TOEFL

PRACTICE
(*)
FIVE
LATIHAN TOEFL PAKET 5
 Section
Section11
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time; Approximately 50 minutes
50 Approximately
Time: Questio Practice Exam 5
40 minutes
50 Questions

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are there parts to this section with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFEL test, you will not be
allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

Part A : Short Conversations

DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a questions about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be
repeated. After you hear a questions, read the four possible answers in your book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example
On the recording,you hear:
What does the man mean?
In yout test book , you read :
(A) He doesn’t like the painting either
(B) He doesn’t know howto paint
(C) He doesn’t have any paintings
(D) He doesn’t know what to do
Sampel Answer
A B C D

You learn from coversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best
answer to the question “What does the man mean ?” is (A), “He doesn’t like the painting
either.” Therefore, the correct choice is (A).

P
Now begin to work on the questions

1. (A) Ask someone to recommend a place to eat

(B) Cook something for themselves.
(C) Go to another place to eat.
(D) Check the cafeteria later.

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2. (A) The store has lost them.
(B) The man doesn’t have enough money to pay for them.
(C) The film hasn’t been processed yet.
(D) The man is in a hurry.

3. (A) He doesn’t own a calculator.

(B) His calculator is broken.
(C) He doesn’t want to lend his calculator to anyone.
(D) Someone else borrowed his calculator.

4. (A) He likes to drink coffe in the morning.

(B) He seldom wakes up early.
(C) He needs tea to feel alert.
(D) He doesn’t usually eat breakfast.

5. (A) They shouldn’t change their plans.

(B) He doesn’t trust the weather forecast.
(C) They should have the picnic indoors.
(D) He had forgotten about their plans.

6. (A) She doesn’t need anything from the supermarket.

(B) She’’ll go shopping with the man.
(C) Her car is being repaired right now.
(D) She prefers to go to the supermarket near the school.

7. (A) The man should not take off his jacket.

(B) The man should get comfortable.
(C) It’s time for the man to go home.
(D) She likes the man’s jacket.

8. (A) She will lend the man some money.

(B) The man can send in the forms next week.
(C) The man should finish the forms now.
(D) She doesn’t like filling out financial aid forms.

9. (A) Put ice on her hand.

(B) See a doctor in a few days.
(C) Avoid using her hand for a while.
(D) Clear the ice off the sidewalk.

10. (A) Check for an appropriate apartment at another building.

(B) Rent the $600 apartment temporarily.
(C) Share an apartment with someone.
(D) Wait until there is a cheaper apartment available.

11. (A) Go to Sally’s room.

(B) Call Sally.
(C) Talk to Sally’s friends.
(D) Start studying without Sally.

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12. (A) The party should have ended sooner.
(B) The man’s apartment is too small for parties.
(C) She’d like to be invited to the next party.
(D) The man will spend the day cleaning.

13. (A) The woman’s business didn’t make much money.

(B) The woman doesn’t like selling jewelry.
(C) The woman has to close her business.
(D) The man broke some of the woman’s jewelry

14. (A) Try to call Bill at a different location.

(B) Tell Bill to call the woman about the presentation.
(C) Give Bill a copy of the presentation at dinner.
(D) Invite Bill to the woman’s house for dinner.

15. (A) She doesn’t care for cake.

(B) She’d like some more dessert.
(C) She’s had enough to eat.
(D) The cake was over baked.

16. (A) The woman forgot Debbie’s birthday.

(B) The woman didn’t know what Debbie wanted.
(C) The woman didn’t buy a sweater for Debbie.
(D) The sweater the woman bought doesn’t fit Debbie.

17. (A) She can complete the preparations in time.

(B) She wants everyone to work together.
(C) She anticipates needing help tomorrow.
(D) She thinks only a little planning is necessary.

18. (A) Ask someone else to go to the concert with them.

(B) Find out when the concert begins.
(C) Meet at the concert.
(D) Go to the concert on another night.

19. (A) She’ll eat the toast anyway.

(B) She’s not hungry .
(C) She doesn’t like toast.
(D) She’ll toast the bread.

20. (A) Register for fewer courses next semester.

(B) Go to the registrar’s office soon.
(C) Call the registrar’s office latter.
(D) Apply for a job at the registrar’s office.

21. (A) The man would get better grades if the studied more.
(B) The test was based on lecture material.
(C) She misplaced her textbook.
(D) The test was harder than she thought it would be.

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22. (A) No one will be able to see what he is wearing.
(B) He will probably need to take the sweater off.
(C) He expects the weater to change later in the day.
(D) It was be cool in the lecture hall.

23. (A) Reconsider her decision.

