial of benefit adversely affected the petitioner
at Ahmedabad; (vi) A had furnished bank guarantee and executed a bond at
Ahmedabad, etc.
33. Allowing the appeal and setting aside the order of the High Court, the
Supreme Court held that none of the facts pleaded by A constituted a cause of
action.
“Facts which have no bearing with the lis or the dispute involved in the case,
do not give rise to a cause of action so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the
court concerned.” (Adani Exports Ltd. case, (2002) 1 SCC 567, SCC pp. 573-74,
para 17.)
34. In Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. v. Union of India, (2004) 6 SCC 254 the
appellant was a Company registered under the Companies Act having its head office
at Mumbai. It obtained a loan from the Bhopal Branch of State Bank of India. The
Bank issued a notice for repayment of loan from Bhopal under the Securitisation
and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act,
2002. The appellant Company filed a writ petition in the High Court of Delhi which
was dismissed on the ground of lack of territorial jurisdiction. The Company
approached this Court and contended that as the constitutionality of a
parliamentary legislation was questioned, the High Court of Delhi had the requisite
jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition.
35. Negativing the contention and upholding the order passed by the High Court,
this Court ruled that passing of a legislation by itself does not confer any such right
to file a writ petition in any court unless a cause of action arises therefor. The Court
stated: (Kusum Ingots case, (2004) 6 SCC 254, SCC p. 261, para 20)
“20. A distinction between a legislation and executive action should be borne
in mind while determining the said question.” Referring to ONGC, (1994) 4 SCC
711, it was held that all necessary facts must form an “integral part” of the cause
of action. The fact which is neither material nor essential nor integral part of the
cause of action would not constitute a part of cause of action within the meaning
of Clause (2) of Article 226 of the Constitution.
36. In National Textile Corpn. Ltd. v. Haribox Swalram, (2004) 9 SCC 786
referring to earlier cases, this Court stated that: (SCC p. 797, para 12.1)
“12.1. …the mere fact that the writ petitioner carries on business at Calcutta
or that the reply to the correspondence made by it was received at Calcutta is
not an integral part of the cause of action and, therefore, the Calcutta High Court
had no jurisdiction to entertain the writ petition and the view to the contrary
taken by the Division Bench cannot be sustained.”
37. From the aforesaid discussion and keeping in view the ratio laid down in a
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catena of decisions by this Court, it is clear that for the purpose of deciding whether
facts averred by the appellant-petitioner would or would not constitute a part of
cause of action, one has to consider whether such fact constitutes a material,
essential, or integral part of the cause of action. It is no doubt true that even if a
small fraction of the cause of action arises within the jurisdiction of the court, the
court would have territorial jurisdiction to entertain the suit/petition. Nevertheless it
must be a “part of cause of action”, nothing less than that.”
96. An interesting question with regard to the territorial jurisdiction of the High
Court arose in Ambica Industries v. Commissioner of Central Excise26 , which was a
case where the appellant carried on business at Lucknow and was assessed at that
place whereafter the matter came up before the Customs Excise and Service Tax
Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT), New Delhi, which had been exercising territorial
jurisdiction over U.P., N.C.T. of Delhi and Maharashtra. An appeal came to be filed
subsequently under Section 35-G of the Central Excise Act, 1944, before the Delhi
High Court, which was turned down on the ground of territorial jurisdiction. In appeal,
before the Supreme Court, it was contended that the order of the first appellate court
being a decree, a second appeal would lie before the High Court to which it was
subordinate, and in view thereof the High Court had erred in arriving at the conclusion
that it had no territorial jurisdiction in the matter. On behalf of the Revenue, it was
urged that the situs of the assessing officer and not situs of the Tribunal would be the
determinative factor in that regard.
97. Dismissing the appeals, it was held, that CESTAT, New Delhi, was exercising
jurisdiction over three states. In all the three states, there are High Courts and in the
event the aggrieved person is treated to be the dominus litis, as a result whereof, he
elects to file the appeal before one or the other High Court, the decision of the High
Court shall be binding only on the authorities which are within its jurisdiction, and it
would only be of persuasive value on the authorities functioning under a different
jurisdiction, which may lead to a sort of judicial anarchy.
98. It was noted that in a particular case, an assessee, may invoke the jurisdiction
of a High Court of his choice to take advantage of the law laid down by it which might
suit him.
99. Furthermore, it was also taken note of that when an appeal is provided under a
statute, Parliament must have thought of one High Court. It is a different matter that
by way of necessity a Tribunal may have to exercise jurisdiction of over several States
but it does not appeal to any reason that Parliament intended, despite providing for an
appeal before the High Court, that appeals may be filed before different High Courts at
the sweet will of the party aggrieved by the decision of the Tribunal. It was therefore
held that in a case of this nature the “cause of action” doctrine may not be invoked.
100. In terms of Article 226(2), a High Court would have the power to issue a writ
of certiorari in respect of orders passed by subordinate courts within its territorial
jurisdiction or if any cause of action had arisen therewithin but the same tests could
not be applied when the appellate court exercises a jurisdiction over a tribunal
situated in more than one State. In such a situation, the High Court in the State where
the first court is located should be considered to be the appropriate appellate
authority.
101. The Hon'ble Bench held that doctrine of dominus litis and doctrine of situs of
the appellate tribunal do not go together inasmuch as dominus litis indicates that the
suitor has more than one option, whereas the situs of an appellate tribunal refers to
only one High Court wherein the appeal could be preferred. It was noticed that the
situs of a Tribunal may vary from time to time and the question whether its
jurisdiction would be extending to three States or more or less would depend upon the
executive order which may be issued. In such circumstances, determination of the
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jurisdiction of a High Court should be considered only on the basis of the statutory
provisions and not anything else. In case the cause of action doctrine was given effect
to, invariably more than one High Court may have jurisdiction, which would not be
contemplated.
102. The scope of Article 226(2) was again considered in Rajendran Chingaravelu v.
R.K. Mishra, Additional Commissioner of Income Tax68 and it was held that as per
clause (2) of Article 226 even if a small fraction of cause of action i.e. the bundle of
facts which gives the petitioner a right to sue accrued within the territories of the
State, the High Court of that State would have jurisdiction. The observations made in
the judgment are as follows:—
“9. The first question that arises for consideration is whether the Andhra Pradesh
High Court was justified in holding that as the seizure took place at Chennai (Tamil
Nadu), the appellant could not maintain the writ petition before it. The High Court
did not examine whether any part of cause of action arose in Andhra Pradesh.
Clause (2) of Article 226 makes it clear that the High Court exercising jurisdiction in
relation to the territories within which the cause of action arises wholly or in part,
will have jurisdiction. This would mean that even if a small fraction of the cause of
action (that bundle of facts which gives a petitioner, a right to sue) accrued within
the territories of Andhra Pradesh, the High Court of that State will have jurisdiction.
In this case, the genesis for the entire episode of search, seizure and detention was
the action of the security/ intelligence officials at Hyderabad Airport (in Andhra
Pradesh) who having inspected the cash carried by him, alerted their counterparts
at the Chennai Airport that appellant was carrying a huge sum of money, and
required to be intercepted and questioned. A part of the cause of action therefore
clearly arose in Hyderabad. It is also to be noticed that the consequential income
tax proceedings against him, which he challenged in the writ petition, were also
initiated at Hyderabad. Therefore, his writ petition ought not to have been rejected
on the ground of want of jurisdiction.”
103. The parameters for invocation of jurisdiction of High Court under Article 226
against an authority or person residing outside its territorial jurisdiction in a case
where a cause of action wholly or partly arises within the territorial jurisdiction of a
High Court was considered in the case of Nawal Kishore Sharma v. Union of India5 and
referring to the provisions of clause (2) the Court held that it was clear that the High
Court can issue a writ where a person or authority against whom the writ is issued is
located outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action wholly or partially arises
within the Court's territorial jurisdiction.
104. The expression “cause of action” for the purpose of Article 226(2), for all
intents and purposes, was held to have the same meaning as envisaged under Section
20(c) CPC. The observations made in the judgment in the case of Nawal Kishore
Sharma are as follows:—
“9. …On a plain reading of the amended provisions in clause (2), it is clear that
now the High Court can issue a writ when the person or the authority against whom
the writ is issued is located outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action
wholly or partially arises within the court's territorial jurisdiction. Cause of action for
the purpose of Article 226(2) of the Constitution, for all intent and purpose must be
assigned the same meaning as envisaged under Section 20(c) of the Code of Civil
Procedure. The expression cause of action has not been defined either in the Code
of Civil Procedure or the Constitution. Cause of action is bundle of facts which is
necessary for the plaintiff to prove in the suit before he can succeed. The term
“cause of action” as appearing in clause (2) came up for consideration time and
again before this Court.
10. In State of Rajasthan v. Swaika Properties, (1985) 3 SCC 217, the fact was
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that the respondent Company having its registered office in Calcutta owned certain
land on the outskirts of Jaipur City, was served with notice for acquisition of land
under the Rajasthan Urban Improvement Act, 1959. Notice was duly served on the
Company at its registered office in Calcutta. The Company, first appeared before the
Special Court and finally the Calcutta High Court by filing a writ petition challenging
the notification of acquisition. The matter ultimately came before this Court to
answer a question as to whether the service of notice under Section 52(2) of the
Act at the registered office of the respondent in Calcutta was an integral part of
cause of action and was it sufficient to invest the Calcutta High Court with a
jurisdiction to entertain the petition challenging the impugned notification.
