All MCQS

Question no:1
Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Conduct Procurement
process?
Interpersonal and team skills
Bidder conferences
Advertising
Audits
Question no: 2
All of the following are tools and techniques in the Control Procurements process except:
Work performance information
Data analysis
Claims administration
Inspection
Question 3
Controlling procurement activities according to the procurement plan, in order to verify
compliance with project objectives, is a task under what process group?
Closing
Monitoring & Controlling
Executing
Planning
Question 4
Which of the following outputs of the Conduct Procurements process is used as an input to
the Control Procurements process?
Organizational process assets updates
Agreements
Selected sellers
Project documents updates
Question 5
Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Control Procurements
process?
Meetings
Data analysis
Audits
Question 6
Which of the following is a type of procurement document used to request price quotations
from prospective sellers?
RFQ
RFP
RFI
RFD
Question 7
Who is responsible for providing a formal notice that a contract has been completed?
The project manager
The stakeholders
The buyer
The seller
Question 8
of the following is a tool or technique in the Control Procurements process that is necessary
to facilitate negotiations for the settlement of claims or dispute?
Work performance data
Procurement documentation
Audits
Question 9
A structured review of the procurement process originating from the Plan Procurement
Management process through Control Procurement is called:
Procurement negotiations
Audit
Deliverable acceptance
Lessons learned documentation

Question 10
of the following is an output of the Plan Procurement Management process?
Business documents
Project charter
Project documents
Procurement statement of work
Question 11
The procurement statement of work is a key output of:
Control Procurements
Plan Procurement Management
Validate Scope
Conduct Procurements
Question 12
When an organization is in the process of procurement, it can either prepare its own cost
estimates or have an outside professional estimator prepare a cost estimate. This estimate is
a:
Market estimate
Accurate estimate
True estimate
Benchmark estimate
Question 13
There are many different costs in relation to a project. The cost of paper products for the
office is:
An indirect cost
A specific cost
An appraisal cost
A direct cost
Question 14
What are two inputs to the Conduct Procurements process?
Procurement management plan; Approved change requests
Procurement management plan; Agreements
Project management plan; Procurement documents
Agreements; Procurement documentation
Question 15
Which of the following best describes procurement negotiations?
The seller sends the buyer the formal notice that the contract has been completed
The buyer checks the contract against the final invoice to verify that the invoice is correct
The seller reviews the costs associated with the finalized product to ensure payment is recouped for all
expenses
The primary goal is the final equitable settlement of all outstanding issues, claims, and disputes
Question 16
Work performance data as an input to the Control Procurements process includes all of the
following except:
The activities that have started, are in progress, or have been completed
Information on seller invoices that have been paid
The costs that have been incurred or committed
The communications between buyer and seller
Question 17
When can the procurements be considered officially closed?
When the contract is completed or terminated
When the buyer has verified the product
When the buyer and the seller have negotiated a settlement
While the work is being completed
Question 18
Which of the following is not an example of lessons learned documentation that would be
updated as a result of the Control Procurements process?
Where variances occurred

Process improvement recommendations
Techniques that were effective in maintaining costs
Closed contract
Question 19
Correspondence, payment schedules and requests, and seller performance evaluation
documentation are all examples of what output of the Control Procurements process?
Organizational process assets updates
Procurement documentation updates
Project management plan updates
Work performance information
Question 20
A contract supplier you have used during your project procurements is requesting an update
on your most recent payment for a delivered product. What element will you consult to
obtain the requested information?
Procurement file
Work Performance Information
Lessons learned repository
Organizational Process Assets
The inputs used in the process of Conduct Procurements includes all except
• Seller Proposals
• Procurement statement of work
• Source Selection Criteria
• Agreements
For the processes in the Project Procurement Management, 1. Plan Procurement

Management; 2. Control Procurements; 3. Conduct Procurements; 4. Close Procurements.
The correct sequence is:
• A. 1-2-3-4
• B. 1-3-2-4
• C. 1-4-3-2
• D. 3-1-2-4
From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider the:
• acquisition process
• contract administration
• ecological environment
• offer, acceptance, and consideration
• a and b
The major type(s) of standard warranty used in the business environment is(are):
• express
• implied
• negotiated
• A and B
• A, B, and C
The contract administration function includes:
• funding management
• managing relationships and interfaces
• performance control
• all of the above
What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize the project closing?
• Reassign the team

• Contract completion
• Archive the project records
• Complete lessons learned
Decisions made in developing the procurement management plan can also influence the
project schedule and are integrated with Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources,
and make-or-buy analysis.� The statement is
• True
• False
• Not sure
• Incomplete Information
A general management technique used to determine whether particular work can best be
accomplished by the project team or should be purchased from outside sources is called
• Market Research
• Make-or-buy Analysis
• Expert Judgment
• None of the above
15. The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which influences the Plan
Procurement project and gives the buyer and seller some flexibility in that it allows for
deviation from performance, with financial incentives tied to achieving agreed upon
metrics is called
• Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF)

• Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP- EPA)
• Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)
• Fixed Assets Price (FAP)
The contractual agreement under Cost-reimbursable Contracts, which influences the Plan
Procurement project and where if the final costs are less or greater than the original
estimated costs, then both the buyer and seller share costs from the departures based
upon a pre-negotiated cost sharing formula ,is called
• Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFF)

• Cost Plus Award Fee Contracts (CPAF)
• Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contracts ( CPIF)
• Cost Plus Percentage Completion (CPPC)
The component of the project management plan that describes how a project team will
acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization is called
• Procurement Management Plan

• Procurement Statement of Work
• Procurement Documents
The type of hybrid contracts which influences the Plan Procurement project is called
• Time and Material Contracts (T&M)

• Cost-reimbursable Contracts
• Fixed Price Contracts
• Both B & C
Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
• Cost plus percentage fee

• Cost plus incentive fee
• Cost plus fixed fee
• Fixed price plus incentive fee
• Firm fixed price
A Unit Price (UP) contract provides:
• a reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as

the contract progresses
• a reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon
percentage of the estimated cost as profit
• the supplier with a fixed price for delivered performance plus a predetermined fee
for superior performance
• a fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at unit
rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to carry out the
work.
The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which influences the Plan
Procurement project and is the favored by buyers because the price for goods is set at the
outset and doesn�t change until scope of work changes,si known as
• Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)

• Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF)
• Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts ( FP- EPA)
The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance,

and making changes as appropriate is called
• Plan Procurement Management

• Control Procurements
• Close Procurements
• Conduct Procurements
The process that includes the contract management and change control processes
required to develop and administer contracts or purchase orders issued by authorized
project team members is known as:
• Project Procurement Management

• Project Time management
• Project Cost Management
• Project Risk Management
The tools and techniques used in the process of Plan Procurement Management includes
all but
• Make-or-buy analysis
• Market Research
• Bidder Conferences
• Expert Judgment
The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it:
• requires extremely well defined specifications

• requires formal procedures for scope changes
• seller assumes financial and technical risk
• has a known cost
The contractual agreement under Cost-reimbursable Contracts, which influences the Plan
Procurement project and where the seller is reimbursed for all the legitimate costs , but
the majority of the fee is earned only based in the satisfaction of certain broad subjective
performance criteria defined and incorporated into the contract is called
• Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFF)

• Cost Plus Award Fee Contracts (CPAF)
• Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contracts ( CPIF)
• Cost Plus Firm Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFFF)
The relationship with outside suppliers for goods and services needed
to complete projects is know as what?
Project management
Project procurement management
Program management
Procurement management
. Which one is NOT a step in the process of project procurement

management?
a. Monitoring
b. Closing and completing
c. Initiating and planning
d. Results
2. What is the first step of project procurement management?

a. Closing and completing
b. Initiating and planning
c. Contract writing
d. Monitoring
1) The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it:
1. requires extremely well defined specifications

2. requires formal procedures for scope changes
3. seller assumes financial and technical risk
4. has a known cost
Answer:C
(2) The contract administration function includes:
1. funding management
2. managing relationships and interfaces
3. performance control
4. all of the above
Answer: D
(3) The major type(s) of standard warranty used in the business environment is(are):
1. express
2. implied
3. negotiated
4. A and B
5. A, B, and C
Answer: D
(4) A Unit Price (UP) contract provides:
1. a reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid

proportionately as the contract progresses
2. a reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon
percentage of the estimated cost as profit
3. the supplier with a fixed price for delivered performance plus a predetermined
fee for superior performance
4. a fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at
unit rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to
carry out the work.
Answer:D
(5) The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract
performance, and making changes as appropriate is called
1. Plan Procurement Management

2. Control Procurements
3. Close Procurements
4. Conduct Procurements
Answer:B
(6) From a contract management perspective, the project manager must consider
the:
1. acquisition process
2. contract administration
3. ecological environment
4. offer, acceptance, and consideration
5. a and b
Answer: E
(7) The tools and techniques used in the process of Plan Procurement Management
includes all but
1. Make-or-buy analysis
2. Market Research
3. Bidder Conferences
4. Expert Judgment
Answer: C
(8) Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
1. Cost plus percentage fee

2. Cost plus incentive fee
3. Cost plus fixed fee
4. Fixed price plus incentive fee
5. Firm fixed price
Answer: E
(9) Decisions made in developing the procurement management plan can also
influence the project schedule and are integrated with Develop Schedule, Estimate
Activity Resources, and make-or-buy analysis.� The statement is
1. True
2. False
3. Not sure
4. Incomplete Information
Answer: A
(10) What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize the project closing?
1. Reassign the team

2. Contract completion
3. Archive the project records
4. Complete lessons learned
Answer: B
(11) The process that includes the contract management and change control
processes required to develop and administer contracts or purchase orders issued
by authorized project team members is known as:
1. Project Procurement Management

2. Project Time management
3. Project Cost Management
4. Project Risk Management
Answer: A
(12) For the processes in the Project Procurement Management,
1. Plan Procurement Management
2. Control Procurements
3. Conduct Procurements
4. Close Procurements
1. A. 1-2-3-4
2. B. 1-3-2-4
3. C. 1-4-3-2
4. D. 3-1-2-4
Answer: B
(13) The inputs used in the process of Conduct Procurements includes all except
1. Seller Proposals
2. Procurement statement of work
3. Source Selection Criteria
4. Agreements
Answer: D
(14) The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which influences the
Plan Procurement project and is the favored by buyers because the price for goods
is set at the outset and doesn�t change until scope of work changes, is known as
1. Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)

2. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF)
3. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts ( FP- EPA)
4. None of the above
Answer: A
(15) 15. The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which influences the
Plan Procurement project and gives the buyer and seller some flexibility in that it
allows for deviation from performance, with financial incentives tied to achieving
agreed upon metrics is called
1. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF)

2. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP- EPA)
3. Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)
4. Fixed Assets Price (FAP)
Answer: A
(16) The contractual agreement under Cost-reimbursable Contracts, which influences
the Plan Procurement project and where if the final costs are less or greater than the
original estimated costs, then both the buyer and seller share costs from the
departures based upon a pre-negotiated cost sharing formula ,is called
1. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFF)

2. Cost Plus Award Fee Contracts (CPAF)
3. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contracts ( CPIF)
4. Cost Plus Percentage Completion (CPPC)
Answer: C
(17) The contractual agreement under Cost-reimbursable Contracts, which influences
the Plan Procurement project and where the seller is reimbursed for all the legitimate
costs , but the majority of the fee is earned only based in the satisfaction of certain
broad subjective performance criteria defined and incorporated into the contract is
called
1. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFF)

2. Cost Plus Award Fee Contracts (CPAF)
3. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contracts ( CPIF)
4. Cost Plus Firm Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFFF)
Answer: B
(18) The component of the project management plan that describes how a project
team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization is
called
1. Procurement Management Plan

2. Procurement Statement of Work
3. Procurement Documents
Answer: A
(19) A general management technique used to determine whether particular work can
best be accomplished by the project team or should be purchased from outside
sources is called
1. Market Research
2. Make-or-buy Analysis
3. Expert Judgment
Answer: B
(20) The type of hybrid contracts which influences the Plan Procurement project is
called
1. Time and Material Contracts (T&M)

2. Cost-reimbursable Contracts
3. Fixed Price Contracts
4. Both B & C
Answer: A
What is a characteristic of Project Procurement Documents that is not normally

true of other Project Documents?
• They cannot be changed once issued.

• They are required to follow a template.
• They are legally binding.
• Don’t know
Which of these are an output from the Plan Procurement Management

process and input to the Conduct Procurement Process?
• Project Informaion
• Procurement Documents
• Procurement Management Plan
• Don’t know
Who bears the financial risk on a Cost Reimbursable contract that does not
have penalty or incentive clauses?
• The buyer
• Financial risk is shared between the buyer and the seller based upon the terms
of the contract
• The seller
• Don’t know
SPM MCQs
1. Cost variance is computed by:

a. Subtracting planned value from actual cost
b. Subtracting actual cost from earned value
c. Subtracting budget at completion from earned value
d. Subtracting BAC from ETC
2. Which of the following is not needed to generate a schedule performance index (SPI)?
a. Earned value
b. Actual cost
c. Planned value
d. Basis of estimate
3. Which of the following is not needed to generate a schedule performance index (SPI)?
a. Earned value
b. Actual cost
c. Planned value
d. Basis of estimate
4. What is a basis of estimate and how does it apply to Earned Value calculations?
a. The basis of estimate is actually earned value (EV)
b. The basis of estimate is a method for determining what the project should cost
based on historical data or bottom-up estimating. It is the foundation for planned
value (PV)
c. The basis of estimate is created via the use of stochastic variables and advanced
mathematical models, which will point to the most effective of the three major estimating
tools for your project: analogous, parametric, or bottom-up
d. The basis of estimate is a separate estimating function that addresses management
philosophy. It is not used in earned value calculations
5. You are having a discussion with the key stakeholder about the best estimating method
to use for the upcoming project. You argue for what provides the best team buy-in, while
your stakeholder argues for a bottom-up estimate. What is the real issue?
a. There is no issue - you are both talking about the same thing
b. The stakeholder is correct and you're just not getting it
c. You are correct and the stakeholder is just not getting it
d. You are both incorrect and need to explore other options
6. CPI is 1.2, SPI is 1.1. Four months later CPI is.91 and SPI is .86. The most likely reason for
this change is:
a. The project manager has not been keeping track of variances on the project to
implement corrections
b. As work packages were being executed, discovery on critical path activities
caused estimates to change drastically on several of the work packages
c. The WBS was inaccurate
d. Several key stakeholders insisted on a last-minute scope change
7. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every on-site worker
be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys this requirement to the Cost
Estimation process so that the insurance cost is estimated and subsequently budgeted?
a. Enterprise Environmental Factor
b. Organizational Process Assets
c. Project Scope Statement
d. Project Management Plan
8. Management Contingency Reserve is identified in which process:

a. Estimate Activity Duration
b. Estimate Costs
c. Determine Budget
d. Estimate Activity Resources
9. Several stakeholders on the project have been questioning the effectiveness of some of
the technical team. While the work is proceeding according to plan, some of the
stakeholders are not satisfied with the work delivered to date, even though it meets
requirements specifications. You have held several meetings with the stakeholders to try
to get to the root cause of the problem. With some of the technical team present at these
meetings, it becomes obvious that some of the stakeholders have had great difficulty in
describing what they want. As a result, some of the delivered product doesn't meet
stakeholder expectations. Currently your CPI is 1.3 and the SPI is .89. What is your largest
concern right now?
a. Clarifying the requirements collection process
b. The schedule
c. Managing stakeholder expectations
d. An increasing probability that some technical team members may leave the project due
to high levels of frustration with stakeholders
10. You are three months into a six month project. Assume the budget burn rate is constant.
The budget at completion (BAC) is $120,000. AC = $65,000. The SPI = 1.2. What is the CPI
of this project? (Round to 2 decimal places)
a. 1.32
b. 1.25
c. 1.11
d. It cannot be determined from the information given
Question 1: You have just completed your project activity, work package, and contingency reserve
estimates. What have you created as a result of completing these estimates?
a. Bottom-up estimate
b. Cost budget
c. Cost baseline
d. Definitive estimate
Question 2: Several vendors have proposed solutions for your current project. Your organization has made
it a requirement that the lowest price solution will be the one that is selected to deliver the project. The
vendor was selected and the project was completed successfully and handed off to the maintenance
organization for ongoing product support. A year into the product’s release, it has become apparent that the
maintenance costs are much higher than what the organization had anticipated. What did the project
manager probably forget to do?
a. Validate the vendor's credentials

b. Perform adequate quality testing
c. Earned value cost forecast
d. Life cycle costing
Question 3: You have just completed your project activity, work package, and contingency reserve
estimates. What have you created as a result of completing these estimates?
a. Bottom-up estimate
b. Cost budget
c. Cost baseline
d. Definitive estimate
• Q. Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?

Preliminary
Order of magnitude
Conceptual
Definitive
• Q. To assist in budget control, it is suggested that an estimate be created at

the ______ level of the WBS.
Highest
Major work effort
Lowest
Third
3. The Project Cost Management Process comprises the following activities:

a. Determine Budget
b. Plan Cost Management
c. Estimate Costs
d. Control Costs
What is the correct sequence?
a-b-c-d
c-a-b-d
b-c-a-d
a-c-b-d
4. The tools and techniques used in the process of Determine Budget

includes all but
Cost of Quality
Cost Aggregation
Expert Judgement
Historical Relationships
5. The Cost Performance Baseline is a time-phased budget and is used as a

basis to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance of the project.
It is usually displayed in the form of:
Pie-chart
An S-curve
A Z curve
An inverted S-curve
6. Funding requirements for a project are usually in incremental amounts that
are not continuous, and these appear as a step function in the graph depicting
Cash flow, Cost baseline and Funding. Any gap at the end of the project,
between the funds allocated and the cost baseline represents:
Charting error
Management reserves
Contingency reserves
Cost variance
7. An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between

historical data and other variables (for example, square footage in
construction, lines of code in software development) is known as:
Analogous estimating
Bottom-up estimating
Historical analysis
Parametric estimating
8. A project is estimated to cost $ 50,000 with a timeline of 50 days. After 25

days, the project manager finds that 50% of the project is complete and Actual
costs are $ 50,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) ?
The CPI is 1
The CPI is 1.5
The CPI is 0.5
The CPI is 2
9. To protect your project from cost overruns, which of the following can you
do in the planning phase of the project?
Pad high risk activities with extra cost buffer

Provide extra time for each activity in the schedule
Monitor each activity closely
Apply Earned Value Forecasting Formula, such EAC and ETC
11. Your earned value management analysis indicates that your project is
falling behind its baseline schedule. You know this because the
cumulative EV is much:
Lower than the cumulative PV.

Higher than the cumulative AC.
Higher than the cumulative PV.
Lower than the cumulative CPI.
Considers the total cost of ownership, or develpment plus
support costs, for a project.
Learning Curve Theory
Life Cycle Costsing
Parametric Modeling
Rate of Performance
Considers the total cost of ownership, or develpment
Costs that can be directly related to producing the products

and services of the project.
Cost Budgeting
Budget at Completion
Direct Costs
Earned Value
A time-phased budget that project managers use to measure

and monitor cost performance.
Cost Baseline
Cost Budgeting
Cost Estimating
Cost Variance
Costs that are not directly related to the products or services

of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the
project.
Intangible Costs
Sunk Cost
Tangible Costs
Indirect Costs
A document that describeshow cost variances will be

managed on the project.
Analogous Estimate
Cost Management Plan
Earned Value Managment
Estimate at Completion
The processes required to ensure that the project is

completed within the approved budget.
Management Reserves
Project Cost Management
Rate of Performance
Planned Value
Money that has been spent in the past.

Actual Cost
Direct Cost
Sunk Cost
Indirect Cost
An estimate of the value of the physical work actually

completed.
Earned Value
Earned Value Management
Direct Costs
Actual Cost
The ratio between revenues and profits.

Profit Margin
Planned Value
Profits
Actual Costs
A cost estimating technique based on estimating individual

work items and summing them to get a project total.
Analogous Estimates
Bottom-Up Estimates
Definitive Estimate
Parametric Estimate
Dollars included in a cost estimate to mitigate cost risk by

allowing for future situations that are difficult to predict.
Management Reserves
Reserves
Cash Flow Analysis
A cost estimate that provides an accurate estimate of project

costs.
Baseline
Direct Costs
Definitive Estimate
Contigency Reserves
The earned value minus the actual cost.

Cost Control
Actual Cost
Cost Variance
Earned Value
The original project plan plus approved changes.

Cost Baseline
Baseline
Cost Control
The original total budget for a project.

Cost Performatnce Index
Schedule Performance Index
A cost estimate used to allocate money into an organization's

budget.
Cost Budgeting
Budgetary Estimate
Definitive Estimate
The portion of approved total cost estimate planned to be

spent on an activity during a given period.
Actual Cost
Rough Order of Magnitude
Planned Value
Life Cycle Costing
The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual

cost exceed estimates.
Correct answer:
• Overrun
A theory that states that when many item are produced

repetitively, the unit cost of those items normally decreases in
a regular pattern as more units are produced.
Life Cycle Costing
Planned Value
The earned value minus the planned value.

Schedule Variance
Project Cost Managment
Management Reserves
Dollars included in a cost estimate to allow for future

situations that may be partially planned fo (sometimes called
known unknowns) and are included in the project cost
baseline.
Contingency Reserves
Cost Budgeting
Definitive Estimate
A cost-estimating technique that uses project characteristics

(parameters) in a mathematical model to estimate project
costs.
Life Cycle Costing
Parametric Modeling
Planned Value
Costs or benefits that can be easily measured in dollars.

Tangible Costs
Schedule Variance
Management Reserves
Indirect Costs
An estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based

on performance to date.
Definative Estimate
Cost Estimating
Analogous Estimate
The total of direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing

work on an activity during a given period.
Earned value (EV)
Actual Cost (AC)
Schedule Variance (SV)
Budget at Completion (BAC)
Controlling changes to the project budget.

Cost Baseline
Cost Control
Cost Estimating
The ratio of earned value to planned value; can be used to

estimate the projected time to complete a project.
Indirect Costs
Life Cycle Costing
Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
A cost estimating technique that uses the actual cost of a

previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of
the current project, also called top-down estimates.
Definitive Estimate
Cost Estimating
Analogous Estimate
The processes required to ensure that the project is

completed within the apporved budget.
Parametric Modeling
Rate of Performance
A method for determining the estimated annual costs and

benefits for a project.
Budgetary Estimate
Cost Control
Cash Flow Analysis
Cost Budget
Costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary

terms.
Indirect Costs
Intangible Costs
Actual Costs
Sunk Costs
Allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to

establish a baseline for measuring performance.
Contigency Reserves
Cost Baseline
Cost Budgeting
Cost Control
Dollars included in a cost estimate to allow for future

situations that are unpredictable (sometimes called unknown
unknowns).
Managment Reserves
Parametric Modeling
Reserves
The ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of

workplanned to have been completed at any given time
during the life of the project or activity.
Parametric Modeling
Rate of Performance (RP)
A project performance measurement technique that

integratees scope, time, and cost data.
Earned Value
Cost Variance
Earned Value Management
Cost Baseline
The ratio of earned value to actual cost; can be used to

estimate the projected cost to complete the project.
Cost Performance Index
Cost Variance
Cost Estimating
Revenues minus expenses.

Profit Margin
Profit
Reserves
Indirect Costs
The ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work

planned to have been completed at any given time during the
life of the project or activity.
Rate of Performance
Management Reserves
How to calculate Schedule Variance (SV)?