(B) Save for something more important.
(C) Buy a large size to allow for shrinkage during washing.
(D) Take her sweatshirt to the dry cleaners.

24. (A) It can much longer than expected.

(B) It was broadcast on television.
(C) Tickets for it were rather expensive.
(D) Many people went to hear it.

25. (A) He doesn’t enjoy his art history course.

(B) He would like to own one of the paintings.
(C) He did not like the paintings.
(D) He hasn’t seen the paintings yet.

26. (A) She didn’t like last year’s location.

(B) She hopes to be selected to be on the entertainment committee.
(C) She can’t attend the picnic this year.
(D) The entertainment committee has already chosen a location.

27. (A) The gallery is a good place for the exhibition.

(B) Preparing for the exhibition won’t be easy.
(C) The man isn’t telling the truth about the offer.
(D) The man is making a bad decision.

28. (A) She wants to cook the vegetables herself.

(B) She doesn’t like vegetabales that are undercooked.
(C) The vegetables have finished cooking.
(D) The man should cook different kinds of vegetables.

29. (A) The man will not find shorts in a different style.
(B) The man should try on a more stylish pair of shorts.
(C) She’s not sure she likes the stytle.
(D) The man should try on a different size.

30. (A) He’s also excited about sailing.

(B) He prefers swimming to sailing.
(C) He’s not sure how he feels about sailing.
(D) He doesn’t feel comfortable in water.

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 Part B : Long Conversations

DIRECTIONS
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several question. The conversation and question about it will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answer in your test boo, and choose the best
answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fell in the space that
corresponds to the letter ofthe answer you have choosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test page.

31. (A) To gather information for the student’s astronomy class.

(B) To write a research paper about a recent discovery in space.
(C) To report findings from an astronomers’ conference.
(D) To get information for the astronomy club.

32. (A) The possible existence of life on other planets.

(B) Methods for building powerful new telescopes.
(C) A technical problem that astronomers can’t solve.
(D) The discovery of planets orbiting distant stars.

33. (A) They studied variations in the appearance of the parent stars.
(B) They were able to see the planets with a telescope.
(C) They compared the parent stars to the Sun.
(D) They sent astronauts on a mission into space.

34. (A) Their surface features.

(B) Their chemical composition.

(C) Their temperature.
(D) Their age.

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35. (A) She generally doesn’t allow people to borrow it.
(B) She is trying to sell it.
(C) She bought it from a friend.
(D) It has broken down before.

36. (A) The woman could probably repay it herself

(B) it’s rather small
(C) it probably won’t cost a lot to repair
(D) it’s probably difficult to drive

37. (A) He only works on new cars

(B) He has fixed her car before
(C) He is one of her neighbors
(D) He will probably overcharge her

38. (A) Take the woman to her home

(B) Test- drive the woman’s car
(C) Help the woman pay the mechanic’s bill
(D) Help the woman fix her car

Part C : Short Talks

DIRECTIONS
In this of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated .

After you hear a questions, read the four possible answerin your book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the questions and fill the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example:
1. On the recording, you hear :
Now listen to a sampel question.
In your test book, you read :
(A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics.
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic depression.
(C) To explain the workings of the brain.
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story.
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 Sampel Answer
A B C D

The best answer to the questin “what is the main purpose of the program ?”, is “To explain
the workings of the brain. “ Therefore, the correct choice IS (C).

2. Now listen to another sampel question.

In your test book, you read :
(A) It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills
(D) It will help with course work.
Sampel Answer
A B C D
A A
The best answer to the question “Why does the speaker recommend watching the program ?”
is “It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D)

Now begin to work on the questions

39. (A) To review before a final exam.

(B) To explain the early history of film
(C) To explain the course requirements
(D) To notify the students of a change in Schedule.

40. (A) The silent film era

(B) How to write a film critique
(C) Films on television
(D) Basic film concepts

41. (A) In the classroom.

(B) In an auditorium
(C) At a local theater
(D) At home

42. (A) Compare films form different decades

(B) Compare films from different countries
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 (C) Analyze the film they’ve just seen
(D) Study techniques used by film makers.