Answering the question this Court held: (Swaika Properties case, SCC pp. 222-23,
paras 7-8)
“7. Upon these facts, we are satisfied that the cause of action neither wholly
nor in part arose within the territorial limits of the Calcutta High Court and
therefore the learned Single Judge had no jurisdiction to issue a rule nisi on the
petition filed by the respondents under Article 226 of the Constitution or to make
the ad interim ex parte prohibitory order restraining the appellants from taking
any steps to take possession of the land acquired. Under sub-section (5) of
Section 52 of the Act the appellants were entitled to require the respondents to
surrender or deliver possession of the lands acquired forthwith and upon their
failure to do so, take immediate steps to secure such possession under sub-
section (6) thereof.
8. The expression ‘‘cause of action’ is tersely defined in Mulla's Code of Civil
Procedure:
‘‘The “cause of action” means every fact which, if traversed, it would be
necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to a judgment of
the court.’
In other words, it is a bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to
them gives the plaintiff a right to relief against the defendant. The mere service of
notice under Section 52(2) of the Act on the respondents at their registered office
at 18-B, Brabourne Road, Calcutta i.e. within the territorial limits of the State of
West Bengal, could not give rise to a cause of action within that territory unless the
service of such notice was an integral part of the cause of action. The entire cause
of action culminating in the acquisition of the land under Section 52(1) of the Act
arose within the State of Rajasthan i.e. within the territorial jurisdiction of the
Rajasthan High Court at the Jaipur Bench. The answer to the question whether
service of notice is an integral part of the cause of action within the meaning of
Article 226(2) of the Constitution must depend upon the nature of the impugned
order giving rise to a cause of action. The Notification dated 8-2-1984 issued by the
State Government under Section 52(1) of the Act became effective the moment it
was published in the Official Gazette as thereupon the notified land became vested
in the State Government free from all encumbrances. It was not necessary for the
respondents to plead the service of notice on them by the Special Officer, Town
Planning Department, Jaipur under Section 52(2) for the grant of an appropriate
writ, direction or order under Article 226 of the Constitution for quashing the
notification issued by the State Government under Section 52(1) of the Act. If the
respondents felt aggrieved by the acquisition of their lands situate at Jaipur and
wanted to challenge the validity of the notification issued by the State Government
of Rajasthan under Section 52(1) of the Act by a petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution, the remedy of the respondents for the grant of such relief had to be
sought by filing such a petition before the Rajasthan High Court, Jaipur Bench,
where the cause of action wholly or in part arose.”
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11. This provision was again considered by this Court in Oil and Natural Gas
Commission v. Utpal Kumar Basu, (1994) 4 SCC 711. In this case the petitioner Oil
and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) through its consultant Engineers India Limited
(EIL) issued an advertisement in the newspaper inviting tenders for setting up of
Kerosene Recovery Processing Unit in Gujarat mentioning that the tenders
containing offers were to be communicated to EIL, New Delhi. After the final
decision was taken by the Steering Committee at New Delhi, the respondent Nicco
moved the Calcutta High Court praying that ONGC be restrained from awarding the
contract to any other party. It was pleaded in the petition that Nicco came to know
of the tender from the publication in the Times of India within the jurisdiction of the
Calcutta High Court. This Court by setting aside the order passed by the Calcutta
High Court came to the following conclusion: (Utpal Kumar Basu case, SCC p. 717,
para 6)
“6. Therefore, in determining the objection of lack of territorial jurisdiction the
court must take all the facts pleaded in support of the cause of action into
consideration albeit without embarking upon an enquiry as to the correctness or
otherwise of the said facts. In other words the question whether a High Court has
territorial jurisdiction to entertain a writ petition must be answered on the basis of
the averments made in the petition, the truth or otherwise whereof being
immaterial. To put it differently, the question of territorial jurisdiction must be
decided on the facts pleaded in the petition. Therefore, the question whether in the
instant case the Calcutta High Court had jurisdiction to entertain and decide the
writ petition in question even on the facts alleged must depend upon whether the
averments made in paras 5, 7, 18, 22, 26 and 43 are sufficient in law to establish
that a part of the cause of action had arisen within the jurisdiction of the Calcutta
High Court.”
105. Referring to the judgment in the case of Kusum Ingots, Adani Exports Ltd.,
Om Prakash Srivastava and Rajendran Chingravelu (supra) the Court held that there
cannot be any doubt that a question whether or not cause of action wholly or in part
for filing a writ petition has arisen within the territorial limits of any High Court has to
be decided in the light of the nature and character of the proceedings under Article
226 of the Constitution.
106. Having regard to the foregoing discussion we may proceed to restate the
position of law with regard to the scope of territorial jurisdiction of High Courts under
Article 226, as interpreted in terms of judicial precedents.
107. Article 226, as we have already noticed, from its inception, clearly reflected
the object of makers of the Constitution to confer wide powers on the High Courts in
issuing directions or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and also the
power to issue directions for any other purpose. Having decided to provide certain
basic safeguards for the people under the new set up post the enforcement of the
Constitution, it was thought necessary to provide a quick and inexpensive remedy for
the enforcement of such rights, and, finding that prerogative writs, which the Courts in
England had developed and used whenever urgent necessity demanded immediate
and decisive interposition, were suited for the purpose, the High Courts, were
conferred with wide powers of issuing directions, orders or writs primarily for the
enforcement of fundamental rights. In addition, the power to issue such directions “for
any other purpose” was also included.
108. Article 226 confers extraordinary jurisdiction on the High Court to issue
prerogative writs for enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other purpose. The
jurisdiction, though is to be based on discretion and equitable considerations, is wide
and expansive with no fetters having been placed on the exercise of this extraordinary
jurisdiction.
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109. The language of Article 226 is couched in a comprehensive phraseology and it
ex facie confers a wide power on the High Courts to reach injustice wherever it is
found.
110. The nature of the power, its purpose and the person or authorities against
whom it can be exercised, has been described in a language which gives to the High
Court wide amplitude of powers.
111. The powers conferred on a High Court to issue prerogative writs, as
understood in England, has been widened by using the expression “in the nature of”,
which indicates that the writs that can be issued by our High Courts, only draw
analogy from the kind in England but the powers in this regard have a wider expanse.
112. Article 226(1) grants to the High Courts powers to issue directions, orders,
writs, which would include writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus,
prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. This clearly shows that the powers of the High
Courts to issue directions, orders or writs, would be inclusive of writs in the nature of
prerogative writs, as understood in England. The conferment of the powers upon the
High Courts to issue writs may thus be seen to be drawing an analogy from the powers
as in England but the use of the phraseology including writs “in the nature of” does
not stop at merely equating the powers with those in England but goes beyond giving
it a wider expanse. This is clearly with a view to enable the High Courts to mould the
reliefs to meet the complex ground realities of our country.
113. The jurisdiction conferred on the High Courts under Article 226, as it originally
stood, was very wide with only two limitations placed upon the exercise of these
powers : (i) that the power is to be exercised throughout the territories in relation to
which it exercises jurisdiction, i.e., the writs issued by the Court cannot run beyond
the territories subject to its jurisdiction; (ii) that the person or authority to whom the
High Court is empowered to issue the writs must be within those territories, and as an
implication they must be amenable to the jurisdiction of the Court either by residence
or location within those territories.
114. The concept of cause of action as a basis for exercise of jurisdiction was not
provided for under Article 226, as it originally stood, as it did not contain any reference
to the accrual of cause of action or to the jurisdiction of the High Court depending on
the place where the cause of action accrues being within its territorial jurisdiction. The
concept of cause of action being not included in the express provision contained under
Article 226 which requires that the person or authority to whom the writ is to be
issued should be resident in or located within the territories over which the High Court
had jurisdiction the possibilities of the resultant inconvenience to persons residing far
away from New Delhi who could be aggrieved by some order of the Government of
India was judicially noticed keeping in view the wide amplitude of power conferred
upon a High Court under Article 226 which is not confined only to issuing of writs in
the nature of prerogative writs but also including within its ambit the powers to issue
directions or orders against any person or authority including in appropriate cases any
Government.
115. The use of the words “any Government” indicated the intent of framers of the
Constitution to include the Union Government also. The Union Government having no
situs in a particular place is deemed to have functional existence throughout the
country and when in exercise of its power the Union Government passes an order
infringing the legal right or interest of a person residing within the territories in
relation to which a particular High Court exercises jurisdiction, it would reasonably be
expected of the High Court to issue a writ to the Union Government, for in law, it must
be deemed to be within that State also.
116. The hardship faced by the litigants from distant places in regard to invoking
writ jurisdiction against the Central Government, resulted in amendment of the
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provision by the Constitution (Fifteenth) Amendment Act, 1963, in terms whereof,
after clause (1), clause (1-A) was inserted in Article 226 (renumbered as clause (2) by
the Constitution (Forty- second) Amendment Act, 1976).