Schedule Variance equals a difference between Earned Value and Actual Cost CV = EV - AC
Schedule Variance is a quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
Schedule Variance equals a difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV - PV
Schedule Variance is a quotient of Earned Value on Present Value CV = EV / PV
What describes the format and sets the criteria for

planning, structuring, estimating, budgeting, and
controlling project costs?
Work performance plan.
Cost management plan.
Control account plan.
Cost management processes.
What is the planned value?

A planned budget assigned to complete the work.
An authorized budget assigned to complete the work.
The allocated amount of money, plus management reserves.
The allocated amount of money, plus contingency reserves and management reserves.
Which process develops an approximation of the

monetary resources needed to complete project
activities?
A Determine Budget.
B Control costs.
C Control account.
Estimate costs.
Who is responsible for realistic and accurate estimation o

0B
project?
Project sponsor.
B Project team.
C Stakeholders.
Project manager.
How the vendor's estimation may help project performin

1B
organization in estimating costs?

It gives a reference to the costs that associated with the outsources project. This can be used for
the internal costs.
The outsourced estimation is the most accurate because it presents an existing project team.
C Cannot be used because the seller has different enterprise environmental factors and organizational pro
D Assumption of the costs for outsourced project cannot be used because it includes planned profit of the
What of the following describes the required level

of accuracy in cost estimates, control thresholds,
and rules of performance measurement.
A Control account plan.
Cost management plan.
C Work performance plan.

D Cost management processes.
What disadvantages of the bottom-up estimating?
A Requires deep understanding and detailed breakdown of the project.

B This is one of the most expensive types of estimation because of it detailed level.
C Padding may happen because of complexity of the work, if no reserve was considered.
All choices are right.
How to calculate Schedule Performance Index

(SPI)?
Schedule Performance Index is a quotient of Earned Value on Present Value CV = EV / PV
B Schedule Performance Index equals a difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV - PV
Schedule Performance Index equals a difference between Earned Value and Actual Cost CV = EV - AC
D Schedule Performance Index is a quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC

Cost estimate.
B Risk register.
C Scope statement.
Develop schedule.
Which output of the estimating costs process

explains the approach of applied estimating
method?
A Activity costs estimates.

Procurement plan.
Basis of Estimates.
D Estimation management plan.

How to calculate Estimate At Completion (EAC)?
A Actual cost plus estimate for the remaining work. EAC = AC + ETC
Actual cost plus is a quotient of Budget at Completion to Cost Performance Index. EAC = BAC / Cumulative
D Actual cost plus difference between Budget at Completion (BAC) and Earned Value. EAC = AC + (BAC - EV
During the application development a project

manager performs control costs. What process
group is used?
Executing.
B Initiating.
C Planning.
Monitoring an controlling.
Which of the following terms refers to amount of

money required to create a product and put it on
the shelf ready for sale?
A Budget to Complete.
B Revenue.
Costs.
D Expense.
A project manager did good work and prepared

an accurate work breakdown structure. What type
of techniques is used for detailed estimating of an
available activities or work package, which then
rolled up into control accounts and after into
overall project estimate?
Bottom-up estimating.
B Top-down estimating.
C Parametric estimating.
D Analogous estimating.
Which term refers to the money it takes to sell a

product after it is made?
Expence.
B Revenue.
C Gross income.
D Cost.
How to calculate Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

Cost Performance Index equals a difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV – PV
Cost Performance Index is a quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
C Cost Performance Index equals a difference between Earned Value and Actual Cost CV = EV - AC
D Cost Performance Index is a quotient of Earned Value on Present Value CV = EV / PV
What criterion makes you increase pessimistic

estimation?
A Time constrains specified by customer.

B
Quality requirements provided by stakeholders.
Funding constrains determined by sponsor.
Risks identified during planning.
Which document provides estimating cost process

with the details about the estimating subject?
Scope baseline.
Project schedule.
C Human resources plan.

D All choices are right.
How to calculate Cost Variance (CV)?

Cost Variance equals a difference between Earned Value and Actual Cost CV = EV – AC
B Cost Variance is a quotient of Earned Value on Present Value CV = EV / PV

Cost Variance equals a difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV - PV
D Cost Variance is a quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
Which estimation is more accurate?

Definitive estimate.
B Rough order of magnitude.

Estimate of external design.
D Budget estimate.
What advantages brings the analogous

estimating?
A Easier to faster to create.
C Gives an analogous estimation to overall project cost.

D Provides a reference to a level of the management\s and stakeholder's expectations, similarly as with anoth
What is the purpose of project cost management?
A Ensure that project progress is on budget.

Complete project within approved budget.
Providing structured reporting about project status.
D Provide structured control account for project budget.
What parts of the estimated budget included to

control account?
A Contingency and management reserves.

Activities and work packages.
C Cost baseline, plus management reserves.

Project estimate, contingency estimate.
How to calculate Variance at Completion (VAC)?

Variance at Completion is a difference between Budget at Completion and Estimation at Completion
- EAC
A quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
C A quotient of the remaining work to residual of money. (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)
D A difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV - PV
While selecting a project, what of the following
financial factors are important?
Sponsor's constrains.
B After implementation costs.

Project costs and after implementation costs.
D Feasibility of stakeholders' expectations.
A project manager is working with scope baseline,

project schedule human resources plan and risk
register. What process the project manager
performs?
A Create WBS and WBS dictionary.
B Estimate resource requirements.

Estimate costs.
D Develop schedule.
What aggregated parts included in estimated

budget?
A Project estimate and management reserves.

Control account estimate, contingency, and management reserves.
Cost Baseline and management reserves.
D Project estimate and contingency reserves.

The project sponsor determined a cost constrain
that does not seem to cover the project's
objectives. What project manager needs to do to
provide realistic project plan?
A Not to engage the project.
B Ask other project manager for advise.

Let the sponsor know about the risk and continue project while budget is available.
Analyze the scope and requirements and come up with options to cut scope or reduce quality.
The schedule variance (SV) of your project shows

that the project is likely to have a schedule
overrun. You know this because the budget is
much:
Higher than the value of Earned Value (EV).
Lower than the actual cost (AC).
C Lower than the Earned Value (EV).

D Higher than the actual cost (AC).
What project manager should concern about

when receives estimates?
A Assumptions and constrains.
Costs of efforts rather than duration.
Padding and risks.
D Time and cost thresholds.

The project has the following numbers: Revenue
$2,400,000; Salaries 1,100,000; Sale Commissions:
$180,000; Cost of Equipment $280,000; Cost of
Software Licenses $120,000; Cost of Advertising
$90,000; Travel by Sales and Marketing staff
$80,000; Import and Export duties: $30,000. What
is the Gross Profit of the Project?
$720,000
$900,000
C $810,000
D $1,020,000
Calculation To Complete Performance Index

(TCPI)?
A A quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
B A difference between Earned Value and Actual Cost CV = EV - AC
A difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV – PV
To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is a quotient of the remaining work to residual of money. (BA
(BAC - AC)
Your project data shows that the budget is 300,

the value of work accomplished is 180, and the
actual cost (AC) is 220. What is the efficiency?
A 1.22
0.73
C 0.6
0.81
How 20/80 Rule is used for project reporting?
A Status of an activity is judged for each half (50%) of completeness.
B Status of an activity is judged by completeness of 50% of the work.

Status of an activity is judged for its 20% and then 80% of completeness.
D Status of an activity is judged by each 20% (20x5=100%) of completeness.
A Status of an activity is judged for each half (50%) of completeness.
Status of an activity is judged by completeness of 50% of the work.
D Status of an activity is judged for its 20% and then 80% of completeness.
At the start of a project, the Budget at Completion

(BAC) and the Project Budget have the same
values.
True.
False.
C These are the same terms.

D These terms are not related.
Which document provides estimating cost process
with information about the activities, type and
quantity of resources?
Scope baseline.
B Risk register..
C Project management costs.
Project schedule.
How to calculate Estimation to Complete (ETC)?

Estimation to Complete is a difference between Estimation at Completion and Actual Cost. ETC = EA
B A quotient of the remaining work to residual of money. (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)
A difference between Earned Value and Present Value CV = EV - PV
D A quotient of Earned Value on Actual Cost CV = EV / AC
Which estimation is more accurate?

Rough order of magnitude.
B Estimate of external design.

C Budget estimate.
Definitive estimate.
What measurements earned value management

integrates?
Scope, cost, schedule, and risks measures.
B Scope, cost, schedule, and procurement measures.

C Scope, cost, schedule, and communications measures.
Scope, cost, and schedule measures.
What action should try first for decreasing
estimation of cost and/or time?
Increasing thresholds tolerance.
B Increasing time and budget.

C Reasonable cut of project scope.
Reducing or eliminating the risks.
A project management team is working on the

reduction of project overall cost without changing
scope. What of the following techniques would be
suitable for this efforts?
Value analysis.
Monte Carlo method.
C Delphi method.
D Cost control.
A project manager concerns about increasing of

productivity and saving money. What of the
following may help in estimating costs process?
A Project schedule.
Human resources plan.
Scope baseline.
D Policies on estimating, processes, templates, company culture and existing systems.
What set of tools and techniques can be used for

estimating costs?
Same as used to estimate resource requirements.
B Same as used to estimate scope.
Same as used to estimate time.
D Same as used to estimate risk.
Amount that vendor received for conducting a

project called _____.
A Gross Profit.
Expense.
C Net income.
Revenue.
A project manager uses parametric and analogous

methods for estimating the cost. In what type of
processes he is currently involved?
A Cost management.
Planning.
C Executing.
D Control cost.
What parts of the estimated budget are included

to cost baseline?
A Project estimate and management reserves.

B Project estimate, contingency reserves, and management reserves.
C Control account estimate, contingency, and management reserves.
Project estimate and contingency reserves.
What of the following documents are needed to
Estimate Costs based on scope baseline with
acceptance criteria, key deliverables, project
boundaries, assumptions and constrains, as well
as the detailed relations between all components
of the project and project deliverables?
Project scope and activity cost estimate.
Scope statement and work breakdown structure.
C Scope statement and project schedule.

D Project scope statement and resource estimate.
What advantages creates the bottom-up

estimating?
A Obtains buy-in from the team and stakeholders.
B Provides more accurate estimation that based on detailed analysis.

D Provides detailed references for monitoring and controlling, performance management, and management.
A company's analysis and decision to purchase a

product or service instead of producing the
service or product itself is called _____.
A Life cycle costing.

Cost accounting.
C Variable costing.
Make-or-buy decision.
During project execution, a project manager
performs control costs. What process group is
used?
Monitoring an controlling.
B Initiating.
Executing.
D Planning.
What is the process by which the cost of an asset is

written off over the life of the asset?
Amortization
B Matriculation
Depreciation
D Recision
What disadvantages of the analogous estimating?
A May required considerable experience for complete, especially for cases with uncertainty.
C Risk to gain bigger estimation without justification.

D Counts only similarities, not differences in the comparing projects.
Which process monitors the status of the project

and keeps updated the information about the
project budget and manages changes to the cost
baseline?
A Control account.
Control costs.
Determine Budget.
D Estimate costs.
What does the Basis of Estimates explain?

All answers are right.
B All units, references and ranges of estimate.

C Indication of the confidence level of the estimate.
D How the estimates were developed, documentation on all assumptions and constrains.
While determining budget a project manager uses

_____ processes.
Planning.
B Communication.
Controlling.
D Executing.
What criterion influences the project costs and

after implementation product maintenance costs?
Unknown risks.
Quality.
C Project duration.
D Allocated budget.
Output of which process the quantitative
assessment of probable costs is?
A Estimate quality costs.

Estimate costs.
C Estimate resources requirements.

D Estimate cost of resources.
What is actual cost (total cost) (AC)?

A planned budget assigned to complete the work.
B Cost of the work to complete the work.

C Current estimated and authorized budget assigned to complete the work.
The total cost of accomplished work at its current stage.
A project manager is working on determining

budget of the project. What of the following
information is missing?
A Project schedule, resources calendars.
C Activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, basis of estimates, scope baseline.

D Contracts, organizational process assets.
Cost Variance (CV) is a difference between Earned

Value (EV) and _____.
A Present Value (PV)
B Budget at Completion (BAC)

Actual Cost (AC)
D Estimate at Completion (EAC)
Which process aggregates the estimated expenses

for work items to determine an authorized cost
baseline?
A Create control account.

Determine Budget.
C Estimate costs.
D Perform control costs.
Earned Value (EV) means _____.

How much finds are spent.
What is the value of completed work.
C How much money earned.

D How much time is spent.
Who takes cost risk on fixed-price contracts?
A User.
Vendor.
Buyer.
D Equally both vendor and buyer.
The project budget _____.

Can change through the change management process.
B Is changing no matter what.
C management.
There is always deviation between budget and actual cost, what needs to be corrected through the change
D Never change.
What is the Planned Value (performance

measurement baseline or total planned value -
Budget at Completion)?
A The allocated amount of money, plus management reserves.
Current estimate of authorized budget assigned to complete the work.
A budget that left after the work is complete.
D The allocated amount of money, plus contingency reserves and management reserves.

B Status of an activity is judged for 100% completed work.

C Status of an activity is judged by each 20% (20x5=100%) of completeness.
Status of an activity is judged for each half (50%) of completeness.
What tools and techniques are used to determine

budget?
A Expert judgement and historical relationships.

B Funding limit reconciliation.
C Cost aggregation and reserve analysis.
Why the cost of quality should be added to project
costs?
A Because the cost of quality is a contingency part of budget.

It may take considerable time and efforts to provided accurate estimation.
Because the cost of quality if a part of management reserve.
D Such costs should be assumed in the project charter.
The CPI of the project is 1.23, the SPI is 07, the SV

is -90,000, and the PV is $550,000. How to find
Cost Variance on the project?
147,200
B 146,300
C -104,600
D -105,800
What cost types should be estimated?
A Fixed.
Direct and indirect.
D Variable.
What level of accuracy provides +/-50% from

actual cost?
A Estimate of internal design.
Budget estimate.
C Definitive estimate.
Rough order of magnitude.
What process may help keeping estimations

realistic through whole project?
A Applying preventive actions.
B Constant process improvement.
Supporting changes.
Periodic re-estimation.
The project has the following numbers: Revenue

$2,400,000; Salaries 1,100,000; Sale Commissions:
$180,000; Cost of Equipment $280,000; Cost of
Software Licenses $120,000; Cost of Advertising
$90,000; Travel by Sales and Marketing staff
$80,000; Import and Export duties: $30,000. What
is net income of the project?
A $630,000
$920,000
$520,000
D $810,000
What funds the project budget constitutes?
A Amount of money to cover direct and indirect costs of the project, plus management reserve.
Amount of money to cover the direct costs for planning, execution and closing of the project. The cost of pro
is covered by company's overhead expenses.
C Amount of money to cover direct and indirect costs of the project, plus contingency and management reserv
Amount of money that aggregates estimated costs of all project activities authorized to spend on the
What project management knowledge area

supports creating cost management plan as a part
of project management plan?
A Time management.
Planning.
C Initiation.
Integration management.
Which of the following sources provides estimate

costs with human resource plan?
A Scope statement.
Develop human resource plan.
C Cost estimate.
D Risk register.
What earned value management is?

Project management technique for measuring project performance and progress in an object manne
B manner.
Project management techniques for measuring of spent costs and time to identify project performance in an
C Financial method to identify project performance by measuring actual costs against planned costs.
D manner.
Management methodology for measuring the expense again planned values to identify project progress in a
Your project has a cost of $280,000, an expense of
$170,000 and a markup of 1.35. What is the
revenue?
A $148.5
B $509.5
$607.5
D $548
Your company has been hired to configure software in 500 computers. All
computers need equal time to configure. The contract for the project is set at a
fixed cost, and the incentive based on how fast the project work is going to be
completed. Management has requested that you study the work method to
determine a faster, less costly, and a better method to complete the project. This
scenario is an example of _________.
1.Time Constraint
2.Schedule Constraint
3.Value Analysis
4.Learning Curve
Correct Answers are : 3

Explanation :
Value Analysis is a systematic approach to find less costly ways to complete the
same work. A and B are incorrect, as this situation does not describe a specific time
or cost constraint. D is incorrect: the learning curve happens as the project team
completes the work.
Question - 12
You have just started a project. The project team member reported that 20
percent of the project is done. You agree with their completion status, but do not
change any of the progress in your report to the customer. This is an example of
which one of the following?
1.0/100 Rule
2.50/50 Rule
3.Percent Complete Rule
4.20/20 rule

Explanation :
The 0/100 Rule allows for zero percent credit on an activity until it is 100 percent
complete. B is wrong (50/50 rule): 50 percent completion when the work begins and
50 percent when the work is completed.
Question - 19
You have two possible projects to manage, but you can only choose one. Project
MKTG is worth $23,000, while Project SALESPTR is worth $25,000. Management
elects to choose Project SALESPTR. Which one of the following is the opportunity
cost of this choice?
1.$23,000
2.$27,000
3.$50,000
4.$4000

Explanation :
The opportunity cost is the amount of the project that was not chosen.
Question - 39
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the
work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the
fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have already spent $120,000 of
the project budget. What is your COST Variance in this case?
1.-$40,000
2.$40,000
3.$240,000
4.$56,000

Explanation :
A is the correct answer. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on
schedule means , percentage of work completed = (4/12)*100
Cost Variance = Earn Value - Actual Cost Earn Value = total cost * percentage of
work actually completed = $240,000 * (4/12)=$80,000 CV = $80,000 - $120,000 = -
$40,000
1. Reserve Analysis a technique NOT used in:

A. Estimate Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Control Costs
D. Estimate Activity Duration
2. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of
$95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance
3. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Estimate Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Control Costs process
4. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every

on-site worker be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys
this requirement to the Estimate Costs process so that the insurance cost
is estimated and subsequently budgeted:
A. Enterprise Environmental Factor
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Project Management Plan
5. _____________ is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in

the project budget:
A. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
B. Management Contingency Reserve
C. Management Overheads
D. Project Management Planing
6. _____________ is not part of the Earned Value calculations.

A. Known Unknowns
B. Unknown Unknowns
C. Project Budget
D. Amount of work completed
7. What is the BEST way to make an accurate forecasting of ETC?
A. Manual Forecasting of cost of remaining work.
B. BAC – EV
C. (BAC – EV)/CPI
D. EAC - AC
8. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

A. Project is on budget and on schedule
B. Schedule Variance Index is 1
C. There is no schedule variance
D. There is no cost variance
9. Trend Analysis is BEST described as:

A. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
B. Examining project performance over time
C. Calculating Earned Value
D. Calculating Cost Variance
10. Which of the following is not done as part of Performance

Measurements?
A. Calculating Planned Value
B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating ETC
D. Calculating Cost Variance
11. Management Contingency Reserve is identified in which process:

A. Estimate Activity Duration
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Activity Resources
12. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Estimate Cost process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Control Cost process
13. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every
on-site worker be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys
this requirement to the Cost Estimation process so that the insurance
cost is estimated and subsequently budgeted?
A. Enterprise Environmental Factor
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Project Management Plan
14. Analogous Cost Estimating is

A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Uses statistical relationship between historical data and other
variables
D. Bottom-up estimating
15. Which is NOT true about Analogous Cost Estimating

A. Uses Expert Judgment
B. Used when reference projects are similar
C. Does not require high expertise on part of estimators as
estimates are based on previous projects
D. Useful in early phases of the project
(1) Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?
1. Preliminary
2. Definitive
3. Order of magnitude
4. Conceptual
Answer:B
Hint: Definitive estimates are in range -5% to 10% in accuracy. Page 201, PMBOK 5
(2) Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor doing
the project work?

2. Fixed price
3. Fixed price plus incentive free
4. B and C
Answer: A
Hint: Cost plus fixed fee covers the actual cost
(3) ) To assist in budget control, it is suggested that an estimate be created at the
_____ ____ ______ level of the WBS
1. Highest
2. Lowest
3. Major work effort
4. Third
Answer: B
Hint: Work package is the lowest unit of work to estimate cost and duration.
(4) Cost Variance (CV) is which of the following equations?
1. CV = EV - PV
2. CV = EV - AC
3. CV = EV / AC
4. A and c
Answer:B
Hint: Cost variance, Page 218, PMBOK 5
(5) Determining budget can be best described by which of the following?
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
2. The process of accumulating costs of individual activities to establish a cost
baseline.
3. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by
which the investment cost of the project can be measured and managed
4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing
the costs on an on-going basis
Answer:B
Hint: Page 193, PMBOK 5
(6) Which of the following is a direct project cost?
1. Lighting and heating for the corporate office

2. Workers Compensation insurance
3. Piping for an irrigation project
4. A and B
Answer: C
Hint: cost of resources used in a project. See Page 202, PMBOK 5
(7) Control Costs can be best described by which of the following?
1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
2. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
4. The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project costs and
managing changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: D
Hint: Control Costs, Page 193, PMBOK 5
(8) The PV = $250, the AC = $350, and the EV = $200. Calculate the Cost Variance.
1. -$150
2. $150
3. -$50
4. $50
Answer: A
Hint: CV=EV-AC
(9) One of the types of cost estimation is Rough Order of Magnitude. This estimate:
1. is performed when detailed information is available

2. is performed after the scope is clearly defined
3. is a near perfect estimate
4. Usually made before the project is designed, and must therefore rely on the
cost data of similar projects built in the past.
Answer: D
(10) The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed is known as:
1. Planned Value
2. Aggregated Planned Value
3. Budget at Completion
4. Estimate at Completion
Answer: C
Hint: Refer Table 7-1, Page 224, PMBOK 5
(11) The processes involving planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding,
managing, and controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the
approved budget fall under
1. Project Cost Management

2. Project Management Process
3. Project Scope Management
4. Project Integration Management
Answer: A
Hint: Read First para, Page 193, PMBOK 5
(12) The process that establishes the policies, procedures and documentation for
planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs is known as
1. Control Costs
2. Estimate Costs
3. Plan Cost Management
4. Determine Budget
Answer: C
(13) The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs
and managing changes to the cost baseline is called
1. Determine Budget
2. Control Costs
3. Estimate Costs
4. Plan Cost Management
Answer: B
(14) The Project Cost Management Process comprises the following activities:
a. Determine Budget
b. Plan Cost Management
c. Estimate Costs
d. Control Costs
What is the correct sequence?
1. a-b-c-d
2. c-a-b-d
3. b-c-a-d
4. a-c-b-d
Answer: C
Hint: See Figure 7-1, Page 194, PMBOK 5
(15) The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed
to complete project activities is known as
1. Estimate Costs
2. Determine Budget
3. Both A & B
Answer: A
(16) Which one of the following is not an input used in the process of Estimate Costs?
1. Scope Baseline
2. Human Resource Management plan
3. Cost Management Plan
4. Project Funding Requirements
Answer: D
(17) The tools and techniques used in the process of Determine Budget includes all
but
1. Cost Aggregation
2. Cost of Quality
3. Expert Judgement
4. Historical Relationships
Answer: B
(18) Which of the following output of Determine Budget process is not used as an
input in the Control Costs Process?
1. Project Funding Requirements

2. Cost Baseline
3. Both A & B
Answer: B
(19) Which of the following is not an output of the Control Costs process?
1. Cost Forecasts
2. Change Requests
3. Activity Cost Estimates
4. Work Performance Information
Answer: C
Hint:Hint: See Figure 7-1, Page 194, PMBOK 5
(20) The tools and techniques used in Control costs includes all but
1. To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

2. Earned Value Management (EVM)
3. Reserve Analysis
4. Cost Aggregation
Answer: D
(1)Milestones established by the customer must be adhered to by:

1. Project manager
2. Functional managers
3. The customer
4. Both a and b
Answer:D
(2)The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the:
1. Functional manager
2. Project manager
3. Director of project management
4. Customer
Answer: B
(3)In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
1. Conceptual
2. Planning
3. Implementation
4. Design
Answer: B
(4)To crash a schedule you should:

1. Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
2. Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
3. Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
4. Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path.
Answer:D
The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:

1. The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:
2. Provides links to the clients functional management groups
3. Allowing the project to move to the next phase
4. A way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Answer:A
(6)Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project scheduling?
1. Cutting costs and reducing time
2. Decreasing the time required for decision making
3. Eliminating idle time
4. Developing better trouble shooting procedures.
Answer: D
(7)The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:

1. Implementation time
2. Life cycle
3. Operations cycle
4. Production cycle
Answer: B
(8)The successful project managers spend most of their time:

1. Planning with their personnel
2. Planning with the top management
3. Communication with the project team
4. Studying project results.
Answer: C
Resource leveling attempts to :

1. Reduce resource requirements by smoothing out period-to period resource assignments.
2. Ensure that the budget abnormalities are overcome.
3. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other endeavors.
4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars can be
appropriated.
Answer: A
A prerequisite of effective time management is:

1. Knowing the dictated project completion date
2. Having the most advanced software package for project planning, scheduling and control
3. Having a good project WBS which identifies the major project deliverables and tasks, and
the person responsible for
each of them
4. Having a well staffed scheduling department
Answer: A
(1) Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?