43. (A) Reproduction in echinoderms

(B) How fish avoid their enemies
(C) The form and life cycle of starfish
(D) The feeding habits and digestive systems of starfish

44. (A) It consist of a protective film

(B) It is covered with scales
(C) It can be shed easily
(D) It is covered with sharp bumps

45. (A) To explain how a starfish reproduces

(B) To illustrate the shape of a starfish
(C) To demonstrate the defense mechanisms of starfish
(D) To show how larvae change into adult starfish

46. (A) It generates a new one

(B) It cannot swim
(C) It is easily caught
(D) It dies soon afterward

47. (A) Their diet

(B) The shape of their bodies
(C) Where they feed
(D) Their method of defense

48. (A) Advantages of the North in the Civil War

(B) Civilian opposition to the Civil War
(C) Reasons to justify fighting The Civil War
(D) Military Strategy used in the Civil War

49. (A) To Suggest changes to government structure

(B) To criticize the practice of slavery
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 (C) To convince the South to Surrender
(D)To inspire Northherners to Support the war

50. (A) Leaders of the Southern rebellion

(B) Slaves in the Southern states
(C) Northern opponents of the war
(D) Southern Soldiers

This is the end of Section 1.

Stop work on Section 1 now.
Turn off your cassette player.

Read the directions for Section 2 and begin work.

Do NOT read or work on any other section of the test

During the next 25 minutes!

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 Section 2
STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time : Approximately 40 minutes
40 Questions

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.

Part A : Structure

DIRECTIONS

Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words
or phrases, marked (A),(B),(C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the questions and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the
space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Example:
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes they both emit hot liquids from below the
Earth’s surface.
(A) due to
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of
Sampel Answer
A B C D
A A
The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they
both emit hot liquids from below the Earth’s surface. “Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin to work on the questions

1. The flexibility of film allows the artist________ unbridled imagination to the

animation of cartoon characters.
(A) to bring
(B) bringing
(C) is brought
(D) brings
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2. Traditionaly,________ in New England on Thanksgiving Day.
(A) when served is sweet cider
(B) when sweet cider is served
(C) is served sweet cider
(D) sweet cider is served

3. Typical of the grassland dwellers of the continent ___________, of pronghorn.

(A) it is the American antelope
(B) the American antelope is
(C) is the American antelope
(D) the American antelope

4. Lillian D.Wald, public health nurse and __________,was born in Cincinnati Ohio
in 1867.
(A) reforming society
(B) social reformer
(C) who reformed society
(D) her social reform

5. Copper sulfate, spread in judicious amounts, kills algae___________ harming fish

or aquatic invertebrates.
(A) does not
(B) but does no
(C) except
(D) without

6. Of the millions who saw Haley’s comet in 1986, how many people________ long
enough to see it return in the twenty-first century.
(A) will they live
(B) they will be living
(C) will live
(D) living

7. _________ that fear, happiness,sadness, and surprise are universally reflected in

facial expressions.
(A) Anthropologists have discovering
(B) Anthropologists discovering
(C) The discovery by anthropologists
(D) Discovered by anthropologists

8. In 1964__________ of Henry Ossawa Tanner’s paintings was shown at the

Smithsonia Institution
(A) was a major collection
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 (B) that a major collection
(C) a collection was major
(D) a major collection

9. __________ irritating effect on humans, the use of phenol as a general antiseptic

has been largely discountinued.
(A) Its
(B) Where is
(C) Since its
(D) Because of its

10. In order to remain in existence,_______ must,in the long run, produce something
consumers consider useful or desirable.
(A) a profit-making organization
(B) a profit-making organization which
(C) therefore a profit-making organization
(D) whichever a profit-making organization

11. The greater the population there is in a locality,________ for water, transportation,
and disposal of refuse.
(A) the greater the need there is
(B) greater need
(C) is there great need
(D) the great need

12. A historical novel may do more than mirror history;________ future events .
(A) even influencing
(B) it may event influence
(C) may even influence
(D) that it may even influence

13. _________ a child, sculptor Anne Whitney showed an eager intellect and artistic
talent that her parents recognized and encouraged.
(A) Has been
(B) It was while
(C) She was
(D) As
14. It is widely believed that the pull of gravity on falling raindrop changes________
round shape into a teardrop shape.
(A) of the drop
(B) the drop’s
(C) drop of
(D) drops their

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 15. ___________ modern offices becoming more mechanized,designers are attempting
to personalize them with warmer, less severe interiors.
(A) If
(B) But
(C) With
(D) Once

Part B : Written Expressions

DIRECTIONS

In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). indentify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order fer the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the questionand fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example 1 :
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fishbecause of the males’ bright colors.
A B C D
Sampel Answer
A B C D

The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the
males’ bright colors. “Therefore, you should choose (A).