117. The Constitution (Fifteenth) Amendment came into force on October 5, 1963
with the effect that it made the accrual of cause of action an additional ground to
confer jurisdiction to a High Court under Article 226. The amended clause now enabled
the High Court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises to issue directions,
orders or writs to any Government, authority or person, notwithstanding that the seat
of such government or authority or the residence of such person is outside the
territorial jurisdiction of the High Court.
118. The legal position after insertion of clause (1-A), subsequently renumbered as
clause (2), is that a writ can be issued by a High Court against a person, Government
or authority residing within the jurisdiction of that High Court, or within whose
jurisdiction the cause of action in whole or in part arises.
119. The amended clause did not confer any new jurisdiction on High Court but
provides an additional ground which extends its jurisdiction beyond the boundaries of
the State if the cause of action arises within its territory. The amendment is thus
procedural without affecting any substantive rights of the parties.
120. Consequent to the (Fifteenth) Amendment to the Constitution, the power
conferred on the High Courts under Article 226 can as well be exercised by any High
Court having jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which “the cause of action,
wholly or in part, arises” and it would not matter that the seat of the authority
concerned is outside the territorial limits of the jurisdiction of the High Court. The aim
of the Amendment is clearly to widen the width of the reach of the writs issued by the
High Courts.
121. The only difference made by the Constitution (Fifteenth) Amendment is that
the location of the seat of Government or authority or residence of a person to whom
the writ is to be issued is not to be the sole criteria for conferring jurisdiction and writs
may also issue to Governments, authorities or persons outside the territory of a High
Court provided the cause of action, in whole or in part, arises within the limits of its
territorial jurisdiction.
122. The change consequent to the amendment is that location is not the sole
criteria and place of cause of action may also confer jurisdiction. It cannot, however,
be construed that place of cause of action alone would confer territorial jurisdiction. If
it were to be so, it would lead to an inference that Article 226(2) is not in extension of
powers under Article 226(1) but in annihilation thereof, which certainly was not the
intent of the Constitutional Amendment.
123. We may at this juncture again refer to the Statement of Objects and Reasons
of the Constitution (Fifteenth) Amendment, which reads as follows:—
“Under the existing Article 226 of the Constitution, the only High Court which has
jurisdiction with respect to the Central Government is the Punjab High Court. This
involves considerable hardship to litigants from distant places. It is, therefore,
proposed to amend Article 226 so that when any relief is sought against any
Government, authority or person for any action taken, the High Court within whose
jurisdiction the cause of action arises may also have jurisdiction to issue appropriate
directions, orders or writs.”
(emphasis supplied)
124. The use of the words “only” and “may also” shows that the object was not to
take away the jurisdiction of the High Courts which they had prior to the (Fifteenth)
Amendment but to enable other High Courts to also have jurisdiction provided the
cause of action, in whole or in part, arose within their territorial jurisdiction. Article
226(2) is to be seen as an extension of or in addition to the jurisdiction conferred
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under Article 226(1).
125. We are fortified in taking this view by the observations made in the treatise
Constitutional Law of India by H.M. Seervai69, wherein the effect of the (Fifteenth)
Amendment has been stated in the following words:—
“16.251. The newly-added sub-Art. (1A) to Art. 226 introduces an additional
basis of jurisdiction, namely, the whole or in part of a cause of action arising within
the jurisdiction of a court. This is clear from the use of the words, “The power
conferred by Clause (1) … may also be exercised…” Therefore jurisdiction to issue
writs can be exercised (i) by a court within whose jurisdiction a person or authority
(including, in appropriate cases, any Govt.) resides or is located, and (ii) also by a
court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action wholly or in part arises,
notwithstanding that the seat of such Govt. or authority or the residence of such
person is not within those territories.”
126. Although in view of Section 141 CPC the provisions under the Code thereof
would not apply to the writ proceedings, the phraseology used in Section 20(c) CPC
and clause (2) of Article 226, being in pari materia, the principles with regard to
interpretation of Section 20(c) CPC shall apply to writ proceedings also, and keeping in
view the use of the expression “cause of action” in Article 226(2), even if a fraction of
the cause of action accrues within the jurisdiction of the Court, the Court would have
jurisdiction in the matter though the doctrine of forum conveniens may also have to be
considered.
127. We may, however, take notice that in contra distinction to the provisions in
Sections 16 to 20 of CPC, under Article 226(2) the invocation of the territorial
jurisdiction is restricted to the existence of a “cause of action”, which expression would
include part or entire cause of action. The cause of action, or any part thereof, even in
its minutest form, is therefore necessary for invocation of the jurisdiction under Article
226. If the element of the cause of action, or any part thereof is absent, the Court may
not have territorial jurisdiction, solely on the basis of the residence of the party. In
terms of Section 20 CPC, a suit could be instituted in a Court within the local limits of
whose jurisdiction, the defendant, or each of the defendants, actually and voluntarily
resides, or where the cause of action, wholly or in part arises. The two factors i.e., the
place of residence of the defendant(s) and the place where the cause of action, wholly
or in part arises, therefore, independently, give a right to the party to institute a suit
in the Court of competent jurisdiction.
128. The provisions of CpC do not strictly apply to writ proceedings and only the
principles therein may be held to be applicable. Section 20 of CPC which specifies
different contingencies whereunder jurisdiction is vested in the Court would, therefore,
stricto sensu not be applicable for the purposes of invocation of the territorial
jurisdiction under Article 226.
129. Article 226 confers upon the High Court power to issue writs to any person or
authority or any Government, within its territorial jurisdiction, and with the insertion of
clause (1-A) subsequently renumbered as clause (2), the said power may also be
exercised in relation to the territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in
part has arisen, notwithstanding that seat of such Government or authority or
residence of such person is not within those territories. The use of non-obstante clause
under clause (2) clearly manifests that residence of the party is not a relevant
consideration for determining the territorial jurisdiction under Article 226.
130. The relief sought by the writ petitioner, though would be one of the relevant
criteria for consideration, but not the sole consideration in this regard. The
maintainability, or otherwise, of a writ petition in a High Court would depend on
whether the cause of action for filing the same arose, wholly or in part, within the
territorial jurisdiction of that Court. The High Court would have jurisdiction if any part
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of cause of action arises within the territorial limits of its jurisdiction even though the
seat of the Government or authority or residence of person against whom direction,
order or writ is sought to be issued is not within the said territory.
131. The expression “cause of action” has been understood to be a bundle of facts
which are required to be proved. The entire bundle of facts pleaded, however, need not
constitute a cause of action as what would be necessary to be proved would be the
material facts on the basis of which a writ petition can be allowed. It may also be
considered as a bundle of essential facts, which it is necessary for the plaintiff to prove
before he can succeed. The Court would be required to take into consideration all the
facts pleaded in support of the cause of action without embarking upon an enquiry as
to the correctness or otherwise of the said facts. The facts as pleaded in the petition
may be considered, truth or otherwise whereof being immaterial.
132. In legal parlance the expression “cause of action” is generally understood to
mean a situation or state of facts that entitles a party to maintain an action in a Court
or a Tribunal; a group of operative facts giving rise to one or more bases for suing; a
factual situation that entitles one person to obtain the remedy in Court from another
person.
133. The meaning of the expression “cause of action” as distinct from “right of
action”, as evolved in terms of the precedents, would go to show that a right of action
is a remedial right affording a redress for the infringement of a legal right and a right
of action arises as soon as there is an invasion of rights whereas a cause of action
would refer to the set of operative facts giving rise to such right of action. A person
residing anywhere in the country being aggrieved by an order of the Government
(Central or State), or authority or person may have a right of action at law but the
same can be enforced by invoking the jurisdiction under Article 226 of only that High
Court, within whose territorial limits the cause of action wholly or in part arises.
134. The “right of action” being the right to commence and maintain an action is
therefore distinguishable from “cause of action” in that the former is a remedial right
while the latter would comprise the operative facts giving rise to such remedial right.
The former would be a matter of right and would depend upon the substantive law
whereas the latter would be governed by the law of procedure.
135. It is, therefore, seen that a “cause of action” is the fact or corroboration of
facts which affords a party right to judicial interference on his behalf. The “cause of
action” would be seen to comprise: (i) the plaintiff's primary right and the defendant's
corresponding primary duty; and (ii) the delict or wrongful act or omission of the
defendant, by which the primary right and duty have been violated. The term “right of
action” is the right to commence and maintain action or in other words the right to
enforce a cause of action. In the law of pleadings, “right of action” can be
distinguished from “cause of action” in that the former is a remedial right while the
latter would comprise the operative facts giving rise to such remedial right. The former
would be a matter of right and depend on the substantive law while the latter would
refer to the bundle of operative facts and would be governed by the law of procedure.
136. A right of action, may therefore, be said to have arisen upon the invasion of
primary rights of the person residing anywhere in the country being aggrieved by an
act or omission of the Government or authority or a person, but in order to enforce the
same, the jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of only that High Court can
be invoked, within whose territorial jurisdiction, on the basis of the bundle of facts, the
cause of action can be said to have arisen wholly or in part.
137. The question as to whether any particular facts constitute a cause of action or
not has thus to be determined with reference to the facts of each case taking into
consideration the substance of the matter rather than the form of action. The cause of
action must be antecedent to the institution of the proceedings and before a petition
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can be entertained the petitioner would be required to demonstrate that one of the
essential facts giving rise to the petition has arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of
the High Court.