1. Preliminary
2. Definitive
3. Order of magnitude
4. Conceptual
Answer:B
(2)Which of the following type of contracts is most preferable to the contractor doing the
project work?
2. Fixed price
3. Fixed price plus incentive free
4. B and C
Answer: A
3)To assist in budget control, it is suggested that the estimate occur at the _____ ____ ______
level of the WBS
1. Highest
2. Lowest
3. Major work effort
4. Third
Answer: B
(4)Cost Variance (CV) is which of the following equations?

1. CV = BCWP - BCWS
2. CV = BCWP - ACWP
3. CV = SV / BCWS
4. A and c
Answer:B
Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?

1. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities,
uncertainties, and inflation that
could occur during the project
3. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by which the
investment cost of the project
can be measured and managed
4. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing the costs on
an on-going basis
Answer:C
During this step of the cost estimation process, the suitability of a specific approach will depend to a
large degree on the maturity of the program and the level of detail of the available data.
a. Definition and planning
b. Risk and uncertainty analysis
c. estimate formation
d. data collection, normalization and analysis
1. Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?

Preliminary
Order of magnitude
Conceptual
Definitive
The meaning of the acronym HRM is ______________?
0
A. Human Relations Management

B. Humanistic Resource Management
C. Human Resource Management
D. Human Resourceful Management
The term used before the language of modern HRM was ___________?
0
A. Labour Relations
B. Personnel Management
C. Industrial Management
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not a function normally performed by HR department?

0
A. Accounting
B. Recruitment and Selection
C. Pay and Reward
D. Employee Relations
Which of the following statements is false?

0
A. Organizations are now less hierarchical in nature

B. Organizations are now generally focusing upon domestic rather than international matters
C. Organizations have adopted more flexible norms
D. Organizations have been subject to a raft of organizational change programs
Human Resource Management is______________?

0
A. Employee oriented
B. Employer oriented
C. Legally oriented
D. None of the above
Scope of the HRM includes ______________?

0
A. Retirement and separation of employees

B. HR training and development
C. Industrial relations
D. All of the above
Human Resource Management (HRM) is_________?

0
A. A Staff function
B. A line function
C. A staff function, line function and accounting function
D. All of the above
The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________?
0
A. Personal objectives
B. Functional objectives
C. Organisational and social objectives
D. All of the above
The scope of HRM does not include ____________?

0
A. Retirement of employees
B. Manpower planning
C. Training of employees
D. Maintenance of accounts
The meaning of the acronym ‘SHRM’ is ____________?

1
A. Short-term Human Resource Management

B. Strategic Human Resource Management
C. Strategestic Human Resource Management
D. Strategic Humane Resource Management
Recruitment is widely viewed as a ______________?

0
A. positive process
B. negative process
C. positive as well as negative process
D. none of the above processes
Recruitment policy usually highlights need for establishing ____________?

1
A. job specification
B. job analysis
C. job description
D. none of the above
The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an organization is
called___________?
2
A. Hiring
B. Recruitment
C. Selection
D. Retention
A brief write-up of what the job is all about is ____________?

0
A. job finding
B. job summary
C. job analysis
D. job specification
A job specification is one of the areas of ___________?

0
A. job analysis
B. job design
C. job description
D. job summary
The division of the total task to be performed into a manageable and efficient unit
is____________?
0
A. a job design
B. a job specification
C. a job analysis
D. a job description
Which of the following is the area from which applicants can be recruited?
0
A. Employment Lines
B.Employees’ Association
C. Labour Market
D. Labour Schemes
For forecasting the demand for manpower, the important techniques used
are_____________?
0
A. Delphi Techniques
B. Statistical Techniques
C. Work Study Techniques
D. All of the above
Selection of the candidates is done out of______________?

0
A. Target population
B. internal sources
C. external sources
D. internal as well as external sources
HRM is considered as____________?

0
A. a reactive function
B. a proactive function
C. an auxiliary function
D. an auxo-reactive function
A job design is ___________?

0
A. the design involving maximum acceptable job design qualities to perform a job
B. the division of total task to be performed into manageable and efficient units
C. a systematic way of designing and determination of the worth of a job
D. none of the above
According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate product of job analysis
is__________?
0
A. the job description

B. the job design
C. the job production
D. the job specification
One of the important organizational factors affecting ‘Job Design’ is ___________?

0
A. Workflow
B. Autonomy
C. Feedback
D. Diversity
Behavioral factors affecting job design are _____________?

0
A. Autonomy
B. Diversity
C. Feedback
D. All of the above
Factors affecting job design are ____________?

0
A. behavioral factors
B. environmental factors
C. organizational factors
D. all of the above
Organisational factors affecting job design are ______________?

0
A. workforce and cultural factors
B. employee availability and abilities
C. ergonomics and cultural factors
D. feedback and diversity factors
The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind
of person who should be hired for it is ______________?
0
A. job analysis
B. job design
C. job recruitment
D. job description
A list of the duties, responsibilities, reporting relationship, working conditions and

supervisory responsibilities of a job as a product of a job analysis is _____________?
0
A. job enlargement
B. job design
C. job description
D. job enlistment
Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________?

0
A. Hockman and Coldham

B. Hockman and Oldcham
C. Hackman and Oldham
D. Horkman and Olatham
The Integrated System Model of Strategic Human Resource Manaqement acknowledges

the existence within the organisation of _______________?
0
A. multiple cultural and strategic environment

B. multiple stakeholders
C. multiple recruitment integrated system
D. multiple structural organisations
1.The meaning of the acronym HRM is
A.Human Relations Management

B.Humanistic Resource Management
C.Human Resource Management
D.Human Resourceful Management
2.
HRM is___________
A.A staff functions

B.A line function
C.A staff function, line function and accounting function
D.All of the above
3.
Finding ways to reduce ________ is a key responsibility of

management.
A.Dissatisfaction
B.Uncertainty
C.Stress
D.None of the above
The ________ and control systems should be altered to

support the strategic human resource function.
A.Appointment
B.Reward
C.Job allotment
D.None of the above

All aspects of the merger need ________.
A.Controlling
B.Delegating
C.Staffing
D.Managing
6.
Commitment strategy is inherently ________.
A.Short term
B.Long term
C.Continuous
D.None of the above
Answer & Solution Discuss in Board Save for Later

7.
HR professionals has to be skilled in the art of ________.
A.Clarifying
B.Handling people
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.None of the above

8.
________ of management is likely to be another key agenda

item.
A.Performance
B.Quality
C.Expansion
D.Decision
9.
Strategic thinking is a ________ process.
A.Short term
B.Long term
C.Continuous
D.All of the above
10.
________ is considered as a strategic activity.
A.Recruitment
B.Planning
C.Productivity
D.All of the above
11.
Competitive edge comes from the ________ of people.
A.Competency
B.Efforts
C.Quality
D.Hard work

12.
The business side of the process begins with the strategic

_____ as the guiding framework.
A.HR
B.Plan
C.Policy
D.None of the above

13.
Individual level where people are usually motivated to close the

gap between their current and desired ______.
A.Capabilities
B.Skills
C.Expectations
D.Performance

14.
HR professional should apply risk management techniques to

the different aspects of ________.
A.HR Strategies
B.HR Competencies
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.None of the above

15.
Developing characteristics of people needed to run business in

________ .
A.Short term
B.Medium term
C.Long term
D.Any of the above
16.
________ issues tend to be well disguised.
A.Political
B.Territorial
C.Social
D.Economical

17.
________ suggests Human Resource Strategy in itself may not

be effective.
A.Peter Drucker
B.Tony Groundy
C.John Zimmerman
D.Anonymous

18.
Pettigrew & Whipp identified ________ central factors for

managing change successfully.
A.Three
B.Four
C.Five
D.Six

19.
________ executives take a full part in the strategic planning

process.
A.Training & Development

B.Human Resource
C.Quality Control
D.Production

20.
________ aims to put a financial measure on an organisation's

intellectual capital.
A.Knowledge exchange
B.The consortium
C.Financial planning
D.None of the above
21.
_______ is defined as the record of outcomes produced on a

specific job function or activity during a specific time period.
A.Performance
B.Work function
C.Evaluation
D.None of the above

22.
______ is the personnel activity by means of which the

enterprise determines the extent to which the employee is
performing the job effectively.
A.Job evaluation
B.Work evaluation
C.Performance evaluation
D.None of the above

23.
a/an ______ is a plan or programmes to motivate individual or

group performance.
A.Incentive scheme
B.Promotion scheme
C.Reward
D.None of the above

24.
A/An ______ is a vertical move in rank and responsibility.
A.Increment
B.Appraisal
C.Promotion
D.None of the above

25.
The _________ provides the essential information on which

each job is evaluated.
A.Job ranking
B.Job enrichment
C.Job description
D.Job enlargement
A ______ is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and

conditions of the job.
A.Job ranking
B.Job enrichment
C.Job description
D.Job enlargement

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A job description is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of the job.
Job description is an informative documentation of the scope, duties, tasks, responsibilities
and working conditions related to the job listing in the organization through the process of
job analysis.
27.
Section ________ of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, states

that an employer should only retrench employees who have
been most recently hired
A.24-F
B.24-G
C.25-F
D.25-G

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Section 25-G of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, states that an employer should only
retrench employees who have been most recently hired. Where any workman in an industrial
establishment who is a citizen of India, is to be retrenched and he belongs to a particular
category of workmen in that establishment, in the absence of any agreement between the
employer and the workman in this behalf, the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman
who was the last person to be employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded the
employer retrenches any other workman.
28.
The ________ programme once installed must be continued on

a permanent basis.
A.Job evaluation
B.Training & Development
C.Recruitment
D.All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job evaluation is the process establishing the value or worth of jobs in a job hierarchy and
compares the relative intrinsic value or worth of jobs within an organization. Once this
programme installed must be continued on a permanent basis.
29.
For closure, every worker is to be compensated with ________

average pay for every year of service completed
A.15 days
B.20 days
C.25 days
D.30 days

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
For closure, every worker is to be compensated with 15 days average pay for every year of
service completed. The retrenched employee must be provided with 15 days of average pay
for a year of continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months.
30.
The whole process of conducting a 360 - Degree Feedback

process in any Organisation could last about ________.
A.1.5 to 3 months
B.3 to 6 months
C.6 to 9 months
D.9 to 12 months

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The whole process of conducting a 360 - Degree Feedback process in any Organisation could
last about 1.5 to 3 months. The 360 review differs from an employee appraisal which
traditionally provides the employee with the opinion of his or her performance as viewed by
their manager.
In a re-engineering programme, when a process changes so

does the ________ of the concerned employee.
A.Designation
B.Job profile
C.Qualification
D.Job experience

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In a re-engineering programme, when a process changes so does the job profile of the
concerned employee. Business Process Reengineering involves the radical redesign of core
business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in productivity, cycle times and
quality.
32.
Union leaders at different levels & at federations are elected on

________
A.democratic principle
B.political considerations
C.employer?s recommendation
D.seniority basis

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Union leaders at different levels & at federations are elected on democratic principle.
Organizational democracy is a system of organization that is based on freedom, instead of
fear and control.
33.
______ is the simple act of comparison & learning for

organisational improvement
A.Benchmarking
B.Feedback
C.Ranking
D.Job evaluation

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Benchmarking is the simple act of comparison & learning for organisational improvement.
Bench marking is the process of identifying “best practice” in relation to both products
(including) and the processes by which those products are created and delivered. The search
for “best practice” can taker place both inside a particular industry, and also in other
industries.
34.
_______ can be defined as a written record of the duties,

responsibilities and conditions of job.
A.Job description
B.Job specification
C.Job profile
D.None of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job description can be defined as a written record of the duties, responsibilities and
conditions of job. It generally includes duties, purpose, responsibilities, scope, and working
conditions of a job along with the job's title, and the name or designation of the person to
whom the employee reports.
35.
Under training and development plan, the form is to be

prepared in ________ form.
A.Duplicate
B.Structured
C.Detailed
D.None of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Under training and development plan, the form is to be prepared in duplicate form. Training
and development process is an organizational activity aimed at improving the performance of
the individuals and groups of employees in the organizational settings. It is an organized
activity for increasing the knowledge and skills of the employees.
A. 1The meaning of the acronym HRM is ______________
A.
Human Relations Management
B.
Humanistic Resource Management
C.
Human Resource Management
D.
Human Resourceful Management
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Human Resource Management
Explanation
:
N/A
B. 2The term used before the language of modern HRM was ___________
A.
Labour Relations
B.
Personnel Management
C.
Industrial Management
D.
All of the above
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: All of the above
Explanation
:
N/A
C. 3Which of the following is not a function normally performed by HR department
A.
Accounting
B.
Recruitment and Selection
C.
Pay and Reward
D.
Employee Relations
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Accounting
Explanation
:
N/A
D. 4Which of the following statements is false
A.
Organizations are now less hierarchical in nature
B.
Organizations are now generally focusing upon domestic rather than

international matters
C.
Organizations have adopted more flexible norms
D.
Organizations have been subject to a raft of organizational change

programs
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Organizations are now generally focusing upon domestic rather than
international matters
Explanation
:
N/A
E. 5Human Resource Management is______________
A.
Employee oriented
B.
Employer oriented
C.
Legally oriented
D.
None of the above
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Employee oriented
Explanation
:
N/A
F. 6Scope of the HRM includes ______________

A.
Retirement and separation of employees
B.
HR training and development
C.
Industrial relations
D.
All of the above
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: All of the above
Explanation
:
N/A
G. 7Human Resource Management (HRM) is_________
A.
A Staff function
B.
A line function
C.
A staff function, line function and accounting function
D.
All of the above
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: A Staff function
Explanation
:
N/A
H. 8The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________
A.
Personal objectives
B.
Functional objectives
C.
Organisational and social objectives
D.
All of the above
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: All of the above
Explanation
:
N/A
I. 9The scope of HRM does not include ____________
A.
Retirement of employees
B.
Manpower planning
C.
Training of employees
D.
Maintenance of accounts
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Maintenance of accounts
Explanation
:
N/A
J. 10The meaning of the acronym SHRM is ____________
A.
Short-term Human Resource Management
B.
Strategic Human Resource Management
C.
Strategestic Human Resource Management
D.
Strategic Humane Resource Management
See Answer
Added By: Ak Aamir
Answer
: Strategic Human Resource Management
Explanation
:
N/A
1 To be ethical and social towards needs of society is ______________

objective of HRM
A) societal B) Operational C)
Functional D) none of the above
Answer A) Societal
2. The fundamental objective of every organisation is
A) Survival B) Achieving targets C) Profit D)

compete in competition
Answer A) Survival
3. The characteristics of human resources are ________ in nature
A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C)
ductility D) None of the above
Answer B) Heterogeneous
4. The scope of human resource management includes
A) procurement B) development C)
compensation D) All of the above
Answer D) All of the above
5. Human resource management helps improve
A) Production B) Productivity C)
Profit D) Power
Answer B) Productivity
6. Personnel management is
A) Proactive B) Continuous C) Multi

discipline D) Routine
Answer D) Routine
7. KSA represents
A) Knowledge, Skill, Aptitude B) Knowledge, System, Aptitude
C) Knowledge, Skill, Approach D) Knowledge, Skill, Attitude
Answer D) Knowledge, Skill, Attitude
8. In modern scenario a companies long term advantage lies in
A) Technology B)Business location C) New market D) Human resource
Answer D) Human Resource
9. The functions of HRM doesn’t include the following head
A) Managerial B)Analytical C) Developmental D) Departmental
Answer D) Departmental
10 The functions of HRM is pertained to
A) Particular department B)top level management C) whole organisation D)

line managers
Answer C) Whole organisation
11 Managerial functions of HRM is must for _______________ of the

organisation
A) administration B)Smooth running C) financial stability D) none of the

above
Answer B)Smooth running
12 The managerial function of HRM doesn’t include ______________
A) Innovation B)Employee relations C) Planning D) Coordination
Answer B)Employee relations

13 ____________ functions are the HR functions that are required to
administrate the manpower in the organisation.
A) Managerial B)Analytical C) Operational D) research
Answer C) Operational
14 The planning function in managerial function of HRM includes plan for
A) Acquiring best employee B)engaging the employee C) Proper

training to them D) All of the above
15 ________________ states the way about what are the activities that need to
be conducted, when it is to be conducted and how to conduct it.
A) Planning B) organising C) decision making D) none

of the above
Answer A) Planning
16 Human Resource Planning is a part of __________ function of the

organisation
A) Operational B)Managerial C) Analytical D)

Planning
Answer A) Operational
17 The operational function of HRM does not includes
A) HRP B) HRIS C) Employee safety D) Employee

engagement
Answer D) Employee engagement
18 The safety and health concern of the employees does not include
A) Maintaining temperature in work place B)Air flow C) Dress

code D) Hazardous
Answer C) Dress code
19 _____________ functions are the functions that are required to enhance the
skill and knowledge of the employees
A) Developmental B)Managerial C)
operational D) none of the above
Answer A) Developmental
20 The development functions of HRM includes
A) HRD B) T&D C) TQM D) All of the above
21 _____________ believes that quality is something which is not only to be

practiced in the products or the services of any organisation rather it is to
be practiced throughout the organisation.
A) TQM B)Quality Circle C) Organisational

Policy D) none of the above
Q. The scope of HRM does not include ____________?

A.
B.
Manpower planning
C.
D.
Answer : Maintenance of accounts
Show Answer
Q. The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________?
A.
Personal objectives
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
Answer : All of the above
Show Answer
Q. Scope of the HRM includes ______________?

A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
Show Answer
Q. Human Resource Management is______________?

A.
Employee oriented
B.
Employer oriented
C.
Legally oriented
D.
None of these
Answer : Employee oriented
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by HR

department?
A.
Accounting
B.
C.
Pay and Reward
D.
Employee Relations
Answer : Accounting
Show Answer
Q. The term used before the language of modern HRM was ___________?
A.
Labour Relations
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
Show Answer
Q. The meaning of the acronym HRM is ______________?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer : Human Resource Management
Show Answer
Q. HR managers are generally the___________managers?

A.
Line
B.
Middle
C.
Staff
D.
Top
Answer : Staff
Show Answer
Q. The mental process to interpret environment as’ per one’s own

understanding is known as:__________?
A.
Perception
B.
Attitude
C.
Personality
D.
Ability
Answer : Perception
Show Answer
Q. A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour

of all employees is called__________?
A.
code of ethics
B.
word of ethics
C.
ethics/ dilemma
D.
Training Manual
Answer : code of ethics
Q. Identify the managerial function’ out of the following functions of HR

managers?
A.
Procurement
B.
Development
C.
Organizing
D.
performance appraisal
Answer : Organizing
Show Answer
Q. The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known

as____________?
A.
Job classification
B.
Job design
C.
Job description
D.
Job evaluation
Answer : Job classification
Show Answer
Q. If one were to think of HR as a business, which of the following

“product lines” involves developing effective HR systems that help the
Organisation meet its goals for attracting, keeping and developing
people with the skills it needs?
A.
Administrative services
B.
Business partner services
C.
Strategic partner
D.
Product quality audit
Answer : Business partner services
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following act represents a situation in which employment

decisions are NOT affected by illegal-discrimination?
A.
Fair employment
B.
Legal compliance
C.
Litigation Process
D.
Affirmative action
Answer : Fair employment
Show Answer
Q. The one of the following is the best reason for the reduced use of
written tests is____________?
A.
They are hard to construct
B.
They are difficult to validate
C.
They are expensive to adminis
D.
They give very little information
Answer : They are difficult to validate
Show Answer
Q. Strategic human resource management involves____________?

A.
Financing project marketing related programming
B.
setting employment standards and policies
C.
linking human resources with strategic objectives to improve performance
D.
Project planning
Answer : linking human resources with strategic objectives to improve

performance
Show Answer
Q. The term procurement stands for__________?

A.
recruitment and selection
B.
training and development
C.
pay and benefits
D.
health and safety
Answer : recruitment and selection
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR

managers?
A.
PIanning
B.
Organizing
C.
Procurement
D.
Controlling
Answer : Procurement
Show Answer
Q. The process which best defines the locating and, encouraging

potential employees to apply for jobs is___________?
A.
Human resource planning
B.
Selection
C.
Recruitment
D.
Job Analysis
Answer : Recruitment
Show Answer
Q. The first step in the human resource planning process is

____________?
A.
Preparing a job analysis
B.
Forecasting future human resource needs
C.
Assessing future demand
D.
Assessing future supply
Answer : Forecasting future human resource needs
The written
statement of
the findings
of job
analysis is
called
__________?
A.
Job design
B.
Job
classification
C.
Job evaluation
D.
Job description
Answer : Job
description
Show Answer
Q. The characteristics of human resources are

_____________in nature?
A.
Homogeneous
B.
Heterogeneous
C.
Ductility
D.
Stable
Answer : Heterogeneous
Show Answer
Q. The goal of this stage of HR intranet site development is to

provide employees with a truly individualized experience
based on their individual profiles?
A.
Brochure ware
B.
Transactional
C.
Lnteqrated
D.
Personalized
Answer : Personalized
Show Answer
Q. The goal of this stage of HR intranet site development is to

provide employees with a truly individualized experience
based on their individual profiles?
A.
Brochure ware
B.
Transactional
C.
Lnteqrated
D.
Personalized
Answer : Personalized
Show Answer
Q. Increasing the number and variety of tasks assigned to a job

is called__________?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Job enlargement
C.
Job enrichment
D.
A and C
Answer : Job enlargement
Show Answer
Q. Campus Recruiting does not have the advantage

of___________?
A.
High Intellectual Capacity
B.
Higher understanding of organization
C.
High level of curiosity
D.
Answer : Higher understanding of organization

Show Answer
Q. Which of the following approach emphasizes the’ effect of

psychological &. Social factors on employees’
performance?
A.
Scientific approach
B.
Rational approach
C.
Human relations approach
D.
Systematic approach
Answer : Human relations approach
Show Answer
Q. How can high potential employees be developed for future

positions?
A.
internal training
B.
Increasing pal skill
C.
Managing employee
D.
Allowing them to do further studies
Answer : internal training
Show Answer
Q. Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of

Workforce Diversity?
A.
Increased creativity and flexibility
B.
Decreased problem-solving skills
C.
Multiple perspectives
D.
Greater openness to new ideas
Answer : Decreased problem-solving skills
Show Answer
Q. Human resource planning techniques include the use of

some or all of the following?
A.
Size of organizational structure
B.
Infrastructure Plan
C.
Control and evaluation
D.
Employee Management
Answer : Control and evaluation
Show Answer
The unstructured
interview:___________?
A.
Infrequently conducted
B.
Typically is unbiased
C.
Typically is related to future
D.
Typically biased job
performance
Answer : Typically
biased job performance
Show Answer
Q. HRP stands for___________?