Example 2 :
Serving several term in congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United
A B C
States political.
D
Sampel Answer
A B C D
A A
The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became
an important United States politician. “Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin to work on the questions

16. Not woman held a presidential cabinet position in the United States until 1933, when
A B C
Frances Perkins became secretary of labor.
D

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17. The human body relies on certainty nutrients for its survival.
A B C D

18. Too much electric current may flow into a circuit as a result either of a fault in the
A B C
circuit and of an outside event such as lightning.
D

19. The Appalachian Trail, extending approximately 2,020 miles from Maine to Georgia, is
A B
the longer continuous marked footpath in the world.
C D

20. For years, elphants were hunted for food and ivory and as a result theirs numbers have
A B C
been greatly reduced.
D

21. Barges which carrier most of the heavy feight on rivers and canals are usually
A B C
propelled by towing.
D

22. Although afflicted by serious eyesight problems, Alicia Alonso was one the principal
A B C
stars of the American Ballet Theater and later formed her own dance company.
D

23. The ritual combat of animals are triggered by precise signals.

A B C D

24. It is more diffucult to write simply, directly, and effective than to employ flowery but
A B C
vague expressions that only obscure one’s meaning.
D

25. Different species of octopuses may measure anywhere from two inches to over thirty
A B C
feet in long.
D

26. According to some theories derived from psychoanalysis, life is supposedly easier and
A B C
more pleasant when inhibitions overcoming.
D

27. When rainbows appear, they are always in the part of the sky opposite directly the Sun
A B C D

28. Benjamin Franklin drew a political cartoon that is credited raising 10,000 volunteers
A B C
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 for the American Revolutionary War.
D

29. The begins of the modern chemistry laboratory go back to the workrooms of medieval
A B C D
alchemists.

30. In many pieces of music there is a dominant theme on which the restful of the
A B C
composition is centered.
D

31. Luminescence refers to the emission of light by means another than heat.
A B C D

32. In a representative democracy, the people election delegates to an assembly.

A B C D

33. George Washington Carver found hundred of uses for the peanut, the sweet potato, and
A
the soybean and thus stimulated the cultivation of these crops.
B C D

34. A citadel, a fortress designed for the defense of a city, usually standed on top of a hill.
A B C D

35. Conservative philosophers argue that the very sturucture of society is threatening by
A B
civil disobedience, while humanists stress the primacy of the individual conscience.
C D

36. Since 1971 the regional corporations set up Alaska by Congress managing everything
A B C
from fishing to banking.
D

37. A rocket burns propellant rapidly and most rockets carry a supply that last just a few
A B C D
seconds.

38. Textile art is known for both its tactile and vision qualities.
A B C D

39. The metal aluminum has been first isolated early in the nineteenth century.
A B C D

40. Gulls can often be see swooping over large bodies of water.
A B C D

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 This is the end of sections 2.

If you finish in less than 25 minutes,

Check your work on Section 2 only.

Do NOT read or work on any other Section of the test

At the endof 25 minutes, go on to Section 3.

Use exactly 55 minutes to work on section 3.

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 Section 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 55 minutes
50 Questions

In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions
about it. For questions 1-50, you have to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D),
to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that correspons to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

DIRECTIONS
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.

Read the following passage:

The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society,
or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as
long as merchants have set out their wares at daybreak and communal
festivities have been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement
(5) with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition is
today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a
single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic:
the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would
proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would
begin to unravel.

Example I:
What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning
of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

Sampel Answer
A B C D

The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how times is to be
measured in order to function smoothly. Therefor, you should choose (C).

Example II:
In line 5, the phrase “this tradition” refers to …
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn.
(B) friendly relations between neighbors.
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules.
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time.

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 Sampel Answer
A B C D
A A
The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people hve been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time ofday.” Therefore, you should choose (D).

Now begin to work on the questions

Passage 1: Questions 1-9

Hunting is at best a precarious way of procuring food, even when the diet is
supplemented with seeds and fruits. Not long after the last Ice Age, around 7,000
B.C. (during the Neolithic period), some hunters and gatherers began to rely chiefly
on agriculture for their.
(5) sustenance. Others continued the old pastoral and nomadic ways. Indeed,
agriculture itself evolved over the course of time, an Neolithic peoples had long
known how to grow crops.The real transformation of human life occurred when
huge numbers of people began to rely primarily an permanently on the grain they
grew and the animals they.
(10) domesticated.

Agriculture made possible a more stable and secure life. With it Neolithic peoples
flourished, fashioning an energetic, crative era. They were dresponsible for many
fundamental inventions and innovations that the modern world takes for granted.
First, obviously,
(15) is systematic agriculture---that is, the reliance of Neolithic peoples on agriculture as
their primary, not merely subsidiary, source of food.

