Electrical Engineering Exam Prep

ELEC TRICAL
ENGINEERING
EXAM PREP
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ELEC TRICAL
ENGINEERING
EXAM PREP
Problems and Solutions
R. R. Gupta
James R. Claycomb, PhD
MLI Exam Prep Series

Sarhan Musa, PhD
Prairie View A&M
(Series Editor)
MERCURY LEARNING AND INFORMATION

Dulles, Virginia
Boston, Massachusetts
New Delhi
Copyright ©2019 by Mercury Learning and Information LLC. All rights reserved.
Part of the MLI Exam Prep Series. S. Musa / Series Editor.
Original Title and Copyright: Electrical Engineering. ©2014 by Khanna Publishers.

978-8174092-02-1.
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R. R. Gupta and James R. Claycomb. Electrical Engineering Exam Prep: Problems and Solutions.
ISBN: 978-1-68392-112-7
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CONTENTS
1. Engineering Mathematics 1–28

2. Electrical Machines 29–80
3. Measurements 81–116
4. Passive Circuits and Electromagnetic Fields 117–168
5. Power Systems 169–202
6. Control System Engineering 203–238
7. Electronics 239–304
8. Computer Science 305–334
9. Process Instrumentation 335–350
10. Information and Blockchain Technology 351–362
11. Superconductivy and Quantum Computing 363–378
12. Self-Examination 379–416
Appendix: Answers 417–440

1
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
1. cos2 q is equal to
2
(a) 1 + sin θ
1
(b) (1 + cos 2θ )
2
1
(c) (1 − cos 2θ )
2
1
(d) (1 + sin 2θ )
2
2. sin 2 q is equal to
2
(a) 1 + cos θ
1
(b) (1 + cos 2θ )
2
1
(c) (1 − cos 2θ )
2
1
(d) (1 + sin 2θ )
2
3. sin 2 θ + cos2 θ is equal to
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 2 sin q cosq
(d) −2 sin θ cosθ
2 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS
4. The area of a trapezoid above is

(a) ha + hb
1
(b) ( a + b) h
2
1
(c) ( b − a ) h
2 Fig. Q. 4.
(d) h a + b
2 2
∫ cos θ dθ is equal to
2
5.
0
(a) π /2
(b) 0
(c) −π / 2
(d) 1
π
∫ sin θ dθ is equal to
2
6.
0
(a) π /2
(b) 0
(c) −π / 2
(d) 1
7. ∫ sinθ cosθ dθ is equal to (plus a constant)

1 2
(a) sin q
2
1
(b) cos q
2
2
(c) sin θ − 1
2
(d) 1 − cos θ
2
8. Consider a triangle with sides a, b and c with q between sides a and b

2 2 2
(a) c = a + b − 2 ab cosθ
(b) c = a + b + 2 ab cosθ
2 2 2
2 2 2
(c) c = a + b − 2 ab sin θ
(d) c = a + b + 2 ab sin θ
2 2 2
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS • 3
9. Given f ( x ) and g ( x ) are inverse functions

(a) f ( g ( x ) ) = g ( f ( x ) )
(b) f ( g ( x ) ) = x
(c) g ( f ( x ) ) = x
(d) all the above
The expression ln ( e ) is equal to
x
10.
(a) eln x
(b) x
(c) 1
(d) Answers (a) and (b) only
 
11. The log of a product ln  ∏ ai  is equal to
 i 
(a) å ln ai
i
(b) ln å ai
i
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
12. The equation tan x = x is
(a) a transcendental equation
(b) is solvable graphically or numerically
(c) is not solvable analytically
(d) all the above
13. The function f ( x ) = x sin x is
(a) an even function
(b) an odd function
(c) neither even nor odd
(d) such that f ( x ) = − f ( − x )
The function f ( x ) = x exp ( − x ) is

2
14.
(b) an odd function
(d) such that f ( x ) = f ( − x )
2 3
15. The function f ( x ) = x − x is
(b) an odd function
(d) such that f ( x ) = f ( − x )
∞
16. The integral ∫x

6
exp ( − x2 )dx
−∞
(a) diverges
(b) is equal to zero
∞
(c) is equal to 2 ∫ x exp ( − x )dx

6 2
0
0
(d) is equal to −2 ∫ x exp ( − x )dx

6 2
−∞
∞
∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

2
17. The integral
−∞
(a) diverges
(b) is equal to zero
∞
(c) is equal to 2 ∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

2
0
0
(d) is equal to −2 ∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

2
−∞
Given E ( x, t ) = A exp ( −α x ) sin (ω t ) where the units of E, x, and t are

2
18.
V/m , m , and s, respectively. What are the respective units of A, a, and ω ?
(a) V/m , 1/m , and 1/s
2
(b) V/m , 1/m , and 1/s
(c) V/m/s , 1/m , and 1/s
(d) V/m , dimensionless, and dimensionless
The solutions to r + r + 1 = 0 are
2
19.
(a) both real
(b) both imaginary
(c) both complex
(d) real and imaginary
Given r + r + 1 = 0 the Im ( r ) equals
2
20.
(a) ± 3 / 2
(b) ± 3 j / 2
(c) 0
(d) − Re ( r )
21. Given an analytic function f ( z ) where z = x + jy
(a) Re f ( z ) satisfies Laplace’s equation
(b) Im f ( z ) satisfies Laplace’s equation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
22. The integral ∫ f ( x ) dx = g ( x ) + C is
(a) a definite integral
(b) an indefinite integral
(c) such that g′ ( x ) = f ( x )
(d) Answers (b) and (c)
9 x2 − 4 x + 5
23. The integral ∫ 3 x3 − 2 x2 + 5 x + 2 dx is best solved
by substituting u = 3 x − 2 x + 5 x + 2
3 2
(a)
(b) integrating by parts
(c) by performing a partial fractions decomposition
(d) by performing a trigonometric substitution
1
∫ x exp ( − x )dx is
2
24. The integral
−1
(a) a definite integral

(b) an indefinite integral
(c) equal to zero
(d) answers (a) and (c)
d
25. The derivative ln f ( x ) for f ( x ) > 0 is
dx
f ( x)
(a) e
(b) f ( x ) / f ′ ( x )
(c) f ′ ( x ) / f ( x )
1 2
(d) − f ( x)
2
d
26. ln sin ( ax )
dx
sin ( x )
(a) e
(b) a cot ( ax )
(c) tan ( ax ) / a
1 2
(d) − sin ( ax )
2
The integral ∫ e
sin ( x )
27. cos ( x ) dx is best solved by
(a) substituting u = cos ( x )
(b) substituting u = sin ( x )
(c) parts
(d) using a numerical method with trial limits
28. The dot product ( A − B ) ⋅ ( A − B ) where the angle between A and B is q

2 2
(a) A + B − 2 AB cosθ
(b) A + B if A and B are orthogonal
2 2
(c) A - B
2 2
(d) answers (a) and (b)

29. The magnitude of the vector A = 3 iˆ − 3 ˆj is
(a) 6
(b) 9 2
(c) 0
(d) 3 2
30. Given the cross product A × B = C where C ≠ 0 then
(a) A is parallel to B
(b) both A and B are perpendicular to C
(c) both A and B are parallel to C
(d) both (a) and (b) are true
31. Given the dot product A ⋅ B = 0
(a) A is antiparallel to B
(b) A and B are orthogonal
(c) A = −B
(d) both answers (a) and (c) are true
32. A unit vector perpendicular to the plane x + y − z = 5 is
(a) ( iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) / 3
(b) ( iˆ + ˆj − kˆ ) / 3
(c) ( iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) / 5
(d) ( iˆ + ˆj − kˆ ) / 5
33. Two vectors A and B are equal if they have the same
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) magnitude and units
(d) magnitude, direction, and units
 a
 
34. The matrix product (1 2 3 )  b  is equal to
 c
 
(a) a + 2 b + 3 c
(b) 6abc
 a 2a 3a 
 
(c)  b 2 b 3 b 
 c 2c 3c 
 
 a
 
(d)  2 b 
 3c 
 
 a
 
35. The matrix product  b  (1 2 3 )
 c
 
(a) a + 2 b + 3 c
(b) 6abc
 a 2a 3a 
 
(c)  b 2 b 3 b 
 c 2c 3c 
 
(d) (1 2 a 3 c )
36. The trace of a square matrix is
(a) the sum of diagonal elements
(b) product of diagonal elements
(c) determinate of the matrix inverse
(d) determinate of the matrix transpose
37. If A is the inverse matrix of B then

(a) AB = BA
(b) AB = -BA
(c) AB is equal to the identity matrix
(d) answers (a) and (c) are true
1 0 0 
 
38. The determinate of the matrix  2 1 −1  is
5 3 2 
 
(a) not defined
(b) 5
(c) 13
(d) 0
39. A function f ( x ) has a critical point where the slope is zero at x0 if
df ( x )
(a) =0
dx x0
df ( x )
(b) >0
dx x0
df ( x )
(c) <0
dx x0
(d) Either (b) or (c) can be true for a critical point
d2 f ( x)
40. If < 0 at a critical point x0 then the point is
dx2 x
0
(a) a local maximum

(b) a local minimum
(c) an inflection point
(d) answers (b) or (c) can be true
d2 f ( x)
41. If > 0 at a critical point x0 then the point is
dx2 x
0
(a) a local maximum

(b) a local minimum
(d) answers (a) or (c) can be true
d2 f ( x)
42. If = 0 at a critical point x0 then the point is
dx2 x
0
(a) a local maximum

(b) a local minimum
(d) answers (a) or (b) can be true
∞ ∞
n!
Given ∫ x e dx = ∫x e
n −β x 3 −3 x
43. evaluate dx
0
β n +1 0
3!
(a)
34
(b) 0.074
1
(c)
27
(d) answers (a) and (b) are true
44. The integral ∫ ln xdx for x > 0 is equal to
(a) e + C
x
(b) x ln x − x + C
(c) x ln x + x + C
(d) ln x − x + C
∂2 f ∂2 f
45.
−α x
Given f ( x, t ) = e cos(ω t) the quantity + is equal to
∂x2 ∂t 2
2 2
(a) α + ω
(b) (α − ω ) f ( x, t )
2 2
(c) (α 2
+ ω 2 ) f ( x, t )
(d) 0
∞
1 1 1 1 1
46. Given = ∑ x n for x < 1 the infinite sum 1 + + + + +
1 − x n=0 3 9 27 81
(a) diverges
(b) is equal to 3/2
(c) is equal to 2/3
(d) is equal to 2
1
Given the approximation (1 + x ) ≈ 1 + nx for x << 1 the quantity
n
47.
v2
1-
c2
for v << c is approximately
(a) c / 2
v2
(b) 1 -
c2
1 v2
(c) 1 +
2 c2
1 v2
(d) 1 -
2 c2
48. Given G ( x, y, z ) = xyz the gradient ∇G is equal to
(a) 3
(b) yz + xz + yz
(c) yziˆ + xzˆj + yzkˆ

(d) 0
Given G ( x, y, z ) = x + y + z the scalar Laplacian ∇ G is equal to
2 2 2 2
49.
(a) 2 xiˆ + 2 yˆj + 2 zkˆ

(b) 6
(c) 2 x + 2 y + 2 z
(d) 3
d2 x dx
50. The differential equation 2
+ 2 + x2 = sin ( t ) is
dt dt
(a) is second order, linear, homogeneous
(b) is second order, nonlinear, inhomogeneous
(c) is first order, nonlinear, inhomogeneous
(d) is first order, linear, homogeneous
dx
51. The differential equation + x2 = sin ( t ) is
dt
(a) is second order, linear, homogeneous
(b) is second order, nonlinear, inhomogeneous
(c) is first order, nonlinear, inhomogeneous
(d) is first order, linear, homogeneous
52. The Dirac delta function δ ( x ) is
(a) one if x = 0 and zero if x ≠ 0
(b) infinite if x = 0 and zero if x ≠ 0
(c) one if x = 0 and undefined for x ≠ 0
(d) zero if x < 0 and one if x ≥ 0
53. The Dirac delta function δ ( x − a ) is
(a) one if x = a and zero if x ≠ a
(b) infinite if x = a and zero if x ≠ a
(c) one if x = a and undefined for x ≠ a
(d) zero if x < a and one if x ≥ a
54. The Heaviside step function Θ ( x − a ) is
(a) one if x = a and zero if x ≠ a
(b) infinite if x = a and zero if x ≠ a
(c) one if x = a and undefined for x ≠ a
(d) zero if x < a and one if x ≥ a
55. The following functions are orthogonal over the interval [−π , π ]
(a) sin ( x ) and sin ( 2x )
x 2x
(b) e and e
x
(c) sin ( x ) and e
(d) sin ( x ) and 2 sin ( x )
∞
j ( kx −ω t )
56. The integral involving a Dirac delta function ∫e δ ( x − a ) dx
−∞
evaluates to
j ( ka −ω t )
(a) e
jka
(b) e
(c) 0
(d) -1
d2 y dy
A solution to the differential equation (1 − x ) − 2 x + 6 y = 0 is
2
57. 2
dx dx
3 2 1
(a) y = x −
2 2
(b) y = x
3x −3 x
(c) y = c1 e + c2 e
(d) y = c1 cos ( 3 x ) + c2 sin ( 3 x )
d2 y
58. A solution to the differential equation 2 + 9 y = 0 is
dt
3 2 1
(a) y = t −
2 2
(b) y = t
3t −3 t
(c) y = c1 e + c2 e
(d) y = c1 cos ( 3 t ) + c2 sin ( 3 t )
d2 y
59. A solution to the differential equation − 9 y = 0 is
dt 2
3 2 1
(a) y = t −
2 2
(b) y = t
3t −3 t
(c) y = c1 e + c2 e
(d) y = c1 cos ( 3 t ) + c2 sin ( 3 t )
rt d3 y d2 y dy
60. Substitution of e into the differential equation 3
+ 2 2
+ 3 − 9y = 0
dt dt dt
gives the characteristic equation
(a) r + 2 r + 3 r − 9 = 0
3 2
1 4 2 3 r2
(b) r + r + 3 − 9r = 0
4 3 2
(c) r + 2 r + 3 r = 0
3 2
(d) r + 2 r + 3 = 0
2
1 1 
61. The matrix  
 1 −1 
(a) has determinate equal to -2
(b) has zero trace
(c) is equal to twice its inverse
(d) all the above
2 0 
62. The inverse of the matrix  
 0 −1 
1 
0
(a) is  2
 
0 −1 
 −2 0 
(b) is  
 0 1
 0 1
(c) is  
 −2 1 
(d) does not exist
 cosθ sin θ 0
 
63. The inverse of the matrix  − sin θ cosθ 0
 0 0 1 

 cosθ − sin θ 0
 
(a) is  sin θ cosθ 0
 0 0 1 

 sin θ cosθ 0
 
(b) is  − cosθ sin θ 0
 0 0 1 

 cosθ 0 − sin θ 
 
(c) is  0 1 0 
 sin θ 0 cosθ 
 
(d) does not exist
 cosθ sin θ 0
 
64. The determinant of the matrix  − sin θ cosθ 0  is
 0 0 1 

(a) cos2 θ − sin 2 θ
(b) equal to 1
(c) equal to -1
(d) is not defined
 0 1 0
 
65. The inverse of the matrix  −1 0 0  is
 0 0 1
 
 0 −1 0 
 
(a)  1 0 0 
0 0 1
 
 0 −1 0 
 
(b)  1 0 0 
 0 0 −1 
 
0 1 0
 
(c)  1 0 0 
0 0 1
 
(d) not defined
f ( x + ∆x ) − f ( x )
66. The numerical approximation of the first derivative f ′ ( x ) ≈
∆x
(a) is first order, forward difference
(b) is second order, forward difference
(c) is first order, backward difference
(d) is second order, backward difference
f ( x ) − f ( x − ∆x )
67. The numerical approximation of the first derivative f ′ ( x ) ≈
∆x
(c) is first order, backward difference
(d) is second order, backward difference
68. The numerical approximation of the second derivative
f ( x + ∆x ) − 2 f ( x ) + f ( x − ∆x )
f ′′ ( x ) ≈
∆x2
(c) is first order, central difference
(d) is second order, central difference
 1  1
69. The direct product   ⊗   is equal to
 0  1
1
0
(a)  
1
 
0
 1 1
(b)  
 0 1
1
1
(c)  
0
 
0
(d) 1
Given that the Laplace transform of f ( t ) is L  f ( t )  = ∫ e f ( t ) dt the

− st
70.
0
∞
transform L δ ( t − 1 )  = ∫ e f ( t ) dt is equal to

− st
(a) 1
-s
(b) e
(c) 0
s
(d) e
71. The divergence of a
(a) vector field gives a scalar field
(b) vector field gives a vector field
(c) scalar field gives a vector field
(d) scalar field gives a scalar field
72. The gradient of
73. The curl of
74. The scalar Laplacian of
75. The vector Laplacian of

76. To apply the Laplace transform method to solve for the charge q ( t ) in an
LC series circuit driven by a time dependent voltage source according to the
d2 q q
differential equation L 2 + = V0 t sin (ω t ) the following information is
dt C
needed
(a) q ( 0 )
(b) q ( 0 )
(c) both q ( 0 ) and q ( 0 )
(d) neither q ( 0 ) nor q ( 0 )
Fig. Q. 77.
77. The vector field above has
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
(c) both divergence and curl
(d) neither divergence nor curl
Fig. Q. 78.
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
Fig. Q. 79.
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
Fig. Q. 80.
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
81. The vector field F ( x, y ) = xiˆ + yˆj has
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
82. The vector field F ( x y ) = yiˆ - xˆj has
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
83. The vector field F ( x, y ) = 3 iˆ + 2 ˆj has
(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
84. The vector field F ( x, y ) = ( x - y ) iˆ + ( x + y ) ˆj has

(a) curl only
(b) divergence only
85. Given f ( x ) and g ( y ) are arbitrary scalar functions of x and y . The vector
field F ( x, y ) = f ( x ) iˆ + g ( y ) ˆj could only have
(a) curl
(b) divergence
86. Given f ( x ) and g ( y ) are arbitrary scalar functions of x and y . The vector
field F ( x, y ) = g ( y ) iˆ + f ( x ) ˆj could only have
(a) curl
(b) divergence
87. Gauss’s divergence theorem states that the volume integral ∫ ∇ ⋅ Fdv is
vol
equal to
(a) closed surface integral ò F × nˆ da
surf
(b) open surface integral ∫ F ⋅ nˆ da

surf

(c) closed line integral ò F × d 
line

(d) open line integral ∫ F ⋅ dℓ
line
88. Stokes’ curl theorem states that the open surface integral ∫ ∇ × F ⋅ nˆ da
surf
is
equal to
(a) closed surface integral ò F × nˆ da
surf
(b) open surface integral ∫ F ⋅ nˆ da

surf

(c) closed line integral ò F × d 
line

(d) open line integral ∫
line
F ⋅ dℓ
89. The expression (1 − cos nπ ) (1 − cos mπ )

(a) is zero for even values of m and n.
(b) is zero for odd values of m and n.
(c) is 4 for even values of m and n.
(d) is 4 for odd values of m and n.
(e) answers (a) and (d)
90. The complex exponential e jπ is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) j
(e) - j
5
91. The complex expression j is equal to
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) j
(d) - j
92. Adding a complex number to its complex conjugate gives
(a) a real number
(b) a pure imaginary number
(c) a complex number
(d) zero
93. Subtracting a complex number and its complex conjugate gives

(a) a real number
(b) a pure imaginary number
(c) a complex number
(d) zero
94. A square matrix A is noninvertible if
(a) its determinate is zero
(b) if its determinate is nonzero
(c) its determinate is negative
(d) its determinate is imaginary
95. Square matrices A and B are said to commute if
(a) AB = BA
(b) AB = −BA
(c) either A or B are invertible
(d) only if A and B are real matrices
96. Square matrices A and B are said to anti-commute if
(a) AB = BA
(b) AB = −BA
(c) either A or B are invertible
(d) only if A and B are real matrices
e jθ + e− jθ
97. The expression is equal to
2
(a) cosq
(b) sin q
(c) cosh q
(d) sinh q
e jθ − e− jθ
2j
(a) cosq
(b) sin q
(c) cosh q
(d) sinh q
eθ + e−θ
2
(a) cosq
(b) sin q
(c) cosh q
(d) sinh q
eθ − e−θ
2
(a) cosq
(b) sin q
(c) cosh q
(d) sinh q
e jθ − e− jθ
e jθ + e− jθ
(a) coth q
(b) tanh q
(c) j tan (θ )
(d) cot q
e jθ + e− jθ
e jθ − e− jθ
(a) coth q
(b) tanh q
(c) − jcot (θ )
(d) jcot (θ )
eθ − e−θ
eθ + e−θ
(a) coth q
(b) tanh q
(c) tan q
(d) cot q
eθ + e−θ
eθ − e−θ
(a) coth q
(b) tanh q
(c) tan q
(d) cot q
1
105. The real part of is equal to
3+2 j
(a) 3 / 13
(b) -2 / 13
(c) 1 / 13
(d) 2 / 13
1
106. The imaginary part of is equal to
3+2 j
(a) 3 / 13
(b) -2 / 13
(c) 1 / 13
(d) 2 / 13
107. The magnitude of 4 - 3 j is equal to
(a) 5
(b) 25
(c) 1
(d) 7
108. Given a scalar function V , the curl of the gradient ∇ × ∇V is
(a) zero
(b) equal to the Laplacian ∇ V
2
(c) not given by a specific identity

109. Given a vector function F , the divergence of the curl ∇ ⋅ ( ∇ × F ) is
(a) zero
(b) equal to the vector Laplacian ∇ F
2
(c) not given by a specific identity

110. Given a vector function F, the curl of the curl ∇ × ( ∇ × F ) is

(a) zero
(b) equal to the vector Laplacian ∇ F
2
(c) equal to ∇ ( ∇ ⋅ F ) − ∇ F
2
(d) there is no specific identity

111. The Laplacian of a vector field ∇ F is
2
(a) defined the same way as the scalar Laplacian

(b) defined as ∇ ( ∇ ⋅ F ) − ∇ × ( ∇ × F )
(c) defined as ∇ × ( ∇ × F )
(d) zero
sinh ( x )
112. The integral ∫ cosh ( x ) e dx is best solved using
(a) integration by parts
(b) u-substitution
(c) trig substitution
(d) numerical solution
6 x2 − 2 x + 3
113. The integral ∫ 2 x3 − x2 + 3 x + 11 dx is best solved using
(a) integration by parts
(b) u-substitution
(c) trig substitution
(d) numerical solution
x2 x3
114. The series 1 + x + + +  is
2! 3!
x
(a) e
(b) sin ( x )
(c) cos ( x )
(d) tan ( x )
x3 2 5
115. The series x + + x +  is
3 15
x
(a) e
(b) sin ( x )
(c) cos ( x )
(d) tan ( x )
x 3 x 5 x7
116. The series x − + − +  is
3 ! 5! 7 !
x
(a) e
(b) sin ( x )
(c) cos ( x )
(d) tan ( x )
x2 x 4 x6
117. The series 1 − + − +  is
2! 4! 6!
x
(a) e
(b) sin ( x )
(c) cos ( x )
(d) tan ( x )
1 1 1
118. f ( x ) = f ( a ) + f ′ ( a ) ( x − a ) + f ′′ ( a ) ( x − a ) +  is a
2
0! 1! 2!
(a) Taylor series
(b) Maclaurin series when a = 0
(c) divergent series
(d) both (a) and (b)
2
ELECTRICAL MACHINES
1. The left-hand rule is applicable to a
(a) generator (b) motor
(c) transformer (d) (a) and (b) both
(e) (a) or (b)
2. The eddy current losses in the transformer will be reduced if
(a) the laminations are thick
(b) number of turns in the primary winding is reduced
(c) the number of turns in the secondary winding is reduced
(d) the laminations are thin
3. The speed of a D.C. series motor at no load is
(a) zero (b) 1500 R.P.M.
(c) infinity (d) 3000 R.P.M.
(e) none of the above
4. A sinusoidal voltage of frequency 1 Hz is applied to the field of a D.C.
generator. The armature voltage will be
(a) 1 Hz square wave (b) 1 Hz sinusoidal voltage
(c) D.C. voltage (d) none of the above
5. The function of the commutator in a D.C. machine is
(a) to change alternating current to a direct current
(b) to improve commutation
(c) for easy control
(d) to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
6. The phase sequence of voltage generated in the alternator can be reversed by

reversing its field current.
(a) true (b) false
7. The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be reversed by
interchanging any two of the supply phases.
(a) true (b) false
8. The starting torque of the three-phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing the rotor reactance (b) increasing the rotor resistance
(c) increasing the stator resistance (d) none of the above
9. In the induction motor the torque is
(a) proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
(d) none of the above
10. The single-phase induction motor (capacitor start capacitor run) basically is a
(a) single-phase motor (b) two-phase motor
(c) A.C. series motor (d) none of the above
11. For the equal output the total current is more in
(a) wave winding (b) lap winding
(c) simplex lap winding (d) none of the above
12. The maximum starting torque in the induction motor is developed when
(a) the reactance of the rotor is half of the resistance
(b) the reactance of the rotor is twice the rotor resistance
(c) the reactance of the rotor is equal to the rotor resistance
13. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed
(a) by interchanging supply terminals
(b) by interchanging field terminals
(c) either (a) or (b)
ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 31
14. A D.C. shunt generator driven at a normal speed in the normal direction fails
to build up armature voltage because
(a) the resistance of armature is high
(b) field current is not sufficiently high
(c) there is no residual magnetism
(d) field winding has small number of turns
15. The skin effect can be reduced
(a) by increasing the radius of the conductor
(b) by decreasing the radius of the conductor
(c) by increasing the frequency of the supply
(d) if the hollow conductor is used
(e) (b) and (d) both
16. If a D.C. motor is connected across A.C. supply, the D.C. motor will
(a) burn as the eddy currents in the field produce heat
(b) run at its normal speed
(c) run at a lower speed
(d) run continuously but the sparking takes place at the brushes
17. What would happen if the field of a D.C. shunt motor is opened?
(a) The speed of the motor will be reduced
(b) It will continue to run at its normal speed
(c) The speed of the motor will be enormously high and might destroy itself
(d) The current in the armature will increase
18. A single-phase induction motor can be run on two or three-phase lines.
(a) true (b) false
19. What is standard direction of rotation of a motor?
(a) Clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor
(b) Counter-clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor
20. If the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited the power factor will be
(a) lagging (b) leading
(c) unity (d) more than unity
21. The rotation of wound-rotor induction motor can be reversed by

(a) transposing any two leads from the slip rings
(b) transposing any two-line leads
(c) none of the above
22. A split-phase motor has high starting torque.
(a) true (b) false
23. The direction of rotation of a split-phase motor can be reversed
(a) by reversing the leads of main winding
(b) by reversing the leads of auxiliary winding
(c) (a) and (c) both
24. The capacitor-start motor has a high starting torque.
(a) true (b) false
25. A universal motor can be run either on A.C. or D.C.
(a) true (b) false
26. The phase relationship between the primary and secondary voltages of a
transformer is
(a) 90 degrees out of phase (b) in the same phase
(c) 180 degrees out of phase (d) none of the above
27. A four-point starter in the D.C. motor is used
(a) to increase the field current
(b) to decrease the field current
(c) not to affect the current passing through HOLD ON coil even if any
change in the field current takes place
28. Which of the following motors is used in locomotive motor drives?
(a) A.C. series motor (b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) Synchronous motor
29. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) A.C. series motor
30. The efficiency of D.C. shunt generator is maximum when

(a) magnetic losses are equal to mechanical losses
(b) armature copper losses are equal to constant losses
(c) field copper losses are equal to constant losses
(d) stray losses are equal to copper losses
31. In the case of D.C. shunt generation, the shunt copper loss is practically
constant.
(a) true (b) false
32. Armature reaction is attributed to
(a) the effect of magnetic field set up field current
(b) the effect of the magnetic field set up by armature current
(c) the effect of the magnetic field set up by back E.M.F.
33. The dummy coil in D.C. machines is used to
(a) eliminate armature reaction
(b) bring out mechanical balance of armature
(c) eliminate reactance voltage
34. Equalizer rings in the D.C. generator (lap winding) are used
(a) to avoid unequal distribution of current at the brushes, thereby helping
to get sparkless commutation
(b) to avoid harmonics developed in the machine
(c) to avoid noise developed in the machine
(d) to avoid overhang
35. The speed of the D.C. motor decreases as the flux in the field winding
decreases.
(a) true (b) false
36. The sparking at the brushes in the D.C. generator is attributed to
(a) quick reversal of current in the coil under commutation
(b) armature reaction
(c) reactance voltage
(d) high resistance of the brushes
37. Interpoles in the armature of a D.C. generator are used

(a) to neutralize the reactance voltage only
(b) to neutralize the reactance voltage and cross-magnetizing effect of
armature reaction
(c) to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction only
38. The transformer is not used in the D.C. line because
(a) there is no need to step up the D.C. voltage
(b) losses in the D.C. circuit are high
(c) Faraday’s low is not valid as the rate of change of flux is zero
(d) harmonics developed in the transformer will cause distortion in the
voltage
39. The transformer is analogous to gear trains.
(a) true (b) false
40. D.C. shunt generators are not suited for parallel operation because of their
slightly drooping voltage characteristics.
(a) true (b) false
41. The relationship between no-load generated E.M.F. in the armature and field
excitation of a D.C. generator is known as
(a) internal characteristic of generator
(b) external characteristic of generator
(c) magnetic characteristic or open circuit characteristic of generator
(d) total characteristic of generator
42. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) armature (b) load
(c) field (d) brushes
43. When a bank of two single-phase transformers in an open delta arrangement
is used, each of them supplies
(a) 33.3% of its output rating (b) 86.6% of its output rating
(c) 48.6% of its output rating (d) 100% of its output rating
44. Two single-phase transformers with proper connections can be used to
achieve a three-phase output from three-phase input.
(a) true (b) false
45. A thicker wire is used in the D.C. series field winding than D.C. shunt field
winding in D.C. machines
(a) to prevent mechanical vibrations
(b) to produce large flux
(c) because it carries the load current which is much higher than shunt field
current for the same rating of D.C. machines
(d) to provide strength
46. Transformer core is laminated
(a) because it is difficult to fabricate solid core
(b) because laminated core provides high flux density
(c) to avoid eddy current and hysteresis losses
(d) to increase the main flux
47. The mechanical power developed by the D.C. motor is maximum when
(a) back E.M.F. is equal to applied voltage
(b) back E.M.F. is equal to zero
(c) back E.M.F. is equal to half the applied voltage
48. Which motor is used to drive constant speed line shafting, lathes, blowers,
and fans?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) D.C. series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor (d) None of the above
49. In series-parallel control method when two D.C. series motors are connected
in series, the speed of the set is
(a) half of the speed of the motors when connected in parallel
(b) one-fourth of the speed of motors when connected in parallel
(c) same as in parallel
(d) rated speed of any one of the motors
50. The torque produced by series combination of two D.C. series motors is
(a) equal to the torque when they are connected in parallel
(b) half of the torque when they are connected in parallel
(c) four times the torque when they are connected in parallel
(d) twice the torque when they are connected in parallel
51. The use of the starter in D.C. motors is necessary because

(a) they are not self-starting
(b) initially there is no back E.M.F. and armature current is very high, which
is to be avoided by using high resistance starter
(c) to overcome back E.M.F.
52. The speed of the D.C. motor can be varied
(a) by varying field current only
(b) by varying field current or armature resistance
(c) by varying supply voltage only
(d) (b) or (c)
53. Electrical energy can be converted into chemical energy.
(a) true (b) false
54. The mercury-arc rectifier can be used as an inverter.
(a) true (b) false
55. The hum in the transformer is mainly attributed to
(a) laminations of the transformer (b) magnetostriction
(c) oil of the transformer (d) walls of the tanks
56. To obtain a sinusoidal voltage the poles should have a shape such that the
length of the air gap at any point is
(a) proportional to 1/sin q, where q is the angle measured in electrical
degrees between the point in the question and the center of the pole
(b) proportional to 1/cos q, where q is same as defined in (a)
(c) proportional to sin q
(d) proportional to cos q
57. The power transformer is a
(a) constant current device (b) constant main flux device
(c) constant voltage device (d) constant power device
58. An induction motor is
(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with small torque rather than rated torque
59. As the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) increase proportionately (b) remain almost constant
(c) increase slightly (d) reduce slightly
60. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon
their
(a) ratings (b) leakage reactance
(c) efficiency (d) per unit impedance
61. The equalizer rings are used in
(a) lap winding (b) wave winding
(c) multilayer wave winding (d) none of the above
62. The generator is called flat compounded if
(a) the series field ampere turns are such as to produce the same voltage at
rated load as at no load
(b) the series field turns are such that the rated load voltage is greater than
no-load voltage
(c) the rated voltage is less than the no-load voltage
63. The slip test is used
(a) to measure the slip of the induction motor
(b) to measure the torque of the induction motor
(c) to measure the Xd and Xq of the alternator
(d) for none of the above
64. What will happen if the back E.M.F. in the D.C. motor absent?
(a) Motor will run faster than rated value
(b) Motor will burn
(c) Armature drop will be reduced substantially
(d) None of the above
65. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) armature current only (b) field flux only
(c) armature current and flux both (d) none of the above
66. The back E.M.F. has no relation with armature torque in D.C. motors.
(a) true (b) false
67. The speed of the D.C. shunt motor increases as the armature torque
increases.
(a) true (b) false
68. The horsepower obtained from the shaft torque is called
(a) indicated horsepower or I.H.P. (b) brake horsepower or B.H.P.
(c) F.H.P. (d) none of the above
69. For D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back E.M.F. only because
(a) flux is practically constant in D.C. shunt motors
(b) flux is proportional to armature current
(c) armature drop is negligible
(d) back E.M.F. is equal to armature drop
70. It is preferable to start a D.C. series motor with some mechanical load
because
(a) it may develop excessive speed otherwise and damage itself
(b) it will not run at no load
(c) a little load will act as a starter to the motor
71. When the torque of the D.C. series motor is doubled the power is increased
by
(a) 70% (b) 50% to 60%
(c) 20% (d) 100%
72. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar
is used
(a) because two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to
the load
(b) to reduce the combined effect of armature reaction of both machines
(c) to increase the speed and hence generated E.M.F.
(d) to increase the series flux
73. The speed of D.C. motors can be controlled by
(a) controlling flux only
(b) controlling flux, armature resistance, and voltage
(c) controlling voltage and flux only
(d) controlling armature resistance and voltage only
74. The diverter in D.C. machine is basically a potential divider.

(a) true (b) false
75. The speed/current curve for a D.C. series motor with resistance in series
field will lie above the curve without resistance in series field.
(a) true (b) false
76. A diverter across the armature of a D.C. motor cannot be used for giving
speeds lower than the rated speed.
(a) true (b) false
77. The field flux of the D.C. motor can be controlled to achieve
(a) speeds above the rated speed
(b) speeds lower than rated speed
(c) speeds above and below the rated speed
(d) steady speed
78. The reversal of rotation of motors and as electric braking is known as
(a) regenerative braking
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
79. Which of the following methods of braking is used in rolling mills?
(a) Plugging (b) Regenerative braking
(c) Dynamic braking (d) Mechanical brakes
80. The regenerative method of braking is based on the fact that
(a) the back E.M.F. of the motor is more than the applied voltage
(b) the back E.M.F. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) the back E.M.F. is less than the applied voltage
81. Swinburne’s test is applied to
(a) those machines in which the flux is practically constant
(b) those machines in which flux is varying
(c) those machines in which flux is proportional to armature current
82. The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and generators and is used
to find
(a) stray losses (b) copper losses
(c) eddy current losses (d) friction losses
83. In the load Field’s test, two similar D.C. series machines are mechanically
coupled. The output of the generator is fed to the resistance and hence is
called the regenerative test.
(a) true (b) false
84. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
(a) reduces the weight per KVA
(b) increases the weight per KVA
(c) has no relation with the weight of the transformer
(d) increases the weight per KW
85. The oil used in the small transformer provides
(a) cooling only (b) insulation only
(c) insulation and cooling both (d) lubrication only
86. The oil used in the transformer should be free from moisture because
(a) moisture will reduce the density of the oil, which is slightly undesirable
(b) moisture will reduce the dielectric strength of the oil and hence
insulation is weakened
(c) moisture will reduce the lubricating property of the oil
(d) moisture will develop rust
87. ASKARELS is the trade name given to
(a) natural mineral oil used in the transformer
(b) synthetic insulating fluids used in the transformer
(c) insulating materials for transformers
(d) insulating materials for motors and generators
88. The conservator is used in the transformer
(a) to supply oil to the transformer whenever needed
(b) to protect the transformer from damage when oil expands due to rise in
temperature. It stores the increasing volume of the oil
(c) to provide fresh air to cool down the oil
(d) to store water for transformer cooling
89. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Induction coil works on A.C.
(b) Transformer is used to step up the potential of D.C.
(c) The output current of induction coil is nearly unindirectional
(d) In step-down transformers, the transformation ratio is always greater
than one
90. The induced E.M.F. in the transformer secondary will depend on
(a) frequently of the supply only
(b) number of turns in secondary only
(c) maximum flux in core and frequency only
(d) frequency, flux, and number of turns in the secondary
91. No-load primary input is practically equal to the iron loss in the transformer
because primary current is very small.
(a) true (b) false
92. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the
transformation ratio, then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to
primary will be
(a) R2 / K2 (b) R22 / K2
(c) R2 / K (d) R2 / √K
93. A transformer with magnetic leakage is equivalent to an ideal transformer
with inductive coils connected in both primary and secondary.
(a) true (b) false
94. The leakage flux links both windings of the transformer and hence
contributes to the transfer of energy from primary of the transformer to
secondary.
(a) true (b) false
95. The vector diagram of the three-phase transformer is equivalent to the vector
diagram of three-phase induction motor with short circuited secondary. If
the secondary of the transformer is wound on a shaft and treated as rotor
and primary is fed three-phase supply, the rotor will run and behave like an
induction motor.
(a) true (b) false
96. The short-circuit test in the transformer is used to determine

(a) the iron loss at any load
(b) the copper loss at any load or at full load
(c) the hysteresis loss
(d) the eddy current loss
97. If the power factor is leading, the regulation of a good transformer will be
higher than when it is lagging.
(a) true (b) false
98. A good transformer must have regulation as high as possible.
(a) true (b) false
99. The percentage resistance, reactance, and impedance are the same whether
referring to primary or secondary of the transformer.
(a) true (b) false
100. Which of the following electrical machines has the highest efficiency?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Transformer
(c) Induction motor
(d) Synchronous motor
101. The efficiency of the transformer is independent of power factor.
(a) true (b) false
102. The condition for maximum efficiency of the transformer is that
(a) copper losses are half of iron losses
(b) copper losses are equal to iron losses
(c) copper losses are negligible in comparison to iron losses
(d) iron losses are zero
103. If the iron loss and full load copper losses are given, then the load at which
two losses would be equal (i.e. corresponding to maximum efficiency) is given
by
iron loss (iron loss)2
(a) full load × (b) full load ×
f.l.cu−loss f.l.cu−loss
iron loss f.l.cu−loss
(c) full load × (d) full load ×
f.l.cu−loss iron loss
104. The distribution transformers are designed to keep core losses minimum, and
copper losses are relatively less important because
(a) the primary of such transformers is energized for all twenty-four hours
and core losses occur throughout the day, whereas copper losses will
occur only when secondary is supplying load
(b) core losses are always more than copper losses
(c) core losses may destroy the insulation
(d) core losses will heat up the oil of the transformer rapidly
105. The tapping in the transformer is always provided in the low voltage side.
(a) true (b) false
106. Enumerate the conditions for successful parallel operation of single-phase
transformers.
(i) The percentage impedance should be equal
(ii) The transformers should be properly connected with regards to polarity
(iii) The primary windings of the transformers should be suitable for the
supply system voltage and frequency
(iv) The voltage ratings of transformers of primary and secondary windings
should be identical
107. What will happen if transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regards to polarity?
(a) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short-circuit
(b) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their KVA ratings
(c) The power factors of two transformers will be different from the power
factor of common load
108. What will happen if the percentage impedances of the two transformers
working in parallel are different?
(a) Parallel operation will not be possible
(b) Parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the
two transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the
common load
(c) Transformers will be over-heated
(d) Power factors of both transformers will be same
109. Which of the following connections is most suitable and economical for
small, high-voltage transformers?
(a) Delta-delta connection (b) Star-star connection
(c) Star-delta connection (d) Delta-star connection
110. Delta-delta connection is economical for large, low-voltage transformers in
which insulation problems are not urgent.
(a) true (b) false
111. The average power factor at which an open-delta bank of single-phase
transformers operates is less than that of load.
(a) true (b) false
112. The Scott connection is used
(a) to accomplish three-phase to three-phase transformation only
(b) to accomplish three-phase to two-phase transformation only
(c) to accomplish three-phase to three-phase and three-phase to two-phase
transformation
113. Under balanced load conditions, the main transformer rating in the Scott
connection is
(a) 10% greater than the teaser transformer
(b) 15% greater than the teaser transformer
(c) 57.7% greater than the teaser transformer
(d) 66.6% greater than the teaser transformer
114. If the load is balanced on one side of the transformer in the Scott connection,
the load is balanced on the other side as well.
(a) true (b) false
115. If K is the transformation ratio of the main transformer in the Scott
connection then the transformation ratio of the teaser will be
(a) K / √3 (b) √3 / 2K (c) 2K / √3 (d) √K / 2
116. The rotor slots are usually given slight skew in the squirrel case indication
motor
(a) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars and hence strength
(b) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(c) to see the copper used
(d) because of ease in fabrication
117. The starting torque of the slip-ring induction motor can be increased by
(a) adding external resistance to the rotor
(b) adding external inductance to the rotor
(c) adding both resistance and inductance to the rotor
(d) adding external capacitance to the rotor
118. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and
rotor of the induction motor is zero?
(a) The rotor will not run
(b) The rotor will run at very high speed
(c) The slip of the motor will be zero
(d) The torque produced will be very large
119. When the rotor starts rotating the frequency of the rotor of the induction
motor will depend on relative speed of the stator and the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
120. A 400 KW, 3 Phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz A.C. induction motor has a speed of
950 R.P.M. on full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of machine will be
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.05
121. If the rotor of the induction motor is assumed non-inductive, the torque
acting on each conductor will be positive or undirectional.
(a) true (b) false
122. Which of the following statements is most appropriate if T is the starting
torque developed in the rotor and V is the supply voltage to the stator?
(a) T is proportional to V2
(b) T is proportional to V
(c) T is proportional to √V
(d) T is proportional to V1/4
123. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a
change of approximately
(a) 5% in the rotor torque
(b) 7% in the rotor torque
(c) 25% in the rotor torque
(d) 10% in the rotor torque
124. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is

maximum
(a) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to
the resistance per phase
(b) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
resistance
(c) at the unit value of the slip
(d) at the zero value of the slip
125. By varying the rotor resistance in the slip-ring induction motor the maximum
torque can be achieved at any desired slip or speed of the motor.
(a) true (b) false
126. The maximum torque of an induction motor varies directly as applied
voltage.
(a) true (b) false
127. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is
(a) hyperbola (b) parabola
(c) straight line (d) rectangular parabola
128. Which of the following statements is correct when referred to an induction
motor?
(a) The maximum torque will depend on rotor resistance
(b) Although the maximum torque does not depend on rotor resistance, the
exact location of maximum torque is dependent on it
(c) The maximum torque will depend on the standstill reactance of the rotor
(d) The slip of the induction motor decreases as the torque increases
129. If an induction motor has a slip of 2% at normal voltage, what will be the
approximate slip when developing the same torque at 10% above normal
voltage?
(a) 1.6% (b) 2% (c) 1.65% (d) 1.1%
130. The slip of the induction motor can be measured by comparing the rotor and
stator supply frequencies.
(a) true (b) false
131. When the frequency of the rotor of an induction motor is small, it can be
measured by a
(a) galvanometer
(b) D.C. moving coil millivoltmeter
(c) D.C. moving coil ammeter
(d) A.C. voltmeter
132. The rotor efficiency of induction motor is called
(a) I.H.P. (b) F.H.P.
(c) B.H.P. (d) none of the above
133. The rotor efficiency of an induction motor is defined as the ratio of the actual
speed of the rotor to the synchronous speed of the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
134. The synchronous watt can be defined as
(a) the unit of rating of a synchronous machine
(b) the unit of torque defined at radius unit
(c) the torque which, at the synchronous speed of the machine under
consideration, would develop a power of 1 watt
(d) the unit of the power when the power factor in the power equation is
omitted
135. The synchronous wattage of an induction motor equals the power transferred
across the air gap to the rotor in the induction motor.
(a) true (b) false
136. When it is said that an induction motor is developing a torque of 900
synchronous watts, it means that the rotor input is 900 watts, and that torque
is such that the power developed would be 900 watts, provided the rotor was
running synchronously and developing the same torque.
(a) true (b) false
137. The power output of an induction motor will be maximum when
(a) the equivalent load resistance is equal to the standstill reactance of the
motor
(b) the equivalent load resistance is equal to the resistance of the rotor
(c) the equivalent resistance is equal to the standstill leakage impedance of
the motor
(d) the slip is zero
138. The complete circle diagram of an induction motor can be drawn with the
help of data found from
(a) no load test
(b) blocked rotor test
(c) (a) and (d) both
(d) (a), (b), and stator resistance test
139. The transformation ratio of the induction motor cannot be defined in terms
of stator and rotor currents.
(a) true (b) false
140. The maximum torque of an induction motor varies directly as standstill
reactance of the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
141. The value of the transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by
(a) short circuit test only (b) open circuit test only
(c) slip test (d) stator resistance test
142. The power scale of the circle diagram of an induction motor can be found
from
(a) no load test only (b) short circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test (d) none of the above
143. The starting torque of an induction motor cannot be determined from the
circle diagram.
(a) true (b) false
144. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of an induction motor and use the starter
because
(a) starting torque is very high
(b) the motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(c) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(d) it will run in reverse direction
145. The induced E.M.F. in the rotor of an induction motor is proportional to
(a) supply voltage only
(b) relative velocity between flux and rotor conductors
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) slip
146. The relation between maximum torque and full load torque (Tmax, Tf
respectively) when referred to an induction motor is given by
Tƒ 2a Tƒ 2
(a) = (b)
Tmax (a2 + s2) Tmax = (a2 + s2)
Tƒ 2as Tƒ a
(c) = (d)
Tmax (a2 + s2) Tmax = (a2 + s2)
where s is the slip and
R2 Resistance of the rotor

a= =
X2 Reactance of the rotor
147. In the above question the relation between standstill torque (Ts) and
maximum torque (Tmax) is given by
Ts 2a Ts 2a
(a) (b)
Tmax = 1 + a2 Tmax = s2 + a2
Ts 2 Ts 2a
(c) (d)
Tmax = 1 + s2 Tmax = s2 + 1
148. The slip of the induction motor can be calculated if the rotor copper losses
and rotor input are known.
(a) true (b) false
149. The auto-starters (using three auto-transformers) can be used to start cage-
induction motors of the following type:
(a) star connected only (b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) none of the above
150. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with auto-starter is
(a) K × torque with direct switching
(b) K/torque with direct switching
(c) K2 × torque with direct switching
(d) K2/torque with direct switching
where tapping of transformation ratio K is used in case of auto-transformer.
151. Percentage tapping required of an auto-transformer for a cage motor to start
the motor against 1 of full load will be
4
(a) 70% (b) 71%
(c) 71.5% (d) 72.2%
when the short-circuit current on normal voltage is 4 times the full load and
full load slip is 30%.
152. The start-delta switch is equivalent to the auto-transformer of ratio (when
applied to delta-connected cage-induction motor)
(a) 57% (b) 56.5%
(c) 86.6% (d) 58% approximately
153. The rotor current can be reduced by introducing a star-connected resistance
starter in the rotor circuit of the cage motor and slip ring motor as well.
(a) true (b) false
154. The slip-ring motor can be started under load conditions.
(a) true (b) false
155. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
(a) improper design of the machine
(b) low voltage supply
(c) high loads
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
156. Cogging in the induction motor usually occurs at high voltage.
(a) true (b) false
157. The outer cage in the double squirrel cage motor has low-resistance copper
bars.
(a) true (b) false
158. The torque/speed characteristics of a double squirrel cage-induction motor
may be taken to be sum of two motors, one having a high resistance rotor and
other a low resistance one.
(a) true (b) false
159. When the equivalent circuit diagram of double squirrel cage-induction motor
is constructed the two rotor cages can be considered
(a) in parallel (b) in series parallel
(c) in series (d) in parallel with stator
160. The speed of the cage-induction motor cannot be controlled from the rotor
side.
(a) true (b) false
161. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of
the squirrel cage-induction motor?
(a) Rotor rheostat control
(b) Operating two motors in cascade
(c) Injecting an E.M.F. in the rotor circuit
(d) Changing the number of stator poles
162. Rotor rheostat control to control the speed of the induction motor is only
applicable to slip-ring induction motors.
(a) true (b) false
163. The injected E.M.F. in the rotor of an induction motor must have
(a) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(b) the same phase as the rotor E.M.F.
(c) high value for satisfactory speed control
(d) zero frequency
164. The additional stator winding is used in the compensated repulsion motor
(a) to improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(b) to eliminate armature reaction
(c) to prevent hunting in the motor
(d) to provide mechanical balance
165. Repulsion start induction-run motors can be applicable to commercial
refrigerators.
(a) true (b) false
166. The rotation of the repulsion induction motor can be reversed by the usual
brush shifting arrangement.
(a) true (b) false
167. The power factor improvement of an A.C. series motor is possible by
(a) increasing the magnitude of inductance and armature winding
(b) decreasing the magnitude of reactance and armature winding
(c) equalizing the armature resistance to armature reactance
168. If the number of the turns on the field winding in an A.C. series motor is
decreased, the speed of the motor increases but torque decreases.
The same torque can be achieved by
(a) increasing the number of turns on armature winding proportionately
(b) decreasing the number of turns on armature winding
(c) increasing armature resistance
(d) equalizing the armature resistance to the armature reactance
169. In conductively-compensated A.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
(a) connected in parallel with the armature
(b) short circuited and has no interconnection with the motor circuit
(c) connected in series with the armature
170. The current in inductively compensated winding of the A.C. series motor is
proportional to the armature current and 180 degrees out of phase.
(a) true (b) false
171. The huge voltage, induced in the short-circuited coil (by transformer action)
of an A.C. series motor when commutation takes place is neutralized by
(a) increasing inductance of the compensating winding
(b) increasing resistance of the compensating winding
(c) decreasing the number of turns in the compensating winding
(d) shunting the winding of each commutating pole with non-inductive
resistance
172. A universal motor is defined as a motor which may be operated either on
D.C. or single-phase A.C. supply at
(a) same output but different speeds
(b) same speed and different output
(c) approximately same output and same speed
(d) synchronous speed
173. It is preferred to use single turn coil in the armature of the single-phase A.C.
series motors
(a) to facilitate commutation and avoid sparking at the brushes
(b) to reduce the resistance of the armature
(c) to reduce the reactance of the armature
(d) to reduce the weight of the armature
174. Which of the following motors is an unexcited single-phase synchronous

motor?
(a) A.C. series motor (b) Universal motor
(c) Repulsion motor (d) Reluctance motor
175. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and
many kinds of timers?
(a) D.C. series motor (b) A.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor (d) Reluctance motor
176. Wide-open type slots in the design of the stator of an alternator will present
which of the following disadvantages?
(a) The size of the machine will increase
(b) The size of the stator will increase
(c) Air gap flux is distributed in the tufts and produce ripples in the wave of
generated E.M.F.
177. What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo-alternators which are designed
to run at high speed?
(a) Salient pole type (b) Non-salient pole type
(c) (a) or (b) (d) None of the above
178. The power developed in the alternator having a salient type rotor is less than
that of having a non-salient pole.
(a) true (b) false
179. The damping winding in synchronous motors is often used
(a) to prevent hunting only
(b) to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(c) to maintain proper synchronism
(d) to provide the starting torque only
180. Turbo-alternators are seldom characterized by small diameters and very long
axial or rotor length.
(a) true (b) false
181. The maximum speed of an alternator at power frequency of 50 Hz will be
(a) 3600 R.P.M. (b) 3300 R.P.M.
(c) 3000 R.P.M. (d) 1500 R.P.M.
182. Which of following statements is correct?