A.
Human resource project
B.
Human resource planning
C.
Human recruitment planning
D.
Human recruitment procedure
Answer : Human resource planning
Show Answer
Q. Which Personnel association uses the idea of

bundles of integral HRM practices?
A.
European association for personnel management
B.
U.S office of personnel management
C.
Chartered Institute of personnel & development
D.
Association of personnel Service Orqanisations
Answer : Chartered Institute of personnel &

development
Show Answer
Q. Tests that measure traits, temperament, or

disposition are examples of___________?
A.
Manual dexterity tests
B.
Personality tests
C.
Intelligence tests
D.
Work sample tests
Answer : Personality tests
Show Answer
Q. The most popular method of recruiting applicants

to jobs is_________?
A.
Radio and TV advertisement
B.
Corporate website
C.
Employee referral schemes
D.
Commercial job boards
Answer : Corporate website
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following department of an

Orqanisation performs the managerial function of
matching Orqanisational needs with the skills &
abilities of the employees?
A.
Marketing department
B.
Finance department
C.
Production department
D.
Human Resource department
Answer : Human Resource department
Show Answer
Q. Why do companies use external job searches

instead of internal searches?
A.
Legal requirements
B.
It is less expensive
C.
Companies can add new talent, new ideas to the
organization
D.
Orientation time is reduced
Answer : Companies can add new talent, new

ideas to the organization
Show Answer
Q. Job analysis produces which of the following,

regardless of the technique used?
A.
Benchmarks
B.
Individual interview
C.
Job specifications
D.
Replacement charts
Answer : Job specifications
Show Answer
Q. Which approach that seeks the to link strategy,

business, performance and HRM policies and
practices, assumes that there are a number of
HRM practices that are suitable for all
Organisations?
A.
Best Practice
B.
Best fit
C.
Resource-based view
D.
Life cycle models
Answer : Best Practice
Show Answer
Q. In which stage of HR intranet site development

are multiple sites linked together to create a
seamless experience for the individual?
A.
Personalized
B.
Integrated
C.
Transactional
D.
Brochureware
Answer : Integrated
Show Answer
HRM
typically
provides
which of
these types
of training
to
temporary
employees?
A.
Retirement
planning’
B.
Benefits
options
C.
Orientation
D.
Career
planning and
management
Answer
: Orientation
Show Answer
Q. The extent to which an employment selection test provides

consistent results is known as:__________?
A.
Reliability
B.
Dependability
C.
Consistency
D.
Trustworthiness
Answer : Reliability
Show Answer
Q. The number of people hired for a particular job compared to

the number of individuals in the applicant pool is often
expressed as________?
A.
Application ratio
B.
Recruitment ratio
C.
Employment ratio
D.
Selection ratio
Answer : Selection ratio
Show Answer
Q. In strategic human resource management, HR strategies are

generally aligned with______________?
A.
Business Strategy
B.
Marketing Strategies
C.
Finance strategy
D.
Economic strategy
Answer : Business Strategy
Show Answer
Q. Mr. ‘A’ must decide what positions the firm should fill in the
next six months. What activity is Mr. ‘A’ working on?
A.
Recruitment
B.
Selection
C.
Personnel planning
D.
Interviewing
Answer : Personnel planning

Show Answer
Q. In the future, HR managers will have to deal with all of the

following workforce changes, except
A.
a more racially diverse workforce
B.
a skills shortfall among workers
C.
an abundance of entry level workers
D.
an older workforce
Answer : an older workforce
Show Answer
Q. Career counseling ‘is part of which of the following functions

of HRM?
A.
Compensation & benefits
B.
Planning & selection
C.
Training and Development
D.
Maintenance of HRIS
Answer : Maintenance of HRIS
Show Answer
Q. Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in Pre-

screening is the_________?
A.
in-person interview
B.
on-site visit
C.
telephone interview
D.
application form
Answer : application form
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following functions of HRM deals with

‘Collective Bargaining’?
A.
Staffing
B.
Forecasting
C.
Employee-assistance management
D.
Employee relations management
Answer : Employee relations management
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following emerged when individuals realized

the strength they could gain by joining together to negotiate
with employers?
A.
Trade Unions
B.
Human Relation movement
C.
Employment Legislations
D.
Employee relationship Management
Answer : Trade Unions

How often HR
planning
process is
implemented
within an
Organisation?
A.
Continuously
B.
Annually
C.
Bi-annually
D.
Quarterly
Answer
: Continuously
Show Answer
Q. A Competency consists of____________?

A.
The specific tasks a person must do
B.
Skills and behaviours
C.
A list of tests that will measure cognitive ability
D.
Communications and behaviour
Answer : Communications and behaviour
Show Answer
Q. HR Department maintains _________records.

A.
Employee
B.
Sales
C.
Production
D.
Inventory
Answer : Employee
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following force makes an individual eligible to

make decisions, give orders &. directing work activities of
others?
A.
Power
B.
Influence
C.
Authority
D.
Command
Answer : Authority
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is not true of the activity known as

job analysis?
A.
The rate of pay for the job is fixed.
B.
The job elements are rated in terms such as frequency. of use or
amount of time
C.
It aims to describe the purpose of a job and the conditions under which it
is performed
D.
Jobs are broken into elements such as information required or relations
with other people
Answer : The rate of pay for the job is fixed.
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an

executive recruiter?
A.
many contacts in field
B.
adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market
C.
unfamiliar with company perceptions of ideal candidate
D.
ability to keep identity of firm confidential
Answer : unfamiliar with company perceptions of ideal

candidate
Show Answer
Q. Executive recruiters are also called___________?

A.
staffers
B.
alternative staffing companies
C.
contract technical recruiters
D.
head hunters
Answer : head hunters
Show Answer
Q. The advantage of external recruiting is that:___________?

A.
They ensure consistency from opening to closing
B.
They are useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
C.
They are very inexpensive
D.
Time Consuming
Answer : They are useful for companies too small to have

dedicated recruiters
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is a key HR role as defined by

Ulrich et al (2009)?
A.
Personnel administrator
B.
Business ally
C.
Payroll advisor
D.
Organisational geographer
Answer : Business ally
Show Answer
Q. Successful managers are__________?

A.
Efficient & effective
B.
Strict to employees
C.
Wrong decision makers
D.
Wrong Policy makers
Answer : Efficient & effective
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following test indicates the person’s inclination towards a

particular occupation that provides satisfaction to that individual?
A.
Vocational interest test
B.
Cognitive aptitude test
C.
Personality test
D.
psychomotor abilities test
Answer : Vocational interest test
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR·

department?
A.
Employee relation
B.
Training and Development
C.
D.
Accounting
Answer : Accounting
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following component of attitude represents a person’s

opinio’ns knowledge, and information?
A.
Affective component
B.
Cognitive component
C.
Behavioral component
D.
Objective component
Answer : Cognitive component
Show Answer
Q. Firing the non-performing employees, HR manager is said to perform

the__________?
A.
Interpersonal role
B.
Informational role
C.
Supportive role
D.
Decisional role
Answer : Decisional role
Show Answer
Q. The process of choosing individuals who have re1evant qualifications

to fill existing or projected job openings is__________?
A.
Screening process
B.
Selection process
C.
Interview process
D.
Pre-screeninq process
Answer : Selection process
Show Answer
Q. The thorough & detailed study.regarding jobs within an Organisation is

represented by:__________?
A.
Job analysis
B.
Job description
C.
Job specification
D.
Job evaluation
Answer : Job analysis
Show Answer
Q. The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an

Organization is called____________
A.
Hiring
B.
Recruitment
C.
Selection
D.
Retention
Show Answer
Q. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals

and magazines are___________methods of recruitment.
A.
Indirect
B.
Direct
C.
Third-party
D.
E-recruitment
Answer : Indirect
Show Answer
Q. Strategic management process usually consists of _________steps.

A.
Four
B.
Five
C.
Six
D.
Seven
Answer : Five
Show Answer
Q. Strategic human resource management aims to achieve competitive

advantage in the market through__________?
A.
Price
B.
Product
C.
People
D.
Process
Answer : People
Show Answer
Q. Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees as well as

Organizational_________________?
A.
Effectiveness
B.
Economy
C.
EffiCiency
D.
Performativity
Answer : Effectiveness
Show Answer
Q. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves

around____________?
A.
Machine
B.
Motivation
C.
Money
D.
Men
Answer : Men
Show Answer
Q. Formulating and executing HR systems that produce employee

competencies and behaviors needed to achieve the company’s
strategic aims is/are_____________?
A.
Strategic HR Management
B.
Strategy executjon
C.
HR strategies
D.
Strategic implementation
Answer : Strategic HR Management
Show Answer
Q. _____________examination may protect the company against

unwarranted claims under workers compensation laws?
A.
Written
B.
Physical
C.
Mental
D.
Reference
Answer : Physical
Show Answer
Q. Identifying and executing the firm’s mission by matching its

capabilities with demands of its environment is the firm’s:
A.
Strategic Management
B.
Mission statement
C.
Vision
D.
SWOT analysis
Answer : Strategic Management
Show Answer
Q. Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the of the

employees.
A.
Conflicts
B.
Misunderstanding
C.
Income
D.
Morale
Answer : Misunderstanding
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is not a type of information that should be

provided by application forms?
A.
Education
B.
Experience
C.
work stability
D.
Applicant’s age
Answer : Applicant’s age
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following approach emphasizes the effect of

psychological and social factors on employees’ performance?
A.
Scientific approach
B.
Rational approach
C.
Human relations approach
D.
Systematic approach
Answer : Human relations approach
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following term is used to identify, “what the job holder
does”? “how it is done”? & “why it is done”?
A.
Job specification
B.
Job evaluation
C.
Job description
D.
Job title
Answer : Job description
Show Answer
Q. HRM is more___________ whereas Personnel Management is slightly

narrow?
A.
Complex
B.
Detailed
C.
Mechanical
D.
Growth-oriented
Answer : Growth-oriented
Show Answer
HR managers
play vital role
in___________?
A.
Setting production
targets
B.
Formulating
strategies
C.
Publishing financial
statements
D.
Preparing reports
to shareholders
Answer : Setting
production
targets
Show Answer
Q. Although many authors experience difficulty in

distinguishing between personnel management and
HRM, it can be argued that HRM is the elevation of
personnel management to a more___________level.
A.
Strategic
B.
Organisational
C.
Operational
D.
Centralized
Answer : Organisational
Show Answer
Q. The HR policy which is based on the philosophy of the

utmost good for the greatest number of people is
covered under the_____________?
A.
utilitarian approach
B.
approach based on rights
C.
approach based on justice
D.
configurational approach
Answer : utilitarian approach
Show Answer
Q. When planning for employment requirements, what must

be forecasted?
A.
Sales desired
B.
Production Scheduled
C.
Inventory
D.
Personnel needs
Answer : Personnel needs
Show Answer
Q. ___________ best defines how well a test or selection

procedure measures a person’s attributes.
A.
Reliability
B.
Testing
C.
Validity
D.
Organizational constraint
Answer : Validity
Show Answer
Q. Which one of the following responsibilities is specifically

associated with the HR function of employee relations?
A.
Conducting attitude surveys
B.
Work analysis
C.
HR information systems
D.
Job design
Answer : Conducting attitude surveys
Show Answer
Q. When constructing the ad, it is important to consider how

to best ________?
A.
Attract attention to the advertisement
B.
Get right candidate
C.
How will be the profit
D.
The candidate reach in profit
Answer : Attract attention to the advertisement

Show Answer
Q. Under which of the following authority, an HR manager

took the decision to provide training to its employees
regarding the operations of newly installed machine?
A.
Staff
B.
Functional
C.
Line
D.
Implied
Answer : Functional
Show Answer
Q. The best hiring occurs when the goals of which of the

following should consistent to each other?
A.
HR managers, Finance managers
B.
Head office, Brand
C.
Organisation, individual
D.
Lower managers, Top managers
Answer : Organisation, individual
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following department is responsible for

handling safety & health issues of employees?
A.
HR department
B.
Procurement department
C.
Finance department
D.
Marketing department
Answer : HR department
Show Answer
Q. Treating employees as precious human resources is the basis of

the__________approach?
A.
Hard HRM
B.
Soft HRM
C.
Utiliarian approach
D.
Medium HRM
Answer : Soft HRM
Show Answer
Q. The biggest problem facing e-HR is the___________?

A.
rarity of HR
B.
diversity of HR
C.
security of HR data
D.
sustainability of HR
Answer : security of HR data
Show Answer
Q. . The best medium to reach a ‘large audience for the process of

recruitment is___________?
A.
Casual applicants
B.
Advertising
C.
Employee referrals
D.
Employment agencies
Answer : Advertising
Show Answer
Q. Recruitment is widely viewed as a ___________ process?

A.
Positive
B.
Negative
C.
Both Positive and Negative
D.
Unnecessary
Answer : Positive
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following role a manager performs as a Resource

allocator?
A.
Interpersonal role
B.
Decisional role
C.
Informational role
D.
Supportive role’
Answer : Decisional role
Show Answer
Q. ____________ is the main source of innovations?

A.
Upgraded technology
B.
Human mind
C.
Competitors’ pressure
D.
Research & Development
Answer : Human mind
Show Answer
Q. Job descriptions are also called as____________?

A.
Task oriented
B.
Task analysis
C.
performance oriented
D.
Credit analysis
Answer : Task oriented
Show Answer
Q. A broad statement of the purpose, scope, duties and responsibilities of
a particular job is___________?
A.
job specification
B.
job description
C.
job analysis
D.
job design
Answer : job description
Show Answer
Q. systematic and orderly process of determining the worth of a job in

relation to other jobs is ____________?
A.
worth job specification
B.
job description
C.
job evaluation
D.
job identification
Answer : job evaluation
Show Answer
Q. Job identification is one of the components of _____________?

A.
job specification
B.
job design
C.
job description
D.
job evaluation
Show Answer
Q. When an interviewer prepares a list of questions in advance and asks

those question to the candidate to obtain the information from him; it is
called ___________?
A.
a structured interview
B.
a well-organized interview
C.
a systematic type interview
D.
None
Answer : a structured interview
Show Answer
Q. A general statement or understanding which provides guidelines for

decision-making to H.R. managers in respect of various H.R. functions
and activities is known as ____________?
A.
H.R. Philosophy
B.
H.R. Vision statement
C.
H.R. Policy
D.
H.R. Mission statement
Answer : H.R. Policy
Show Answer
Q. The Integrated system model is also known as ___________?
A.
Harvard Model
B.
Michigan Model
C.
Integrated Model
D.
Warwick System Model
Answer : Harvard Model
Show Answer
Q. A broad, general and written statement of a specific job based on the

findings of an analysis is called as __________?
A.
Specific Job Design
B.
Job Identification
C.
Specific Particular Analysis
D.
Job Description
Answer : Job Description
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following factors is one of the environmental factors

affecting job description:
A.
Workflow and culture
B.
Autonomy and feedback
C.
Employee availability and abilities
D.
Culture and diversity
Answer : Employee availability and abilities
Show Answer
Q. Low absenteeism and turnover is the outcome of which of the

following core dimensions described by the Job Characteristics Model
A.
Autonomy
B.
Feedback
C.
Task Identity
D.
Task Significance
Answer : Feedback
Show Answer
Q. High job satisfaction is the outcome of which of the following core

dimensions described by the Job Characteristics Model?
A.
Task identity
B.
Task significance
C.
Feedback
D.
Autonomy
Answer : Autonomy
Show Answer
Q. E-recruiting methods include____________?

A.
internet job boards
B.
career websites
C.
employer websites
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. Recruitment__________________
A.
follows selection
B.
precedes selection
C.
matches selection
D.
None
Answer : precedes selection
Show Answer
Q. Selection is_________?
A.
Subjective
B.
Objective
C.
Normative
D.
Positive
Answer : Subjective
Show Answer
Q. One of the external sources of recruitment is ____________?

A.
retired managers and employees
B.
dependents of deceased employees
C.
gate hiring
D.
None
Answer : gate hiring
Show Answer
Q. Job Characteristics Model is proposed by ____________?

A.
Hockman and Oldcham
B.
Hockman and Coldham
C.
Hackman and Oldham
D.
Horkman and Olatham
Answer : Hackman and Oldham
Show Answer
Q. A list of the duties, responsibilities, reporting relationship, working

conditions and supervisory responsibilities of a job as a product of a
job analysis is _____________?
A.
job enlargement
B.
job design
C.
job description
D.
job enlistment
Show Answer
Q. The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a

job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is
______________?
A.
job analysis
B.
job design
C.
job recruitment
D.
job description
Answer : job analysis
Show Answer
Q. Organisational factors affecting job design are ______________?

A.
workforce and cultural factors
B.
employee availability and abilities
C.
ergonomics and cultural factors
D.
feedback and diversity factors
Answer : workforce and cultural factors

Show Answer
Q. Factors affecting job design are ____________?

A.
behavioral factors
B.
environmental factors
C.
organizational factors
D.
all
Answer : all
Show Answer
Q. Behavioral factors affecting job design are _____________?

A.
Autonomy
B.
Diversity
C.
Feedback
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. One of the important organizational factors affecting ‘Job Design’ is

___________?
A.
Workflow
B.
Autonomy
C.
Feedback
D.
Diversity
Answer : Workflow
Show Answer
Q. According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate product of job

analysis is__________?
A.
the job description
B.
the job design
C.
the job production
D.
the job specification
Answer : the job description
Show Answer
Q. HRM is considered as____________?

A.
a reactive function
B.
an auxiliary function
C.
a proactive function
D.
an auxo-reactive function
Answer : a proactive function
Show Answer
Q. Selection of the candidates is done out of______________?
A.
Target population
B.
internal sources
C.
external sources
D.
internal as well as external sources
Answer : Target population
Show Answer
Q. For forecasting the demand for manpower, the important techniques

used are_____________?
A.
Delphi Techniques
B.
Statistical Techniques
C.
Work Study Techniques
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is the area from which applicants can be

recruited?
A.
Employment Lines
B.
Employees’ Association
C.
Labour Market
D.
Labour Schemes
Answer : Labour Market
Show Answer
Q. The division of the total task to be performed into a manageable and

efficient unit is____________?
A.
a job design
B.
a job specification
C.
a job analysis
D.
a job description
Answer : a job design
Show Answer
Q. A job specification is one of the areas of ___________?

A.
job analysis
B.
job design
C.
job description
D.
job summary
Answer : job analysis
Show Answer
Q. A brief write-up of what the job is all about is ____________?

A.
job finding
B.
job summary
C.
job analysis
D.
job specification
Answer : job summary
Show Answer
Q. The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an

organization is called___________?
A.
Hiring
B.
Recruitment
C.
Selection
D.
Retention
Show Answer
Q. The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an

organization is called___________?
A.
Hiring
B.
Recruitment
C.
Selection
D.
Retention
Show Answer
Q. Recruitment policy usually highlights need for establishing

____________?
A.
job specification
B.
job analysis
C.
job description
D.
None of the above
Answer : job specification
Show Answer
Q. Recruitment is widely viewed as a ______________?

A.
positive process
B.
negative process
C.
positive as well as negative process
D.
None
Answer : positive process
Show Answer
Q. The meaning of the acronym ‘SHRM’ is ____________?

A.
Short-term Human Resource Management
B.
Strategic Human Resource Management
C.
Strategestic Human Resource Management
D.
Strategic Humane Resource Management
Answer : Strategic Human Resource Management
Show Answer
Q. The scope of HRM does not include ____________?

A.
B.
Manpower planning
C.
D.
Answer : Maintenance of accounts
Show Answer
Q. The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________?

A.
Personal objectives
B.
C.
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. Human Resource Management (HRM) is_________?
A.
A Staff function
B.
A line function
C.
A staff function, line function and accounting function
D.
All
Answer : A Staff function
Show Answer
Q. Scope of the HRM includes ______________?

A.
B.
C.
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. Human Resource Management is______________?

A.
Employee oriented
B.
Employer oriented
C.
Legally oriented
D.
None
Answer : Employee oriented
Show Answer
Q. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by HR

department?
A.
Accounting
B.
C.
Pay and Reward
D.
Employee Relations
Answer : Accounting
Show Answer
Q. The term used before the language of modern HRM was ___________?
A.
Labour Relations
B.
C.
D.
All
Answer : All
Show Answer
Q. The meaning of the acronym HRM is ______________?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer : Human Resource Management
Show Answer
1-The following is (are) the key components of a business process Re-engineering programme?
a. Product development
b. Service delivery
c. Customer satisfaction
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
2-The actual achievements compared with the objectives of the job is

a. Job performance
b. Job evaluation
c. Job description
d. None of the above
(Ans:a)
3-The following is (are) concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human
resources plan
a. Development
b. Training
c. Recruitment
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)
4-Majority of the disputes in industries is (are) related to the problem of

a. Wages
b. Salaries
c. Benefits
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
5-In an organisation initiating career planning, the career path model would essentially form the
basis for
a. Placement
b. Transfer
c. Rotation
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
6-Section ________ of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, states that an employer should only retrench
employees who have been most recently hired
a. 24-F
b. 24-G
c. 25-F
d. 25-G
(Ans:d)
7-Performance development plan is set for the employee by his immediate boss.
a. Employer
b. Department Head
c. Immediate boss
d. Any of the above
(Ans:c)
8-The following type of recruitment process is said to be a costly affair.

a. Internal recruitment
b. External recruitment
c. Cost remains same for both types
(Ans:b)
9-The following is (are) the objective(s) of inspection.

a. Quality product
b. Defect free products
c. Customer satisfaction
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
10-Large recruitment ____ problematic and vice-versa

a. Less
b. More
c. Any of the above
(Ans:a)
11-The ________ programme once installed must be continued on a permanent basis.

a. Job evaluation
b. Training & Development
c. Recruitment
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)
12-The following person has suggested the new concept which takes into account various key
factors that will tell the overall performance of a job.
a. Elliot Jecques
b. Fred Luthas
c. Juran
d. None of the above
(Ans:a)
13-For closure, every worker is to be compensated with ________ average pay for every year of
service completed
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
(Ans:a)
14-The three important components in aligning business strategy with HR practice:

a. Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational Capabilities
b. Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational Capabilities
c. Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational structure
d. Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational structure
(Ans:a)
15-The basic managerial skill(s) is(are)

a. To supervise
b. To stimulate
c. To motivate
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)
Q1. Human Resource departments are______________

(a) line departments
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(b) authority department

(c) service department
(d) functional department
Ans. (c)
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Q2. What is human factor?

(a) Micro and macro issues of socioeconomic factor.
(b) Interrelated Physiological, Psychological and Socio-ethical
aspects of human being.
(c) The entire concept of human behaviour
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(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)
Q3. Job Analysis is a systematic procedure for securing
and reporting information defining a ______________.
(a) specific job
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(b) specific product

(c) specific service
(d) all of these
Ans. (a)
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Q4. What are the factors responsible for the growth of

HRM?
(a) Development of scientific management and awakened sense of
social responsibility.
(b) The problem of how the available human resource could
effectively minimise the cost and maximise the production.
(c) Technical factors, awakening amongst workers, attitude of the
government, cultural and social system.
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(d) All the above.