Thus they developed the primary economic activity of the entire ancient world and
the basis of all modern life. With the settled routine of Neolithic farmers came the
evolution of towns and eventually cities.
(20) Neolithic farmers usually raised more food than they could consume, and their
surpluses permitted larger, healthier populations. Population growth in turn created
an even greater reliance on settled farming, as only systematic agriculture could
sustain the increased numbers of people. Since surpluses o foood could also be
bartered for other
(25) commodities, the neolithic era witnessed the beginnings of large-scale exchange of
goods. In time the increasing complexity of Neolithic societies led to the
development of writing, prompted by the need to keep records and later by the urge
to chronicle experiences, learning, and beliefs.

(30) The transition to settled life also had a profound impact on the family. The shared
needs ans pressudres that encourage extended-family ties are less prominent in
settled than in nomadic soieties. Bonds to the ectended family weakened. In towns
and cities, the nuclear family was more dependent on ist immediate neighbors than
on kinfolk.
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1. What does the passage mainly discuss ?
(A) Why many human societies are dependent on agriculture.
(B) The changes agriculture brought to human life.
(C) How Neolithic peoples discovered agriculture.
(D) Why the first agricultural societies failed.

2. The word “precarious” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) uncertain
(B) humble
(C) worthy
(D) unusual

3. The author mentions “seeds and fruits” in line 2 as examples of ...

(A) The first crops cultivated by early agricultural societies.
(B) Foods eaten by hunters and gatherers as a secondary food source.
(C) Types of food that hunters and gatherers lacked in their diets.
(D) The most common foods cultivated by early agricultural societies.

4. The word “settled”in line 18 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) advanced
(B) original
(C) involved
(D) stable

5. According to the passage, agricultural societies produced larger human populations

because agriculture ....
(A) Created more varieties of food.
(B) Created food surpluses.
(C) Resulted in increases in leisure time.
(D) Encouraged bartering.

6. According to the passage , all of the following led to the development of writing EXCEPT
the...
(A) need to keep records
(B) desire to write down beliefs
(C) extraction of ink from plants
(D) Growth of social complexity

7. The word ”chronicle” in line 28 is closest in meaning to...

(A) Repeat
(B) Exchange
(C) Understand
(D) Describe

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8. According to the passage , how did the shift to agricultural societies impact people’s family
relationships ?
(A) The extended family became less important.
(B) Immediate neighbors often became family members.
(C) The nuclear family became self-suffcient.
(D) Family members began to work together to raise food.

9. The author mentions all of the following as results of the shift to agricultural societies
EXCEPT...
(A) An increase in invention and innovation.
(B) Emergence of towns and cities.
(C) Development of a system of trade
(D) A decrease in warfare

10. Which of the following is true about the human diet prior to the Neolithic period ?
(A) It consisted mainly of agricultural products.
(B) It varied according to family size
(C) It was based on hunting and gathering.
(D) It was transformed when large numbers of people no longer depended on the grain they
grew themselves.

Passage 2 : Question 11-21

In the North American colonies , red ware , a simple pottery fired at low temperatures ,
and stone ware , a strong , impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures , were
produced from two different native clays. These kind of pottery were produced to
supplement imported

(5) european pottery.When the America Revolution (1775-1783 ) interrupted the flow of the
superior European ware,there was incentive for American potters to replace the imports
with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware , which had been simple, utilitarian
kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century , and in

(10) addition to the earlier scratched and drawn designs,three-dimensional molded relief
decoration became popular.Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract
decorations. Birds and flowers were particularly evident,but other subjects---
lions,flags,and clipper ships---are found. Some figurines,mainly of dogs and lions,were
(15) made in this medium. Sometimes a name ,usually that of the potter,was die-stamped onto
a piece.
As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware,experiments
revealed that the same clay used to produce low-fired red were could produce a stronger
,paler pottery if fired at
(20) a hotter temperature.The resuil was yellow ware,used largely for serviceable items ;but a
futher development was Rockingham ware---one of the most important American
ceramics of the nineteenth century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its
resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South

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(25) Yorkshire,) It was created by adding a brwon glaze to the fired clay, ussualy giving the
finished product a mottled appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze
onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of
collecting Rockingham . An advanced from of Rockingham was flint
(30) enamel,created by dusting metallic powders onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant
varicolored streaks.

Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham
ware : dishes and bolws , of course ;also bedpans , foot warmers , cuspidors , lamp bases ,
doorknobs , molds ,
(35) picture frames , evevn curtain tiebacks.All these items are highly collectible today and are
eagerly sought. A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among
collectors and correspondingly high prices.

11. Why did the potters discussed in the passage change the kind of pottery they
made ?
(A) They discovered a new kind of clay
(B) They were compensation for the loss of an overseas supplier.
(C) They studied new techniques in Europe.
(D) The pottery they had been producing was not very strong.