138. The powers to issue directions, orders or writs to any government, authority or
person, may be exercised, as per terms of clause (2) of Article 226, by any High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of action,
“wholly or in part”, arises. This exercise of power, may be made notwithstanding that
the seat of such government or authority or residence of such person is not within
those territories.
139. In determining the objection of lack of territorial jurisdiction, the Court must,
therefore, take all the facts pleaded in support of the cause of action into consideration
without embarking upon an enquiry as to the correctness or otherwise of the said
facts. The question of territorial jurisdiction thus must be decided on the facts pleaded
in the petition, the truth or otherwise, whereof being immaterial.
140. It may, however, be added as a caveat that if from the averments of the
petition, as they are, no part of cause of action can be held to have arisen within the
jurisdiction of a High Court, that High Court cannot assume territorial jurisdiction on
the ground of residence of the petitioner or the like.
141. The expression “in part” has been held to be comprehensive and includes
within its ambit even an infinitesimal fraction of cause of action. The expression
“wholly or in part” used under clause (2) of Article 226 would therefore be referable
entirely to the facts stated and the grounds set forth in the petition as the cause of
action has no relation to the defence set up or the objection raised by the opposite
party.
142. In order to invest the High Court with jurisdiction to entertain a petition under
Article 226, the transaction in question must be an integral part of the cause of action
which must arise within its territorial jurisdiction, and would depend upon the facts of
the case and the nature of the order impugned giving rise to the cause of action.
143. Notice may also be had to the fact that Article 226(1) begins with a non-
obstante clause and in terms thereof every High Court shall have power “throughout
the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction”, to issue to any person or
authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, “within those territories”
directions, orders or writs, for the enforcement of any other rights conferred by Part III
or for any other purpose. In terms of clause (2) of Article 226 the power conferred by
clause (1) may be exercised by the High Court if the cause of action, wholly or in part,
had arisen within the territory over which it exercises jurisdiction, notwithstanding
that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is not
within those territories.
144. A plain reading of the two clauses of Article 226 makes it clear that a High
Court can exercise the power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of
any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution or for any other
purpose if the cause of action, wholly or in part, had arisen within the territories in
relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, notwithstanding that the seat of the
Government or authority or the residence of the person against whom the direction,
order or writ is issued is not within the said territories.
145. Article 226(1) states that every High Court shall have power, throughout the
territorial jurisdiction in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue directions,
orders or writs to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any
Government, within those territories. The powers so conferred under Article 226(1)
have been further amplified with the insertion of clause (1-A), subsequently
renumbered as clause (2), which provides that the powers conferred under clause (1)
may also be exercised by the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the
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territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of
such powers, notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or the
residence of such person is not within those territories. It provides an expansion to the
normal rule of the respondent being sued at his place of residence by providing for
exercise of jurisdiction “notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority
or the residence of such person is not within those territories”. The non-obstante
clause appearing under clause (2) thus enlarges the scope of jurisdiction which is
primarily founded on the ground of cause of action.
146. We may therefore observe that Article 226(1) provides the source of power of
the High Court as well as its territorial jurisdiction, whereas Article 226(2) amplifies
the jurisdiction in relation to a cause of action by providing that the territorial
jurisdiction would be exercisable in relation to the territories within which the cause of
action, arises, wholly or in part. The cause of action would include material and
integral facts and accrual of even a fraction of cause of action within the jurisdiction of
the Court would provide territorial jurisdiction for entertaining the petition.
147. The territorial jurisdiction is to be decided on the facts pleaded in the petition
and in determining the objection of lack of territorial jurisdiction the Court would be
required to take into consideration all the facts pleaded in support of the cause of
action without embarking upon an enquiry as to the correctness or otherwise of the
said facts. The question whether a High Court has territorial jurisdiction to entertain a
writ petition is to be answered on the basis of the averments made in the petition, the
truth or otherwise, whereof being immaterial. The expression “cause of action”, for the
purpose of Article 226(2), is to be assigned the same meaning as under Section 20(c)
CPC, and would mean a bundle of facts which are required to be proved. However, the
entire bundle of facts pleaded, need not constitute a cause of action as what is
necessary to be proved are material facts on the basis of which a writ petition can be
allowed.
148. In order to confer jurisdiction on the High Court to entertain a writ petition,
the Court must be satisfied from the entire facts pleaded in support of the cause of
action that those facts constitute a cause so as to empower the Court to decide a
dispute which has, at least in part, arisen within its jurisdiction. Each and every fact
pleaded in the application may not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that those facts
give rise to a cause of action within the Court's territorial jurisdiction unless those
facts are such which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in the case.
Facts, which have no bearing with the lis or the dispute involved in the case would not
give rise to a “cause of action” so as to confer territorial jurisdiction on the Court
concerned, and only those facts which give rise to a cause of action within a Court's
territorial jurisdiction which have a nexus or relevance with the lis that is involved in
that case, would be relevant for the purpose of invoking the Court's territorial
jurisdiction, in the context of clause (2) of Article 226.
149. The situs of the office of the respondent would not be relevant for the
purposes of territorial jurisdiction in the context of Article 226(2), and a place where
appellate or revisional order is passed may give rise to a part of the cause of action
although the original order was made at a place outside the said area, and a writ
petition would be maintainable in the High Court within whose jurisdiction it is situate,
having regard to the fact that the order of the appellate authority may also be required
to be set aside since the order of the original authority has merged with that of the
appellate authority. In such cases, where a part of a cause of action arises within one
or the other High Court, it would be for the litigant who is the dominus litis to have his
forum conveniens. In such cases, it would not be wholly correct to say that the litigant
chooses a particular Court; the choice, would be by reason of the jurisdiction of the
Court being attracted by part of cause of action arising within the jurisdiction of that
Court, and it would ultimately be upon the Court to find out in each case whether the
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2020
(BEFORE N.V. RAMANA, S. ABDUL NAZEER AND SURYA KANT, JJ.)
a Sep. 10
PRAVIN KUMAR Appellant;
Versus
UNION OF INDIA AND OTHERS Respondents.
Civil Appeal No. 6270 of 2012t, decided on September 10, 2020
b
A. Service Law - Departmental Enquiry - Judicial review/Validity -
Scope - Principles summarised - Power of judicial review in distinct from
appellate power exercised by departmental appellate authority - Further
held, judicial review is evaluation of decision-making process and not merits
of decision itself which is to ensure fairness in treatment and not fairness
of conclusion - Judicial review ought to be used to correct manifest errors
of law or procedure which might result in significant injustice or violation
C of principles of natural justice - Moreover, where appellate or reviewing
authority comes to a different conclusion, ordinarily decision under appeal
ought not to be disturbed insofar as it is plausible and not perverse
- On facts held, High Court was justified in being concerned more about
competency of enquiry officer and adherence to natural justice rather than
d verifying appellant's guilt through evidence on record though it did not restrict
scope of judicial review but rather adopted liberal approach independently
finding appellant guilty - Armed Forces - Central Industrial Security Force
Rules, 1969, R. 34 (Paras 25 to 30)
B.C. Chaturvedi v. Union of India, (1995) 6 SCC 749: 1996 SCC (L&S) 80; State of T.N. v.
S. Subramaniam, (1996) 7 SCC 509 : 1996 SCC (L&S) 627, relied on
e State ofA.P. v. Mohd. Nasrullah Khan, (2006) 2 SCC 373: 2006 SCC (L&S) 316; Lalit Popli
v. Canara Bank, (2003) 3 SCC 583 : 2003 SCC (L&S) 353; H.P. SEB v. Mahesh Dahiya,
(2017) 1 SCC 768 : (2017) 1 SCC (L&S) 297; Pravin Kumar v. Union of India, 2009 SCC
OnLine Born 691 : (2009) 4 Mah LJ 812, affimzed
Union of India v. H.C. Goel, (1964) 4 SCR 718: AIR 1964 SC 364, cited
B. Service Law - Departmental Enquiry - Enquiry officer -
f Examination and cross-examination of witnesses by enquiry officer -
Contention that it amounts to making prosecutor the Judge in violation of
principles of natural justice, rejected, unless a case of malice or bias can
be established in the facts of the case concerned - Held, under S. 165
of the Evidence Act, 1872 Judges have power to ask any question to any
witness or party about any fact in order to discover proof of relevant facts
- Further held, while strict rules of evidence are inapplicable to disciplinary
g
proceedings, enquiry officer often questions witnesses to unravel truth
- On facts held, except for making bald allegations that enquiry officer
had questioned witnesses, appellant failed to point any question showing that
enquiry officer exceeded his jurisdiction - Besides, no specific malice or
bias was alleged against him and even during enquiry no request for his
h
t Arising from the Judgment and Order in Pravin Kumar v. Union of India, 2009 SCC OnLine Born
691 : (2009) 4 Mah LJ 812 (Bombay High Court, WP No. 1001 of 2001, dt. 5-5-2009)
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h
1 Pravin Kuma r v. Union of India, 2009 SCC OnLine Born 691 : (2009) 4 Mah LJ 812
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h l Pravin Kumar v. Union of India , 2009 SCC OnLine Born 691 : (2009) 4 Mah LJ 812
2 (2019) 7 sec 797: (2019) 3 sec (Cri) 474: (2019) 2 sec (L&S) 527
3 c2006) 2 sec 373 : 2006 sec (L&S) 316
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4 State ofA.P. v. Mohd. Nasrullah Khan , (2006) 2 SCC 373, para 11 : 2006 SCC (L&S) 316 h
5 (1995) 6 sec 749, para 12: 1996 sec (L&S) 80
6 (1964) 4 SCR 718: AIR 1964 SC 364
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10 Union of India v. T.R. Vanna, 1958 SCR 499 : AIR 1957 SC 882, para 10
11 Kamataka SRTC v. M.G. Vittal Rao, (2012) 1 SCC 442, para 11 : (2012) 1 SCC (L&S) 171 h
12 Ajit Kumar Nag v. Indian Oil C01pn. Ltd., (2005) 7 SCC 764, para 11 : 2005 SCC (L&S) 1020
13 BHEL v. M. Mani, (2018) 1 SCC 285, paras 20-22, 33: (2018) 1 SCC (L&S) 178
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h
14 Jameel v. State of U.P., (2010) 12 SCC 532, paras 14-16: (2011) 1 SCC (Cri) 582
15 Chandra Kumar Chopra v. Union of India, (2012) 6 SCC 369, para40: (2012) 2 SCC (L&S) 152
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was, therefore, issued a show cause notice on 17.4.2001 to show cause as to why
he should not be discharged from the Army under Rule 13(3) item III(V) as his
services were no longer required, being undesirable. That the appellant filed his
reply to the said show cause notice on 14.6.2001. That thereafter the respondents
terminated the appellant's services on 29.4.2002, in exercise of the powers under
Section 20 of the Army Act, read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules.
3. Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the order of termination dated 29.4.2002,
the appellant preferred an appeal, which came to be rejected on 22.12.2003. That
thereafter the appellant approached the High Court by way of present writ petition
challenging the order of dismissal of the appellant as well as the order dismissing the
appeal.
4. Before the High Court, it was the case on behalf of the appellant that once the
appellant faced the Summary Court Martial and the appellant was awarded the
punishment of reduction in rank, thereafter for the same charges, the appellant could
not have been dismissed from service in exercise of powers under Section 20 of the
Army Act, read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules. It was the case on behalf of the
appellant that once the Summary Court Martial awarded the punishment, thereafter to
dismiss the appellant by passing an administrative order under Section 20 of the Army
Act, read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules, would be double jeopardy, which is not
permissible. However, the High Court did not agree with the same and dismissed the
writ petition by observing that the administrative power under Section 20 of the Army
Act, read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules, is an independent power and therefore the
order of dismissal passed under Section 20 of the Army Act, read with Rule 17 of the
Army Rules, is not required to be interfered with. Consequently, the High Court by the
impugned judgment and order has dismissed the said writ petition and has refused to
interfere with the administrative order dismissing the appellant from service, which
was passed in exercise of the powers under Section 20 of the Army Act, read with Rule
17 of the Army Rules.
5. Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the impugned judgment and order
passed by the High Court, the appellant - original writ petitioner has preferred the
present appeal.
6. Shri. Braj K. Mishra, learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the appellant -
original writ petitioner has vehemently submitted that in the facts and circumstances
of the case, the High Court has committed a grave error in dismissing the writ petition
and not interfering with the termination order passed by the respondent-authority
dated 29.4.2002.
7. Shri. Braj K. Mishra, learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the appellant -
original writ petitioner has vehemently submitted that the High Court has materially
erred in not appreciating the fact that the order passed by respondent no. 3 thereby
dismissing the appellant from service was actually illegal and bad in law and would
tantamount to double jeopardy.
8. It is submitted by the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant that
the High Court has not properly appreciated and considered the fact that the appellant
for the one and the same offence was sought to be punished twice by the respondents.
It is submitted that earlier the appellant was made to face Summary Court Martial in
respect of charges of misconduct enumerated in the charge sheet dated 3.8.1999. The
appellant was found guilty of the same misconduct and on 7.8.1999 the Court Martial
imposed the punishment of reduction in rank under Section 71 of the Army Act. It is
submitted that the said proceedings concluded after the order of punishment was
given to the appellant. It is submitted therefore, after passing the order of punishment
passed by the Summary Court Martial and the same had attained finality, thereafter it
was not open for respondent no. 2 to re-open the matter and initiate any further
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proceedings against the appellant on the same set of charges.
9. It is submitted by the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant that
in the present case despite there being a sentence awarded by the Summary Court
Martial, which was after the conclusion of the proceedings of the Summary Court
Martial, the respondents issued a show cause notice dated 24.3.2000 alleging against
the appellant that the particulars of charges disclosed that the offence was fraudulent
in nature. It is submitted that therefore the show cause notice dated 24.3.2000 itself
was illegal and bad in law.
10. It is vehemently submitted by the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the
appellant that after the conclusion of the Summary Court Martial in which the
appellant was given the punishment of reduction in rank, thereafter respondent no. 3
had no jurisdiction to take any further action in respect of very same misconduct of
the appellant. It is submitted that if at all the offences were said to be fraudulent in
nature, it was open for respondent no. 3 to impose any punishment upon the appellant
at the time of conducting the Summary Court Martial itself. It is submitted that,
however, at the relevant time, respondent no. 3 had taken a conscious decision to
impose the punishment of reduction in rank of the appellant. It is submitted that in
that view of the matter, thereafter respondent no. 3 was not legally entitled to re-open
the matter and initiate fresh proceedings on the same set of charges for which the
appellant had already been awarded sentence by way of reduction in rank. In support
of his above submissions, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant has
taken us to the relevant provisions of the Act, more particularly Sections 121, 161 and
162 of the Army Act.
11. It is further submitted by the learned counsel appearing on behalf of the
appellant that even the manner in which the Court of Inquiry was subsequently
conducted by the respondents is also illegal and ab initio void. It is submitted that the
appellant had issued a show cause notice dated 24.3.2000 in which it was alleged that
the particulars of the charges mentioned in the show cause notice disclosed that the
offence is fraudulent in nature. It is submitted that therefore it was necessary for
respondent no. 3 to conduct further investigation/enquiry if at all permissible in law
only in respect of allegations which were called fraudulent in nature of charges
mentioned in the show cause notice dated 3.8.1999. It is submitted that as such in
view of the conclusion of the Summary Court martial, the same was not permissible. It
is submitted that, however, according to respondent no. 3, the Court of Inquiry was
conducted from the fresh facts allegedly revealed in the reply on behalf of the
appellant to the show cause notice. It is submitted that by the show cause notice
dated 24.3.2000, the appellant was called upon to submit his reply in respect of
alleged fraudulent nature of charges made against him in charge sheet dated
3.8.1999. It is submitted therefore that as a defence the appellant denied the charges
by stating that the same are not fraudulent nature of charges. It is submitted that
even otherwise, if at all respondent no. 3 was of the opinion that the appellant had
made false statements or given any false information in his reply dated 10.4.2000 and
for that purpose it was necessary to proceed against the appellant under the Act and
the Rules made thereunder, then it was necessary for respondent no. 3 to come up
with a fresh charge sheet making specific allegations against the appellant with
respect to specific contents of the appellant's reply to the show cause notice. It is
submitted that it was also necessary for respondent no. 3 to give an appropriate and
reasonable opportunity to the appellant to meet with those specific allegations in
relation to the alleged false statements made by the appellant in his reply to the show
cause notice. It is submitted that, however, admittedly neither such fresh charge
sheet was issued to the appellant nor any opportunity was given to the appellant by
firstly explaining to him which of the statements and contents of his reply to the show
cause notice were false, misleading etc. It is submitted that the appellant was also not
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called upon to submit his explanation to the same. It is submitted that respondent no.
3 straightway proceeded to conduct the Court of Inquiry and came to the conclusion
that the appellant has committed the misconduct while submitting his reply to the
show cause notice and for such misconduct, he is not authorised to retain in service or
that further retention of the appellant in service is considered undesirable. It is
submitted that therefore the entire proceedings conducted by respondent no. 3 are
illegal, bad in law and without jurisdiction and the same are also in breach of the Army
Act and the Rules made thereunder and therefore the same ought to have been set
aside by the High Court.
12. It is further submitted that the exercise of the administrative powers by
respondent no. 3 under Section 20 of the Army Act read with Rule 17 of the Army
Rules after the conclusion of the Summary Court Martial and award of sentence under
Section 71 of the Army Act for the very charge sheet/grounds for which the Summary
Court Martial was conducted, is wholly illegal and without jurisdiction.
13. In support of his submissions, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the
appellant has relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of State of Madhya
Pradesh v. Hazari Lal reported in (2008) 3 SCC 273.
14. Making the above submissions and relying upon the above decision of this
Court, it is prayed to allow the present appeal.
15. The present appeal is vehemently opposed by Ms. Sonia Mathur, learned Senior
Advocate appearing on behalf of the respondents. Learned Senior Advocate appearing
on behalf of the respondents has vehemently submitted that the order of termination
passed by respondent no. 3, challenged before the High Court, was an administrative
order passed in exercise of powers under Section 20 of the Army Act, read with Rule
17 of the Army Rules. It is submitted that powers under Section 20 of the Army Act,
read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules are independent powers available to respondent
no. 3. It is submitted that therefore the contention on behalf of the appellant that a
subsequent administrative order of termination passed under Section 20 of the Army
Act read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules is double jeopardy has no substance.