Ans. (c)
Q5. Which among the followings describe the skills that
are available within the company?
(a) Human Resource inventory
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(b) HRIS
(c) Skills inventory
(d) Management inventories
Ans. (a)
Q6. Who has defined personnel management as a field of
management which has to do with planning and
controlling various operative functions of procuring,
developing, maintaining and utilising labour force?
(a) Harold Koontz
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(b) Glueck
(c) Michael Jucius
(d) Flippo
Ans. (c)
Q7. Resources and capabilities that serve as a source of
competitive advantage for a firm over its rivals are called
_______________.
(a) core competency
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(b) core competence

(c) competitive advantage
(d) competency
Ans. (a)
Q8. Human Resource planning is compulsory for
______________.
(a) effective employee development programme
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(b) base for recruitment

(c) base for selection policy
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q9. Job analysis, HR planning, recruitment, selection,
placement, inductions and internal mobility are few
important functions which come under the heading
of______________ of HRM.
(a) integration function
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(b) development
(c) maintenance
(d) procurement function
Ans. (d)
Q10. Directing is one of the important functions of HRM
which comes under___________.
(a) managerial function
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(b) operative function

(c) technical function
(d) behavioral function
Ans. (a)
Q11. Whom does Human relation approach refer to?
(a) Worker, who should be given humanly treatment at work.
(b) Mutual cooperation between employer and employee in solving
the common problems.
(c) Integration of people into a work situation that motivates them
to work together to achieve productivity and also economic,
psychological and social satisfaction.
Ans. (c)
Q12. Which of the following is a method of collection of
information for job analysis?
(a) Questionnaire method
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Optimisation models
(d) Trend analysis
Ans. (a)
Q13. ___________ provides information on the human
attributes in terms of education, skills, aptitudes, and
experience necessary to perform a job effectively.
(a) job description
(b) job specification
(c) job analysis
(d) job evaluation
Ans. (b)
Q14. Who laid the foundation of HRM practice?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Roethlisberger and Dickinson
(c) Peter Drucker and Douglas McGregor
(d) David C. McClelland.
Ans. (c)
Q15. How HRM has become a highly specialised job?
(a) It is concerned with obtaining and maintaining a satisfied work
force.
(b) It maximises the output and satisfaction of the employees.
(c) Promote group satisfaction and individual development.
(d) Optimum utilisation of man-power by motivation and
improving the efficiency.
Ans.(b)
Q16. Job specification includes _____________.
(a) Physical characteristics
(b) Psychological characteristics
(c) Personal characteristics
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q17. TQM’s major emphasis is on___________ .
(a) Product quality
(b) Company profitability
(c) Customer delight
(d) Employee training
Ans. (a)
Q18. Ability to perform exceptionally well and increase the
stock of targeted resources within the firm is called
___________.
(a) productivity
(b) efficient
(c) effective
(d) competency
Ans. (d)
Q19. What is the scope of HRM?
(a) Training and development of employees for their growth.
(b) Maintenance of good industrial relations and workers’ high
morale for higher productivity
(c) Further researches in behavioural science, new ideas in man,
management and advances in the field of training and development.
Ans. (c)
Q20. What is the importance of controlling?
(a) Ensure that activities are in accordance with the terms of the
plan.
(b) An important mental process on the part of a manager
(c) Power to influence people’s behaviour
(d) Process of regulating the activities.
Ans. (a)
Q21. What is a decision in management?
(a) Reaching at a proper conclusion after consideration.
(b) A decision involves choosing of alternatives.
(c) A decision is the outcome of a group of people or an individual.
Ans. (a)
Q22. An employee-working in a unit or plant who is a
citizen of the country in which the unit or plant is located
but where the unit or plant is operated by an organisation
headquartered in another country _____________.
(a) Home Country National
(b) Host Country National
(c) Third Country National
(d) Host Country
Ans. (b)
Q23. Quantitative Technique refers to-
(a) Models, simulation, resource allocation technique.
(b) Waiting line problems and the queuing theory
(c) Gaming and Game theory and Probability theory
(d) All the above.
Ans. (d)
Q24. Staffing includes _______.
(a) workload estimation
(b) termination
(c) appointments of personnel, placement
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q25 .To calculate the need for manpower on the basis of
the average loss of manpower due to leave, retirement,
death, transfer, discharge, etc. is known
as____________.
(a) work load analysis
(b) workforce analysis
(c) job analysis
(d) forecasting
Ans. (b)
Q26. MPDQ stands for_____________.
(a) Management Position Description Questionnaire
(b) Management Process Descriptive Questions
(c) Methods for Personality Development Questions
(d) Modern Positions Developed Qualitatively
Ans. (a)
Q27. What should be the strategy of HRM?
(a) Making the long-term and short-term planning.
(b) Planning the optimum level of manpower.
(c) Introducing training programmes to personnel.
(d) All the above.
Ans. (d)
Q28. The process of helping unwanted present employees
find new jobs with other firms called ______________.
(a) Outplacement
(b) Replacement
(c) Placement
(d) Employment
Ans. (a)
Q29. What is the ‘Laissez fair’ view point?
(a) A view popularised by Ronssean, Bentham and Hobbes.
(b) A minimum of public intervention in economic activities.
(c) Business enterprise must get opportunity to earn more profits.
(d) The change in the concept of labour from commodity approach
to human concept.
Ans. (b)
Q30. How can we understand the nature of human factor?
(a) Through determinants of human behaviour
(b) According to the behaviour of people at work
(c) The way the management influences an individual and a group.
(d) Through the study of human behaviour in organisation.
Ans. (b)
Q31. Trend analysis is a ______________
(a) Forecasting technique
(b) Skills inventory
(c) Job analysis technique
(d) Markov analysis
Ans. (a)
Q32. The factual statement of the duties and
responsibilities of a specific job is known as
_____________.
(a) job description
(c) job analysis
(d) job evaluation
Ans. (a)
Q33. In Japanese management, employees’ career path is
non-specialised. Why?
(a) In Japanese industries job rotation is carried out for employees
to have different skills and also for interdepartmental cooperation.
(b) In an organisation from the time of induction, employees are
exposed to various types of jobs and training to enable them to have
adaptability to any job.
(c) Japanese management system prefers to create capable workers
to adapt organisational changes, as and when required.
(d) Rotation of job provides benefit of skills required for top quality
executives.
Ans. (c)
Q34. Who has said that HRM is not a one shot deal?
(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor
(c) Terry
(d) McFarland
Ans. (c)
Q35. Skills inventory, replacement charts, Markov
analysis, regression analysis all are types of
____________.
(a) redundancy plan
(b) training plan
(c) retention plan
(d) forecasting methods
Ans. (d)
Q36. Trade unions and employee association, Industrial
relation, employee participation and empowerment are
procurement functions of a manager which comes
under________.
(b) procurement function
(c) development function
(d) behavioural function
Ans. (a)
Q37. Quality improvement is_____________.
(a) a team effort
(b) achieved by quality inspector
(c) zero things gone wrong
(d) tough job, and not possible
Ans. (b)
Q38. An employee working in a unit or plant who is not a
citizen of the country in which the unit or plant is located
but is a citizen of the country in which the organisation is
headquartered is called __________.
(a) Home Country National
(b) Host Country National
(c) Third Country National
(d) Host Country
Ans. (a)
Q39.“Human resource management” involves the
elements of
(a) planning, organising, and controlling
(b) planning, organising and coordinating
(c) leading, directing and coordinating
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
Q40. The procedure in which relevant information
relating to a job and its requirements is systematically
discovered and noted is
(a) job analysis
(c) job classification
(d) job evaluation
Ans. (a)
Q41. Which pair in order of sequences represents the first
and last steps in a T&D programme?
(a) determination of T&D needs, and evaluation of T&D programme
(b) determination of T&D needs, and designing the T&D
programme
(c) designing T&D programme, and implementing it
(d) evaluating of T&D programme, and implementing it
Ans. (a)
Q42. Career development involves
(a) conscious determination of career aspirations and potentialities
of employees and matching them with the organisation’s needs
(b) providing counselling to students to choose their careers
(c) providing information to students about opportunities of
employment
(d) determining the potentialities of students for a suitable career
Ans. (a)
Q.43. When an employee expresses organisationally
desired emotions during interpersonal transactions, then
it is known as_______________ .
(a) emotional labour
(b) displayed emotions
(c) felt emotions
(d) moods
Ans. (a)
Q44. Job evaluation essentially seeks to
(a) determine the relative worth of various jobs in an organisation
in monetary terms
(b) evaluate the performance of employees on their respective jobs
(c) evaluate the importance of various jobs in the organisation
(d) establish the hierarchy of various jobs in the organisation
Ans. (a)
Q45. Grievance redressal, discipline, collective bargaining
are_______________ of HRM.
(b) procurement function
(c) development function
(d) behavioural function
Ans. (a)
Q46. The content of job description
involves_______________.
(a) job title, condition of work
(b) educational qualification, skills
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
Q47. How can one distinguish between the Japanese
management system and other management systems?
(a) It encourages to perform constantly and consistently.
(b) Primarily concerned with high performance and quality
standards.
(c) It is a system in contrast to American management system.
Ans. (c)
Q48. In-basket training is involved in
(a) vestibule training
(b) on-the job training
(c) simulation
(d) coaching
Ans. (c)
Q49. To calculate the number of persons required for
various jobs with reference to a planned output is called
________________.
(a) work load analysis
(b) workforce analysis
(c) job analysis
(d) forecasting
Ans. (a)
Q50. What are the major hurdles that require immediate
action by HRM for the progress of Indian economy?
(a) Dishonesty and corruption
(b) Lack of interest in work and production loss,
(c) Unemployment and poverty
(d) Combating inflation and holding the price-line of essential
commodities.
Ans. (c)
Q51. Who is generally known as “the father of modern
management theory”?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Frederick W. Taylor
(c) Frank Gilbreth
(d) Chester Bernard
Ans. (a)
Q52. Which of the following is considered the first wage
incentive plan in modern industrial era?
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Taylor’s differential piece-rate plan
(c) Barth plan
(d) Gantt Task plan
Ans. (b)
Q53. Concept of MBO was first developed by
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Douglas McGregor
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Clayton P. Alderfer
Ans. (a)
Q54. Industrial discipline ordinarily does not imply
(a) observance of company’s rules and regulations
(b) cooperating with management and co-workers
(c) active participation in union activities
(d) smooth discharge of duties and responsibilities
Ans. (c)
Q55. A strike called by a section of workers/union
members without authorisation from proper authority of
the union is called
(a) sectional strike
(b) jurisdictional strike
(c) wild cat strike
(d) sympathetic strike
Ans. (c)
Q56. Which is a form of participative management?
(a) information-sharing
(b) associative participation
(c) consultative participation
Ans. (d)
Q57. Social factor having a potent bearing on HRM
practices in India includes
(a) caste system
(b) doctrine of karma
(c) c8ustoms and traditions
Ans. (a)
Q58. T&D programme in international HRM should give
due attention to
(a) promotion of efficiency of personnel in the host country
(b) understanding of the cultural environment of the host country
(c) improvement of technical expertise
Ans. (d)
Q57. International staffing does not give much emphasis
on the consideration of
(a) cultural adaptability
(b) global experience
(c) family flexibility
(d) political consciousness
Ans. (d)
Q58. The objectives of workers’ participation in
management do not ordinarily include
(a) promotion of collective bargaining
(b) promotion of industrial harmony
(c) promotion of industrial democracy
(d) promotion of productivity
Ans. (a)
Q60. The advantages of staffing from amongst the host
country nationals generally do not include
(a) reduction of language barriers
(b) reduction of living cost
(c) greater control over the activities of the organisation
(d) better understanding of host country’s laws and regulations
Ans. (c)
Q61. Which form of participative management promotes
“semi-autonomous work-groups”?
(a) quality of work life
(b) quality circle
(c) TQM
(d) quality group
Ans. (c)
Q62. Industrial action generally does not include
(a) strike
(b) lock-out
(c) demonstration
(d) Bandh
Ans. d
Q63. The role of HRD personnel is to –
a. description of entire process / analytical decomposition
b. identification of HRD elements and resources
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Analytical decomposition only
Ans. (c)
Q64. The primary goal of HRD is –
a. To increase productivity of workers / and organisational
profitability
b. Improve workers’ skill and enhance motivation, to prevent
obsolesces at all levels
c. prevent obsolescence and increase organisational profitability
only
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q65. Leadership is the –
a. ability to influence other people
b. ability to create within people an urge to do
c. ability to obtain willing co-operation of the followers
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q66. A team is evaluated on features like –
a. Co-operation / confrontation avoiding / common objectives
b. Openness of view and unwritten procedure systems
c. Regular review / appropriate leadership
d. All above
e. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q67. For Total Quality Management (TQM) the required
qualities are:
a. Understand customer’s current and future needs / leaders
establish unity of purpose / involvement of people for organisation’s
benefit
b. achievement of desired results when resources and activities are
managed as a process and (a) above
c. Mutually beneficial suppliers relationships enhances the ability to
create value and (b) also
d. Should have a temporary objective of the organisation
Ans. (c)
Q68. Human due diligence means investigation of –
a. Management team / staff
b. Structure / issues / managerial capacity of a potential partner
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Financial due diligence
Ans. (c)
Q69. Knowledge management refers for critical issues of
a. Organisational adaptation
b. Survival and competence against discontinuous environmental
change
c. Synergistic combination of data and information processing
capacity
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q70. What influences the bank employees’ attitude on
work culture?
a. Educational qualification
b. Ownership of bank
c. Location of the branch
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q71. Discuss the roles of the HR Manager
a. Administrator / evaluator / career development advisor /
instructor or facilitator
b. marketing programmes and services / instructor material
producer
c. Needs analyst /organisational changer / researcher + (a) above
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q72. The objectives of HR audit are –
a. to determine the effectiveness of management programmes
b. analyse the factors and recommend for correcting deviations +
(a)
c. extent to which line managers have complied with HRD polices +
(b)
d. to study future manpower inventory and identify shortfalls
Ans. (c)
Q73. Employee accountability is strengthens in
a. HR Audit
b. HR Training
c. Succession Planning
d. HR functions
Ans. (a)
Q74. The main barriers of communications are –
a. Organisational + Semantic
b. Personal + psychological + resistance to new ideas
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Organisational / psychological
Ans. (c)
Q75. Manpower planning consists of –
a. determining the jobs to be done / identifying the skills /
estimating the exists likely / filling up the requirements
b. identifying the skills / filling up the requirements
c. Estimating the turnover likely to happen in near future
d. determining the jobs to be done
Ans. (a)
Q76. Promotion is basically a reward for –
a. Efficiency
b. Seniority
c. Physical fitness
d. Retention
Ans. (a)
Q77. What is 360° appraisal?
a. a process that provides an employee opportunity in decision
making
b. a process that provides an officer opportunity of feedback about
own performance
c. a process that provides an employee with feedback about his / her
workplace performance
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (c)
Q78. Role of performance management is to accomplish –
a. Performance needs of the organisation
b. Guide the development of individuals for skill and knowledge
c. Motivate individuals / provide data adopt condition of human
capital + (b)
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q79. Competency Mapping is possible through approaches
like –
a. Job analysis / workforce skills analysis / supply and demand
analysis
b. Job analysis / Gap analysis / solution analysis
c. Gap analysis / solution analysis + (a)
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (c)
Q80. Human needs have been divided into five categorises
under need hierarchy theory. Who invented this theory?
a. McClelland
b. John Atkinson
c. Maslow
d. Herzberg
Ans. (c)
Q81. Key Performance Areas means –
a. Areas which are within the responsibility of the role
b. Areas which the management has demarcated to be performed by
employee
c. Areas for strengthening of skills and attitudes
d. All above
Ans. (a)
Q82. Career path planning is affected by –
a. Employee preference
b. Employee requirements
c. Employee preference/employees requirement and structure of
the organisation
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (c)
Q83. Phases of performance counselling are –
a. Rapport building / employee should discover own SWOT / action
plans, through brainstorming sessions
b. Two way communication / employee be encouraged for their own
performance appraisal
c. Organisational objectives are integrated
d. All above
Ans. (a)
Q84. Training method commonly used, for employee in
banks is –
a. On the job training
b. Classroom Training
c. Off the job training
d. Vestibule Training
Ans. (b)
Q85. Training evaluation is measured by –
a. Goal based / Goal free / Responsive
b. Systems / professional review / quasi-legal
c. Goal based / systems / responsive
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q86. The process of perception is influenced by factors
like –
a. Our needs and wants
b. Sensory inability
c. Our stimuli
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q87. The term industrial relations means –
a. Relationship between Management and Labour
b. Relationship between organisation and employees
c. Relationship that grows out of employment
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q86. Collective bargaining is a procedure regulated by
agreements between their –
a. Bargaining agents and employers
b. Employees and employees
c. Employers and employers
d. Labour officer and Trade unions
Ans. (a)
Q87. Advantages of grievances handling procedure –
a. Management can know employees feelings
b. Employee gets grievances ventilated
c. Keeps a check on supervisor’s attitude
d. Both (b) + (c)
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q88. How to handle grievances?
a. Grievance in writing / taking to employee directly for speaking
truth / ensure confidentiality and handle the case within tie frame
b. Treat each case as important, and obtain grievances in writing /
examine company’s position / identify violations / do not hold back
the remedy, if the company’s wrong + (a) above
c. Get all the facts (relevant) about the grievance / examine the
personnel record of the aggrieved worker / gather information from
the union representative properly + (b) above
d. Identify grievance / previous record of the worker / companies’
rules and prompt redressal of grievances, if genuine.
Ans. (c)
Q89. When any discipline becomes ineffective or less-
effective?
a. Longer time spending in action
b. Discipline is handled impersonally
c. Aware of rules and performance criteria
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q90. Functions of the personnel management can be
described as –
a. Managerial
b. Operative
c. Developmental
d. Both (a) + (b)
e. All above
Ans. (d)
Q91. Lockout is a weapon available to –
a. Employees
b. Trade Unions
c. Employers
d. Government
Ans. (c)
Q92. How the conflicts within employers and employees
can be settled or prevented?
a. Voluntary method
b. Government Machinery
c. Statutory Measures
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q93. The word workers participation in management
means –
a. Sharing the decision making powers
b. Sharing the decision making with lower results of the employees
c. Sharing the day to day working with higher ranks of persons
d. Sharing the financial decision making powers with representative
of workers
Ans. (b)
Q94. What is the role of the trade-union in collective
bargaining?
a. To protect jobs and real earnings
b. Better conditions of work life for workers
c. Fighting against any possible, exploitations
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q95. Which kind of workers participation makes the
workers as shareholders of the company?
a. Participation at Board Level
b. Participation through ownership
c. Participation through complete control
d. Participation through work councils
Ans. (b)
Q96. Special allowances are not payable for –
a. Photostat copier Operators
b. Adding machine Operators
c. Addressographs
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q97. Why grievances should be redressed?
a. Affects the individual
b. Affects the management
c. Collective disputes conversion
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q98. The employer-employees should have mutual trust /
confidence / willingness to settle / respect rights and
responsibilities of other party, is covered under –
a. Effective bargaining method
b. Essentials for effective bargaining
c. Types of bargaining
d. Areas of bargaining
Ans. (b)
Q99. Managerial functions, in personnel management can
be –
a. Planning / Organising / directing and controlling
b. Recruitment / placement / employment / Development and
motivation
c. Compensation / maintenance of health / employers’ welfare
d. Both (a) + (b) only
Ans. (d)
Q100. Discuss unfair management practices –
a. Noncompliance with promotional and transfer policies
b. Smooth handling of grievances
c. Timely payment of wages / salaries
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (a)
Q101. The core elements of HRM are –
(i) People
(ii) Management
(iii) Behavioural Dynamics
(iv) Uniformity of application
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. (d)
Q102. What are the key HRM practices in Indian
Organizations?
(i) Job Description
(ii) Recruitment
(iii) Compensation
(iv) Training & Development
(v) Performance Appraisal
(vi) Promotion & reward
(vii)Career Planning
(viii) Gender equity
(a) i, ii, iii, v, vi
(b) iv, vii, viii
(c) only vi
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
Q103. In a ____________, teams are formed and team
members report to two’ or more managers.
(a) Formal Organization
(b) Informal Organization
(c) Matrix Organisation
(d) Divisional Organization
Ans. (c)
Q104.________ refers to the attitudinal and behavioural
characteristics of a group and is concerned with how
groups form, their structure and process, and how they
function,
(a) Group dynamics
(b) Organic structure
(c) Functional Structure
(d) Matrix organization
Ans. (a)
Q105. Benchmarking is
(a) T the process of comparing the business processes & perform-
ance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity to another that
is widely considered to be an industry leader
(b) A process in which the organisations evaluate various aspects of
their processes in relation to the best practice companies’ processes
usually within the peer group defined for the purposes of
comparison
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q106. Reengineering starts with a —
(a) High-level assessment of the organisation’s mission
(b) Strategic goals
(c) Customer demands
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q107. Change Management is –
(a) It is a systematic approach in dealing with change from the indi-
vidual & organisational level
(b) A gradual process of approach in the workplace due to new poli-
cies, technology, or even a new boss
Ans. (c)
Q108. What are the different processes of Discipline
Management?
(i) Counselling
(ii) Reformative Theory
(iii) Disciplinary Process
(iv) Disciplinary Procedure & Principles of Natural Justice
(v) Principles of Natural Justice
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(d) only ii
Ans. (c)
Q109. _________ involves all the performance
monitoring, measurement, management being outsourced
from a third party or an external organisation.
(a) Human Resource Outsourcing
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Human Resource Business Process Outsourcing
(d) Performance Management Outsourcing
Ans. (d)
Q110. Performance Management System is –
(a) A formal, structured system of measuring, evaluating job related
behaviours & outcomes to discover reasons of performance & how
to perform effectively in future so that the employee, organisation &
society all benefit
(b) A process of looking both to the future & to the past, in the
context of the collective performance of all the employees in an
organisation
(c) The process of establishing goals, assessing employees & im-
plement the annual performance appraisal process
Ans. (d)
Q111. Key Performance Indicators (KPI) is/are –
(a) A specific, agreed measure of achievement within a KRA, which
go on to make up the goals and objectives measured under the
performance appraisal process.
(b) objective, independent and standardized measures of perform-
ance not ratings or judgments of performance
(c) specific, measurable, attainable, realistic & time bound which
help to determine how much the KRA’s are met
Ans. (d)
Q112. What are the advantages of Incentive Based
Compensations?
(i) Incentives are important for inducements and motivation of
workers for higher efficiency & greater output
(ii) Increase in employee earnings, results in enhanced standard of
living of employees
(iii) Productivity increases & production capacity too, with reduced
supervision
(iv) Companies can reduce the burden of fixed costs by keeping a
portion of the remuneration as variable
(v) Tendency to bypass quality in pursuit of increased output for
higher incentives
(vi) Sometimes employees may disregard security regulations due to
payment by results approach adopted for higher incentive figure
(vii) Overworking may affect employee health
(viii) Can demotivate employees not in a position to earn higher in-
centive due to sectional differences
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
Ans. (a)
Q113. Human Resource Planning (HRP) process is –
(a) A process, by which an organisation ensures that it has the right
number & kind of people at the right place, at the right time, ca-
pable of effectively & efficiently completing those tasks that will
help the organisation achieve its overall objectives
(b) A process of forecasting an organisation’s future demand for &
supply of the right type of people in the right numbers
(c) A sub-system in the total organisational planning & facilitates
the realisation of the company’s objectives by providing the right
type & right number of personnel
Ans. (d)
Q114. Who is responsible to manage change?
(a) Employees
(b) Management
(c) Executives
(d) (b) & (c)
Ans. (d)
Q115. What are the roles of HRD professional?
(i) Planning – includes projections & planning for the skilled matrix
of manpower required for the future organisation
(ii) Staffing – providing the competency matrix required to face fu-
ture challenges
(iii) Employee Development – identify cost effective & modem
methods of training for skill & competency development
(iv) Performance Management – Developing an entire gamut of per-
formance linked measures to align individual performance to the
overall corporate performance
(v) Employee Rewards – with emphasis on pay for performance &
developing an incentive scheme that would reduce fixed costs at the
same time being motivating
(vi) Maintaining quality of Work Life & Discipline – with the impact
of global workforce it is necessary to develop a linked work-life dis-
cipline for all employees in the organisation
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) iii, iv, v, vi
Ans. (d)
Q116. What are the objectives of HRM?
(i) Societal Objectives
(ii) Organisational Objectives
(iii) Functional Objectives
(iv) Personal Objectives.
(v) Statistical Objectives.
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) i, ii, iv, v
Ans. (a)
Q117. HRM refers to –
(a) A management function that helps managers to attract, set ex-
pectations & develop members for an organization.
(b) A set of programs, functions & activities designed & carried out
for maximum efficiency
Ans. (c)
Q118. How can a good employment brand help HR?
(i) Keep ahead in the talent war
(ii) Attract & induce the right kind of people she is looking for
(iii) Enhance her ability to get quality resumes to choose from
(iv) Retain her existing employee pool
(v) Subsequently see a dip in employee turnover
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(c) i, ii, iv, v
Ans. (b)
Q119. How an Individual Training needs are identified?
(i) Performance Appraisals
(ii) Interviews
(iii) Questionnaires
(iv) Employee Engagement surveys
(v) Training Feedback
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) only iii
(c) i, ii, iv, v
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
Q120. Job Rotation can be defined as –
(a) Lateral transfer of employees among a number of different posi-
tions and tasks within jobs which requires different skills and re-
sponsibilities
(b) It helps to understand the different steps into creating a product
or delivery
(c) It permits individuals to gain experience in various phases of the
business
Ans. (d)
Q121. Training & Development together helps in –
(i) Removing performance deficiencies
(ii) Offer Greater stability
(iii) Flexibility & capacity for growth
(iv) Reduces accidents, wastages & damages to machinery
(v) Reduces dissatisfaction, absenteeism & complaints
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv, v
Ans. (c)
Q122. Personnel Management is-
(a) A managerial function of planning, organising, directing,
controlling, and coordinating the operative functions so that their
individual objectives and organisational goals are achieved
(b) A function which deals in recruitment, development, compensa-
tion, integration, utilisation & maintenance of people
(c) An aspect of relationship between and among the people and is
concerned about their well-beings as individuals and as group
Ans. (d)
Q123. When does the bargaining process begins?
(a) The charter of demands of the workers are not fulfilled
(b) Discontinuation of services & concerted actions by the workers
which results in low output and monetary loss
(c) The employer cannot afford to neglect these actions which re-
sults in monetary loss
Ans. (d)
Q124. Cause of Genuine Grievance can be –
(a) Discrimination, lost opportunity, Injustice etc. done to the em-
ployee
(b) Harmony, Mutual trust & understanding
(c) Reasonable Charter of demands
Ans. (a)
Q125. Define the subject matter of Training
(a) Organisations need staff at all levels to be self-sufficient, re-
sourceful, creative & autonomous, but they face the challenge in
instilling confidence, initiative & problem solving capabilities
(b) Performance & capability are ultimately dependent on people’s
attitude and emotional maturity. Helping them to achieve on a
personal level provides a platform for trust and emotional con-
tracting with the organisation
(c) When people develop confidence, integrity & more knowledge,
they automatically become proactive, solution-focused, responsive
which has implications across a whole team with multiplying effect
Ans. (d)
Q126. __________ consists of the learning opportunities
designed to help employees to grow.
(a) Training
(b) Development
(c) Banking operations
Ans. (b)
Q127. Joint Management Councils are established in an
organisation which employs –
(a) 100 employees
(b) 300 employees
(c) 400 employees
(d) 500 employees or more
Ans. (d)
Q128. ROI Stands for —
(a) Return on Insurance
(b) Return on Investment
(c) Rate on Insurance
(d) Risk on Insurance
Ans. (b)
Q129. Talent Management consist of –
(i) Performance Evaluations to identify potentials
(ii) Psychological testing and assessment to determine capability
gaps
(iii) Training & development programmes
(iv) Project work & job experience to accelerate development
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) only i
Ans. (c)
Q130. The term “Learning Organisation” means –
(a) People of all Levels, individually or collectively are continually
increasing their capacity to produce results, they care about
(b) A collective ideal, a vision
(c) It promotes culture of Learning, a community of learners, and it
ensures that individual learning enriches & enhances the organi-
sation as a whole
Ans. (d)
Q131. Line Management is –
(a) Hierarchical chain of command from executive to front-line level
in which top management has direct authority
(b) Organised along cross-functional lines, such as employee devel-
opment or strategic direction
(c) Both of (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)
Q132. _____ is a process of transmission of massage and
understanding of information between two or more
people, it involves at least two parties – a sender and a
receiver.
(a) Body language
(b) Communication
(c) System
Ans. (b)
Q133. _________ methods are generally applied on the
workplace while employees are actually working.
(a) On the Job training
(b) Off the job training
(c) Both (a) & (b)
Ans. (a)
Q134. Selection is-
(a) A process of picking up individuals with requisite qualifications
& competence to fill jobs in the organisation
(b) A process of differentiating between applicants in order to iden-
tify & hire those with a greater likelihood of success in a job
Ans. (c)
Q135. Interviews can be —
(a) One-to-one
(b) Panel interview
(c) Sequential Interview
Ans. (d)
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a. job rotation
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Which is not a method of performance appraisal?
A.Straight ranking method
B. Man-to-man comparison method
C.Check list method
D.None of the above
Answer Report Discuss