12. The word “ornate” in line 9 is closest in meaning to...

(A) elaborate
(B) puzzling
(C) durable
(D) common

13. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware...

(A) was decorated with simple, abstract designs
(B) used three-dimensional decorations
(C) was valued for its fancy decorations
(D) had no decoration

14. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color ?

(A) By sponging on a glaze.
(B) By dusting on metallic powders.
(C) By brown-glazing.
(D) By firing at a high temperature.
15. The phrase “derived from” in line 23 is closest in meaning to...
(A) ruined by
(B) warned against
(C) based on
(D) sold by
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16. The word “It” in line 25 refers to..
(A) red ware
(B) yellow ware
(C) Rockingham ware
(D) English brown-glazed earthenware

17. The word “Various” in line 26 is closest in meaning to...

(A) complicated
(B) accepted
(C) careful
(D) different

18. The phrase “account for” in line 27-28 is closest in meaning to..
(A) explain
(B) restrict
(C) finance
(D) supplement

19. What was special about flint enamel ?

(A) Its even metallic shine.
(B) Its mottled appearance
(C) Its spattered effect
(D) Its varicolored streaks

20. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in
the greatest quantity ?
(A) Picture frames
(B) Dishes and bowls
(C) Curtain tiebacks
(D) Doorknobs

21. The passage would most probably continue with a discussion of ...
(A) What bedpans, foot warmers, and cuspidors were used for.
(B) Well- known, modern-day potters who make Rockingham ware.
(C) Examples Rockingham ware that collectors especially want.
(D) Pieces of Rockingham ware that are inexpensive in today’s market.

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.Passage 3 : Questions 22-31
Archaeological discoveries have led some scholars to believe that the first
Mesopotamian inventors of writing may have been a people the later Babylonians
called Sub Arians . According to tradition , they came from the north and moved
into Uruk in the south . By about
(5) 3100B.C,They were apparently subjugated in southern Mesopotamia by the
Sumerians,whose name became synonymous with the region immediately north of
the Persian Gulf, in the fertile lower valleys of the Tigris and Euphrates . Here the
Sumerians were already well established by the year 3000B.C.They had invented
bronze,an
(10) alloy that could be cast in molds,out of which they made tools and weapons.They
lived in cities,and they had begun to acquire and use capital. Perhaps most
important, the Sumerians adapted writing (probably from the Sub Arians) into a
flexible tool of communication.
Archaeologists have known about the Sumerians for over 150 years.
(15) Archaeologists working at Nineveh in northern Mesopotamia in the mid-nineteenth
century found many inscribed clay tablets. Some they could decipher because the
language was a Semitic one (Acadian), on which scholars had already been working
for a generation. But other tablets were inscribed in another language that was not
Semitic
(20) and previously unknown. Because these inscriptions mad reference to the king of
Sumer and Akkad , a scholar suggested that the mew language be called Sumerian.
But it was not until the 1890’s that archaeologists excavating in city-states well to
the south of Nineveh found many thousands of tablets inscribed in Sumerian
only.Because
(25) the Acadians thought of Sumerian as a classical language (as ancient Greek and
Latin are considered today), they taught it to educated persons and they inscribed
vocabulary, translation exercised, and other study aids on tablets. Working from
known Acadian to previously unknown Sumerian, scholars since the 1890’s have
learned how to
(30) read the Sumerian language moderately well. Vast quantities of tablets in Sumerian
have been unearthed during the intervening years from numerous sites.

22. According to the passage, the inventors of written language in Mesopotamia

were probably the ...
(A) Babylonians
(B) Sub Arians
(C) Acadians
(D) Sumerians

23. The word “subjugated” in line 5 is closest in meaning to...

(A) distinguished
(B) Segregated

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 (C) Concentrated
(D) Conquered

24. The phrase “synonymous with” in line 6 is closest in meaning to....

(A) equivalent to
(B) important for
(C) respected in
(D) familiar with

25. According to the passage, by the year 3000 B.C. the Sumerians had already
done all of the following EXCEPT....
(A) They had abandoned the area north of the Persian Gulf.
(B) They had estabilished themselves in cities.
(C) They had started to communicate through
(D) They had created bronze tools and weapons.

26. The word “some” in line 16 refers to...

(A) Archaeologists
(B) Sumerians
(C) years
(D) clay tablets

27. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage concerning the
Sumerians?
(A) They were descendants of the Persians.
(B) They were the first people to cultivate the valley of the Tigris.
(C) They were accomplished musicians.
(D) They had the beginnings of an economy.