16. It is further submitted by the learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of
the respondents that proceedings under Section 20 of the Army Act, read with Rule 17
of the Army Rules are administrative in nature. It is submitted that the administrative
proceedings are independent of the criminal proceedings and even both can run in
parallel. It is submitted that assuming that the proceedings under Section 20 of the
Army Act are criminal proceedings, still the offences tried for in the Court Martial were
different from those under Section 20 of the Army Act and therefore there cannot be a
case of double jeopardy as the action taken under Section 20 of the Army Act cannot
be considered to be a “prosecution” under Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India.
17. It is further submitted that in the present case the impugned order of
termination in exercise of powers under Section 20 of the Army Act read with Rule 17
of the Army Rules was passed after following due procedure as required, by passing
the order under Section 20 of the Army Act. It is submitted that Section 20 of the
Army Act provides that the Chief of Army Staff or other officers may dismiss or remove
from the service any person subject to the Army Act, other than an officer. It is
submitted that the only procedure prescribed under the Army Rules for dismissal
under Rule 17 of the Army Rules is that no person shall be dismissed or removed
unless he has been informed about the cause of action against him and allowed
reasonable time to state in writing any reasons he may have to urge against his
dismissal or removal from service.
18. It is submitted by the learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of the
respondents that as per the scheme of the Army Act, Chapter 4 deals with conditions
of service. It is submitted that in the said Chapter, Section 18 provides the doctrine of
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pleasure of President. Sections 19 & 20 further provides power of Central Government
to terminate the services of the officer on misconduct and the power of Chief of Army
Staff and other officer to terminate the service of other ranks. It is submitted that in
Chapter 3 of the Rules, Rules 14 and 17 deal with the procedure for the termination of
service by the Central Government on account of misconduct in respect of the officer
and dismissal or removal by Chief of Army Staff and by other officers in respect of
other ranks respectively.
19. It is submitted by the learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of the
respondents that in Rule 14 the phrase conviction by Court Martial is not mentioned
which is given in Rule 17 in respect of other ranks. It is submitted that therefore the
Parliament has included the said phrase in Rule 17 because only other ranks can be
tried by Summary Court Martial which does not require confirmation in terms of
Section 153 of the Army Act. It is submitted that in the absence of any power of
confirmation which is available in case of General Court Martial, Summary Court
Martial and District Court Martial, the Summary Court Martial cannot be sent for
revision once signed by the Commanding Officer after the trial. It is submitted that in
other words the scheme of the Army Act and the Army Rules provide a mechanism to
rectify any error committed by Court Martial by way of revision under Section 160 of
the Army Act read with Rule 68 of the Army Rules, which is not available in the case of
Summary Court Martial. It is submitted that in order to avoid miscarriage of justice,
Parliament has empowered the competent authority to take the recourse of Section 20
of the Army Act read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules by providing power to dismiss
the individual after being convicted by Court Martial.
20. It is further submitted by the learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of
the respondents that in the present case the charges framed against the accused
(appellant herein - original writ petitioner) were all under Section 63 of the Army Act
which were very serious which warranted trial by either General Court Martial or
District Court Martial. It is therefore submitted that it was imperative on the part of
the Commanding Officer to refer the same for proper legal advice. It is further
submitted that there was no proper application of mind at the relevant time when the
Summary Court Martial was held and conducted and the Commanding Officer dealt
with the matter without any proper application of mind. It is submitted that the case
of frauds needs to be dealt with appropriately and laxity of the nature shown in this
case defeated the ends of justice and the wrong precedent was set for the prospective
offenders. It is submitted that therefore in order to ensure that the accused does not
escape from the natural consequences of his fraudulent acts, recourse was therefore
taken to terminate his services under Section 20 of the Army Act read with Rule 17 of
the Army Rules. It is submitted that therefore the action of termination under Section
20 of the Army Act read with Rule 17 is legally in order, as Rule 17 provides for
dismissal of a person convicted by a Court Martial whose retention in service is not
desirable.
21. Now so far as the submission on behalf of the appellant on exercise of the
powers by the Chief of Army Staff under Section 163 of the Army Act is concerned,
learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of the respondents has heavily relied
upon the decision of this Court in the case of Union of India v. Harjeet Singh Sandhu
reported in (2001) 5 SCC 593. It is submitted that in the aforesaid decision, this Court
considered in detail the entire scheme of the Army Act and the Rules with respect to
Summary Court Martial etc. and the powers of the Commanding in Chief Staff under
Section 20 of the Army Act read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules, and the case of an
officer whose service is proposed to be terminated on the ground of misconduct which
has led to his conviction by a criminal Court. It is submitted that in the aforesaid
decision, this Court recognised the independent powers under Section 20 of the Army
Act read with Rule 17 of the Army Rules. Relying upon the aforesaid decision, it is
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t Arising from the Judgment and Order in Chandra Bhushan Yadav v. Union of India, 2017
SCC OnLine AFT 412 [Armed Forces Tribunal (RB), Lucknow Bench, TA No. 1288 of 2010,
h
dt. 18-4-2017] and MA No. 858 of 2017 in TA No . 1288 of 2010 [Armed Forces Tribunal (RB),
Lucknow Bench, dt. 22-5-2017]
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Convening order
18. The contention of the respondent is that Group Captain A.K. Gurtu,
Senior Personnel Staff Officer (SPSO), Headquarters MC IAF signed the order
by which the district court martial was convened. It is urged that AOC-in-
C is the competent authority to convene the court martial. The Union of g
India justified the order by which the district court martial was convened in
accordance with the Air Force Rules.
19. Section 111 of the Air Force Act provides that district court martial may
be convened by an officer having power to convene a general court martial, or
by an officer empowered by warrant of any such officer. Rule 43 deals with
h
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f
21. The order dated 18-8-2001 by which the district court martial was
convened is issued in the name of Air Marshall S.S. Gupta, PVSM, AVSM,
VSM, ADC, Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Maintenance Command.
There is no doubt that the order was signed by Group Captain A.K. Gurtu,
SPSO, Headquarters MC IAF who is the Personnel Staff Officer for Air Officer
Commanding-in-Chief, Maintenance Command, IAF. Rule 43(4) provides that
a convening order may be signed by the Commanding Officer or by the Senior
g Staff Officer on his behalf. The fact that Group Captain A.K. Gurtu was the
Senior Personnel Staff Officer for the AOC-in-C Maintenance Command, IAF
is not in dispute. A perusal of the record reveals that the convening order had
the approval of the competent authority and as such, it cannot be termed as
unauthorised. Another submission that was made by the learned Senior Counsel
for the respondent is that according to the organisational chart of Headquarters
h
3 (2003) 9 sec 630
4 G.S. Bajwa v. Union of India, l 995 SCC OnLine Del 532 : ILR (1996) 1 Del 457
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l Chandra Bhushan Yadav v. Union of India, 2017 SCC OnLine AFT 412
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l Virerulra Kumar v. Union of India, 2017 SCC OnLine AFT 4738
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C. Armed Forces - Army Act, 1950 - S. 71(h) r/w Regn. 16(a) of the
Army Pension Regulations, 1961 - Forfeiture of pension of officer cashiered
g
from service - Whether imposed by Court Martial
- Held, punishments awardable by Court Martial include cashiering in
case of officers besides forfeiture of service for pensionary benefits - In
instant case, only punishment of cashiering imposed on appellant - Hence,
pension of appellant cannot be forfeited - Liberty granted to respondents
h
t Arising from the Judgment and Order in S.S. Bedi v. Union of India (Armed Forces Tribunal, New
Delhi, TA No. 246 of 2010, dt. 1-10-2010)
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3 c2002) 1 sec 405 : 2002 sec (L&S) 149
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l R. Karthik v. Union of India, 2015 SCC OnLine AFT 970
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l R. Karthik v. Union of India, 2015 SCC OnLine AFT 970
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h
1 SR0-11.
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d
"(a) Tenure of Short Service Service Commission.-Short
Commission (SSC) Technical in the Regular Army will be granted for 14
years i.e. for an initial period of ten years extendable by a further of four
years."
16. Para l(c) enabled newly inducted women officers other than those with
a specialised course to leave service after completing five years of service.
e
Substantive promotions were provided in Para (e) in the following terms:
"(e) Substantive Promotion.-Women granted Short Service
Commission under these rules will be eligible for substantive promotion
as under:
h
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Defence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
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It was explicitly clarified that no stay had been issued on the judgment of the
Delhi High Court. Hence, the eleven applicants were allowed to be reinstated
in terms of the judgment8 of the Delhi High Court subject to the outcome the
appeal. Eventually, leave was granted on 2-9-2011 12. During the pendency of
f
the appeal, on 24-4-2012 13 , this Court allowed impleadment applications and
stayed a release order 10-4-2012. As a consequence, the applicants were held to
be entitled to regular salary and other emoluments in the ranks which they were
presently holding. Similar orders were passed by the Court on 12-7-2013 14 •
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Defence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
9 Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya, 2010 SCC OnLine SC 77
10 Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya, 2010 SCC OnLine SC 78
11 Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya, 2011 SCC OnLine SC 86
12 Ministry of Defence V. Babita Puniya, 2011 sec OnLine SC 87 h
13 Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya, 2012 SCC OnLine SC 1213
14 Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya, 2013 SCC OnLine SC 1440
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h
15 Sanjeev Shanna v. Union of India, 2018 SCC OnLine SC 3532
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Defence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
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11 (2016) 4 sec 236: (2016) 1 sec (L&S) 640
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48. Women officers form a miniscule four per cent of the total strength
of commissioned officers in the Army. Ms Lekhi submitted that the Union h
Government instituted the present proceedings under Article 136 of the
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(i) NCC Battalions (there are more than 100 girl battalions which are
currently being commanded by male officers);
(ii) Record officers;
(iii) Training regiments;
(iv) Commandants of Sainik schools and Military schools; and e
(v) Provost unit commanding officers as provosts are pioneering the
induction of women combatants.