Option: D
Explanation :
Click on Discuss to view users comments.
2:
Arrange the following staffing procedure in the correct sequence
(i) Determining sources of personnel supply
(ii) Preparing personnel specifications
(iii) Selection of personnel
(iv) Determining Personnel Characteristics
A.(ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
B. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C.(ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)

D.(ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)

Option: A
Explanation :
3:
Assertion (A). One cannot be sure about the quality of appraisal on the basis of length of
service.
Reason (R). lnitial appraisal and promotion appraisal are done separately and differently
since the length of service is different.
A.(R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
C.(A) and (R) both are correct.
D.(A) and (R) both are not correct.

Option: D
Explanation :
4:
Training information system included
A.Training aids
B. Internal and external faculty
C.Training resources
D.Training needs

Option: D
Explanation :
5:
The authoritarian leadership style goes with
A.Theory Y
B. Theory Z
C.Theory A
D.Theory X

Option: D
Explanation :
: A job analyst's task is to
A. prepare job description

B. integrate development activities
C. develop compensation plans
D. advise management
: Ensuring the implementation of 'HR' policies by line managers is the

part of
A. Line functions
B. Coordinative functions
C. Staff functions
D. all of above
MCQ: Introduction of new or current trends for optimal 'HR' utilization is

the part of
A. Coordinative function
B. Staff function
C. Line function
D. all of above
MCQ: The coordination of personnel activities is a crucial part of
A. Functional authority
B. Line function
C. Staff functions
D. all of above
MCQ: The duties of 'HR' manager and staff functions consist of
A. Assisting line manager

B. Implementing the policies
C. Directing the tasks of people
D. all of above
The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing,

retrieving and the ultimate disposition of project information is
_______.
1. a. Manage communications
2. b. Plan communications
3. c. Control communications
4. d. Communications management plan
Which of the following is not a process in project

communications management?
1. a. Planning communications management
2. b. Managing stakeholders
3. c. Controlling communications
4. d. Managing communications
The difference between communication skills and

communication management is _____.
1. a. Communication skills are a plan while communication management is a
tool.
2. b. Communication skills are techniques while communication management
is a plan.
3. c. They are the same thing.
4. d. Communication skills are a subset of the communication plan.
In face-to-face interactions, how is most information

conveyed?
1. a. By the tone of voice
2. b. By the words spoken
3. c. By body language
4. d. By the location
Status reporting ______.
1. a. Is an administrative closure technique.
2. b. combines schedule and cost information in a single report.
3. c. describes the progress made in the last reporting period.
4. d. describes the condition of the project now.
What term describes information that is sent to recipients at

their request via Web sites, bulletin boards, elearning,
knowledge repositories like blogs and other means?
1. a. Push communications
2. b. Pull communications
3. c. Interactive communications
4. d. Customer communications
Which of the following is not a result of information

distribution?
1. a. Project reports
2. b. Project records
3. c. Variance analysis
4. d. Project presentations
"Lessons learned" is a method used in which phase of

communications management?
1. a. Communications skills
2. b. Administrative closure
3. c. Performance reporting
4. d. Negotiating methods
Which of the following is not a guidance to help improve time

spent at meetings?
1. a. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run
more smoothly.
2. b. Determine if a meeting can be avoided.
3. c. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting.
4. d. Build relationships.
Making needed information available to project stakeholders in
a timely manner is _____.
1. a. Communication planning
2. b. Administrative closure
3. c. Information distribution
4. d. Performance reporting
The last step in the sequence of steps in a basic

communications model is ______.
1. a. Transmit message
2. b. Feedback/Response
3. c. Decode
4. d. Acknowledge
A(n) _____ report describes where a project stands at a

specific point in time.
1. a. Performance
2. b. Forecast
3. c. Status
4. d. Earned Value
Who is responsible for ensuring that the communication

actually delivered the information intended?
1. a. Both the sender and the receiver
2. b. The sender
3. c. The receiver
4. d. The project communications coordinator
Which of the following is not a performance reporting

method?
1. a. Status reporting
2. b. Forecasting
3. c. Progress reporting
4. d. Earned value analysis
Which of the following is not a recommendation for improving
project communications?
1. a. You cannot over-communicate.
2. b. Do not use facilitators or experts outside of the project team to
communicate important information.
3. c. Project managers and their teams should take time to develop their
communication skills.
4. d. Use templates to help prepare project documents.
Which of the following is not a project communications

management process?
1. a. Plan communications management
2. b. Manage communications
3. c. Close communications
4. d. Control communications
How many channels of communication are there when there

are 8 people involved?
1. a. 56
2. b. 28
3. c. 12
4. d. 8
A _____ report is a reflective statement that documents

important information learned from working on the project.
1. a. Project archive
2. b. Final Project
3. c. Lessons-learned
4. d. Progress
The project management plan is a(n) _____ to plan

communications management.
1. a. Output
2. b. Input
3. c. Tool and Technique
4. d. Risk factor
If you add three more people to a project team of five, how
many more communication channels will you add?
1. a. 2
2. b. 12
3. c. 15
4. d. 18
Complex information is best communicated _____.

1. a. Informally and written
2. b. Verbally and formally
3. c. Informally and verbally
4. d. Written and formally
What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the

success of any project?
1. a. Lack of proper funding.
2. b. A failure to communicate.
3. c. Poor listening skills.
4. d. Inadequate staffing.
Communication between two or more parties performing multi-

directional exchange of information is called ______.
1. a. Interactive communication
2. b. Pull communication
3. c. Push communication
4. d. Multi-directional communication
What is earned value analysis?

1. a. A technique for analyzing cost and schedule together.
2. b. A form of trend analysis.
3. c. A form of status reporting.
4. d. A method of information distribution.
What strategy can a project manager use to deliver bad
news?
1. a. Set the stage by putting the news into context, emphasizing the impact on
the bottom line.
2. b. Tell a joke first.
3. c. Tell senior management as soon as possible so they can develop
alternatives and recommendations.
4. d. Ask the project champion to deliver the news.
From a practical perspective, what is the most important element of a good project
communication management approach?
YOUR ANSWER
Setup a regular and frequent method for communicating with team members and stakeholders
and then follow it.
Correct
2.
2.Why should project team members request an acknowledgement for all project
communications that include action items?
YOUR ANSWER
Ensure team members received the message and understand it.

Correct
3.
3.What types of project records should be archived?
YOUR ANSWER
Project plans, project deliverables, project contracts, meeting minutes, and status reports.
Question 1: You are managing a project in which there is a large procurement activity. One of the
stakeholders approaches you with the need for a change. You have an off-line meeting with the stakeholder
and discuss the change, decide it can be done and agree to implement. What mistake has the project
manager made here?
a. You forgot to consult with senior management

b. You forgot to consult with other stakeholders on the team
c. Contract changes require a formal written approval
d. You forgot to perform an impact assessment
Question 2: The project manager is managing a nine member team. Two members are removed and
reassigned from the team. How many lines of communication have been removed from the team?
a. 17
b. 16
c. 15
d. 14
Question 3: You have just finished a recent progress meeting when an important technical issue emerged.
With the help of two technical team members, you craft a detailed document, which is e-mailed to the rest
of the team describing the issue and what can be done about it. What percentage of the message is actually
going to be understood by the recipients?
a. 55%
b. 7%
c. 38%
d. 93%
1. You take over a project from another project manager. You would like to understand
the meeting cadence and membership. Where will you find this information?
a. The human resource management plan
b. The meeting management plan
c. The communication management plan
d. The survey of the organization’s environment
2. A project has five stakeholders, when an additional project member gets added, how
many communication channels exist?
a. 15
b. 14
c. 6
d. 20
3. Two project team members are having a conversation about requirements needed for
a particular portion of the project. If a project manager wants to understand how the
pair is really feeling; she should focus attention on
a. The messages being sent via words.
b. The nonverbal communication occurring.
c. The space they are communicating.
d. All of the above
4. A project manager is having trouble getting a project member to complete their tasks
as assigned. What type of communication would the project manager want to use to
address this problem initially?
a. Informal verbal
b. Formal verbal
c. Informal written
d. Formal written
5. You are just taken over a project that is ¾ of the way complete. You want to get a
general understanding of the work completed. What type of report would help you find
this information?
a. An earned value report
b. A communication report
c. A lessons learned report
d. A progress report
1.
The major processes of Project Communications Management are:
Plan Communications Management, Manage Communications, and Monitor

Communications.
Plan Communications Management, Develop Responses, Report Progress, and

Distribute Information.
Plan Communications, Distribute Information, and Schedule Reporting.
Distribute Information, Report Changes, Update Project Documents,and Accept

Project Deliverables.
2.
Inputs to the Plan Communications Management process include:
Project management plan, project documents,enterprise environmental

factors,and organizational
process assets.
Stakeholder requirements, project scope statement, project budget,and project

schedule.
Organizational structure,stakeholder analysis, project management plan, and

communications barriers.
Stakeholder management strategy, RAM, WBS, and administrative procedures.
3.
The communications management plan usually contains all of the following
EXCEPT:
Information to be communicated, including language, format, content, and level of

detail.
Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information and receipt of
acknowledgment or response, if applicable.
Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memos, email,

and/or press releases.
Email archives, correspondence, reports,and documents related to the project

from all stakeholders.
4.
Hard-copy document management, electronic communications management,
and web interfaces to scheduling and project management software are
example of:
Project management information systems (PMIS).
Internal communications systems (ICS).
Internalmanagement systems (IMS).
5.
Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology generally
include all of the following EXCEPT:
Urgency of the need for information.
Availability of technology.
Executive requirements.
Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information.
6.
As part of the communications model, the sender is responsible for:
Ensuring that the receiver agrees with the message.
Confirming that the communication is correctly understood.
Presenting the information in the most favorable manner.
Decoding the medium correctly.

7.
As part of the communications model, the receiver is responsible for:
Agreeing with the sender's message.
Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further

discussions.
Ensuring that the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly,

and acknowledged or responded to appropriately.
Specifying that a verbal message does not give insight to problem areas, and
requiring that the message be reduced to writing to avoid potential confusion.
8.
Sources of information typically used to identify and define project
communication requirements include all of the following EXCEPT:\
Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships.
Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project.
Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which
locations.
Availability of the project sponsor at the project location.
9.
Communication activities have many potential dimensions that generally
include all of the following EXCEPT:
Written, oral, and nonverbal.
Internal and external.
Conceptual and definitive.
Formal and informal.
10.
All of the following are information management and distribution tools
EXCEPT:
Hard-copy document management.
Electronic communications management.

Inputting project performance data into a spreadsheet or database.
Electronic project management tools.
Communications Management – Practice Questions

Q1: The Project Manager of a complex IT project is having a one-on-one
discussion with a new engineer. The PM explains one of the algorithms that is
being developed and asks the Engineer if he would be able to document the
functioning of the algorithm and send it to the stakeholders? The Engineer
agrees and shares the document. However after going over the document, the
PM realizes that the Engineer didn’t really understand the algorithm. Who is at
fault for the loss of time and effort?
A. Functional Manager, he shouldn’t have assigned a new engineer on this complex

project
B. Project Manager, he should’ve helped create and review the document with the
engineer
C. Engineer, he should’ve immediately asked his doubts on the understanding of the
algorithm
D. Project Manager, it is his responsibility that the message is clearly
understood and get a confirmation from the engineer
Q2: You are managing an Infrastructure project. You have an issue with a team
member’s performance. How will you communicate this issue with the team
member?
A. Formal Verbal
B. Informal Verbal
C. Formal Written
D. Informal Written
Q3: Your project involves vendors. One of the vendors is requesting

confidential information about your project without which they won’t be able to
make progress. The vendor would like to know who has the authority to
release that confidential information. Which project document should he refer
to?
A. Project Charter
B. Scope Management Plan
C. Communications Management Plan
D. Stakeholder Management Plan
Q4: Which of the following is the biggest concern of the virtual team?
A. Different time zones
B. Noise
C. Cultural differences
D. Communications Management
Q5: You are managing a project with 25 team members and one team lead at 3
different locations each. You also have 3 members supporting as part-time
project staff. How many communication channels are possible in your project?
A. 496
B. 992
C. 424
D. 32
Question - 8
You have a team of project managers reporting to you.Recently a new manager

relatively inexperienced has joined your team.Considering his level of experience
you assign him to a small project.Considering low complexity and few
stakeholders involved - you envision the project to have no surprises or
hiccups.You have identified the number of communication channels to be only
6.However with increase in scope of work 2 additional stakeholders who need to
be communciated with join the team.You ask the manager to identify the number
of communication channels now.The correct answer is :
1.21
2.22
3.16
4.15

Explanation :
The correct answer is 15.Note that the question provides the initial number of
communication channels as 6.This means the number of stakeholders are 4.With the
addition of two more stakeholders - the number of stakeholders would increase to
6.So the number of communication channels would be 15.
Question - 59
You have worked in the current organization and from managing projects you
have now graduated to portfolio management and have a number of project
managers reporting into you.Your company has bagged a prestigious project of a
very similar nature to the one you had executed some years back.You ask the
current project manager to look up the lessons learned for the past project -
where would these be stored ?
1.Organizational process assets
2.Projects performance reports
3.Projects status reports
4.Projects record management system

Explanation :
A is the correct answer.
While all the options seem to be good choices - the best choice in this case would be
Organizational Process Assets.Lessons learned are always a part of the
Organizations process assets.It is such assets that enable an organization take
informed decisions.
Which of following is best strategy for effectively planning out your time?
A. Prioritize all your tasks

B. Ignore all the unexpected work
C. Delay any unnecessary work
D. All of the above
While taking into consideration control function of organization, key term to put focus on is "measure what
matters". This would mean
A. Measure the activities in the organization to put them in the correct order to achieve maximum outpu
B. Monitor every stage in the production cycle
C. Closely observe the working of the employees
D. Measure those factors that are important to the organization
Power can be defined as ability to take action. There are different sources of power namely position, reward,
coercive, expertise, referent, personal and connection power. If a manager delays promotion of his subordinate
due to an overall bad performance, which power source best describes it?
A. Reward power
B. Coercive power
C. Personal power
D. Referent power
A manager is held responsible for a smooth running of organizational working setup. According to Mintzberg, a
manager performs
A. An interpersonal role
B. A decisional role
C. An informational role
D. All of the above roles
Managers and leaders are somewhat similar in their characteristics. A leader is considered a role model for his
followers. Choose best suited qualities of a leader.
A. Vision, Commitment, devotion, Clear purpose, ability to inspire

B. Honesty, Dedication, Ambiguous, Authoritative
C. Lacking humility, Lack of empathy, Defiance
D. Authoritative, Clear purpose, Bossy
Staff departments are those departments that support activities of line departments. major role of these
departments is to provide assistance and counseling to line departments. Staff department consists of
A. Accounting, Marketing, Human Resources, Public relations

B. Accounting, Sales, Advertising, Human Resources
C. Finance, Sales, Advertising, Human Resources
D. Manufacturing, Sales, Event planning, Accounting
Cash ratio is another tool for measuring liquidity of company. Current liabilities are compared against the
A. Cash readily available in possession

B. Cash in hand and cash at bank
C. Cash, Cash equivalents and the funds invested
D. Cash in bank and short term investments
Management process depends on how efficient and effective manager is. An effective manager is suppose to
A. Identify the problems, analyze the situation, Propose the solution, monitor the progress,
evaluate
B. Identify the problem, discussion with the employees, monitor the progress, evaluate the problem
C. Identify the issue, Suggest treatment, postpone the project, discussion with employees
D. Identify the issue, evaluate the resources, increase efficiency, increase the salaries
Management can be defined as a way to achieve distinct goal or objective of organization using four basic tools
which are
A. Leading, Controlling, Implementing, Financing

B. Planning, Implementing, Leading, Controlling
C. Planning, Resourcing, Financing, Controlling
D. Planning, Leading, Organizing, Controlling
Cash paid when acquiring an asset would be an example of
A. Cash inflows
B. Asset cost
C. Cash outflows
D. Cash deposit
A manager should have a firm grip and control over his employees. Control in organization would mean
A. Closely supervising
B. Being in command of
C. Monitoring
D. Having power over
Monopoly is a broad term used to describe a situation where
A. Two small companies join together to form an alliance

B. A single company provides goods or services in a particular area and customers are bound to
buy thos
C. A bigger company takes over a smaller company
D. A single company expands its operations internationally
Paying habits of customer is considered an important factor of
A. Trading more goods or services than expected

B. Determining cash discounts
C. Determining credit policy for the organization
D. Creating good will of the organization
A company whose primary motive is to earn profit for its shareholders is said to be
A. Non profit oriented company

B. Public company
C. Private company
D. Profit oriented company
Delegating authority refers to assigning work to employees from top to bottom level of organization. This Process
of delegation consists of
A. Delegating work, Creating accountability, Assigning responsibility

B. ordering employees, Delegating work, Assigning projects, Allocating duty
C. Allocating duties, Delegating authority, Assigning responsibility, creating accountability
D. None of the above
Managers try to do their best while managing credit system of entity. Poor management of credit system can lead
to
A. embezzlement of cash in a department

B. loosing the valuable customers
C. High labor turnover
D. Delayed conversion of sales into cash
Current liability is a balance sheet item. Current liabilities of an organization means
A. Money to be paid to the Creditors

B. Money to be paid after one year
C. Money to be received by the organization within 12 months
D. Money to be paid by the business within 12 months
Monitoring/controlling in organization would mean to analyze goals, set out priorities and figure out activities that
will be monitored to achieve goal accordingly. A possible goal could be
A. Decreasing the level of waste products

B. Increasing the departments in the organization
C. increasing the salaries of the production staff
D. Reducing the staff in production department due to heavy losses
A manager is a person who is responsible for giving directions and to execute plan of action whereas a leader is
a person who motivates and inspires people to engage with his vision. Identify basic leadership theories from
below
A. Autocratic, Participative, Bureaucratic

B. Authoritarian, Democratic, Bureaucratic
C. Participative, Democratic, Authoritarian
D. Autocratic, Democratic, Participative
Maintaining an optimum cash level is mandatory for every organization but it varies from one organization to
other. reason could be
A. Size of the entity, reasons behind holding cash and time