28. According to the passage, when did archaeologists begin to be able to

understand tablets inscribed in Sumerian?
(A) In the early nineteenth century.
(B) More than 150 years ago.
(C) After the 1890’s.
(D) In the mid-eighteenth century.

29. According to the passage, in what way did the Sumerian language resemble
ancient Greek and Latin?
(A) It was invented in Mesopotamia.
(B) It became well estabilished around 3000 B.C.
(C) It became a classical language.
(D) It was used e
(E) xclusively for business transactions.

30. The word “excavating” in line 23 is closest in meaning to ...

(A) living
(B) digging
(C) assembling
(D) building

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 31. According to the passage, how did archaeologists learn to read the Sumerian
language?
(A) By translating the work of the Sub Arians.
(B) By using their knowledge of spoken Semitic languages.
(C) By comparing Sumerian to other classical languages.
(D) By using their knowledge of Acadian.

Passage 4 : Quetions 32-40

Generally, in order to be preserved in the fossil record, organisms must prossess
hard body parts such as shells or bones. Soft, fleshy structures are quickly destroyed
by predators pre decayed by bacteria. Even hard parts left on the surface for and
length of time
(5) will be destroyed . Therefore, oganisms must be buried rapidly to escape destruction
by the elements and to be protected agents of weathering and erosion Marine
organisms thus are better candidates for fossilization than those living on the land
because the ocean is typically the site of sedimentation, whereas the land is largely
(10) the site of erosion.
The beds of ancient lakes were also excellent sites for rapid burial of skeletal
remains of freshwater organisms and skeletons of other animals, including those of
early humans Ancient swamps were particulary plentiful with prolific growths of
vegetation, which fossilized
(15) in abundance. Many animals became trapped in bogs overgrown by vegetation. The
environment of the swamps kept bacterial decay to a minimum, which greatly aided
in the preservation of plants and animals. The rapidly accumulating sediments in
flood plains, deltas, and stream channels buried freshwater organisms, along with
other
(20) plants and animals that happened to fall into the water.
Only a small fraction of all the organisms that have ever lived are preserved as
fossils. Normally,the remains of a plant or animals are completely destroyed trough
predation and decay. Although it seems that fossilization is common for some
organisms, for others it is almost
(25) impossible. For the most part, the remains of organisms are recycled in the earth,
which is fortunate because otherwise soil and water would soon become depleted of
essential nutrients. Also, most of the fossils exposed on Earth’s surface are destroyed
by weathering processes. This makes for an incomplete fossil record with poor or
no.
(30) representation of certain species.

The best fossils are those composed of unaltered remains. Generally, it is the
inorganic hard parts , composed mostly of calcium carbonate, that from the vast
majority of unaltered fossils. Calcite and aragonite also contributed to a substantial
number of fossils of certain organisms.

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32. According to the passage, an organism without hard body parts ….
(A) is not likely to appear in the fossil record
(B) is not heavy enough to sink below the surface
(C) is not attractive to predators
(D) takes a long time to decay

33. The word “agents”in line 6 is closest in meaning to …

(A) dangers
(B) examples
(C) areas
(D) causes

34. Why are marine organisms good candidates for fossilization ?

(A) They have more fleshy structures than land organism
(B) It is likely that they will be buried rapidly
(C) The water environment speeds the decay caused by bacteria
(D) It takes longer for them to be preserved

35. The fact that the “land is largely the site of erosion “(line 9-10) is significant
because…
(A) Erosion is less destructive than sedimentation.
(B) Fossils are most common in areas subject to erosion.
(C) Erosion contributes to the destruction of skeletal remains.
(D) Few organisms live in areas that experience extensive erosion.

36. According to the passage , why were the remains of organisms trapped in
swamps better preserved for the fossil record than those that were not ?
(A) The swamp environment reduced the amount of bacterial decay
(B) Swamp waters contained higher amounts of materials such as calcium
carbonate
(C) There were fewer sediments in swamps than in other bodies of water
(D) Swamp vegetation accelerated the decomposition of organisms

37. The word “aided” in line 17 is closest in meaning to…

(A) reversed
(B) helped
(C) reformed
(D) counted

38. It can be inferred that flood plains,deltas,and stream channels (lines 18-19) are
similar in which of the following ways ?
(A) Animals rather than plants have been preserved at such locations
(B) Such locations are likely to be rich sources of fossils
(C) Fossilized human remains are only rarely found in such locations
(D) Rapid sedimentation in such locations makes it difficult to locate fossils.