(a) Short pitched coils in the alternators are used to reduce the size of the
machines
(b) Short pitched coils are used to reduce the harmonics or to eliminate the
harmonics from the generated E.M.F.
(c) Short pitched coils are used to provide accurate phase difference of 120
degree to one phase to other
(d) Short pitched coils are used to reduce copper losses
183. The disadvantage of using short pitched coils in the alternator is that
(a) total induced E.M.F. is increased
(b) total induced voltage is reduced
(c) total induced voltage is distorted
(d) total induced voltage is more and hence more insulation is required
184. The coil span factor is defined as
(a) vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
terminal voltage of the generator
(b) arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
(c) vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
(d) arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
terminal voltage of the generator
185. The induced E.M.F. in an alternator with distributed winding is always more
than that of one with concentrating winding.
(a) true (b) false
186. A three-phase, 4-pole, 24-slots alternator has its armature coil short pitched
by one slot. The distribution factor of the alternator will be
(a) 0.96 (b) 0.9
(c) 0.933 (d) 0.966
187. In case of an alternator, the power factor of the load has a considerable effect
on the armature reaction, unlike D.C. generators.
(a) true (b) false
188. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator
will be
(a) demagnetizing
(b) cross-magnetizing
(c) square waveform
(d) in phase with current
189. When the load has power factor zero lagging, the main flux of the alternator
will decrease.
(a) true (b) false
190. The armature reaction of an alternator will be completely magnetizing when
(a) load power factor is unity
(b) load power factor is zero lagging
(c) load power factor is zero leading
(d) load power factor is 7.0 lagging
191. Synchronous reactance is defined as the
(a) reactance due to armature reaction of the machine
(b) reactance of synchronous machine
(c) reactance due to leakage flux
(d) combined reactance due to leakage of flux and armature reaction
192. In case of leading load power factor, the terminal voltage of alternator will
fall on removing the full load.
(a) true (b) false
193. The rise of the voltage of alternator when the load is thrown off is same as
the fall in the voltage when full load is applied.
(a) true (b) false
194. Give the three methods of determining the voltage regulation of the
alternator.
(i) Synchronous Impedance Method
(ii) M.M.F. Method
(iii) Potier Triangle Method
195. The synchronous impedance method will not give accurate voltage regulation
because
(a) the value of synchronous impedance found is always less than actual
value
(b) the value of synchronous impedance found is always less than the actual
value
(c) the value of the synchronous impedance is independent of saturation
(d) the reactance due to armature reaction is considered separately
196. The value of the voltage regulation found by the M.M.F. method is always
less than the actual value.
(a) true (b) false
197. Which of the following methods is better to find the voltage regulation?
(a) M.M.F. Method
(b) Potier Triangle Method
(c) Synchronous Impedance Method
198. The operation of connecting an alternator in parallel with another alternator
or with common bus bar is known as
(a) proper machine (b) mechanizing
(c) synchronizing (d) asynchronizing
199. Give the three conditions for the proper synchronization of an alternator.
(i) The terminal voltage for the incoming alternator must be same as bus bar
voltage
(ii) The speed of the incoming machine must be such that its frequency
(= PN/120) equals bus bar frequency
(iii) The phase of the alternator voltage must be identical with the phase of
the bus bar voltage. It means that switch must be closed at (or very near)
the instant of the two voltages have correct relationship
200. In three-phase alternators, it is necessary to synchronize one phase only; the
other phases will be synchronized automatically.
(a) true (b) false
201. When the alternators are running in proper synchronism the synchronizing
power will be zero.
(a) true (b) false
202. If the two alternators are running in proper synchronism and the voltage of
one machine is suddenly increased
(a) the machines will burn
(b) both machines will stop
(c) the synchronization torque will be produced to restore further
synchronism
(d) synchronization cannot be attained automatically
203. If the input to the prime-mover of an alternator is kept constant but the
excitation is changed, then
(a) the reactive component of the output is changed
(b) the active component of the output is changed
(c) the power factor of the load remains constant
(d) (a) and (b) takes place simultaneously
204. The load taken up by the alternator directly depends upon the driving
torque, or in other words, upon the angular advance of its rotor.
(a) true (b) false
205. A synchronous motor is inherently a self-starting motor.
(a) true (b) false
206. The working of a synchronous motor is, in many ways, similar to
(a) the power transformer (b) the hydraulic motor
(c) the gear train arrangement
(d) the transmission of mechanical power by a shaft
207. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as
(a) the angle between the rotor and the stator poles of same polarity
(b) the angle between the rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) the angle between the rotor and the stator teeth
208. The coupling angle of a synchronous motor is independent of load.
(a) true (b) false
209. The torque developed by the synchronous motor is independent of the
coupling angle.
(a) true (b) false
210. The back E.M.F. set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the rotor excitation and speed both
(c) the rotor speed only
(d) the coupling angle only
211. If the synchronous motor (properly synchronized to the supply) is running on
no load and is having negligible loss, then
(a) the stator current will be very high
(b) the stator current will be zero
(c) the stator current will be very small
(d) the back E.M.F. will be more than the supply voltage
212. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
(a) the supply voltage only
(b) the rotor excitation only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply voltage both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle
(90 degrees)
213. The armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) has large values for low excitation only
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
(d) has large current for lagging excitation
214. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) corresponds to 0.8 power factor
(b) corresponds to zero power factor
(c) corresponds to 0.866 power factor
(d) corresponds to unity power factor
215. The synchronous motor can be used as phase advancer.
(a) true (b) false
216. A synchronous capacitor is nothing but a synchronous motor running on no
load with over-excitation.
(a) true (b) false
217. If the field of the synchronous motor is left short circuited and connected to
supply through an auto-transformer
(a) the motor will run at its normal speed
(b) the motor will just crawl
(c) the motor will run as an induction motor
(d) the armature will burn because there is no back E.M.F. in the armature
218. The synchronous motor can be operated at desired power factor by varying
the excitation to the motor.
(a) true (b) false
219. The rotary convertor can be used to
(a) convert A.C. to D.C.
(b) convert D.C. to A.C.
(c) convert linear motion to rotary motion
(d) (a) and (b) both
220. A rotary convertor is used to convert A.C. to D.C. but cannot be used to
convert D.C. to A.C.
(a) true (b) false
221. A 2-kW single-phase rotary convertor operates at full load from 230 volts
A.C. source. Assuming unity power factor and 100% efficiency the D.C.
current will be
(a) 6 A (b) 6.15 A
(c) 8.7 A (d) 5 A
222. A rotary convertor can be run as a
(a) induction motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) D.C. series motor
(d) D.C. compound motor
223. In the operation of poly-phase rotary convertors, which of the following
should be introduced between the A.C. sources and slip rings?
(a) Amplifier (b) Rectifier
(c) Transformer (d) Diode
224. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous invertor
(b) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous convertor
(c) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous diverter
(d) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous capacitor
225. Which of the following rotary convertors is used in the standard practice?
(a) Single-phase rotary convertor
(b) Three-phase rotary convertor
(c) Six phase rotary convertor
(d) Twelve phase rotary convertor
226. For a given temperature rise and hence output, a six-phase convertor is
smaller than three- or two-phase convertor.
(a) true (b) false
227. Give the four methods to control D.C. voltage of rotary convertor:
(i) By using tap changing transformer
(ii) Series reactance control method
(iii) Induction regular
(iv) Synchronous booster control method
228. The mercury-arc rectifier is used as
(a) convertor only (b) inventor only
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) transducer
229. The arc between the anode and cathode of a mercury-arc rectifier will persist
(a) when anode is at positive potential with respect to cathode
(b) when anode is at negative potential with respect to cathode
(c) when anode will repel the electrons
(d) when anode is at very low temperature
230. The purpose of introducing a reactor in the ignition circuit of a mercury-arc
rectifier is
(a) to limit the rate of change of flux in the circuit
(b) to limit the voltage of the circuit
(c) to limit the rate of change of the current in the circuit
(d) to limit the current in the circuit
231. The advantage of using a larger phase mercury-arc rectifier is that

(a) they are easily available (b) they work noiselessly
(c) they are very cheap (d) their output is much smoother
232. The utility factor of a mercury-arc rectifier is defined as
actual power wattless power component
(a) (b)
full load rating full load rating
actual power total A.C. input
(c) (d)
half load rating total D.C. output
total D.C. output
(e)
total A.C. input
233. Angle of overlap is related to
(a) diode rectifier (b) silicon-controlled rectifier
(c) mercury-arc rectifier (d) metal rectifier
234. Give the three types of voltage drop when a mercury-arc rectifier is on load:
(i) Reactance drop (ii) Mean resistance drop
(iii) Arc voltage drop
235. The utilization factor of the six-phase mercury-arc rectifier is more than that
of three-phase mercury-arc rectifier.
(a) true (b) false
236. The utilization factor is maximum for
(a) three-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(b) six-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(c) twelve-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(d) single-phase mercury-arc rectifier
237. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased
(a) the power factor will increase
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) the magnetizing current of the rotor will increase
(d) the magnetizing current of the rotor will decrease
(e) the speed of the motor will decrease
238. The squirrel cage-induction motor has

(a) one slip ring (b) two slip rings
(c) three slip rings (d) zero slip rings
239. What will happen if the supply terminals of a D.C. shunt motor are
interchanged?
(a) Motor will stop
(b) Motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction as it was running
(c) The direction of rotation will reverse
(d) Motor speed will increase
240. An amplidyne can be used as
(a) a D.C. series motor (b) a D.C. shunt motor
(c) a D.C. compound motor (d) magnetic amplifier
241. The torque/slip characteristic of induction
motor is shown; which is the unstable A
region?
T
(a) A
(b) B B
(c) C C
D
(d) D S
242. Find the odd man out: Fig. Q. 241.

(a) tachometer (b) voltmeter
(c) ammeter (d) galvanometer
243. The mechanical load across the induction motor is equivalent to electrical
load of
(a) R2 1 + 1 (b) R2 1 − 1
s s
(c) R2 (s − 1) (d) 1/R2 (s − 1)
where R2 is the resistance of the rotor in terms of secondary and s is the slip
of motor.
244. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss
(a) will decrease (b) will increase
(c) will not change (d) will reach nearly zero
245. In D.C. motors, iron losses occur in

(a) the yoke (b) the pole shoe
(c) the armature (d) the field
246. With the use of high flux density in the transformer
(a) the size of core will decrease (b) less copper will be used
(c) core losses will decrease (d) voltage output will decrease
247. The induced E.M.F. in the armature of a D.C. machine rotating in the
stationary field will be
(a) sinusoidal voltage (b) direct voltage
(c) sinusoidal with even harmonics (d) sinusoidal with old harmonics
248. The air gap between poles has
(a) no magnetic field
(b) no magnetic field unless the poles are far apart
(c) a strong magnetic field
(d) a magnetic field if the poles touch
249. Magnetic induction results in
(a) induced poles opposite from the original field poles
(b) induced poles the same as the original field
(c) two north poles
(d) an induced magnetic field but no induced pole
(a) Iron, steel, and nickel are magnetic materials
(b) Copper, iron, steel, and air are magnetic materials
(c) Paper, wood, and steel are magnetic materials
(d) Iron is a magnetic material, but steel is non-magnetic
251. In an electromagnet
(a) current must flow through the coil to produce a magnetic field
(b) the magnetic field has the same strength with or without current
(c) current must flow but no voltage need be applied across the coil
(d) the coil must have high resistance for minimum coil current
252. The motor action in a wire conducting current can be produced

(a) without any additional magnetic field
(b) by moving the conductor from a weaker field towards stronger field
(c) by moving the conductor from stronger field towards weaker field
(d) by producing the motion by other than rotation
253. The requirement for producing induced voltage is
(a) magnetic flux moving across a conductor
(b) magnetic field moving across a dielectric
(c) an insulated wire free from any external magnetic field
(d) a bare wire moving parallel to an external magnetic field
254. A 5 : 1 voltage step up transformer has 120 volts across the primary and
600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency the
primary current equals
(a) 1/5 amp (b) 500 ma
(c) 10 amps (d) 20 amps
(e) 5 amps
255. In a transformer, the voltage induced in the secondary winding must always
be 90 degrees out of phase with the
(a) primary voltage (b) primary current
(c) secondary voltage (d) secondary current
256. A ferrite core has less eddy-current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have low resistance (b) ferrites have high resistance
(c) ferrites have low permeability (d) ferrites have high hysteresis
257. Which of the following motors is usually used in household refrigerators?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Single-phase induction motor (split-phase start or induction run motor)
(d) Synchronous motor
258. If the refrigerator unit runs continuously maintaining cabinet cold, the failure
of the unit is attributed to
(a) extreme hot weather conditions (b) poor door seal at gasket
(c) defective motor (d) defective thermostat
259. The maximum temperature permitted for Class A insulation is

(a) 180°C (b) 105°C
(c) 120°C (d) 155°C
260. The cotton, silk, paper, and wood are
(a) class A insulation (b) class Y insulation
(c) class H insulation (d) class B insulation
261. Rheostatic braking gives greater braking torque than plugging.
(a) true (b) false
262. Which of the following rules states that the direction of an induced current is
always such that the magnetic field which it produces reacts in opposition to
the change of flux?
(a) Thumb rule (b) Lenz’s law
(c) Kirchhoff’s law (d) Faraday’s law
263. What conditions are necessary for an induced voltage to be created by means
of rotation?
(a) A magnetic field
(b) Movably placed loops conductors (turns)
(c) Lump conductors
264. In the following diagram of a line conductor, in
which direction do the magnetic lines of force
run if the observer is looking in the direction of
current?
(a) Counter-clockwise around the conductor
(b) Clockwise around the conductor
(c) Around the conductor
I
(d) Outside the conductor Fig. Q. 264.
265. Which of the following rules is applied to above
question to find direction of magnetic lines?
(a) Left hand rule (b) Right hand rule
(c) Corkscrew rule (d) Lenz’s law
266. In the adjacent figure, what kind of voltage is

generated by linear movement of a horizontal
or vertical loop in or counter to the direction of Up
magnetic field?
(a) D.C. voltage Down
(b) A.C. voltage

(c) No voltage
(d) Pulse voltage Fig. Q. 266.
267. What kind of voltage is induced in a loop conductor
rotating in a homogeneous magnetic field?
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) No voltage
(d) Pulse voltage
268. If a loop conductor is rotated in the magnetic field, a voltage is induced in it.
This voltage increases only with the
(a) density of the magnetic lines of force
(b) active length of conductor in exciting field
(c) velocity of the loop
(d) length of conductor, velocity, and flux density
269. A loop conductor is rotated in a homogeneous magnetic field; the magnetic
flux
(a) changes its intensity constantly
(b) changes its direction with constant density
(c) changes in intensity with its direction periodically
(d) changes its intensity with its direction randomly
270. The operation of the electric generator and motor is based on the interaction
between
(a) magnetic field and electric field
(b) magnetic field and electric current
(c) electric field and law of induction
(d) law of induction and dynamo-electric principle
271. What type of current is normally used to excite synchronous and D.C.
generators?
(a) D.C.
(b) A.C. single-phase
(c) A.C. three-phase
(d) A.C. two-phase
272. Under what conditions will an electromotive force be exerted on an electric
conductor in a magnetic field?
(a) The conductor must have diameter
(b) The conductor must have current passing through it
(c) Magnetic field must be intensified
(d) The conductor must be in coil form
(a) A magnetic field exerts a force on-line conductor
(b) The cause of force effect lies in the fact that the original magnetic field
and that of the line conductor affected each other
(c) The repulsion takes place in the direction of mutually reducing field
forces
(d) All the above statements are correct
274. Which of the following transformers will have the smallest size with the same
electrical specifications?
(a) Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN) cooled transformer
(b) Dry type transformer
(c) Oil Natural Air Force (ONAF) cooled transformer
(d) Oil Forced Water Force (OFWF) cooled transformer
275. Which of the following includes motor and generator Standards?
(a) NIST (b) NEMA
(c) T Standards (d) R Standards
276. 1 H.P. is equivalent to
(a) 0.746 W (b) 0.746 kW
(c) 7.46 W (d) 7.46 kW
277. What kind of bushings will be used in the transformers above 33kV ratings?
(a) Porcelain type (b) Condenser type
(c) Oil-filled type (d) (b) or (c)
278. If the percentage reactance of a power is 5.0, what will be the per unit
reactance?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.4
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
279. The eddy current loss in the transformer occurs in the
(a) primary winding (b) secondary winding
(c) laminations (d) none of the above
280. A transformer with output of 250 kVA at 3300 volts, has 1000 turns on its
primary winding and 100 turns on secondary winding. What will be the
transformation ratio of the transformer?
(a) 10 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 3
281. In Question 280, what will be the primary rated voltage of the transformer?
(a) 33,000 V (b) 1650 V
(c) 16,500 V (d) 1500 V
282. The speed-torque characteristics for single-phase
induction motor shown to the right
(a) shaded pole motor
SPEED
(b) split-phase motor

(c) capacitor-start motor
(d) repulsion-start run motor
TORQUE
283. The induced E.M.F. in one phase of the rotor
winding is 120 V when the rotor is blocked and, Fig. Q. 282.
the resistance and reactance per phase of stator
winding are 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω respectively. What will be the rotor current?
(a) 330 A (b) 332 A
(c) 250 A (d) 200 A
284. A circuit for the auto transformer is I

a
shown to the right. Point b is located
half way between terminals a and c.
The resistance of the entire winding b I2
V1
is 0.1 ohm, and the resistance of the
position bc is 0.40 ohm. What will be the V2
copper loss at an output of 10 A when
the exciting current is neglected? I C I2
(a) 6 Watts
Fig. Q. 284.
(b) 2.5 Watts
(c) 10 Watts
(d) 4 Watts
285. In the figure of Question 284, if the reactance of part ab is 0.2 ohm and that
of the common part is 0.1 ohm, what will be the input current if primary
voltage is 20 V?
(a) 60 A (b) 33.3 A
(c) 63.3 A (d) 30 A
286. What will wattmeter indicate is connected across supply line in the figure of
Question 284, provided V1 = 20 V and reactance of ab is 0.2-ohm, reactance
of common part is 0.1 ohm and the core loss is neglected?
(a) 200 Watts (b) 100 Watts
(c) 500 Watts (d) 400 Watts
287. A series motor has 2 poles and 95 turns per pole. The resistance of 2 field
coils connected in series is 3.02 ohms. The voltage drop across the field is
62 V and current is 3.55 A at 60 Hz. What will be the field reactance?
(a) 27 ohms (b) 60 ohms
(c) 17.2 ohms (d) 68 ohms
288. The armature winding of a repulsion motor is excited
(a) conductively (b) inductively
(c) resistively (d) none of the above
289. The armature winding of a series motor is excited
(a) conductively (b) inductively
(c) resistively (d) none of the above
290. Which of the following parameters contributes to friction loss in the

alternators?
(a) Temperature
(b) Lubrication of bearings
(c) Load variation
(d) Velocity of the shaft
(e) All of the above parameters
291. The difference between input and I2R loss will give the
(a) friction loss
(b) windage loss
(c) core loss
(d) sum of (a), (b), and (c)
292. The friction, windage and core losses of an alternator can easily be
determined by
(a) running the alternator at synchronous speed
(b) running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at full load
(c) running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at no load
293. The eddy-current loss in the alternator will be minimum if the air gap
(a) between poles and the slots of the armature is large compared to width of
the slot
(b) between poles and the slots of the armature is minimum compared to
width of the slot
(c) does not exist
294. Eddy current losses in the alternator are
(a) dependent on the load
(b) independent of the load
(c) dependent on the excitation
(d) (b) and (c) both
295. The skewing of the rotor bars of the induction motor

(a) will reduce the induced voltage in each bar to a value less than if the bars
were unskewed
(b) will increase the induced voltage in each bar to a value more than if the
bars were unskewed
(c) increase the cogging
(d) increase the motor noise
296. Which of the following motors have almost constant speed over their full
load range?
(a) D.C. series motors
(b) A.C. series motors
(c) D.C. shunt motors
(d) Low resistance squirrel cage motors
(e) (c) and (d) both
297. If two wound-rotor induction motors are arranged so that the stator of one
is connected to an external source and its rotor output is connected to the
other, what will be the input conditions for the other induction motor?
(a) The second motor will run at its own slip but at the voltage of the first
motor
(b) The second motor will run at the slip frequency and voltage of the first
motor
(c) The second motor will not run
(d) The second motor will act as frequency converter
298. In Question 297, the first motor acts as a
(a) voltage converter (b) frequency converter
(c) current converter (d) power converter
299. In Question 297, the slip frequency of the second motor
(a) is the difference between its applied frequency and its frequency of
rotation
(b) is the difference between of slip-frequency first motor and its frequency
of rotation
(c) (a) or (b)
300. Four speed-torque curves are shown below; which of the curves is drawn for
repulsion start induction run?
SPEED
SPEED
SPEED
SPEED
TORQUE TORQUE TORQUE TORQUE
A B C D
Fig. Q. 300.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
301. The torque developed in a D.C. motor depends on
(a) armature current
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic field and armature current
(d) speed
302. The speed regulation of a D.C. motor can be ideally achieved with
(a) variable excitation to the field of the motor
(b) constant excitation to the field of the motor
(c) A.C. excitation to the field of the motor
(d) no excitation to the field of the motor
303. If the excitation to the field of the D.C. motor is constant, then the torque
developed in the motor is proportional to
(a) armature current (b) field current
(c) speed (d) magnetic flux
304. For which of the following machines is residual magnetism a requirement to
build up voltage output?
(a) Separately excited generator
(b) Self-excited generator
(c) All A.C. generators
(d) None of them
305. What will happen to the D.C. generator if the field winding attains critical
resistance?
(a) It will generate maximum voltage
(b) It will generate maximum power
(c) It will not develop voltage at all
(d) None of them
306. Which of the following conditions hold true for paralleling two D.C.
generators?
(a) Their polarities must match
(b) Their phase sequences must match
(c) Their polarities and voltages must match
307. The armature voltage control is suitable if the D.C. machine is driven at
(a) constant current
(b) constant torque
(c) constant speed
(d) constant magnetic field
308. Which of the following parameters is controlled to achieve the variable speed
of a D.C. drive?
(a) Magnetic field (b) Armature resistance
(c) Voltage (d) None of the above
309. The Ward Leonard method of speed control of a D.C. machine controls
the speed below or above normal speed in clockwise and counter-clockwise
direction.
(a) true (b) false
310. Which of the following motors will one choose to drive the
rotary compressor?
(a) Universal motor (b) Synchronous motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) D.C. shunt motor
311. The electric current in the motor generates
(a) heat only (b) magnetic field only
(c) (a) and (b) (d) power only
312. Which of the following machines will be preferred to charge batteries?

(a) Series generator (b) Series motor
(c) Shunt generator (d) Compound generator
(e) Shunt motor (f) None of the above
313. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back E.M.F. of the motor
will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) remain same (d) increase then decrease
314. The large number of slots in an induction motor
(a) provides better overload capacity
(b) reduces overload capacity
(c) provides bigger size of motor
(d) reduces the size of motor
315. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average
flux density in air gap is
(a) large (b) small
(c) infinity (d) absent
316. Why are D.C. motors preferred for traction applications?
(a) The torque is proportional to armature current
(b) The torque is proportional to the square root of armature current
(c) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is
proportional to the square of armature current
(d) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
317. Which of the following generating machines will offer constant voltage on all
loads?
(a) Separately excited generator
(b) Self-excited generator
(c) Level compound generator
(d) All the above
318. The D.C. generator will be preferred if it has
(a) 100% regulation (b) reduced regulation
(c) 10% regulation (d) infinite regulation
319. The number of bushings in a transformer can be reduced if the tappings are
provided
(a) at the phase ends
(b) at the high voltage side
(c) in the middle of the transformer
(d) on the low voltage side
320. Which of the following transformers will use oil natural cooling with tubes?
(a) 100 kVA (b) 800 kVA
(c) All the above transformers
321. An induction motor with 1000 R.P.M. speed will have
(a) 2 poles (b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles (d) 8 poles
322. Which of the following equipment will draw the reactive power?
(a) Electrical iron (b) Tubelight
(c) Three-phase motor (d) Rectifier
323. The large number of narrow slots in the stator of an A.C. motor is preferred
because
(a) it is easier to make narrow slots than wide open slots
(b) large number of narrow slots reduces motor noise
(c) large number of narrow slots reduces noise and tooth pulsation losses
(d) it helps in uniform distribution of flux
324. The number of parallel paths in wave winding of a machine is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 8
325. The alternators are normally designed for the torque angle of the order of
(a) 3° to 15° (b) 2 rad to 3 rad
(c) 15° to 30° (d) 1° to 3°
326. Which material is used to insulate the segments of a commutator?
(a) Fiberglass (b) Plastic
(c) Mica (d) PVC
327. The brushes of electrical machines are made of
(a) carbon (b) copper
(c) cast iron (d) steel
328. If the resistance of the field winding of a D.C. generator is increased, then
the output voltage
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) decreases proportional to the resistance of field winding
329. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be
run in parallel?
(a) Series generators (b) Shunt generators
(c) Shunt and series generators (d) Compound generators
330. Two separately excited motors have
(a) excitation which is independent of load current
(b) the advantage over a self-excited motor in that it can be utilized for zero
volt to its maximum rated capacity
(c) a and b both
(d) none of them
331. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant current drive (b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant torque drive (d) constant torque drive
332. The field current control of D.C. shunt motors will provide
(c) constant HP drive (d) constant torque drive
333. Which of the following methods of speed control of D.C. machines will offer
minimum efficiency?
(a) Armature control method (b) Field control method
(c) Voltage control method (d) All above methods
334. In which of the following methods of speed control is computation
unsatisfactory?
(a) Field control method
(b) Voltage control method
(c) Armature current control method
(d) All above methods
335. Dynamic braking can be used for

(a) series motors (b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors (d) all above motors
336. Plugging gives the
(a) smallest torque braking (b) highest torque braking
(c) zero torque braking (d) none of them
337. Which method of braking will be selected if the highest
braking torque is required?
(a) Plugging
(b) Dynamic braking
(c) Counter current braking
(d) Regenerative braking
(e) (a) or (c)
338. If the terminals of the armature of a D.C. machine are interchanged, this
action will offer following kind of braking:
(a) plugging (b) regenerative
(c) dynamic braking (d) any of the above
339. If a D.C. motor designed for 45°C ambient temperature is to be used for
55°C ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select
next higher HP motor
(b) can be used for 55°C ambient also
(c) of lower HP should be selected
(d) of high speed should be selected
340. If we have to control the speed of a 150 HP D.C. motor from zero to
1000 R.P.M. having rated speed of 1500 R.P.M., it will be preferred to
(a) select a motor of 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(b) select a motor of 1.5 × 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(c) select a motor of 150 HP, 750 R.P.M.
(d) select a motor of 75 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
341. For which of the following three-phase alternators will the distribution factor
be 0.96?
(a) 4 pole wound on 72 slots core
(b) 8 pole wound on 80 slots core
(c) 8 pole wound on 72 slots core
(d) 6 pole wound on 72 slots core
342. Which of the synchronous alternators will complete 1080 electrical degrees
in one revolution?
(a) 8 pole synchronous alternator
(b) 6 pole synchronous alternator
(c) 4 pole synchronous alternator
(d) 10 pole synchronous alternator
343. How many cycles of alternating current will be generated in one revolution
of an 8-pole synchronous alternator?
(a) 10 cycles (b) 4 cycles
(c) 8 cycles (d) 16 cycles
344. How many poles will be required if an alternator runs at 1500 R.P.M. and
gives a frequency of 50 Hz?
345. Two generators are running in parallel. One generator may run as the motor
for which of the following reasons?
(a) The speed of that generator is increased
(b) The direction that generator is reversed
(c) The generator takes a large share of loads
(d) The field of that generator is weakened
(a) A single-phase induction motor has a very high starting torque
(b) A single-phase induction motor has zero starting torque
(c) A single-phase starting torque is as good as that of a 3-phase induction
motor
(d) A single-phase motor has very small torque but greater than zero
347. The primary applied voltage in an ideal transformer on no load is balanced by

(a) primary induced E.M.F. (b) secondary induced E.M.F.
(c) secondary voltage (d) core and copper losses
348. The air cores in transformers are preferred for
(a) low frequency transformers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) 5 kVA, 50 Hz transformers
(d) none of these
349. The synchronous motor can be made self-starting by providing
(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) (a) or (b)
350. The amplidyne is a
(a) fully compensated cross field machine
(b) half compensated cross field machine
(c) over-compensated cross field machine
(d) under-compensated cross field machine
3
MEASUREMENTS
1. The torque produced in a wattmeter is proportional to
(a) the average value of currents in the two coils
(b) the R.M.S. value of currents in the two coils
(c) the average value of the supply voltage
2. Dielectric heating is used for heating
(a) wood (b) steel billets
(c) zinc cells (d) furnace
3. To measure the E.M.F. of a Weston standard cell one would use
(a) a moving coil voltmeter
(b) a hot wire voltmeter
(c) an electrostatic voltmeter
(d) galvanometer
(e) potentiometer
4. Which resistor would have a larger volume?
(a) 1 ohm, 54-watt resistor
(b) 500 ohms, 5-watt resistor
5. Which of the following is the best conductor?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium
(c) Silver (d) Iron
6. The resonant frequency of an R-L-C circuit can be changed

(a) by changing inductance only
(b) by changing inductance or capacitance
(c) by changing resistance only
(d) by changing capacitance only
7. Dielectric loss can be measured by
(a) energy meter (b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) electrostatic wattmeter (d) none of the above
8. The design of an inductance coil is desirable for
(a) low time constant (b) high time constant
(c) zero time constant (d) R-C time constant
9. Three-phase four-wire energy meter is used to measure
(a) three-phase balanced energy
(b) three-phase unbalanced energy
(c) single-phase energy
(d) two-phase energy
10. The potentiometer can be used to measure current.
(a) true (b) false
11. The ampere-hour efficiency of a cell does not take into account the varying
voltage of charge and discharge.
(a) true (b) false
12. Watt-hour efficiency of a cell is always less than ampere-hour efficiency
because
(a) it accounts for the varying voltage of charge and discharge
(b) charge volts are constant
(c) discharge volts are constant
(d) polarization is neglected
13. The capacity of a cell is measured in
(a) amperes (b) volts
(c) ampere-hours (d) watts
MEASUREMENTS • 83
14. The capacity of a cell increases as the temperature increases.

(a) true (b) false
15. Gassing is the phenomenon which occurs in
(a) oil transformers (b) cells
(c) mercury-arc rectifiers (d) oil cylinders
16. The ampere-hour efficiency of a lead acid cell is
(a) 80% (b) 90 to 95%
(c) 72 to 80% (d) 85%
17. Gravity controlled instruments have scales which are not uniform but are
crowded because
(a) balance weight is more than control weight
(b) current is proportional to deflection angle
(c) current is proportional to sin q, where q is deflection angle
(d) balance weight itself is not uniform
18. Which of the following instruments will be used to measure alternating
current?
(a) Moving iron voltmeter
(b) Permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) Induction type ammeter
(d) Moving iron (attraction type) ammeter
19. Eddy current damping cannot be used for moving iron instruments because
(a) the size of the instrument will increase
(b) eddy currents will pass through the iron and thereby cause loss
(c) the presence of a permanent magnet required for such purpose would
affect the deflection and hence the reading of the instruments
(d) weight of the instrument will increase
20. The deflection of a hot wire instrument depends on
(a) instantaneous value of alternating current
(b) average value of current
(c) R.M.S. value of alternating current
(d) voltage
21. Which of the following instruments will be used measure 500 kV

A.C. voltage?
(a) Moving coil voltmeter (b) Electrostatic voltmeter
(c) Moving iron voltmeter (d) Hot wire instrument
22. The steady speed of the disc in the energy meter is achieved when
(a) operating torque is equal to braking torque
(b) operating torque is half of braking torque
(c) braking torque is zero
(d) braking torque is more than operating torque
23. Creeping is the phenomenon which occurs in a
(a) voltmeter (b) wattmeter
(c) energy meter (d) ammeter
24. The induction type single-phase energy meter is a
(a) ampere-hour meter (b) true watt-hour meter
(c) wattmeter (d) VAR meter
25. Two holes are drilled in the disc of an energy meter on the opposite side of
the spindle
(a) to reduce the weight of the disc for easy rotation
(b) to eliminate creeping on no load
(c) for proper ventilation
(d) to increase the deflection torque
26. Give three methods of localizing the short circuit fault in the cables
(i) Murray loop test
(ii) Varley loop test
(iii) Fisher loop test
27. This induction method of testing which is used for localization of ground
faults in cables can be applied successfully when the cable has metallic
sheath.
(a) true (b) false
28. Which of the following instruments will be used to measure the temperature
above 1400 degrees centigrade?
(a) Simple thermometer (b) Electrical resistance pyrometer
(c) Thermo-electric pyrometer (d) None of the above
MEASUREMENTS • 85
29. The temperature coefficient of carbon is negative.

(a) true (b) false
30. Give the name of three-thermo junctions.
(i) Copper-constantan (ii) Silver-constantan
(iii) Iron-constantan
31. The thermo-electric E.M.F. of platinum with platinum-rhodium (alloy) at
500 degrees centigrade is
(a) 7.4 millivolts (b) 4.4 millivolts
(c) 5 millivolts (d) 1 millivolt
(a) Alternating current and voltage waveforms do not in general contain even
harmonics
(b) Alternating current and voltage waveforms in general do not contain odd
harmonics
(c) Alternating current and voltage waveforms in general contain even
harmonics
(d) Alternating current and voltage waveforms contain even and odd
harmonics in general
33. The shape of the waveform when an E.M.F. whose wave contains harmonics
is applied to a circuit is not, in general, the same as that of an impressed
E.M.F. wave but depends upon resistance, capacitance, and inductance.
(a) true (b) false
34. The inductance in the circuit
(a) reduces the amplitude of harmonics in current wave
(b) enlarges the amplitude of harmonics in current wave
(c) does not affect the wave shape at all
(d) reduces the amplitude of the harmonics in the current wave and causes
the latter to approach more nearly to the sinusoidal wave shape than
E.M.F. wave
35. When the E.M.F. whose wave contains harmonics is applied to a resistive
circuit, the current waveform is of the same form as that of the impressed
E.M.F.
(a) true (b) false
36. The resonance effect can be used to ascertain whether any particular
harmonics exist in an E.M.F. waveform.
(a) true (b) false
37. The power factor of a circuit in which voltage and current waves are non-
sinusoidal requires the following definition:
(a) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the voltage and
current waves
(b) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex
waves
(c) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between two ‘‘equivalent
sine waves’’ having respectively R.M.S. values equal to those of the
voltage and current in the circuit
(d) It is the sine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex
waves
38. The electron beam in the cathode ray oscilloscope may be deflected by
(a) electrostatic field only
(b) electromagnetic field only
(c) (a) or (b)
39. The temperature at which the readings of Fahrenheit and Centigrade
thermometers are the same is
(a) zero (b) 25°C
(c) −40°C (d) 32°C
40. The alloying element which really makes steel corrosion resistant is
(a) chromium (b) magnesium
(c) nickel (d) molybdenum
41. The resistance of the coil of a 1000-watt, 250 V electric lamp is
(a) 2.5 ohms (b) 6.25 ohms
(c) 62.5 ohms (d) 625 ohms
42. The rating of batteries is given by
(a) KW (b) ampere-hours
(c) KVA (d) VARh
MEASUREMENTS • 87
43. A moving coil instrument can be used to measure

(a) low frequency alternating current
(b) high frequency alternating current
(c) direct current
(d) direct current and alternating current both
44. The cost of a capacitor increases as
(a) the size of the capacitor increases
(b) voltage rating of the capacitor increases
(c) microfarad rating of the capacitor increases
45. A 100 microfarad, 200 V capacitor will have larger size than a 10 microfarad,
200 V capacitor.
(a) true (b) false
46. The thermal time constant is the time
(a) to reach the final steady temperature if the initial rate of increase of
temperature were maintained constant
(b) to reach 63% of final steady temperature
(c) to reach 86.6% of final steady temperature
(d) to reach 37% of final steady temperature
47. The current transformer can also be used to measure high D.C. current.
(a) true (b) false
48. Two voltmeters are connected in series. The atomic weight of Ag and Cu are
108 and 64 respectively. If 0.5 gm of copper is deposited in one voltmeter
then mass of silver deposited in the second will be
(a) 0.5 × 108/64 gm
(b) 0.5 × 64/108 gm
(c) 0.5 × 108/32 gm
(d) 0.5 × 32/108 gm
49. The secondary of the current transformer is always short circuited through
low resistance ammeter or low resistance
(a) to get accurate measurement
(b) to avoid excessive current in the primary
(c) to avoid the risk of high voltage because the unopposed primary M.M.F.
will set up an abnormally high flux in the core which produces excessive
core loss with high heating and a high voltage across the secondary of the
transformer
(d) because the current in the primary is not determined by load in primary
50. The current in the primary of the potential transformer is determined by the
load in primary.
(a) true (b) false
51. A 100:5 transformer is used in conjunction with a 5-amp ammeter. If latter
reads 2.5 amps the line current will be
(a) 2.5 × 100/5 amps
(b) 2.5 × 5/100 amps
(c) 2.5 × (5/100)2 amps
(d) 2.5 × (100/5)2 amps
52. Which of the following circuits has no transients?
(a) Pure resistive circuit
(b) L-C circuit
(c) R-L-C circuit
(d) R-L circuit
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
(c) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(d) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
54. A voltage source can be converted into constant current source by adding
(a) low resistance in parallel with the voltage source
(b) high resistance in parallel with the voltage source
(c) low resistance in series with the voltage source
(d) high resistance in series with the voltage source
MEASUREMENTS • 89
55. Permeability in the magnetic circuit is analogous to

(a) resistance in electrical circuit
(b) resistivity in electrical circuit
(c) conductivity in electrical circuit
(d) current density
(a) 1 volt = 1 wb
(b) 1 volt = 1 wb/second
(c) volt has no relation with Weber
(d) 1 volt = 1 wb-second
57. A conductor of length 100 cm moves right angle to a magnetic field
of flux density of 2 wb/m2 with the velocity of 25 m/second. The induced
E.M.F. in the conductor will be
(a) 25 volts (b) 50 volts
(c) 75 volts (d) 100 volts
58. The ratio error in the current transformer is attributed to the
(a) wattless component of the current in the primary
(b) exciting current
(c) power factor of the primary
(d) leakage flux
59. The phase angle error of current transformer is of no importance if it is
feeding an ammeter.
(a) true (b) false
60. Wheatstone bridge is analogous to
(a) cantilever (b) simple lever system
(c) gear train (d) mechanical clutch
61. The bridge by which inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and
resistance is called
(a) Maxwell-Wein bridge (b) Wein bridge
(c) Anderson bridge (d) Schering bridge
62. The dielectric loss of capacitance can be measured by

(a) Owen bridge (b) Schering bridge
(c) Wein bridge (d) Maxwell bridge
63. A television receiver uses 240 watts from 60 volts power source
(a) 2 ma (b) 2 amps
(e) 4 amps
64. The difference between power and energy is that
(a) power is the time rate of doing work while energy does not involve time
(b) energy is the time rate of doing work while power does not involve time
(c) energy is V × I without taking time into account
(d) power can be measured in watt-hours where energy cannot
65. If a one ampere current accumulates charge for 5 seconds, the resultant
charge equals
(a) 2 coulombs (b) 10 coulombs
(e) 5 coulombs
66. A 50 micro-ampere meter movement has 500 ohms resistance; what shunt
resistance is required to extend the range to 250 micro-amperes?
(a) 111.1 ohms (b) 125 ohms
(c) 250 ohms (d) 50 ohms
67. To connect ammeter in series
(a) open the circuit at one point and use the meter to the circuit
(b) open the circuit at the positive and the negative terminals of the voltage
source
(c) short the resistance to be checked and connect the meter across it
(d) open the circuit at one end and connect the meter to one end
68. A voltmeter using 50 micro-ampere meter movement has a sensitivity of
(a) 500 ohms per volt (b) 5000 ohms per volt
(c) 2000 ohms per volt (d) 20,000 ohms per volt
MEASUREMENTS • 91
69. To connect the voltmeter in parallel to read IR drop

(a) open the circuit at one end and use the meter to complete the circuit
(b) open the circuit at two points and connect the meter across both points
(c) let remain the circuit as it is and connect the meter across the resistance
(d) allow the circuit to remain closed but disconnect the voltage source
70. The shunt used in the milliammeter
(a) will extend the range and reduce the meter resistance
(b) will extend the range and increase the resistance
(c) will decrease the range and meter resistance
(d) will decrease the range but increase the inter resistance
71. To check the continuity of the circuit by multimeter, the best of the following
ranges to use is R ×
(a) 1,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 100,000 (d) 1
72. The applied voltage to the circuit being checked is disconnected when an
ohmmeter is used because
(a) the voltage source will increase the resistance
(b) the current will decrease the resistance
(c) the ohmmeter has its own battery
(d) no current is needed for matter movement
73. When the voltage is measured by a multimeter, the multiplier for voltage is
(a) a high resistance in series with the meter movement
(b) a high resistance in parallel with the meter movement
(c) less than one ohm in series with the meter movement
(d) less than one ohm in parallel with the meter movement
74. A VTVM has negligible loading effect on the circuit being checked because it
has
(a) a high resistance range of R × 1 M Ω
(b) high input resistance of 11 MΩ or more
(c) low current ranges of 59 micro-ampere or less
(d) low input resistance equal to the lowest value on the R × 1 range
75. The Wheatstone bridge is used to measure

(a) low value of current (b) high value of current
(c) high value of voltage (d) low value of voltages
(e) resistance value
76. The insulating materials are used to
(a) conduct very large current
(b) present an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) prevent short circuit between conducting wires
(d) store very high currents
77. The internal resistance of the milliammeter must be very low for
(a) high sensitivity
(b) high accuracy
(c) maximum voltage drop across the meter
(d) minimum effect on the current in the circuit
78. The internal resistance of the voltmeter must be very high to have
(a) high voltage range
(b) minimum current through the meter
(c) maximum loading effect
(d) more current supplied by the voltage source
79. The total flux of 5000 lines equals
(a) 126 gilberts (b) 5,000 gauss
(c) 5,000 maxwells (d) 16,000 kilolines
80. The flux of 4,000 lines through 4 cm2 equals a flux density of
(a) 1,000 gauss (b) 2,000 gauss
(c) 4,000 gauss (d) 16,000 gauss
81. The flux density of 2,000 gauss equals
(a) 2,000 lines per cm2
(b) 2,000 lines per cm2
(c) 2,000 kilolines per cm2
(d) 400,000 lines per cm2
MEASUREMENTS • 93
82. In Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit

(a) M.M.F. corresponds to current
(b) gilbert corresponds to volt
(c) reluctance corresponds to ampere
(d) gauss corresponds to ohm
83. In the given circuit how much the voltmeter will read?
(a) 0 volt (b) 10 volts
(e) 3.33 volts
Ω
10
Ω
84. A voltage source and a voltmeter have
(a) zero and ideally infinite zero input impedances V
respectively
Ω
(b) ideally infinite and zero input impedances Ω
10
respectively
(c) high and low input impedances respectively E = 10 V
Fig. Q. 84.
85. The R.M.S. value of the
following half wave with its
maximum, Imax is
(a) Imax /2 Imax
(b) Imax /√2

(c) Imax 0 T 2T 3T
(d) Imax /√3 Fig. Q. 85.
86. Which of the following instruments will be used to measure a very high
frequency but small current?
(a) Electrodynamic ammeter
(b) Moving coil galvanometer
(c) Thermocouple type instrument
(d) Induction type instrument
87. If n identical cell of E.M.F. E and internal resistance r are connected in
series, they produce a current through an external resistance R equal to
(a) nE/R + r (b) nE/R
(c) nE/R + n.r (d) E/R + r
88. The hysteresis and eddy currents are used for

(a) dielectric heating (b) induction heating
(c) wood heating (d) none of the above
89. A dielectric between the plates of a capacitor
(a) decreases the capacitance
(b) increases the capacitance
(c) provides the strength to the capacitor plates
90. A rectifier type A.C. voltmeter
(a) generally uses the iron-vane type of A.C. movement
(b) has a linear scale because it uses a D.C. meter movement
(c) has a non-linear scale crowded at the left because it uses the
dynamometer type of meter movement
(d) needs a thermocouple for low frequencies
91. The wattmeter
(a) has voltage and current coils to measure the real power
(b) has three connections, two of which are used at a time
(c) measures apparent power because the current is same in the voltage and
current coils
(d) can measure D.C. power but not 60 cps A.C. power
(a) The hysteresis loss can be determined from the area of B-H curve
(b) Eddy current loss is determined from the area of B-H curve
(c) Hysteresis and eddy current losses can be determined from the area of
the B-H loop
(d) None of the above losses is determined from the B-H loop
93. The damping of the ballistic galvanometer is kept very small
(a) to make the system oscillating
(b) to get first deflection large
(c) to get first deflection small
(d) to make the system critically damped
MEASUREMENTS • 95
94. The Grassot fluxmeter is a special type of ballistic galvanometer in which

(a) controlling torque is small and damping is heavy
(b) controlling torque and damping are large
(c) controlling torque is large but damping is small
(d) controlling torque and damping are small
95. Ballistic galvanometer can be used to measure the current and flux both.
(a) true (b) false
96. Which of the following frequency meters is suitable to measure radio
frequency?
(a) Electrical resonance frequency meter
(b) Weston frequency meter
(c) Heterodyne frequency meter
(d) Either (b) or (c)
97. Enumerate the advantages of moving iron power factor meter over the
dynamometer type power factor meter.
(i) Large working forces
(ii) A scale which extends to 360°
(iii) The absence of ligaments to lead in current to moving coils, all coils in
the moving iron types being fixed
98. Enumerate the sources of errors in the moving coil instruments
(i) weakening of permanent magnets due to aging and temperature effect
(ii) weakening of spring due to aging and temperature effect
(iii) change of resistance of moving coil with temperature
99. Enumerate the errors in moving iron instruments with both A.C. and D.C.
(i) Hysteresis error
(ii) Stray magnetic fields
(iii) Temperature error
100. Enumerate the errors in moving iron ammeter with A.C. only
(i) frequency errors
(ii) reactance of instrument coil
(iii) eddy currents
101. For a good 0.5 micro-farad paper capacitor, the ohm-meter reading should
(a) go quickly to 100 ohms and remain there
(b) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
(c) not move at all
(d) show very high resistance first and then low
102. Which of the following errors may arise in wattmeter if it is not compensated
for the errors?
(a) Voltage coil inductance (b) Voltage coil capacitance
(c) Eddy currents (d) (a), (b), and (c)
103. Which of the following methods is the commonest method of measuring
three-phase balanced or unbalanced power?
(a) One wattmeter method (b) Two wattmeter method
(c) Three wattmeter method (d) Ammeter method
104. One-wattmeter method is used to measure
(a) the power when load is balanced in three-phase circuit
(b) the power when load is unbalanced in three-phase circuit
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) single-phase power with balanced load
105. The reactive power can be measured with wattmeter when voltage across
voltage coil is adjusted to be out of phase with the current by
(a) 90° (b) 180°
(c) 45° (d) 0°
(e) 120°
106. The change of frequency affects the circuit parameters of wattmeter
connected to measure the power of a three-phase A.C. system.
(a) true (b) false
107. Which of the following devices are required to measure three-phase balanced
power?
(a) one wattmeter
(b) one wattmeter and one voltage transformer of 1 : 1 ratio
(c) one wattmeter and two current transformers of 1 : 1 ratio
(d) either (b) or (c)
MEASUREMENTS • 97
108. The total power P measured in Y star three-phase circuit is given by

(a) P = 3 VI cos f (b) P = √I cos f
(c) P = √3 VI cos f (d) P = √2 VI cos f
where V and I are the line voltage and line current respectively.
109. In Question 108, the power in delta three-phase circuit is given by
(a) P = 3 VI cos f (b) P = √3 VI cos f
(c) P = √2 VI cos f (d) P = √3 VI sin f
110. The dynamometer wattmeter can be used to measure
(a) A.C. power only
(b) D.C. power only
(c) A.C. or D.C. power
(d) A.C. power of single-phase circuits
111. The pointer deflection of wattmeter is proportional to
(a) torque produced in the wattmeter (b) voltage
(c) current (d) power
(e) (a) or (b)
112. Induction wattmeters can be used to measure
(a) A.C. power
(b) D.C. power
(c) A.C. or D.C. power
(d) A.C. power of single-phase only
113. Motor meters can be used to measure A.C. or D.C.
(a) watt-hours (b) ampere-hours
(c) current (d) voltage
(e) (a) or (b)
114. Motor meters can be used to measure
(a) A.C. energy (b) D.C. energy
(c) A.C. or D.C. energy (d) none of the above
115. The one ‘‘unit’’ of energy measured in A.C. circuit is equivalent to
(a) one watt-hour (b) one kilowatt-hour
(c) one watt (d) one kilowatt
(e) one joule
116. Which of the following energy meters is universally accepted to measure A.C.
energy?
(a) Motor meter (b) Induction type meter
(c) Mercury motor meter (d) Reason electrostatic meter
117. Which of the following loads are dangerous for thermal heating of wattmeter
even if meter reading is low?
(a) Loads with high value of power factor
(b) Loads with low value of power factor
(c) Chokes
(d) (b) and (c)
118. The eddy current torque on a metallic disc rotating between poles of a
permanent magnet in an energy meter is directly proportional to the angular
velocity of the disc.
(a) true (b) false
119. If the reading of two wattmeters in two-wattmeter method of power
measurement are 4 kW and 3 kW respectively and the latter reading obtained
after reversing connection of the current coil of wattmeter, what will be the
power?
(a) 6 kW (b) 1 kW
(c) 4 kW (d) 5 kW
(e) 7 kW
120. An A.C. potentiometer can be used to measure the loss in an iron ring made
up of thin stampings.
(a) true (b) false
121. Which thermocouple will one choose to measure the temperature of 500°C?
(a) Chromel Alumel (Cr Al)
(b) Iron Constantan (Fe K)
(c) Platinum-Platinum Rhodium (Pt Pt Rh)
122. Cr Al thermocouple can be used to measure the temperature up to
(a) 500°C (b) 800°C
(c) 1200°C (d) 1800°C
MEASUREMENTS • 99
123. The output of thermocouple is in the range of

(a) volts (b) millivolts
(c) amperes (d) milliamperes
124. A resistance temperature detector (RTD) is used to sense the temperature.
Which of the following converters will be used to receive a milliampere signal
from RTD?
(a) Mv/MA converter (b) A/MA converter
(c) R/MA converter (d) None of the above
125. A moving iron instrument will not give erroneous reading up to frequency of
(a) 1000 Hz (b) 1500 Hz
(c) 2000 Hz (d) 5 kHz
126. Which of the following devices is used to measure the leakage resistance of a
capacitor?
(a) Schering bridge method (b) Megger
(c) Potentiometric bridge (d) Loss of charge method
127. Eddy current error does not exist in
(a) D.C. moving iron instruments
(b) A.C. moving iron instruments
128. Capacitance cannot be measured with ballistic galvanometer.
(a) true (b) false
129. The movement of the moving element of an electrical indicator is
dependent of
(a) restoring torque (b) number of turns of the coil
(c) resistance of the indicator circuit (d) (a) and (c) only
(e) (a), (b), and (c)
130. The ballistic galvanometer with high oscillation period and high critical
resistance will be most suitable for the measurement of
(a) inductance (b) voltage
(c) capacitance (d) current
131. The internal resistance of an ammeter will be

(a) infinity (b) zero
(c) very small (d) large
132. The internal resistance of the voltmeter is
(a) zero (b) very high
(c) infinite (d) very small
133. Which of the following instruments will have poorest overloading capacity?
(a) Moving coil instruments
(b) Induction type instruments
(c) Permanent magnet instruments
(d) Hotwire instruments
134. The impulse ratio of any insulator is
(a) zero (b) unity
(c) less than unity (d) more than unity
135. The impulse ratio depends on the
(a) polarity of the impulse voltage
(b) steepness of the impulse wave-front
(c) time of decay of the impulse voltage
(d) all the above
136. ‘‘The magnetic strength is inversely proportional to the distance from the
conductor in which the current flows.’’ The above law is known as
(a) Lenz’s Law
(b) Biot Law
(c) Biot and Savart’s Law
(d) Ampere’s Theorem
NI
137. The value of magnetizing force H = is true for a solenoid only
L
when
(a) radius of the solenoid is more than length
(b) radius of the solenoid is much less than its length
(c) radius of the solenoid is equal to length of the solenoid
(d) number of turns are unlimited
MEASUREMENTS • 101
138. The magnetization curve is shown below. The +Β

ratio of ∆B to ∆H is known as: B
H
(a) Permeability
(b) Incremental permeability
(c) Flux density –H +H
(d) Incremental magnetization force
139. Which of the following dimensions are for
electrical charge? –B
(a) LT−2 Fig. Q. 138.
(b) MLT−2
(c) e1/2 L3/2 M1/2T−1
(d) LT−1
140. Dimensions of the current are
(a) LT−2 (b) MLT−2
(c) e1/2 L3/2 M1/2 T−2 (d) e1/2 L2 M−1/2 T2
141. The dimensions of voltage are
(a) ML2 T−2 (b) ML2 T−2 Q−1
(c) eLT−1 (d) M1/2 L1/2 m−1/2
142. If the dimensions of work done and time are given, will it be possible to find
the dimensions of power?
(a) Yes (b) No
143. The dimensions of electric energy are given by
(a) L2 MT−2 (b) L2 MT−3
(c) LT−3 m (d) Lm
144. Which of the following quantities has same dimensions in electromagnetic
and electrostatic systems?
(a) Electric power (b) Electric energy
(c) Current (d) (a) and (b) both
145. Which of the following outputs of the current transformers are commonly
specified?
(a) 1 A, 10 A (b) 2 A, 20 A
(c) 1 A, 5 A (d) 0.1 A, 1 A
146. The power of a 6-phase circuit can be measured with minimum

(a) one wattmeter (b) three wattmeters
(c) five wattmeters (d) six wattmeters
147. The hot-wire instruments have more power consumption in comparison with
other electrical instruments for similar instruments.
(a) true (b) false
148. Which of the following quantities is equivalent to one farad?
(a) 10−9 E.M.U. (b) 10−9 E.M.U.
(c) 10/9 E.M.U. (d) 9/10 E.M.U.
149. Most of the voltmeters for general use are designed for the power loss of
(a) 1 Watt (b) 5 Watts
(c) 0.2 to 0.5 Watts (d) 10 Watts
150. Which of the following quantities is equivalent to one henry?
(a) 109 E.M.U. (b) 10−9 E.M.U.
(c) 10/9 E.M.U. (d) 9/10 E.M.U.
151. In moving iron instruments, the torque is proportional to
(a) inductance of instruments
(b) first derivative of inductance with respect to time
(c) first derivative of inductance of instruments with respect to deflection
angle
(d) current
152. Which of the instruments are free from hysteresis and eddy current losses?
(a) Moving iron instruments
(b) Electrodynamometer type instruments
(c) Electrostatic instruments
153. Electrostatic instruments rely for their operation upon the
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) fact that a force exists between the two plates having opposite charges
(d) power
154. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure only

A.C. currents?
(a) Moving iron instruments
(b) Electrodynamic instruments
(c) Induction type instruments
(d) Hotwire instruments
155. The permeability of magnetic circuits is analogous to
(a) current of electrical circuits
(b) voltage of electrical circuits
(c) current density of electrical circuits
(d) resistance of electrical circuits
(e) conductivity of electrical circuits
156. The current ratio of current transformers is constant under all load
conditions.
(a) true (b) false
157. The ratio error in the current transformers is largely dependent upon
(a) iron loss component of magnetizing current
(b) magnetizing component of the magnetizing current
(d) (a) or (b)
158. The material used for the core of a current transformer should have
(a) low reluctance and low iron loss
(b) high reluctance and high iron loss
(c) low reluctance and high iron loss
(d) high reluctance and low iron loss
159. What will happen if the secondary winding of the current transformer is
opened when current is flowing in the primary current?
(a) There will be high current in the secondary winding
(b) There will be very high induced voltage in the secondary winding
(c) There will be very weak flux density in the core
(d) The transformer will burn immediately
160. When the secondary winding of the current transformer is opened, the
ampere-turns of primary winding will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain same (d) be very small
161. Which of the following transformers have secondary current of same order as
magnetizing current?
(a) Current transformer (b) Voltage transformer
(c) Power transformer (d) Distribution transformer
162. Turns compensation in the current transformers is used to
(a) eliminate phase angle error
(b) eliminate ratio error
(c) obtain a transformation ratio more nearly equal to nominal ratio of the
transformer
163. The burden of the current transformer is 15 VA, and secondary current is
5 A. What will be the impedance of connected load?
(a) 6 ohms (b) 0.6 ohm
164. What will be the secondary terminal voltage of the current transformer in
Question 163?
(a) 4 V (b) 6 V
(c) 3 V (d) 12 V
(e) 1 V (f) 5 V
165. The inaccuracy in balancing the bridge circuit is attributed to
(a) temperature (b) thermal E.M.F.
(c) battery of circuit (d) resistance of the bridge
166. Which of the bridges will be used to measure the inductance in terms of the
resistance and capacitance?
(a) Wein bridge (b) Schering bridge
(c) Anderson bridge (d) Maxwell bridge
167. The high quality factor Q of the inductance can be measured by

(a) Hay bridge
(b) Anderson bridge
(c) Wein bridge
(d) Schering bridge
168. An additional ratio arm in the bridge circuit is used to counter-balance the
(a) leads resistances
(b) thermal E.M.F.
(c) observation errors
(d) temperature
169. The higher limit of the resistance measured by bridge methods is determined
by contact resistances and resistance of connecting wires.
(a) true (b) false
170. The lower limit of the resistance measured by the bridge methods is
determined by the sensitivity of the detector.
(a) true (b) false
171. Which of the following is used to measure low impedance components?
(a) Series connection Q-meter
(b) Parallel connection Q-meter
(c) (a) or (b)
172. Which of the following is used to measure the high impedance components?
(a) Parallel connection Q-meter
(b) Series connection Q-meter
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) (a) and (b) simultaneously
173. Ballistic galvanometer can be used to measure the mutual inductance.
(a) true (b) false
174. Which of the following bridges is called a Wein bridge?