B. Availability of cash, assets of the company and its liabilities
C. Efficiency of its employees, size of the entity and working capacity of assets
D. Time period, efficiency of operational staff and assets of the organization
1. A research report showed that the U.S. spends ____ on projects every year.
a. $2.3 billion
b. $23 billion
c. $2.3 trillion
d. $23 trillion
Answer: C
2. A research report showed that the U.S. spends the equivalent of ____ percent
of the nation's gross domestic product on projects every year.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 50
project
Answer: C
3. Many organizations assert that using project management provides

advantages, such as ____.
a. lower profit margins

b. lower costs
c. less internal coordination
d. lower worker morale
Answer: B
4. Because a project requires resources, often from various areas, many projects
cross ____ or other boundaries to achieve their unique purposes.
a. financial
b. spatial
c. departmental
d. technological
Answer: C
5. The project ____ usually provides the direction and funding for the project.
a. leader
b. sponsor
c. manager
d. director
Answer: B
6. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as
the ____.
a. double bind
b. triple constraint
c. double constraint
d. double obstacle
Answer: B
7. ____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the
project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and
even opponents of the project.
a. Managers
b. Stakeholders
c. Directors
d. Citizens
Answer: B
8. In the example of the project of building a house, the project sponsors would
be the potential ____.
a. contractors
b. support staff
c. managers
d. new homeowners
Answer: D
9. In the example of the project of building a house, the ____ would normally be
the general contractor responsible for building the house.
a. project sponsors
b. project team
c. project manager
d. support staff
Answer: C
10. Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work
required to complete the project successfully.
a. scope
b. quality
c. time
d. cost
Answer: A
11. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or
implied needs for which it was undertaken.
a. cost
b. time
c. scope
d. quality
Answer: D
12. Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the
people involved with the project.
a. human resource
b. risk
c. communications
d. procurement
Answer: A
13. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and

storing project information.
a. risk
b. procurement
c. communications
d. resource
Answer: D
14. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is

affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
a. cost
b. quality
c. integration
d. time
Answer: C
15. What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for
project managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing
projects.
a. time
b. resources
c. funding
d. skills
Answer: D
16. According to the Standish group, which of the following factors contributes
most to the success of information technology projects?
a. Executive support
b. User involvement
c. Experienced project manager
d. Clear business objectives
Answer: A
17. According to the Standish Group study describing what factors contribute
most to the success of information technology projects, ____ percent of
successful projects are led by experienced project managers.
a. 75
b. 80
c. 97
d. 100
Answer: C
18. "All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects
of their projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization"
describes the ____ best practice for project delivery.
a. Use an integrated toolbox

b. Grow project leaders
c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process
d. Measure project health using metrics
Answer: C
19. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple

projects to show the status of active, approved, and future projects across an
entire organization.
a. Investment
b. Active
c. Enterprise
d. Budget
Answer: D
20. A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary
tremendously based on the organization and the project.
a. project supervisor
b. project manager
c. job coordinator
d. project coordinator
Answer: B
21. In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed
that the most important project management skills seem to depend on ____.
a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved

b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved
c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task
d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved
Answer: D
22. Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called

human relations skills.
a. capital skills
b. soft skills
c. light skills
d. hard skills
Answer: B
23. A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while
inspiring people to reach those goals.
a. assistant
b. programmer
c. leader
d. manager
Answer: C
24. A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals.
a. manager
b. leader
c. programmer
d. analyst
Answer: A
25. Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project.
a. leaders
b. managers
c. stakeholders
d. supervisors
Answer: B
26. Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began
with the ____.
a. Great Wall of China

b. first space shuttle
c. Egyptian pyramids
d. Manhattan Project
Answer: D
27. The Manhattan Project cost almost $2 billion in ____.
a. 1936
b. 1946
c. 1956
d. 1966
Answer: B
28. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for
scheduling work in factories.
a. 1897
b. 1917
c. 1927
d. 1957
Answer: B
29. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information
by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____
format.
a. pie chart
b. line graph
c. bar graph
d. calendar
Answer: D
30. During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in
refining several project management techniques.
a. NASA
b. the military
c. steel manufacturing
d. marine biology
Answer: B
31. The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest
completion of a project is called the ____ path.
a. essential
b. important
c. critical
d. vital
Answer: C
32. By the ____, the U.S. military and its civilian suppliers developed software to
assist in managing large projects.
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
Answer: B
33. ____ was an early project management software product that helped
managers analyze complex schedules for designing aircraft.
a. Artemis
b. Columbia
c. Vega
d. Oberlin
Answer: A
34. A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for

coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.
a. Management
b. Money
c. Municipal
d. Marketing
Answer: A
35. Many organizations are now using enterprise or project ____ management
software to help manage projects.
a. path
b. portfolio
c. institute
d. office
Answer: B
36. PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone

who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to
follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the
field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.
a. Producer
b. Practitioner
c. Professional
d. Professor
Answer: C
37. Just as passing the CPA exam is a standard for accountants, passing the
____ exam is becoming a standard for project managers.
a. PMI
b. PM
c. PMP
d. PMO
Answer: C
38. The Project Management ____, a Web site for people involved in project
management, provides an alphabetical directory of more than 300 project
management software solutions.
a. Center
b. Alliance
c. Consortium
d. Facility
Answer: A
39. ____ tools are often recommended for small projects and single users.
a. Low-end
b. Mid Range
c. High-end
d. Expensive
Answer: A
40. ____ tools, sometimes referred to as enterprise project management

software, provide robust capabilities to handle very large projects.
a. Low-end
b. Mid range
c. High-end
d. Inexpensive
Answer: C
Question 1 Project has uncertainties on some functionalities at the beginning which will
improve over time. Which software development model is suitable? Select one: a. None of
the above
b. Waterfall
c. Iterative
d. Incremental
The Correct answer is: None of the above
Question 2 Object point method best suited for Select one:

a. Designing
b. Testing
c. Coding
d. Estimation
The Correct answer is: Estimation
Question 3
This term is least critical from customer view point Select one:
a. UAT
b. Unit testing
c. Delivery timeliness
d. Milestones
The Correct answer is: Milestones
Question 4 Following method is not used for project planning Select one:
a. Activity Diagram
b. CPM
c. Timesheet
d. Gantt chart
The Correct answer is: Timesheet
Question 5 There are ________ types of Work Breakdown Structures. Select one:
a. Four
b. Three
c. none
d. Two
The Correct answer is: Two
Question 6 If Task A to complete, it takes 10 days of human effort. It started 5 days earlier
to the scheduled date and completed on 35th day. Then, the float value Select one:
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
Question 7 Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

Select one:
a. Predicting clients demands.
b. Predicting software schedules.
c. Predicting software cost.
d. Predicting staffing levels.
The Correct answer is: Predicting clients demands.
Question 8 The Mangers use the acronym SMART while goal setting. What does SMART
stand for? Select one:
a. spectacular, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
b. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
c. suitable, measurable, actionable, reviewed, timely
d. standardised, measurable, actionable, resourced, timely
The Correct answer is: specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, timely
Question 9 Which of these is NOT true for a matrix organizational structure? Select one:
a. It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
b. Task and personality conflicts are a disadvantage of Matrix structure
c. Individual operators have to do double reporting both to a Project Manager and to the
Functional manager
d. It is generally employed in project driven organizations
The Correct answer is: It follows the unity of command principle rigorously
Question 10 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process

Model. 1)Test 2)Design 3)Install 4)Specification 5)Manufacture 6)Maintain Select one:
a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
d. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
The Correct answer is: 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
Question 11 Project management (PM) is the application of _________________ to meet

project requirements. Select one:
a. skills, tools and techniques
b. knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
c. knowledge, tools and techniques
d. knowledge, skills, tools
The Correct answer is: knowledge, skills, tools and techniques
Question 12 A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one
business transaction or customer request Select one:
a. Model
b. Workflow
c. Prototype
d. Mock-up
The Correct answer is: Workflow
Question 13 ______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change Select one:
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. Build & Fix Model
d. RAD Model
The Correct answer is: Waterfall Model
Question 14 Smith is a project manager for ABC Video games. He has produced a project
network diagram and has updated the activity list. Which process have he just finished?
Select one:
a. The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the activities dependences b. The
Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project
c. The activity duration Estimating process, which identifies all the dependent activities of
the project
d. The activity duration Estimating process, which diagram project network time estimates
The Correct answer is: The Activity Sequencing process, which identifies all the
specific activities of the project
Question 15 Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? Select one:
a. Costs of support staff
b. Costs of lunch time food
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
The Correct answer is: Costs of lunch time food
Question 16 Which of the following is the process of assembling program components,

data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
Select one:
a. Change management
b. Version management
c. Release management
d. System building
The Correct answer is: System building
Question 17 Which of the following is a people-intensive activity? Select one:

a. Project management
b. Organization
c. Motivation
d. Problem solving
The Correct answer is: Project management
Question 18 What are the signs that a software project is in trouble? Select one:
a. Changes are managed poorly.
b. Deadlines are unrealistiC)
c. The product scope is poorly defineD)
d. All of the given options.
The Correct answer is: All of the given options.
Question 19 If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up. Select one:
a. True
b. False
The Correct answer is: False
Question 20 The project life cycle consists of Select one:

a. Objectives of the project
b. All of the above
c. Formulation and planning various activities
d. Understanding the scope of the project
The Correct answer is: All of the above
Question 21 Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of
a software development project? Select one:
a. All of the mentioned
b. Travel and training costs
c. Hardware and software costs
d. Effort costs
The Correct answer is: All of the mentioned
Question 22 An estimation technique ____________measure the size of the functionality

to be developed. Select one:
a. Analogy
b. Function Point
c. WBS
The Correct answer is: Function Point
Question 23 Which of the following is not generally considered a stakeholder in the

software process? Select one:
a. end users
b. project team
c. sales team
d. customer
The Correct answer is: sales team
Question 24 What is the simplest model of software development paradigm? Select one:
a. Big Bang model
b. Spiral model
c. V-model d. Waterfall model
Hide Answer The Correct answer is: Waterfall model
Question 25 The PERT technique gives most weightage to: Select one:
a. the most pessimistic estimate obtained
b. the most optimistic estimate obtained
c. the most likely estimate obtained
d. all the estimates obtained have equal weights
Hide Answer The correct answer is: the most likely estimate obtained
Question 26 Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule
compression: Select one:
a. quality reduction
b. use of overtime
c. scope reduction
d. resource reduction
The correct answer is: resource reduction
Question 27 To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, the following data mining task
should be used Select one:
a. Outlier analysis
b. prediction
c. association analysis
d. feature selection
The correct answer is: Outlier analysis
Question 28 One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development
process is to: Select one:
a. Hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
b. Give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
c. Give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
d. Reward programmers based on their productivity.
The Correct answer is: Give team members more control over process and technical
decisions.
Question 29 Select from the following which is not project management goal Select one:
a. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
b. Keeping overall costs within budget.
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d. Avoiding costumer complaints.
The Correct answer is: Avoiding costumer complaints.
Question 30 Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process

Model. 1. Test 2. Design 3. Install 4. Specification 5. Manufacture 6. Maintain Select one:
a. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
d. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
The Correct answer is:4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
Question 31 ———— — — is the linear software development lifecycle methodology

Select one:
a. Prototyping
b. Spiral
c. Agile
d. Waterfall
The Correct answer is: Waterfall
Which of the following is a reliability tactic?

A) improving individual components
B) increasing repair speed
C) providing redundancy
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
The Correct answer is: A And C
1. What limits the options of the project team?

A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Technology
E. Deliverables
Answer - Click Here:
A
2. The work breakdown that covers the acquisition of a specific

defense material item and is related to contractual effort, is
called______
A. Contract WBS
B. Contract Program WBS
C. Program WBS
D. None of these
C
3. Work Breakdown Structure how many types…

A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. None of these

B
4. Requirements Management is Important? because of the

changes…
A. in technology
B. to the environment
C. in customer’s expectations
D. in all of the mentioned.
E. none of these

B
5. The following costs are not part of the total effort cost______
A. Costs of lunch time food
B. Costs of providing heating
C. Costs of networking
D. Costs of support
A
6. Which of the following is related to the overall functionality of the

delivered software?
A. Product-related metrics
B. Function-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned

B
7. Whenever evaluating current problems and desired information

the analyst begins to..
A. Model
B. Synthesize solutions
C. Specification
D. None of these

B
8. What is the research-oriented software development_________

A. Product-related problems
B. Process-related problems
C. People-related problems
D. Technology-related problems
A
9. What type of reviews conducted at each of this phases_____

A. Analysis
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of given
E. None of these
D
10. Technical kernel of software engineering__________
A. Testing
B. Requirement Analysis
C. Design
D. Implementation

C
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Answer:D
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer:C
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:C
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software
development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
Answer:D
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer:A
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer:B
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality
attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
11. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
12. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer:C
13. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________.

a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer:D
14. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does static
perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.
c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
Answer:A
15. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
16. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D
17. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
e) Software specification
Answer:A
18. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
19. The longer a fault exists in software

a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
Answer:D
20. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.

a) True
b) False
Answer:A
21. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
22. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
Answer:D
23. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously
impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:A
24. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
Answer:A
25. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created
during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer:B
26. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that
are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
Answer:A
27. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then
compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer:A
28. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
Answer:D
29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer:B
30. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
Answer:D
31. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have
been released for customer use?
a) System building
Answer:B
32. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
Answer: C
33. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of
management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
Answer:A
34. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes

a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer:D
35. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.

a) True
b) False
Answer:A
36. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred
to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer:A
37. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a
project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
38.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?

a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer:C
39. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?

a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
Answer:D
40. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should
be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques,
monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer:A
41. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and
over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
Answer:B
42. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development
project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
Answer:D
43. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
Answer:C
44. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
Answer:A
45. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project
cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
Answer:A
46. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False
Answer:a
47. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been
completed?
b) Expert judgement
Answer:c
48. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database
programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
Answer:A
49. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
50. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
c) A reuse model
Answer:D
51. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is
automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
c) A reuse model
Answer:C
52. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
53.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.

a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is the requirement of most software systems to
work with a multitude of homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the legal domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but software does tend to deteriorate as it
evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to manage software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find that only less than 20% of today’s software
is still custom built.
Answer:C
54.Software Engineering:
a) Is a set of rules about developing software products
b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering fields.
Answer:D
55.
Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a company that specializes in aircraft navigation
control software. While orientating yourselves to the company’s work practices, you observe that they in fact do
not conduct a few tests that they should in order to comply with the relevant safety standard. When you inquire
about this from the project manager, he dismisses it saying that those tests are really unnecessary (and takes an
unreasonably long time to conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they have managed with the other
tests for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a complaint with the relevant standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide
c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know anything about the internal processes and
politics, you should insist on the company changing its work practices immediately; failing which you threaten
to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the internal processes and politics, you should
first find-out more about the issue and its background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
56.
With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away
prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary development based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the requirements are well understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it facilitates easy project management, through
the high volume of documentation it generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a reimplementation of the system using a
more structured approach.
Answer:A
57.
What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as Civil) is an art – not a science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is an activity that has millennia of
practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we can understand it.
Answer:E
58.
The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model is referred to as the
waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is explored and refined, and the client’s
requirements are elicited?”
a) Requirements (b) Specification (c) Design
d) Implementation (e) Integration.
Answer:A
59.
The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known as the:
a) Developer (b) User (c) Contractor (d) Initiator (e) Client.
Answer:E
60.
Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation, project responsibilities, managerial objectives
and priorities
e) None of the above.
Answer:E
61.
The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Alpha (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:E
62.
In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This is known as __________
testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Regression (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:C
63.
Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
b) The speed with which it can be modified
c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the ‘how not to do it’ variety
e) Its internal structure.
Answer:C
64.
An example of the risk involved in software development is
a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time system) may go
bankrupt
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete
d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package
e) All of these are risks involved in software development.
Answer:E
65.
A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each phase
proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization
d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
66.
The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.
Answer:D
67.
The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Instantiation
e) Aggregation.
Answer:B
68.
Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion may be defined as followed; “the
output from one element in the component serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion
b) Functional cohesion
c) Communicational cohesion
d) Temporal cohesion
e) None of these.
Answer:A
69.
A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.
Answer:E
70.
If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of _______ coupling.
a) Content
b) Common
c) Control
d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
71.
Which of the following is a type of abstraction?
a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
Answer:D
72.
In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining the detailed
design and coding is
a) The chief programmer
b) The programming secretary
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’
d) The individual coder (i.e. programmer)
e) The back-up programmer.
Answer:D
73.
Internal costs include
a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers
d) Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
e) All of the above.
Answer:a
74.
Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a product include(s)
a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot be measured for some languages
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC) be included as well?
D) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is delivered
Answer:e
75.
Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
a) Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
b) Lines of Code (kLOC)
c) Function Points (FP)
d) operands and operators
e) Feature Points (FeP).
Answer:d
76.
In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached
c) Organic
d) Multiplicative
e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
77.
Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific phase of software development is
termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function
c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
78.
The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) –
see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organisations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area, development team or technique.
Answer:E
79.
The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
a) Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Answer:B
80.
Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same application development,
because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently
b) Different organisations may use different programming languages
c) Developers’ skills may vary
d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary
e) All of the above may be true.
Answer:E
81.
The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is
a) Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
82.
Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was considered to be
a) ALGOL-68
B) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E
(1) Milestones established by the customer must be adhered to by:
1. Project manager
2. Functional managers
3. The customer
4. Both a and b
Answer:D
Hint: Both Project Manager and Functional Manager are responsible for project team
and working towards achieving project milestones.
(2) The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility
of the:
1. Functional manager
2. Project manager
3. Director of project management
4. Customer
Answer: B
Hint: It is Project Manager's responsibility.
(3) In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
1. Conceptual
2. Planning
3. Implementation
4. Design
Answer: B
Hint: Refer Process and Knowledge area mapping on Page 61, PMBOK 5
(4) To crash a schedule you should:
1. Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.

2. Try to invest more time on tasks that are behind schedule.
3. Replace the team members that are not performing well.
4. Put extra resources on those tasks that are on the critical path.
Answer:D
Hint: See Crashing definition on Page 181, PMBOK 5
(5) The process of establishing the policies, procedures and documentation for
planning, developing, managing, executing and controlling the project schedule is
known as
1. Plan Schedule Management

2. Control Schedule
3. Develop Schedule
4. Sequence Activities
Answer:A
Hint: See Plan Schedule Management definition on Page 141, PMBOK 5
(6) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
1. Clear scope of work

2. Decreasing the time required for decision making
3. Eliminating idle time
4. Developing better trouble shooting procedures
Answer: D
Hint: Effectiveness of trouble shooting procedures doesn't play a role in project
scheduling
(7) The inputs used in the Define Activities process includes all but
1. Scope baseline
2. EEF
3. OPA
4. Milestone list
Answer: D
(8) The successful project managers spend most of their time:
1. Planning with their personnel

2. Planning with the top management
3. Communication with the project team
4. Studying project results.
Answer: C
Hint: Communication takes nearly 90 percent of project manager's time.
(9) Resource leveling attempts to :
1. Balance the demand and supply of resources considering the availability

constraints.
2. Ensure that the budget abnormalities are overcome.
3. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other
endeavors.
4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars
can be appropriated.
Answer: A
Hint: Read about Resource leveling on Page 179, PMBOK 5
(10) The tools and techniques used in Estimate Activity Durations exclude which of
the following
1. Analogous Estimating
2. Group Decision-Making Techniques
3. Reserve Analysis
4. Leads and Lags
Answer: D
(11) The Project Time Management Process consists of following seven processes:
a. Define Activities
b. Develop Schedule
c. Plan Schedule Activities
d. Sequence Activities
e. Estimate Activity Durations
f. Estimate Activity Resources
g. Control Schedule
1. a-b-c-d-e-f-g
2. c-a-d-f-e-b-g
3. b-a-c-d-e-f-g
4. b-c-a-d-f-e-g
Answer: B
(12) The hierarchical representation of resources by category and type, which is
useful for organizing and reporting project schedule data with resources utilization
information is known as
1. WBS
2. Activity Resource requirements
3. Resource breakdown Structure
Answer: C
Hint: Read about Resource Breakdown Structure on Page 165, PMBOK 5
(13) The representation of the plan for executing the project's activities including
durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce project
schedules along with other scheduling artifacts is known as
1. Schedule Compression
2. Schedule Model
3. Schedule Data
Answer: B
Hint: See Schedule Model definition, Page 561, PMBOK 5
(14) A subsidiary plan that identifies a scheduling method and scheduling tool, and
sets the format and establishes criteria for developing and controlling the project
schedule is known as
1. Schedule Management Plan

2. Develop Project Management Plan
3. Project Schedule Presentation
4. Both A & C
Answer: A
Hint: See Schedule Management Plan definition, Page 561, PMBOK 5
(15) Which of the following is the output of the Plan Schedule Management process?
1. Activity List
3. Activity List
4. Project Schedule Network Diagram
Answer: B
(16) The following inputs are used in both Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity
Resources process, excluding

2. Activity List
3. Risk Register
4. Activity Attributes
Answer: C
(17) What is the term for an iterative planning technique in which the work to be
accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is
planned at a higher level
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling Wave Planning
3. Alternative Analysis
4. Reserve Analysis
Answer: B
Hint: Refer to Rolling Wave planning on Page 152, PMBOK 5
(18) Abdullah, a project manager is identifying and documenting relationships among
the project activities of an IT project. He is undertaking which of the following
process?
1. Sequence Activities
2. Define Activities
3. Develop Schedule
4. Estimate Activity Durations
Answer: A
Hint: See Sequence Activities on Page 141, PMBOK 5
(19) The logical relationships under Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
include:
1. Finish-to-start
2. Start-to-finish
3. Predecessor-Follower
4. Only A and B
5. A, B, and C
Answer: D
Hint: See Precedence Diagramming Method on Page 156, PMBOK 5
(20) The method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates
of the lower-level components of the WBS is known as:
1. Alternative Analysis
2. Bottom-up Estimating
3. Parametric Estimating
4. Three-point estimating
Answer: B
-----------is the ability to encourage by "push or pull" technical people to produce to their
best ability.
• A. Evaluating
• B. Motivation
• C. None of the given
• D. Monitoring
Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
• A. Prevention
• B. Internal Failure
• C. External Failure
• D. Appraisal
The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by
20% is:
• A. 40%
• B. 42%
• C. 44%
• D. 46%
Which of the following is responsible for the quality objective?
• A. Top level management
• B. Middle level management
• C. Frontline management
• D. All of the above

Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
• A. Define
• B. Control
• C. Measure
• D. Analyse
What are the Mandatory Quality Procedures?
• A. Control of documents
• B. Control of records
• C. Control of Production Equipment, tools and CNC programs
• D. All of these
What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project
completion?
• A. Scope verification
• B. Completing a scope statement
• C. Scope definition
• D. Risk management plan
Constantine suggests four “organizational paradigms” for software engineering teams.

