The document is a sample exam for criminology licensure that contains multiple choice questions about correctional administration. It tests knowledge about:
1. Government departments that oversee correctional institutions, the head of the Bureau of Corrections, and the bureau responsible for jail supervision.
2. Key terms and concepts in correctional administration like the purpose of imprisonment, types of facilities, and forms of executive clemency.
3. Classification procedures, security levels of facilities, and the roles of boards involved in disciplinary hearings, parole, and prisoner release.
The document is a sample exam for criminology licensure that contains multiple choice questions about correctional administration. It tests knowledge about:
1. Government departments that oversee correctional institutions, the head of the Bureau of Corrections, and the bureau responsible for jail supervision.
2. Key terms and concepts in correctional administration like the purpose of imprisonment, types of facilities, and forms of executive clemency.
3. Classification procedures, security levels of facilities, and the roles of boards involved in disciplinary hearings, parole, and prisoner release.
The document is a sample exam for criminology licensure that contains multiple choice questions about correctional administration. It tests knowledge about:
1. Government departments that oversee correctional institutions, the head of the Bureau of Corrections, and the bureau responsible for jail supervision.
2. Key terms and concepts in correctional administration like the purpose of imprisonment, types of facilities, and forms of executive clemency.
3. Classification procedures, security levels of facilities, and the roles of boards involved in disciplinary hearings, parole, and prisoner release.
The document is a sample exam for criminology licensure that contains multiple choice questions about correctional administration. It tests knowledge about:
1. Government departments that oversee correctional institutions, the head of the Bureau of Corrections, and the bureau responsible for jail supervision.
2. Key terms and concepts in correctional administration like the purpose of imprisonment, types of facilities, and forms of executive clemency.
3. Classification procedures, security levels of facilities, and the roles of boards involved in disciplinary hearings, parole, and prisoner release.
Third Day 1:30 p.m. – 4:30 p.m. ================================================================= INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the Executive Department that supervises and controls
the numerous Correctional Institutions nationwide? a. Department of Justice b. Department of Interior and Local Government c. Department of Social Welfare and Development d. Department of National Defense 2. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as amended is known as - a. Correction Law c. Jail Management Law b. Prison Law d. Parole and Probation Law 3. The Head of the Bureau of Corrections is known as - a.Chief of the Bureau of Corrections b.Director of the Bureau of Corrections c.Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections d.none of these 4. What Bureau under the DILG is responsible for the supervision and control of Jails? a. BJMP c. Bureau of Corrections b. Provincial Jail d. City/Municipalities 5. What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP? A. Provincial and Sub-Provincial Jails B. City and Municipal Jails C. District Jails D. Insular Jails 6. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the said jails? a. BJMP b. DOJ c. Provincial Government d. LGU 7. Who is the Head of the Provincial Jail? a. Provincial Jail Director c. Provincial Administrator b. Provincial Jail Warden d. Governor 8. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment? a. Rehabilitation and Reformation c. to stand trial b. Punishment d. Socialization 9. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment is known as a. Jail c. Lock-up b. Penitentiary d. Detention Cells 10. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs, sect or the like to another while under confinement is referred to as a. Proselytizing c. Initiation b. Fraternization d. Inducement 11. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention is known as - a. Mittimus c. Detention Mittimus b. Sentence Mittimus d. Detention Warrant 12. The entrusting for confinement or an offender to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation, trial and or service of sentence is referred to as
Correctional Administration Page 1 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim a. Commitment c. Detention b. Imprisonment d. Recognizance 13. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used to hold back, keep in check or under control is the a. Instrument of Restraint c. Iron leg Lock b. Handcuffs d. metallic chains 14. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is called - a. custody c. Safe-Keeping e. Protection b. Classification d. caring 15. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal record, etc? a. Classification c. Custody b. Security d. Safe Keeping 16. Where a newly committed insular prisoner undergoes diagnosis and treatment as part of the classification process? A. Reception and diagnostic center (RDC) B. Medical Center C. treatment Center D. Diagnostic and Treatment Center 17. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail? a. Classification Board c. Board of Custody b. Diagnostic Board d. Treatment Board 18. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the A. NBP B. Maximum Security Institution C. Medium Security Institution D. Minimum Security Institution 19. The Bureau of Correction has an admission program for newly committed offenders to remain in the reception and diagnostic center for a period of - a. 30 days c. 20 days e. 45 days b. 60 days d. 10 days 20. How many days that a national offender be confined at the Separation Center before the actual release? a. 30 c. 10 e. 15 b. 60 d. 45 21. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon? a. Amnesty c. Parole b. Pardon d. Probation