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
R1 C1
R1 C1 L R3 R1 R3
R3
R C1
G G G G
R2 C2 R2 C2 R4 R2 R2 R4
C2
V V V V
A B C D
Fig. Q. 174.
175. Which of the following bridges will be used to measure low values of
resistance?
(a) Wein bridge (b) Maxwell bridge
(c) Schering bridge (d) Anderson bridge
176. What will happen when quartz (SiO2) crystal is compressed?
(a) The size of the crystal will be reduced
(b) There will be a great amount of heat because of molecule movement
(c) The electrical charges will be set up across the crystal ends
(d) The crystal will melt
177. The quartz (SiO2) crystal is compressed to develop voltage across the ends;
this phenomenon is known as:
(a) voltaic effect (b) piezo-electric effect
(c) Hall effect (d) photo-voltaic effect
178. A switchgear control consists of
(a) a main switch to isolate the apparatus from the supply
(b) fuses
(c) circuit breaker and fuses
(d) overvoltage relay
(e) interlocks and earth connections
(f) (a), (c), (d), and (e)
179. The peak factor of the sinusoidal wave is defined as:

peak voltage
(a) R.M.S. voltage (b)
peak voltage R.M.S. voltage
peak voltage peak voltage
(c) (d)
average voltage D.C. voltage
180. If the peak voltage is to be measured by ‘‘Rectified Capacitor Charging
Current Method,’’ the peak voltage is given by:
Irms
(a) Iaverage (b)
4 cf 4 cf
Idc Iaverage
(c) (d)
4 cf cf
181. Which of the following voltmeters can indicate peak, R.M.S. alternating and
D.C. high voltage?
(a) Electrostatic voltmeter
(b) Galvanometric voltmeter
(c) Ionic wind voltmeter
(d) Vacuum tube voltmeter
182. Following are the curves for different D
80
thermocouples. Which of the curves is C
70
drawn for platinum-platinum rhodium B
60
thermocouple?
mV
50
(a) A (b) B 40
A
(c) C (d) D 30
20
183. Alundum is the name given to
10
(a) fused alumina
200 400 600 800 1000 1200
(b) fused fireclay Temperature °C
(c) fused alumina and fireclay Fig. Q. 182.
(d) fused platinum
184. The alternating current and voltage wave forms do not, in general, contain
even harmonics.
(a) true (b) false
185. If the voltage wave form having all odd harmonics is applied to the resistive
circuit, then the current wave form will
(a) be like a voltage wave form
(b) be different from voltage wave form
(c) have even harmonics
(d) be sinusoidal
186. The primary winding of CT has
(a) thicker wire than secondary winding
(b) thinner wire than secondary winding
(c) same thickness as secondary winding
(d) more turns than secondary
187. The self-balancing potentiometer is used
(a) for experimental purpose in the laboratory
(b) for vibration measurements
(c) for industrial measurements
(d) in recorders
188. Which of the following bridges can be used to measure high frequency
oscillations?
(a) Schering bridge (b) Anderson bridge
(c) Wein bridge (d) Maxwell bridge
189. Which of the methods will one choose for low resistance measurement?
(a) Schering bridge method (b) Maxwell bridge method
(c) Kelvin’s double bridge method (d) Potentiometric method
190. Two voltmeters each with the range of 0–100 V and resistances 40,000 Ω and
10,000 Ω respectively are connected in series across the power supply source
of 50 V. The voltmeters will indicate
(a) 40 V, 10 V respectively (b) 30 V, 20 V respectively
(c) 50 V, 0 V respectively (d) 20 V, 30 V respectively
191. A rectifier type instrument is used to measure D.C. voltage of 220V. What
will the instrument indicate?
(a) 220 V (b) 110 V
(c) 178 V (d) 0 V
192. If a circuit has inductance of 20 H and 10 Ω resistance, after how many

seconds will the current attain 63% of the steady state value, which is 24 A?
(a) 20 seconds (b) 2 seconds
(c) 1 second (d) 0.02 second
193. Which method can be used to measure the unbalance load of a three-phase
system?
(a) One wattmeter method (b) Two wattmeter method
(c) Three voltmeter method (d) Three ammeter method
194. The one wattmeter method can only be used to measure balance load of the
three-phase electric system.
(a) true (b) false
195. The wattmeter is connected in the three-phase balanced circuit as shown.
The wattmeter will indicate I1
(a) active power
(b) wattless power I2
(c) reactive power

I3
(d) (b) or (c)
Fig. Q. 195.
196. The induction testing method is used to
find which of the following faults in the cables?
(a) Short circuit fault (b) Earth fault
(c) Open circuit fault (d) (b) or (c)
197. The breakdown of the insulation of the cable will be termed as
(a) earth fault (b) short circuit fault
(c) open circuit fault (d) (a) or (c)
198. Loop tests are applied to find the
(a) ground fault of the cable
(b) open circuit fault of the cable
(c) short circuit fault of the cable
(d) (a) or (c)
199. The stroboscopic method can be used to measure the rotational speed of the
electrical drives.
(a) true (b) false
200. The power factor meters have

(a) only current coil
(b) only voltage coil
(c) current and voltage coils both
(d) only inductive voltage circuit
(e) only inductive current circuit
201. Which of the following instruments have poor overload capacity?
(a) all electronics instruments (b) galvanometric instruments
(c) wattmeters (d) hot wire instruments
202. A voltmeter should have
(a) infinite resistance (b) very high resistance
(c) low resistance (d) zero resistance
203. The internal resistance of an ammeter should be
(a) infinite resistance (b) very small resistance
(c) zero resistance (d) high resistance
204. Find the odd man out.
(a) Copper Constantan
(b) Iron Constantan
(c) Platinum-Platinum Rhodium
(d) Lead Carbon
(e) Nickel Chromium
205. The quality factor meter operates on the principal of series resistance.
(a) true (b) false
206. Which of the following instruments have self-balancing properties?
(a) Galvanometric type (b) Potentiometric type
(c) Digital type (d) Ammeters
207. Which of the following instruments are most susceptible to vibrations?
(a) Galvanometric type (b) Potentiometric type
(c) Digital type (d) Voltmeters
208. The source of reference voltage for A.C. potentiometers is a standard cell.
(a) true (b) false
209. Which of the following transducers offer the best accuracy?

(a) Strain gauge type (b) Diaphragm type
(c) Capacitance type (d) Capsule type
210. The flow can be measured directly by
(a) pressure transducer
(b) differential pressure transducer
(c) differential pressure transducer and square root extractor
(d) pressure switch
211. The resolution of a digital ammeter with 3-digit display is
(a) 1/10000 (b) 1/1000
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/3
212. The accuracy of measuring instruments at high frequency
(a) decreases (b) becomes zero
(c) increases (d) does not change
213. How many coils are required in the megger?
(a) One (b) Four
(c) Two (d) Five
214. What will be the reading of megger if the measuring terminals are open
circuited?
(a) Infinity (b) 500 ohms
(c) Zero (d) 10,000 ohms
215. Which of the following instruments will have same calibration on
A.C. and D.C.?
(b) Moving iron instruments
(d) Electrodynamometer instruments
216. The measurement of reproducibility of an instrument gives an
(a) resolution (b) damping
(c) efficiency (d) accuracy
(e) precision
217. The internal resistance of an instrument is normally based on the

criterion that
(a) it draws large power
(b) the instrument can be connected in any circuit
(c) it does not change the parameters of the circuit to which this is
connected
(d) it draws minimum power for its operation
218. The dynamic error of an instrument is defined as
(a) the difference in full scale reading and actual readings
(b) the difference in actual and indicated values
(c) the difference in two consecutive readings of the scale
(d) none of them
219. A multimeter normally employs
(a) the many potentiometers inside it
(b) only one coil with variable number of turns arrangement
(c) the multiple series or shunt resistance inside it
(d) the completely electronic circuit
220. Standard resistors are generally fabricated out of
(a) platinum (b) copper
(c) manganin (d) chromium
221. Air fraction damping is used for instruments which have
(a) very high magnetic field (b) very low magnetic field
(c) zero magnetic field (d) (a) or (b)
222. If the instrument scale is cramped for large values, then the scale is
calibrated as per
(a) square scale law (b) uniform scale law
(c) logarithmic scale law (d) none of them
223. Generally, how many turns in the primary of CT are used?
(a) 2 (b) 1 to 5
(c) 5 to 10 (d) 10 to 40
224. Which method will be used for precision measurement of resistance?

(a) Voltmeter method (b) Potentiometer method
(c) Multimeter method (d) Megger test
(e) Bridge method (f) CRO method
225. The major application of the self-balancing potentiometer is found in
(a) calibration instruments (b) power systems
(c) electronics (d) control systems
226. Radio frequency can be measured with
(a) resonance frequency meter (b) Weston frequency meter
(c) heterodyne frequency meter (d) any of the above
227. Rectifier instruments do not have the following errors:
(a) Temperature errors (b) Wave shape errors
(c) Frequency errors (d) (a), (b), and (c)
228. The sensitivity factor of strain gauges is normally of the order of
(a) 1 to 1.5 (b) 1.5 to 2
(c) 0.5 to 1 (d) 5 to 10
229. CT is used to
(a) step down the current
(b) step up the current
(c) step up the current but step down the voltage
(d) measure very high currents
230. Which of the following instruments has a poor overload capacity?
(a) Moving iron instrument (b) Induction type instruments
(c) Electronic instruments (d) Hot wire instruments
231. The pulse transformer employs
(a) air core (b) iron core
(c) ferrite core (d) none of these
232. The resolution of a potentiometer is
(a) zero
(b) very small
(c) very high
(d) proportional to its reference voltage
233. Which of the following potentiometers is supposed to have infinite

resolution?
(a) Resistance potentiometer (b) Deposited film potentiometer
(c) Kelvins potentiometer (d) None of these
234. The LVDT can be used to measure
(a) level (b) acceleration
(c) speed (d) all of these
235. Which of the following recorders are known as null recorders?
(a) Strip chart recorders (b) Galvanometric recorders
(c) Potentiometric recorders (d) Any of the above
236. Null balance potentiometers are
(a) high frequency devices
(b) low frequency devices
(c) low frequency devices with frequency limit of 10 Hz
(d) independent of frequency
237. Potentiometric recorders have
(b) high sensitivity and independence of lead length
(c) low sensitivity
(d) none of these
238. The inductance of the current coil of a wattmeter is kept
(a) as high as possible (b) as low as possible
(c) at 10 H (d) at 1 to 10 H
239. The potential coil of a wattmeter is designed for
(a) very high inductance (b) minimum inductance
(c) very low inductance (d) 1 to 10 H
240. The potential coil of a wattmeter is designed for minimum inductance to
(a) achieve high phase difference between current and voltage
(b) keep current and voltage in same phase
(c) minimize the reactance of the coil
(d) increase the reactance of the coil
241. A lock-in amplifier

(a) detects a signal with a known frequency in the presence of background
noise
(b) multiplies the input signal by reference signal with a known frequency
(c) is used to fix the output frequency of an amplifier
242. A two-phase lock-in amplifier can detect in-phase and quadrature-phase
components of a signal in the presence of background noise.
(a) true (b) false
243. Electronic noise with a 1/f a power spectral density with a ≈ 1
(a) 1/f noise (b) pink noise
(c) flicker noise (d) all the above
244. Noise with a uniform power spectral density
(a) flicker noise (b) white noise
(c) pink noise (d) all the above
245. Noise with a power spectral density slope close to -1 when plotted on a log-
log scale
(a) 1/f noise (b) pink noise
246. Pink noise is higher at low frequencies than at high frequencies
(a) true (b) false
247. White noise is higher at low frequencies than at high frequencies
(a) true (b) false
248. Magnetic shielding that more efficiently screens low frequency noise fields
(a) mu metal or permalloy (b) copper
(c) aluminium (d) brass
4
PASSIVE CIRCUITS AND
ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELDS
1. A 2 ohms resistor having 1 ampere current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 Watts (b) 2 Joules
(c) 1 Watt (d) 1 Joule
2. When 2 volts E.M.F. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store the
energy of
(a) 2 Joules (b) 2 Watts
(c) 4 Joules (d) 1 Watt
3. Thevenin’s equivalent circuit can be used to calculate power loss in the
original circuit.
(a) true (b) false
4. A 1 H inductance carrying the current number of amperes will store the
energy of
(a) 2 Watts (b) 2 Joules
(c) 4 Watts (d) 4 Joules
5. An electrical circuit with 10 branches and 7 junctions will have
(a) 10 loop equations (b) 4 loop equations
(c) 3 loop equations (d) 7 loop equations
6. An electrical circuit with 8 independent nodes will have
(a) 10 node equations (b) 4 node equations
(c) 3 node equations (d) 7 node equations
7. If two windings having self-inductances L1 and L2 and a mutual inductance

M are connected in series with opposite polarity, then the total inductance of
series combination will be
(a) L1 + L2 − 2M (b) L1 + L2 + 2M
(c) L1 − L2 + 2M (d) L1 + L2 − M
8. The parallel circuit resonance magnifies
(a) current (b) voltage
(c) power (d) none of the above
9. The power factor at resonance in an R-L-C parallel circuit is
(a) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.5 leading
(c) unity (d) zero
10. An inductive circuit of resistance 2 ohms and inductance 0.5 H is connected
to a 250 volts, 50 Hz supply. What capacitance will be placed in parallel to
produce resonance?
(a) 700 micro-farad (b) 750 micro-farad
(c) 701 micro-farad (d) 714 micro-farad
(e) 711 micro-farad
11. The current in resonance in a parallel L-C circuit will be
(a) very small (b) very high
(c) zero (d) infinity
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
(c) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(d) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
13. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time during
which voltage
(a) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
(b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(c) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
PASSIVE CIRCUITS AND ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELDS • 119
14. Which of the following equations is Poisson’s equation?

(a) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 + d2V/dz2 = 0 (b) d2V/dx2 = −ρ/e0
(c) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = 0 (d) d2V/dx2 + d2V/dy2 = ρ/e0
15. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as a
(a) reversible circuit (b) irreversible circuit
(c) unilateral (d) bilateral circuit
16. A passive network
(a) has no current source (b) has no E.M.F. source
(c) has neither of the above (d) has either of the above
17. If an electrical network having more than one voltage source is transformed
into an equivalent electrical network with a single voltage source (which is an
open circuit voltage of a previous circuit), then describe the series internal
resistance of the network with all voltage sources replaced by their internal
resistances.
The above statement is called
(a) reciprocity theorem (b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) superposition theorem (d) duality
18. In the circuit given below, the ammeter A
reads 0.1 ampere and voltmeter 10 volts. The
internal resistance of the ammeter is 1 ohm V R
and that of voltmeter is 500 ohms. What is
the value of R?
Fig. Q. 18.
(c) 115 ohms (d) 112.5 ohms
(e) 125 ohms
2-5 Ω 0.08 H 0.8 µf
19. In the circuit given below the power
factor will be
(a) lagging (b) leading 230 V
(c) zero (d) unity

20. If a = 4 ∠ 20° and b = 2 ∠ 10°, then Fig. Q. 19.
the value of a/b, will be:
(a) 2 ∠ 10° (b) 2 ∠ 30°
(c) 2 ∠ −10° (d) 2 ∠ 20°
21. The conjugate of the complex quantity (a + jb) will be

(a) −a − jb (b) −a + jb
(c) a − jb (d) ja − b
22. Mass in the MKS unit system is analogous to
(a) resistance (b) voltage
(c) inductance (d) capacitance
23. A damped oscillation has the equation i = 50 e−10t sin 628 t. What will be the
frequency of an oscillation?
(a) 50 Hz (b) 75 Hz
(c) 100 Hz (d) 60 Hz
24. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
(a) sinusoidal (b) oscillating
(c) non-oscillating (d) square wave
25. A 0.5 meter-long conductor carrying a current of 2 amperes is placed in a
magnetic field having the flux density of 0.05 wb/m2. What will be the amount
of force experienced by the conductor?
(a) 1 Nw (b) 2 Nw
(c) 0.05 Nw (d) 0.5 Nw
26. Two parallel conductors carry the same current in the same direction. What
kind of mutual force they will experience?
(a) Repulsion (b) Attraction
(c) Zero (d) Either (a) or (b)
(a) The flow of current in the electric circuit involves discontinuous
expenditure of energy
(b) The flow of current in the electric circuit requires energy for creating the
current but not to maintain it
(c) In the magnetic circuit, energy is needed continuously to maintain the
flux
(d) In the magnetic circuit, energy is needed for creating the flux initially but
not to maintain it
28. If a coil has a resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 1 H, what will be

the value of current 0.1 second after switching on a 500 V D.C. supply?
(a) 6.32 A (b) 3.16 A
(c) 3.7 A (d) 4.0 A
29. The R.M.S. value of an alternating current is given by steady (D.C.) current
which, when flowing through a given circuit for a given time, produces
(a) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(b) less heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(c) more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(d) 14.4 calories
30. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current, the average value must
always be taken over
(a) the half cycle
(b) the whole cycle
(c) the unsymmetrical part of the waveform
(d) the quarter cycle
31. The average value of the alternating current is more than the R.M.S. value.
(a) true (b) false
32. The amplitude factor of sinusoidal voltage is
(a) 1.11 (b) 1.57
(c) 1.414 (d) 0.637
(e) 0.707
R1
33. An electrical circuit is shown below,
what will be the power dissipation
in the circuit assuming P as power
across R2? V R 2 = 3R 1
(a) 3/4 P (b) 2/3 P
(c) 4/3 P (d) 3/2 P
Fig. Q. 33.
34. The resistance of a few meters of wire
conductor in a closed electrical circuit is
(a) very high (b) practically zero
(c) a few thousand ohm (d) close to 10,000 ohms
35. If two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 10 watts, the
total power supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 5 watts (b) 10 watts
(c) 20 watts (d) 100 watts
36. If a parallel circuit is open in the main line, the current
(a) increases in each branch
(b) is zero in all branches
(c) is zero in the highest resistive branch
(d) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
37. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must
be in
(a) parallel with each other
(b) parallel with the voltage source
(c) series with the voltage source
(d) series with each other
38. In a series parallel circuit with 6 resistances, if there are three in one parallel
bank, these three resistances must have
(a) the same current as in the voltage source
(b) the same current
(c) the same IR drop
(d) an IR drop equal to the applied voltage
39. In which of the following circuits will most current be produced by the
voltage source?
(a) 5 volts across a 5-ohm resistance
(b) 5 volts across two 5-ohm resistances in series
(c) 5 volts across two 5-ohm resistances in parallel
(d) 500 volts across a 1 M Ω resistance
40. Three 60-watt bulbs are in parallel across a 60 volt power line.
If one bulbs burns open
(a) The other two bulbs will not light
(b) All three bulbs will light
(c) The other two bulbs will light
(d) There will be heavy current in the main line
41. If a wire conductor of 0.1-ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance

becomes
(a) 0.1 ohm (b) 0.02 ohm
(c) 0.2 ohm (d) 0.05 ohm
42. The hot resistance of a bulb filament is higher than its cold resistance
because the temperature coefficient of the filament is
(a) negative (b) zero
(c) positive (d) about 5 ohms per degree
43. The square waveform of current has the following relation between R.M.S.
value and average value:
(a) R.M.S. value of the current is greater than the average value
(b) R.M.S. value of the current is less than the average value
(c) R.M.S. value of the current is equal to average value
(d) there is no meaning of R.M.S. value and average value for square wave
44. There are no transient events in resistive circuits
(a) true (b) false
45. Transient currents are not driven by any part of the applied voltage to a
circuit.
(a) true (b) false
46. Transient currents are associated with the
(a) applied voltage to the circuit
(b) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
(c) resistance of the circuit
(d) impedance of the circuit
47. Double energy transients occur in the
(a) R-L circuit (b) R-C circuit
(c) pure inductive circuit (d) R-L-C circuit
48. A closed switch has a resistance of
(a) infinity
(b) zero
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) about 50 ohms at room temperature
49. The ionization current in liquids and gases results from

(a) protons (b) electrons
(c) neutrons (d) positive or negative ions
50. Two 500 ohms, 1-watt resistors are connected in parallel. Their combined
resistance and wattage rating will be
(a) 5000 ohms, 1 watt (b) 250 ohms, 2 watts
(c) 1000 ohms, 2 watts (d) 500 ohms, 2 watts
51. A resistor is connected across a 45-volt battery to provide 13 mA of current.
The required resistance with suitable wattage rating will be
(a) 4.5 ohms, 1 watt
(b) 45 ohms, 10 watts
(c) 1000 ohms, 2 watts
(d) 45,000 ohms, 1/3 watt
52. A 2.2 lead acid cell
(a) is a primary cell
(b) is a secondary cell
(c) has unlimited shelf life
(d) has a maximum current rating of about 150 mA
53. The formation of the hydrogen bubbles around the carbon electrode in a dry
cell is
(a) local action caused by chemical impurities
(b) polarization caused by electrolysis
(c) depolarization caused by manganese dioxide
(d) an advantage because it increases the voltage output
54. When a lead acid battery is charged
(a) the battery voltage must be more than charging voltage
(b) connect the positive battery terminal to the negative on the charging
current
(c) the charging current must flow in same direction as the discharging
current
(d) connect negative to negative and positive to positive
55. The Edison cell

(a) is a primary cell (b) uses sulphuric acid electrolyte
(c) has 2.5 volts output (d) has nickel and iron electrolyte
56. Cells are connected in series to
(a) increase the current output
(b) increase the voltage output
(c) decrease the internal resistance
(d) decrease the amount of charging voltage required
57. A 45-volt source with an internal resistance of 2 ohms is connected across a
wire-wound resistor. The maximum power will be dissipated in the resistor
when its resistance equals
(a) zero (b) ohms
(c) 45 ohms (d) infinity
58. A magnet can pick up a nail because of
(a) excess charge on the nail
(b) magnetic induction
(c) declination of magnetic field
(d) molecular magnets in the air around the nail
59. A magnetic compass points to the
(a) geographical poles (b) true north pole
(c) magnetic north pole (d) agonic line of the earth field
60. If a wire which is vertical to this page has electrons flow downward, the
conductor will have
(a) no magnetic field
(b) a counter-clockwise field in the plane of the paper
(c) a clockwise field in the plane of the paper
(d) a counter-clockwise field in the plane perpendicular to the paper
61. With lines of forces produced by two magnetic fields, the field
(a) is stronger where the lines of force are in the same direction
(b) is stronger where the lines are in opposite direction
(c) has the same strength as for one magnet
(d) is weakest where the lines are in the same direction
62. A solenoid is a coil which

(a) acts as bar magnet only when there is no current in the conductor
(b) acts as bar magnet only when the current flows in the coil
(c) is like a ring magnet because there is no air gap
(d) acts as bar magnet only when it has an iron core
63. The force tending to make a loop of wire rotate is called
(a) energy (b) power
(c) voltage (d) torque
64. Motor action in a wire conducting current can
(a) be produced without any additional magnetic field
(b) move the conductor from weaker field toward stronger field
(c) move the conductor from stronger field toward a weaker field
(d) produce the motion of the conductor but not rotation
65. The R.M.S. value of an A.C. signal is 10 volts. The peak to peak value will be
(a) 6.37 volts (b) 10 volts
66. When two waves are 90° out of phase
(a) each has its peak value at the same time
(b) each has its minimum value at the same time
(c) one has its peak value when the other has zero value
(d) one has its positive peak when the other has its negative peak
67. Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
(a) 1-amp. D.C. current (b) 50-amp. D.C. current
(c) 1-amp. 60 cycles A.C. current (d) 1-amp. 490 cycles A.C. current
68. When the alternating voltage reverses in polarity, the current it produces
(a) reverses its direction (b) has the same direction
(c) has a phase angle of 180 degrees
(d) alternates at 1.4 times the frequency of the applied voltage
69. An alternating current can induce voltage because it has
(a) high R.M.S. value (b) varying magnetic field
(c) stronger field than direct current (d) constant magnetic field
70. If the length, number of turns, and area of a coil are doubled, the inductance
of the coil is
(a) the same (b) double
(c) quadruple (d) one-quarter
71. The D.C. resistance of a coil made with 100 ft of No. 30 gauge copper wire is
approximately
(a) less than 1 ohm (b) 10.5 ohms
(c) 104 ohms (d) more than 1 M Ω
72. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and high inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and inductance
73. Inductive reactance is measured in ohms because it
(a) reduces the amplitude of alternating current
(b) increases the amplitude of alternating current
(c) increases the amplitude of direct current
(d) has a back E.M.F. opposing the voltage output of a battery
74. Inductive reactance is applied to sine wave only because it
(a) increases with lower frequency
(b) increases with lower inductance
(c) depends on the factor 2p
(d) decreases with the higher frequencies
75. In a sine wave A.C. circuit with 90 ohms R in series with 90 ohms XL, phase
angle q equals
(a) 0° (b) 60°
(c) 45° (d) 90°
76. An arc across the switch opening an R-L circuit is a result of the
(a) long time constant
(b) large self-induced voltage across the inductance
(c) source of the voltage caused by IR drop across the resistance
(d) low resistance of the open switch
77. In a sine wave A.C. circuit with a resistive branch and inductive branch in
parallel, the
(a) voltage across the inductor leads the voltage across the reactance by 90°
(b) resistance branch current is 90° out of phase with the inductive branch
current
(c) resistive and inductive branch currents are 180° out of phase
(d) inductive and resistive branch currents are in phase
78. A D.C. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch
(a) can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the
switch is opened
(b) cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one
polarity
(c) produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch
is opened
79. Alternating current in the inductance will produce maximum induced voltage
when the current has
(a) maximum value
(b) maximum change in magnetic field
(c) minimum change in magnetic field
(d) 0.707 × Peak
80. Two 300-mh chokes connected in series will have the total inductance of
(a) 60 mh (b) 300 mh
(c) 150 mh (d) 600 mh
(a) Iron core has the maximum eddy-current losses
(b) Laminated iron core has the minimum eddy-current losses
(c) Powered-iron core has the maximum eddy-current losses
(d) Air core has the minimum eddy-current
82. Two waves have the frequency of 500 Hz and one is set at its maximum value
whereas the other is set at zero; the phase angle between them will be
(a) 0° (b) 180°
(c) 360° (d) 90°

(a) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(b) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 micro-farad
(d) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
84. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100
times greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant?
(a) 33.333 (b) 50
(c) 1000 (d) 100
85. If an A.C. voltage is applied to a capacitive circuit, the alternating current can
flow in the circuit because
(a) of high peak value
(b) charging current can flow
(c) discharge current can flow
(d) varying voltage produces the charging and discharging currents
86. The amount of capacitive reactance with higher frequencies
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same for frequencies
(d) decreases as the voltage increases
87. A steady D.C. voltage is applied to a capacitor; after it charges to battery
voltage, the current in the circuit
(a) depends on the current rating of the battery
(b) is greater for larger values of capacitances
(c) is smaller for larger values of capacitances
(d) is zero for any value of capacitance
88. In sine wave A.C. circuit with Xc and R in series, the
(a) voltages across R and Xc are in phase
(b) voltages across R and Xc are 180° out of phase
(c) voltages across R leads the voltages across Xc by 90°
(d) voltages across R lags the voltage across Xc by 90°
89. A capacitor can store the charge because it has dielectric between two
conductors.
(a) true (b) false
90. The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and lower the voltage
breakdown rating for a capacitor.
(a) true (b) false
91. In a parallel L-C circuit, at the resonant frequency
(a) a line current is maximum
(b) the total impedance is minimum
(c) the total impedance is maximum
(d) the inductive branch current is minimum
92. The series and parallel resonance in L-C circuit differs in that
(a) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for a sharp rise in current
(b) series resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp increase in
impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in line
current
93. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the
(a) current is minimum (b) voltage across C is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum (d) current is maximum
94. A ferrite core has less eddy-current loss than an iron core because ferrites
have
(a) low resistance (b) high resistance
(c) low permeability (d) high hysteresis
95. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
(a) high resonant frequency (b) low resonant frequency
(c) high Q (d) low A.C. resistance
96. A capacitor with power factor of 0.002 has a Q of
(a) 0.002 (b) 20
(c) 200 (d) 500
97. A permalloy enclosure is the best shield against a

(a) static change (b) steady magnetic field
(c) varying magnetic field (d) stray capacitance
98. With stray capacitance of 10mF, the capacitive reactance at 160MHz equals
(c) 100 ohms (d) 1000 ohms
99. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
100. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.002
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.0002
101. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is practically same as power factor
of the dielectric.
(a) true (b) false
102. The velocity of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is given by
(a) √LC (b) √L/C
(c) √1/LC (d) 1/√LC
103. The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is
equal to the amount of charge enclosed. The above illustration is known as
(a) Maxwell’s First Law (b) Maxwell’s Second Law
(c) Gauss’s Law (d) Coulomb’s Square Law
104. The magnetic flux density B is analogous to
(a) electromotive force V (b) displacement current D
(c) electric intensity (d) electric displacement
105. Which of the following is the continuity equation?
(a) ∂ρ = −∇ ⋅ J (b) ∇ × H = J
∂t
(c) ρfree = ∇ ⋅ D (d) ∇ ⋅ B = 0
106. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is

(a) unity (b) slightly more than unity
(c) zero (d) less than unity
107. The relative permeability of ferromagnetic material may have a value of
several hundred or even several thousand.
(a) true (b) false
108. If A is the vector, which of the following statements is true?
(a) div curl A = A (b) div curl A = curl A
(c) div curl A = 0 (d) div curl A = curl div A
(a) The magnetomotive force around a closed path is equal to the
conduction current plus electric displacement through any surface
bounded by the path
(b) The electromotive force around a closed path is equal to the time
derivative of the electric displacement through any surface bounded by
the path
(c) The total electric displacement through the surface enclosing a volume is
not equal to total charge within the volume
(d) The net magnetic flux emerging through any closed surface is zero
110. Voltage across the resistance in an R-L-C series circuit at resonance
frequency is
(a) much higher than applied voltage
(b) much less than applied voltage
(c) function of value of inductance
(d) function of L/C ratio
(e) equal to applied voltage
111. A horseshoe magnet is held vertical with its ends resting on a horizontal
board. The plane passing through its poles (assumed to lie at its ends) is in
magnetic meridian. If N-pole of the magnet is towards magnetic south of the
earth, the neutral point will lie
(a) within the poles of the shoe magnet
(b) at points along the axial line of the magnet
(c) at point along the equatorial line of the magnet
(d) at points not lying exactly on the horizontal board
112. A horseshoe magnet is far removed from magnetic substances. The magnetic
potential will be zero at a point
(a) lying on its axial line
(b) lying on the center of the line joining the two poles
(c) lying anywhere on its equatorial line
(d) on the center of the magnet
113. Three capacitors, each of capacity C, are given. The resultant capacity 2C/3
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in parallel
(b) all in series
(c) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
(d) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
114. Two spheres of radii 10 and 20 cm have charges 100 and 200 E.S.U.
respectively. These are joined by a fine wire. The loss of energy will be
10 × 20
(a) 1 × (200 + 100)2 ergs
2 10 + 10
10 + 20
(b) 1 × (200 − 100) ergs
2 10 × 20
(c) 1 × (200 − 100)2 ergs
2
(d) zero
115. What will be the frequency of the
following wave?
(a) 10 KHz
(b) 5 KHz
(c) 100 KHz
(d) 150 Hz 10 µ sec.
116. If the pulse repetition time of a
Fig. Q. 115.
square wave is 60 microseconds, the
pulse repetition rate will be
(a) 5 KHz (b) 16 KHz
(c) 10 KHz (d) 15 MHz
(e) 15 Hz
117. Using the following figure, find the capacitor discharge voltage when the
switch is first placed in position A for 4.7 × 10−3 seconds, and then when the
switch is placed in position B for 4.7 × 10−3 seconds. Assume that the initial
charge on the capacitor is zero.
(c) 3.5 volts (d) 6 volts
Fig. Q. 117.
118. Ohm’s law states that
(a) V is proportional to I (b) I is proportional to V
(c) V is proportional to IR (d) V is proportional to R
119. The electromagnetic radiation that can only be emitted or absorbed by
matter in small discrete units is called a
(a) proton (b) electron
(c) photon (d) neutron
120. If the peak voltage of a wave is 15 V and pulse repetition time is 60
microseconds, what will be the average value of voltage?
(a) 10 volts (b) 5 volts approximately
121. A 100 watt, 250 V bulb will have more resistance than 60 watt, 250 V bulb.
(a) true (b) false
122. Kirchhoff’s Laws fail in
(a) lumped parameters circuit (b) distributed parameters circuit
(c) nonlinear circuits (d) linear circuits
(e) bilateral circuits
123. When a current of 0.1 A is passed through a coil of 2000 turns, the MMF
produced by the coil will be
(a) 100 AT (b) 200 AT
(c) 300 AT (d) 10 AT

(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is greater than its outside surface
(b) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is same as on its outside surface
(c) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface
(d) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
125. All the lines of magnetic flux on a coil produced by a uniform magnetic field
are parallel and equidistant.
(a) true (b) false
126. Magneto-motive force is
(a) the flow of an electric current
(b) the sum of all the currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
(c) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
(d) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
127. ‘‘Ampere-Turns’’ are
(a) the product of the number of the turns and current of the coil
(b) the number of the turns of a coil through which current is flowing
(c) the currents of all turns of the coil
(d) the turns of transformer winding
128. The uniform magnetic field is
(a) the field of a single conductor
(b) the field of a set of parallel conductors
(c) field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and equidistant
129. The reluctance of a magnetic circuit depends on the length of the magnetic
flux path, the cross-sectional area presented to the magnetic field and the
magnetic properties of the material in which the magnetic field is generated.
(a) true (b) false
130. The change of the cross-sectional area of a conductor in a magnetic field will
affect
(a) resistance of conductor (b) reluctance of conductor
(c) (a) and (b) both in the same way (d) none of the above
131. Ferromagnetic materials have a relative permeability mr

(a) equal to one (b) less than one
(c) far greater than one (d) zero
132. A magnetic field can penetrate empty space.
(a) true (b) false
133. What will be the current passing through a ring-shaped air cored coil when
number of turns is 900 and ampere-turns are 2700?
(a) 3 (b) 1.5
(c) 6 (d) 9
134. What will be the magnetic potential difference across an air gap of 4 cm
length in a magnetic field of 400 AT/m?
(a) 4 AT (b) 8 AT
(c) 16 AT (d) 20 AT
135. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with a fixed
number of turns. How does the magnetic induction B vary inside the coil if
an iron core is threaded into the coil without dimensional change of the coil?
(a) It increases
(b) It decreases
(c) It remains same
(d) It first increases and then decreases, depending on the depth of iron core
insertion
136. The initial permeability of an iron rod is
(a) the permeability at the end of the iron rod
(b) the permeability almost in non-magnetized state
(c) the lowest permeability of the iron rod
(d) the highest permeability of the iron rod
137. The magnetic reluctance of a material
(a) increases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(b) decreases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(c) does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(d) does vary from small increase in cross-sectional area of the material
138. Magnetic field strength H and magnetic induction B are independent of

each other.
(a) true (b) false
139. Which part of the magnetic path requires largest MMF?
(a) Core (b) Air gap
(c) Coil (d) Inductance
140. The presence of a magnetic field can be determined by
(a) detecting the lines of magnetic flux
(b) deflection of a magnetic compass needle
(c) heating the surrounding air
(d) touching the magnetically affected area
141. How does a magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field?
(a) It starts rotating
(b) It assumes a position right angle to magnetic field
(c) It assumes a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
142. Magnetic reactance has the same unit as electric reactance.
(a) true (b) false
143. MMF is analogous to
(a) electric current in electrical circuit (b) electromotive force
(c) current density in conductor (d) voltage
(a) The strength of magnetic flux in a simple magnetic field continuously
increases from initial value of final value
(b) The strength of magnetic flux in a simple magnetic field continuously
decreases from initial value to final value
(c) The strength of magnetic flux in simple magnetic field is constant and has
same value in every part of the magnetic field
(d) None of the above statements is correct
145. No material is completely impermeable to magnetic flux.
(a) true (b) false
146. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as

(a) a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field
(b) a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
(c) the mean length of a ring-shaped coil
(d) a line vertical to the flux lines
147. In the given circuit, the voltage V is reduced to half. The current I will
change to C L R
(a) 2I I
(b) I/2
(c) I/ R2 + (XL − XC) V
(d) I/ (XL − XC) 2
Fig. Q. 147.
148. The current in the loaded battery flows from
(a) + ve to –ve plate (b) –ve to + ve plate
(c) between plates (d) between terminals
149. In the circuit shown, the current in the
R
resistance 1 shall be 1
(a) 3/7I (b) 3/4I 2
3R/4
(c) I (d) 7/3I
(e) 1/4I V
150. Four bulbs of 40 watts each are connected Fig. Q. 149.

in series with a battery across them; which
of the following statements is true?
(a) The voltage across each bulb is same
(b) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(c) The current through each bulb is same
151. In the given circuit, Kirchhoff’s current law is applied at point A. Which of
the following relations is correct? R1 A
(a) I1 = I2 − I3 I1
+
(b) I1 − I3 + I3 = 0 V R2 R3
(c) I1 − (I2 + I3) = 0 – I2 I3
(d) I1 = −(I2 + I3)

Fig. Q. 151.
152. The voltage source of

220 V shown in the figure
will deliver a total current
to the circuit of
(a) 4 A
(b) 2 A
Fig. Q. 152.
(c) 50 A
(d) 100 A
153. An inductance coil of 10 H develops the counter voltage of 50 volts.
What should be the rate of change of current in the coil?
(a) 5 A/sec (b) 10 A/sec
(c) 1 A/sec (d) 100 A/sec
154. The peak value of the sinusoidal voltage is 10 volts. What will be the effective
value of voltage?
(a) 14.14 volts (b) 1.414 volts
(c) 0.707 volt (d) 7.07 volts
155. If the effective voltage of the sinusoidal voltage is 11 volts, what will be the
average value of sinusoidal voltage?
(c) 1.1 volts (d) 11 volts
(e) 121 volts
156. If a conductor is put in a magnetic field, at what angle should the conductor
cut the magnetic field to induce maximum current in it?
(a) 10° (b) 20°
(c) 90° (d) 120°
(e) 180° (f) −90°
157. For which of the following parameter variations will the capacitance of the
capacitor remain unaffected?
(a) Nature of dielectric
(b) Thickness of the plates
(c) Distance between the plates
(d) Area of the plates
158. If two capacitors with 20 mF capacitance each are connected in series, what
will be the net capacitance of the circuit?
(a) 10 mF (b) 20 mF
(c) 40 mF (d) 80 mF
159. In the above question, if the capacitors are connected in parallel, what will be
the net capacitance?
(a) 40 mF (b) 20 mF
(c) 10 mF (d) 30 mF
160. Three vector diagrams are shown below. Which diagram is for pure resistive
circuit?
I
V
I
V I
(a) (b) (c)
Fig. Q. 160.
161. In the vector diagrams of Question 160, diagram (a) corresponds to
(a) pure inductive circuit (b) pure capacitive circuit
(c) pure resistive circuit (d) none of the above
162. In the vector diagrams shown in Question 160, diagram (b) corresponds to
(a) pure inductive circuit (b) pure resistive circuit
(c) pure capacitive circuit
163. Which of the following expressions is true for apparent power in an A.C.
circuit?
(a) VR.M.S. × IR.M.S. (b) Vmean × Imean
(c) Vpeak × Ipeak (d) V I cos f
164. The sum of the R.M.S. potentials in the RC circuit does not follow
Kirchhoff’s law.
(a) true (b) false
165. The power dissipation in the pure capacitance of RC circuit will be
(a) zero (b) small
(c) higher than dissipation in resistance
(d) equal to dissipation in resistance
166. Which of the following expressions is correct for series reactance Xcs if three
capacitors C1, C2, and C3 are connected in a series?
1 1 1 1
(a) = + +
Xcs Xc1 Xc2 Xc3
(b) Xcs = Xc1 + Xc2 + Xc3

1 1 1
(c) Xcs = + +
Xc1 Xc2 Xc3
1
(d) Xcs =
Xc1 + Xc2 + Xc3
167. The RC network can be used as a high pass and a low pass filter as well. For
which condition does lower cut-off frequency occur as a high pass filter?
(a) ES = ER (b) ES + EC
(c) ER = 0.707 EC (d) ER = 0.707 ES
168. Which of the following relationships shown by curves is true for an inductive
circuit?
y
Voltage
Current
(a)
t
y
Current Voltage
(b)
t
y Current
Voltage
(c)
t
Fig. Q. 168.
169. The Laplace transform of the unit step function is given by

(a) 1/s (b) 1/s2
(c) s (d) 1
170. The Laplace transform of the function f(t) = e−at is given by
1 1
(a) 2 2 (b)
a +s a+s
1 s2
(c) (d) a2 + s2
a+s
171. The Laplace transform of the function f(t) = cos βt is given by
β s
(a) 2 (b) 2
s + β2 s + β2
1 β
(c) 2 (d) s + β
s +β 2
172. The Laplace transform of the function f(t) = sin βt is given by

β β
(a) (b) 2
s + β2 s + β2
s β2
(c) 2 (d) s+β
s + β2
173. Which of the following is the Laplace transform of f(t) = t?
(a) 1/s (b) 1/s2
(c) 1/s3 (d) s
1
174. The expression £ (t) = nn+ 1 is true for the function
s
(a) f(t) = tn (b) f(t) = ntn
(c) f(t) = t/n (d) f(t) = tn
175. Which of the following conditions is necessary for validity of the ‘‘Initial
Value Theorem’’
lim s F(s) = lim f(t)
s→∞ t→0
(a) f(t) and its derivative f(t) must have Laplace transform
(b) If the Laplace transform of f(t) is F(s), the lim sF(s) must exist
(c) only f(t) must have Laplace transform
176. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse at t = 0 is

(a) s (b) 1/s
(c) unity (d) 1/s2
177. If the Laplace transform of unit step is 1/s how many poles will be located at
the origin of the s-plane?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) None
1
178. If the Laplace transform of the function f(t) = exp(−at) is then
s+a
which of the following statements will be true?
(a) One pole will be located on the real axis of s-plane at −a
(b) One pole will be located on the imaginary axis of s-plane at ± jω
(c) One complex pole will be located at the origin of s-plane
(d) One complex pole will be in the s-plane at −a ± jω
179. For which of the following functions will the Laplace transform be 2/s2
(a) f(t) = t (b) f(t) = 1
(c) f(t) = dt (d) f(t) = 2t
2
(e) f(t) = t
180. Which of the following operations is to be carried out to get ramp function
from unit impulse at t = 0?
(a) Integrate unit impulse function once
(b) Integrate unit impulse function twice
(c) Integrate unit impulse function thrice
(d) Differentiate unit impulse function twice
(e) Differentiate unit impulse once as a function of time
181. Which of the following functions represents parabolic characteristics?
(a) f(t) = t (b) f(t) = t2
(c) f(t) = e − at (d) f(t) = Ut
182. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit will be
(a) unity (b) zero
(c) infinite (d) 0.5
183. The quality factor of RCL circuit will increase if the

(a) R decreases (b) R increases
(c) voltage increases (d) impedance increases
184. If the diameter of a current carrying conductor is doubled, the resistance will
(a) be reduced to half (b) to reduced to one-fourth
(c) remain same (d) be doubled
185. The inductance across the points AB in 2
the circuit shown is given by A
2
(a) 1
(b) 2
4
(c) 3 B
(d) 5 Fig. Q. 185.
(e) 4
186. A pure inductance is connected with a D.C. source as
shown. The inductance will behave as +
(a) open circuit V L
– D.C.
(b) closed circuit
(c) short circuit Fig. Q. 186.
187. A voltage divider and its Thevenin’s equivalent circuit is shown below. What
will be the value of voltage source V and resistance R?
(a) 10 V, 80 Ω (b) 10 V, 120 Ω
(c) 4 V, 48 Ω (d) 5 V, 50 Ω
Fig. Q. 187.
188. In the circuit shown below, what will A

be the voltage vR at t = 0?
R vR
(a) 0 V B
(b) V C vC
(c) V/2
Fig. Q. 188.
(d) 0.37 V
(e) 0.63 V
189. In the figure of Question 188, what will be the voltage vR at t = ∞?
(a) 0 (b) V
(c) 0.37 V (d) 0.63 V
(e) V/√3
190. In the figure of Question 188, what will be the voltage vC at t = 0?
(a) 0 (b) V
(c) 0.37 V (d) 0.63 V
191. In the figure of Question 188, what will be the voltage vC at t = ∞?
(a) V (b) 0
(c) V/√3 (d) 0.63 V
192. A pulse of width T seconds is applied =T
/4
to an RC circuit. The response of VS R C RC = T
the circuit is shown below. Which 4T
RC =
kind of filter circuit will produce this
T
response?
Fig. Q. 192.
(a) Low pass filter
(b) High pass filter
(c) Medium pass filter
193. If the output signal of a circuit appropriates the time integral of the input
signal, such circuit is called
(a) differentiator
(b) integrator
(c) multiplier
(d) divider
194. A pulse of T seconds width applied to an RC circuit produces the following

response. What kind of filter will generate such response?
(a) Low pass filter (b) High pass filter
(c) Medium pass filter (d) None of the above
RC = 4T
RC =
T
R
C =
T/4
RC = 4T
RC = T
RC = T/4
Fig. Q. 194.
195. A pulse of T seconds width is applied to an RC circuit. What kind of circuit

will be required to produce a ramp response?
(a) Low pass filter with low time constant
(b) Low pass filter with high time constant
(c) An integrator
(d) A differentiator
(e) (b) or (c)
196. Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source
where R1 > R2. The largest voltage drop will be across
(a) R1 (b) R2
(c) either R1 or R2 (d) none of them
(a) A Norton equivalent is series circuit
(b) A Thevenin equivalent is a parallel circuit
(c) A resistive circuit is a dual pair
(d) An R-L circuit is a dual pair
(e) An L-C circuit is a dual pair
198. The time constant of a series RC circuit is given by
(a) RC (b) R/C
2
(c) R C (d) RC2
199. If resistance is 10 Ω and inductance is 1 H in an RL series circuit, what will

be the time constant of this series RL circuit?
(a) 10 seconds (b) 0.1 second
(c) 100 seconds (d) 0.001 second
200. The magnitude of the impedance 20 − 15j is given by
(a) 5 Ω (b) 15 Ω
(c) 25 Ω (d) 625 Ω
201. If an inductive coil has 50 Ω resistance and 500 Ω inductive reactance, what
will be the quality of factor Q?
(a) 5 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 10
202. The impedances Z1 = 4 + 3j and Z2 = 4 − 3j are added. What will be the
resultant impedance Z1 + Z2?
(a) 5 ∠90° (b) 8 ∠0°
(c) 8 ∠180° (d) none of the above
203. The phasors for which of the following pairs are 180° out of phase for VL,
VC, and VR?
(a) VL and VR (b) VC and VR
(c) VC and VL (d) none of the above
204. If impedance Z1 = 10 ∠10° and Z2 = 10 ∠5°, what will be the value of
Z1 × Z2?
(a) 100 ∠15° (b) 10 ∠5°
(c) 100 ∠50° (d) 20 ∠15°
205. In Question 204, what will be the value of Z1/Z2?
(a) 1 ∠5° (b) 10 ∠2°
(c) 1 ∠20° (d) 100 ∠2°
206. The Fourier series expansion of an odd periodic function contains
(a) cosine terms (b) constant terms only
(c) sine terms (d) cosec terms only
207. The Fourier series expansion of an even periodic function contains
(a) sine terms (b) constant terms
(c) cosine terms (d) harmonics
208. Which of the following conditions is true for even function?

(a) f(t) = −f(n + T/2) (b) f(t) = −f(t)
(c) f(t) = f(−t) (d) f(t) = f(T)
209. What will be the equivalent conductance G
of the circuit shown below? G1, G2 and G3 are
the conductance of individual circuit branch.
(a) G = G1 + G2 + G3
(b) 1/G = G1 + G2 + G3
1 1 1 1
(c) = + +
G G1 G2 G3 Fig. Q. 209.
1
(d) G =
G1 + G2+ G3
210. If electrical current is compared to the flow of water through a pipe, which
part of the pipe system is analogous to conductance?
(a) The cross-section of the pipe (b) The length of the pipe
(c) The pipe gradient (d) The pipe material
211. The electrical circuits A and B are shown below. Which battery of the flowing
circuits will be loaded more and by what amount of current, provided
resistances of bulbs are same?
(a) A, IA = 4IB (b) B, IA = IB
(c) A, IB = 4IA (d) B, IA = 2IB
IA L L
L L
5V
IB
A B
5V
Fig. Q. 211.
212. If one cycle of A.C. waveform occurs every second, what will be the
frequency of this waveform?
(a) 0.2 Hz (b) 0.5 Hz
(c) 1 Hz (d) 2 Hz
213. A circuit is shown below. What will be the

steady state value of the current? t=0
1
(a) 1 amp
4V
(b) 2 amps
(c) 4 amps 2H
(d) 5 amps
Fig. Q. 213.
214. There are two circuits shown below. Which of
the following statements is true?
(a) The lamp will be brightest when contact K moves to A in circuit (a)
(b) The lamp will be brightest when the contact K moves to B in circuit (a)
(c) The lamp will be brightest when contact K is moved to A the circuit (b)
(d) Circuit (a) is a potential divider
L
L
K K
A A B
B
5V 5V
(a) ( b)
Fig. Q. 214.
215. In Question 214, circuit (a) behaves as a
(a) current limiting source
(b) potential divider
(c) light limiting source
216. In Question 214, circuit (b) behaves as a
(a) current limiting source (b) potential divider
(c) light limiting source (d) none of the above
217. Wheatstone bridge is used to measure
(c) resistance (d) power
218. What will be the energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 625 ×
1016 electrons with potential difference of 10 V across the terminals?
(a) 5 joules (b) 10 joules
(c) 6.25 joules (d) 1.6 joules
219. If a light bulb is used at less brightness than a rated one, which of the
following methods would one choose to achieve the required brightness?
(a) Current-limiting resistor (b) Potential divider
(c) Source Voltage Reduction (d) Either (a) or (b)
220. A sine wave of 220 V, 50 Hz A.C. will achieve its negative maximum value in
(a) 10 m sec (b) 15 m sec
(c) 20 m sec (d) 50 m sec
221. If a neon bulb of 60 watts is connected across 220 V, A.C. source and draws
272 mA current, what will be the resistance of the bulb filament?
(a) 1000 Ω (b) 808 Ω
(c) 800 Ω (d) 60 Ω
(e) 272 Ω
R
222. An inductive circuit is shown below; which of
the equations represents the circuit correctly?
V 1 L
(a) V = Ldi/dt
(b) V = IR + Ldi/dt
(c) V = IR Fig. Q. 222.
(d) V = IR + 1/L di/dt
223. Which of the following conditions is true for
maximum transfer of power if the internal
impedance of the voltage source is Zs = R + jx? V ZL
(a) ZL = Zs
(b) ZL = R − jx
Fig. Q. 223.
(c) ZL = R + jx
(d) ZL = Zs/2
224. In Question 223, what will be the maximum transfer of power to ZL?
(a) V2/R (b) V2/2R
(c) V2/R2 (d) V2/4R
225. An RC circuit is shown below; the current will reach its maximum value
(a) after 1000 m sec of turning on the switch
(b) after 500 m sec of turning on the switch
(c) after 50 m sec of turning on the switch
(d) immediately after turning on the switch
100
100 V
V 10 f
D.C.
Fig. Q. 225.
226. The maximum current in the circuit of Question 225 will be

(a) 1 A (b) 100 A
(c) 2 A (d) 5 A
227. If D is the electric displacement density and E is the electric field strength,
then D and E can be related by
(a) D = E2/e
(b) D = E/e
(c) D = eE2
(d) D = eE
228. If mr is the relative permeability of a given medium, m is a permeability and m0
is the permeability of the free space, then the expression for mr is given by
(a) mr = m0/m (b) mr = m/m0
(c) mr = m0/m 2
(d) mr = m0/m
(a) The current in a discharging capacitor grows exponentially
(b) The current in a discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
230. Which of the following indicates units of displacement density?

(a) Ampere-meter (b) Coulomb-meter
(c) Coulomb/m 2
(d) Volt m2
231. If RC is the time constant of the R-C circuit, how much time will the
capacitor take to get fully charged?
(a) RC seconds (b) 4 RC seconds
(c) 3 RC seconds (d) 5 RC seconds
232. Find the change in potential energy of a system where charge Q0 is carried to
the charge Q1 at a distance of 10 meters with a 10 N force.
(a) 10 N/meter (b) 100 N-meter
(c) 10 joules (d) 50 N/meter
233. Which of the following phenomena takes place when an electromagnetic
wave propagates through free space?
(a) Reflection (b) Phase shift
(c) Attenuation (d) Distortion
234. Which of the following values is the intrinsic impedance of free space?
(a) 100 Ω (b) 50 Ω
(c) 317 Ω (d) 377 Ω
(e) 370 Ω (f) 277 Ω
235. The resultant magnetic flux generated in a closed surface will be
(a) zero (b) continuous
(c) constant (d) unity
236. If the current in an induction coil varies from 10 A to 20 A in one second and
induces a voltage of 100 V, what will be the inductance of the coil?
(a) 10 H (b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H (d) 1 H
(e) 10 mH (f) 100 H
237. What will happen if an electromagnetic wave is falling on a perfect dielectric?
(a) The wave will be transmitted completely
(b) The wave will be partially reflected and partly transmitted
(c) The wave will be completely refracted
(d) The wave will be partially absorbed
238. Which of the following gives the rate of energy flow?

(a) Maxwell equation (b) Poynting vector
(c) Poisson vector (d) Newton’s laws
239. The quality factor of an induction coil can be increased if
(a) the length of the wire is increased
(b) the diameter of wire decreased
(c) the length of the wire is decreased
240. Which of the following is normally designed for high value of quality factor?
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance (d) None of the above
(a) ∇ ⋅ (∇ × B) = ∞ (b) ∇ ⋅ (∇ × A) = 0
(c) ∇ ⋅ (∇ × B) = ∇ B
2
(d) ∇ ⋅ (∇ × B) = B
242. If X = q/4pr2, which of the following parameters will be X?
(a) Electric field strength
(b) Magnetic field strength
(c) Electric displacement density
(d) Permeability
243. Which of the following expressions is correct for electric field strength?
(a) E = D (b) E = pD
(c) E = D/e (d) E = r/e
244. Which of the following distances in terms of wavelength is correct if the
distance is measured between the maxima and minima of a standing wave?
(a) l/2 (b) l/8
(c) 4l (d) l/4
245. Polarization in electromagnetic waves is attributed to the
(a) absorptive nature of waves
(b) reflection of waves
(c) longitudinal nature of waves
(d) transverse nature of waves
(e) electric field of waves
246. Which equation represents the following waveform?