54. Meeting the submissions advanced by the Union Government, the
respondents have filed a counter-affidavit contending that:
54.1. Services in which women officers have been inducted as SSC women f
officers are not combative in nature. The job profile includes supporting the
combat arms segment and assisting in providing, maintaining and repairing the
logistic support. The respondents were inducted in the Army against specified
appointments with specific eligibility qualifications such as food scientists,
material managers, software engineers and linguistic officers. These postings
cannot be compared with the combat arms of the Army. The present case has not g
been instituted seeking either recruitment or commission into combat arms as
this is a conscious decision of the Union Government and is a matter of policy.
54.2. The nature of duty which a commissioned officer is required to
perform while serving in the Corps is defined in the Army Manuals of
these services. Both women and male officers who were commissioned in
these services perform similar duties, undergo similar professional courses h
and training and are posted to all field/peace postings according to their
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j • • . . i leave .
i Jawan/JCO i Pensionable i Yes i Yes i Yes i Paid for [
i i after 15 i i i i 300 days' i
j l years l j j j encashed j
i i i i i i leave !
issCWomeniNopension iNo ESMjNo ECHSiNo iPaid only! C
jOfficers l status l jfacility l
provision of /or 90 days' j
: : : : : re- : encashed :
i i i i i employmend leave [
i
j SSC Male SSC Gentle~en officers ~e all together' in a different category, as j
iOfficers i they are allowed to opt for permanent commission after 5/10 years of [
1 lservice and once they get permanent commission, they are authorised 1 d
i• ••••••••••••••••••••••••i....................................
for all benefits of permanent commission officers." [
- ..................................................................................................................................... - ............................................. t
h
l 9 Prithi Pal Singh Bedi v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 140 : 1982 SCC (Cri) 642
20 (1983) 3 sec 401 : 1983 sec (L&S) 405
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h
21 10620/Sect/EME.
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Defence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
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h
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Defence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
11 Union of India v. P.K. Choudhary, (2016) 4 SCC 236: (2016) 1 SCC (L&S) 640
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83. The judgment of this Court in P.K. Choudhary 17 was based on the
specific recommendations of the AVS Committee as well as the actions of the
Union Government in committing to a course of action for the allocation of
vacancies. This Court observed that the first phase of allocation was clearly
contrary to both the recommendations of the AVS Committee as well as the g
method of allocation adopted by the Union Government. The Court additionally
observed that the method of allocation in the second phase did not suffer from
any perversity, unreasonableness or unfairness.
84. As we have noted before, courts are conscious of the limitations which
questions of policy impose on judicial intervention in matters relating to the
Armed Forces. At the same time, faced with a salient decision of the Union h
17 Union of India v. P.K. Choudhary, (2016) 4 SCC 236: (2016) 1 SCC (L&S) 640
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h
8 Babita Puniya v. Ministry of Def ence, 2010 SCC OnLine Del 1116: (2010) 168 DLT 115
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Court and the AFT which had not been stayed and has resulted in the creation of
an impasse for the SSC women officers.
109. Once the policy decision of the Union Government was communicated on 25
February 1999, the authorities were bound to consider the claims of the SSC officers
for the grant of PC in terms of Regulation 203. The naval authorities and the Union
Government failed to do so, depriving them of the entitlement to be considered for the
grant of PC. By the failure of the authorities to consider the SSC officers for PCs in
terms of the policy communication of 25 February 1999, SSC officers lost out on the
opportunity to be granted PCs and all the responsibilities and benefits attached to the
grant of PC, including promotions and pensionable service. The situation which has
come to pass is due to the failure of the authorities to implement statutory
notifications issued under Section 9(2) the policy statement of 25 February 1999 by
which they were bound and as the decisions of the Delhi High Court and the AFT.
These SSC officers cannot be left in the lurch and the injustice meted to them by lost
years of service and the deprivation of retiral entitlements must be rectified. The
injustice is a direct consequence of the authorities having breached their duties under
law, as explained above. To deny substantive relief to the SSC officers would result in
a situation where a breach of duty on the part of the authorities to comply with
binding legal norms would go unattended. This would result in a serious miscarriage of
justice to the SSC officers who have served the nation and is unsustainable in law.
110. The second to sixth respondents in Annie Nagaraja's case had retired upon the
completion of fourteen years of service prior to the issuance of the policy letter dated
26 September 2008. Of these officers, three officers are from the Logistic cadre, one
officer is from the Education branch and one officer is from the ATC cadre. The Delhi
High Court had issued directions for the reinstatement of the second to sixth
respondents. These officers are: Commander R Prasanna, Commander Puja Chhabra,
Commander Saroj Kumar, Commander Sumita Balooni and Commander E Prasanna.
111. By virtue of the interim order of this Court dated 20 November 2015,
protection was extended to only those SSC women officers who were in service on 26
November 2008. This cut-off date was evidently adopted with reference to the policy
communication dated 26 September 2008.
112. We have considered the case of these women officers who were denied being
considered for the grant of PCs. The interim order of this Court was based on the policy
dated 26 September 2008 which envisaged the grant of PCs on a prospective basis to
officers “to be inducted” in the future. The prospective application of the policy dated
26 September 2008 has been held to be invalid. We cannot ignore the fact that it was
because of a restricted interim order passed by this Court that the above five
respondents were not reinstated during the pendency of the appeals. Had they been
reinstated, as directed by the High Court, they would have been in service in the
interregnum and would have been entitled to be considered for the grant of PCs
together with all other consequential benefits. These officers must be provided
restitution for the consequences suffered by them by the failure of the authorities to
have considered them for the grant of PC, and despite of the order of the Delhi High
Court which had directed their reinstatement. Where a situation which detrimentally
affects the rights of citizens arises as a result of an order of the Court, it is the duty of
the court to remedy the situation and to rectify the injustice to the extent that is
possible.
113. As we have noted, the right of women SSC officers to be considered for the
grant of PCs in the Logistics and Education cadres arose by virtue of the policy letter
dated 25 February 1999. The non-consideration of the case of these five officers for
the grant of PCs arose out of the actions of the Union Government in issuing a
restricted policy dated 26 September 2008 which has caused serious prejudice to
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these women officers. These officers were among the first inductee batches of women
SSC officers in the Navy and committed themselves to serving in the cause of the
nation.
114. The second to sixth respondents who had been released prior to 2008 have
been out of service for twelve years and more. Consistent with the exigencies of
service, it would not be appropriate to direct their reinstatement. However, following
the logic of the directions of this Court in Babita Puniya, we are of the view that a one-
time measure should be issued in exercise of the powers under Article 142 of the
Constitution. These officers who were released prior to 2008 after completing their
engagement should be deemed to have completed substantive pensionable service
and to have qualified for the grant of pension on the basis that they have fulfilled the
minimum qualifying service in a substantive capacity. In addition to the grant of
pensionary benefits, as a one-time measure, respondents two to six should be directed
to be paid a lump sum amount of Rs. 25 lakhs each as compensatory measure for lost
years of service and the serious injustice which has been meted out to them. We
clarify that our decision to award compensation is not a reflection of any malice on the
part of the Naval authorities but a measure of compensation for the women officers
who have been deprived of a valuable opportunity to render service and shoulder
responsibilities.
H Directions
115. We hold and direct that:
(i) The statutory bar on the engagement or enrolment of women in the Indian Navy
has been lifted to the extent envisaged in the notifications issued by the Union
Government on 9 October 1991 and 6 November 1998 under Section 9(2) of the
1957 Act;
(ii) By and as a result of the policy decision of the Union Government in the Ministry
of Defence dated 25 February 1999, the terms and conditions of service of SSC
officers, including women in regard to the grant of PCs are governed by
Regulation 203, Chapter IX, Part III of the 1963 Regulations;
(iii) The stipulation in the policy letter dated 26 September 2008 making it
prospective and restricting its application to specified cadres/branches of the
Indian Navy shall not be enforced;
(iv) The provisions of the implementation guidelines dated 3 December 2008, to the
extent that they are made prospective and restricted to specified cadres are
quashed and set aside;
(v) All SSC officers in the Education, Law and Logistics cadres who are presently in
service shall be considered for the grant of PCs. The right to be considered for
the grant of PCs arises from the policy letter dated 25 February 1999 read with
Regulation 203 of Chapter IX Part III of the 1963 Regulations. SSC women
officers in the batch of cases before the High Court and the AFT, who are
presently in service shall be considered for the grant of PCs on the basis of the
vacancy position as on the date of judgments of the Delhi High Court and the
AFT or as it presently stands, whichever is higher;
(vi) The period of service after which women SSC officers shall be entitled to submit
applications for the grant of PCs shall be the same as their male counterparts;
(vii) The applications of the serving officers for the grant of PCs shall be considered
on the basis of the norms contained in Regulation 203 namely: (i) availability of
vacancies in the stabilised cadre at the material time; (ii) determination of
suitability; and (iii) recommendation of the Chief of the Naval Staff. Their
empanelment shall be based on inter se merit evaluated on the ACRs of the
officers under consideration, subject to the availability of vacancies;
(viii) SSC officers who are found suitable for the grant of PC shall be entitled to all
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10,000/-. It is categorically laid down in Rule 12 of the IDSE Rules that the Rules shall
not apply to Army Officers appointed on a tenure basis as they are governed by the
Army Act and the Rules framed thereunder. There is no dispute that the Respondent
was appointed on a tenure basis in accordance with the MES Regulations. Therefore,
there cannot be any doubt that the IDSE Rules are not applicable to the Respondent.