39. What is the author’s main point in paragraph 3?

(A) Weathering makes it impossible to identify many fossils.
(B) Many fossils have been buried forever under the soil.
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 (C) Fossils provide a limited sample of ancient organisms.
(D) It is easier to find the remains of plants than animals.

40. Why does the author mention “aragonite” in line 33?

(A) To explain why fossils are rare.
(B) To compare aragonite fossils and calcite fossils.
(C) To argue that certain fossils are more informative than others.
(D) To illustrate the kinds of inorganic hard parts that can form fossils.

Passage 5: Questions 41-50

Naturalists and casual observers alike have been struck by the special realionship
between squirrels and acorns (the seeds of oak trees). Ecologists, though, cannot
observe these energetic mammals scurrying up and down oak trees and eating and
burying
(5) acorns without wondering about their complex relationship with trees. Are squirrels
dispersers and planters of oak forests or pesky seed predators? The answer is not
simple. Squirrels may devour many acorns, but by storing and failing to recover up
to 74 percent of them (as they do when seeds are abundant), these arboreal o\rodents
can
(10) also aid regeneration and dispersal of the oaks.

Their destructive powers are well documented. According to one report, squirrels
destroyed tens of thousands of fallen acorns from an oak stand on the University of
Indiana campus. A professor there estimated that each of the large while oaks had
produced between two
(15) and eight thousand acorns, but within weeks of seed maturity, Hardly an intact
acorn could be found among the fallen leaves.

Deer, turkey, wild pigs, and bears also feed heavily on acorns, but do not store them,
and are therefore of no benefit to the trees. Flying squirrels, chipmunks, and mice
are also unlikely to promote tree
(20) dispersal---whose behavior of caching (hiding) acorns below the leaf litter often
promotes successful germination of acorns--- and perhaps blue jays, important long-
distance dispersers, seem to help oaks spread and reproduce. Among squirrels,
tough, there is a particularly puzzling behavior pattern. Squirrels pry off the caps of
acorns, bite
(25) through the shells to get at the nutritious inner kernels, and the discard them half-
eaten. The ground under towing oaks is often littered with thousands of half-eaten
acorns, each one only bitten from the top. Why would any animal waste so much
time and energy and risk exposure to such predators as red-tail hawks only to leave a
large part
(30) of each acorn uneaten? While researcfh is not conclusive at this point, one thing that
is certain is that squirreldo hide some of the uneaten portions, and these acorn
halves, many of which contain the seeds, may later germinate.

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41. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The ecology of oak trees.
(B) Factors that determine the feeding habits of Squirrels.
(C) Various species of animals that promote the dispersal of tree seeds
(D) The relationship between squirrels and oak trees.

42. The word “they” in line 9 refers to...

(A) oak forests
(B) acorns
(C) squirrels
(D) predators

43. According to the passage, what do squirrels do when large quantities of acorns
are available?
(A) They do not store acorns.
(B) They eat more than 74 percent of available acorns.
(C) They do not retrieve all the acorns that they have stored.
(D) They hide acorns in tree cavities.

44. The word “estimated” in line 14 is closest in meaning to...

(A) commented
(B) judged
(C) observed
(D) discovered

45. Why does the author mention “the University of Indiana campus” in line 13?
(A) To provide evidence that intact acorns are hard to find under oak trees.
(B) To indicate a place where squirrels can aid seed dispersal of oaks.
(C) To argue in favor of additional studies concerning the destructive force of
squirrels.
(D) To support the claim that squirrels can do great damage to oak stands.

46. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that chipmunks do not aid in the dispersal
of oak trees because...
(A) They store their acorns where they cannot germinate.

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 (B) They consume most of their stored acorns
(C) Their stored acorns are located and consumed by other species
(D) They cannot travel the long distance required for dispersal.

47. According to the passage, which of the following do squirrels and blue jays
have in common?
(A) They travel long distances to obtain acorns.
(B) They promote the reproduction of oak trees.
(C) They bury acorns under fallen leaves.
(D) They store large quantities of acorns.

48. The phrase “pry off” in line 24 is closest in meaning to...

(A) swallow
(B) remove
(C) squeeze
(D) locate

49. The word “littered” in line 26 is closest in meaning to...

(A) covered
(B) displayed
(C) fertilized
(D) planted

50. According to the passage, scientists cannot explain which of the following
aspects of squirrel behavior?
(A) Where squirrels store their acorn caches.
(B) Why squirrels prefer acorns over other seeds.
(C) Why squirrels eat only a portion of each acorn they retrieve.
(D) Why squirrels prefer acorns from a particular species of oak trees.

this is the end of section 3

check your work on section 3 only

Do NOT read or work on any other section of the test

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