(a) y = sin x/3 (b) x = 2 sin 3x/2
(c) y = 2 sin 3x (d) y = 2 sin 2x
(e) y = 2 sin x
Fig. Q. 246.
247. If 0 < q1 < q2 < p/2, which of the following statements is true?
(a) sin q1 < sin q2 (b) cos q1 < cos q2
(c) tan q1 < tan q2 (d) (a) and (c) only
(e) (b) and (c) only (f) (a) and (b) only
(a) The magnetic field inside the conductor is zero
(b) The magnetic field inside the semiconductor is zero
(c) The magnetic field inside the superconductor is zero
(d) The magnetic field inside the dielectric is zero
249. Wein Bridge may be used for
(a) resistance determination (b) frequency measurements
(c) power factor measurements (d) harmonic distortion analysis
(e) both (b) and (d)
250. D’Arsonval/Weston type galvanometers work on the principle of
(a) moving coil instruments
(b) moving iron instruments
(c) potentiometric instruments
(d) permanent magnet moving coil instruments
(e) induction instruments
251. When any material has negative magnetism, the material is called
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic
252. A bar magnet has
(a) the dipole movement (b) monopole movement
(c) (a) and (c) both (d) none of the above
253. There is no material that has properties of a magnetic monopole.
(a) true (b) false
254. Which of the following materials are diamagnetic?
(a) Copper (b) Silver
(c) Copper and silver (d) Iron
255. When of the following materials fall in the category of paramagnetic
materials?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Copper and iron (d) Nickel
(e) None of the above
256. Which of the following types of material are not very important for
engineering applications?
(a) Paramagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic (d) None of the above
257. The solids which have small but positive magnetic susceptibility are called
(a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic (d) anti-ferromagnetic
258. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between
(a) 10−3 and 10−7 (b) 10−3 and 10−5
(c) 10−4 and 10−8 (d) 10−2 and 10−5
259. For which of the following materials is the saturation value the highest?
(a) Ferrites
(b) Ferromagnetic materials
(c) Paramagnetic materials
(d) Diamagnetic materials
260. For which of the following materials is the relative permeability less
than one?
(a) Ferromagnetic materials (b) Diamagnetic materials
(c) Paramagnetic materials (d) Ferrites
261. The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes
paramagnetic is called
(a) peak temperature (b) critical temperature
(c) Neel temperature (d) Weiss temperature
262. The inductance of the following circuit L1 L2
across A and B will be A
M
(a) L1 + L2 + M
(b) L1 + L2 + 2M
B
(c) L1 + L2 − 2M
Fig. Q. 262.
(d) L1 + L2 − M
263. The inductance of the following circuit across A and B will be
A
(a) L1 + L2 − M
(b) L1 + L2 + 2M L2 L1
2
(c) L1 + L2 + M − L1L2 B M
2
(d) (L1L2 − M ) Fig. Q. 263.
(L1 + L2 + 2M)
264. Transient currents may occur in the following circuits:
(a) Pure resistive circuits (b) Capacitive circuits
(c) RL circuits (d) RLC circuits
(e) (b) or (c) or (d)
265. Which of the following coils will have large resonant frequency?
(a) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(b) A coil with low distributed capacitance
(c) A coil with large resistance
(d) A coil with low resistance
1 0
266. The transfer matrix belongs to which of a following circuits?
Y 1
Y Y
(a) (b)
Y Y Y
(c) (d)
Fig. Q. 266.
267. What will be the magnetic field in a toroid having N number of turns,
diameter d and current I?
m NI
(c) m0
1 NI NI NI
(a) (b) 1 (d) 0
2p d p d p d p d2
268. A variable A.C. source is connected across the resistor. Which of the
following curves represents the correct relationship between W and voltage
V, if voltage is increased gradually.
W
(a) (c)
V V
W W
(b) (d)
V V
Fig. Q. 268.
269. A typical radar antenna will have a bandwidth of

(a) 4° (b) 6°
(c) 1° (d) 2°
270. Which of the following antennas is non-resonant?
(a) Broadside array (b) Marconi
(c) Discone (d) Rhombic
271. Ferrimagnetic materials are generally classified as
(a) conductors (b) semiconductors
(c) dielectric (d) insulators
272. Which of the materials will one choose for a transformer core if the
transformer has to work at microwave frequency?
(a) Supermalloy (b) Silicon
(c) Ferrites (d) Iron
273. Magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetization because of
(a) orbital motion of electrons (b) spin of electrons
(c) spin of nucleus (d) any of these
(e) all of the above
274. A coil of 0.04 mH is carrying current of 1 A. If this current is reversed in 0.02
seconds, the induced E.M.F. in the coil will be
(a) 0.16 V (b) 0.008 V
(c) 0.004 V (d) 0.04 V
275. A coil is wound on an iron core which carries current I. The self-induced
voltage in the coil is not affected by
(a) change of the number of turns of the coil
(b) the resistance of the magnetic path
(c) variation in voltage to the coil
(d) variation in coil current
276. How much energy will be stored in the magnetic field of a coil which has
self-inductance of 10 mH and current of 20 A?
(a) 1 joule (b) 10 joules
(c) 2 joules (d) 20 joules

(a) Inductance of the coil carrying a constant D.C. current will increase the
current
(b) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant D.C. current will not affect
the current
(c) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant D.C. current will decrease
the current
(d) The inductance of the coil carrying a constant D.C. current will change
the current into pulses
278. If the frequency of power supply is 60 Hz, what will be the period of one
cycle?
(a) 0.02 sec (b) 0.015 sec
(c) 0.017 sec (d) 0.03 sec
279. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 15 A R.M.S. current, which
of the following equations represents this wave?
(a) 15 sin 50 t (b) 30 sin 25 t
(c) 42.42 sin 25 t (d) 21.21 sin 314 t
280. What will happen if the frequency of power supply in a pure capacitive
circuit is doubled?
(a) The current will be reduced to half
(b) The current will also be doubled
(c) The current will remain same
(d) The current will increase fourfold
281. The safest value of current the human body can carry more than 3 seconds is
(a) 5 mA (b) 15 mA
(c) 25 mA (d) 35 mA
(e) 9 mA
282. Which of the following precautions should be taken first if a man suffers from
electric shock?
(a) Switch off the power supply (b) Call the doctor
(c) Make him lie on the ground (d) Provide him glucose
(e) Lie down on the ground and give him artificial respiration
283. A transformer is designed to achieve 240 V A.C. 50 Hz supply with input of

3.3 kV, 50 Hz and output of 415 V 50 Hz. The secondary of the transformer
will have
(a) three-phase 3 wire system
(b) three-phase 2 wire system
(c) three-phase 6 wire system
(d) three-phase 4 wire system
284. Hysteresis losses do not depend on
(a) volume of material (b) magnetic field
(c) frequency (d) any of these
(e) none of these
285. For which of the following materials is the net magnetic moment zero?
(a) Ferrimagnetic materials
(b) Diamagnetic materials
(c) Anti-ferrimagnetic materials
(d) Anti-ferromagnetic materials
286. What will happen if a strong magnetic field is applied to a ferromagnetic
field?
(a) The domain wall motion varies
(b) The domain wall motion becomes constant
(c) The domain wall motion becomes reversible
(d) The domain wall motion becomes irreversible
287. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will
(a) increase if the flux density decreases
(b) increase if the flux density increases
(c) increase if the core area increases
(d) increase if the core length increases
(a) The conductivity of ferromagnetic material is better than ferrites
(b) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is very high
289. The magnetization and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are related
(a) linearly (b) non-linearly
(c) parabolically (d) sinusoidally
290. The effective power in a pure capacitive circuit shall be
(a) energy stored by capacitor (b) positive
(c) half of the energy stored (d) zero
291. A pure inductance connected across 230 V 50 Hz supply consumes 50 W.
This consumption can be attributed to
(a) the reactance of the inductor
(b) the current flowing in the inductor
(c) the big size of the inductor
(d) the false statement made in this question
292. The heat generated by an electric iron is
(a) reactive power (b) true power
(c) apparent power (d) reactive and true power
293. In which of these materials are the spin moments associated with two sets of
atoms aligned antiparallel to each other?
(a) Ferrimagnetic materials (b) Anti-ferromagnetic materials
(c) Ferrites (d) Ferromagnetic materials
(a) Polarizer converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon zinc
battery
(b) Depolarizer converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon
zinc battery
(c) Carbon power converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the
carbon zinc battery
(d) Zinc chloride converts the produced hydrogen in the water in the carbon
zinc battery
295. Manganese dioxide acts as depolarizer in a
(a) lead acid battery (b) carbon zinc cell
(c) dry cell (d) zinc electrolyte cell
296. Which of the following acts as a depolarizer in carbon zinc cell?

(a) Carbon powder (b) Zinc chloride
(c) Iron ore and carbon powder (d) Ammonia chloride
297. If current is passed through a conductor, which of the following phenomena
will be observed?
(a) A magnetic field will be developed in the conductor
(b) A magnetic field and heat are developed in the conductor
(c) Only heat is developed in the conductor
(d) The molecules of the conductor attract each other
298. The standing wave ratio of 4 will be applicable to
(a) 80 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 320 ohms
(b) 20 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 100 ohms
(c) 100 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 300 ohms
(d) 50 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 500 ohms
299. A network which does not have either voltage source or current source is
called a
(a) active network (b) passive network
(c) resistive network (d) resistive and inductive network
300. ∇ ⋅ D is equal to
(a) free charge density (b) total charge density
(c) bound charge density (d) zero
301. The product of fundamental constants m0e0 is equal to
(a) c (b) c2
(c) 1 / c (d) 1 / c2
302. The differential form of Gauss’s law for electric fields states that the
divergence of the electric displacement is proportional to (or equal to)
(a) the free charge density (b) the total charge density
(c) the bound charge density (d) zero
303. The differential form of Gauss’s law for magnetic fields states that the
divergence of the magnetic field is proportional to (or equal to)
(a) the free current density (b) the total current density
(c) the bound current density (d) zero
304. Given the time dependent charge Q(t) = Q0e-lt the current I(t) is equal to
(a) -lQ0e-lt (b) ltQ0e-lt
Q0 −λt Q
(c) e (d) 0 (1 − e−λt )
λ λ
305. The MKS units of resistivity are
m
(a) Ω ⋅ m (b)
S
(c) Ω / m (d) S ⋅ m
(e) Answers (a) and (b)
306. The MKS units of conductivity are
1 S
(a) (b)
Ω⋅m m
(c) Ω / m (d) S ⋅ m
(e) answers (a) and (b)
307. The electrical skin depth in good conductors with electrical conductivity σ,
permeability m = mrm0 and permittivity e = ere0 at a frequency ω = 2pf is
2 µωσ
(a) δ = (b) δ =
µωσ 2
2 ε ωσ
(c) δ = (d) δ =
ε ωσ 2
308. The electrical skin depth in a conductor at 5 kHz is found to be 1.0 cm. What
is the skin depth at 20 kHz
(a) 2.0 cm (b) 1.7 cm
(c) 0.25 cm (d) 0.50 cm
309. The discontinuity in the electric displacement at a surface is numerically
equal to the
(a) surface charge density (b) surface current density
(c) electric potential (d) vector potential
310. Specified potential values on exterior boundaries or edges within a solution
region
(a) Dirichlet boundary conditions (b) Neumann boundary conditions
(c) mixed boundary conditions (d) open boundary conditions
311. Specified normal derivative of the potential on exterior boundaries or edges

within a solution region
(a) Dirichlet boundary conditions
(b) Neumann boundary conditions
(c) mixed boundary conditions
(d) open boundary conditions
312. Specified normal derivative of the potential and potential values on exterior
boundaries or edges within a solution region
(a) Dirichlet boundary conditions
(b) Neumann boundary conditions
(c) mixed boundary conditions
(d) open boundary conditions
313. An expression for the capacitance of a conductor with total charge Q
electrostatic energy W and surface potential V?
Q 2W
(a) C = . (b) C = 2 ,
V V
2
Q
(c) C = , (d) all the above
2W
314. The Biot-Savart Law
(a) relates current density and magnetic field
(b) relates vector potential and current density
(c) is an empirical law
(d) relates electric and magnetic fields
(e) answers (a) and (c)
315. The relation between vector potential A and magnetic field B
dA
(a) B = − (b) B = ∇2A
dt
(c) B = ∇ × A (d) B = ∫ ∇ ⋅ A dv
316. The torque acting on a magnetic dipole with moment µ in a uniform

magnetic field B
(a) µ × B (b) -µ ⋅ B
(c) (µ ⋅ ∇)B (d) zero
317. The energy of a magnetic dipole with moment µ in a uniform magnetic

field B
(a) µ × B (b) -µ ⋅ B
(c) (µ ⋅ ∇)B (d) zero
318. The force acting on a magnetic dipole with moment µ in a nonuniform
magnetic field B
(a) µ × B (b) -µ ⋅ B
(c) (µ ⋅ ∇)B (d) zero
319. The force acting on a magnetic dipole with moment µ in a uniform magnetic
field B
(a) µ × B (b) -µ ⋅ B
(c) (µ ⋅ ∇)B (d) zero
320. The torque acting on an electric dipole with moment p in a uniform electric
field E
(a) p × E (b) -p ⋅ E
(c) (p ⋅ ∇)E (d) zero
321. The energy of an electric dipole with moment p in a uniform electric field E
(a) p × E (b) -p ⋅ E
(c) (p ⋅ ∇)E (d) zero
322. The force on an electric dipole with moment p in a nonuniform electric
field E
(a) p × E (b) -p ⋅ E
(c) (p ⋅ ∇)E (d) zero
323. The force on an electric dipole with moment p in a uniform electric field E
(a) p × E (b) -p ⋅ E
(c) (p ⋅ ∇)E (d) zero
324. The magnetic flux through a sphere in a nonuniform magnetic field is
(a) zero
(b) the average value of magnetic field integrated over the sphere
µ
(c) 0
4π
(d) equal to the average time rate of change of E on the surface
325. The force per unit length between two parallel line wires each with a current
I separated by a distance r.
F µ0 I 2
(a) = (attractive)
L 2π r
F µ0 I 2
(b) = (repulsive)
L 2π r
F µ0 I 2
(c) = (attractive)
L 4π r 2
F µ0 I 2
(d) = (repulsive)
L 4π r 2
326. The differential form of Faraday’s law for time harmonic fields
ω
(a) ∇ × B = j 2 E (b) ∇ × E = -jωB
c
∂E 1 ∂E
(c) ∇ × B = µJ + µε (d) ∇ × B = 2
∂t c ∂t
∂D
327. Maxwell’s equation in matter ∇ × H = J + where
∂t
(a) B = mH
(b) D = eE
(c) ∂D / ∂t is Maxwell’s displacement current
(d) all the above
328. Given Maxwell’s equation for in material media with time harmonic fields
∇ × B = mσE + jωmeE the conduction current will be much greater than the
displacement current for frequencies
(a) ω  σ / ε (b) ω  σ / ε
(c) answers (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
∂A
329. Taking the curl of the relation E + = −∇V gives
∂t
ρ ∂B
(a) ∇ 2 V = − (b) ∇ × E = −
ε0 ∂t
ρ 1 ∂E
(c) ∇ ⋅ E = (d) ∇ × B =
ε0 c ∂t
∂A
330. Taking the divergence of the relation E + = −∇V gives
∂t
ρ
(a) ∇ 2 V = − if ∇ ⋅ A = 0
ε0
∂B
(b) ∇ × E = −
∂t
ρ
(c) ∇ ⋅ E =
ε0
1 ∂E
(d) ∇ × B =
c ∂t
331. If the electric potential is constant, as in a conductor, then the relation
between eddy current Jeddy and vector potential A is
(a) Jeddy = -jωσA for A.C. fields
dA
(b) J eddy = −σ for transient fields
dt
(c) Jeddy = -ωσ∇ × A
332. The active and reactive components of the current density J = σE + jωeE
(a) Jactive = σωE Jreactive = eE
(b) Jactive = σE Jreactive = ωeE
(c) Jreactive = σE Jactive = ωeE
(d) Jactive = σE + ωeE Jreactive = σE - ωeE
333. The loss tangent (or loss factor) is defined as
J σ
(a) tan δ = active . (b) tan δ =
Jreactive ωε
(c) answers (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
σ
334. The loss angle δ = tan −1 is a measure of
ωε
(a) the energy lost divided by the energy stored per cycle
(b) the energy stored divided by the energy lost per cycle
(c) the energy stored times the energy lost per cycle
335. The Lorentz force law states that the force acting on a charge q moving with
velocity v in electric E and magnetic B fields points
(a) in the direction of E only
(b) perpendicular to both E and B
(c) parallel to B only
(d) in the direction E + v × B
336. The magnetic field in a region of space is given by B = B sin ( kx − ωt ) kˆ . Find
0
the curl of the electric field ∇ × E
(a) B k cos ( kx − ωt ) kˆ
0 (b) B0 ω cos ( kx − ωt ) kˆ
ˆ B0
(c) − B0 ω sin ( kx − ωt ) i (d) − cos ( kx − ωt ) iˆ
ω
x
337. The electric field in a region of space is given by E = E0 cos ( ωt ) ˆj. Find the
curl of the magnetic field ∇ × B a
ω xω
(a) E = − E0 sin ( ωt ) ˆj (b) E = E0 cos ( ωt ) iˆ
a a
ω x ω
(c) E = − 2 E0 sin ( ωt ) ĵ (d) E = − E0 cos ( ωt ) ˆj
c a ca
338. Given a static electric current density J the curl of the magnetic field ∇ × B is
dJ
(a) (b) ∇ × J
dt 1
(c) m0 J (d) J
µ0
339. The total magnetic flux through any open surface is zero
(a) true (b) false
340. Numerical algorithm that solves Maxwell’s first order equations
(a) Yee’s algorithm (b) The Boris algorithm
(c) Poisson’s algorithm (d) The metropolis algorithm
341. Numerical algorithm for the calculation of particle trajectories in electric and
magnetic fields
(a) Yee’s algorithm (b) The Boris algorithm
(c) Poisson’s algorithm (d) The metropolis algorithm
5
POWER SYSTEMS
1. If a fixed amount of power is to be transmitted over a certain length with
fixed power loss, it can be said
(a) the volume of conductor required is inversely proportional to the square
of voltage and that of the power factor of load
(b) the volume of the conductor is inversely proportional to voltage and that
of power factor of load
(c) the volume of the conductor is proportional to square of the voltage and
directly proportional to power factor of load
(d) the volume of the conductor required in proportional to voltage only
2. There is no skin effect in D.C. transmission.
(a) true (b) false
3. Assuming constant efficiency transmission, if the voltage is increased n times,
the size of conductor would be
(a) reduced to 1/n2 that of the original
(b) increased to n2 that of the original
(c) reduced to 1/n that of the original
(d) increased to n times that of the original
4. The percentage regulation of the transmission line is inversely proportional
to the square of the voltage.
(a) true (b) false
5. In a distribution system, if the synchronous capacitors are to be used for

improving the power factor, the correct location would be
(a) at the sending end (b) at the receiving end
(c) in middle of the transmission line
6. In limiting case, the maximum cost of the phase advancing plant that would
justify its installation is when its working cost is
(a) equal to the working cost of the generating plant to give the same
increase in power
(b) equal to working cost of the generating plant to give less increase in
power
(c) less than the working cost of the generating plant to give the same
increase in power
(d) greater than the working cost of the generating plant to give more
increase in power
7. For successful parallel operation of the alternators, which of the following is
necessity?
(a) reactance (b) resistance
(c) impedance (d) reluctance
8. The synchronizing power in the parallel operation of the alternators will be
maximum when
(a) the armatures have more reactances then their resistances
(b) the armatures have less reactances than their resistances
(c) the armature reactances equal to their resistances
(d) the resistances of armatures are zero
9. The synchronizing power developed in one of the alternators when two
alternators are running in parallel will load the same alternator in which it is
developed and reduce its speed.
(a) true (b) false
10. When two alternators are running in parallel and the excitation of one
alternator is more than the other, the alternator having more excitation will
transfer the real power to other alternator.
(a) true (b) false
POWER SYSTEMS • 171
11. When a single machine supplies a local load, a change in excitation of the
machine changes terminal voltage; likewise it is true for infinite busbars.
(a) true (b) false
12. The actual division of the total kW load between alternators running in
parallel depends upon the
(a) speed-load characteristic (b) voltage-load characteristic
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) (a) or (b)
13. The division of the total reactive KVA between alternators will depend upon
the voltage-load characteristic.
(a) true (b) false
14. The critical value of surge impedance of a large transmission line is
15. The surge impedance of a telephone line is
(e) 60 ohms
16. The approximate surge impedance of a transmission line is
(a) L/C (b) LC
(c) √L/C (d) √LC
17. Natural uranium contains
(a) 0.7% U235 (b) 0.7% U238
(c) 100% U238 (d) 50% U235
18. Which of the following will affect the transfer of real power between stations
if they are interconnected?
(a) Quadrature voltage
(b) In-phase voltage boost
(c) Reactance
(d) Angular displacement between stations
19. The synchronous capacity of an interconnector is defined as the change

of kW transmitted per radian change of angular displacement of the two
voltages of two stations and is independent of reactance.
(a) true (b) false
20. The transmission of power by overhead lines is much costlier than
underground cable transmission.
(a) true (b) false
21. Shunt conductance in power transmission in due to
(a) leakage over the insulator
(b) leakage over the conductors
(c) leakage over the poles
(d) leakage between ground and conductors
22. The string efficiency of the insulator can be increased by
(a) increasing the number of strings in the insulator
(b) increasing ratio, capacity to earth/capacity per insulator
(c) correct grading of the various capacitances
(d) reducing the number of strings
23. The dielectric strength of the air barometric pressure of 76 cm and 25°C is
(a) 30 KV per meter (b) 21.1 KV R.M.S. per cm
(c) 21.1 KV R.M.S. per cm (d) 21.1 KV per cm
24. In case of parallel wires the visual corona begins
(a) at disruptive critical voltage
(b) at visual critical voltage which is higher than disruptive critical voltage
(c) at lower voltage than disruptive critical voltage
25. Corona helps in avoiding the effect of lightning or surges on the transmission
line.
(a) true (b) false
26. Corona will not involve energy loss when the transmission is D.C.
(a) true (b) false
27. High tension cables can be used up to

(a) 22 kV (b) 11 kV
(c) 44 kV (d) 33 kV
28. Sheath is used in cables to
(a) prevent moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide strength to the cable
(c) avoid the chance of rust on the strands
(d) provide proper insulation
29. The extra high-tension cables are usually filled with thin oil under pressure of
gas because
(a) the pressure of oil or gas will avoid the formation of voids
(b) the pressure will provide strength to the cable
(c) the pressure will enable the cable to withstand high voltage
(d) the gas and oil at high pressure will work as an insulator
30. The voltage stress is maximum in the cable
(a) at the surface of the sheath
(b) at the surface of the conductor
(c) at the surface of the insulator
(d) at the surface of the armoring
31. The intersheaths in cables are used
(a) to provide uniform stress distribution
(b) to avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) to minimize stress
(d) to avoid moisture
32. Graded cables use the dielectric of different
(a) permitivities (b) permeabilities
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) (a) or (b)
33. The charging current in cables
(a) lags the voltage by 90° (b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) leads the voltage by 180° (d) lags the voltage by 45°
34. Dielectric losses increase with the increase of temperature.

(a) true (b) false
35. If A, B, C, and D are the constants of a medium transmission line, which of
the following relations is correct?
(a) AB − CD = − 1 (b) AD + BD = 1
(c) BC − AD = − 1 (d) AC − BD = 1
36. What is the unit of constant D?
(a) ohm (b) mho
(c) henry (d) none of the above
37. While finding out the relation between VS and VR, capacitance is neglected in
(a) a short transmission line
(b) a long transmission line
(c) a medium transmission line
(d) all the above
38. The capacitance in the a medium transmission line is
(a) lumped
(b) distributed over the entire length of line
(c) (a) or (b) depending on the transmission voltage
(d) variable non-linearity over line
39. The surge impedance of the underground cable is more than the surge
impedance of the overhead transmission line.
(a) true (b) false
40. The surge impedance for an underground cable is
(a) 60 to 100 ohms
(b) 40 to 60 ohms
(c) 40 to 600 ohms
(d) 30 to 75 ohms
41. The surge impedance of a long transmission line is given by
(a) Zc = √L/C (b) Zc = √Z/Y
(c) Zc = √Y/Z (d) Zc = √R/Y
42. Surge impedance cannot be determined in terms of the A, B, C and D

constants of the line.
(a) true (b) false
43. The Ferranti Effect states that under certain conditions the sending end
voltage is
(a) less than the receiving end voltage
(b) greater than the receiving end voltage
(c) equal to the receiving end voltage
(d) abnormally high
44. The surge impedance of a line having negligible resistance and no shunt
leakage is pure resistance, i.e., Zc = √L/C .
(a) true (b) false
45. The use of transformers does not affect the performance of the transmission
line.
(a) true (b) false
46. The entire line performance can be determined by
(a) sending end power circle diagram
(b) receiving end power circle diagram
(c) universal power circle diagram
(d) (a) or (c)
47. Transducer type regulators are electromechanical voltage regulators.
(a) true (b) false
48. If the shunt admittance of a transmission line is neglected, the maximum
power will occur when torque angle is
(a) 45° (b) − 90°
(c) 90° (d) 180°
49. If the receiving end voltage is assumed to be the same as the sending end
voltage, and the impedance of the line is the resistance of the line, what will
be the maximum steady state power transmitted over the line?
V2 V2
(a) R (b) S
Z Z
(c) zero (d) very high
50. If the reactance of the line is varied and resistance is kept constant, the
maximum steady state power that could be transmitted over the line would
be greater when
R
(a) X = (b) X = 3R
√3
R
(c) X = √3R (d) X =
3
51. The equal area criterion of stability is applicable to
(a) two machine system and infinite busbars
(b) one machine system and infinite busbars
(c) multi-machine system only
52. If the torque angle d increases infinitely, the system will show
(a) stability (b) instability
(c) steady state stability (d) none of the above
53. If VS = VR = 33 kV for three phase transmission and reactance is 13 ohms per
phase, what will be the maximum power transmission per phase?
(a) 29 MW (b) 28 MW
(c) 30 MW (d) 60 MW
54. Switching operations will not affect the transient stability of the system.
(a) true (b) false
55. The size of the feeder is determined primarily by
(a) the current it is required to carry
(b) the percentage variation of voltage in the feeder
(c) the voltage across the feeder
(d) the distance over which the transmission is made
56. If the voltage is increased n times, the current in the feeder is reduced to (for
a given power delivered)
(a) 1/n times the original (b) 1/n2 times the original
(c) 1/√n times the original (d) √n times the original
57. In the D.C. three wire transmission system, the cross-section of the neutral is
generally
(a) 1 of the outer conductors (b) 1 of the outer conductors
4 2
(c) 1 of the outer conductors (d) equal to the outer conductors
3
58. The radial system of distribution is better than the ring main system.
(a) true (b) false
59. The metal clad is related to
(a) amplidyne (b) switchgear system
(c) synchros (d) relays
60. As the transmission voltage increases, the percentage resistance drop
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) will not change
(d) will increase in a random manner
61. As the transmission voltage increases, the volume of the conductor
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) will not change (d) will increase proportionately
62. The power transmission capacity of the transmission line is
(a) proportional to the square of the operating voltage
(b) inversely proportional to the voltage
(c) proportional to the voltage
(d) inversely proportional to the square of the voltage
63. As the overall capital cost of transmission decreases, the voltage of
transmission increases.
(a) true (b) false
64. Which of the following power plants has the maximum efficiency?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Hydro-electric power plant
(c) Atomic reactor (d) MHD
65. The corona loss in a transmission line can be reduced by increasing spacing
between the conductors or the diameter of the conductors.
(a) true (b) false
66. Bundle conductors are preferred for EHV transmission line because
(a) it is easy to fabricate thin conductors and combine them to make a
bundle
(b) overall inductance of the line is reduced and corona loss and radio
influences are minimum
(c) height of the tower is reduced, hence cheap transmission
(d) fabrication of the conductor is cheap
(e) of erection difficulties
67. EHV D.C. transmission over large distances is cheaper than EHV A.C.
transmission.
(a) true (b) false
68. Percentage reactance is defined as
(a) the percentage of the ratio of change in reactance in transient condition
to the total reactance of the machine
(b) the percentage of the ratio of change in reactance in transient condition
of the total resistance of the machine
(c) the percentage of the ratio of voltage drop due to reactance synchronous
machine to the rated voltage when full load rating current is flowing
(d) either (a) or (c)
69. If the secondary of the transformer having a reactance of 4% is short
circuited with normal voltage applied to the primary, the symmetrical short
circuit current will be
(a) 4 times the full load current
(b) 25 times the full load current
(c) 2 times the full load current
(d) 8 times the full load current
(e) 40 times the full load current
70. If the base kVA is 25,000, then a 5000 kVA alternator with 8% reactance will
have a
(a) 4% reactance
(b) 40% reactance
(c) 16% reactance
(d) 20% reactance
71. The percentage reactance can be converted into ohmic value with the
following formula:
X(%) × 100 (kV)2 X(%) × 1000 (kV)2
(a) Xohms = (b) Xohms =
kVA kVA
X(%) × (kV)2 X(%) × 10 (kV)2

(c) Xohms = (d) Xohms =
1000 kVA kVA
72. When an alternator is short circuited on three phases, it settles down to the
steady short circuit value and is limited by
(a) sub-transient reactance (b) transient reactance
(c) synchronous reactance (d) either (a) or (c)
73. The short circuit current of an alternator when short circuited on three
phases will be
(a) zero as time goes to infinity
(b) maximum when time goes to infinity
(c) infinite when time goes to infinity
(d) small as time goes to infinity but not zero
74. The reactors used to limit the short circuit current in the alternators have
very small resistance in comparison to reactance
(a) because the high resistance will not help to limit the short circuit current
(b) to avoid the energy waste
(c) because the high resistance will raise the temperature and the insulation
of reactor will be spoiled
(d) to improve power factor
75. “a” is an operator used for symmetrical component analysis
(a) which rotates the vector it operates upon through an angle 90° in the
clockwise direction
(b) which rotates the vector it operates upon through an angle 120° in the
counter-clockwise direction
(c) which rotates the vector it operates upon through an angle 120° in the
clockwise direction
(d) which rotates the vector it operates upon through an angle 240° in the
clockwise direction

(a) a = 0.5 − j 0.866 (b) a = 0.5 + j 0.866
4
(c) a = − a (d) a2 = − (1 + a)
77. The arc voltage produced in a circuit breaker is always
(a) in phase with the arc current (b) lagging the arc current by 90°
(c) leading the arc current by 90° (d) leading the arc current by 180°
78. The fusing factor of the fuse is always greater than one.
(a) true (b) false
79. The material used for a fuse must have
(a) low melting point and low specific resistance
(b) low melting point and high specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point with any specific resistance
80. The Buchholz relay is used to protect
(a) alternators against all internal faults
(b) oil immersed transformers against all internal faults
(c) synchronous motors against all internal faults
(d) transmission lines against all short circuit faults
81. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole structure) is
(a) proportional to the square of the current
(b) proportional to the current
(c) inversely proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the current
82. In an impedance relay the torque produced by the current element is
balanced against the torque of a voltage element.
(a) true (b) false
83. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be
(a) lower than if the fault occurs away from the relay
(b) higher than if the fault occurs away from the relay
(c) constant for all distances
84. Admittance relay is

(a) the directional relay (b) the non-directional relay
(c) the impedance relay (d) none of the above
85. The impedance relay can be used for earth faults and phase faults too.
(a) true (b) false
86. A saturable reactor can be used to realize the relay action.
(a) true (b) false
87. A 132 kV three phase, 50 Hz overhead line is 50 km long and has a
capacitance to earth for each line of 0.0157 microfarad/km. What will be the
inductance of the arc suppression coil suitable for the system?
(a) 4 henrys (b) 4.3 henrys
(c) 5 henrys (d) 2 henrys
88. An earthing transformer is used
(a) to avoid harmonics in the transformers
(b) to provide artificial neutral earthing where the neutral points of the
three-phase system are not accessible
(c) to improve the current capacity of the neutral wire
89. The third harmonics current flowing from the generator line terminals
through the system and returning by way of a comparatively low zero-
sequence reactance path to the neutral terminals will give rise to
(a) overheating of the generator only
(b) overheating of the generator and neutral resistors of the earthing
transformer
(c) overheating of the earthing transformer only
90. The safe value current (R.M.S.) which a human body can tolerate for greater
than 3 seconds is
(a) 15 mA (b) 25 mA
(c) 5 mA (d) 9 mA
91. The effect of shock in the human body will depend on

(a) line voltage (b) line current
(c) current flowing in the body (d) none of the above
92. To protect the power transformer (Y-Y, with neutral earthed) against fault,
the current transformer will have
(a) delta-delta connection (b) delta-star connection
(c) star-delta connection (d) star-star connection
93. To protect the power transformer (delta-delta) against fault current
transformer will have
(a) delta-delta connection (b) delta-star connection
(c) star-delta connection (d) star-star connection
94. Which of the following alloys is used for the core of the transformer?
(a) Invar (b) Nichrome
(c) Elinvar (d) Perminvar
95. The requirement of insulation in a transformer or electrical machine design
is determined by
(c) rate of the change of the current (d) rate of the change of voltage
(e) power
96. Class C insulation can withstand
(a) 180°C (b) 150°C
(c) 200°C (d) 105°C
97. If a star connected circuit is transformed into a delta connected circuit,
which of the following statements is true?
R1R2 + R2R3 + R1R3 R3
(a) Ra = (b) Ra =
R3 R1 + R2
R3 R1 + R2 + R3
(c) Ra = (d) Ra =
R1R2 + R2R3 + R1R3 R1 + R2
R1 Ra Rb
R3
R2 Rc
Fig. Q. 97.
98. The location of lightning arresters is
(a) near the transformer
(b) away from the transformer
(c) near the circuit breaker
(d) away from the circuit breaker
99. The steady state stability of a power system can be increased by
(a) using machines of high impedance
(b) connecting lines in series
(c) connecting lines in parallel
(d) reducing the excitation of the machines
100. With single frequency transients, the ratio of peak restriking voltage/time
between voltage zero and peak voltage is known as
(a) recovery voltage
(b) restriking voltage
(c) rate of rise restriking voltage
(d) active recovery voltage
101. Which of the following power system distributions gives greater reliability?
(a) radial system of distribution
(b) ring system of distribution
(c) D.C. three wire system of distribution
(d) A.C. three phase four wire system
102. The diversity factor is defined as the

Average demand
(a)
Maximum demand
Sum of consumers maximum demand
(b)
Maximum load on the station
Maximum demand
(c)
Sum of consumers maximum demand
Average demand
(d)
Maximum load on the station
103. In transformers
(a) high tension winding is used near the core
(b) high tension winding is used away from the core
(c) low tension winding is used near the core
(d) low tension winding is used away from the core
104. For the system shown below the base voltage is
(a) 11 kV for whole system
(b) 132 kV for the whole system
(c) 11 kV for the generator side and 132 kV for the transmission side
(d) cannot be determined from the given data
11 kV, 1000 kVA Transmisson line
11 kV
1000 kVA
11/132 kV
Fig. Q. 104.
105. The efficiency of the transformer lies between
(a) 70 to 80% (b) 80 to 90%
(c) 90 to 98% (d) none of the above
106. For the three-phase transformer, which of the following statements is true?
(a) turn ratio = line voltage ratio (b) turn ratio = phase voltage ratio
(c) turn ratio = √3 phase voltage ratio
(d) turn ratio = √3 lines voltage ratio
107. A distribution transformer usually is a

(a) star-delta transformer
(b) delta-star transformer
(c) star-star transformer
(d) delta-delta transformer
108. From a resistance test carried out on a transformer, it was found that the
resistance of primary and secondary windings are 8 ohms and 16 ohms
respectively. The primary will be
(a) H.V. side (b) L.V. side
(c) cannot be determined from the test
(d) either of two may be L.V. side
109. The effect of a series capacitor on a transmission line is to improve
(a) steady stability (b) transient stability
110. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is
called
(a) firm power (b) hot reserve
(c) cold reserve (d) spinning reserve
111. Which of the following generating stations has the minimum running cost?
(a) Hydro-electric station
(b) Nuclear power station
(c) Thermal power station
(d) Diesel power plant
112. Which of the following motors is used for locomotive drive?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) D.C. series motor
(c) A.C. series motor (d) Synchronous motors
113. The rating of the circuit breaker used for a system whose capacity has been
increased from 10,000 to 20,000 kVA will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) remain same but the size of the circuit breaker increases
114. The inductive interference between the power and the communication line
can be minimized by
(a) increasing the distance between the conductors
(b) transposition of the power line
(c) transposition of the communication line
115. Two transmission lines of a surge impedance of 600 ohms each are linked by
a cable. What should be the surge impedance of the cable if there were no
reflection at the junction?
116. A delta and star capacitances configurations are shown. Find CY in terms of
CD, so that the capacitances between any corresponding points are in the star
circuit
(a) CY = 2CL (b) CY = 3CD
(c) CY = CD (d) CY = CD/2
A′
A
CY
CY CY
CD CD
B′
C′
B CD C
Fig. Q. 116.
117. For 11 kV underground system, it is possible to work upon a length of

(a) 800 miles (b) 100 miles
(c) 400 miles (d) none of the above
118. The magnetizing inrush current while energizing a transformer will be
(a) larger than full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) equal to full load current
(d) approximately equal to full load current
119. Overfluxing protection is recommended for the

(a) generator transformer of the power plant
(b) auto-transformer of the power plant
(c) station transformer of the power plant
(d) distribution transformer
120. Harmonic restraint in differential protection for a transformer is provided to
prevent the mal-operation caused by
(a) magnetizing inrush current (b) unmatched VTs
(c) unmatched CTs (d) demagnetizing flux
121. Which of the following statements is true if restricted earth fault protection is
provided to star winding of the generator transformer?
(a) One CT in each phase and fourth in the neutral are provided and their
secondaries are connected in parallel
(b) One CT is provided in the neutral
(c) Two CTs are provided, one in R-phase and other in Y-phase with a CT in
neutral
(d) CTs are not required at all as the fault current is not very high
122. Series capacitors are used to
(a) improve line voltage
(b) compensate for line inductive reactance
(c) compensate for line capacitive reactance
123. Air blast circuit breakers for a 400-kV power system are designed to
operate in
(a) 5 sec (b) 0.5 sec
(c) 0.1 sec (d) 50 millisecond
(e) 100 micro-second
124. Carrier transfer-trip schemes do not operate faster than carrier blocking
schemes.
(a) true (b) false
125. The auxiliary power supply system in any kind of power station is arranged
such that the power supplies are
(a) redundant only
(b) redundant and independent only
(c) reliable
(d) independent only
126. High water level of a boiler drum can damage
(a) boiler tubes only (b) turbine and steam line
(c) turbine only (d) none of the above
(a) The zero-sequence reactance of a transformer is approximately equal to
negative sequence reactance
(b) The zero-sequence reactance of a transformer is approximately equal to
positive sequence reactance
(c) The zero-sequence reactance depends on the connection and winding of
the transformer
(d) The zero-sequence reactance is larger than negative sequence reactance
but less than positive sequence reactance in the transformer
128. The capacitor voltage transformer is used
(a) up to 11 kV (b) up to 33 kV
(c) above 220 kV (d) above 132 kV
(e) above 110 kV
129. The MHO relay is inherently a
(a) directional unit (b) non-directional unit
(c) none of the above
130. The operating time of instantaneous relay is usually
(a) of an order of a few seconds (b) without any time delay
(c) one second (d) 0.01 second
131. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential is protection
recommended?
(a) Above 50 kVA (b) Equal to and above 5 MVA
(c) Equal to and above 20 MVA (d) Any of the above cases
132. When the stator neutral of a generator is grounded through a resistor, the
stator ground fault is detected through
(a) an under-voltage relay connected across the resistor
(b) an over-voltage relay connected across the resistor
(c) an over-current relay connected to the current CT
(d) any ground fault relay
133. The longitudinal differential relaying system responds in faults between turns
of winding of a transformer.
(a) true (b) false
134. Over voltage protection is recommended for
(a) steam turbine generators (b) hydro-electric generators
(c) gas turbine generators (d) all the above
135. Distance relays are generally
(a) MHO relays (b) reactance relays
(c) impedance relays (d) split-phase relays
136. Which of the following relays is preferred for phase fault on a short
transmission line?
(a) Reactance relay (b) Impedance relay
(c) MHO relay (d) Induction type relay
137. In a multi-terminal line, the first zone of the distance relay is set to reach 80
to 90% of the distance from the nearest terminal.
(a) true (b) false
138. The knee-point in the magnetizing characteristics of a CT is a point where
10% increase in the secondary voltage increases
(a) the exciting current by 10% (b) the exciting current by 30%
(c) the exciting current by 50% (d) the exciting current by 14.4%
(e) the primary voltage by 10%
139. Fuses are used where relays and circuit breakers
(a) fail to interrupt heavy short circuit currents
(b) are not economically justified (c) are not available
(d) require more care and maintenance (e) take more time to clear the fault
140. The impedance relay does not have directional features.

(a) true (b) false
141. A short circuit in any windings of the transformer is the result of
(a) impulse voltage (b) insulation failure
(c) mechanical vibration (d) magnetostriction force
(e) loose connection
142. Percentage differential protection in a transformer is recommended to
prevent mal-operation due to
(a) external fault currents (b) internal fault currents
(c) magnetizing currents (d) none of the above
143. Harmonic restraint in a differential relay is provided so that the relay
operates when the harmonic current in the transformer
(a) does not exceed 15% of fundamental
(b) exceeds 15% of fundamental
(c) exceeds 14.4% of fundamental
(d) exceeds 17.3% of fundamental
144. Inverse definite mean time relays are used for over-current and earth fault
protection of transformer against
(a) external short circuits
(b) internal short circuits
(c) heavy overloads
(d) all the above
(a) Shunt reactors are used for power factor improvement
(b) Shunt reactors are used to control the line voltage
(c) Shunt reactors are used to reduce the line impedance
(d) Shunt reactors are used to eliminate line to ground capacitance
146. When a stator neutral of a generator is earthed through a distribution
transformer, the stator earth fault is detected through
(a) an over-voltage relay connected across the secondary of the transformer
(b) an over-current relay connected across the secondary of the transformer
(c) an under-voltage relay connected across the secondary of the transformer
147. Split-phase relaying responds to faults between turns of a transformer.

(a) true (b) false
148. A single ground fault in the field circuit of a large generator causes damage to
the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
149. Which of the following relays are used for phase fault on a long line?
(a) Impedance relays (b) Reactance relays
(c) MHO relays (d) None of the above
150. For detection of severe synchronizing power surges
(a) impedance relays are best suited
(b) MHO relays are best suited
(c) reactance relays are best suited
(d) split-phase relays are best suited
151. Protection from negative sequence currents is provided for
(a) transformers (b) generators
(c) transmission lines (d) motors
152. Phase comparison relays require voltage transformers
(a) true (b) false
153. If high pressure heaters of the steam cycle in a power plant have a high-water
level, what precaution shall be taken?
(a) Trip the turbine
(b) Trip the boiler
(c) Trip the boiler feed pump
(d) Bypass the heater from waterside and close the extraction valve
154. Which of the following devices is used to measure the stator winding
temperature of the generator?
(a) Thermometer (b) Resistance thermometer
(c) Pyrometer (d) Thermocouple
155. How many relays are used to detect inter-phases fault of a three line?
(a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) six
156. What is the value of current I shown in the following circuit?

(a) Zero (b) 10 A
(c) 100 A (d) 1 A
I
500V 150 90°
1000V
100V
Fig. Q. 156.
157. If the transmission voltage is increased from 11 kV to 33 kV, then diameter of

the conductor will be
(a) increased (b) decreased
(c) same as for 11 kV system (d) none of the above
158. Which relation is correct if the transmission voltage of a power line is V and
regulation is R where K is constant?
(a) RV = K (b) R/V = K
(c) R = KV 2
(d) R = KV3
(e) R = K/V2
159. The characteristic impedance of a power line is the same as surge impedance.
(a) true (b) false
160. Power line resistance is concerned with
(a) surge impedance
(b) characteristic impedance
161. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the inductance of the
line will
(c) remain same (d) increase exponentially
162. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the capacitance of the
line will
(c) remain same (d) decrease exponentially
163. An A.C. system has the following disadvantages over a D.C. system:
(i) skin effect exists
(ii) line regulation is more
(iii) charging current exists
164. Power loss is important for the design of a
(c) feeder (d) transmission line
165. Voltage regulation is an important factor for the design of a
(c) feeder (d) transmission line
166. A booster transformer is used to increase the voltage at
(a) intermediate points
(b) receiving end of transmission line
(c) sending end of transmission line
(d) any point desired
167. Which of the statements is true?
(a) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault
occurs near the relay
(b) The fault current in an impedance relay will be minimum when fault
occurs near the relay
(c) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault
occurs away from the relay
(d) The fault current in an impedance relay will be maximum when fault
occurs near the transmitting end
168. The lightning arrester acts as a
(a) surge diverter (b) surge coil
(c) surge absorber (d) surge reflector
169. Air blast circuit-breakers are preferred for intermittent duty.

(a) true (b) false
170. The under-voltage relay can be used for
(a) busbars (b) motor
(c) transformers (d) generators
(e) all the above
171. The capital cost of a thermal power plant will depend on
(a) the size of the plant (b) the fuel cost
172. A fixed tariff consists of the interest on the capital cost, depreciation,
insurance, and other taxes.
(a) true (b) false
173. The running cost of a plant comprises cost of fuel, consumable materials and
operation, and maintenance cost.
(a) true (b) false
174. Which of the following plants has highest capital cost?
(a) Diesel power plant (b) Thermal power plant
(c) Hydro-power plant (d) Nuclear power plant
175. The running cost, among conventional power plants, is minimum for
hydro-plants.
(a) true (b) false
176. A hydro-power plant operates at higher load factor than a thermal power
plant.
(a) true (b) false
177. Which of the following frequency ranges is suitable for an A.C. network
analyser?
(a) 400 Hz to 500 Hz (b) 50 Hz to 100 Hz
(c) 40 Hz to 50 Hz (d) D.C. to 50 Hz
178. Distance relay basically measures
(c) impedance (d) either of the above
179. A relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within

(a) 2 secs (b) 5 to 10 secs
(c) 5 to 20 secs (d) 20 to 30 secs
180. The disruptive critical voltage will
(a) increase if the moisture content in the air increases
(b) decrease if the moisture content in the air decreases
(c) decrease if the moisture content in the air increases
(d) decrease if the moisture content in the air increases
181. Corona loss in power lines is greater in the winter than the summer.
(a) true (b) false
182. Single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motor only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
183. Two protective zones in an electrical transmission system are decided by
(a) location of PT (b) location of CT
(c) relay’s size (d) relay’s sensitivity
184. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first traveling on the
transmission line
(a) step-down transformer (b) relays
(c) switchgear (d) lightning arresters
185. The fault impedance of a line is
(a) less than the impedance of a healthy line
(b) more than the impedance of a healthy line
(c) equal to the impedance of a healthy line
186. Which of the following parameters can be neglected for a short line?
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance
(c) Reactance (d) Capacitance
187. The stability of a salient pole alternator is better than the stability of a non-
salient pole alternator.
(a) true (b) false
188. Series reactors should have
(a) high resistance (b) low resistance
(c) high impedance (d) low impedance
189. Which of the following frequency variations for power frequency is as per IS?
(a) 2.5% (b) 5%
(c) ± 5% (d) ± 2.5%
190. Which of the following devices will be preferred to control the power system
voltage?
(a) Transformers
(b) Shunt capacitors
(c) Series capacitors
(d) Electronic amplifiers
(e) Synchronous conductors
191. Back-up protection is provided with time delay, during which main
protection to the power system must operate when a fault occurs. If the main
protection fails to operate, the back-up protection will operate.
(a) true (b) false
192. What kind of insulator will be used if the direction of the transmission line is
changed?
(a) Suspension type insulators
(b) Pin type insulators
(c) Rubber insulators
(d) Strain type insulators
193. Which of the insulator discs will be exposed to maximum electrical stress?
(a) One which is near to the conductor
(b) One which is away from the conductor
(c) One which is at the bottom of a string
(d) One which is in the center of a string
194. If an ACSR conductor has a specification of 48/7, which of the following

explanations is correct for the conductor?
(a) The conductor has 48 strands of steel and 7 strands of aluminium
(b) The conductor has 7 strands of steel and 48 strands of aluminium
(c) The conductor has 48 strands
(d) The conductor has 55 strands
195. The skin effect in the conductor increases the effective value of resistance of
the conductor.
(a) true (b) false
196. The inductance in a transmission line is caused by the
(a) current flowing in the conductor
(b) current flowing in the other conductor
(c) voltage difference among the conductors
197. Which parameters can be neglected while calculating transmission line
faults?
(a) Reactance (b) Resistance
(c) Capacitance (d) Inductance
198. Which of the following systems are more prone to faults?
(a) Motors (b) Generators
(c) Underground cables (d) Overhead lines
(e) Transformers (f) Reactors
199. The power loss due to the corona effect depends on
(a) the surface condition of the conductor
(b) the material density of the conductor
(c) (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
200. The dielectric losses of an electrical system are 50 Watts. What will be the
dielectric losses if the voltage of the system is doubled?
(a) 50 Watts (b) 100 Watts
(c) 300 Watts (d) 200 Watts
201. The capacitance of a transmission line will be affected if the distance

between conductors and earth is varied.
(a) true (b) false
202. The inductance of a transmission line will be affected if the distance between
conductors and earth is varied.
(a) true (b) false
203. The sending end voltage of a transmission line controls the
(a) active power
(b) reactive power
(d) none of them
204. The frequency of a power system controls the
(a) active power (b) reactive power
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) none of them
205. Enumerate three conditions which have a transient state instability in the
power system.
(i) switching operations on the transmission line
(ii) any short circuits
(iii) excitation loss in the generator
206. Which of the following equipment will one choose to study the stability of an
A.C. power system?
(a) energy meter
(b) network analyser
(c) network synthesizer
(d) (b) or (c)
207. The braking torque while plugging a machine at zero speed will be
(a) zero (b) high
(c) small (d) none of the above
208. The dynamic braking of a machine offers the highest braking torque in
comparison to other braking methods.
(a) true (b) false
209. The drop in the terminal voltage of a shunt generator on load may be
attributed to
(a) increase in armature resistance
(b) drop in field current due to armature reaction
(c) drop in field current due to drop in armature resistance
210. If load is not connected to the D.C. series motor then
(a) it will not build up the voltage
(b) it will build up very high voltage
(c) it will have very low speed
211. The power factor of an alternator depends on load.
(a) true (b) false
212. Which of the following transmission lines has a reflection coefficient of one?
(a) Open circuit transmission line
(b) Short circuit transmission line
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Long transmission line
213. Which of the following transmission lines has a reflection coefficient of minus
one?
(c) Long transmission line
(d) Short transmission line
214. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum
maintenance?
(a) Oil circuit breakers
(b) Air blast circuit breakers
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers
(d) Circuit breakers with SF6 gas
215. The insulation resistance of HV circuit breakers should be of the order of

(a) 50 ohms to 100 ohms
(b) 100 K ohms to 1000 K ohms
(c) 10 Mega ohms
(d) 50 Mega ohms to 100 Mega ohms
(e) 100 Mega ohms and above
216. If the capacitance of a transmission line is increased, the transmitted
power will
(a) remain same
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) tend to zero at the receiving end
217. If the inductance of a transmission line is decreased, the power transmitted
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) not change
(d) tend to be very high at the receiving end
218. The installation of a synchronous motor at the receiving end of a transmission
line will
(a) only improve the P.F. of the line under large loads
(b) keep same voltage at sending and receiving ends
(c) help in transmitting larger power
(d) decrease the inductance of the line
(e) (a), (b), and (c) only
219. The difference between the sending end voltage and receiving end voltage of
a transmission line controls
(c) frequency (d) none of these
220. What will be the reflection coefficient of the wave of load connected to a
transmission line if surge impedance of the line is equal to load?
(a) Unity (b) Infinity
(c) Zero (d) 10
221. What will be the reflection coefficient in the above question if surge
impedance is half of the load?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/3
(c) 3 (d) 1/6
(a) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum current
(b) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at zero current
(c) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum voltage
(d) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at minimum voltage
223. The sag of a transmission line with a 50 M span is 1 M. What will be the sag if
the height of the transmission line is increased by 20%?
(a) 1.2 M (b) 2 M
(c) 1.25 M (d) 1 M
224. For which of the following increased values of horizontal tension there will
be an increase of 20% in tension of the line for a certain span?
(a) 50% (b) 10%
(c) 5% (d) 20%
225. The method of image cannot be used to find out the
(a) line capacitance (b) line inductance
(c) line resistance (d) (b) and (c)
226. Which of the following insulators will be selected for a high voltage
application?
(a) Strain type (b) Disc type
(c) Suspension type (d) Pin type
227. Strain type insulators are used when
(a) the transmission line is dead ended
(b) the direction of transmission line changes
(c) the transmission line is short
(d) (a) or (b)
228. Voltage regulation is the main criterion for designing the
(a) transmission line (b) feeder
(c) motor (d) generator
229. Power loss is a very important factor for designing the

(a) feeder (b) transmission line
230. Which of the following methods may be used to inject reactive power in the
transmission line?
(a) Series capacitor (b) Series capacitors
(c) Synchronous capacitors (d) All of the above
231. The waist products of alkaline fuel cells include
(a) water (b) ammonia
(c) heat (d) carbon dioxide
(e) answers (a) and (c)
232. Fuel cells with operating temperatures below 100°C
(a) polymer electrolyte (b) solid oxide
(c) molten carbonate (d) methanol
233. Fuel cells with the operating temperatures over 500° C.
(a) proton exchange membrane (PEM)
(b) solid oxide
(c) molten carbonate
(d) direct methanol
(e) answers (b) and (c)
234. Polymer electrolyte fuel cells require a platinum catalyst.
(a) true (b) false
235. The separation of hydrogen gas into protons and electrons at the anode of a
Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) fuel cell is facilitated by
(a) gas flow channels (b) ambient temperature
(c) a platinum catalyst (d) bound charges
6
CONTROL SYSTEM
ENGINEERING
1. The Nyquist plot of a system is shown; what is jω
the type of the system?
(a) Type 0 (b) Type 1
(c) Type 2 (d) Type 3 σ
–1, 0
(e) Cannot be determined by Nyquist plot
2. If the poles of a system are lying on the
imaginary axis in s-plane, the system will be
Fig. Q. 1.
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) conditionally stable
(d) marginally stable
3. The transfer function of a system is 10(1 + 0.2s) . The corner frequencies
will be (1 + 0.5s)
(a) –0.2 and –0.5 (b) 5 and 2
(c) –5 and –2 (d) 0.2 and 0.5
10(1 + 0.2s)
4. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at ω = 0 and
ω = ∞ will be (1 + 0.5s)
(a) 0° and − 90° (b) − 180° and + 180°
(c) 180° and − 180° (d) − 90° and 90°
(e) 0° and 180°
5. The Nyquist plot of a system is shown

in the figure. The system will be
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) condition
(d) marginally stable Fig. Q. 5.
6. The polar plot for negative frequencies for a given system is the conjugate of
the positive portion.
(a) true (b) false
7. The Bode diagram approach is applied to
(a) a non-minimum phase network (b) a minimum phase network
(c) any network of the control system (d) none of the above
8. The Bode plot of a constant is a straight line parallel to the frequency
axis and the corresponding phase is 0° or 180° depending on whether the
constant is positive or negative.
(a) true (b) false
9. The unit circle of a Nyquist plot transforms into unity or the 0-dB line of the
amplitude plot of a Bode diagram for
(a) low frequencies (b) high frequencies
(c) all frequencies (d) specific bandwidth
10. The negative real axis of a Nyquist diagram transforms into
(a) a negative 180° phase line of Bode diagram for all frequencies
(b) the unity or 0 dB line of Bode diagram of amplitude plot
(c) the unity or 0 dB line of Bode diagram of amplitude plot for low
frequencies
(d) a negative 180° phase line of Bode diagram for high frequencies
11. A phase-lag-lead network shifts the phase of a control signal in order that the
phase of the output
(a) lags at low frequencies and leads at high frequencies relative to input
(b) leads at low frequencies and lags at high frequencies relative to input
(c) lags at all frequencies relative to input
(d) leads at all frequencies relative to input
CONTROL SYSTEM ENGINEERING • 205
12. The table for the Routh-Hurwitz criterion is shown. How many roots will lie
in right half s-plane?
(a) One s3 1 100
(b) Two s 2
4 500
(c) Three s –25 0
(d) Four s0 500 0
13. A capacitance cannot be used to fabricate a lag network.
(a) true (b) false
14. Inductance is not used to fabricate lag networks because
(a) its size is big
(b) it has high reactance
(c) it produces time delay and hysteresis losses
(d) it does not work satisfactorily at high frequencies
K(s + 2)2
15. The transfer function of a system is given as The system is
(s + 1)(s - 2)2
(a) stable (b) unstable
(c) critically stable (d) conditionally stable
16. The damping factor of a system is unity; the system response will be
(a) overdamped (b) underdamped
(c) critically damped (d) oscillatory
17. The input current of an ideal amplifier is
(a) very small (b) zero
(c) very large (d) in milliamperes
(e) infinity
18. The common emitter configuration is most commonly used for transistor
amplifiers because it has
(a) high voltage gain only (b) high power gain only
(c) high current gain only (d) (a) and (c) both
19. The knowledge of the transfer function of a system is necessary for the
calculation of
(a) the time constant (b) the order of the system
(c) the output for any given input (d) the steady state gain
20. An open loop control system is one in which

(a) output has no control on the control of the input
(b) neither the output nor any of the other variables in the system has any
effect on input
(c) only system variables influence the control of the output
21. For a third order plant, which of the following may be a set of state variables?
. .. . .
(a) y(t), y(t), y(t) (b) y(t), y(t), y(t) + y(t)
.. .. . .
(c) y(t), y(t), y(t) + y(t) (d) y(t), y(t), y(t) – y(t)
22. With knowledge of the state variable representation of a plant, the transfer
function of the plant
(a) cannot be determined as state variables do not relate input and output of
the plant
(b) can be determined completely
(c) cannot be determined as the state variables do not have any relation with
the transfer function
23. The effect of feedback on the plant is
(a) to make the plant simple
(b) to reduce the sensitivity to plant parameter variations
(c) the plant becomes sensitive to parameter variations
(d) to control system transient response
24. The linear transformation of control system variables does not change the
transfer function of the system.
(a) true (b) false
25. The system function V(s)/I(s) is a pole at s = – 2 and a zero at s = - 1. For a
sinusoidal current excitation, the voltage response
(a) leads with respect to the current
(b) lags with respect to the current
(c) is in phase with the current
(d) is zero
26. The Laplace transform of unit impulse is

(a) 1/s (b) 1/s2
(c) unity (d) s
27. Electrical resistance is analogous to
(a) spring (b) viscous damper
(c) fluid capacity (d) inertia
28. Electrical inductor is analogous to
(a) spring
(b) inertia
(c) viscous damper
(d) fluid resistance
29. Electrical capacitance is analogous to
(a) spring
(b) fluid resistance
(c) inertia
(d) viscous damper
30. The steady state error of a system can be minimized by
(a) increasing gain K
(b) decreasing gain K
(c) decreasing oscillating frequency
(d) increasing settling time
31. The time constant of a servo-mechanism can be decreased by
(a) increasing the inertia of the system
(b) decreasing the inertia of the system
(c) increasing the damping of the system
(d) decreasing torque of servo motor
32. In general, which of the following systems is preferred?
(a) Under-damped (b) Over-damped
(c) Critically damped (d) Undamped
33. The friction coefficient is usually kept low to

(a) maximize the velocity-lag error of the system
(b) minimize the velocity-lag error of the system
(c) minimize the time constant of the system
(d) maximize the speed of response of the system
34. If the gain of a critically damped system is increased, it will become a
(a) underdamped system
(b) overdamped system
(c) oscillatory system
(d) critically damped system
35. The resonance peak of a system will occur when the system gain is at the
critical damping value.
(a) true (b) false
36. The ratio of output to input attains its greatest value at resonance and is
commonly referred as the height of the resonance peak.
(a) true (b) false
37. The servomechanism is called a proportional error device when the output of
the system is
(a) a function of error only
(b) a function of error and its first derivative of error
(c) a function of the first derivative of error
38. It is desirable to avoid the use of differentiators in a system design because
(a) it is not economical
(b) its size is big as it is composed of a resistance and inductance
(c) it develops noise and will saturate the amplifier
(d) integration of inductance is not possible to fabricate the differentiators
39. If the value of the system gain K is increased, the roots of the system will
(a) move to higher frequencies (b) move to lower frequencies
(c) not change the original position (d) move to (0, 0) axis of s-plot
40. The first derivative output control, when fed back negatively, would
(a) increase the damping of the system
(b) decrease the damping of the system
(c) decrease the velocity-lag error
(d) decrease the steady state error
41. The first input derivative control cannot be used to make the velocity-lag
error zero in servosystems.
(a) true (b) false
42. The second derivative output and error controls do not change the
characteristic equation and can be used to change the apparent inertia of the
system.
(a) true (b) false
43. The second-derivative input signal adjusts
(a) the gain of the system
(b) the damping of the system
(c) the time constant of the system
(d) the time constant and suppresses the oscillations
44. The first and second derivative control signals can be used to adjust the
magnitude of errors, but do effect the roots of the system equation.
(a) true (b) false
45. The settling time of the second order linear system is
(a) 2 times the time constant of the system
(b) 4 times the time constant of the system
(c) 3 times the time constant of the system
1
(d) of the time constant
4
46. The frequency domain and the time domain are related through
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Fourier integral
47. The use of integral error control is superior to derivative error control as far
as steady state errors are concerned.
(a) true (b) false
48. If initial conditions are inherently zero, physically it means
(a) the system is at rest but stores energy
(b) the system is working but does not store energy
(c) the system is at rest or no energy is stored in any of its parts
(d) the system is working with zero reference input
49. To define the transfer function of a system, the all initial conditions should be
zero.
(a) true (b) false
50. A D.C. generator can be treated as an amplifier.
(a) true (b) false
51. Which of the following motors is suitable for servomechanism application?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) A.C. series motor
(c) Two phase induction motor (d) Single phase induction motor
52. The Bode diagram has no relation with the Nyquist plot.
(a) true (b) false
53. The value of 6 dB per octave is equal to
(a) 12 dB per decade (b) –6 dB per decade
(c) 20 dB per decade (d) none of the above
54. The phase shift of a second order system with transfer function 1/s2 will be
(a) − 90° (b) − 180°
(c) + 180° (d) + 90°
55. The form of the transfer function used in the Bode plot is
(a) G(s) (b) g(jω)
(c) (a) or (b) (d) G(s) H(s)
56. The numerical value of the system gain constant is same for two
arrangements, (sT + 1) and (s + 1/T) respectively, for the Bode diagram.
(a) true (b) false
57. The Bode diagram can be evaluated from the s-plane plot by laying off
vectors from the poles and zeros to selected points on the imaginary axis.
(a) true (b) false
58. For type two systems, the lowest frequency asymptote will have a slope of
(a) –6 dB/octave
(b) –12 dB/octave
(c) –18 dB/octave
(d) 10 dB/octave
59. The polar plot of G(jω) cannot be obtained from the Bode diagram.
(a) true (b) false
60. The closed loop frequency response cannot be obtained from open loop
frequency plots.
(a) true (b) false
61. The desired form of the factor in the transfer function when the Bode
diagram is plotted is
(a) (sT + 1) (b) (s + 1/T)
(c) (s + T) (d) (1/s + T)
62. The root loci originate at the poles of the G(s) F(s).
(a) true (b) false
63. Whenever there are more poles than the zeros in the G(s) F(s), the number
of root-locus segments is
(a) equal to the number of zeros
(b) equal to the number of poles
(c) equal to the difference between poles and zeros
(d) equal to the sum of poles and zeros
64. What will happen if the gain of the system is increased?
(a) The roots move away from the zeros
(b) The roots move away from the poles
(c) Gain does not affect the positions of the roots
(d) The roots move towards origin of the s-plot
65. What will happen if the gain of the system is zero?