The best project team organizational model to use when handling extremely complex
problems is ________
• A. Random paradigm
• B. Open paradigm
• C. Synchronous paradigm
• D. Closed paradigm
The process mapping is a ______ diagram
• A. Data flow
• B. Workflow
• C. Circular
• D. Audit
Which metric is related to the software maintenance
• A. Development
• B. Software
• C. Process
• D. Product
1 .Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: d
2 . Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
Ans: b
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :b
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
Ans: b
5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Ans : a
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Ans: c
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
Ans: c
The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
Ans: a
9. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: d
10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of
management.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a
Quality Management in software engineering is also known as

a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Ans: a
12. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
Ans : d
13. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: a
14. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma”
refers to
six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Ans: c
15. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Ans: b
16. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure

Ans : c
17. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b
18. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
19. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipme nt?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: b
20. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is
known as
a) Quality of design
c) Quality of testing
Ans: b
21. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a
22. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management
responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Ans : a
23. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer‟s end
b) User‟s end
c) Developer‟s & User‟s end
Ans: a
24. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
Ans: b
25. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
Ans: d
26. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c)Condition Coverage

Ans: d
27. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Ans :c
28. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
Ans : b
29. Which of the following term describes testing?
a)Finding brokencode
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
Ans: b
30. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Ans:b
31. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Ans : d
32. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing

Ans : b
33. Beta testing is done at
a) User‟s end
b) Developer‟s end
c) User‟s & Developer‟s end
Ans : a
34. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
Ans : b
35. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing

b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
Ans : b
36. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
Ans : b
37. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a
specific
function.
a) True
b) False
Ans : b
38. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c)Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Ans : d
39. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-
wrapped”
software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Ans : c
40. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c)Completion ofTesting
d) Regression Testing
Ans : b
41.
42. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of
testing? a) Integration testing
b) Validation testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the above
Ans : c
43. _____ is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe. a) Equivalence
Partitioning
b) Basis Path Testing
c.) Boundary Value Analysis
d) None of the above.
Ans : b.
44. When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software Product?
What is the main purpose of integration testing?
a) Design errors
b) Interface errors
c) Procedure errors
Ans : b
a) During testing
b) During execution
c) During review
d) Throughout life-cycle
Ans : d
45. When different combination of input requires different combination of actions,Which of
the following technique is used in such situation?
a) Boundary Value Analysis
b) Equivalence Partition c) Decision Table

d) Decision Coverage
Ans : c
46. Which of the following is not a part of Performance Testing?
a) Measuring Transaction Rate. b) Measuring Response Time. c) Measuring the LOC.

Ans : c
47. Finding Defect is not a major goal of Acceptance Testing.
a) True b) False
ANSWER: True
48. Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing? a) Acceptance Testing
b) System Testing
c) Unit Testing
d) Integration Testing
Ans : a
Which of the following is a myth in testing?
a) Tester can find bugs

b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
Ans : b
50. SDLC stands for ________
a) Software development life cycle
b) System development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle
d) System design life cycle
Ans : a
51. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes containing data?
a)Equivalent partitioning b) Environment partitioning
c) Procedure division
d) Compilation division
Ans : a
52. -------- is not a Test Document.
a)Test Policy
b)Test Case
c)PIN(ProjectInitiation Note)
d)RTM (requirement Traceability matrix)
Ans:c
53.Continual (Continuous) improvement cycle is based on systematic sequence of -----------

activities.
a) SDLC
b) PDCA
c) waterfall model
Ans : b.
54. ----------- is the application of quality principles to all facets and business process of an
organization.
a) TQM
b) Software Testing
c) Software tools
Ans : a
55. The cost incurred in first time reviews and testing is called ---------
a) Red money
b) Green money
c) Blue money
Ans : c
56.Innovation is the ---------------activity leading to changes.
a)Planned
b) Accidental
c) virtual
Ans : a.
57. Inventions may leads to major changes in technology , way of doing work.
a) true b) false
Ans : true
58. „Q‟ organizations are less quality conscious organizations.
a) true
b) false
Ans: false
59. Quality management system of a organization based on which pillars a) Test

plans, Test conditions & decisions
b) Quality processes, Guidelines and standards & Formats and templates c)
Quality police, objectives and manuals
Ans : b
60. Requirement Traceability Matrix is a way of doing complete mapping of
software
a)true
b)false
Ans : true
61. V- model uses -------- test models
a) Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing
b) alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and user testing
c) black box testing, white box testing and gray box testing
Ans : a
1. What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their

clarity, completeness, and_____
A. Consistency
B. Correctness
C. Concurrency
D. None of these

A
2. A software project that meets all the given objectives is a
success of _________.
A. Project fundamental purpose
B. Project quality
C. Project requirement
D. Project management myth
E. None of these
D
3. ___________ is not an effective software project management
focus..
A. people
B. product
C. process
D. popularity

D
4. What is the abbreviation of PM-CMM…
A. product management capability maturity model
B. process management capability maturity model
C. people management capability maturity model
D. project management capability maturity model

C
5. _________ is not a project manager’s activity.
A. project design
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project control

A
6. The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?
A. Analytical
B. Critical
C. Empirical
E. Heuristic

B
7. Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
A. Staff turnover
B. Testing
C. Product competition
D. Specification delays

A
8. What is the process each manager follows during the life of a
project is known as
A. Project Management
B. Project Management Life Cycle
C. Manager life cycle
D. All of the mentioned

B
9. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan
for_________.
A. customers
B. project manager
C. team
D. project

D
10. Which of the following is the sub-process of process
improvement?
A. Process introduction
B. De-processification
C. Process analysis
D. Process distribution

C
11. Which one the following is an internal software quality from
given below?
A. reusability
B. reliability
C. scalability
D. usability

A
12. What is the symbolic representation of RUP
__________________
A. Rational Unified Process
B. Rational Unified Process
C. Rational Unified Program
D. Rational Unified Process
A
Software quality might be defined as conformance to explicitly stated

requirements and standards, nothing more and nothing less.
A. True
B. False
B. False
2
. People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software
from the customer's perspective.
A. True
B. False
A. True
3
. The elements of software quality assurance consist of reviews, audits, and
testing.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be

performed by an independent SQA group?
A. prepare SQA plan for the project
B. review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
C. report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
D. serve as the sole test team for any software produced
D. serve as the sole test team for any software produced
Metrics can be used to indicate the relative strength of a software quality

attribute.
A. True
B. False
A. True
6
Attempts to apply mathematical proof to demonstrate that a program
conforms to its specifications are doomed to failure.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Statistical quality assurance involves

A. using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software
B. surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality
C. tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few"
causes, and moving to correct them
D. tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle
to correct each problem found
C. tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes,
and moving to correct them
Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

A. analyze, improve, control
B. analyze, design, verify
C. define, measure, analyze
D. define, measure, control
C. define, measure, analyze
Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to

A. errors in accuracy
B. errors in design
C. errors in implementation
D. errors in operation
E. b and c
E. b and c
Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that

A. affect the reliability of a software component
B. may cause an entire system to fail
C. may result from user input errors
D. prevent profitable marketing of the final product
B. may cause an entire system to fail
The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is

A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 9002
D. ISO 9003
B. ISO 9001
Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans
recommended by IEEE?
A. budget
B. documentation
C. reviews and audits
D. test
A. budget
Process models are described as agile because they

A. Eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation
B. Emphasize maneuverability and adaptability
C. Do not waste development time on planning activities
D. Make extensive use of prototype creation
B. Emphasize maneuverability and adaptability
2
. Which of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model?
A. Performed
B. Repeated
C. Reused
D. Optimized
E. both a and d
E. both a and d
3
. The best software process model is one that has been created by the people
who will actually be doing the work.
A. True
B. False
A. True
4
. Which of the following are recognized process flow types?
A. Concurrent process flow
B. Iterative process flow
C. Linear process flow
D. Spiral process flow
E. both b and c
E. both b and c
5
. The communication activity is best handled for small projects using six
distinct actions (inception, elicitation, elaboration, negotiation, specification,
validation).
A. True
B. False
B. False
6
. A good software development team always uses the same task set for every
project to insure high quality work products
A. True
B. False
B. False
7
. Software processes can be constructed out of pre-existing software patterns
to best meet the needs of a software project
A. True
B. False
A. True
8
. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?
A. SEI
B. SPICE
C. ISO 9000
D. ISO 9001
E. both b and d
E. both b and d
The rapid application development model is

A. Another name for component-based development
B. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
C. A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.
D. All of the above.
2
. In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and
may span more than one phase of the process.
A. True
B. False
A. True
3
. The waterfall model of software development is
A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
D. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more
4
. The incremental model of software development is
B. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
D. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
5
. Evolutionary software process models
A. Are iterative in nature
B. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
C. Do not generally produce throwaway systems
6
. The prototyping model of software development is
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
7
. The spiral model of software development
A. Ends with the delivery of the software product.
B. Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
C. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
D. All of the above
8
. The concurrent development model is
A. Another name for concurrent engineering.
B. Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions.
C. Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.
D. Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.
E. Both a and b
E. Both a and b
9
. The component-based development model is
A. Only appropriate for computer hardware design
B. Not able to support the development of reusable components.
C. Dependent on object technologies for support.
D. Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics
10
. The formal methods model of software development makes use of
mathematical methods to
A. Define the specification for computer-based systems
B. Develop defect free computer-based systems.
C. Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.
11
. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process
model for software development?
A. Inception phase
B. Elaboration phase
C. Construction phase
D. Validation phase
D. Validation phase
12
. Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?
A. Emphasizes personal measurement of work product.
B. Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager.
C. Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling.
D. Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products.
13
. Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?
A. Accelerate software process improvement
B. Allow better time management by highly trained professionals
C. Build self-directed software teams
D. Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality
E. Both b and c
E. Both b and c
14
. Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress
schedules by skipping unimportant activities.
A. True
B. False
B. False
15
. It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and
create high quality end products.
A. True
B. False
A. True
The rapid application development model is

A. Another name for component-based development
2
. In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and
may span more than one phase of the process.
A. True
B. False
A. True
3
. The waterfall model of software development is
B. A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
D. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more
4
. The incremental model of software development is
D. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
5
. Evolutionary software process models
A. Are iterative in nature
B. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
C. Do not generally produce throwaway systems
6
. The prototyping model of software development is
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
7
. The spiral model of software development
A. Ends with the delivery of the software product.
B. Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
D. All of the above
8
. The concurrent development model is
A. Another name for concurrent engineering.
B. Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions.
C. Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.
D. Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.
E. Both a and b
E. Both a and b
9
. The component-based development model is
A. Only appropriate for computer hardware design
B. Not able to support the development of reusable components.
D. Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics
10
. The formal methods model of software development makes use of
mathematical methods to
A. Define the specification for computer-based systems
B. Develop defect free computer-based systems.
C. Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.
11
. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process
model for software development?
A. Inception phase
B. Elaboration phase
C. Construction phase
D. Validation phase
D. Validation phase
12
. Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?
A. Emphasizes personal measurement of work product.
C. Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling.
D. Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products.
13
. Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?
A. Accelerate software process improvement
B. Allow better time management by highly trained professionals
C. Build self-directed software teams
D. Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality
E. Both b and c
E. Both b and c
14
. Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress
schedules by skipping unimportant activities.
A. True
B. False
B. False
15
. It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and
create high quality end products.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Software Project Management
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers:-
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
d) Avoiding costumer complaints.
Answer:D
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer:B
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer:C
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle

Answer:C
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as a) very low

b) low
c) moderate
d) high
e) very high
Answer:D
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs

b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
Answer:D
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer:B
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration

management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer:A
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement a) Process introduction

b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer:B
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True b) False
Answer:B
11. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up.
a) True b) False
Answer:B
12. Choose an internal software quality from given below: a) scalability

b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer:C
13. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________. a)
Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer:D
14. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static &
practice.What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.

b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.
c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
Answer:A
15. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working
program.
a) True b) False
Answer:B
16. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system
? a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer:D
17. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software
processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation d) Software evolution
e) Software specification
Answer:A
18. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software

efforts. a) True
b) False
Answer:A
19. The longer a fault exists in software

a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct c) the less likely it is to be properly
corrected d) All of the mentioned
Answer:D
20. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True b) False
Answer:A
21. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process

Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification v. Manufacture vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3 b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Answer:B
22. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
Answer:D
23. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to

control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
Answer:A
24. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways.

These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole

organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project

c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
Answer:A
25. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of

configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
Answer:B
26. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a

configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered
during review?
a) Software configuration audit

b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
Answer:A
27. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components,

data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an
executable system?
a) System building
Answer:A
28. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management

tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals

b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
Answer:D
29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management

Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer:B
30. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential

for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
Answer:D
31. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of
the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
Answer:B
32. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement

Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional c) Enduring and Volatile
Answer: C
33. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a

library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted
here?
a) Enduring b) Volatile
Answer:A
34. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes a)

to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer:D
35. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development. a) True
b) False
Answer:A
36. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement

management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement
management.
a) True b) False
Answer:A
37. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not
need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True b) False
Answer:B
38.Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?

a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite d) RDD 100
Answer:C
39. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ? a)

Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
Answer:D
40. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by

the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations
between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of
change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection

b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer:A
41. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are
cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver
expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management c) Poor quality control
Answer:B
42. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost
of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs b) Effort costs

Answer:D
43. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? a) Costs of
networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space c) Costs of lunch time
food
Answer:C
44. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software? a)

Function-related metrics
Answer:A
45. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates

some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling b) Expert judgement

Answer:A
46. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
a) True b) False
Answer:a
47. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy
application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling b) Expert judgement

Answer:c
48. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable
components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model b) A post-architecture model

c) A reuse model
Answer:A
49. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available. a)
CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
Answer:C
50. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the
requirements have been established?

c) A reuse model
Answer:D
51. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable
components or program code that is automatically generated by design or
program translation tools?

c) A reuse model
Answer:C
52. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
a) True b) False
Answer:B
53.Identify, from among the following, the correct statement.
a) One of the main challenges Software Engineering facing today is the

requirement of most software systems to work with a multitude of
homogenous systems
b) ‘Legacy systems’ are custom developed software systems for the legal
domain
c) Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but
software does tend to deteriorate as it evolves
d) Since software is essentially ‘intangible’ it is relatively easy to manage
software projects
e) With the advent of component based software assembly, we find that only
less than 20% of today’s software is still custom built.
Answer:C
54.Software Engineering:
a) Is a set of rules about developing software products
b) Has been around as a discipline since the early 50’s
c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisis’ of the late 90’s
d) Is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspects of software

production
e) Is now a mature discipline on par with other established engineering fields.
Answer:D
55.
Read the following paragraph and identify the correct statement.
“Imagine that you were recently hired as a software engineer to a company

that specializes in aircraft navigation control software. While orientating
yourselves to the company’s work practices, you observe that they in fact do
not conduct a few tests that they should in order to comply with the relevant
safety standard. When you inquire about this from the project manager, he
dismisses it saying that those tests are really unnecessary (and takes an
unreasonably long time to conduct, as well as being superfluous) and that they
have managed with the other tests for so long, without any problems.”
a) You should immediately resign from the company and file a complaint with
the relevant standard institution
b) You should do nothing and let the matter slide
c) Although you are new to the company, and you hardly know anything about
the internal processes and politics, you should insist on the company changing
its work practices immediately; failing which you threaten to report the matter
d) Since you are new to the company, and you are unfamiliar with the internal
processes and politics, you should first find-out more about the issue and its
background
e) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer:D
56.
With regard to Evolutionary development, identify the correct statement.
a) Evolutionary development usually comes in two flavors; exploratory

development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are natural candidates for an evolutionary development

based approach
c) Exploratory development is used in situations where most of the

requirements are well understood in advance
d) One of the strong points of evolutionary development is that it facilitates

easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it
generates
e) Often the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a

reimplementation of the system using a more structured approach.
Answer:A
57.
What is the fundamental reason that software cannot be considered to be
engineered?
a) It is designed by humans and therefore flawed
b) Software engineering (as opposed to other forms of engineering, such as

Civil) is an art – not a science
c) The discipline is relatively new, say in comparison to bridge building that is

an activity that has millennia of practice
d) None of these are true. Software Engineering is a truly rigorous discipline
e) The complexity of systems and their interaction continues faster than we

can understand it.
Answer:E
58.
The software life cycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical
model is referred to as the waterfall model. Which phase may be defined as
“The concept is explored and refined, and the client’s requirements are
elicited?”
a) Requirements (b) Specification (c) Design d) Implementation (e) Integration.
Answer:A
59.
The individual or organisation who wants a product to be developed is known

as the:
a) Developer (b) User (c) Contractor (d) Initiator (e) Client.
Answer:E
60.
Which of the following items should not be included in the software project
management plan?
a) The techniques and case tools to be used
b) Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
c) The life cycle model to be used
d) The organisational structure of the development organisation, project

responsibilities, managerial objectives and priorities
Answer:E
61.
The final form of testing COTS software is _________ testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Alpha (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:E
62.
In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test
cases. This is known as __________ testing.
a) Unit (b) Integration (c) Regression (d) Module (e) Beta.
Answer:C
63.
Which property of the rapid prototype is not important?
a) The speed with which it can be developed
b) The speed with which it can be modified

c) Its ability to determine the client’s real needs
d) The insights that the design team can gain from it, even if they are of the
‘how not to do it’ variety
e) Its internal structure.
Answer:C
64.
An example of the risk involved in software development is
a) Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
b) The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with

a real-time system) may go bankrupt
c) Technology changes may render the product obsolete

d) Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package e)
All of these are risks involved in software development.
Answer:E
65.
A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall

model with each phase proceeded by
a) Build-and-fix
b) Freezing
c) Synchronization d) Testing
e) Risk analysis.
Answer:E
66.
The degree of interaction between two modules is known as a) Cohesion
b) Strength
c) Inheritance
d) Coupling
e) Instantiation.
Answer:D
67.
The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is
referred to as
a) Association
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism d) Instantiation e) Aggregation.
Answer:B
68.
Myers (1978) identifies seven levels of cohesion. Which level of cohesion may
be defined as followed; “the output from one element in the component
serves as input for some other element”?
a) Communicational cohesion b) Functional cohesion

c) Communicational cohesion d) Temporal cohesion
e) None of these.
Answer:A
69.
A design is said to be a good design if the components are a) Strongly coupled
b) Weakly cohesive
c) Strongly coupled and Weakly cohesive
d) Strongly coupled and strongly cohesive
e) Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled.
Answer:E
70.
If a control switch is passed as an argument this is an example of _______

coupling.
a) Content b) Common c) Control d) Stamp
e) Data.
Answer:C
71.
Which of the following is a type of abstraction? a) Data
b) Procedural
c) Iteration
d) All of the above
Answer:D
72.
In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member
responsible
for maintaining the detailed design and coding is

a) The chief programmer
b) The programming secretary
c) A specialized function that exists outside ‘the team’ d) The individual coder
(i.e. programmer)
e) The back-up programmer.
Answer:D
73.
Internal costs include
a) Developers salaries
b) Managers and support personnel salaries
c) The cost of overheads such as utilities, rent and senior managers d)
Materials (such as manuals) and services such as travel
Answer:a
74.
Problems with using Lines of Code to measure the size of a product include(s)
a) The creation of source code is only part of the development effort
b) The Lines of Code (LOC) will differ between languages and cannot be
measured for some languages
c) Should comments, data definitions etc (i.e. non-executable LOC) be included

as well?
D) The final size (kLOC) can only be determined once the product is delivered
Answer:e
75.
Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on a) Files (Fi),
Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
b) Lines of Code (kLOC)
c) Function Points (FP)
d) operands and operators
e) Feature Points (FeP).
Answer:d
76.
In Intermediate COCOMO the mode that represents complex products is

referred to as
a) Embedded
b) Semidetached c) Organic
d) Multiplicative e) Monolithic.
Answer:A
77.
Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific
phase of software development is termed a(n)
a) Milestone
b) Project function c) Activity
d) Task
e) Baseline.
Answer:B
78.
The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software

Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
a) It is drawn up by representatives from major software development

organisations
b) It is designed for all types of software products
c) It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific

techniques
d) It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area,

development team or technique.

Answer:E
79.
The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by a)
Prototyping
b) Inspection
c) Simulation
d) Compilation
e) Debugging.
Answer:B
80.
Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the

same application development, because
a) Different organisations consider complexity factors differently
b) Different organisations may use different programming languages c)

Developers’ skills may vary
d) Techniques for the measurement of productivity may vary
e) All of the above may be true.
Answer:E
81.
The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is a) Fault-free
b) Delivered on time
c) Delivered within budget
d) Satisfies users’ needs
e) All of these are the aims of software engineering.
Answer:E
82.
Object-oriented concepts are not new. The first OO language was considered
to be
a) ALGOL-68
B) FORTRAN 77
c) C
d) MODULA
e) SIMULA 67.
Answer:E
1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Failure costs are those that would disappear if no defects appeared before
shipping a product to customers.
2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of conformance to requirements is lack of quality.
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options support a SQA plan.
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
c) Quality Assurance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: External failure costs are associated with defects found after the product has
been shipped to the customer.
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is associated prevention cost.
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Errors lead to faults
9. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of quality includes all costs incurred in the pursuit of quality or in
performing quality-related activities.
10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of
management.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.
2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.
3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a) Function-related metrics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality
produced in some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software
metric to the project cost.
b) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are
derived from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a

specification is available
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than
estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate.
6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application
domain have been completed?
b) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed
projects.
7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting
or database programming?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.
8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
d) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective
assessment. If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available,
the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months.
9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements
have been established?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to
number of lines of source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above
with a simplified set of seven multipliers.
10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable
components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program
translation tools?
c) A reuse model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-
models that produce increasingly detailed software estimates.
1. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as

a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality Management is also called software quality assurance (SQA) which
serves as an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
2. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes

a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how
well the resulting system meets its requirements .
3. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Inspections, equipment calibration, maintenance and testing appraisal
costs is quality management.
4. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What
are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Pareto principle (also known as the 80–20 rule) states that, for many
events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
5. What is Six Sigma?

a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six
Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Six Sigma uses data and statistical analysis to measure and improve a
company’s operational performance .
6. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is an additional step added for existing processes and can be done in
parallel.
7. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as

a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given a set of valid requirements, all software failures can be traced to
design or implementation problems.
8. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software reliability uses statistical analysis to determine the likelihood that
a software failure will occur; however, the failure may not necessarily result in a hazard
or mishap.
9. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation gap between the client and the developer often leads to
software defects.
10. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This includes rework, repair, and failure mode analysis.
11. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is
known as
a) Quality of design
c) Quality of testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how
well the resulting system meets its requirements.
12. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The characteristic that designers specify for an item are cover in quality of
design.
13. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management
responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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Question no:1

Work performance information

Controlling procurement activities according to the procurement plan, in order to verify

compliance with project objectives, is a task under what process group?

Monitoring & Controlling

Organizational process assets updates

Project documents updates

from prospective sellers?

The project manager

to facilitate negotiations for the settlement of claims or dispute?

Work performance data

Management process through Control Procurement is called:

Lessons learned documentation

of the following is an output of the Plan Procurement Management process?

Procurement statement of work

The procurement statement of work is a key output of:

Plan Procurement Management

Procurement management plan; Approved change requests

Procurement management plan; Agreements

Project management plan; Procurement documents

Agreements; Procurement documentation

Which of the following best describes procurement negotiations?

Information on seller invoices that have been paid

The costs that have been incurred or committed

The communications between buyer and seller

When can the procurements be considered officially closed?

When the contract is completed or terminated

When the buyer has verified the product

When the buyer and the seller have negotiated a settlement

While the work is being completed

updated as a result of the Control Procurements process?

Where variances occurred

Techniques that were effective in maintaining costs

Correspondence, payment schedules and requests, and seller performance evaluation

Organizational process assets updates

Procurement documentation updates

Project management plan updates

Work performance information

obtain the requested information?

Work Performance Information

Lessons learned repository

Organizational Process Assets

For the processes in the Project Procurement Management, 1. Plan Procurement

The contract administration function includes:

• Reassign the team

• Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF)

• Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts ( CPFF)

• Procurement Management Plan

• Time and Material Contracts (T&M)

Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?

• Cost plus percentage fee

A Unit Price (UP) contract provides:

• a reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as

• Firm Fixed Price Contracts (FFP)