22. The form of Executive Clemency which reduces the sentence of
a convicted person to shorter term is referred to as - a. Amnesty c. Probation b. Commutation d. shortening 23. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is- a. Orange c. Yellow e. Strife Orange b. Blue d. Pink 24. Who is the executive officer in charge of each correctional institution? A. Correctional or custodial officer B. Warden or Superintendent C. Commissioner or Director
Correctional Administration Page 2 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim D. Chief Warden 25. The end purpose of classification is - a. To orient new inmates for prison life b. To prepare inmates for prison life c. To develop integrated and realistic program for prison d. all of these 26. When an inmate is given a "shakedown" before admission it meant a. Process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph b. Examination for contraband c. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk d. All of these 27. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment process from life in prison to life in free community within - A. 60 days prior to release B. 30 days prior to release C. 90 days before release D. 15 days prior to release 28. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with a. B.P. Blg. 85 c. PD 29 b. B.P. 22 d. PD 968 29. An inmate maybe granted parole if he - a. earned good conduct time allowance credit b. serve minimum sentence c. earned good behavior while serving prison term d. all of these 30. Who prescribes minimum standard of security, hygiene, recreational, work program to provincial and/or city jails? a. Secretary of Justice c. Custodial Officer b. Director of Prison d. Director for Good Behavior 31. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the - a. reformation of offenders c. Deterrence b. Segregation of offender d. Confinement of Offenders 32. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at - a. NBP main prison c. Camp Bukang Liwayway b. Camp Sampaguita d. Medium Security Prison 33. Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in prison? a. Classification Board c. Parole Board b. Administrative Board d. Disciplinary Board
34. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate
of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as a. Subsidiary imprisonment c. Secondary Imprisonment b. Preventive Imprisonment d. None of the above 35. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him into physical jeopardy, thus drastically narrowing his access to sources of personal satisfaction and reducing his self – esteem. This is true in: a. Managerial aspect c. Restorative aspect b. Humanitarian aspect d. None of the above is correct 36. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional institution is known as: a. conditional pardon c. probation b. parole d. commutation
Correctional Administration Page 3 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim 37. The Bureau of Correction is under the Department of: A. Interior and Local Government B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology C. Justice D. National Security 38. The kind of pardon under which the convict is required to comply with certain requirements is referred to as the a. conditional pardon c. amnesty b. probation d. parole 39. The act of the president changing and reducing a heavier penalty sentence or longer term into a shorter term is known as the a. Commutation c. Pardon b. Amnesty d. Probation 40. The meaning of the word oblivion is a. forgetting completely c. class of persons b. abolish d. community based treatment 41. The principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners that requires special treatment and custody is called: a. classification d. distinction b. diversification e. differentiation c. quarantine 42. The process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their existing resources is called: a. classification c. quarantine b. diversification d. quality control 43. The formulation of tentative treatment program suited for the prisoner is known as : a. medical officer c. treatment planning b. classification board d. treatment program 44. The lowest in rank assigned to sentinel post such as guard houses and gates are: a. Prison guards c. PO1 b. Senior prison guards d. NUP 45. The Custodial Division is charged with the security of prisoners, which of the following is considered as the commanding officers? a. security officers c. senior prison guards b. supervisor prison guards d. prison guards 46. Which of the following is the function of the Custodial Division? a. supervision of prisoners c. escort b. keep records d. all of the above
47. The most used factor for diversification is:
a. degree of custody c. minimum security b. maximum security d. graveness of crime 48. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as: a. imprisonment b. conviction c. Trial d. Detention 49. Prisoners sentenced from one day to three years or a fine of not more than one thousand pesos are categorized as- a. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner d. none of these 50. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean: a. public execution b. social degradation c. banishment d. public trial 51. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called: a. exile c. transportation
Correctional Administration Page 4 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim b. banishment d. public trial 52. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the offender and the would be criminals is called: a. deterrence c. reformations b. incapacitation d. public safety 53. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code. a. Twelve Tables c. Burgundian Code b. Code of Draco d. Hammurabic code 54. Municipal prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from _____. a. 1 day to 3 years c. 1 day to 30 days b. 1 day to 6 months d. none of these 55. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in _____. a. Palawan b. Davao c. Zamboanga d. Occ. Mindoro 56. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major influences of today’s correctional system. Alexander Mochanochie was the one who introduced the: a. Solitary system b. Irish System c. Marked System d. Congregate system 57. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino administration in the Philippines? a. E. O 727 b. E.O 292 c. E.O 645 d. E. O 104 58. The generic term that includes all government agencies, facilities, programs, procedures, personnel, and techniques concerned with the investigation, intake, custody, confinement, supervision, or treatment of alleged offenders refers to: a. Correction b. Penology c. criminal Justice d c. base pillar 59. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the primitive society). The concept follows that the victim’s family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence “blood feuds” was accepted in the early primitive societies. Retaliation means: a. Personal Vengeance c. Tooth for a tooth b. Eye for an Eye d. all of these
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code
prescribing savage punishment but in fact. a. Hammurabic code c. Sumerian Code b. Justinian code d. Code of Draco 61. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila City Jail, famous as the : a. “ May Halique Estate” c. “Tandang Sora State” b. New Bilibid Jail d. Muntinlupa Jail 62. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major offenders. a. Charles Montesiquieu c. Jeremy Bentham b. William Penn d. Cesare Beccaria 63. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune to prison reform. After his findings on English Prisons, he recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation of women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities, abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from prisoners. a. John Howard c. Robert Peel b. William Penn d. Manuel Montesimos 64. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
Correctional Administration Page 5 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim a. the guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy. b. no one must escape its effect c. it must be equal for all persons d. the consequences must be in accordance with law 65. The duration of arresto menor as a penalty is from ____ imprisonment. a. 1 day to 1 month c. 1 day to 31 days b. 1 day to 30 days d. either A or C 66. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his place of confinement. He is: a. liable for evasion of service of sentence b. not liable for evasion of service of sentence c. considered as an escaped prisoner d. none of these 67. Ms. Banta was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving her sentence she committed again the same crime. Ms Banta is a: a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person 68. Mr. Manny was convicted for the crime of homicide. While serving his sentence, he committed the crime of rape. Manny is considered a: a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person 69. Ms. Tipan was convicted for the crime of adultery for three times and with in a period of ten years. Tipan is considered as: a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person 70. Mr. Pande is a barangay tanod in their barangay. He arrested Mike for some legal ground but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the prescribed period of filing. What crime did Pande committed? a. arbitrary detention c. illegal Detention b. illegal arrest d. no crime committed
71. Mr. Santos is a private individual. He conspired with PO1
Juan in detaining X. What crime did Santos committed? a. Arbitrary detention c. Illegal detention b. Illegal arrest d. none of these 72. PO1 Juan arrested Dino Santos by virtue of a warrant of arrest. He failed to deliver the latter to the proper judicial authorities with in the prescribed hours of delivery. What crime did the policeman committed? a. Arbitrary detention b. Delaying Release c. Delay in the delivery of detained person d. Illegal arrest 73. The Camp Sampaguita in Muntinlupa houses: a. Super Maximum Security Prisoners b. Medium Security Prisoners c. Maximum Security Prisoners d. Minimum Security Prisoners 74. The only early Roman place of confinement which is built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C. a. Bridewell Workhouse c. Wulnut Street Jail b. Burgundian House d. none of these 75. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced. Offenders should be punished because they deserve it. This is one justification of punishment called: a. Atonement c. Incapacitation e. a or b