(a) Roots on the loci move towards the poles from which loci emerge
(b) The roots coincide with the poles
(c) The roots move away from the zero
(d) The roots move away from the poles
66. The number of root-locus segments which do not terminate on the zeros is
equal to
(a) the number of poles
(b) the number of zeros
(c) the difference between the number of poles and the number of zeros
(d) the sum of the number of poles and the number of zeros
67. The number of the root-locus which extends to the infinity is exactly the
excess of poles in G(s) F(s).
(a) true (b) false
68. The algebraic sum of the angles of the vectors from all poles and zeros to the
point on any root-locus segment is
(a) 180°
(b) 110° or an odd multiple thereof
(c) 180° or an even multiple thereof
(d) 90° or an odd multiple thereof
69. If the number of poles is m and the number of zeros is n to plot a root-locus,
then the number of root-locus segments going to infinity is
(a) m + n (b) m − n
(c) m + n (d) mn
nm
(e) m/n
70. In the root-locus analysis, the angle between the adjacent asymptotes is
(a) 180°/(m − n) (b) 360°/(m − n)
(c) 360°/(m + n) (d) − 360°/(m − n)
(e) 180°/(m − n)
71. The transient response of the system cannot be determined from the root-
locus analysis.
(a) true (b) false
72. For the small value of gain K the roots must be near the poles of the loop
transfer function.
(a) true (b) false
73. A system is called absolutely stable if any oscillations set up in the system are
(a) self-sustaining and tend to last indefinitely
(b) eventually damped out
(c) not enough to change the parameters of the system
74. There is a possibility of absolute instability in any servomechanism because
(a) there is no feedback path in the system
(b) there is a feedback path and it is always possible that feedback path may
become regenerative under certain conditions of adjustment
(c) there is separate circuitry to make the system stable
(d) the control motor is always a two-phase induction motor
75. Which of the following systems is stable?
(a) As4 + Bs2 + Cs + D = 0
(b) As2 + Bs + C = 0
(c) As2 − Bs + C = 0
(d) − As2 + Bs − C = 0
76. The number of roots lying in the right-hand half of the s-plane is determined
by using Routh’s criterion.
(a) true (b) false
77. Which of the following methods is the strongest tool to determine the
stability and the transient response of the system?
(a) Routh-Hurwitz criterion (b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot (d) Root locus
78. A system is absolutely stable if
(a) all real roots are negative, and all complex roots have positive real parts
(b) all real roots are negative, and all complex roots have negative real parts
(c) all real roots are positive, and all complex roots have negative real parts
(d) all real roots are positive, and all complex roots have positive real parts
79. The primary purpose of the Nyquist test is to show the existence of any
zeros in the right-hand half of the s-plane, since a single such zero makes the
system unstable.
(a) true (b) false
80. The system is stable if the origin of 1 + G(s) F(s) plane is not enclosed by the
Nyquist plot.
(a) true (b) false
81. The numerical values of the phase margin and the gain margin give some
indication of the tolerance requirements for the loop parameters and
allowable range of adjustment in the servo-design.
(a) true (b) false
82. The number of pure integrations in the system transfer function determine
(a) transient performance of the system (b) stability of the system
(c) degree of the stability (d) steady state performance
83. Which of the following systems is type 1?
(s + 1)(s + 2) (s + 4)(s + 2)
(a) G(s) = (b) G(s) =
s(s + 4)(s + 3) s2(s + 1)(s + 3)
(s + 2)(s + 5) (s + 2)(s + 6)
(c) G(s) = (d) G(s) =
s(s + 1)(s + 6) (s + 7)(s + 4)
84. In which of the following classes of regulators fall?
(a) Type 0 system (b) Type 1 system
(c) Type 2 system (d) Type 3 system
85. The Type 0 systems have
(a) small steady-state error
(b) zero steady-state error
(c) high gain constant
(d) high steady-state error with high gain constant
86. A servomechanism with step-displacement input will fall in the
(a) type 0 system (b) type 1 system
(c) type 2 system (d) type 3 system
87. The steady-state output of the Type 1 system with step-displacement input is
the integral of the error.
(a) true (b) false
88. For a Type 1 stable system the steady state error in response to a step-
displacement input is very small.
(a) true (b) false
89. The steady-state error is always zero in response to step-displacement input
for a
(a) type 3 system
(b) type 1 system
(c) type 2 system
(d) type (N > 1) system, where N = 0, 1, 2, ...N
90. The systems which commonly operate under a Type 1 system with step-
velocity input are
(a) servomechanisms
(b) regulators
(c) fire-control servos and tracking radar
91. The Type 1 system can have a constant output velocity at steady-state only if
there is a constant steady-state error.
(a) true (b) false
92. The velocity-lag error of a Type 1 system is
(a) proportional to the gain constant of the Type 1 system
(b) inversely proportional to the gain constant of Type 1 system
(c) independent of the gain constant
(d) proportional to the bandwidth of the system
93. For a Type 2 system the position error arises at steady-state when
(a) input is step-displacement (b) input is ramp
(c) input is constant acceleration (d) there is no input to the system
94. When the frequency response plots of the transfer function are used for the
transient analysis of the system, the roots of the closed loop system function
are available.
(a) true (b) false
95. The Fourier integral relates the frequency response to the transient
response.
(a) true (b) false
96. On the Bode diagram the phase margin and gain margin do not provide a
ready estimate of the closed loop frequency response.
(a) true (b) false
97. If the differentiator is inserted in the forward path of any control system, the
type number of the system is
(a) increased (b) decreased
(c) not affected (d) zero
98. If the differentiator is placed in the main feedback path, this is equivalent to
replacing position feedback with a tachometer.
(a) true (b) false
99. Which of the following analyses is more convenient to see the effect of
additional zero and pole in the system on the phase margin and the gain
margin?
(a) Root locus (b) Nyquist plot
(c) Bode plot (d) Routh-Hurwitz criterion
100. Which of the following compensators will be used to increase the damping of
a pair of complex roots which are badly underdamped?
(a) Phase-lag
(b) Phase-lead
(c) Phase-lag-lead
(d) Compensator having 45° lead circuit
101. Tachometer feedback is used to provide damping in many instrument
servomechanisms.
(a) true (b) false
102. Tachometer feedback does not change the algebraic form of the system
transfer function but reduces the
(a) gain only (b) time constant only
(c) gain and time constant both (d) either (a) or (b)
103. The s factor in numerator and denominator of G(s) E(s) cannot be cancelled
for
(a) Root locus analysis (b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot (d) Nichols chart
104. The steady-state accuracy of the system may be greatly increased by

introduction of
(a) differentiator in the main transmission channel
(b) integrator in the main transmission channel
(c) phase-lead compensation in the feedback path
(d) phase-lag-lead compensator in the main transmission channel
105. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?
(a) A 30 to 50% overshoot can be regarded as reasonably good performance
in a well damped system
(b) A 30 to 50% overshoot can be regarded as reasonably good performance
in a well underdamped system
(c) A 30 to 50% overshoot can be regarded as reasonably good performance
in a well overdamped system
(d) A 20 to 60% overshoot desirable in all the above classes
106. The maximum overshoot of a system with second order differential equation
can be determined precisely from the height of the resonance peak.
(a) true (b) false
107. The frequency range over which the response of the system is within
acceptable limits is called the system
(a) carrier frequency
(b) modulation frequency
(c) bandwidth
(d) demodulation frequency
108. Filter networks are often used as compensation in instrument servos.
(a) true (b) false
109. When filter networks are designed to operate on D.C.
(a) the modulation of the carrier signal becomes necessary
(b) the demodulation of the carrier frequency becomes necessary
(d) (a) or (b) but not both
110. Active devices cannot be used as stabilizing devices for control systems.
(a) true (b) false
111. Which of the following compensators will increase the bandwidth of a given
control system?
(a) Phase-lag network (b) Phase-lead network
(c) Phase-lag-lead network (d) Any one of the above
112. The lag network is used to stabilize the system while maintaining the
desired velocity gain constant, but in the process the phase-lag characteristic
decreases the bandwidth.
(a) true (b) false
113. Hydraulic motors are preferred to electric motors for use in airplanes
because
(a) hydraulic motors are cheaper than electric motors
(b) hydraulic motors are light and torque/inertia ratio is high
(c) electric power consumption is very small
(d) oil used in hydraulic motors is very cheap
114. The principle of the gyroscope is based on
(a) Newton’s third law
(b) second law of thermodynamics
(c) law of conservation of momentum
(d) law of conservation of energy
115. The gyroscope is used as an error detector for angular misalignment in three-
dimensional space.
(a) true (b) false
116. Which of the following non-linearities is caused by gear trains in the control
system?
(a) Saturation (b) Dead-space
(c) Coulomb friction (d) Backlash
117. Laplace transform is not applicable to a non-linear system because
(a) the time domain analysis is easier than frequency domain analysis
(b) the initial conditions are not zero in non-linear systems
(c) superposition law is not applied to non-linear systems
(d) non-linear systems are time varying
118. Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to ideal relay?

Output
+
Output Output
Input
Input Input
–
(a) (b) (c)

Fig. Q. 118.
119. The backlash phenomenon occurs when
(a) gear teeth are big (b) gear teeth are small
(c) whenever the direction of motion of gear system reverses
(d) whenever the gear teeth are not lubricated
120. A potentiometer cannot be used as a computation device.
(a) true (b) false
121. The term conformity is related to a
(a) wattmeter (b) motor
(c) potentiometer (d) transformers
122. The desirable resolution of a potentiometer should be
(a) very high (b) low
(c) zero (d) infinity
123. The resolution of a potentiometer is dependent on the
(a) length of the wire
(b) material of the wire
(c) size of the wire only
(d) width of the wire and wire size
124. The deposited film type potentiometer has
(a) zero resolution (b) infinity resolution
(c) adjustable resolution (d) very small resolution
125. To minimize the loading effect on accuracy, a potentiometer should work
(a) into high impedance load (b) into low impedance load
(c) into low resistance load (d) into load of 500 ohms
126. Which of the following devices is used to avoid the loading effect on the
potentiometer?
(a) Rheostat (b) Battery
(c) Trimmer (d) Current generator
127. If the excitation voltage across 1000 turns in a potentiometer is 5 volts, what
will be the percentage resolution of the potentiometer?
(a) 0.5% (b) 0.2%
(c) 0.1% (d) 5%
128. The deposited film potentiometer has the following disadvantage:
(a) It has continuous surface and hence resistance cannot be changed
(b) Its resistance varies with the temperature
(c) It has infinite resolution
(d) It cannot be used as an error detector
129. The loading error in a potentiometer cannot be compensated by introducing
intentional non-linearity.
(a) true (b) false
130. A linear transformer is preferred to a potentiometer when used as an error
detector because
(a) it is very cheap
(b) it eliminates the possibility of leading error
(c) it has high voltage sensitivity, infinite resolution and low friction level
(d) actuating signal is strong enough
131. The linear differential transformer is an
(a) electric device (b) electromechanical device
(c) electromagnetic device (d) electrostatic device
132. The linear differential transformer can be used to measure acceleration.
(a) true (b) false
133. Which of the following devices is used to indicate the angular position of
rudders in an aircraft?
(a) Potentiometer
(b) Linear differential transformer
(c) Rotary differential type transformer
134. Induction potentiometers are recommended for use in high impedance

servo-controlled systems.
(a) true (b) false
135. ‘‘Microsyn’’ is the name given to a
(a) potentiometer
(b) resolver
(c) rotary differential transformer
(d) magnetic amplifier
136. ‘‘Selsyn’’ is the trade name of
(a) synchros (b) resolver
(c) linear (d) gyroscope
137. The most common use of the synchros is as
(a) the error detector
(b) the transmission of angular data
(c) the transmission of arithmetic data
(d) any of the above
138. A synchro motor can be used as a synchro generator and the converse is
also true.
(a) true (b) false
139. A differential is used in a synchro differential unit for
(a) indicating the sum of rotation angle of the synchro generators only
(b) indicating the difference of rotation angle of two synchro generators only
140. The impedances of a stator and rotor windings of the control transformer are
(a) considerably higher than those of equivalent sized synchros
(b) considerably lower than those of equivalent sized synchros
(c) equal to those of equivalent sized synchros
141. The control transformer (synchro) should never be used to feed a low
impedance load.
(a) true (b) false
142. A synchro generator and motor is a

(a) 3-phase A.C. device (b) single phase A.C. device
(c) two phase A.C. device (d) single phase D.C. device
143. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates?
(a) Microsyn (b) Synchros
(c) Synchro resolver (d) Synchro transformer
144. The thermocouple converts the temperature
(a) to voltage directly (b) to current directly
(c) to A.C. power (d) to D.C. power
145. Pressure errors can be measured by the
(a) synchro unit (b) potentiometer
(c) thermocouple (d) strain-gauge alone
(e) combination of differential bellows strain gauge
146. The synchro-generator-motor combination may be used to control the water
level in the tank.
(a) true (b) false
147. A simple lever device can be used as a mechanical position error detector.
(a) true (b) false
148. The Pitot tube is used in airborne equipment to measure the
(a) volume of air
(b) temperature of the engine
(c) pressure of the air and fluid
(d) pressure of air only
149. The magnetic amplifier can be used to control the speed of an induction
motor.
(a) true (b) false
150. The reactance of the A.C. coil in a magnetic amplifier is very large when
(a) there is no current in the D.C. coil
(b) there is very small current in the D.C. coil
(c) a huge amount of current flows in the D.C. coil
(d) a huge amount of A.C. current flows in the A.C. coil
151. A diode is connected in series with the A.C. source in a magnetic amplifier
(a) to avoid ripples from the signals
(b) to avoid desaturation of the core due to negative half cycle
(c) to convert A.C. to pure D.C.
(d) to suppress high frequencies of source current
152. D.C. output cannot be obtained from the magnetic amplifier.
(a) true (b) false
153. The power amplification in a magnetic amplifier can be increased
(a) by positive feedback
(b) by negative feedback
(c) with higher inductance of the A.C. coil
154. Bias is used in magnetic amplifiers
(a) to increase the D.C. current in the core
(b) to increase the D.C. flux in the core
(c) to weaken the A.C. flux in the core
(d) to produce an initial amount of D.C. saturation to obtain more
amplification for weak signals than would be obtained without it
155. Which of the following would you choose for high power amplification?
(a) Magnetic amplifier
(b) Electronic amplifier
(c) Amplidyne
(d) D.C. generator
156. If the direct axis winding of the amplidyne is short circuited and the output is
taken from the quadrature axis, the voltage output will be
(a) greater than that of the direct axis winding
(b) less than that of the direct axis winding
(c) equal to that when it is taken from the brushes placed on direct axis
winding
157. Compensating winding is used in the amplidyne

(a) to increase the current output of the amplidyne
(b) to increase the voltage output of the amplidyne
(c) to counterbalance the magnetic field set up by the load current
(d) to reduce the flux set up by the control field
158. Give the five basic requirements of a servomotor:
(i) It must be able to supply the steady state power requirements of the
load, plus any losses in gearing or similar associated equipment
(ii) It must be able to accelerate itself and the connected load in accordance
with given acceleration specification
(iii) It must be able to supply the peak power demands during the possible
transient conditions
(iv) It must operate at given velocity or over a given range of velocities
(v) It must be suitable for the specified duty cycle
159. The servomotor differs from standard motors principally in that it
(a) has entirely different construction
(b) has high inertia and hence high torque
(c) has low inertia and low torque
(d) has low inertia and higher starting torque
160. If the diameter of the armature of a servomotor is reduced to half and the
length of the armature is doubled, by what factor will the torque/inertia ratio
increase?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 16
161. The ‘‘Drag-Cup’’ motor is designed to provide
(a) high inertia (b) high starting torque
(c) low inertia (d) low starting torque
162. If the inductance/resistance ratio is decreased in an induction motor, the
maximum torque occurs at
(a) low speeds (b) high speeds
(c) rated speed (d) synchronous speed
163. D.C. servomotors are usually lighter for the same power output and have
higher starting and reversing torques than A.C. servomotors.
(a) true (b) false
164. Which of the following motors is extensively used in servo applications?
(a) A.C. motor
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Armature controlled D.C. motor
165. The clamping device used for sampled-data applications is called a
(a) clamper (b) clipper
(c) chopper (d) boxcar generator
166. When a clamper is used in the sampled-data system, there is no need to
distinguish between pulse and impulse representation of the samples, since
the sampled signal amplitude is held constant for the entire sampling period.
(a) true (b) false
167. If the synchro-transmitter shaft becomes disengaged from its driving gear it
will
(a) run as a receiver (b) remain stationary at all times
(c) burn out (d) feed in false control signals
168. In the following figure the synchro-receiver will run
(a) correctly (b) erratically
(c) in reverse direction (d) 120° out of line
S1 S1
R1 S2 S2 R1
R2 R2
S3 S3
Fig. Q. 168.
169. If an electro-hydraulic servo unit is too ‘‘still’’ when responding to a signal, its
action can be damped by
(a) increasing servo pressure (b) decreasing servo pressure
(c) opening the dash pot (d) closing the dash pot
170. The static friction at the pilot value of a hydraulic servo is eliminated by
(a) using a low viscosity servo oil
(b) increased valve clearance
(c) allowing the pump vibrations to pass into the servo
(d) superimposing a 50 Hz either signal at the field coils
171. What will be the D.C. voltage V in the following figure?
(a) x times y (b) x divided by y
(c) x + y (d) x – y
X
+
V
–
Y
Fig. Q. 171.
172. If the coil P in the following figure is rotated as indicated by the arrow, the
voltage induced in the coil S will
(a) remain constant
(b) increase as the misalignment increases up to 360°
(c) decrease as the misalignment increases up to 360°
(d) be proportional to the sine of the angle of misalignment
(e) be proportional to the cosine of the angle of the misalignment
Vi V
P S
Fig. Q. 172.
173. The output of the feedback control system should be a function of
(a) input (b) reference and output
(c) feedback signal (d) input and feedback signal
174. Which of the following characteristics can be studied with the transfer
function of the system?
(a) Steady state characteristics only
(b) Transient characteristics only
175. How will the transient response be affected if feedback is introduced in the
system?
(a) The transient response dies off
(b) The transient response decays slowly
(c) The transient response decays very fast
(d) The transient response does not vary
176. The sensitivity of the feedback system is
(a) less than the sensitivity of the system without feedback
(b) more than the sensitivity of the system without feedback
(c) same as of the system without feedback
(d) zero
177. Which of the following is the main cause of non-linearity in electrical
systems?
(a) Friction
(b) Resistance
(c) Inductance
(d) Capacitance
(e) Saturation of magnetic core
178. If the control signal is modulated by some modulating devices, the system is
referred as a
(a) D.C. control system
(b) A.C. control system
(c) sampled data control system
179. The block diagram shown below is equivalent to

e1 G e2
e2
e1 G e2
e1 G e2
e1 e1 1/G
(a) (b)
e1 G e2 +– e2
G
G e3
I2
(c) (d)
Fig. Q. 179.
180. Which of the following block systems will give transfer function
G
?
1 + GH
e1 G e1 G e2
e2
e1 e2
(a) (b)
e1 GH + e2 R + G c
– –
e1 H
(c) (d)
R + G c
–
1/H
(e)
Fig. Q. 180.
181. What will be the transfer function for the following diagram?
0 (s) RCs 0 (s) 1
(a) = (b) =
I (s) RCs + 1 I (s) RCs
+1
0 (s) 0 (s)
(c) = RCs + 1 (d) 1 − RCs
I (s) I (s)
C
I O
R
Fig. Q. 181.
182. Which of the following controllers is based on integral error compensation?
(a) Proportional controller
(b) Proportional plus derivative controller
(c) Proportional plus integral controller
(d) Proportional minus integral controller
R2C2S + 1
183. The transfer function F(s) = (R + R ) C S + 1 is for
1 2 2
(a) lag network (b) lead network

(c) lead-lag network (d) none of the above
184. The lead compensation in the system will add
(a) zeros (b) poles
(c) poles and zeros both (d) none of them
185. The lead-lag compensation will improve
(a) transient response of the system
(b) steady state response of the system
(c) transient and steady state response
186. Which network will one choose to increase the bandwidth of the system?
(a) Lead network (b) Lag network
(c) Lead-lag network (d) (a) or (b)
187. The lag network increases the bandwidth of jω

the system.
(a) true (b) false
– 1.0
188. The Nyquist plot shown below indicates a ω
θ
(a) stable system

(b) unstable system
(c) marginally stable ω=0

Fig. Q. 188.
189. The Nyquist stability criterion requires
polar plot of
(a) the closed loop transfer function
(b) the open loop transfer function
(d) the characteristic equation
190. The open loop transfer function of a system is G(s) H(s) =
K
s (1 + T1 S)(1 + T2 S)
The system will be
(c) conditionally stable (d) marginally stable
191. The Nyquist plot shown below indicates a
(a) stable system (b) unstable system
(c) conditionally stable (d) marginally stable
jω
– 1.0
σ
ω=
Fig. Q. 191.
192. The Bode diagram shown below is for

(a) a constant (b) pure integration
(c) pure differentiation (d) none of the above
Amplitude K>1
ω
O
Fig. Q. 192.
193. The Bode diagram shown below is for

20
Amplitude
ω
0
Fig. Q. 193.
194. The Bode plot shown below is for

20
Amplitude
0 ω
– 20
Fig. Q. 194.
195. Self-balancing instruments use

(a) any motor (b) A.C. servomotor
(c) D.C. servomotor (d) tachometer
196. Which of the following is odd man out?
(a) D.C. motor (b) Amplidyne
(c) Electronic Amplifier (d) D.C. generator
50
197. The transfer function G(s) = indicates that the
S (S2 + 4S + 12)
system will be
(c) conditionally stable (d) none of the above
10
198. For the system G(jw) H(jw) = which of the
jw (1 + jw)(1 + 10 jw)
following statements is true?
(a) The system is stable with two poles in right half-plane
(b) The system is unstable with two poles in right half-plane
(c) The system is unstable with two zeros in right half-plane
(d) The system is stable with two zeros in right half-plane
199. What will be the steady state velocity-lag error for the velocity input of
5 rad/sec for the system shown below?
(a) 2 rad (b) 2.5 rad
(c) 5 rad (d) 10 rad
2
+ C(s)
2R – S(1+0.15)(1+0.5S)
Fig. Q. 199.
200. What will be the value of Kp, i.e., proportion constant for the system shown
in Question 199?
(a) 2 (b) Zero
(c) Infinity (d) None of the above
201. What will be the value of Kv, i.e., velocity constant for the system
shown in Question 199?
(a) 2 (b) Zero
(c) Infinity (d) 10
202. What will be the value of Ka, i.e., acceleration constant for the
system in Question 199?
(a) 2 (b) Zero
(c) 5 (d) Infinity
203. The radar tracking servosystem is an example of a
(a) continuous control system
(b) relay type control system
(c) discrete data control system
204. If every state variable of the process can be controlled in finite time by some
input, then the process is called
(a) completely controllable
(b) uncontrollable
(c) completely observable
(d) unobservable
205. If every state variable eventually affects the some of the outputs of the
process then the process is called
(a) completely controllable (b) uncontrollable
(c) completely observable (d) unobservable
206. A signal flow graph of a process is shown below. Which statement is true for
the process?
(a) The process is controllable
(b) The process is observable
(c) The process is uncontrollable but observable
(d) The process is unobservable
t13
t43
1 2 1
c
r r x1 x2 x3 x4
t21
Fig. Q. 206.
207. The signal flow diagram of a process is shown below. Which statement is true
for the process?
(a) The process is controllable
(b) The process is observable
(c) The process is controllable but unobservable
(d) The process is uncontrollable but observable
t14
1 2 x 3 t34 1
c
r r x1 x2 x4
t32
Fig. Q. 207.
208. Nonlinearity in the servosystem due to saturation is caused by

(a) gear trains (b) servometer
(c) relays (d) none of the above
209. V(x) is a function of “x” only if “x” is a function of time “t.” This statement is
related to
(a) dynamic programming
(b) differential equations
(c) Laplace transform
(d) calculus of variations
210. What will be the Laplace transform F(s) of function F(t) shown in the
diagram?
(a) as2 tanh (as/2) (b) as2 tan (as/2)
(c) 1/as2 tanh (as/2) (d) 1/as tanh (as)
f(t)
t
2a 4a
Fig. Q. 210.
211. Indicate the Laplace transform for the function f(t)

f(t) shown in pulse form.
−as −as
(a) e (1 − e ) 1
s
(b) e−as
(c) 1 − e−as a a+t t
1
(d) Fig. Q. 211.
1 - e-as
212. For which of the following waveforms will the Laplace transform
1
F(s) be s(1 - e-as) ?
f(t) f(t)
1 1
t a 2a t
(a) (b)
f(t)
f(t) 3
2
a 2a 3a t
1
1 2 3 t
(c) (d)
Fig. Q. 212.
213. How many bellows will be required to generate proportional (P) action in a
pneumatic controller?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 6
214. How many operational amplifiers are required to generate PI action?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
215. How many variable restrictors are required in a pneumatic controller with
PID action?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
216. The essential function of an electronic controller is
(a) sensing (b) comparison
(c) amplifying (d) clamping
217. If the proportional band of a controllers is 10% that represents
(a) the change in control output by 10%
(b) the change in control output by 90%
(c) the change in control output from 10% to 90%
(d) the change in control output from maximum value to minimum value for
10% change in measured variable
218. Which of the following controllers will have zero proportional band?
(a) Linear continuous controller
(b) Non-linear continuous controller
(c) ON-OFF controller
(d) Either (a) or (c)
219. If the integral control action (I) is included in the controller having
proportional (P) control action, the proportional band will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) vary depending on integral time of I action
220. The oscillator is not used in the automatic control systems.
(a) true (b) false
221. If the bandwidth of a control system is increased, the noise in the system will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) not be affected
(d) be zero
222. The phase load compensator can be used to

(a) increase the damping of an underdamped control system
(b) increase the damping of an overdamped system
(c) decrease the damping of an underdamped system
(d) achieve (a), (b), and (c)
223. In the above question, the bandwidth of the control system will
(c) remain unaffected (d) be zero
224. The lag-compensation in the control system is achieved by
(a) adding zeros in the transfer function of the system
(b) adding poles in the transfer function of the system
(d) none of these
225. The load-compensation in the control system is achieved by
(a) adding zeros in the transfer function of the control system
(b) adding poles in the transfer function of the control system
(d) none of these
226. Which of the following devices is commonly used to provide damping in a
servosystem?
(a) Servogenerator (b) Techometer
(c) Tachogenerator (d) Metadyne
(e) (b) or (c)
227. Saturation non-linearity is caused by
(a) relays (b) gear system
(c) servometer (d) none of these
228. The control and reference signals in an A.C. servometer are
(a) in phase with each other
(b) 90° out of phase
(c) 120° out of phase
(d) 180° out of phase
229. Which of the following controllers can be used to control the speed of
squirrel cage motors?
(a) Amplidyne (b) Electronic amplifier
(c) Magnetic amplifier (d) None of these
230. An A.C. servometer operates on the principle of operation of a
(a) A.C. generator
(b) synchronous motor
(c) single phase induction motor
(d) two phase induction motor
7
ELECTRONICS
1. The VTVM can be used to measure
(a) D.C. voltage only
(b) A.C. voltage of high frequency only
(c) D.C. voltage and A.C. voltage up to the order of 5 MHz frequency
(d) A.C. voltage of low frequency
2. An oscillator cannot be used as an X-Y plotter.
(a) true (b) false
3. The forward resistance of the diode will be
(a) zero (b) small
(c) infinity (d) high
4. Vacuum tubes are
(a) high current devices
(b) low current and high voltage devices
(c) low voltage devices
(d) low current and low voltage devices
5. Transistors are
(a) high voltage devices
(b) low voltage and low current devices
(c) high current devices
(d) low current devices
6. The voltage at which electron flow starts from the anode to cathode is called
(a) breakdown voltage (b) peak inverse voltage
(c) peak voltage (d) pinch off voltage
7. The energy needed to disrupt the bonds of pure germanium is
(a) 1.12 eV (b) 0.75 eV
(c) 0.6 eV (d) 7.5 eV
8. The lifetime of an electron hole before recombination will be
(a) 1/2 minute
(b) 1/2 second
(c) less than microseconds to more than milliseconds depending on
circumstances
(d) 1/4 second
(e) milliseconds
9. Which of the following doping will create a ‘‘p-type’’ semiconductor?
(a) Germanium with phosphor (b) Silicon with indium
(c) Germanium with antimony (d) Germanium with indium
10. The triode has
(a) two electrodes (b) three electrodes
(c) four electrodes (d) none of the above
11. The input to the triode is given between
(a) plate and grid (b) plate and cathode
(c) grid and cathode (d) plate and heater
12. The grid in the triode has
(a) negative potential
(b) positive potential
(c) negative potential but more positive than cathode
(d) negative potential but more negative than cathode
13. When the grid of the triode is negative
(a) the plate current will increase
(b) the plate current will decrease
(c) the plate current will not be affected
(d) the grid will attract more electrons
ELECTRONICS • 241
14. The term ‘‘No Signal’’ related to electron tubes usually indicates
(a) open grid circuit (b) open plate circuit
(c) open cathode circuit (d) signal of zero volt
15. The amplification of a signal by a triode common-cathode amplifier will
cease if
(a) the grid is more positive
(b) the grid is more negative than cut off voltage
(c) the plate is more positive
(d) the plate is more negative
16. The unit of the amplification factor is
(a) decibels (b) volt
(c) neper (d) none of the above
17. To define the amplification factor of a tube, which of the following quantities
remains constant?
(a) Plate voltage (b) Plate current
(c) Grid voltage (d) Grid current
18. The bypass capacitor used in a self-biased amplifier must have
(a) very high capacitance
(b) very low capacitance
(c) low capacitance for low frequency signal
(d) low capacitance for high frequency signal
19. The unit of transconductance is
(a) ohm (b) mho
(c) henry (d) none of the above
20. In a pentode the screen grid is placed closer to the
(a) plate
(b) cathode
(c) heater
(d) heater than the suppression grid
21. A pentode cannot be used for amplification purposes.
(a) true (b) false
22. The p-n junction behaves like a

(a) diode (b) triode
(c) tetrode (d) pentode
23. In n-p-n transistors under forward biased condition, the p layer is extremely
thin because
(a) the material used for p-type semiconductors is very costly
(b) a p-type semiconductor requires more energy to disturb the electrons in
the valence band
(c) 90% of electrons can be collected at the collector
(d) 90% of electrons can be controlled at the emitter
24. The function of the base in the transistor is analogous to the
(a) plate in the triode (b) cathode in the triode
(c) grid in the triode (d) heater in the triode
25. In many ways the base transistor is more analogous to the screen grid of a
pentode than the grid of a triode.
(a) true (b) false
26. The screen grid in the pentode carries
(a) zero current (b) small current
(c) high current (d) current equal to control grid
27. The characteristic curves of a transistor are much more like those of a
(a) diode (b) triode
(c) pentode (d) tetrode
28. The choice of the bias voltage of a transistor will depend on the
(a) emitter current (b) collector current
(c) nature of the signal source (d) nature of the output
29. The impedance of an operational amplifier is
(a) infinite (b) zero
(c) very small but not zero (d) very high
30. The input impedance of an operational amplifier is
(a) infinite (b) zero
(c) very high but not infinite (d) very small
ELECTRONICS • 243
31. The output voltage of an operational amplifier is

(a) 90° out of phase from the input
(b) 180° out of phase from the input
(c) 45° out of phase from the input
(d) - 90° out of phase from the input
32. If the current gain and voltage gain of a common-emitter amplifier are given,
the power gain cannot be found with given data.
(a) true (b) false
33. The collector current in a transistor will
(a) increase if the temperature increases
(b) decrease if the temperature decreases
(c) not change with temperature variation
34. The phenomenon of ‘‘Thermal Runaway’’ relates to the
(a) diode
(b) transistor
(c) tetrode
(d) pentode
35. Electrons are the majority carrier in the
(a) n-p-n transistor
(b) p-n-p transistor
(c) n-type semiconductor
(d) p-type semiconductor
36. Why is the bias used in the transistor amplifier circuit?
(a) To increase the current capacity of the transistor
(b) The biased circuit will saturate at the high current
(c) To avoid the use of a separate power source for the input and output
circuit of the transistor-amplifier
37. A measure of an amplifier’s stability against temperature thermal runaway is

the ratio of
change in collector current
(a)
change in collector leakage current
change in emitter current
(b)
(c) change in emitter current
(d)
(e)
change in emitter current
38. The emitter-follower is a
(a) common collector amplifier
(b) common emitter amplifier
(c) common base amplifier
39. The output in a cathode follower is taken across
(a) the bias resistance Rk connected to the cathode of the triode
(b) between the plate and cathode
(c) between the grid and plate
(d) between the grid and cathode
40. In a cathode-follower the output voltage
(a) is in phase with the input voltage
(b) is 180° out of phase from the input voltage
(c) is 90° out of phase from the input voltage
(d) is 45° out of phase from the input voltage
41. If the grid current in the cathode follower is increased, the plate current will
(c) not change (d) be zero
42. The voltage gain of a cathode-follower is
(a) unity (b) less than unity
(c) more than unity (d) any of the above
ELECTRONICS • 245
43. A common base amplifier is used

(a) in very high frequency circuits
(b) in low frequency circuits
(c) in medium frequency circuits
(d) in low current circuits
44. Bipolar transistors have
(a) low input resistance compared to FET
(b) high input resistance compared to FET
(c) zero input resistance
(d) infinity resistance
45. Field effect transistors contain
(a) holes carrier only (b) electrons carrier only
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b) both
46. Which of the following transistors is unipolar?
(a) n-p-p transistor (b) p-n-p transistor
(c) Field effect transistor
2
47. A field-effect transistor can be used as a
(a) variable capacitance (b) variable reactance
(c) variable inductance (d) variable resistance
48. In a field effect transistor, the drain voltage above which there is no increase
in the drain current is called
(a) pick off voltage (b) critical voltage
(c) pinch off voltage (d) breakdown voltage
49. An RC coupled amplifier is used in a radio receiver
(a) to minimize the noise
(b) to increase the bandwidth
(c) to isolate A.C. signal from D.C. signal
50. The phase shift between the input and output signals in an RC coupled
amplifier for a high pass network can be expressed in terms of lower
frequency response limit f1 or upper frequency response limit f2.
(a) true (b) false
51. If the gain of an RC coupled amplifier decreases
(a) the phase shift will increase
(b) the phase shift will decrease
(c) the phase shift will not vary
(d) the phase shift has no relation with gain
52. If three amplifiers having same bandwidth are cascaded, the bandwidth of
the resulting amplifier will be
(a) better than that of each stage
(b) worse than that of each stage
(c) same as that of each stage
53. The bandwidth of the resulting amplifier in the above question will
(a) increase as the number of identical amplifier stages increases
(b) decrease as the number of identical amplifier stages increases
(c) not change as the number of identical amplifier stages increases
(d) be very high as the number of identical amplifier stages increases
54. The transformer coupling of amplifiers provides a more efficient signal
transfer than RC coupling because
(a) the problem of impedance matching is solved
(b) there is a little power loss in the transformer winding
(c) the use of a transformer is cheaper than the RC coupled network
(d) of easy control of voltage output
55. Which of the following amplifiers is used to operate a loudspeaker?
(a) Audio voltage amplifier
(b) Audio power amplifier
(c) Audio current amplifier
(d) Any one of the above
ELECTRONICS • 247
56. If the triode is used as an amplifier, the maximum power will be developed in
the load when
(a) plate resistance is equal to the load resistance
(b) plate resistance is less than the load resistance
(c) plate resistance is more than the load resistance
(d) load resistance is very high
57. The transformer coupling of an amplifier will provide proper impedance
matching between circuits.
(a) true (b) false
58. Sometimes the power required for the load is more than can be handled by
convenient amplification elements. Which of the following amplifiers is called
for?
(a) RC coupled amplifier
(b) Transformer coupled amplifier
(c) Push-pull amplifier
(d) Audio power amplifier
59. The two input signals applied to a push-pull amplifier are
(a) 60° out of phase (b) 180° out of phase
(c) in phase (d) 90° out of phase
60. The amplifier which provides the push-pull output stage with equal but
opposite signals is called a
(a) phase-converter amplifier (b) phase-inverter amplifier
(c) phase-diverter amplifier (d) none of the above
61. Zener breakdown of a p-n junction will occur if
(a) the electrons drifting through the depletion region pick up sufficient
K.E. to ionize other atoms with which they collide and produce a sudden
large reverse current
(b) there is a large forward bias current to cause breakdown
(c) there is a large reverse bias current to break covalent bonds and produce
free electron-hole pairs
62. If the diode is reversed biased, the sudden increase of the current in the
diode is attributed to
(a) Zener breakdown only (b) avalanche breakdown only
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b) both
63. The output of a thermocouple is
(a) D.C. voltage (b) A.C. voltage
(c) square wave (d) sinusoidal voltage
64. The chopper amplifies D.C. signal
(a) without converting it to alternating current
(b) first converting to alternating current and amplifying it, then reconverting
to direct current
65. Which of the following amplifiers has the largest bandwidth?
(a) RC coupled amplifier
(b) Transformer coupled amplifier
(c) Direct-coupled amplifier
(d) Difference amplifier
66. If one wishes to amplify the potential difference between two points in a
circuit when neither of these points is grounded, which of the following
amplifiers will be used?
(a) RC coupled amplifier (b) Transformer coupled
(c) Difference amplifier (d) Audio power amplifier
67. Any electrical conductor acts as an antenna for the reception of the
electromagnetic radiation in the radio frequency range.
(a) true (b) false
68. If a mechanical movement is converted into an electrical signal in an
instrument and acts as noise to the system, this effect is called
(a) stereophonic
(b) microphonic
(c) electro-chemical conversion
(d) vibrational echo
ELECTRONICS • 249
69. The thermal noise in electronic tubes is eliminated at a temperature of

(a) 0°C (b) absolute zero
(c) 0°F (d) 273°K
70. In a cascaded amplifier the last stage contributes the most towards the total
noise in the amplifier output.
(a) true (b) false
71. The upper cut-off frequency of an RC coupled amplifier is mainly due to
(a) coupled capacitor
(b) cathode bypass capacitor
(c) output capacitance of the signal source
(d) inter-electrode capacitance and stray capacitance
72. If the bandwidth of an amplifier is reduced, the thermal noise in the
amplifier will
(c) not be affected (d) become random in nature
73. The temperature coefficient for forward voltage drop across a p-n junction is
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) unity
74. The noise factor of an amplifier which contributes no noise will be
(a) zero (b) one
(c) infinity (d) less than zero
75. A tuned amplifier can be used for
(a) the ratio range of frequency only
(b) the audio range of frequency only
(d) video range of frequency only
76. Negative feedback is applied in many oscillator circuits to
(a) increase output impedance
(b) decrease output impedance
(c) stabilize the frequency of the oscillators
(d) stabilize the output amplitude
77. Negative feedback used in amplifiers will reduce the noise by the same factor
as gain.
(a) true (b) false
78. Enumerate the four benefits of negative feedback used in the amplifiers:
(i) Increased input impedance
(ii) Reduced output impedance
(iii) Improved gain stability
(iv) Extended bandwidth
79. When the same amount of current can be controlled from a low impedance
source to a high impedance source, this is called
(a) power amplification (b) current amplification
(c) voltage amplification (d) gain amplification
80. When the signal feedback to the amplifier circuit is proportional to the
output current rather than output voltage, an amplifier is said to have
(a) power feedback (b) voltage feedback
(c) current feedback (d) signal feedback
81. An element is said to have negative resistance when
(a) the element has negative temperature coefficient
(b) the current/voltage curve has negative slope
(c) the element has negative specific resistance
(d) the current/voltage curve has positive slope
82. A feedback oscillator would oscillate at all frequencies for which
(a) Aβ = 0 (b) Aβ ≤ 1
(c) Aβ ≥ 1 (d) Aβ = 1
83. The phase-shift network fulfils the oscillation condition of regenerative
feedback for only one frequency.
(a) true (b) false
84. When R and C are the same for all three high pass filters in series, the
frequency of oscillation of the oscillator will be
o = 1/2p
(a) f+4 √RC (b) fo+4 = 1/2p √3RC
o = 1/2p
(c) f+4 √6RC (d) fo+4 = 1/ √RC
ELECTRONICS • 251
85. The tuned circuit in an oscillator may be connected to

(a) the grid circuit only
(b) the plate circuit only
(c) (a) or (b)
86. The grid has no control over electrons, activities when the ionization of gas
has occurred in the thyratron tube because the
(a) grid becomes more negative
(b) grid becomes more positive
(c) grid is neutralized as it is surrounded by the positive ions
(d) grid is disconnected from the circuit
87. The unijunction transistor can be used as a voltage divider.
(a) true (b) false
88. What will happen if the emitter current increases in a unijunction transistor?
(a) The junction resistance increases and the emitter voltage decreases
(b) The junction resistance decreases and the emitter voltage decreases
(c) The junction resistance decreases and the emitter voltage increases
(d) The junction resistance increases and the emitter voltage increases
89. The tunnel diode cannot be used as a very stable relaxation oscillator.
(a) true (b) false
90. A grounded shield used in choppers (to convert the D.C. balance signal in a
potentiometer to A.C. signal) helps
(a) to reduce vibrational noise
(b) to reduce the noise component from pick-up and leakage
(c) to avoid electrical shocks
(d) to avoid the need of an earth wire
91. How many thyratron tubes will be used to have directional rotation of a D.C.
motor when the speed of the motor is being controlled?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four

(a) When the speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using a thyratron, the
plate voltage determines the armature current and the motor speed
(b) When the speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using a thyratron, the
grid voltage determines the armature current and the motor speed
(c) When the speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using a thyratron, the
type of gas used in the tube will determine the armature current and the
motor speed
(d) When the speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using a thyratron, the size
of the thyratron will determine the armature current and the motor speed
93. An operational amplifier should have
(a) zero output impedance (b) low output impedance
(c) high output impedance (d) infinity impedance
94. Operational amplifiers are seldom used for differentiation because
(a) the problem of drift exists with the differentiating circuits
(b) the noise pulses are amplified, and this can be significant in the output
(c) the problem of drift does not exist in the differentiating network
(d) the differentiating circuits are not economic
95. The problem of drift exists in the differentiating network when the
operational amplifier is used in the circuit.
(a) true (b) false
96. When it is necessary to sum signals at any amplifier input, operational
feedback is used and with operational feedback
(a) the signal potentials are being added
(b) the signal currents are being added
(d) (a) and (b) simultaneously
97. A operational amplifier cannot be used as voltage or current amplifier.
(a) true (b) false
98. Enumerate the three major sources of error in the integrator circuit where
an operational amplifier has been used to fabricate the integrator.
(i) Zero-level offset
(ii) Current leakage of the summing point
(iii) Capacitor leakage
ELECTRONICS • 253
99. If the gain of the chopper amplifier is 1000 and the operational amplifier gain
is 50,000, the D.C. gain of the chopper stabilized operational amplifier will be
(a) 50,000 (b) 50 × 106
(c) 1000 (d) 50
100. A chopper amplifier detects offset by measuring the potential at the summing
point of the operational amplifier.
(a) true (b) false
101. In some cases, the operational amplifier can be used as a precision waveform
generator.
(a) true (b) false
102. The term ‘‘fly back’’ is associated with
(a) CRT (b) transistor
(c) operational amplifier (d) rectifier
(e) electronic tubes
103. Which of the following waveforms is referred as ‘‘sweep’’?
(a) Square waveform (b) Sinusoidal waveform
(c) Triangular waveform (d) Sawtooth waveform
104. A silicon Zener diode has a theoretical switching time of about
(a) 1 × 10−6 seconds (b) 1 × 10−8 seconds
(c) 8 × 10−6 seconds (d) 1 × 10−12 seconds
105. A diode-resistor circuit can be used as a limiter by connecting the load
(a) in series with the diode only (b) in shunt with the diode only
(c) (a) or (b) (d) none of the above
106. The ‘‘D.C. resistor’’ is the name given to a
(a) clipper (b) clamper
(c) limiter (d) shunt limiter
107. Enumerate the four advantages of SCR over the thyratron.
(i) No filament current is required
(ii) Smaller size
(iii) Higher current handling capacity
(iv) Much smaller voltage across the ‘‘on’’ SCR
108. Thyristors are not made of the germanium because

(a) germanium is costlier than the silicon
(b) germanium is not used as a semiconductor
(c) the leakage current is high in germanium
(d) the current handling capacity of germanium is less than silicon
109. A voltage amplifier is shown to the right. Rf
What is the highest voltage gain accurate

to 1% obtainable with an amplifier whose
open loop gain is 1000? R in
s
(a) 100 (b) 10 e in es eo
(c) 1000 (d) 10,000 Fig. Q. 109.
110. The circuit diagram of Question 109 is used to measure D.C. voltage of
10 volt having a source resistance of 1 kilo-ohm. If Rin = 10 kilo-ohms and
Rf = 100 kilo-ohms, what will be the value of e0?
(a) - 90 volts (b) - 91 volts
(c) - 10 volts (d) - 100 volts
111. The operational amplifier shown to the
right is said to limit when the current
Z
output or voltage reaches values of ± 1
– +
mA or ± 50 volts respectively, eref = 10
volts, Z2 is a resistive load, and Z1 = 0. eref
What is the voltage across Z2? Z Z e = e rf

(e) 2.5 volts
Fig. Q. 111.
112. When the transistor is saturated
(a) the emitter potential is more than base and collector
(b) the collector potential is more than the emitter and base potential
(c) the base potential is more than the collector and emitter potential
(d) the base, emitter, and collector are all at essentially the same potential
ELECTRONICS • 255
113. Transistors are seldom used as switching devices because

(a) use of transistors as switching device is not economic
(b) they can handle high voltage but not high current
(c) they are slow to respond and unable to withstand high voltage
(d) they need separate circuitry when used as switching devices
114. Which of the following multivibrators is called the flip-flop?
(a) Astable multivibrator (b) Monostable multivibrator
(c) Bistable multivibrator (d) (a) or (b)
115. External triggering is not needed for the transition of state in the
(a) bistable multivibrator (b) monostable multivibrator
(c) astable multivibrator (d) (b) and (c) both
116. The term ‘‘free running’’ is associated with
(a) bistable multivibrators (b) monostable multivibrators
(c) astable multivibrators (d) (b) or (c)
117. Astable multivibrators cannot be used for frequency division.
(a) true (b) false
118. A blocking oscillator can perform many of the same functions as
multivibrators and can be
(a) an astable multivibrator
(b) a monostable multivibrator
(c) a bistable multivibrator
(d) (a) or (b)
119. A 10 volts rectangular pulse with a 1 m-sec pulse is applied at time to to a
series RC circuit shown below with R = 100 kilo-ohms and C = 1000 pF; what
will be the voltage across R at t = to?
(a) 10 volts
(b) 5 volts
(c) 7.5 volts eo
e1 R
(d) 2.5 volts
Fig. Q. 119.
120. A 100 volts peak to peak sine wave is

applied to the circuit shown below. Z1
is a 30 volts Zener-diode. The output e1
Z1
voltage is 55 volts peak to peak. What
Z2
will be the breakdown voltage of Z2?
(c) 30 volts (d) 25 volts Fig. Q. 120.
(e) 85 volts
121. For a carbon-composition resistor color-coded with yellow, violet, orange,
and silver strips from left to right, the resistance with tolerance is
(a) 740 ohms ± 5% (b) 4700 ohms ± 10%
(c) 7400 ohms ± 1% (d) 47,000 ohms ± 10%
122. With input frequencies from zero up to 16 kHz, a high pass filter allows the
maximum voltage to be developed across the load resistance for which of the
following frequencies?
(a) Direct current (b) 16 Hz
(c) 160 Hz (d) 16,000 Hz
123. With input frequencies from zero up to 16 kHz, a low pass filter allows the
most output voltage to be developed across the load resistance for which of
the following frequencies?
(a) Direct current (b) 160 Hz
(c) 16 Hz (d) 16,000 Hz
124. An R-C coupled circuit is a high pass filter for pulsating D.C. voltage because
(a) C has high reactance for high-voltages
(b) C blocks D.C. voltages
(c) C has low reactance for low voltages
125. A transformer with isolated secondary winding is considered a high pass filter
for pulsating direct primary current because
(a) the D.C. primary current has no magnetic field
(b) the working component of primary current has the strongest field
(c) the secondary voltage is maximum for direct current in the primary
(d) only variations in the primary current can induce secondary voltage
ELECTRONICS • 257

(a) L-type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter
(b) p-type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter
(c) T-type filter with series C and shunt L is low pass filter
(d) L-type filter with series C and shunt C is low pass filter
127. With input frequencies from zero to 100 kHz, for which of the following
frequencies is output voltage developed as a bandpass filter for audio
frequencies cut off at 20 Hz at the low and 20 kHz at the high end?
(a) Zero to 20 Hz (b) 20 cps to 20 kHz
(c) Zero 20 kHz (d) 20 cps to 100 kHz
128. A power-line filter for rejecting of interference has
(a) R.F. coupling capacitor in series with the power line
(b) 50 Hz chokes in series with the power line
(c) R.F. capacitors in shunt across the power line
(d) R.F. chokes in shunt across the power line
129. Which of the following L-type filters is the best band stop filter?
(a) Parallel resonant L-C circuits in series and in parallel with the load
(b) Series resonant L-C circuits in series and in parallel with the load
(c) Series resonant L-C circuits in series with the load and parallel resonant
L-C circuit in shunt
(d) Parallel resonant L-C circuits in series with the load and parallel resonant
L-C circuit in shunt
130. The plate current in a triode, tetrode or pentode will increase if the
(a) control grid is made more negative
(b) plate voltage is made less negative
(c) control grid voltage is made less negative
(d) screen grid voltage is made less negative
131. The screen grid in a pentode is used to
(a) make the plate current more dependent on plate voltage
(b) have the same potential as cathode
(c) decrease the grid-plate capacitance as compared with triode
(d) eliminate the problem of secondary emission from the plate
132. The suppression grid in the pentode is used to eliminate the problem of
secondary emission.
(a) true (b) false
133. In the half-wave rectifier diode conducts when the
(a) A.C. input voltage is at its average value of zero
(b) anode is made positive by positive alteration of the A.C. input voltage
(c) plate is made negative by negative alteration of the A.C. input voltage
(d) cathode is made positive
134. With an indirectly heated cathode in the tube, the heater voltage
(a) is applied to the cathode
(b) is separate from the cathode circuit
(c) must be steady voltage
(d) is equal to the capacitor bias voltage
135. The transistor has no heater and hence it presents
(a) high power rating up to 10 kW
(b) long warm up time in amplifier circuit
(c) no hum from heater cathode leakage
(d) short service life because of solid construction
136. When germanium is doped with a controlled amount of impurity
(a) p-type semiconductor with excess holes is produced by doping
with arsenic
(b) n-type semiconductor with excess electrons is produced by doping
with arsenic
(c) n-type semiconductor with excess electrons is produced by doping
with indium
(d) n-type semiconductor with excess holes is produced by doping
with arsenic
137. The hole current is the movement of
(a) positive charges in the opposite direction from electron current
(b) positive charges in the same direction as electron current
(c) neutral charges in the opposite direction from electron current
(d) negative charges in the opposite direction from electron current
ELECTRONICS • 259
138. The barrier voltage at a p-n or p-n junction is approximately

(a) 5 volts aiding forward current
(b) 0.2 volts opposing forward current
(c) 2.5 volts opposing forward current
(d) 2.5 volts opposing reverse current
139. The collector circuit in a transistor amplifier circuit is
(a) forward bias at all times
(b) reverse bias for p-n-p and forward bias for n-p-n transistor
(c) reverse bias at all times
(d) reverse bias for n-p-n forward bias for p-n-p transistor
140. Which of the following circuits is mostly used as an amplifier?
(a) Common base circuit because it has high voltage gain
(b) Common emitter circuit because it has high voltage and current gain
(c) Common collector circuit because it has high gain
(d) Common emitter circuit is of a little use because it has extremely low
input resistance
141. The arrow in the symbol for a transistor indicates the direction of
(a) hole current in the collector
(b) electron current in the emitter
(c) hole current in the emitter
(d) electron current in the collector
142. When a change in base current from 40 to 50 mA changes the collector
current from 600 to 1000 mA, the β factor of this power transistor equals
(a) 800 (b) 400
(c) 3 (d) 40
143. A heat sink is often used with transistors and semiconductor diodes to
(a) increase the forward current
(b) increase the reverse current
(c) prevent excessive temperature rise
(d) compensate for excessive doping
144. The skin effect will produce the least losses with R.F. current flowing in a
(a) square thin wire
(b) round thin wire
(c) hollow tubular conductor of large diameter
(d) long thin wire
145. Which of the following is the best bypass for a 1 MΩ resistor at 50 MHz?
(a) 100 mmF ceramic capacitor
(b) 1 mF paper capacitor
(c) 1 mF electrolyte capacitor
(d) 40 mF electrolyte capacitor
146. For an R.F. electromagnetic field the best shield is a
(a) iron enclosure
(b) Faraday screen
(c) permalloy
(d) copper or aluminium enclosure
147. The current through an external plate load resistor is the same as the internal
electron flow in a tube to the plate.
(a) true (b) false
148. The emitter is always forward biased while the collector has the reverse bias
in the transistor.
(a) true (b) false
149. The input characteristic of the transistors is the ratio of the collector current
to the base current.
(a) true (b) false
150. The + mark on the silicon diode power rectifier indicates where positive D.C.
output voltage is obtained.
(a) true (b) false
151. The ‘‘slide rule’’ is said to be a
(a) analog computer
(b) digital computer
(c) hybrid computer
(d) tele-type machine
ELECTRONICS • 261
152. The series combination of resistance and capacitance is put across the
thyristor to protect it from
(a) high current
(b) high voltage
(c) high rate of change of voltage
(d) high rate of change of current
(e) thermal runaway
153. A radar measures distance by measuring the
(a) voltage amplitude of the transmitted R.F. pulses
(b) voltage amplitude of an echo
(c) time between transmitted R.F. pulses
(d) time between its R.F. pulse and its echo
154. Inductors are not common in ICs.
(a) true (b) false
155. SiO2 is a conductor.
(a) true (b) false
156. In semiconductor ICs a resistance is made when the base of the transistor is
made.
(a) true (b) false
157. In semiconductor ICs a diode is like a capacitor.
(a) true (b) false
158. It is easy to make n-p-n and p-n-p transistors on the same chip.
(a) true (b) false
159. Hybrid ICs are generally cheaper than other types of ICs.
(a) true (b) false
160. In triggering a triac with a gate pulse, a low current has a long turn-on time
and a high current a short turn-on time.
(a) true (b) false
161. A 4-volt change in control grid voltage is equal to a 4-volt change in plate
voltage on the amount of electrons reaching plate.
(a) true (b) false
162. All electron-emitting materials are placed on the filaments.