As such, we are unable to accept the submission made on behalf of the Respondent
that the IDSE Rules are applicable only to the 15 civilian posts and not to the others.
8. The Army Officers forming a separate class in comparison to the civilian
employees is a point which is no more res integra. In Confederation of Ex. Servicemen
Associations (supra) and Union of India v. Capt. Gurdev Singh5 this Court has clearly
laid down that the classification of military personnel as different class from non-
military personnel is permissible and valid. The submissions made on behalf of the
Appellant that the Army Officers serving in the MES as Chief Engineers continue to get
the same benefits and perks attached to the post of Brigadier has not been
controverted by the Respondent. Though there is no dispute that the principle of
‘equal pay for equal work’ is applicable even to tenure or temporary appointments, in
view of the IDSE Rules which govern the grade pay of the post of the Chief Engineer,
Senior Administrative Grade, we are of the opinion that the Respondent is not entitled
to claim parity with members of the IDSE. The validity of the IDSE Rules has not been
challenged by the Respondent. We do not see any force in the submission of the
Respondent that grade pay should be made available to all persons working as Chief
Engineers irrespective of the source. We are in agreement with the Appellants that the
Respondent continues to be a Brigadier for all practical purposes and is entitled for the
benefits attached to the post of Brigadier, irrespective of the place and post in which
he works.
9. In view of the aforesaid, the judgment of the Armed Forces Tribunal is set aside
and the appeal is allowed.
———
1 (1982) 1 SCC 618
2 (1987) 4 SCC 634
3 (1987) 4 SCC 634
4 (2006) 8 SCC 399
5
2019 SCC OnLine SC 173
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notification is being circulated on the condition and understanding that the publisher would not be liable in any manner by reason of any mistake
or omission or for any action taken or omitted to be taken or advice rendered or accepted on the basis of this casenote/ headnote/ judgment/ act/
rule/ regulation/ circular/ notification. All disputes will be subject exclusively to jurisdiction of courts, tribunals and forums at Lucknow only. The
authenticity of this text must be verified from the original source.
t Arising from the Judgment and Order in OA No. 64 of2015 (Armed Forces Tribunal, Regional
Bench at Mumbai, dt. 1-10-2015) h
:j: Arising from the Judgment and Order in V.N. Chaturvedi v. Union of India, 2016 SCC OnLine
AFT 275 (Armed Forces Tribunal, OA No. 632 of 2015, dt. 13-1-2016)
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h l Letter to Mandell (later, Bishop) Creighton, 5-4-1887 Historical Essays and Studies, 1907.
2 V.N. Chaturvedi v. Union of India, 2016 SCC OnLine AFT 275
3 Set out in paras 1 to 24, above.
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that when a question of national security is involved, the Court may not be the proper
forum to weigh the matter and that as the Executive is solely responsible for national
security, no other organ could judge so well such matters and the documents in
relation to these matters fall in a class which per se requires protection. It was further
held that Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India also carves out exception in the
matters relating to interests of sovereignty and integrity of India and the security of
the State. Another Division Bench in Mehmood Pracha v. Intelligence Bureau, 2018
SCC OnLine Del 9499, in the context of writ petition seeking mandamus to constitute a
special investigation team to investigate all aspects of the hostage crisis, observed
that national security is not a question of law but a matter of policy and it is not for
the Court to decide whether something is in the interest of the State or not - it should
be left to the Executive and that the decision on, whether the requirements of national
security outweigh duty of fairness in any particular case is for the government and not
for the Court. Finding no right or justification for seeking divulgence of more
information, it was held that the Court could not grant the relief sought.
22. It is also in the light of the aforesaid judgments that we have herein observed
that we do not deem it appropriate to exercise the discretion vested in us as aforesaid
in exercise of powers under Article 226, to not entertain the petition and not
adjudicate the issues raised. Had we, on perusal of the impugned policy which itself is
a restricted document or the supporting material thereof found the same be suffering
from the vice of non-application of mind or being not based on any material on record
or being without proper deliberations, we would have certainly proceeded to answer
the legal issue raised by the petitioner, of the ban being imposed on the petitioner and
others similarly placed as the petitioner without complying with Article 33 of the
Constitution and Section 21 of the Army Act. However, once we are satisfied on the
aforesaid parameters and find other means of communication to be still available to
the petitioner and the ban being with respect to certain social networking websites
only and more so, once we have found the petitioner himself to have been posting
tweets which according to the ASG are in violation of the policy earlier in force qua use
of social media, we do not deem it apposite to at the instance of the petitioner to go
into the questions urged. Rather, we do not appreciate the pleadings of the petitioner
as a senior officer in the Army, of army personnel being treated as slaves and the
government not trusting its army.
23. We may also notice that warfare and inter-country rivalries and animosities
today are not confined to accession of territory and destruction of installations and
infrastructure of enemy countries but also extend to influencing and affecting the
economies and political stability of enemy country including by inciting civil unrest and
disturbance and influencing the political will of the citizens of the enemy country. In
such a scenario, if the government, after complete assessment, has concluded that
permitting use of certain social networking websites by personnel of its defence forces
is enabling the enemy countries to gain an edge, the Courts would be loath to
interfere.
24. In the circumstances, no case for interference is made out.
25. Dismissed.
———
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notification is being circulated on the condition and understanding that the publisher would not be liable in any manner by reason of any mistake
or omission or for any action taken or omitted to be taken or advice rendered or accepted on the basis of this casenote/ headnote/ judgment/ act/
rule/ regulation/ circular/ notification. All disputes will be subject exclusively to jurisdiction of courts, tribunals and forums at Lucknow only. The
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$~VC-11
* IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI
Date of decision: 20th October, 2020
versus
CORAM:
HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE RAJIV SAHAI ENDLAW
HON'BLE MS. JUSTICE ASHA MENON
%
[VIA VIDEO CONFERENCING]
7. The senior counsel for the petitioner has contended that the
aspect highlighted in our order dated 15th September 2020, of
requirements of the small child of the petitioner and the National
Policy for Children, 2013, has not been dealt with in the
consideration afforded to the representation of the petitioner.
9. The law laid down in Shilpi Bose Vs. State of Bihar (1991)
Supp (2) SCC 659, N.K. Singh Vs. Union of India (1994) 6 SCC
98, State Bank of India Vs. Anjan Sanyal (2001) 5 SCC 508,
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd. Vs. Shri
Bhagwan (2001) 8 SCC 574, Union of India Vs. Janardhan
Debanath (2004) 4 SCC 245, State of U.P. Vs. Siya Ram (2004) 7
SCC 405, Government of Andhra Pradesh Vs. G. Venkata
Ratnam (2008) 9 SCC 345, Rajendra Singh Vs. State of Uttar
Pradesh (2009) 15 SCC 178 and our recent judgments in W.P. (C)
6755/2020 dated 22nd September, 2020 titled Shri Bhagwan Vs
Union of India and Baikuntha Nath Das Vs. Central Reserve
f
Police Force MANU/DE/1708/2020 is that the courts can interfere
with orders of transfer,
.,, ..
only on the grounds of violation of any
Rule and/or on the ground of mala fide. No such ground is made
out in the present case. The Rule requiring endeavor to be made to
post both spouses, especially with young children, at the same
station, is not mandatory and is subject to availability of vacancies
for both spouses at the same station. The speaking order dated 30th
September 2020 has given reasons, why for the time being it is not
possible to post the petitioner as well as his wife at the same place.
12. The counsel for the respondents Indian Army states that
though the petitioner has withdrawn the said application but if
desires the said application to be considered, the same shall be
considered and orders in a time bound manner passed thereon and
communicated to the petitioner.
13. The senior counsel for the petitioner states (i) that the
petitioner and his wife be granted movement time, to join at the
transferred post; and, (ii) the reliefs also claimed in the petition, of
mandamus directing the Union of India to formulate a policy for
spouse coordination and same place
f of posting for the spouses
serving in the Indian Army, especially those who have no
operational role such.,, .. as JAG and AEC, and of following a
transparent and unbiased coding system fed by the qualification
requirements, not revealing the identity of officers, in matters of
place of postings, be left open for consideration in an appropriate
case.
ASHA MENON
f (JUDGE)
OCTOBER 20, 2020
pkb
.,, ..
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