Correctional Administration Page 6 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim b. Deterrence d. Retribution 76. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that: a. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy. b. No one must escape its effect c. It must be equal for all persons d. The consequence must be in accordance with law 77. The program which is conducive to change behavior and moral by changing prisoner’s attitude for a useful education refers to: a. Vocational education c. Prison education b. Work programs d. Recreational Programs 78. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to: a. do away with the miscarriage of justice b. break the rigidity of the law c. restore the political and civil rights of the accused d. all of the above 79. The following are the aims of diversification in prison or jail, except: a. more effective execution of treatment programs b. to prevent physical contamination of one group another c. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk d. none of the above 80. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except: a. Censor offender’s inmate c. Escort inmates b. Inspect security devices d. Conduct disciplinary hearing
81. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves
the frisking of the prisoner. a. Identification c. Searching b. Briefing/Orientation d. minimum security prisoners 82. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately: a. sound the alarm b. notify the nearest police precinct c. locked prisoners in their respective cells d. call the warden or the director 83. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to: a. plug off the escape routes c. to shoot the escape b. protect the other inmates d. to give warning shots 84. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the _______ officer present shall assume the command. a. Veteran b. assistant c. most senior d. custodian 85. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six (6) years - a. PD 603 b. PD 869 c. RA 6127 d. PD 698 e. PD968 86. Which of these is known as the release on Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and/or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible person in the community, instead of a bail bond - a. RA 6036 b. RA 6127 c. PD 603 d. R.A. 3660
Correctional Administration Page 7 Glorio O. Dumandan Jr.,RCrim 87. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for probation, the offender applying for probation - a. Must stay in prison as a detainee b. May be set free without bail c. May be released on bail or recognizance d. all of these 88. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as - a. Affiliation guidance c. Pre-sentenced investigation b. Supervision d. Probation guidance 89. The court may grant probation only - a. After arraignment b. After conviction c. Before conviction d. all of these 90. The investigation report of an officer shall be submitted to the court not later than- a. 15 days from receipt of the order b. 30 days from receipt of the order c. 60 days from receipt of the order d. 45 days from receipt of the order 91. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the court shall resolve the application for probation not later than- a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 45 days 92. A private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at his own expense because he had observed that thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead by better by the pillory and he hoped that they might be improved by work and religious instruction in the workhouse. He is: a. August Vollmer b. Peter Rentzel c. Bishop Ridley d. Garofalo
93. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method
that if the offender is solvent, his property should be attached at the time of proceedings when started, so that he can be compelled by order of the court to make restitution. a. Bonneville de Marsangy c. John Howard b. Garofalo, Ferri and Fioretti d. Orlando Wilson 94. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation? a. Jose Lacson c. Juan Ponce Enrile b. Teodulo Natividad d. Antonio Torres 95. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law: a. are qualified to apply for probation b. are disqualified to apply for probation c. may be granted for another probation d. should be confined in prison 96. The quasi-judicial body which was created under Act no. 4103 otherwise known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law or the Parole Law., the agency that grants parole to any prisoner who is qualified to enjoy its benefit refers to: a. The Probation and Parole Administration b. The Board of Pardon and Parole c. The Bureau of Correction d. all executive clemencies 97. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal justice under its common law, originated probation? a. England b. United States c. Greece d. France 98. What is the country who first legally established probation? a. Germany b. England c. Rome d. USA 99. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed? a. Recognizance c. Reprieve b. Benefit of the Clergy d. Penance 100. Among the different common law practices, it is considered as the earliest device for softening brutal severity of punishment?