(a) true (b) false
163. An increase in the grid bias of a thyratron will require an increase in anode
voltage to make it conduct.
(a) true (b) false
164. What is the distance between crests of a radio wave whose frequency is
3 × 108 Hz?
(a) 1 m/cycle (b) 1 cm/cycle
(c) 40 cm/cycle (d) 10 cm/cycle
165. Phototubes are relatively high resistance devices even when they conduct.
(a) true (b) false
166. The reverse bias in semiconducting devices will
(a) increase the potential barrier
(b) decrease the potential barrier
(c) not affect the potential barrier
(d) make the potential barrier zero
167. Bipolar transistors have larger voltage gain than JFET for a given
supply voltage.
(a) true (b) false
168. MOSFET is
(a) a current-driven device
(b) a voltage-driven device
(c) a low input impedance device
(d) an inefficient switching device
(e) a power-driven device
169. MOSFETs essentially require a dual polarity power supply to turn them ON
and OFF.
(a) true (b) false
170. The typical value of leakage current for a MOSFET is
(a) 10−14 A (b) 10−4 A
(c) 10−10 A (d) 10−12 A
ELECTRONICS • 263
171. MOSFETs are suitably used where source resistance ranges from
(a) a few ohms to 1000 ohms (b) 10 to 100 MΩ
(c) 100 MΩ and above (d) milliohms to a few ohms
172. Which of the following devices is the best for improving switching speeds of
bipolar transistors?
(a) Speed-up capacitor
(b) Transistor with higher cut-off frequency
(c) Clamping diode
(d) Clamping diode with zero storage time
173. Which of the following makes an active circuit?
(a) Inductor (b) Resistor
(c) Field effect transistor (d) Bipolar transistor
(e) (c) and (b) both (f) Capacitor
174. Which of the following displays has minimum power consumption?
(a) Light emitting diode (LED)
(b) Liquid crystal display (LCD)
(c) Nixie tubes
(d) Fluorescent
175. Which of the following displays has slowest switching speed?
(a) LEDs (b) LCD
(c) Nixie tubes (d) Fluorescent
176. A transistor is a faster switching device than a silicon-controlled rectifier
of same capacity.
(a) true (b) false
177. For the operation of FET with TTL logic, the threshold voltage of
FET shall be
(a) 4 V (b) –12 V
(c) –4 V (d) 2.2 V
178. An operational amplifier shall have zero voltage output for zero input voltage.
(a) true (b) false
179. The output offset of an operational amplifier is attributed to

(a) an input-voltage offset
(b) an input current offset
180. Offset voltages of an amplifier are dependent on circuit gain.
(a) true (b) false
181. The conduction in JFET is always by the
(a) majority carriers (b) minority carriers
(c) holes (d) electrons
(e) holes and electrons simultaneously
182. Which of the following can be used as an adjustable temperature coefficient
device?
(a) Zener diode (b) Gas filled tubes
(c) JFET (d) P-N-P transistor
183. The ‘‘pinch off’’ voltage of a JFET can range from
(a) 4 to 8 V (b) –4 to –8 V
(c) 0.4 to –0.8 V (d) –0.4 to –8 V
(e) 0.4 to 8 V
184. A multiplexer is an electronic device which is used for
(a) multiplication of two or more quantities
(b) superimposition of two or more electrical signals of different frequencies
for their parallel transmission through one channel
(c) scanning of analog or digital inputs on ‘‘Time-Sharing’’ basis
185. MOSFETs are not suitable for low voltage switching.
(a) true (b) false
186. Enumerate five special features of MOSFETs
(i) fast switching (ii) low drive current
(iii) no second breakdown (iv) ease of paralleling
(v) excellent temperature stability
ELECTRONICS • 265
187. What is the critical range of conduction-angle control of a thyristor outside

which the conduction-angles have very little effect on the percentage of
applied power to the load?
(a) 30° to 90° (b) 0° to 90°
(c) 40° to 140° (d) 0° to 180°
188. If an SCR is manufactured for a maximum junction temperature of 130°C,
ambient temperature of 85°C and thermal resistance (from junction to
ambient) of 1.5°C per watt, what will be the maximum internal power
dissipation?
(c) 175 milliwatts (d) 300 milliwatts
189. An SCR cannot be brought in conduction state without gate current.
(a) true (b) false
190. The disease ‘‘sleeping sickness’’ is observed in
(a) junction transistors (b) coated cathodes valves
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) integrated circuits
191. If the diagonal measure of a television screen in 50 cm, what will be the
width of the screen as per American Standard?
(a) 30 cm (b) 40 cm
(c) 50 cm (d) 35 cm
192. Which of the following diodes has almost zero minority carrier storage time?
(a) Rectifier (b) Schottky
(c) PIN (d) Zener
(e) Tunnel
193. A Schottky diode essentially consists of a
(a) p-n junction
(b) metal-to-semiconductor junction
(c) p and n regions separated by an intrinsic region
(d) p-n junction with every heavy dropping
194. A Schottky diode is a majority carrier device.
(a) true (b) false
195. The UJT often reduces the number of components necessary to perform a
given function to less than half that required if bipolar transistors are used.
(a) true (b) false
196. In which of the following devices are the base resistors not added in the
package but added externally?
(a) UJT (b) CUJT
(c) PUT (d) None of the above
197. Diodes are somewhat analogous to
(a) toggle switches (b) relays
(c) circuit breakers (d) fuses
198. Transistors are analogous to
(a) toggle switches (b) relays
(c) circuit breakers (d) fuses
199. Oscillator circuits with only D.C. power sources can produce
(a) A.C. wave only (b) square wave only
(c) sawtooth wave only (d) any of the above
200. With no voltage applied between the gate and source electrodes in
MOSFETs, the impedance between the drain and source terminals is
very low.
(a) true (b) false
201. Thermionic Integrated Micro-Module (TIMM) is the trade name for
(a) vacuum diodes (b) vacuum tubes
(c) vacuum diodes and tubes with no heaters
(d) triodes (e) pentodes
202. The forward resistance of thermionic diodes is
(a) zero (b) very small
(c) in the range of 100 to 1000 ohms (d) very large
203. The interelectrode capacitance of a thermionic diode is
(a) small (b) zero
(c) of the order of 5 pf (d) very large
ELECTRONICS • 267
204. The plate characteristics of a triode plotted with positive and negative grid
voltages will have
(a) the same slopes
(b) completely different slopes
(c) almost the same slopes
(d) positive and negative slopes respectively
205. The reciprocal of slope of plate characteristics of the triode will generate
(a) plate resistance
(b) amplification factor
(c) mutual conductance of triode
(d) penetration factor
206. The plate-grid capacitance in a triode is
(a) less than that of a tetrode
(b) more than that of a tetrode
(c) equal to that of a tetrode
(d) zero
207. In a cathode follower the voltage drop across the cathode is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
208. The ‘‘grid base’’ of a tube is
(a) dependent on the peak voltage of the plate
(b) independent of the peak voltage of the plate
(c) dependent on the cathode voltage
209. A triode tube has an amplification factor 8 and is operated at a plate
voltage of 240 volts. What grid potential is required to reduce the plate
current to zero?
(a) 30 volts (b) –30 volts
(c) 5 volts (d) –5 volts
(e) –15 volts
210. The following circuit will behave as a

(a) triode with high amplification factor
(b) triode with medium amplification factor
(c) tetrode with high amplification factor
(d) tetrode with medium amplification factor
Fig. Q. 210.
211. The materials whose electrical conductivity is usually less than
1 × 106 mho/m are
(a) semiconductors (b) conductors
(c) insulators (d) alloys
212. The Hall Coefficient for p-type semiconductors is
(a) negative only (b) positive only
(c) either positive or negative (d) not applicable
213. The Hall Coefficient will be zero for a
(a) insulator
(b) n-type semiconductor
(c) conductor
(d) p-type semiconductor
214. Fermi Level is the energy where the probability of a state occupied in
conduction and valance band is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.33
215. The average energy of an electron in the conduction band of a metal at 0°K
as a function of Fermi Level (EF) will be
(a) 1/5 EF (b) 2/5 EF
(c) 3/5 EF (d) 4/5 EF
ELECTRONICS • 269
216. The thickness of the depletion region in a semiconductor diode is of the

order of
(a) 1 × 10−4 micron (b) 1 × 10−6 micron
(c) 1 micron (d) 1 × 10−6 cm
217. In certain semiconductors including transistors, the electrons pass freely in
both directions between semiconductor and terminals with expenditure of
little or no energy. When this happens, transition is called
(a) ohmic (b) non-rectifying
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) rectifying
218. Which of the following transistor configurations will give both current and
voltage gain?
(a) Common emitter (b) Common collector
(c) Common case (d) None of the above
219. Why are n-p-n transistors preferred over p-n-p transistors?
(a) n-p-n transistors have low heat dissipation
(b) n-p-n transistors are cheap and easily available
(c) n-p-n transistors have high mobility of holes
(d) n-p-n transistors have higher mobility of electrons than holes in p-n-p
transistors
220. How many valence electrons will there be in the atoms of elements of the 4th
group (column) in the periodic table?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
221. Where is the largest mass of an atom?
(a) In the protons
(b) In the electrons
(c) In the neutrons
(d) In the atomic nucleus which contains protons and neutrons
222. How many similar and dissimilar atoms can be combined in the molecule of a
substance?
(a) Only two atoms (b) Only one atom
(c) Only four atoms (d) Any number of atoms
223. Which of the following statements is true when atoms are electrically
neutral?
(a) The number of electrons is equal to protons
(b) The number of electrons is less than protons
(c) The number of electrons is more than protons
(d) The number of protons is equal to neutrons
224. In which shells do electrons have more accommodating space?
(a) In the shells closer to the atomic nucleus
(b) In the outer shell
(c) In any position of the shells
(d) None of them
225. If pairs of electrons are shared by adjacent atoms in a covalent bond, the
atoms
(a) remain neutral
(b) become electrically charged
(c) become negatively charged
(d) become positively charged
(a) Inner electrons are always present in the semiconductor
(b) Bound electrons are always present in the semiconductor
(c) Free electrons are always present in the semiconductor
(d) Inner and bound electrons are always present in the semiconductor
227. Intrinsic semiconductors have
(a) more electrons than holes (b) more protons than holes
(c) more holes than electrons (d) electrons equal holes
228. Why are the valence electrons specifically important in semiconductors?
(a) Because they are negatively charged
(b) Because they can contribute to current flow in certain situations
(c) Because they can produce bonds with other atoms
(d) Because they make covalent bonds
ELECTRONICS • 271
229. Which electrons are important in holding the atoms in a crystal together?
(a) The inner electrons of the atoms
(b) The valence electrons that are in outer shells of atoms
(d) All the electrons irrespective of location
230. The reciprocal of slope of a line joining the operating point to the origin in
the volt-ampere characteristics curve of a diode is defined as
(a) dynamic resistance of diode
(b) static resistance of diode
(d) reverse resistance
231. Which of the following resistances is important in the case of diodes?
(a) Dynamic resistance (b) Static resistance
(c) Reverse resistance (d) None of the above
232. If the reverse voltage in a diode is increased, the barrier capacitance would
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) increase proportional to applied voltage
233. The diode used for voltage regulating purposes below 2 V is usually chosen to
conduct
(a) in forward direction
(b) in reverse direction
(c) in either forward or reverse direction
(d) in both directions depending on the polarity of applied voltage
234. Which of the following combinations will be chosen to use the diodes for
higher voltage rating?
(a) The diodes shall be connected in series
(b) The diodes shall be connected in parallel
(c) Some diodes in series and a few in parallel
(d) Such combinations are not possible and only a single diode shall be used
of the rated voltage
235. Diodes manufactured specially for voltage tuning of LC resonant circuits are
called
(a) tunnel diodes (b) Zener diodes
(c) varactors (d) varicaps
(e) voltacaps (f) (c) or (d) or (e)
236. The degree of doping in a semiconductor material is commonly expressed in
terms of
(a) drift (b) diffusion
(c) conductivity (d) resistivity
(e) conductivity or resistivity
237. Which of the following assumptions is taken into consideration if the
transistor alpha is defined as the product of the transport factor and emitter
efficiency?
(a) Collector multiplication ratio is zero
(b) Collector multiplication ratio is positive
(c) Collector multiplication ratio is negative
(d) Collector multiplication ratio is unity
238. A transistor can provide
(a) current amplification
(b) voltage amplification
(c) power amplification
(d) current, voltage and power amplification
239. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to operate a p-n-p
transistor in an active region?
(a) The collector and the emitter junctions are biased in the forward
direction
(b) The collector junction is biased in the forward direction and the emitter
junction is biased in reverse direction
(c) The collector junction is biased in reverse direction and emitter junction
is biased in forward direction
(d) The collector and emitter junctions are biased in reverse direction
ELECTRONICS • 273
240. If a transistor is used as an amplifier without appreciable distortion with

common configuration, it should be restricted to operate in a
(a) cut-off region
(b) action region
(c) saturation region
(a) The saturation voltage VCF of a silicon transistor is more than a
germanium transistor
(b) The saturation voltage VCE for a germanium transistor is more than a
silicon transistor
(c) The saturation voltage VCE for a silicon transistor is same as that for a
(d) The saturation voltage VCE for a silicon transistor is lower than a
242. If the D.C. current gain of a transistor is given, can it be decided how much
input base current will be required to saturate the transistor?
(a) Yes (b) No
hFe
243. The equation hfe = is valid
∂hFE
1 - (ICBO + IB)
∂IC
(a) in the saturation region of the transistor
(b) in the cut-off region of the transistor
(c) in the active region of the transistor
(d) in any of the above regions of the transistor
244. The stability factor of a transistor in an active region is
(a) very small
(b) very high
(c) usually less than unity
(d) always greater than one
245. Germanium transistors are seldom used above
(a) 60°C temperature (b) 75°C temperature
(c) 175°C temperature (d) 125°C temperature
246. Power dissipation at the collector junction causes an increase in collector

current and subsequent increase in power dissipation at the junction. This
phenomenon is known as
(a) thermal gradient (b) thermal instability
(c) thermal runaway (d) thermal dissipation
(e) thermal coefficient (f) thermal stability
247. Amplifiers are invariably described based on the
(a) frequency range (b) method of operation
(c) ultimate use (d) type of load
(e) all the above
248. In which of the following amplifiers is the output signal zero for less than half
a cycle if input signal voltage is sinusoidal?
(a) Class A (b) Class B
(c) Class AB (d) Class C
249. The application of a sinusoidal signal to the input of an ideal Class A
amplifier will result in a sinusoidal output wave.
(a) true (b) false
250. In the high frequency region, i.e., above midband, an amplifier state may
behave like a
(a) low-pass filter (b) high-pass filter
(c) current amplifier (d) power amplifier
251. If a 50 Hz square wave is applied to amplifier circuit and output is desired
with less than 10% tilt, then lower 3 dB frequency must not exceed
(a) 2 Hz (b) 1.6 Hz
(c) 1.6 kHz (d) 1 Hz
252. If the amplitude response is plotted on log-log paper for a five-stage
amplifier, what will be the slope of plotted straight line?
(a) 30 dB per octave (b) 6 dB per octave
(c) 100 dB per decade (d) (a) or (c)
(e) 10 dB per decade
253. The Johnson noise in amplifiers is
(a) electrical noise (b) thermal noise
(c) vibrational noise (d) frequency noise
ELECTRONICS • 275
254. The noise for which the frequency spectrum is flat, i.e., a distribution which
gives the same noise per unit, the bandwidth of the amplifier anywhere in
frequency spectrum is called
(a) blue noise (b) white noise
(c) red noise (d) black noise
255. The noise in the amplifier which varies approximately as reciprocal to
frequency at low frequencies is called
(a) shot noise (b) white noise
(c) flicker noise (d) excess noise
256. White noise in the transistor amplifier is caused by
(a) thermal agitation
(b) recombination of holes and electrons
(c) bulk resistance of semiconductor material and fluctuation of currents
(d) frequency variations
257. An ideal voltage amplifier must have
(a) infinite input resistance and zero output resistance
(b) zero input resistance and infinite output resistance
(c) same input and output resistance
258. A voltage amplifier provides output voltage proportional to the input voltage
and the proportionality factor is independent of magnitude of source and
load resistances.
(a) true (b) false
259. An ideal amplifier whose output current is proportional to the input voltage is
called
(a) voltage amplifier
(b) current amplifier
(c) transconductance amplifier
(d) transresistance amplifier
260. If a transfer gain of the amplifier with feedback signal is more than the
transfer gain without feedback, the amplifier has
(a) negative feedback (b) positive feedback
(c) positive feedforward (d) negative feedforward
261. If the feedback block does not contain reactive elements, the overall gain of
the amplifier is
(a) independent of frequency
(b) dependent on frequency
(c) independent of phase distortion
262. Negative feedback in amplifiers in which feedback signal is returned to the
input voltage in shunt with the applied signal
(a) increases input resistance of the amplifiers
(b) decreases input resistance of the amplifiers
(c) does not change the input resistance of the amplifiers
(d) decreases output resistance of the amplifiers
263. The current-shunt negative feedback
(a) increases the input resistance of the amplifier
(b) decreases the input resistance of the amplifier
(c) does not change the input resistance of the amplifier
(d) increases the output resistance of the amplifier
264. For which of the following amplifiers does the negative feedback introduced
increase the bandwidth?
(a) Voltage amplifier
(b) Current amplifier
(c) Transconductance amplifier
(d) Transresistance amplifier
(e) All of the above
265. The hum in an electronic tube audio amplifier may be caused by the
interference of
(a) power frequency voltage (b) power frequency currents
(c) power frequency fields (d) (a), (b), and (c)
266. For a Class A push-pull amplifier, the output transformer will give the correct
impedance match to the load with a simple output tube when one half of the
center tapped winding is used as primary.
(a) true (b) false
ELECTRONICS • 277
267. If a small inductance is connected in series with resistance in a resistance

coupled amplifier, how does inductance change the characteristic of the
amplifier?
(a) The inductance will lower down the amplification at high frequencies
(b) The inductance tends to correct for the falling off in amplification that
otherwise occurs at higher frequencies
(c) The inductance decreases the load impedance of the plate and hence the
gain is at high frequencies
(d) The inductance increases plate load impedance at high frequencies and
hence prevents the gain increase
268. If the overshoot of the individual stage of a multistage video amplifier is 5 to
10%, then the overshoot of the overall system is approximately
(a) proportional to the square root of the number of stages of the amplifier
(b) proportional to the number of stages of the video amplifier
(c) inversely proportional to the number of stages of the video amplifier
(d) 5 to 10% of the number of stages of the video amplifier
269. In a multistage video amplifier, when the sag is small to moderate, one
can calculate the sag introduced by each individual part of the amplifier
although no other sources of sag existed, and then add these individual sags
arithmetically to obtain the total sag.
(a) true (b) false
270. If an amplifier is made of pentode, which of the following parameters will
produce sag in the output amplifier?
(a) Grid leak-capacitor combination (b) Screen impedance
(c) Bias impedance (d) All the above
271. If the plate resistance of a triode cathode follower amplifier is very small and
the amplification factor is 9, what will be the approximate voltage gain of the
amplifier?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 0.9 (d) 1
272. Which of the following transistor amplifiers has a voltage gain of less than
unity?
(a) Common emitter amplifier (b) Common collector amplifier
(c) Common base amplifier (d) Cathode follower
273. A common base amplifier has

(a) voltage gain of less than unity but current gain more than unity
(b) voltage gain of more than unity but current gain less than unity
(c) voltage and current gains of more than unity
(d) voltage and current gains of less than unity
274. A common collector amplifier has
(a) high input resistance and low output resistance
(b) low input resistance and high output resistance
(c) high input and output resistances
(d) low input and output resistances
275. Which of the following configurations is equivalent to a grounded-grid
amplifier?
(a) Common collector (b) Common emitter
(c) Common base (d) Cathode follower
276. Which of the following amplifiers will be preferred for pH meters?
(a) RC coupled amplifier (b) D.C. coupled amplifier
(c) Electrometer amplifier (d) Cathode follower
277. An operational amplifier is used to sum up the signals. Operational feedback
is required while summing up the
(a) current signals (b) voltage signals
(c) potential signals (d) power signals
(c) low capacitance for low frequency signal
(d) low capacitance for high frequency signal
279. The natural vibration frequency of a crystal in a crystal oscillator depends on
(a) its cut and size (b) its weight
(c) its position in the circuit (d) its supply voltage
280. The ripple factor of a half wave rectifier is
(a) 1.57 (b) 1.11
(c) 1.21 (d) 0.482
ELECTRONICS • 279
281. What will happen if an inductor is connected in series with load resistance of
the full wave rectifier?
(a) The ripple factor of the rectifier circuit will be more than that of the
circuit without inductance
(b) The ripple factor of the rectifier circuit will be less than that of the circuit
without inductance
(c) The ripple factor will not be affected with addition of inductance
(d) The ripple factor is independent of inductance in the circuit
282. Which of the following statements is correct in the case of rectifiers
employing capacitor input filters?
(a) The ripple in the output will be high for large loads
(b) The ripple in the output will be low for large loads
(c) The ripple in the output will be same for all loads
(d) The capacitor eliminates the ripple in the output
(a) The maximum energy of electrons liberated photo-electrically from a
metal surface is dependent on light intensity but independent of the
frequency of the incident light
(b) The maximum energy of the electrons liberated photo-electrically is
independent of light intensity but varies linearly with the frequency of
the incident light
(c) The maximum energy of the electrons liberated photo-electrically is
dependent on light intensity and varies linearly with the frequency of the
incident light
(d) The maximum energy of electrons liberated photo-electrically varies non-
linearly with the frequency of the incident light
284. The minimum frequency of light that can be used to cause photo-electric
emission is called
(a) threshold frequency (b) cut-off frequency
(c) cut-in frequency (d) radiation frequency
285. The current varies almost linearly with the light flux if
(a) a forward-biased p-n junction is illuminated
(b) a reverse-biased p-n junction is illuminated
(c) (a) or (b)
286. The tuned circuit in an oscillator may be connected to

(a) the grid circuit
(b) the plate circuit
(c) (a) or (b)
287. Which of the following devices may be used for sinusoidal negative-resistance
oscillators?
(a) Tunnel diode
(b) Tetrode
(c) Point contact transistor
(d) Pentode
(e) (a), (b), and (c)
288. In principle, the relaxation oscillator differs from the negative-resistance
oscillator only in that it is not confined to a linear portion of the negative
resistance region.
(a) true (b) false
289. Which of the following rectifiers has the best efficiency and regulation?
(a) Half wave rectifier
(b) Full wave rectifier
(c) Half wave, voltage doubler rectifier
(d) Full wave, voltage doubler rectifier
290. The frequencies that a video detector must handle lie between
(a) 30 Hz to 4.5 MHz (b) 30 kHz to 4.5 MHz
(c) 10 kHz to 9 MHz (d) 20 kHz to 20 MHz
291. A photo-electric emitter is exposed to light a 3000 Å wavelength resulting in
emission of electrons. What will be the frequency of the light?
(a) 6 × 1014 Hz (b) 3 × 1015 Hz
(c) 1 × 1015 Hz (d) 1 × 1014 Hz
292. In practice the secondary emission rates of a photo-multiplier is of the
order of
(a) 5 to 10 (b) 10 to 20
(c) 5 (d) 1 to 5
ELECTRONICS • 281
293. During a short period after the application of light to photo-conductive

materials, the change in current due to illumination is
(a) proportional to incident flux
(b) inversely proportional to incident flux
(c) proportional to the square root of incident flux
(d) frequency of fluctuation of light flux
294. With fluctuating light to photo-conductive material, the A.C. current
produced is proportional to the frequency of light flux.
(a) true (b) false
295. Which of the following configurations can be used as a constant current
source?
(a) Common-emitter stage
(b) Common-collector stage
(c) Common-base stage
(d) (a) or (b)
296. Which of the following configurations has voltage gain less than unity?
(a) Common-collector stage
(b) Common-emitter stage
(c) Common-base stage
(d) All of the above
297. Which of the following transistor configurations is used in practice to increase
overall voltage amplification?
(a) Common-emitter stage in cascade
(b) Common-collector stage in cascade
(c) Common-base stage in cascade
(d) Any of the above
298. The addition of the emitter resistance in common-emitter configuration
of the transistor amplifier will make the voltage gain independent of all
transistor parameters.
(a) true (b) false
299. Which of following circuits will one choose to perform the function of
impedance transformation over a wide range of frequencies with voltage gain
close to unity?
(a) Common-emitter transistor configuration
(b) Common-collector transistor configuration
(c) Common-base transistor configuration
300. The collector resistance Rc is added in the common-collector circuit of a
transistor
(a) to protect the transistor from open circuit across Re
(b) to protect the transistor from short circuit across Re
(c) to protect the transistor from short circuit across Re or large
input-voltage swing
(d) to increase input-resistance and decrease output resistance of the
amplifier circuit
301. The value of time constant in case of differentiation is
(a) more than the value of time constant in case of integrator
(b) less than the value of time constant in case of integrator
(c) same as the value of time constant in case of integrator
(d) very high
302. An integrating circuit will have high value of time constant in comparison to
time constant value of differentiating circuit.
(a) true (b) false
303. Which of the following multivibrators one will choose to convert voltage to
frequency?
(a) Monostable multivibrator
(b) Astable multivibrator
(c) Bistable multivibrator
304. The horizontal amplifier of a television to some extent controls
(a) brightness (b) sound
(c) picture (d) all the above
ELECTRONICS • 283
305. Which of the following should be selected for the best picture on a television?
(a) Optimum frequency of oscillator
(b) Optimum frequency of horizontal amplifier
(c) Gain of the horizontal amplifier
(d) Minimum frequency of oscillator
306. How is the performance of Amplitude Modulation transmitters affected if
they have a low level of modulation?
(a) Transmitters will have high efficiency
(b) Transmitters will have low efficiency
(c) Transmitters will require Class B amplifier
(d) Transmitters will require high power
307. The atmosphere is most transparent to which regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum
(a) visual and radio
(b) IR and UV
(c) microwave and gamma
(d) UV and microwave
308. The frequency of 4000 MHz to 8000 MHz corresponds to
(a) X band (b) C band
(c) L band (d) S band
309. The RC phase shift is commonly used for
(a) video frequency range
(b) audio frequency range
(c) power frequency range
(d) TV frequency range
310. Ferrite Core is commonly used in
(a) distribution transformers (b) pulse transformers
(c) D.C. transformers (d) any of the above
311. Which of the following configurations of transistors offers the lowest output
impedance?
(c) Common base (d) Either (a) or (b)
312. Which of the following configurations of transistors offers the highest output
impedance?
(c) Common base (d) Either (a) or (b)
313. Capacitor filters offer
(a) small ripple and small voltage at high loads
(b) small ripple and high voltage at low loads
(c) small ripple and high voltage at high loads
(d) high ripple and high voltage at low loads
314. Bridge rectifiers have
(a) small transformers (b) high peak inverse voltage
(c) low peak inverse voltage (d) (a) and (c) both
315. The Class C amplifier should be operated in Class AB mode to avoid cross-
over distortion.
(a) true (b) false
316. Which amplifier suffers from cross-over distortion?
(a) Class AB (b) Class B
(c) Class C (d) (b) or (c)
317. A full wave rectifier may have the ripple frequency of
(a) A.C. supply (b) half of A.C. supply frequency
(c) double of A.C. supply frequency (d) thrice of A.C. supply frequency
1
318. The frequency of f = is for
2p√6RC
(a) an oscillator in RC phase shift oscillator
(b) Wein bridge oscillator
(c) Hartley oscillator
(d) either (a) or (b)
1
319. The frequency f = is for
2p √LC
(b) Wein bridge
ELECTRONICS • 285
1
320. The frequency f = is for
2p RC
(b) Wein bridge oscillator
321. If the input resistance of a transistor amplifier is increased, the power gain is
reduced.
(a) true (b) false
322. A phase shift oscillator will comprise
(a) RC elements
(b) LC elements
(c) RL elements
(d) RLC elements
323. What is the approximate distance from Earth at which the ionosphere starts?
(a) 100 km (b) 10 km
(c) 1000 km (d) 80 km
(a) TV systems use amplitude modulation
(b) TV systems use frequency modulation
(c) TV systems use amplitude modulation for picture and frequency
modulation for sound
(d) TV systems use frequency modulation for sound and amplitude
modulation for picture
325. Wave guide effectively can be treated as a
(a) low pass filter
(b) medium pass filter
(c) high pass filter
(d) band pass filter
326. The space wave is same as the sky wave.
(a) true (b) false
327. The space wave represents

(a) energy that reaches the receiving antenna because of a bending of the
wave path introduced by the ionization in the upper atmosphere
(b) energy that travels from the transmitting to the receiving antenna in the
Earth’s troposphere
(c) energy from the transmitting to receiving antenna which is close to the
surface
(d) the surface wave
328. Several Schumann resonances are between 6 Hz and 40 Hz
(a) true (b) false
329. Which of the following parameters are considered in a microwave system?
(a) Distributed parameter (b) Lumped parameters
(c) (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b) together
330. Which of the following wave guides will one choose where physical
compactness is more concerned?
(a) Circular wave guide (b) Rectangular wave guide
(c) Flexible wave guide (d) Ridged wave guide
331. The attenuation of the ridged wave guide structure per unit length is greater
than for the corresponding rectangular wave.
(a) true (b) false
332. The wave impedance for TM waves is given by
(a) 377 lg/l ohms (b) 377 l/lg ohms
(c) 377/l ohms (d) 400/lg ohms
where l and lg are free space and guide wavelengths respectively
(a) Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they pass through the
medium of constant dielectric
(b) Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they pass through a
conducting surface
(c) Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they pass through a medium
of different dielectric constant
ELECTRONICS • 287
334. Which wave predominates at a large distance above the Earth?

(a) Ground waves
(b) Sky waves
(c) Space waves
(d) (a) or (c)
335. The noise output of a frequency modulation receiver will be minimized when
the receiver does not respond to the amplitude variations of the input signals.
(a) true (b) false
336. When a sky wave enters the ionosphere, the edge of the wave front in the
region of highest electron density will advance faster than the part of the
wave front encountering regions of lower electron density.
(a) true (b) false
337. The bending of the wave produced by the ionosphere follows
(a) refraction law (b) reflection law
(c) optical law (d) absorption law
338. Which of the following conditions are necessary in TV broadcasting?
(a) All transmitters employ same picture shape
(b) All transmitters employ the same procedure in scanning the scene to be
transmitted
(c) All transmitters have the same means for synchronizing receivers
(d) (a), (b), and (c)
339. The standard TV picture employed in the USA has a ratio of width to
height of
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 3
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 2
340. Pulse communication systems normally operates on
(a) audio frequencies
(b) video frequencies
(c) microwave frequencies
(d) none of above
341. Pulse code modulation transmission has the advantage over other types of
signal transmission in that
(a) the signal is not corrupted by noise
(b) the noise does not introduce any error in the receiving signal
(c) the noise does not introduce any error in the signal whatsoever, provided
that signal to noise ratio is such that the largest noise peaks will not be
mistaken for pulses
(d) the transmission is faster
342. Synchronous pulses are needed for
(a) time matching (b) linearity
(c) time base (d) reducing noise
343. Synchronous pulses in TV are sent during
(a) blanking periods (b) serrations
(c) interlacing (d) vertical blanking
344. Field frequency irregularities in TV are minimized by
(a) synchropulses (b) blanking pulses
(c) equalizing pulses (d) pulse modulation
345. The interval between the beginning of the blanking pulse and beginning of
the synchronizing pulses is commonly known as
(a) back porch (b) front porch
(c) side porch (d) interlace
346. If a TV is switched on and sound is normal but there is no brightness in the
picture the trouble may be in the
(a) power supply
(b) vertical amplifier
(c) R.F. amplifier
(d) horizontal amplifier
347. The anode voltage for picture tubes should be of the order of
(a) 4 V (b) 10 V
(c) 24 V (d) 3.3 kV
(e) 12 kV
ELECTRONICS • 289
348. The Radar Altimeter is used to

(a) measure pressure
(b) measure the distance of an air plane from ground
(c) measure the distance of a hill top from ground
(d) measure humidity
349. The photosensitive surface of an image-orthicon camera tube is operated at
(a) positive potential
(b) negative potential
(d) very high positive potential
350. The output current of an image-orthicon tube varies
(a) linearly with light intensity
(b) exponentially with light intensity
(c) inversely with light intensity
(d) randomly with light intensity
351. The Vidicon Camera tube makes use of
(a) conducting material
(b) semiconducting material
(c) insulating material
352. If amorphous selenium is exposed to light, the resistance of this material will
(c) not vary (d) vary exponentially
353. The bridge arrangement in the transmitting antenna used for picture sound
transmission is known as
(a) duplexer (b) diplexer
(c) dual transmitter (d) either (a) or (b)
354. In pulse position modulation, the average transmitter power required to
make the pulses stronger than the noise is independent of the bandwidth of
the system, even though the amount of noise power present is proportional to
the bandwidth.
(a) true (b) false
355. A practical pulse communication system operates on

(a) power frequencies
(b) radio frequencies
(c) ultra-high frequencies
(d) ultra-high or microwave frequencies
356. Pulse code modulation has an advantage over other methods of modulation
in that
(a) the signal can be repeated hundreds of times and remain free of noise
(b) if the signal is kept above threshold value, the signal can be repeated
hundreds of times and remain free of noise
(c) if the signal is kept below the threshold value, the signal can be repeated
hundreds of times and remain free of noise
357. If pulse code modulation operates with a signal strength that is above the
threshold value, the signal to noise ratio at the receiver output will be
(a) proportional to the bandwidth of the system
(b) independent of the bandwidth of the system
(c) inversely proportional to the bandwidth of the system
(d) proportional to frequency modulation
358. In a TV system, the transfer characteristic r = 1 corresponds to
(a) lack of picture brightness
(b) amplitude distortion
(c) a linear system free of brightness or amplitude distortion
(d) a linear system free of amplitude distortion
359. The colour picture can be obtained by appropriately combining.
(a) red, green, and blue colors (b) red, yellow, and green colors
(c) red, black, and blue colors (d) red, white, and black colors
360. The Earth’s magnetic field will normally cause a radio wave that was
originally plane polarized to become elliptically polarized after it has travelled
some distance in the ionosphere.
(a) true (b) false
ELECTRONICS • 291
361. The average velocity of the electric field of a radio wave is

(a) proportional to the frequency
(b) inversely proportional to the frequency
(c) analogous to the frequency
(d) same as light velocity
362. The effect of Earth’s magnetic field on the paths of vibrating electrons will be
greater at
(a) high radio frequencies (b) low radio frequencies
(c) all radio frequencies (d) any specific radio frequencies
363. What effect will the Earth’s magnetic field have on a radio wave if the
magnetic field is in the same direction as the electric field of the radio wave?
(a) The magnetic field will have no effect on the radio wave
(b) The wave will follow the elliptical path
(c) The waves will be distorted
364. Which of the following frequencies is known as gyro frequency?
(a) 1400 Hz (b) 1400 kHz
(c) 3400 kHz (d) 20 kHz
365. What will happen if a radio wave is passed through an ionized medium in the
presence of a magnetic field?
(a) The polarization of the wave will be affected
(b) The wave will be ionized
(c) In addition to the polarization affect, the magnetic field will split the
wave into two components
(d) The magnetic field will split the wave into two components
(a) Sky wave absorption increases as the distance from transmitter to
receiver increases
(b) Sky wave absorption decreases as the distance from transmitter to
receiver decreases
(c) Sky wave absorption does not depend on the distance between
transmitter and receiver
(d) Sky wave absorption is always constant
367. The day time skywave absorption increases down to frequencies of the
order of
(a) 1 kHz (b) 1 MHz
(c) 100 kHz (d) 10 kHz
368. The effect of ionospheric storms is more severe where the transmission path
passes near
(a) the Earth’s surface
(b) the Earth’s magnetic pole
(c) 10 km height from the Earth’s surface
(d) 1 km height from the ionosphere
369. The radio waves generated by natural causes are known as
(a) dynamic (b) noise
(c) static (d) natural noise
370. The Rayleigh-Carson Reciprocity Theorem fails when
(a) the propagation of radio waves is not affected by the presence of the
Earth’s magnetic field
(b) the propagation of radio waves is affected by presence of the Earth’s
magnetic field
(c) the propagation of radio waves is very much affected by the ionosphere
(d) the propagation of radio waves is through an elliptical path
371. ‘‘The ratio of power that must be radiated by the comparison antenna to
develop a field strength in the direction of maximum radiation to the power
that must be radiated by the directional antenna system to obtain the same
field strength in the same direction.’’ The above statement is known as
(a) direct gain (b) directive gain
(c) indirect gain (d) power gain
372. Directive gain depends on
(a) radiated power distribution in space
(b) radiated power distribution in the Earth
(d) (a) or (b)
ELECTRONICS • 293
373. The typical gain of an amplifier for the ultra-high frequency will be
(a) 1 dB (b) –10 dB
(c) 40 dB (d) 440 dB
374. The performance of an amplitude modulated transmitter can be improved by
introducing
(a) positive feedback
(b) negative feedback
(c) positive feed forward
(d) negative feed forward
375. Frequency modulated transmitters find extensive use
(a) at 40 MHz frequency
(b) below 40 MHz frequencies
(c) above 40 MHz frequencies
(d) at 40 Hz to 40 kHz frequencies
376. If a radar produces 1-m sec pulses at the rate of 100 per second, what will be
the duty cycle of the radar?
(a) 0.001 sec (b) 0.01 sec
(c) 1 sec (d) 0.0001 sec
377. If a radar is producing 1-m sec pulses at the rate of 10000 per sec with peak
power of 400 kW, what will be the average power?
(c) 4 kW (d) 40 kW
378. Practice radar pulse lengths usually lie in the range of
(a) 1 to 10 m secs (b) 0.1 to 10 m secs
(c) 10 to 100 m secs (d) 0.01 to 1 m sec
379. The antenna used for both transmission and reception in a radar system is
known as a
(a) duplexer (b) diplexer
(c) dual antenna (d) bi-antenna
380. A transponder includes a

(a) radar and receiver
(b) receiver and pulse transformer
(c) receiver, pulse transmitter, and antenna
381. Cd band lies between
(a) 2000 to 3000 MHz (b) 1000 to 4000 MHz
(c) 5000 to 8000 MHz (d) 40 to 400 MHz
382. The pulse transformer for a pulse liner is designed for
(a) preserving the shape of the phase
(b) handlink high power and high voltage without saturation and insulation
breakdown
(d) (a) or (b)
383. Which of the following is used for a pulse transformer?
(a) Ferrite core (b) Iron core
(c) Copper core (d) None of the above
384. Which of the following oscillators is used for the audio frequency range?
(a) Blocking oscillator (b) Klystron oscillator
(c) RC phase shift oscillator (d) (b) or (c)
385. The instrument landing of an airborne system uses a
(a) glide path localizer (b) master and slave stations
(c) hamming path (d) pulse radar
386. The linear velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit is independent of its mass.
(a) true (b) false
387. Which of the following systems uses the sampling theorem?
(a) Pulse code modulation (b) Amplitude modulation
(c) Frequency modulation (d) Analog system
388. A transmitted signal can largely be affected by noise in the
(a) channel (b) way
(c) transmitter (d) receiver
ELECTRONICS • 295
389. Frequency shift keying is mostly used in telephonic transmission.

(a) true (b) false
390. The audio stage in a communication receiver offers fidelity.
(a) true (b) false
391. The Earth acts as a dielectric at
(a) very high frequencies (b) very low frequencies
(c) any frequency (d) none of the above
392. The Telex can be well related to
(a) television communication
(b) telephonic communication
(c) radio communication
(d) computer communication
393. Frequency modulation is used extensively in the range of
(a) 20 to 40 MHz (b) 40 to 1000 MHz
(c) 10 to 100 MHz (d) 10 to 100 kHz
394. The antenna used with a television transmitter is normally arranged to have
directivity in the vertical plane that concentrates the radiated energy along
the horizon.
(a) true (b) false
395. The ‘‘White Clipper’’ associated with the final video stage is a
(a) positive peak clipper
(b) negative peak clipper
(c) either (a) or (b) but not both simultaneously
396. The energy loss in a cubic meter of ionosphere in the absence of magnetic
fields is proportional to
(a) electron density
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) the square of the wavelength of the radio wave
(d) the product of (a), (b), and (c)
397. The location of a high distortion region about a broadcast transmitter varies
somewhat during
(a) night (b) night to night
(c) season to season (d) (a), (b), and (c)
398. The ratio of lower frequency limit to maximum usable frequency for carrying
on radio communication at short wave frequencies is generally smaller at
night than daytime.
(a) true (b) false
399. When precipitation static is serious, its intensity can be reduced by
(a) increasing the speed of the airplane
(b) lowering the speed of the airplane
(c) landing the airplane
(d) using the instrumentation landing for the airplane
400. Even when the antenna is underground the resistance of the nearby ground
causes the antenna to possess the loss resistance.
(a) true (b) false
401. If two quarter-wave grounded vertical antennas are located at the same
distance as two parallel half-wave antennas located remotely from ground,
the mutual impedance in the latter case between antennas shall be
(a) one-half of the first case
(b) double the first case
(c) same as for the first case
(d) 4 times the first case
402. Detuning a parasitic radiator such that it is resonant at a higher frequency
than that being radiated will cause the radiator to act as a director.
(a) true (b) false
403. If the individual antennas of a turnstile array are short doublet antennas, then
the combined pattern is exactly circular in the plane of the turnstile.
(a) true (b) false
404. It is possible to achieve frequency shift keying using a plane shift modulator.
(a) true (b) false
ELECTRONICS • 297
405. One stage of intermediate frequency amplification ordinarily contributes

more to the sensitivity of the receiver than one stage of tuned radio
frequency amplification employing the same amplifier.
(a) true (b) false
406. The hum appearing in a loudspeaker is relatively small if the triode is
replaced by a
(a) diode (b) tetrode
(c) beam power tube (d) transmitter
407. The intermediate frequency amplification per stage in an amplitude
modulation is more than the frequency of a modulation-broadcast receiver
using the same amplifier tubes.
(a) true (b) false
408. The suppression of the image signals in radios will be more effective if the
(a) ratio of intermediate to signal frequencies is lower
(b) ratio of intermediate to signal frequencies is higher
(c) ratio of intermediate to signal frequencies is constant
(d) signal frequencies are very low
409. In pulse position modulation, the amount of noise power present is
proportional to the bandwidth.
(a) true (b) false
410. Interlacing in TV systems will not give a useful result if the eye were
(a) as responsive to flicker in a small area as it is to flicker in a large area
(b) more responsive to flicker in a large area than small area
(c) more responsive to flicker in a small area than large area
(d) not responsive to flicker at all
411. It is desirable to use a sine wave for scanning in a TV system instead of
a sawtooth wave if the sine waves are employed at both transmitter and
receiver and are carefully synchronized.
(a) true (b) false
412. If the vertical synchronizing blocks have a length of nearly one horizontal
line and a repetition frequency equal to the line frequency, instead of half
this length and twice the frequency, then the horizontal line synchronization
would be interrupted during the vertical return of every other field.
(a) true (b) false
413. If the actual transfer characteristic of a television system is a straight line,

then superimposing a constant amount of light upon the reproduced picture
will cause the transfer characteristic to be curved in such a manner as to
reduce the gamma for the portions of the picture that are the least bright.
(a) true (b) false
414. The maximum range of a radar operating at a given frequency is
(a) inversely proportional to the linear dimension of the antenna
(b) directly proportional to the linear dimension of the antenna
(c) independent of the dimensions of the antenna
415. Long-wave radio-range signals are
(a) more dependable over earth of good conductivity than earth of poor
conductivity
(b) more dependable over earth of poor conductivity than earth of good
conductivity
(c) independent of earth conductivity
(d) independent of earth resistivity
416. What will happen if a truck is parked close to either the localizer or the glide
path antennas of an instrumentation landing system?
(a) Distortion of the equisignal paths will result
(b) A false equisignal will be created
(d) The truck will not distort the equisignal
417. The zero-signal position in a vertical loop in radio direction finding is not
affected by
(a) horizontally polarized waves travelling parallel to the ground
(b) vertically polarized waves travelling downward
(d) horizontally polarized down coming waves
ELECTRONICS • 299
418. The zero-signal position vertical loop in radio direction finding is affected by
horizontally polarized down-coming waves.
(a) true (b) false
419. The rotation of the goniometer pick-up coil is equivalent to rotating a single
loop antenna as far as the function of wave direction is concerned.
(a) true (b) false
420. Which of the following scanning systems will be used where it is necessary to
make angle measurements in both vertical and horizontal planes?
(a) Spiral scanning (b) Parabolic scanning
(c) Mechanical scanning (d) None of the above
421. One can change a (Transmit-Receive) TR box to an anti-TR box by omitting
output leads.
(a) true (b) false
422. The ‘‘Night Effect’’ in loop direction finding becomes eminent at
(a) higher frequency and greater distance
(b) lower frequency and greater distance
(c) lower frequency and lower distance
(d) higher frequency and lower distance
Fig. Q. 423.
423. The operational amplifier circuit above
(a) integrates the input signal
(b) differentiates the input signal
(c) is a high pass filter
(d) is a low pass filter
Fig. Q. 424.
Fig. Q. 425.
ELECTRONICS • 301
Fig. Q. 426.
Fig. Q. 427.
(a) sums the input voltages
(b) averages the input voltages
(c) differentiates the input voltages
(d) integrates the input voltages
Fig. Q. 428.
(a) is an inverting amplifier
(b) is a non-inverting amplifier
Fig. Q. 429.
(a) is an inverting amplifier
(b) is a non-inverting amplifier
ELECTRONICS • 303
Fig. Q. 430.
(a) is a band pass filter
(b) is a band stop filter
 kqVT 
431. According to Shockley’s diode equation I  I0  e B − 1
 
kBT  I 
(a) V = ln  + 1
q  I0 
kBT  I0 
(b) V = − ln 
q  I + I0 
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
432. Given a supply voltage in the four-diode
circuit above is V ( t ) = V0 cos ( ωt ).
The voltage across the resistor is
proportional to
(a) cos ( ωt )
(b) cos ( ωt )
(c) −ω sin ( ωt )
(d) cos ( ωt ) if 0 ≤ ωt ≤ π and 0 otherwise
Fig. Q. 432.
Fig. Q. 433.
433. Given a supply voltage in the single diode circuit is V ( t ) = V0 cos ( ωt ). The
voltage across the resistor is proportional to
(a) cos ( ωt )
(b) cos ( ωt )
(c) −ω sin ( ωt )
(d) cos ( ωt ) if 0 ≤ ωt ≤ π and 0 otherwise
8
COMPUTER SCIENCE
1. The system where only two states exist either conducting or non-conducting
is called
(a) on-line computer system (b) bilateral system
(c) unilateral system (d) binary system
2. What will be the binary code of (26)10?
(a) 11101 (b) 11001
(c) 11010 (d) 10101
3. Trace the equivalent decimal number for (10011)2.
(a) 26 (b) 18
(c) 19 (d) 20
4. The octal system has the radix of
(a) 6 (b) 2
(c) 8 (d) 10
5. The binary system has the radix of
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 8 (d) 10
6. What is the equivalent octal number of (492)10?
(a) 574 (b) 457
(c) 754 (d) 758
7. Trace the binary number for (0.27)10.

(a) 0.010001 (b) 0.010101
(c) 0.010110 (d) 0.10110
8. What is the equivalent decimal number for octal number 0.436?
(a) 0.558 (b) 0.5585
(c) 0.54859 (d) 0.5859
9. We cannot obtain an equivalent octal number directly from the binary
number of a given decimal number.
(a) true (b) false
10. To convert a decimal number to excess 3-code
(a) add the binary number of (3)10 to the decimal number
(b) add the binary number of (3)10 to any one digit of the decimal number
(c) add binary numbers of (3)10 to the binary number of the given decimal
number
(d) convert numbers of two or more digits to binary coded decimal and then
add the binary number of (3)10 of four bits to each binary coded decimal
11. Binary numbers cannot be obtained from excess 3-code.
(a) true (b) false
12. The excess 3-code of (21)10 is
(a) 101100 (b) 110100
(c) 101101 (d) 111001
13. Parity check code is used in the digital computer system to
(a) detect the error (b) correct the error
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) either (a) or (b)
14. Hamming code is used in the digital computer to
(a) detect the error position
(b) correct the error in the right position of the error
(d) either (a) and (b)
15. Trace the Gray code for (1101)2.
(a) 1110 (b) 1010
(c) 1011 (d) 1001
COMPUTER SCIENCE • 307
16. Trace the Gray code for (13)10.

(a) 1110 (b) 1010
(c) 1011 (d) 1001
17. Trace the decimal number of Gray code 1011.
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 31
18. Trace the binary number for Gray code, 1011.
(a) 1110 (b) 1010
(c) 1011 (d) 1001
(e) 1101
19. ‘‘Boolean Algebra’’ is based on the premise that
(a) a statement is false
(b) a statement is true
(c) either a statement is true or false
(a) Compiler is the name given to the computer operator
(b) Compiler is the part of the digital machine that stores the information
(c) Compiler is the translator of the source program to the object program
(d) Compiler is the name given to the punched tape
21. The output will be one if all inputs go to one for
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate
(c) NAND gate (d) NOT gate
22. Trace the value for binary addition, (1 + 1)
(a) 0 with a carry of 1 (b) 1 with a carry of 1
(c) 1 with no carry (d) 0 with no carry
(e) 2
23. Which of the following circuits is known as half adder?
(a) AND circuit (b) OR circuit
(c) INCLUSIVE OR circuit (d) EXCLUSIVE OR circuit
(e) NAND circuit
24. Which of the following functions is referred as the complementary?

(a) NOR function (b) NOT function
(c) NAND function (d) AND function
25. Which of the following statements represents NOR function?
(a) ABCD = E (b) A + B + B + C + D = E
(c) A + B + C + D = E (d) A.B.C. = D
26. What will be the complement of the expression A + (0.B)?
(a) (AB) + 0 (b) (A + B).1
(c) A (1 + B) (d) A (0 + B)
27. What will be the dual of the expression A + (0.B)?
(a) (AB) + 0 (b) A (1 + B)
(c) A (1 + B) (d) A (1 + B)
28. The complement of a product of literals equivalent to the sum of the separate
literal components of a sum of literals is equivalent to the product of the
separate literal components. The above statement is called the
(a) law of dualization
(b) law of complementation
(c) law of equivalence or De Morgan’s theorem
(d) law of involution
29. Which of the following statements illustrates the distribution law?
(a) (A + B) + C = A + (B + C) = A + B + C
(b) (AB)C = ⋅A(BC) = ABC (c) A + B = B + A
(d) A(B + C) = (AB) + (AC) (e) AB = BA
30. The Gray code is only the tool which is being used as weighted code.
(a) true (b) false
31. Which of the following is called minimum error code?
(a) Binary code (b) Gray code
(c) Excess 3-code (d) Octal code
32. If A, B, and C are the literals, which of the following statements is true?
(a) (A + B)(A + C) = AC + A (b) (A + B)(A + C) = A + BC
(c) (A + B)(A + C) = AB + B (d) (A + B)(A + C) = AC = B
33. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) AB = A + B (b) A + B = A.B
(c) AB = A.B (d) A + A = A
34. The minimum form of the expression, (A + B) (A + B + C) will be
(a) A + C (b) A + B
(c) AC + B (d) A + BC
35. A flip-flop is a
(a) monostable device (b) bistable device
(c) astable device (d) none of the above
36. The flip-flop has two output signals, one of which is not a complement of
other.
(a) true (b) false
37. The output impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is
(c) unity (d) 600 ohms
38. The input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is
(a) zero (b) infinity
(c) unity (d) 600 ohms
39. The gain of an ideal amplifier must be
(c) unity (d) of the order of 10−10
40. The time scaling of the differential equation is necessary when
(a) the bandwidth of the X-Y plotter of an analog computer is limited
(b) fast response is required
(c) the analog computer is made of discrete components
(d) the analog computer is made of integrated circuits
41. In computers the negative values are identified by using an additional left-
most bit which indicates
(a) a logic 1 (b) a logic 0
(c) either logic 1 or 0 (d) none of the above
42. In computers the negative values are identified by using an additional

right-most bit to indicate negative values by a logic 1 representation for the
sign bit.
(a) true (b) false
43. The MATLAB software developed by MathWorks
(a) is an abbreviation for matrix laboratory
(b) is widely used for numerical computing
(c) performs symbol computations using the MuPad symbolic engine
(d) all the above
44. Give the output of the following Python script
x=5
x+=5
print(x)
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 0
x = 10
y=5
print(x%y)
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 0
z = 3 + 2j
type(z)
(a) complex (b) 3+2j
(c) z (d) integer
z = 3 + 2j
z*z
(a) 13 (b) (3 + 2j) (3 + 2j)
(c) 5 + 12j (d) 5 – 12j

def add_input(a,b,c):
z=a+b+c
return z
add_input(1,1,1)
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) a + b + c (d) z
for n in range(1,5):
print(n)
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 0 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 5
for n in range(5):
print(n)
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 0 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 5
z = 5 + 2j
z.conjugate()
(a) 29 (b) (5 + 2j) (5 – 2j)
(c) 5 – 2j (d) 5.385164807134504
z = 5 + 2j
abs(z)
(a) 29 (b) (5 + 2j) (5 – 2j)
(c) 5 – 2j (d) 5.385164807134504
z = 5+2j
z.real
(a) (5,0) (b) 5

z = 5 + 2j
z.imag
(a) (0,2) (b) 2
55. Asynchronous circuits are usually faster than synchronous circuits because
(a) the frequency of the clock used is very high
(b) they are free running and do not depend on the frequency of the clock
(c) the orderly execution of operations in these circuits is controlled by clock
pulses
(d) the completion and initiation signals are not needed
(a) AB + AB = AB(A + B) (b) AB + AB = (A + B) (AB)
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
57. When the following device is used for control A
purposes, which of the following statements is true? AND
B
(a) If A and B are applied there will be no output
Fig. Q. 57.
(b) If neither input is applied there will be an output
(c) If one input is applied there will be no output
(d) If one input is applied there will be an output
58. The operation of a bistable element will depend upon
(a) surface friction
(b) eddy currents
(c) jet interaction
(d) conada effect
59. The truth table shown is for one of the following units
X Y S
1 0 1
0 1 1
1 1 1
(a) NAND (b) NOR

(c) OR (d) exclusive OR
60. The logic unit shown below is of the type

(a) AND (b) OR
(c) NAND (d) NOT
A
Fig. Q. 60.
61. In the unit shown below there will be a signal output when the inputs
applied are
(a) A and B only (b) B and C
(c) A and C only (d) A and B or C
B B
A
S
C
Fig. Q. 61.
62. The truth table shown below is for one of the following units
X Y S
1 1 0
1 0 1
0 1 1
0 0 1
(a) NAND (b) AND

(c) exclusive OR (d) NOT
(a) The output of the sequential switching system at any instant of time
depends only on the input at that time
(b) In a sequential switching system, the present output also depends on the
past history of the system, that is, inputs at earlier time
(c) The output of the combinational switching system at any instant of time
will not depend on the inputs at that time
(d) In a combinational switching system, the present output depends on
inputs at an earlier time
64. The Karnaugh map shown below represents the function

wx
yz 00 01 11 10
00
01 1 1
11 1 1
10
(a) wxz′ (b) w′x′z′

(c) w′z′ (d) x′z
(e) z′x
65. What will be the minimum sum of products of the function, f(w, x, y, z) = Σ1,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 12, 13
(a) w′x + y′z
(b) w′x + y′w + xy′ + w′z
(c) w′x′ + y′w′ + z′x
(d) z′y + w′x + x′y + y′z
66. For which of the following flip-flops is the output clearly defined for all
combinations of two inputs?
(a) D-type flip-flop (b) R-S flip-flop
(c) JK flip-flop (d) None of the above
67. The following truth table is for which of the units shown below?
T Q Q
0 0 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
0 1 1
(a) RS flip-flop (b) JK flip-flop
(c) T flip-flop (d) RST flip-flop
68. The JK flip-flop can do anything that the RS flip-flop can.
(a) true (b) false
69. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all locations
of the memory limit?
(a) Read Only Memory (ROM)
(b) Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)
(c) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(d) Erasable ROM
70. Microcomputer is faster device than minicomputer.
(a) true (b) false
71. Microprocessor will essentially consist of
(a) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
(b) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(c) RAM and CPU
(d) (a), (b), and (c)
72. For which of the following computers is programming a difficult task?
(a) Analog computer
(b) Digital computer
(c) Microprocessor or microcomputer
(d) Minicomputer
73. If one bit is used to control one parameter of an engineering process,
approximately how many parameters can be controlled by a digital computer
of 4 K words memory with 16-bit word length?
(a) 4096 (b) 1024
(c) 65000 (d) 6500
74. ‘‘Non-volatile memory’’ states
(a) that memory is retained in the memory unit for some time even after
power failure to the memory unit
(b) that memory is lost by power failure but regained as soon as power is
restored
(c) that memory is retained in the memory unit at higher temperature
(d) that memory is retained in the memory unit for years after power failure
to the memory unit
75. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or
data?
(a) RAM (b) ROM
(c) PROM (d) EPROM
76. The term ‘‘softwire’’ is related to
(a) electronic contactors
(b) electrical circuits
(c) programming
(d) electromechanical relays
77. The ‘‘access time’’ for semiconductor memories is of the order of
(a) a few milliseconds (b) a few microseconds
(c) a few nanoseconds (d) a few seconds
78. If an odd decimal number is to be converted into a binary number, the last
digit of the binary number will always be 1.
(a) true (b) false
79. The binary number of the Roman alphabet requires 5 bits of the
combinations 25 = 32 which this represents, of which only 26 are used; the
excess of 6 combinations corresponds to a redundancy of
(a) 0.7 bit (b) 0.5 bit
(c) 0.3 bit (d) 0.4 bit
80. Microcomputer is the same as microprocessor.
(a) true (b) false
81. Which of the following memory chips will one use for character generation
after considering size, economy, speed, and power consumption?
(a) ROM (b) RAM
(c) PROM (d) Dynamic RAM
82. If the input impedance of a NOR (RTL) logic circuit is increased, the fan-out
of the driving circuit is
(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) not changed
(d) independent of input impedance
83. A computer uses 500 characters. How many bits does this system require to
give a different code to all characters?
(a) 5 bits (b) 7 bits
(c) 8 bits (d) 9 bits
(e) 10 bits
84. The Raspbian operating system for Raspberry Pi is freely distributed and
includes the
(a) Mathematica computer algebra program
(b) Mathcad Prime program
(c) MATLAB program
(d) Maple program
85. Freely distributed Python library for symbolic mathematics
(a) SymPy
(b) Symphony
(c) ZenPy
(d) Starfish Prime
86. CPython is an implementation of Python written in C and Python
(a) true (b) false
87. MicroPython is an implementation of Python 3 written in C to run on
(a) supercomputers
(b) quantum computers
(c) desktop and laptop computers
(d) microcontrollers
88. SPYDER is a freely distributed scientific Python development environment
(a) true (b) false
(a) A digital computer is a solid-state device whereas a desk calculator is not
(b) A digital computer is used for business-oriented tasks whereas a desk
calculator is not
(c) A computer is controlled by the programs stored in its memory whereas a
calculator requires step by step manual control
90. While writing a computer program, which of the following procedures does
one adopt?
(a) Translation of problems into mathematical language
(b) Describing the problems as they are and leaving the to the computer
to solve
(c) Writing the sequences of all operations the computer must carry out
(d) Writing the problem in program language using all the basic logical
operations available for the computer
(a) A program is restricted to a given set of data; if there is any change in
data the programmer must change his program accordingly
(b) Usually the programs are versatile, and any computer can handle the
data.
(c) The program is useful in solving a specific problem and can always be
useful for different sets of data for the problem the program is meant to
address
(d) The application of a program depends on its programming language
92. Which of the following memories has greater density of storage cell in the
same chip area?
(a) Stable MOS RAM (b) Dynamic MOS RAM
(c) Core memory (d) RAM
93. Static MOS shift resistors consume more power than Dynamic MOS shift
registers.
(a) true (b) false
94. How do you find out if the program prepared for a specific task does
precisely what it is supposed to do?
(a) The compiler will scan all the programming errors to keep you informed
(b) By verifying the results with manual calculations
(c) The computer will report any programming error
(d) Designed tests with trial input data are used
95. Bipolar RAM usually makes use of
(a) TTL high speed circuits (b) DTL circuits
(c) RTL high speed circuits (d) any of them
96. Which of the statements is true?

(a) When two or more numbers are multiplied in a computer, the product is
accurate only to the first ten (5 to 15) decimal places
(b) When two numbers are multiplied in a computer, a very accurate
operation takes place without any error
(c) When many numbers are multiplied, no error will arise, unless one of the
numbers is zero
(d) When only two numbers are multiplied, error will be negligible
97. A lift is operated by a centralized controller which receives signals from
the push buttons and sends signals to motors and indicators. What kind of
controller is this?
(a) The controller is a general-purpose computer programmed for lift
control
(b) Lift control does not involve any mathematical computation and hence
the use of computer or software is not desirable
(c) If the control functions are implemented in the software, there will have
to be a computer in the controller
(d) A computer cannot control the lift
98. A liquid crystal display is as clearly visible in the dark as in the light.
(a) true (b) false
99. MOS ROMs offer an extremely versatile approach to character generation
which can be used advantageously in terminal systems.
(a) true (b) false
100. ROMs cannot be used for character generation in non-CRT application such
as billboard displays.
(a) true (b) false
101. Binary information can be stored in
(a) a flip-flop (b) a register
(c) a latch (d) (a), (b) and (c)
102. Which of the following equations can be solved numerically by the Runge-
Kutta method?
(a) Differential equations (b) Partial differential equations
(c) Integral equations (d) None of the above
103. Which numerical method has greater accuracy?

(a) Runge-Kutta method (b) Euler method
104. Numerical method for calculating electric or magnetic potentials at
rectangularly spaced grid points over a region of space
(a) Finite Element Method (b) Finite Difference Method
(c) Monte Carlo Method (d) Method of Moments
105. Numerical method for calculating electric or magnetic potentials over a
region of space meshed into triangular or tetrahedral elements.
106. Numerical method for calculating electric or magnetic potentials at specific
locations using random walkers that begin at specific points and terminate on
boundaries of given potential.
107. Which of the following is a fundamental building block in an electronic
analog computer?
(a) High-pass filter (b) Low-pass filter
(c) Operational amplifier (d) Integrator
108. The circuit shown functions as
R i ZL
–
+ Vo
+
Vs
–
Fig. Q. 108.
(a) current to voltage converter
(b) voltage to current converter
(c) voltage to current converter with floating load
(d) hall adder
109. The circuit shown behaves like a

(a) voltage to current converter –
VO
+
(b) current to voltage converter
(c) D.C. voltage amplifier VS
(d) D.C. voltage follower
110. In Question 108, the current i is
(a) dependent on load ZL Fig. Q. 109.
(b) independent of load ZL
(c) independent of resistance R
(d) independent of voltage source VS
111. In Question 109, what is the relation between input voltage VS and output
voltage Vo?
(a) VS > Vo (b) VS < Vo
(c) VS ≤ Vo (d) VS = Vo
112. How many bits are required to represent decimal number 20?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 2
113. How many alphanumeric characters can be stored by a 5 × 7 dot matrix if the
number of bits required is 2240?
(a) 32 (b) 16
(c) 64 (d) 128
114. If the quantization error is 0.1%, which of the following A/D converters does
it belong to?
(a) 10-bit A/D converter (b) 5-bit A/D converter
(c) 1-bit A/D converter (d) 20-bit A/D converter
115. Which of the following gates is a two-level logic gate?
(a) OR gate (b) NAND gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE OR gate (d) NOT gate
116. An AND gate will function as OR if
(a) all the inputs to the gates are ‘‘1’’
(b) all the inputs are ‘‘0’’
(c) either of the inputs is ‘‘1’’
(d) all the inputs and outputs are complemented
117. In the circuit shown below, the resultant topology is referred to as

A
B
A
B
Fig. Q. 117.
(a) single-level logic (b) two-level logic
(c) three-level logic (d) none of the above
118. Which of the following IC logic families has maximum fan out capacity?
(a) TTL (b) DTL
(c) MOS (d) CMOS
119. How many input leads will be required for a chip containing four two-input
NOT gates?
(a) 7 (b) 14
(c) 12 (d) 13
120. If A and B are two 1-bit numbers, what logic gates will be required to test for
A = B?
(a) NOR gate (b) EXCLUSIVE OR gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE NOR gate (d) OR gate
121. In the above question, if A > B which gate logic will be used?
(a) NOR gate (b) EXCLUSIVE OR gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE NOR gate (d) INCLUSIVE OR gate
122. The half adder has
(a) one input (b) two inputs
(c) three inputs (d) always more than two inputs
123. Two multidigit numbers can be added serially (one column at a time) or in
parallel (all columns simultaneously) by using half adders.
(a) true (b) false
124. The truth table is shown below for the half adder. The output D can be
realized with a
(a) AND gate Input Output
(b) OR gate A B Sum D C
(c) EXCLUSIVE OR gate 0 0 0 0 0 0
(d) NAND gate 0 1 0 1 1 0
(e) (c) or (d) 1 0 0 1 1 0
1 1 1 0 0 1
125. A BCD to decimal decoder having 4 inputs and 10 outputs will have a
minimum of
(a) 14 pins (b) 15 pins
(c) 10 pins (d) 4 pins
(e) 16 pins
126. Which of the following ICs has only one input line?
(a) Multiplexer (b) Demultiplexer
(c) AND gate (d) BCD to decimal decoder
127. Which of the following units will one choose to transform decimal number to
binary code?
(a) Encoder (b) Decoder
(c) Multiplexer (d) Demultiplexer
128. If a 4-bit encoder is to be implemented with transistors, how many emitters
will be required?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Three (d) Four
129. If a computer must do routine calculations like trigonometric function,
square rooting, logarithms, etc., and these are repeated often, which of the
following items will perform the calculations most economically?
(a) ROM as look-up tables (b) Software programs
(c) Subroutine programs (d) Any of the above
130. If in combinational logic, the outputs at a given instant of time depend only
upon the values of the inputs at the same moment, such system will have
(a) memory (b) no memory
(c) software (d) none of the above
131. ROM does not store bits of information but only memorizes the functional
relationship between the output variables and input variables.
(a) true (b) false
132. The circuit shown below has
(a) 1-bit memory
(b) 2-bit memory
(c) 3-bit memory
(d) 4-bit memory
A Q
B Q
Fig. Q. 132.
133. What will happen to a flip-flop if the clock pulse is zero or invariant within a
bit time?
(a) The flip-flop will change its state
(b) The flip-flop will not change its state
(c) Both the outputs will be reset
(d) Both the outputs will be one
134. A S-R flip-flop can be used as a J-K flip-flop and Q and Q are fed back to the
inputs
(a) true (b) false
135. The preset and clear data applied to a J-K flip-flop are called
(a) synchronous inputs (b) asynchronous inputs
(c) direct inputs (d) indirect inputs
(e) either (b) or (c)
136. Which of the following flip-flops does not have race-round difficulty?
(a) J-K flip-flops
(b) Master Slave J-K flip-flop
(c) S-R flip-flop converted to J-K flip-flop
137. An S-R type flip-flop can be converted into a D-type flip-flop if S is

connected to R through an inverter.
(a) true (b) false
138. Toggle flip-flops are not commercially available because
(a) they are not economic
(b) a J-K flip-flop can be used as a toggle flip-flop by connecting J and K
together
(c) a J-K flip-flop can be used as a toggle flip-flop by connecting J and K
through an inverter
(d) they are not required in digital circuits
139. A ring counter is analogous to a
(a) toggle switch (b) latch
(c) stepping switch (d) S-R flip-flop
140. The right-shift-shift-register can be used to perform multiplication by
multiples a of
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 4
141. The left-shift-shift-register can be used to perform division by multiples of
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 4
142. What will be the minimum number of NAND gates equivalent to two input
OR gates?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
143. What will be the output F in the circuit shown below?
(a) S = A + B
A OR
(b) S = AB + A B B
S
(c) S = AB + AB
(d) S = (A + B) ⋅ (A + B) &
(e) S + (c) or (d) Fig. Q. 143.

144. How many cells will be required in a Karnaugh map if 4 variables are
involved in preparing the map for function minimization?
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 16
(e) 32
145. Which of the following memories requires refreshing data with clock pulses
to store data permanently?
(a) ROM (b) RAM
(c) Dynamic MOS memories (d) Static memories
146. Which of the following memories makes use of parasitic capacitance to store
data temporarily?
(a) Static ROM (b) Static RAM
(c) Dynamic ROM (d) Dynamic MOS memories
147. In which of the following devices is minimum power dissipated if the devices
are used for the same object and same operational condition?
(a) Bipolar shift registers (b) Dynamic MOS shift registers
(c) Static MOS shift registers (d) (b) and (c) both
148. Static MOS shift registers can store data for an indefinite time even if power
is lost to the circuit.
(a) true (b) false
149. For which of the following circuits it is necessary to use the minimum clock
rate to refresh the stored data?
(a) Static MOS circuits (b) Dynamic MOS circuits
(c) Bipolar circuits (d) Static RAMs
150. If the MOSFET has a thicker oxide gate than the normal thin oxide gate, the
threshold voltage will be
(a) more or thicker oxide gate than a normal one
(b) less for the thicker oxide gate than the normal one
(c) remain unchanged for thick and thin oxide gates
(d) zero
151. The power dissipation in dynamic ROM is relatively higher than static ROM
for the same capacity.
(a) true (b) false
152. Two-phase MOS circuits have the significant advantage over single-phase
MOS circuits that
(a) they dissipate almost no power
(b) their output does not depend on the resistance of any of the devices
(c) their output depends on the resistance of any of the devices
153. Which of the following memory devices will have larger memory cells?
(a) Dynamic shift-registers
(b) Static shift-registers
(c) Two-phase dynamic inverters
154. The minimum power dissipation in ROM will occur when all the outputs are
(a) at their most positive voltage (i.e., logic 1)
(b) at their most negative voltage (i.e., logic 0)
(d) de-energized
155. Which of the following counters is known as a ripple-through counter?
(a) Asynchronous counter (b) Serial counter
(c) (a) or (b) (d) Synchronous counter
156. Which of the following conditions in a J-K flip-flop will lead to an
intermediate state that’s output may be zero or one
where, Cr = Clear input, Pr = Preset input, and Ck = Clock input
(a) Cr = Pr = Ck = 1 (b) Cr = Pr = 0 and Ck = 1
(c) Cr = Pr = Ck = 0 (d) Cr = Pr = 0 and Ck = 1
157. An S-R flip-flop can be converted to a T type flip-flop if S is connected to Q
and R to Q of the flip-flop.
(a) true (b) false
158. SiO is a conductor.
(a) true (b) false
159. In semiconductor integrated circuits, a diode is like a capacitor.
(a) true (b) false
160. Hybrid integrated circuits are generally cheaper than other types of
integrated circuits.
(a) true (b) false
161. Most of the program controllers for digital computers work
(a) without clock or asynchronously
(b) with clock or synchronously
(c) with either (a) or (b)
(d) with random pulse generator
162. A digital computer can be freely programmed if
(a) the program consists of branch instructions
(b) the computer has random access memory (RAM)
(c) the computer has read only memory (ROM)
(d) the computer has erasable programable read only memory (EPROM)
(a) Running programs are stored in the central processor in the computer
(b) The instructions being processed are stored in the central processor of
the computer
(c) The control processor functions under clock control in the computer
(d) The control processor is a part of the main memory of the computer
(e) (b) and (c) both
164. In digital computers, the priority control monitors the sequence in which the
central processor has
(a) programs (b) arithmetic functions
(c) microprograms (d) any logical functions
165. The input information located in the storage memory in the computer is
called
(a) reading the contents of the information
(b) writing the contents of the information
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) address

(a) The information stored in random access memory can be changed by
overwriting with new information
(b) The information stored in read only memory can be changed by
overwriting with new information
(c) Information can be written in any location of random access memory
(d) (a) and (c) both
167. Addressing the main memory means
(a) informing the memory in which location something is to be written
(b) informing the memory which location is to be read
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) execution of program
168. Which of the following statements is true if referring to the semiconductor
RAM of a computer?
(a) Access time is more than cycle time
(b) Cycle time is more than access time
(c) Access time is the sum of cycle time and recovery time
(d) Cycle time is the sum of access time and recovery time
(e) (b) and (d)
169. Data transfer on the data bus in the computer is controlled by the
(a) central or input/output processor
(b) direct memory access (DMA)
(c) main memory
(d) (a) or (b)
170. If the storage capacity of the main memory is large, the central process unit
will be proportionately slow.
(a) true (b) false
171. The main memory requirements and running time of programs written in
a high-level language are higher than for the programs written in assembly
language.
(a) true (b) false
172. For which of the following cases will one require an intensive knowledge of
computer? While programming
(a) problem-oriented language
(b) machine-oriented language
(c) sources-oriented language
(d) object-oriented language
173. The multiplying of two numbers in the computer is carried out by
(a) multiplying these numbers directly
(b) repeated addition of either number
(c) repeated subtraction of numbers
(d) either (b) or (c)
174. Which of the following IC units has only one output?
(a) Demultiplexer
(b) Multiplexer
(c) Decoder
(d) None of them
175. How many bits output code will be required to transform 0.9 decimal
numbers in binary code?
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 10
(e) 9
176. ROM can be used as
(a) sequence generator (b) decoder
(c) lock-up tables (d) (a), (b) and (c)
177. ROM is basically a code conversion unit.
(a) true (b) false
178. Which of the following circuits is called a latch?
(a) AND circuit (b) NAND circuit
(c) Flip-flop (d) ROM circuit
179. Which of the following statements is true for the circuit shown below?
(a) S = R = 1 is not allowed
(b) S = 1, R = 0 then Q = 1, Q = 0
(c) S = 0, R = 1 then R = 0, Q = 0
(d) S = R = 0 leads to an undetermined state so Q could be either 1 or 0
(e) All the above statements are true
S Q
R Q
Fig. Q. 179.
180. If the input J is connected through the K input of a J-K flip, the flip-flop will
behave as a
(a) D (delay) type flip-flop (b) T-type flip-flop
(c) toggle switch (d) (b) or (c)
181. The parasitic capacitance in an integrated circuit is of the order of
(a) micro-farads (b) farads
(c) pico-farads (d) nano-farads
182. The diodes utilized in integrated circuits are made by using
(a) p-n junction diodes
(b) n-p junction diodes
(c) transistors in one of the five different connections
(d) resistors only
183. Large-scale integrated (LSI) circuits usually contain
(a) more than 10 gates
(b) more than 100 gates
(c) 10 to 100 gates
(d) above 1000 gates
184. Medium-scale integrated (MSI) circuits usually contain
(a) more than 10 gates (b) 10 to 100 gates
(c) 100 to 1000 gates (d) about 10 gates
185. The resistor in monolithic integrated circuits is obtained by

(a) diffusing carbon in the circuits
(b) diffusing any semiconductor in the circuit
(c) utilizing the bulk resistivity of one of the diffused areas
(d) thin-film techniques
(e) utilizing P-type base diffusion only
(f) (c) or (d) depending on application
186. Which of the following methods is most commonly used to obtain the resistor
in monolithic integrated circuits?
(a) p-type base diffusion
(b) n-type emitter diffusion
(c) n-type collector diffusion
(d) (a) or (b)
187. The capacitors in integrated circuits may be obtained by utilizing
(a) diffusing any semiconductor in the circuit
(b) the transition capacitance of a reverse p-n junction
(c) thin film techniques
(d) (b) or (c)
188. The MOS integrated transistor typically occupies only
(a) 10% of the surface required by an epitaxial double-diffused transistor in
a conventional integrated circuit
(b) 5% of the surface required by an epitaxial double-diffused transistor in
(c) 25% of the surface required by an epitaxial double-diffused transistor
(d) 2% of the surface required by an epitaxial double-diffused transistor in
189. What will be the output Q for the following circuit?
(a) A + B = C A
B Q
(b) AC + BC
(c) A ⋅ B ⋅ C C
(d) (a) or (b) Fig. Q. 189.

190. If A is the literal, which of the following statements is true?

(a) A + 0 = A. 0 (b) A + A = A. A
(c) A + A = A. A (d) A + 1 = A. 1
191. TTL chips normally have fan out capacity of
(a) 30 outputs (b) 10 outputs
(c) 14 outputs (d) 40 outputs
192. The race condition is related to
(a) sequential circuits (b) digital circuits
(c) asynchronous circuits (d) synchronous circuits
193. If a clock with time period “T” is used with “n” stage shift register, the output
of the final stage will be delayed by
(a) nT seconds (b) (n - 1) T seconds
(c) n/T seconds (d) 2n - 1 seconds
194. Buses that link the CPU to internal components in a computer
(a) hardware (b) software
(c) compiler (d) core memory
195. The successive approximation method is used for
(a) analog to digital conversion
(b) digital to analog conversion
(c) digital to digital conversion
(d) none of them
196. The sheet resistance of an emitter diffusion in an integrated resistor has a
typical value of
(a) 200 ohms (b) 200 ohms/square
(c) 2 ohms/square (d) 2.2 ohms
197. The typical value of sheet resistance of base diffusion in an integrated
circuit is
(a) 200 ohms (b) 200 ohms/square
(c) 2.2 ohm/square (d) 2.2 ohms
9
PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION
1. If pressure of 12 kg/cm2 is to be measured by an electrical indicator, then the
calibration range of scale shall be
(a) 0–12 kg/cm2 (b) 0–18 kg/cm2
(c) 0–30 kg/cm2 (d) 0–25 kg/cm2
2. An electrical transducer gives an output when input applied to the transducer
is zero. The output of the transducer in such a condition is known as
(a) zero balance (b) offset
(c) zero unbalance (d) (a) or (b)
3. The lowest level of measured variable which produces effective response of
the instrument is called
(a) resolution sensitivity (b) threshold sensitivity
(c) hysteresis (d) scale sensitivity
4. Thermocouples can be used to measure the temperature up to
(a) 1600°C (b) 1200°C
(c) 500°C (d) 150°C
5. A platinum resistance thermometer can be used to measure the temperature
up to
(a) 0–500°C (b) 0–100°C
(c) 0–800°C (d) 0–150°C
6. A potentiometer cannot be used to detect the linear motion of a moving

component.
(a) true (b) false
7. Which of the following does not require auxiliary circuitry if used as
transducer?
(a) Capacitance (b) Photocell
(c) Resistance (d) Inductance
8. If the output of an electrical pressure transducer is 4–20 mA corresponding
to 0–50 kg/cm2, then the span of the transducer in terms of current will be
(a) 20 mA (b) 24 mA
(c) 16 mA (d) 50 mA
9. Four-wire transmitters differ from two-wire transmitters in a manner that
(a) the power supply to four wire transmitters is same as the output of two
wire transmitters
(b) the four-wire transmitters do not require auxiliary power supply
(c) the two-wire transmitter uses common wires for power supply as well as
output signal
(d) the two-wire transmitters are a self-generating type and do not require
power supply
10. How is the response of thermocouple output affected if thermosheath is used
for its protection?
(a) The response time of thermocouple decreases
(b) The response time of thermocouple increases
(c) The millivolt output of thermocouple decreases
(d) The millivolt output of thermocouple increases
11. Which of the following alloys are for suited for bimetallic thermometers?
(a) Steel and invar (b) Steel and tin
(c) Invar and tin (d) Inconel and tin
12. Which of the following materials of RTD has 100 ohms resistance at 0°C for
temperature measuring range of –200 to 500°C?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Platinum (d) Steel
PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION • 337
13. If the range of a voltmeter is –100 V to +100 V, then the span of the
voltmeter will be
(a) 100 V (b) zero
(c) 200 V (d) 50 V
14. The accuracy of measuring instruments corresponds to
(a) full scale deflection (b) span
(c) half scale deflection (d) any of the above
15. An ammeter is required to read 200 A current whose range is 0–300 A. The
actual reading of the ammeter falls between 197 and 203 A. What is the
accuracy of the ammeter?
(a) 5% FSD (b) 2% FSD
(c) 1% FSD (d) 3% FSD
16. The accuracy class 1 of industrial instruments indicate an accuracy of
(a) 0.5% FSD (b) 1% FSD
(c) 5% FSD (d) 2.5% FSD
17. The smallest input signal to an instrument which produces detectable output
of the instrument is termed as
(a) sensitivity (b) threshold sensitivity
(c) resolution (d) (a) or (b)
18. Which of the following best defines hysteresis?
(a) The dead-band
(b) Output variation of the instrument with different inputs
(c) The inaccuracy of scale reading of the instrument
(d) The variation of the instrument reading with same input being applied in
ascending and descending mode
19. Find out the odd man out:
(a) Thermocouple (b) RTD
(c) Pyrometer (d) Load cell
20. The load cell cannot be used to measure the
(a) pressure (b) weight
(c) level (d) volume
21. If the zero-adjustment knob is turned to the right, the needle of the
instrument will move
(a) to the right on the scale (b) to the left on the scale
(c) to the extreme of the scale (d) to the middle of the scale
22. Which of the following voltmeters will have negligible effect on the circuit
whose voltage is being tested?
(a) Voltmeter with low resistance
(b) Voltmeter with very high internal resistance
(c) Voltmeter with zero internal resistance
23. The moving iron ammeter is connected in
A
a circuit shown below. What happens if the
terminal connections of the ammeter are
RL
interchanged?
(a) It will not indicate the reading
(b) It will indicate the same reading Fig. Q. 23.
(c) The pointer will be deflected in the opposite direction
(d) It will indicate the full-scale reading
24. Ultrasonic level sensors are used for measuring the level of material in a
hopper only when material is
(a) solid (b) liquid
(c) (a) or (b) (d) none of them
25. An ultrasonic level switch consists of
(a) transmitter and electrode (b) receiver and electrode
(c) transmitter and receiver (d) electrode and receiver
26. The continuous ultrasonic level controller functions on the principle of
(a) obstruction of ultrasonic sound by material
(b) transmission of ultrasonic sound and reflection of the same by material to
the sensor
(c) capacitance change in the hopper
(d) sound intensity
27. Which of the following level sensors is most economical?

(a) Capacitance type (b) Electromechanical type
(c) Ultrasonic type (d) Gamma rays type
28. Which of the flow elements will one choose if the net pressure loss in the
flow line because of flow element is of importance?
(a) Orifice plate (b) Venturimeter
(c) Flow nozzle (d) Intake cone
29. If the capacitive method of level measurement of the solid material in a tank
is used, which of the following parameters is variable?
(a) Distance between probe and wall of tank
(b) Area of the probe
(c) Dielectric formed by material between probe and wall of the tank
(d) Dielectric of air
30. Tuning Fork type vibration limit switches are used to measure
(a) pressure (b) load
(c) vibration (d) level
31. Find out the odd man out:
(a) Orifice plate (b) Intake cone
(c) Piston type flow meter (d) Venturimeter
32. An electronic pressure transmitter is calibrated for 20–100 mm Wg against
0–100 mm Wg. The transmitter has
(a) elevated zero range (b) suppressed zero range
(c) suppressed span range (d) elevated span range
33. In the above question, the suppression RATIO of the range is
(a) 20% (b) 80%
(c) 25% (d) 10%
34. If the electronic pressure transmitter is calibrated for range –25 to +100 mm
Wg, the transmitter has
(a) elevated zero range (b) suppressed zero range
(c) suppressed span range (d) elevated span range
35. If the electronic transmitter is calibrated for range –100 to –20 mm Wg, what
are the upper and lower range values
(a) –100 and 0 (b) –100 and 20
(c) –20 and –100 (d) –20 and 100
36. A thermistor is used to sense the temperature. What happens if the
temperature increases gradually?
(a) The resistance of the thermistor increases
(b) The resistance of the thermistor decreases
(c) The thermistor expands gradually
(d) The thermistor does not sense any decrease in temperature
37. Thermistors are ideally suited to measure
(a) the temperature over short spans
(b) the temperature over long spans
(c) the temperature of bearings of motors
(d) the temperature of motor winding
38. Why we do not require the compensation for extension wire resistance which
is used with thermistor?
(a) The values of thermistor resistance vary up to the milliohm range
(b) The values of thermistor resistance vary up to the megaohm range
(c) The resistance of extension wire is very large in comparison to the
resistance of a thermistor
(d) Thermistors are normally self-compensated
39. The sensing element of a Resistance Temperature Detector may consist of
(a) coil (b) foil
(c) thin film deposited material (d) either (a) or (b) or (c)
40. The third wire in 3-wire RTD is used for
(a) dropping the voltage across RTD
(b) increasing the life of RTD
(c) providing better connection to the process
(d) compensation of lead wire resistance
41. Four leads in the RTD are used with
(a) single element RTD (b) dual element RTD
(c) three element RTD (d) four element RTD
42. What will be the resistance of 100-ohm Nickel RTD at 0°C?

(c) 92.5 ohms (d) 72.5 ohms
43. Which of the following materials for thermocouple sheaths withstand the
highest temperature?
(a) Alumina (b) Tantalum
(c) Zirconia (d) Molybdenum
44. Which thermocouple is for suitable the highest range of temperature?
(a) Platinum/platinum 10% rhodium
(b) Platinum/platinum 13% rhodium
(c) Platinum 6% rhodium/platinum 30% rhodium
(d) Tungsten 3% rhenium/tungsten 25% rhenium
45. If an equipment is incapable of releasing sufficient electrical energy under
normal or abnormal conditions to cause ignition of a specific hazardous
atmospheric mixture, then the equipment
(a) is called extrinsically safe (b) is called intrinsically safe
(c) will have explosion proof housing (d) will have flame proof housing
46. A rotameter is used to measure
(a) rotary motion (b) linear motion
(c) flow (d) level
47. Flow of liquid or gas in a pipeline is
(a) proportional to pressure in the pipeline
(b) proportional to differential pressure across the restriction introduced in
the pipeline
(c) inversely proportional to the square root of differential pressure across
restriction in the pipeline
(d) proportional to the square root of differential pressure across the
48. The differential pressure transmitter with a square root extractor used for
flow measurement will have
(a) non-linear scale (b) linear scale
(c) flow rate scale (d) mass flow
49. Which of the flow elements will be used to measure flow of fluid which is not
enclosed in a pipe or duct?
(a) Venturimeter (b) Flow nozzle
(c) Intake cone (d) Pitot tube
50. How many minimum wattmeters will be required to measure power in a
4-wire unbalanced circuit?
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 4
51. The down scale reading of a wattmeter can be changed to upscale by
(a) interchanging voltage coil terminals
(b) interchanging current coil terminals
(c) interchanging voltage and current coil terminals
(d) (a) or (b)
52. The energy meter used for domestic power consumption indicates
(a) VI cos f (b) VI sin f
(c) VI (d) apparent power
53. Which of the following parameters cannot be measured by a ring-balance
meter?
(a) Differential pressure (b) Pressure
(c) Mass-flow rate (d) Flow
54. Which of the following properties are important while selecting alloys for
bimetallic thermometers?
(a) Coefficient of expansion (b) Electrical conductivity
(c) Modulus of elasticity (d) All of the above
55. The coefficient of expansion of 0.189 × 10−4 is for
(a) tin (b) invar
(c) copper (d) platinum
56. The variation in ambient temperature will affect the accuracy of
(a) RTD (b) thermocouples
(c) thermistors (d) thermometers
57. Thermocouples have better response time than resistance temperature

detectors.
(a) true (b) false
58. A thermistor can be used to control the
(a) level of water in tank (b) altitude
(c) temperature (d) all the above
59. Which of the following sources of error may exist when the temperature of a
body is measured with the contact method?
(a) The testing body has high mass
(b) The testing body is affected chemically by a hot body
(c) There is a condensation of water on the testing body
60. Theoretically exact temperature by a non-contact method can be measured
only if the body whose temperature is to be measured is perfectly black and
intervening space is perfectly transparent.
(a) true (b) false
61. The presence of CO2 in the intervening space of radiation pyrometers will
(a) affect the reading of the pyrometer
(b) not affect the reading of the pyrometer
(c) make the pyrometer read more than the desired value of temperature
(d) increase the sensitivity of the pyrometer
62. Pneumatic pressure transmitters are applicable to a standardized signal of
(a) 3 to 150 PSI (b) 3 to 15 PSI
(c) 15 to 150 PSI (d) 3 to 5 PSI
63. The pressure measured above total vacuum is called
(a) absolute pressure (b) atmospheric pressure
(c) barometric pressure (d) gauge pressure
64. The force per unit area exerted on a surface by a fluid flowing parallel to a
pipe wall is called
(a) line pressure (b) static pressure
(c) working pressure (d) any of the above
65. When a pressure transmitter is used to sense the pressure of fluid flowing in
a pipe, it transmits
(a) the absolute pressure (b) the gauge pressure
(c) the atmospheric pressure (d) any of the above
66. Pressure of 1 kg/cm2 is equivalent to
(a) 1 bar (b) 0.1 bar
(c) 10 bars (d) 100 bars
67. Pressure of 1 kg/cm2 is equivalent to
(a) 100 mm Wg (b) 1000 mm Wg
(c) 10000 mm Wg (d) 10 mm Wg
68. Nucleonic level gauge operates on the principle of
(a) gamma ray absorption (b) ultrasonic waves
(c) microwave waves (d) radiation method
69. An electronic ear is a device which is used to measure
(a) vibrations (b) sound level
(c) temperature (d) pressure
70. Three diagrams for orifice plates are shown below. Which of them is an
eccentric orifice plate?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) A and B
Fig. Q. 70.
71. In the above question, which of them is a concentric orifice plate?
(a) A (b) B
(c) B and C (d) C
72. In Question 70, which figure belongs to a segmental orifice plate?

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) A and B
73. Potentiometric instruments are normally
(a) high frequency devices
(b) low frequency devices
(c) low frequency devices with frequency limit to 10 Hz
(d) high frequency devices with frequency limit to 100 kHz
74. A light beam galvanometric recorder uses the
(a) ink pen to trace the parameter
(b) stylus tracing on carbon coated film
(c) heated stylus tracing on heat-sensitive paper
(d) photosensitive paper or film for tracing
75. What is the source of tracing the parameter on paper in a light beam
galvanometric recorder?
(a) Pen
(b) Stylus
(c) Fiber tip stylus
(d) Reflected light from mirror incorporated in the recorder
76. A potentiometric recorder, if compared to the galvanometric recorder, has
(b) high response time
(c) independence of lead lengths
(d) (a) and (b)
77. A capacitance type pressure transmitter is used to measure pressure. Which
of the parameters of the capacitor varies to indicate the pressure?
(a) Plate area (b) Dielectric between plates
(c) Distance between plates (d) None of them
78. Galvanometric recorders have better speed response than potentiometric
recorders.
(a) true (b) false
79. LVDT is a
(a) capacitive transducer
(b) resistive transducer
(c) inductive transducer
(d) none of them
80. Which of the following controllers will one choose to control a motorized
valve, keeping in view economy and operation?
(a) PI controller with continuous output
(b) PI controller with pulse output
(c) PID controller with continuous output
(d) PID controller with step output
81. The Teflon used for lead wire insulation can withstand temperatures up to
(a) 80°C (b) 250°C
(c) 120°C (d) 380°C
82. The resistance elements used for temperature measurement have response
time of the order of
(a) 2 to 10 m secs (b) 2 to 10 secs
(c) 10 m secs to 20 m secs (d) 2 to 20 secs
83. Pilot switches are operated
(a) manually
(b) in response to specified conditions of an actuating quantity
(c) automatically
84. Which of the following are classified as pilot switches?
(a) Pressure switch (b) Position switch
(c) Level switch (d) All of them
85. A contact element in which the velocity of contact motion is substantially
independent of the velocity of the actuating system is termed a
(a) snap action contact (b) instantaneous action contact
(c) pulse contact (d) change-over contact
86. The configuration of a switch is shown below. What kind of contact

element is this?
(a) Change-over contact with two contact element
(b) Double-break contact element
(c) Single-break contact element
(d) Change-over contact with three terminals
Fig. Q. 86.
87. Which of the following devices will one choose to measure the flow of fluid in
an open channel?
(a) Piston flow meter (b) Ring balance flow meter
(c) Pitot tube (d) Rotameter
88. Passive integrators have the major problem of
(a) high Q factor
(b) low input impedance
(c) low output impedance
(d) low output and input impedance
89. Passive differentiators have the major problem of
(a) low Q factor (b) high input resistance
(c) low output resistance (d) high Q factor
90. The conventional low component count active integrator has the limitation of
(a) capacitor leakage
(b) D.C. stability
(c) large time constant realization
(d) all of the above
91. Active integrators can be used in
(a) compensating networks (b) electronic controllers
(c) phase compensation (d) all the above applications
92. Active differentiators can be used in

(a) compensating networks (b) electronic controllers
(c) phase compensation (d) all the above applications
93. The static pressure of fluid which is obstructed by an orifice plate is
measured
(a) in the plane of upstream tape
(b) in the plane of downstream tape
(c) in either of the above streams
(d) 10 meters away from orifice plate
94. The temperature of the fluid in the above question should preferably be
measured
(a) in downstream of orifice plate
(b) in upstream of orifice plate
(c) in either stream of orifice plate
95. Which of the following flowmeters are classified as area meters?
(a) Rotameters
(b) Piston type meters
(c) Orifice and plug type
(d) All above
96. The pressure taps for measuring flow of gases should preferably be
(a) raised above 0.5 meters vertically up from the flow element and the
continuous slope of not less than 1 : 10 to the transducer should be given
(b) lowered 0.5 meters vertically down from the flow element and then
continuous slope of 1 : 10 to the transducer should be given
(c) raised by 1 meter vertically up from flow element
97. The distance of the transducer from the pressure taps should be
approximately
(a) 10–15 meters (b) 20–30 meters
(c) 20 meters (d) 5 meters
98. Why it is necessary to fabricate condensate pots in one block if they are used
while measuring stream flow?
(a) To avoid errors which can be caused due to difference in level in
installing two separate condensation pots
(b) To create homogeneous condensation of steam
(c) To avoid presence of steam in condensed water
(d) To reduce the cost
99. Which of the following materials will be preferred for condensation pots if
used at a pressure of 16 kg/cm2?
(a) Cast iron (b) Carbon steel
(c) Stainless steel (d) Molybdenum
100. Stainless steel condensation pots are required for a pressure range of
(a) 0 to 16 kg/cm2 (b) 16 to 64 kg/cm2
(c) 64 to 100 kg/cm2 (d) 64 to 200 kg/cm2
101. Which of the following devices will be used to protect pressure gauges or
transmitters if the same are used for carrying liquids?
(a) Condensation pot (b) Seal pot
(c) 3-way manifold value (d) Isolation valve
102. What is the binary material if referred to the analysis of a compound?
(a) If a compound is composed of many components and if only one of
them is affected by method of analysis, then the compound is considered
binary
(b) If the material exhibits two properties in analysis
(c) If two materials are used to get the material affected being analysed
(d) If the material is analysed by computer
10
INFORMATION AND
BLOCKCHAIN TECHNOLOGY
1. A technology common to Windows and Macintosh computers where actions
are performed using a mouse is to point and click on icons and drop-down
menus.
(a) Graphical User Interface (GUI) (b) ActiveX
(c) applets (d) WinCAD
2. A Microsoft development that enables the creation of interactive content
on the World Wide Web. This technology enables viewing Microsoft Office
documents within a Web browser.
(a) applets (b) ActiveX
(c) TurboCAD (d) Tumbler
3. An unprotected method of downloading files or programs from the Internet
where a username and password is not required.
(a) VLC Downloader (b) Raspbian
(c) ActiveX (d) anonymous FTP
4. Downloadable Web-based programs such as QuickTime and Flash movies
and Windows Media player. Many such program do not depend on the
operating system.
(a) PhETs (b) applets
(c) Raspbian (d) ActiveX
5. A data or text file where each byte corresponds to one character. Such files
may be opened using text editor programs such as Notepad.
(a) ASCII file (b) binary file
(c) jpeg (d) tiff
6. A file where each byte does not correspond to a given character. Such files
cannot be opened using text editor programs such as Notepad.
(a) binary file (b) ASCII file
(c) jpeg (d) tiff
7. A short-ranged wireless technology enabling the exchange of data between
devices at 2.45 GHz
(a) Symphony (b) Bluetooth
(c) ZenBee (d) answers (a) and (c)
8. A device that provides communication between two Local Area Networks
(LANs) using the same protocol.
(a) IEEE-488 GPIB (b) rs232
(c) bridge (d) C-Net
9. A network management protocol where servers assign temporary IP
addresses to computers on the network.
(a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
(b) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
(c) Static Protocol
(d) Spanning Tree Protocol
10. Process that occurs during the deletion and writing of files resulting in parts
of files being scattering over different parts of a disk
(a) custom controls (b) fragmentation
(c) kernel reset (d) answers (a) and (c)
11. Programing language used for the creation of web pages and applications.
(a) HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
(b) Page Plus
(c) Quick Basic
(d) Modula
INFORMATION AND BLOCKCHAIN TECHNOLOGY • 353
12. Network that connects a group of computers over a small area to share
computing resources, files, software and printers
(a) Link Array (b) Local area network (LAN)
(c) Share Net (d) Network Broadway
13. Open-sourced nonproprietary software operating system that runs on numerous
hardware platforms. Popular distributions include Ubuntu and Mint.
(a) Mendeley (b) PuTTY
(c) LINUX (d) Mu
14. Portions of data files divided by the TCP/IP protocol for transmission over a
network.
(a) plugins (b) packets
(c) modular file (d) data cache
15. Inexpensive miniature computer consisting of a single board with ethernet,
USB, and HDMI ports.
(a) Raspberry Pi (b) Micro PC
(c) Flash PC (d) ASCIC
16. Rules governing the exchange of data over the internet that form the basis of
FTP and HTTP protocols
(a) Internet Protocol Suite
(b) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
(c) HyperText Markup Protocol
(d) Simple Gateway Monitoring Protocol
17. Windows database for the storage of configuration information
(a) MySQL (b) registry
(c) temporary files directory (d) OpenWrt
18. The use of a PIN combined with an identification number that is updated
every few minutes for security
(a) PIN security check
(b) per-to-per authentication
(c) two-factor authentication
(d) security PIN bolt
19. A cryptocurrency is
(a) a digital medium of exchange
(b) stored, transferred and exchanged using encryption algorithms
(c) awarded or created as transaction blocks are verified
(d) decentralized and not controlled by a central bank or authority
(e) all the above
20. Smallest division of a bitcoin equal to 10-8 BTC
(a) litecoin (b) Satoshi
(c) cryptocent (d) nanocoin
21. Form of encryption used to protect Bitcoin
(a) SHA-256 (b) Scrypt
(c) CryptoNote (d) CryptoNight
22. The blockchain ledger solves the problem of
(a) anonymous transaction
(b) cryptocurrency double spending
(c) large block sizes
(d) orphaned blocks
23. Individual blocks in a blockchain are groups of transactions linked
(a) cryptographically (b) in chronological order
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
24. A copy of the blockchain ledger stored on a computer operated on the
network is called
(a) backup chain (b) node
(c) chain link (d) grid point
25. A blockchain ledger
(a) is decentralized
(b) grows as new transactions are made
(c) is available to the public
(d) all the above
26. Enables the secure exchange of data over a public network by using encryption
(a) Virtual Private Network (VPN) (b) stealth nodes
(c) grid points (d) Peer-to-peer (P2P)
27. File sharing without a central server where each computer on a network acts
as a server for other computers on the network
(a) Peer-to-peer (P2P)
(b) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
(c) Cloud storage
(d) hash swapping
28. Digital cryptocurrencies lack a
(a) hash algorithm
(b) central authority
(c) programming language of implementation
(d) blockchain network
29. A bifurcation in a blockchain that can be intentional or accidental is known as a
(a) blockchain correction (b) block merger
(c) blockchain fork (d) sidechain
30. A blockchain hard fork occurs when
(a) rules are changed such that blocks created by the old software are no
longer recognized as valid
(b) a 51% attack fails
(c) two blockchains are merged into one
(d) a blockchain segment is accidently overwritten by a sidechain
31. A blockchain soft fork happens when
(a) a change of rules such that blocks created by the old software are still
recognized as valid.
(b) a 51% attack fails
(c) a block is found simultaneously by different miners
32. An accidental blockchain fork can occur when
(a) indistinguishable blocks are simultaneously added to the blockchain
(b) a power surge temporarily disables the network
(c) a block is found simultaneously by different miners
33. Segments of the blockchain may become orphaned when

(a) a blockchain segment is accidently overwritten by a sidechain
(b) the network abandons the shorter chain following a fork
(c) a power surge temporarily disables the network
(d) indistinguishable blocks are simultaneously added to the blockchain
34. Following a hard fork
(a) nodes using the old software must be updated
(b) orphaned blocks in the shorter chain are lost forever
(c) a soft fork is introduced to maintain integrity of the blockchain
(d) a block merger is introduced to prevent orphaned blocks
35. Ethereum and Ethereum Classic blockchains
(a) are both tethered to the USD
(b) Resulted from a hard fork in the Ethereum blockchain in response to a hack
(c) were created in parallel and never bifurcated
(d) answers (a) and (c)
36. Computer protocols that allow transactions without third parties.
(a) Independent contracts (b) cross contracts
(c) Smart contracts (d) virtual agreements
37. Smart contracts are
(a) digital contracts that can be executed by a distributed ledger or
blockchain
(b) enforced by nodes on a network
(c) answers (a) and (b)
38. Smart contracts are written in the programming language called
(a) Oracle (b) Merkle
(c) Block Explorer (d) Solidity
39. A 51% attack may occur when
(a) a solar flare, EMP or other event impacts more than half of the nodes on
the network
(b) more than half of the nodes on a blockchain network are operated by a
single group
(c) a hard fork occurs (d) answers (a) and (c)
40. Bitcoin cryptocurrency is

(a) open source
(b) decentralized
(c) operated on a peer-to-peer network
(d) all the above
41. Hardware specifically used to mine cryptocurrency
(a) Application Specific Integrated Circuit (ASIC)
(b) Raspberry Pi
(c) Oracles
(d) Bitcoin ATM
42. First segment of data recorded on a blockchain
(a) initial node (b) genesis block
(c) alpha quantum (d) test net
43. Refers to the number of segments or blocks in a given blockchain
(a) block number (b) block height
(c) block entropy (d) block weight
44. Hashing refers to
(a) The input of variable-length transaction strings followed by the output of
fixed-length strings by a hashing algorithm such as SHA-256
(b) input of fixed-length transaction strings followed by random-length
output strings
(c) input of variable-length transaction strings followed by random-length
output strings
(d) input of fixed-length transaction strings followed by fixed-length output
strings
45. A unique alphanumeric password that enables users to spend or transfer
cryptocurrencies
(a) proof of authority (b) user script
(c) wallet key (d) private key
46. Bitcoin private keys are stored
(a) in a bitcoin wallet (b) on the bitcoin network
(c) in agreement ledgers (d) in permissioned ledgers
47. Types of cryptocurrency wallets include

(a) hardware wallets
(b) paper wallets
(c) online wallets
(d) desktop wallets
(e) all the above
48. Data string inside a wallet that allows access to cryptocurrency
(a) test key (b) token key
(c) verification string (d) private key
49. Fiat currency
(a) lacks a central authority
(b) is back by a commodity such as gold or silver
(c) is not back by a commodity
(d) is a digital currency with an expiration date
50. Examples of altcoins launched after bitcoin include
(a) Litecoin (b) Ripple
(c) Namecoin (d) all the above
51. Digital records stored at multiple locations
(a) Distributed ledgers (b) Stealth addresses
(c) Side chains (d) Smart contracts
52. A programming language is Turing complete if it can compute
(a) anything that a Turing machine can compute
(b) anything that any programmable computer can compute
53. The Ethereum Virtual Machine (EVM) is Turing complete
(a) true (b) false
54. The bitcoin scripting language
(a) is Turing complete
(b) is Turing incomplete
(c) cannot perform loops
(d) answers (b) and (c)
55. Possible applications of smart contracts include

(a) ledger secured voting applications
(b) storage and transfer of medical records
(c) financial loans
(d) all the above
56. Challenges to implementing blockchain technology include
(a) electric power consumption resulting from repetitive computations on
each blockchain node
(b) computing requirements that increase as new blocks are added to the
chain
(c) fragmentation of the chain resulting from hard and soft forks
(d) all the above
57. Amount of cryptocurrency a miner is awarded for finding a block
(a) block reward (b) hash cash
(c) bit payout (d) transaction fee
58. Computational resources required to successfully mine a block
(a) mining difficulty (b) mining reward
(c) Mega hash per second (d) oracle power
59. The Scrypt cryptographic algorithm
(a) is used by Litecoin
(b) is faster than the SHA-256 algorithm
(c) has greater energy efficiency compared to SHA-256
(d) all the above
60. ASIC miners are often controlled using
(a) Delta processors (b) Raspberry Pi
(c) Sigma Pi (d) answers (a) and (c)
61. Validation of block transactions and generation of transaction fees based on
the amount of cryptocurrency held
(a) Proof of Stake (PoS)
(b) Testnet
(c) Block explorer
(d) Consensus protocol
62. Validation of block transactions based on computations performed in solving

a mathematical problem
(a) Proof of Authority (PoA)
(b) digital signature
(c) Proof of Stake (PoS)
(d) Proof of Work (PoW)
63. Advantage of Proof of Stake (PoS) compared to Proof of Work (PoW)
(a) PoS eliminates the need for a blockchain
(b) PoS requires less power consumption and computing recourses
(c) PoS eliminates transaction fees
(d) PoS solves the problem of forks
64. Secure Hash Algorithms (SHAs) are published by the
(a) Satoshi Foundation
(b) Consortium of Cryptographers
(c) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
(d) Bitcoin Foundation
65. The output hash created by the SHA-256 algorithm is
(a) 256-bits for any input data
(b) 28-bits for any input data
(c) a random number of bits for any 256-bit input
66. Amount of crypto-currency received for each successively mined block
(a) hash cash (b) transaction fee
(c) token (d) block reward
67. Mathematical algorithm that produces a fixed length output for any digital
input data
(a) cryptographic hash function (b) chain linking
(c) Testnet (d) Consensus protocol
68. Decrypting a hash by guessing of all possible inputs that produced a given
output to a cryptographic hash function
(a) brute force attack (b) 51% attack
(c) hash hack (d) whisper attack
69. The verification of transactions that are then added to the blockchain using
computational recourses to solve cryptographic problems
(a) halving (b) digital signature
(c) mining (d) consensus
70. Measured performance of hardware mining cryptocurrency
(a) hashes per second (hash rate) (b) steam
(c) gas limit (d) answers (b) and (c)
71. Combined computing power to validate cryptocurrency transactions with
block rewards shared between users
(a) distributed ledger (b) mining pool
(c) consensus (d) consortium blockchains
72. Cryptocurrency network that uses ring signatures
(a) Monero (XMR) (b) Ripple
(c) Ethereum Classic (d) Lite Coin
73. Digital signature generated by an actual signer and a group of decoy signers
where the identity of the actual signer remains anonymous.
(a) ledger stamp (b) oracle stamp
(c) ring signature (d) private signature
74. The linkage of blockchains enabling transactions between the chains
(a) Cloud mining (b) chain linking
(c) client sharing (d) reverse fork
75. Cryptocurrency using both Proof-of-Work and Proof-of-Stake systems
(a) Bytecoin (b) Feathercoin
(c) Peercoin (d) Primecoin
76. Cryptocurrency awarded for performing scientific computations on the
Berkeley Open Infrastructure for Network Computing (BOINC) platform.
(a) Bytecoin (b) Feathercoin
(c) Peercoin (d) Gridcoin
77. Cryptocurrency that uses a Proof-of-Work system based on the search for
large prime numbers.
(a) Primecoin (b) Feathercoin
(c) Peercoin (d) Gridcoin
11
SUPERCONDUCTIVY AND
QUANTUM COMPUTING
1. Most sensitive magnetometer
(a) fluxgate magnetometer
(b) SQUID (Superconducting Quantum Interference Device)
(c) Hall probe (d) compass needle
2. Property of superconductors where external fields are completely expelled
(a) Born effect (b) Meissner effect
(c) Landau effect (d) high permeability
3. Superconductor with the highest transition temperature Tc where the
electrical resistance drops to zero
(a) YBa2Cu3O7 (YBCO)
(b) Bi2Sr2CaCu3O10+x (BSCCO or Bi-2223)
(c) Hg
(d) Nb3Ge
(e) Nb-Ti
4. All the superconductors below are Type-II except
(b) Bi2Sr2Ca2Cu3O10+x (BSCCO or Bi-2223)
(c) Hg
(d) Nb3Ge
(e) Nb-Ti
5. Superconductor most commonly used for superconducting magnets in MRI

systems and in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)
(b) Bi2Sr2Ca2Cu3O10+x (BSCCO or Bi-2223)
(c) Hg
(d) Nb3Ge
(e) Nb-Ti
6. In the BSCCO formulas Bi2Sr2Ca2Cu3O10+x (Bi-2223) and Bi2Sr2CaCu2O8+x
(Bi-2212) the subscript x refers to
(a) hole-doping by an excess of oxygen atoms
(b) impurity replacement of oxygen atoms
(c) uncertainty in the relative number of atoms
7. In many superconductors higher transition temperatures can be reached
(a) with the application of pressure
(b) in microgravity
(c) in magnetic fields
(d) in electric fields
8. The mechanisms of Type-I and Type-II superconductivity are the same
(a) true (b) false
9. What superconductors have a transition temperature above the boiling point
of liquid nitrogen (77 K)
(a) YBa2Cu3O7 (YBCO) (b) BSCCO
(c) Hg (d) Nb3Ge
(e) Answers (a) and (b) only
10. Phenomenological model of superconductivity
(a) Ginzburg-Landau theory
(b) Bardeen Cooper Schrieffer (BCS) theory
(c) London theory
11. Microscopic theory that describes Type-I superconductors
(a) Ginzburg-Landau theory
(b) Bardeen Cooper Schrieffer (BCS) theory
(c) London theory
SUPERCONDUCTIVY AND QUANTUM COMPUTING • 365
12. In the BCS theory electrons interact with positive ions in the lattice to form
(a) lattice defects
(b) electron pairs known as Cooper pairs
(c) pinning centers for vortices
(d) domain boundaries
13. Application of superconductors based on the Meissner effect
(a) superconducting magnets (b) magnetic shields
(c) magnetic suspension (d) quantum tunneling
14. The magnetic screening of superconducting shields is much better than that
of copper shielding at
(a) dc and very low frequencies (b) microwave frequencies
(c) radio frequencies (d) answers (b) and (c)
15. Metal with high conductivity such as copper, silver, and gold typically don’t
become superconductors at low temperatures
(a) true (b) false
16. Metals with lower conductivity at room temperature such as lead and tin do
become superconductors at temperatures below 20 K.
(a) true (b) false
17. Electrons in Cooper pairs
(a) can travel through a superconductor with zero electrical resistivity
(b) have opposite spin
(c) condense into the same quantum state in a superconductor
(d) all the above
18. Magnetic field above which Type-II superconductors become normal
(a) upper critical field
(b) lower critical field
(c) intermediate field
19. Magnetic field below which Type-II superconductors are perfectly
diamagnetic
(a) upper critical field
(b) lower critical field
(c) intermediate field
20. The upper and lower critical fields in Type-II superconductors depend on
temperature
(a) true (b) false
21. Perfect diamagnetism is characterized by
(a) zero relative permeability
(b) complete expulsion of magnetic fields (except for a very thin surface
layer)
(c) high relative permeability
(d) answers (a) and (b) only
22. The largest current density above which a superconductor becomes normal
(a) is known as the critical current density
(b) depends on temperature
(c) can reach thousands of A/mm2
(d) depends on the external magnetic field
(e) all the above
23. Many Type-I superconductors
(a) have lower transition temperatures compared to Type-II superconductors
(b) are elements
(c) are typically cooled using liquid helium
(d) all the above
24. Many Type-II superconductors
(a) have higher transition temperatures compared to Type-I
superconductors
(b) are metal alloys or ceramic compounds
(c) can exist in a mixed state where flux pinning is possible
(d) all the above
25. Above the lower critical field Bc1 and the below the upper critical field Bc2
(a) the superconductor is in a Meisner state
(b) magnetic flux can penetrate a Type-II superconductor
(c) the superconductor is normal
(d) the heat capacity is minimal
26. The coherence length x in a superconductor

(a) is equal to the size of paramagnetic domains
(b) gives a measure of the maximum spatial variation of superconducting
electrons
(c) is equal to the cube root of the London penetration depth
(d) all the above
27. The London penetration depth lL in a superconductor
(a) is a measure of the distance that magnetic fields may penetrate a
superconductor according to B = B0e-lLx where B0 is the magnetic field at
the surface x = 0
(b) is related the distance that supper currents Js can flow in a
superconductor described by Js = J0e-lLx where J0 is the current density at
x=0
(c) is proportional to the square root of the mass of the charge carriers and
inversely proportional to their charge.
(d) all the above
28. The ratio of penetration depth to the coherence length k = lL / x
(a) k < 1 / √ 2 in type-I superconductors
(b) k > 1 / √ 2 in type-II superconductors
(c) k >> 1 in high-temperature superconductors (HTS)
(d) all the above
29. According to the BSC theory, the superconducting energy gap at absolute
zero D(0) is related to the transition temperature Tc and the Boltzmann
constant kB
(a) D(0) = kBTc
(b) D(0) = 1.764 kBTc
1
(c) D(0) =
kBTc
(d) the energy gap does not depend on the temperature
30. The suppression of the density of states in HTS compounds
(a) pseudo gap (b) metastable gap
(c) nonlinear gap (d) anomalous gap
31. Superconducting magnets made from Nb-Ti are typically cooled in

(a) liquid helium (b) liquid nitrogen
(c) argon gas (d) either (b) or (c)
32. High field superconducting electromagnets are used
(a) for MRI and NMR
(b) in particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)
(c) for plasma storage devices (tokamaks)
(d) all the above
33. An advantage of using high temperature superconductors (HTS) compared
to low temperature superconductors (LTS)
(a) HTS compounds can usually be cooled in liquid nitrogen that is much
cheaper than liquid helium needed to cool LTS materials
(b) HTS ceramics can be formed into wires while LTS materials are more
brittle
(c) LTS materials are more susceptible to moisture that degrades the
superconductor
(d) both (b) and (c) are correct
34. A disadvantage of using high temperature superconductors (HTS) compared
to low temperature superconductors (LTS)
(a) HTS compounds such as YBCO and BSCCO are brittle and more
difficult to form wires
(b) HTS compounds can degrade and become non-superconducting if
exposed to moisture
(c) flux noise due to trapped vortices is higher in HTS compounds
(d) all the above
35. A resistive superconducting fault current limiter becomes normal above a
critical current density thus limiting current during a power surge
(a) true (b) false
36. The magnetic flux threading one flux vortex in a superconductor
(a) is F0 = 2.07 × 10-15 Wb
(b) is equal to one flux quantum
(c) depends on the external magnetic field
37. Flux pinning in type-II superconductors

(a) enables magnetic suspension where flux tubes are held in place
(b) enables higher magnetic fields in superconducting magnets
(c) occurs below the upper critical field
(d) all the above
38. The motion of flux vortices in type-II superconductors
(a) is known as flux creep
(b) reduces the critical current density
(c) is a noise source for SQUID magnetometers
(d) all the above
39. According to the London theory the supercurrent density Js
(a) is proportional to the vector potential A
(b) points in the opposite direction of A
(c) is inversely proportional to the London penetration depth
(d) all the above
Fig. Q. 40.
40. Region I of the phase diagram of a Type-II superconductor above
corresponds to a
(a) Meissner state with B=0 inside the superconductor
(b) mixed state consisting of both normal and superconducting regions inside
the superconductor
(c) normal state corresponding to an absence of superconductivity
41. Region II of the phase diagram of a Type-II superconductor above

corresponds to a
(a) Meissner state with B = 0 inside the superconductor
(b) mixed state consisting of both normal and superconducting
regions inside the superconductor
(c) normal state corresponding to an absence of superconductivity
42. Region III of the phase diagram of a Type-II superconductor above
corresponds to a
(a) Meissner state with B = 0 inside the superconductor
(b) mixed state consisting of both normal and superconducting
regions inside the superconductor
(c) normal state corresponding to an absence
of superconductivity
43. The superconductor in a magnetic field
shown to the right
(a) Meissner state with B = 0 inside the
superconductor
(b) mixed state consisting of both normal
and superconducting regions inside the
superconductor
(c) normal state corresponding to an
absence of superconductivity Fig. Q. 43.
shown to the right
(a) Meissner state with B=0 inside the
superconductor
and superconducting regions inside
the superconductor
absence of superconductivity
Fig. Q. 44.

shown to the right
(a) Meissner state with B = 0 inside the
superconductor
and superconducting regions inside the
superconductor
absence of superconductivity
46. Vortex motion and resistive losses in a Fig. Q. 45.
superconductor can be avoided by
(a) cooling the superconductor in a high magnetic field
(b) pinning vortices to defects in the superconductor
(c) repeatedly warming up and cooling down the superconductor
47. The DC Josephson effect describes
(a) the creation of Cooper pairs by entanglement
(b) quantum tunneling of Cooper pairs across a superconducting-insulating-
superconducting (SIS) junction
(c) the interaction of superconducting and normal electrons
48. The AC Josephson effect results in an AC current across a junction due to a
DC voltage across junction with frequency
2eV
(a) f = in Hz
h
(b) f = 483.6 × 1012V in Hz
h
(c) f = V in MHz
2e
49. The inverse AC Josephson effect
(a) converts electric field to frequency
(b) converts frequency to voltage
(c) is the same as the DC Josephson effect
(d) only occurs in Josephson junction arrays
50. The super current I(t) across a Josephson junction is related to the phase
difference df = f1(t) - f2(t) in the quantum mechanical wavefunction across
the junction and the critical current Ic
(a) I(t) = Ic tanh(df)
(b) I(t) = Ic exp(df)
(c) I(t) = Ic sin(df)
(d) I(t) = Ic sinh(df)
51. Sort the following materials in increasing conductivity
(a) Graphite, Titanium, Aluminum, Copper, Silver
(b) Silver, Copper, Aluminum, Titanium, Graphite
(c) Graphite, Silver, Copper, Aluminum, Titanium
(d) they all have the same conductivity
52. Vortices will move in a Type-II superconductor if
(a) if the superconductor is in a Meissner state
(b) the pinning force to defects is less than the Lorentz force
(c) Van der Waals attraction is nonzero
(d) if defects are separated by the London penetration depth
53. A DC SQUID consists of a superconducting loop with
(a) one Josephson junction
(b) two Josephson junctions
(c) three Josephson junctions
(d) without a Josephson junction
54. A RF SQUID consists of a superconducting loop with
(a) an array of Josephson junctions
(b) one Josephson junction coupled to a tank circuit
(c) two Josephson junctions
(d) without a Josephson junction
55. Linear flux to voltage transduction in a DC SQUID is obtained using a
(a) flux locked loop
(b) a Josephson junction array
(c) a tank circuit
(d) a resistive shunt
56. The current flowing in a superconducting ring will change

(a) periodically with time
(b) to oppose a change in magnetic flux through the ring
(c) is inversely proportional to the resistance according on Ohm’s law
(d) current will not flow in a closed superconducting path
57. A phonon is
(a) photon given off by the annihilation of Cooper pairs
(b) a quantum of sound or vibration
(c) a voltage fluctuation resulting from the annihilation of flux vortices
(d) a quantum of magnetic field inside a superconducting ring
58. The two-fluid model of superconductivity describes the flow of
(a) Cooper pairs and unpaired normal electrons
(b) flux vortices and phonons
(c) normal electrons and phonons
(d) Cooper pairs and phonons
59. AC losses in a superconductor result from unpaired normal electrons that
experience electrical resistance
(a) true (b) false
60. Unlike a bit that can be either “0” or “1” the basic unit of quantum information,
or qubit,
(a) can be in any coherent superposition of 0 or 1
(b) is 0, 1, or 2
(c) is + 1/2 or – 1/2
(d) is + 1/2 , – 1/2 or 0
61. Measurement of the state of a qubit would destroy the quantum
superposition such that it has a value of either 0 or 1
(a) true (b) false
1 0 0 1
62. The states |00〉 = 0 |01〉 = 1 |10〉 = 0 |11〉 = 0 are basis states of
0 0 1 0
0 0 0 1
(a) one qubit (b) two qubits
(c) four qubits
1 0
63. The states |0〉 = |1〉 = are basis states of
0 1
(a) one qubit
(b) two qubits
(c) four qubits
64. Given a qubit in a superposition state
|y〉 = a|0〉 + b|1〉 on the adjacent Bloch sphere
(a) probability of measuring the qubits
value to be 1 is |b|2
(b) probability of measuring the qubits
value to be 0 is |a|2
(c) The sum of probabilities |a|2 + |b|2= 1
(d) all the above
Fig. Q. 64.
65. The superposition state of a qubit can be
q q
represented on Bloch sphere as |y〉 = cos |0〉 + e jf sin |1〉
2 2
(a) the value q = 0 (North pole) on the Block sphere corresponds to |y〉 = |0〉
(b) the value q = p (South pole) on the Block sphere corresponds to |y〉 = |1〉
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
j|0〉 - |1〉
66. Given a qubit is in a superposition state |y〉 = the probability of
measuring the qubits value to be 1 is √2
1
(a)
2
1
(b)
√2
(c) the same as probability of measuring the qubit value equal to 0
(d) both (a) and (c)
67. A qubit may be physically implemented with superpositions states of
(a) two spin values of an electron
(b) clockwise or counter-clockwise current flow in a superconducting loop
(c) two polarization states of a photon
(d) all the above
68. How many complex numbers are required to specify the state of N qubits
(a) N (b) N2
(c) 2N (d) N!
69. Given two qubits are in the state |y〉 = a|00〉 + 0.2|01〉 – 0.3|10〉 – 0.4 j |11〉 the
possible values of a are
(a) ±0.773
(b) ±0.879
(c) ±0.773 j
(d) ±0.879, ±0.879 j
70. Given two qubits are in the state |y〉 = A12|00〉 – √3 j|01〉 + √3 j|10〉 – 2|11〉2 the
value of the normalization constant A is
(a) 0.267 (b) 1/14
(c) 14 (d) 0.733
1
71. Generic states such as |y〉 = 1|10〉 + |01〉2 are
√2
(a) separable
(b) not separable
(c) entangled
(d) not entangled
(e) answers (b) and (c)
72. |y〉 = |y1〉|y2〉 is
(a) separable
(b) not separable
(c) entangled
(d) not entangled
0 1 1 0
73. Given the not gate N = and |0〉 = |1〉 =
1 0 0 1
(a) N|0〉 = 1
(b) N|0〉 = |1〉
(c) N|1〉 = |0〉
1 1 1 1 0
74. Given the Hadamard gate H = and |0〉 = |1〉 =
√2 1 –1 0 1
1
(a) H|0〉 = 1|0〉 + |1〉2
√2
1
(b) H|1〉 = 1|0〉 – |1〉2
√2
(c) H|1〉 = |0〉
0 1 1 0
75. Given the Pauli-X gate X = and |0〉 = |1〉 =
1 0 0 1
(a) X|0〉 = |1〉
(b) X|1〉 = |0〉
(c) X|1〉 = –|0〉
0 –j 1 0
76. Given the Pauli-Y gate Y = and |0〉 = |1〉 =
j 0 0 1
(a) Y|0〉 = – j|1〉
(b) Y|1〉 = j|0〉
(c) Y|1〉 = – j|0〉
77. The no cloning theorem states that
(a) it is not possible to transfer information from a classical to a quantum
computer
(b) it is not possible to make an exact copy of a quantum superposition state
(c) a given quantum computation is not always repeatable
(d) all the above
78. A classical search algorithm requires on average N / 2 steps to locate one out
of N items. Grover’s algorithm requires on the average of
(a) √N steps
(b) N1/4 steps
(c) 2N–1 steps
(d) N / 4 steps
1+j 1
Given the matrix A =
†
79. the adjoint A is
–1 1 – j
1+j 1 1 – j –1
(a) (b)
–1 1 – j 1 1+j
1–j 1 1 + j –1
(c) (d)
–1 1 + j 1 1–j
†
80. The matrix A is Hermitian if A = A
(a) true (b) false
81. The quantum entanglement between two particles
(a) depends on their separation distance
(b) depends on the inverse square of the separation distance
(c) does not depend on the separation distance
82. Identical particles such as photons become entangled if they are created
together in the same process
(a) true (b) false
83. Entangled particles exist in a superposition state
(a) true (b) false
84. The existence of hidden variables that predetermine the measurement
outcome of a quantum system is ruled out by
(a) Moore’s law
(b) Bell’s inequality
(c) the Ehrenfest theorem
(d) the correspondence principle
(e) the principle of complementarity
85. The most probable challenge to blockchain technology presented by
quantum computers
(a) digital currency could be minted in superposition states enabling double
spending
(b) smart contracts could be entangled impacting contract execution
(c) private keys might be hacked from their respective public keys with
sufficient computing power
86. The resolution to the Einstein, Podolsky and Rosen (EPR) paradox is that
(a) measurement of the properties of a particle affects the properties of its
entangled twin instantaneously and over an arbitrary large distance
(b) hidden variables are needed to rule out “spooky action at a distance”
(c) quantum mechanics is an incomplete description of nature
(d) special relativity and quantum mechanics are incompatible
87. A challenge to quantum computation where degradation and
disentanglement of superposition states occurs though interactions with the
environment such as by the scattering of photons
(a) quantum quenching
(b) quantum interference
(c) quantum decoherence
(d) Unruh-Davies effect
12
SELF-EXAMINATION
1. To apply the Laplace transform method to solve for the charge q(t) in an LC
series circuit driven by a time dependent voltage source according to the
differential equation
d2 q q
L 2 + = V0 cos ( wt )
dt C
the following initial conditions are needed
(a) q(0) (b) q̇(0)
(c) both q(0) and q̇(0) (d) neither q(0) nor q̇(0)
Fig. Q. 2.
(a) curl only (b) divergence only
(c) both divergence and curl (d) neither divergence nor curl
3. A semiconductor diode has two separate crystals joined together to form a

p-n junction.
(a) true (b) false
4. In the D. C. circuit shown below, the electric bulb
(a) will light
(b) will not light except while the capacitor initially charges
(c) will light at regular intervals
Fig. Q. 4.
5. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?

(a) A.C. series motor (b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor (d) Synchronous motor
6. The deflection of hot wire instruments depends on
(a) instantaneous values of current
(b) average value of current
(c) R.M.S. value of current
7. The induction type signal phase energy meter is a
(a) ampere-hour meter (b) true watt-hour meter
(c) wattmeter (d) none of the above
8. Transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(a) rating (b) leakage reactance
9. A 50 micro-ampere meter movement has 500 ohms resistance, what shunt
resistance is required to extend the range to 250 micro-ampere?
(a) 111.1 ohms (b) 125 ohms
SELF-EXAMINATION • 381
10. The rating of batteries is given by

(a) kW (b) kVA
(c) amp-hours (d) MVA
11. A television receiver uses 100 watts from a 100 volts power source. The
receiver then draws the current from the source equal to
(a) 2 A (b) 2 mA
(c) 1 A (d) 10 mA
12. When voltage is measured by a multimeter, the multiplier for voltage is
(a) a high resistance with the series with the meter movement
(b) a high resistance in parallel with the meter movement
(c) less than 1 ohm in series with meter movement
(d) less than 1 ohm in parallel with the meter movement
13. What will be the voltage across the
resistance in the circuit shown to the right
at resonance?
(a) Zero
(b) Supply voltage Fig. Q. 13.
(c) Infinity
(d) Equal to the voltage across capacitor
14. If a parallel circuit is open in the main line, the current
(a) increases in each branch
(b) is zero in all branches
(c) is zero in the highest resistance branch
(d) increases in the branch of lowest resistance
15. The ionization current in liquids and gases results from
(a) protons (b) electrons
(c) neutrons (d) positive or negative ions
16. Sheath is used in cables to
(a) prevent moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide the strength of the cable
(c) avoid the chance of rust on the strands
(d) provide proper insulation
17. The surge impedance of a ground cable is

(a) 60 to 100 ohms (b) 40 to 60 ohms
(c) 40 to 500 ohms (d) 30 to 40 ohms
18. The use of a transformer does not influence of performance of the
transmission line.
(a) true (b) false
19. The size of a feeder is determined primarily by
(a) the current it is required to carry
(b) the percentage variation of voltage in the feeder
(c) the voltage across the feeder
(d) the distance over which the transmission is made
20. The “metal clad” is related to
(a) amplidyne (b) switchgear system
(c) synchros (d) relays
21. When the grid of the triode is negative
(a) the plate current will increase
(b) the plate current will decrease
(c) the plate current will not be affected
(d) the grid will attract more electrons
22. The input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is
(a) zero (b) small
(c) infinite (d) high
23. The energy needed to disrupt the bonds of pure germanium is
(a) 1.12 eV (b) 0.72 eV
(c) 0.6 eV (d) 7.5 eV
(c) low capacitance for low frequency signals
(d) high capacitance for high frequency signals
25. The collector current in a transistor will

(a) increase if the temperature increases
(b) decrease if the temperature decreases
(c) not change with temperature variation
26. Which of the following devices is half adder?
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE OR gate (d) NAND gate
(e) INCLUSIVE OR gate
27. Which of the following is a minimum error code?
(a) Binary code (b) Gray code
(c) Excess-3 code (d) Octal code
28. In the circuit shown to the right some charge is
applied across the capacitor at t = t0. What will
be the wave shape of current in the circuit?
(a) triangle wave
(b) Square waveform
(c) Oscillatory
(d) Exponentially rising
Fig. Q. 28.
29. A damped oscillation has the equation
I = Ae-5 t sin ( 314 t ). What will be the frequency
of oscillation?
(a) 50 Hz (b) 75 Hz
(c) 100 Hz (d) 500 Hz
30. For equal output the total current is more in
(a) wave winding (b) lap winding
(c) simplex lap winding (d) none of the above
x2 x 4 x6
31. The series 1 - + - +  is
2! 4! 6!
(a) ex (b) sin(x)
(c) cos(x) (d) tan(x)
1 1 1 2
32. f ( x) = f ( a) + f ¢ ( a) ( x - a) + f ¢¢ ( a) ( x - a) +  is a
0! 1! 2!
(a) Taylor series
(b) Maclaurin series when a = 0
(c) divergent series
33. In practice, inductance is not used to fabricate the lag network.
(a) true (b) false
34. The electrical inductor is analogous to a
(a) spring
(b) mass
(c) inertia
(d) viscous damper
35. The second order derivative of the input signal adjusts
(a) the gain of the system
(b) the damping of the system
(c) the time constant of the system
(d) the time constant suppresses the oscillations
 cos θ sin θ 0 
 
36. The determinant of the matrix  − sin θ cos θ 0  is
 0 0 1 
(a) cos2 q - sin 2 q 
(b) equal to 1
(c) equal to -1
(d) not defined
37. Type 0 systems have
(a) zero steady-state error
(b) small steady-state error
(c) high gain constant
(d) high steady-state error with high gain constant
38. The systems which commonly operate under a type 1 system with
step-velocity input are
(a) servomechanisms
(b) regulators
(c) fire control servos and tacking radars
39. Compiling a program written in C++ converts the code to machine language
(a) true (b) false
40. If the word length is 12 bits, the number of locations that can be addressed
without ambiguity will be
(a) 4096 (b) 8192
(c) 2 11
(d) 211 - 1
(e) 211
41. One byte is equal to
(a) 8 bits of information
(b) 4 bits of information
(c) 6 bits of information
(d) 10 bits of information
42. The noise factor of an amplifier which contributes no noise will be
(a) zero (b) one
(c) infinity (d) less than zero
43. Negative feedback is applied to many oscillator circuits to
(a) increase output impedance
(b) decrease output impedance
(c) stabilize frequency
(d) stabilize output amplitude
44. How many thyratron tubes will be used to have bidirectional rotation of a
D.C. motor when the speed of the motor is being controlled?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
45. When signals are summed at an amplifier input with operational feedback
(a) the signal potentials are added
(b) the signal currents are added
(c) either (a) or (b) are added
(d) both (a) and (b) are added
46. A diode circuit with resistance can be used as a limiter by connecting the load
(a) in series with diode only (b) in shunt with diode only
(c) (a) or (b) (d) none of the above
47. Trace the equivalent decimal number for binary number 111.
(a) 10 (b) 28
(c) 7 (d) 9
48. The excess 3-code of (21)10 is
(a) 101100 (b) 110100
(c) 100011 (d) 010101
49. Hamming code is used in a digital computer to
(a) detect error (b) detect the position
(c) detect the error and correct it (d) either (a) or (c)
50. A Zener diode can operate when reverse biased
(a) true (b) false
51. The breakdown voltage for most diodes is approximately
(a) –50 to –100 volts (b) –1 to +1 volts
(c) 1 to 9 volts (d) 0.7 V
52. What forward voltage is required across a silicon diode to make it conduct?
(a) 0.3 volts (b) 0.5 volts
(c) 0.7 volts (d) 0.3 volts to 0.7 volts
53. The material used for a fuse must have
(a) low melting point and low specific resistance
(b) low melting point and high specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point with any specific resistance
54. If a fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be
(a) lower than if the fault occurs away from the relay
(b) higher than if the fault occurs away from the relay
(c) constant for all distances
55. The earthing transformer is used
(a) to avoid harmonics in the transformer
(b) to provide artificial neutral earthing where the neutral point of a
three-phase system is not possible
(c) to improve the current capacity of the neutral wire
56. If 5 amperes current is allowed to accumulate charge for 10 seconds the
resultant charge equals
(a) 2 coulombs (b) 10 coulombs
(c) 50 coulombs (d) 50 amperes
(e) 10 amperes
57. Dielectric loss can be measured by a
(a) energy meter (b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) electrostatic wattmeter (d) none of the above
58. The alloying element which really makes steel corrosion resistant is
(a) chromium (b) magnesium
(c) nickel (d) molybdenum
59. Mu-metal is a ferromagnetic alloy composed of mostly nickel and iron with
(a) low permeability (b) low permittivity
(c) extremely high permeability (d) extremely high permittivity
60. The armature torque of a D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) armature current only
(b) field flux only
(c) armature current and flux both
61. The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and generators and is used
to find
(a) stray losses (b) copper losses
(c) eddy current losses (d) friction losses
(a) An induction coil works off A.C.
(b) A transformer is used to step up the potential of D.C.
(c) The output current of an induction coil is nearly unidirectional
(d) In stepdown transformers the transformation ratio is always greater
than one
63. If two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 10 watts, the
total power supplied by the voltage source equals
(c) 20 watts (d) 100 watts
64. If a wire conductor is doubled in its length with the original area of cross-
section the resistance of the wire is
(a) doubled
(b) half of the original resistance
(c) equal to the original resistance
(d) more than original resistance
65. The use of an integral-error control is superior to a derivative error control as
far as steady state errors are concerned.
(a) true (b) false
66. Size of the transformer core will depend on
(a) frequency (b) flux density of the core
(c) area of the core (d) (a) and (b) both
67. The size of the transformer core will
(a) increase if frequency increases
(b) decrease if frequency increases
(c) not be affected by frequency variation
(d) increase if flux density increases
68. The waist products of polymer electrolyte fuels cells are

(a) CO and water (b) water and heat
(c) CO2 and water (d) chlorofluorocarbons and HF
69. Thermocouple for extremely low temperatures used in cryogenic applications
(a) Type T Thermocouple (Copper/Constantan)
(b) Type B Thermocouple (Platinum Rhodium)
70. Thermocouple for very high temperature applications
(a) Type T Thermocouple (Copper/Constantan)
(b) Type B Thermocouple (Platinum Rhodium)
71. Eddy currents are used for
(a) induction heating
(b) detecting cracks in conducting materials
(c) electromagnetic braking
(d) all the above
72. Eddy currents are reduced in transformers by
(a) laminating magnetic cores
(b) using current cancellation by opposing magnetic fields
(c) cooling the transformer cores
(d) using three-phase current
73. Eddy currents are generated by
(a) time changing electric fields
(b) alternating voltages
(c) time changing magnetic fields
(d) movement of charge carriers due to temperature gradients
74. The AC current density in a conductor
(a) decreases linearly from its value at the surface
(b) decreases exponentially from its value at the surface
(c) maintains a constant magnitude in a conductor with varying phase
(d) maintains a constant magnitude in a conductor with constant phase
75. The fringe effect of a parallel plate capacitor

(a) results in a higher capacitance compared to the theoretical value
(b) results in a lower capacitance compared to the theoretical value
(c) has no influence on capacitance
76. A lock-in amplifier
(a) detects a signal with a known frequency in the presence of background
noise
(b) multiplies the input signal by reference signal with a known frequency
(c) is used to fix the output frequency of an amplifier
77. Electronic noise with a 1 / f a power spectral density with a ≈ 1
(a) 1 / f noise (b) pink noise
78. The term ‘‘overreach’’ is related to
(a) transistors (b) diodes
(c) relays (d) flip-flops
(e) circuit breakers
79. The Lorentz force law states that the force acting on a charge q moving with
velocity v in electric E and magnetic B fields points
(a) in the direction of E only (b) perpendicular to both E and B
(c) parallel to B only (d) in the direction E + v × B
80. The magnetic field inside a superconductor is
(a) zero (b) low
(c) high (d) negligible but not zero
81. The force on an electric dipole with moment p in a nonuniform electric field E
(a) p × E (b) -p ⋅ E
(c) (p ⋅ ∇)E (d) zero
82. In which of the following machines will be preferred to charge the batteries?
(a) Series generator (b) Series motor
(c) Shunt generator (d) Compound generator
(e) Shunt motor (f) None of the above
83. The large number of slots in an induction motor

(a) provides better overload capacity
(b) reduces overload capacity
(c) provides a bigger size motor
(d) reduces the size of the motor
84. Why are D.C. motors preferred for traction applications?
(a) The torque is proportional to the armature current
(b) The torque is proportional to the square root of the armature current
(c) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is
proportional to the square of armature current
(d) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to the armature current
85. The electric current in a motor generates
(a) heat only (b) magnetic field
(c) (a) and (b) (d) power only
86. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average
flux density in the air gap is
(a) large (b) small
(c) infinity (d) absent
87. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back E.M.F. of the motor will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) remain same (d) increase then decrease
88. Which of the following generating machines will offer constant voltage on all
loads?
(a) A separately excited generator
(b) A self-excited generator
(c) A level compound generator
(d) All the above machines
89. If the resistance of the field winding of a D.C. generator is increased, then
the output voltage
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) decreases proportionally to the resistance of field winding
90. Separately excited motors have

(a) excitation which is independent of load current
(b) the advantage over self-excited motor that it can be utilized for zero volt
to its maximum rated capacity
(d) none of them
91. The field current control of a D.C. shunt motor will provide
92. The armature voltage control of a D.C. motor provides
93. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be
run in parallel?
(a) Series generators (b) Shunt generators
(c) Shunt and series generators (d) Compound generators
94. Which material is used to insulate the segments of a commutator?
(a) Fiber glass (b) Plastic
(c) Mica (d) PVC
95. Which of the following methods of speed control of a D.C. machine will offer
minimum efficiency?
(a) Armature control method (b) Field control method
(c) Voltage control method (d) All of the above methods
96. The brushes of electrical machines are made of
(a) carbon (b) copper
(c) cast iron (d) steel
97. If a D.C. motor designed for 45°C ambient temperature is to be used for
55°C ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) is to be derated by a factor recommended by the manufacturer and the
next higher HP motor selected
(b) can be used for 55°C ambient also
(c) of lower HP should be selected
(d) of high speed should be selected
98. Which method of braking will be selected if the highest braking torque is
required?
(a) Plugging
(b) Dynamic braking
(c) Counter current braking
(d) Regenerative braking
(e) (a) or (c)
99. If we must control the speed of a 150 HP D.C. motor from zero to
1000 R.P.M. having rated speed of 1500 R.P.M., then it will be preferred to
(a) select a motor of 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(b) select a motor of 1.5 × 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(c) select a motor of 150 HP, 750 R.P.M.
(d) select a motor of 75 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
100. If the terminals of armature of a D.C. machine are interchanged, this action
will offer the following kind of braking:
(a) Plugging (b) Regenerative
(c) Dynamic braking (d) Any of the above
101. In which of the following methods of speed control is commutation
unsatisfactory?
(a) Field control method
(b) Voltage control method
(c) Armature current control method
(d) All of the above methods
102. Plugging gives the
(a) smallest torque braking (b) highest torque braking
(c) zero torque braking (d) none of them
103. Dynamic braking can be used for
(a) series motors (b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors (d) all the above motors
104. How many cycles of alternating current will be generated in one revolution
of an 8-pole synchronous alternator?
(a) 10 cycles (b) 4 cycles
(c) 8 cycles (d) 16 cycles

(a) A single-phase induction motor has very high starting torque
(b) A single-phase induction motor has zero starting torque
(c) A single-phase motor starting torque is as good as that of a 3 phase
induction motor
(d) A single-phase motor has very small torque but greater than zero
106. Which of the synchronous alternators will complete 1080 electrical degrees
in one revolution?
(a) 8 pole synchronous alternator
(b) 6 pole synchronous alternator
(c) 4 pole synchronous alternator
(d) 10 pole synchronous alternator
107. How many poles will be required if an alternator runs at 1500 R.P.M. and
gives frequency of 50 Hz?
108. For which of the following alternators, will the distribution factor be 0.96?
(a) Three phase alternator, 4 pole wound on 72 slots core
(b) Three phase alternator, 8 pole wound on 80 slots core
(c) Three phase alternator, 8 pole wound on 72 slots core
(d) Three phase alternator, 6 pole wound on 72 slots core
109. Generators are running in parallel. One generator may run as a motor for the
following reasons:
(a) The speed of that generator is increased
(b) The direction of that generator is reversed
(c) That generator takes a large share of loads
(d) The field of that generator is weakened
110. Which of the following instruments will have same calibration on A.C. and
D.C.?
(b) Moving iron instruments
(d) Electrodynamometer instruments
111. The internal resistance of an instrument is normally based on the criterion that
(a) it draws large power
(b) the instrument can be connected in any circuit
(c) it does not change the parameters of the circuit to which it is connected
(d) it draws minimum power for its operation
112. The accuracy of measuring instruments of high frequency
(a) decreases (b) becomes zero
(c) increases (d) does not change
113. What will be the reading of megger if the measuring terminals are open
circuited?
(a) Infinity (b) 500 ohms
(c) Zero (d) 10,000 ohms
114. Standard resistors are generally fabricated out of
(a) platinum (b) copper
(c) meganin (d) chromium
115. Generally, how many turns are used in the primary of CT?
(a) 2 (b) 1 to 5
(c) 5 to 10 (d) 10 to 40
116. The dynamic error of an instrument is defined as
(a) the difference in full scale reading and actual readings
(b) the difference in actual and indicated values
(c) the difference in two consecutive readings of the scale
(d) none of them
117. Which method will be used for precision measurement of resistance?
(a) Voltmeter method (b) Potentiometer method
(c) Multimeter method (d) Megger test
(e) Bridge method (f) CRO method
118. CT is used to
(a) step down the current
(b) step up the current
(c) step up the current but step down the voltage
(d) measure very high current
119. Radio frequency can be measured with a

(a) resonance frequency meter
(b) Weston frequency meter
(c) heterodyne frequency meter
120. A pulse transformer employs a
(a) air core (b) iron core
(c) ferrite core (d) none of these
121. Which of the following recorders are known as null recorders?
(a) strip chart recorders (b) galvanometric recorders
(c) potentiometric recorders (d) any of the above
122. The inductance of the current coil of a wattmeter is kept
(a) as high as possible (b) as low as possible
(c) 10 H (d) 1 to 10 H
123. Which of the following potentiometers is supposed to have infinite resolution?
(a) Resistance potentiometer
(b) Deposited film potentiometer
(c) Kelvins potentiometer
(d) None of these
124. The potentiometer coil of a wattmeter is designed for minimum
inductance to
(a) achieve high phase difference between current and voltage
(b) keep current and voltage in the same phase
(c) minimize the reactance of the coil
(d) increase the reactance of the coil
125. The inductance of the following circuit across
A and B will be
(a) L1 + L2 - M
(b) L1 + L2 + 2M
(c) L1 + L2 + M2 - L1L2
Fig. Q. 125.
(d)
(L L
1 2 -M 2
)
( L1 + L2 + 2M )
126. Which of the following coils will have large resonant frequency?
(a) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(b) A coil with low distributed capacitance
(c) A coil with large resistance
(d) A coil with low resistance
127. What will be the magnetic field in the toroid having N number of turns,
diameter d and current I?
1 NI 1 1 NI
(a) p (b)
2 d rp d
m 0 IN
(c) p 0 NI (d)
p d pd2
128. A typical radar antenna will have a bandwidth of

(a) 4° (b) 6°
(c) 1° (d) 2°
129. Which material will one choose for a transformer core if the transformer
must work at microwave frequency?
(a) Supermalloy (b) Silicon
(c) Ferrites (d) Iron
130. A coil is wound on an iron core which carries current I. The self-induced
voltage in the coil is not affected by
(a) change of the number of turns of the coil
(b) the resistance of the magnetic path
(c) variation in voltage to the coil
(d) variation in coil current
(a) The inductance of a coil carrying a constant D.C. current will increase
the current
(b) The inductance of a coil carrying a constant D.C. current will not affect
the current
(c) The inductance of a coil carrying a constant D.C. current will decrease
the current
(d) The inductance of a coil carrying a constant D.C. current will change the
current into pulses
132. If a sinusoidal wave has a frequency of 50 Hz with 15 A R.M.S. current which

of the following equations represents this wave?
(a) 15 sin 50 t (b) 30 sin 25 t
(c) 42.42 sin 25 t (d) 21.21 sin 314 t
∂D
133. Maxwell’s equation in matter is ∇ × H = J + where
∂t
(a) B = mH
(b) D = eE
(c) ∂D / ∂t is Maxwell’s displacement current.
(d) all the above
134. A transformer is designed to achieve 240 V A.C. 50 Hz supply with input of
3.3 kV, 50 Hz and output of 415 V 50 Hz. The secondary of the transformer
will have
(a) three phase 3 wire system
(b) three phase 2 wire system
(c) three phase 6 wire system
(d) three phase 4 wire system
135. For which of the following materials should the net magnetic moment be zero?
(b) Diamagnetic materials
(c) Antiferrimagnetic materials
(d) Antiferromagnetic materials
136. Hysteresis losses do not depend on
(a) volume of material (b) magnetic field
(c) frequency (d) any of them
(e) none of these
137. Which of the following precautions will be taken first if a man suffers from
electric shock?
(a) Switch off the power supply
(b) Call the doctor
(c) Make him lie on the ground
(d) Provide him with glucose
(e) Lie down on the ground and provide him artificial respiration

(a) The conductivity of ferromagnetic material is better than ferrites
(b) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is very high
139. The effective power in a pure capacitive circuit shall be
(a) energy stored by capacitor
(b) positive
(c) half of the energy stored
(d) zero
140. In which materials are the spin moments associated with two sets of atoms
aligned antiparallel to each other?
(b) Antiferromagnetic materials
(c) Ferrites
(d) Ferromagnetic materials
141. Manganese dioxide acts as a dipole riser in a
(a) lead acid battery (b) carbon zinc cell
(c) dry cell (d) zinc electrolyte cell
142. The standing wave ratio of 4 will be applicable to a
(a) 80 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 320 ohms
(b) 20 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 100 ohms
(c) 100 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 300 ohms
(d) 50 ohms transmission line feeding to a load of 500 ohms
(a) A polarizer converts the produced hydrogen in water in a carbon zinc
battery
(b) A depolarizer converts the produced hydrogen in water in a carbon zinc
battery
(c) Carbon power converts the produced hydrogen in water in a carbon zinc
battery
(d) Zinc chloride converts the produced hydrogen in water in a carbon zinc
battery
144. A network which does not have either voltage source or current source is
called a
(a) active network
(b) passive network
(c) resistive network
(d) resistive and inductive network
145. Which of the following transmission lines has a reflection coefficient of minus
one?
(c) Long transmission line
(d) Short transmission line
146. If the capacitance of a transmission line is increased, the transmitted
power will
(a) remain
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) tend to zero at the receiving end
147. If the inductance of a transmission line is decreased, the power transmitted will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) will not change
(d) tend to be very high at the receiving end
148. The difference between the sending end voltage and the receiving end
voltage of a transmission line controls
(c) frequency (d) none of these
(a) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum current
(b) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at zero current
(c) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at maximum voltage
(d) Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at minimum voltage
150. The sag of a transmission line with a 50 m span is 1 m. What will be the sag if
the height of the transmission line is increased by 20%?
(a) 1.2 m (b) 2 m
(c) 1.25 m (d) 1 m
151. For which of the following increased values of horizontal tension will there
be an increase of 20% in tension of the line for a certain span?
(a) 50% (b) 10%
(c) 5% (d) 20%
152. Strain type insulators are used when
(a) the transmission line is dead ended
(b) the direction of the transmission line changes
(c) the transmission line is short
(d) (a) or (b)
153. Power loss is a very important factor for designing the
(a) feeder (b) transmission line
154. An electrical transducer gives an output when input applied to the transducer
is zero. The output of the transducer in such a condition is known as
(a) zero balance (b) offset
(c) zero unbalance (d) (a) or (b)
155. A platinum resistance thermometer can be used to measure the temperature
up to
(a) 0-500°C (b) 0-100°C
(c) 0-800°C (d) 0-150°C
156. Which of the following does not require an auxiliary circuitry if used as a
transducer?
(a) Capacitance (b) Photocell
(c) Resistance (d) Inductance
157. If the output of an electrical pressure transducer is 4–20 mA corresponding
to 0-50 kg/cm2, then the span of the transducer in terms of current will be
(a) 20 mA (b) 24 mA
(c) 16 mA (d) 50 mA
158. How is the response of thermocouple output affected if a thermosheath is

used for its protection?
(a) The response time of the thermocouple decreases
(b) The response time of the thermocouple increases
(c) The millivolt output to the thermocouple decreases
(d) The millivolt output to the thermocouple increases
159. Which of the following alloys are best suited for bimetallic thermometers?
(a) Steel and invar (b) Steel and tin
(c) Invar and tin (d) Inconel and tin
160. If the range of a voltmeter is –100 V to +100 V then the span of the voltmeter
will be
(a) 100 V (b) zero
(c) 200 V (d) 50 V
161. An ammeter is required to read 200 A current whose range is 0–300 A. The
actual reading of the ammeter falls between 197 and 203 A. What is the
accuracy of the ammeter?
(a) 5% FSD (b) 2% FSD
(c) 1% FSD (d) 3% FSD
162. Which of the following statements will best define hysteresis?
(a) The dead-band
(b) Output variation of an instrument with different inputs
(c) The inaccuracy of scale reading of an instrument
(d) The variation of the instrument reading with same input being applied in
ascending and descending mode
163. A load cell cannot be used to measure
(a) pressure (b) weight
(c) level (d) volume
164. Which of the following voltmeters will have negligible effect on the circuit is
being tested for voltage?
(a) A voltmeter with low resistance
(b) A voltmeter with very high internal resistance
(c) A voltmeter with zero internal resistance
165. A moving iron ammeter is connected in a circuit

shown to the right. What happens if the terminal
connections of the ammeter are interchanged?
(a) It will not indicate the reading
(b) It will indicate the same reading
Fig. Q. 165.
(c) The pointer will be deflected in the opposite
direction
(d) It will indicate the full-scale reading
166. Ultrasonic level sensors are used for measuring the level of material in a
hopper only when the material is
(a) solid (b) liquid
(c) (a) or (b) (d) none of them
167. A continuous ultrasonic level controller functions on the principle of
(a) obstruction of ultrasonic sound by material
(b) transmission of ultrasonic sound and reflection of the same by materials
to the sensor
(c) capacitance change in the hopper
(d) sound intensity
168. Which of the following level sensors is most economical?
(a) Capacitance type
(b) Electromechanical type
(c) Ultrasonic type
(d) Gamma rays type
169. If the capacitive method of level measurement of the solid material in a tank
is used, which of the following parameters is variable?
(a) Distance between probe and wall of tank
(b) Area of the probe
(c) Dielectric formed by material between probe and wall of the tank
(d) Dielectric of air
170. Tuning fork type vibration limit switches are used to measure
(a) pressure (b) load
(c) vibration (d) level
171. If the electronic pressure transmitter is calibrated for a range –25 to

+100 mm Wg, the transmitter has
(a) elevated zero range
(b) suppressed zero range
(c) suppressed span range
(d) elevated span range
172. A thermistor is used to sense the temperature. What happens if the
temperature increases gradually?
(a) The resistance of the thermistor increases
(b) The resistance of the thermistor decreases
(c) The thermistor expands gradually
(d) The thermistor does not sense any decrease in temperature
173. Thermistors are ideally suited to measure
(a) temperature over short spans
(b) temperature over long spans
(c) temperature of bearings of motors
(d) temperature of motor windings
174. Why we do not require the compensation for extension wire resistance which
is used with thermistor?
(a) The values of thermistor resistance vary up to the milliohm range
(b) The values of thermistor resistance vary up to the megaohm range
(c) The resistance of extension wire is very large in comparison to the
resistance of thermistor
(d) Thermistors are normally self-compensated
175. Four leads in the RTD are used with
(a) single element RTD
(b) dual element RTD
(c) three element RTD
(d) four element RTD
176. Which of the following materials for thermocouple sheaths withstand the
highest temperature?
(a) Alumina (b) Tantalum
(c) Zirconia (d) Molybdenum
177. If equipment is incapable of releasing sufficient electrical energy under

normal or abnormal conditions to cause ignition of a specific hazardous
atmospheric mixture, then the equipment
(a) is called extrinsically safe
(b) is called intrinsically safe
(c) will have explosion proof housing
(d) will have flame proof housing
178. Flow of liquid or gas in a pipeline is
(a) proportional to pressure in the pipeline
(b) proportional to differential pressure across the restriction introduced in
the pipeline
(c) inversely proportional to the square root of differential pressure across
the restriction in pipeline
(d) proportional to the square root of differential pressure across the
179. Which flow element will be used to measure flow of fluid which is not
enclosed in a pipe or duct?
(a) Venturimeter (b) Flow nozzle
(c) Intake done (d) Pitot tube
180. The downscale reading of a wattmeter can be changed to upscale by
(a) interchanging voltage coil terminals
(b) interchanging current coil terminals
(c) interchanging voltage and current coil terminals
(d) (a) or (b)
181. Which of the following parameters cannot be measured by a ring balance
meter?
(a) Differential pressure (b) Pressure
(c) Mass-flow rate (d) Flow
182. Which of the following properties are important while selecting alloys for
bimetallic thermometers?
(a) Coefficient of expansion
(b) Electrical conductivity
(c) Modulus of elasticity
(d) All above
183. Variation in ambient temperature will affect the accuracy of

(a) RTD (b) thermocouples
(c) thermistors (d) thermometers
184. A thermistor can be used to control the
(a) level of water in tank (b) altitude
(c) temperature (d) all above
185. Which of the following sources of error may exist when the temperature of a
body is measured with a contact method?
(a) Testing body has high mass
(b) Testing body is affected chemically by a hot body
(c) There is a condensation of water on the testing body
186. The presence of CO2 in the intervening space of radiation pyrometers will
(a) affect the reading of the pyrometer
(b) not affect the reading of the pyrometer
(c) make the pyrometer read more than the desired value of temperature
(d) increase the sensitivity of the pyrometer
187. The pressure measured above total vacuum is called
(a) absolute pressure (b) atmospheric pressure
(c) barometric pressure (d) gauge pressure
188. When a pressure transmitter is used to sense the pressure of fluid flowing in
a pipe, it transmits
(a) the absolute pressure
(b) the gauge pressure
(c) the atmospheric pressure
189. The pressure of 1 kg/cm2 is equivalent to
(a) 1 bar (b) 0.1 bar
(c) 10 bars (d) 100 bars
190. A nucleonic level gauge operates on the principle of
(a) gamma ray absorption (b) ultrasonic waves
(c) microwave waves (d) radiation method
191. What is the source of tracing the parameter on the paper in a light beam
galvanometric recorder?
(a) Pen (b) Stylus
(c) Fiber tip stylus
(d) Reflected light from a mirror incorporated in the recorder
192. Galvanometric recorders have better speed response than potentiometric
recorders.
(a) true (b) false
193. Pilot switches are operated
(a) manually
(b) in response to specified conditions of an actuating quantity
(c) automatically
194. Which of the following are classified as pilot switches?
(a) Pressure switch (b) Position switch
(c) Level switch (d) All of them
195. Active integrators can be used in
(a) compensating networks
(b) electronic controllers
(c) phase compensation
(d) all the above applications
196. The pressure taps for measuring flow of gases should preferably be
(a) raised above 0.5 meters vertically up from the flow element and a
continuous slope of not less than 1 : 10 to the transducer should be given
(b) lowered 0.5 meters vertically down from the flow element and then a
continuous slope of 1 : 10 to the transducer should be given
(c) raised by 1 meter vertically up from flow element
197. The distance of the transducer from the pressure tape should
approximately be
(a) 10–15 meters (b) 20–30 meters
(c) 20 meters (d) 5 meters
198. Which of the following materials will be preferred for condensation pots if
used at a pressure of 16 kg/cm2?
(a) Cast iron (b) Carbon steel
(c) Stainless steel (d) Molybdenum
199. Which of the following devices will be used to protect pressure gauges or
transmitters if the same are used in a medium of tarry liquids?
(a) Condensation pot
(b) Seal pot
(c) 3-way manifold value
(d) Isolation value
200. What is the binary material if referred to the analysis of a compound?
(a) If a compound is composed of many components and if only one of
a them is affected by the method of analysis, then the compound is
considered binary
(b) If the material exhibits two properties while analysing
(c) If two materials are used to get the material affected being analyzed
(d) If the material is analyzed by computer
201. The maximum current which can pass through 10 k-ohms and 0.25 watts
resistor is
(a) 16 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 5 mA (d) 50 mA
202. The magnetic saturation of iron means
(a) weakening of the magnetic field
(b) the losses during magnetization
(c) a little change in magnetic flux density B, if magnetic field strength H is
changed
(d) iron loses magnetic properties
203. Transformers operating in parallel will share the load based on
(a) their ratings (b) leakage reactance
204. The total magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero
(a) true (b) false
205. The adjacent operational amplifier circuit

(a) sums the input voltages
(b) averages the input voltages
(c) differentiates the input voltages
(d) integrates the input voltages
206. The functioning of a synchronous motor Fig. Q. 205.
is analogous to a
(a) turbine
(b) alternator
(c) distribution transformer
(d) gear train arrangement
(e) transmission of mechanical power by shaft
207. The logarithmic decrement of an oscillatory circuit with a coil inductance of
150 mH, an effective resistance of 100 ohms and tuned at 1 mHz shall be
(a) 0.12 (b) 0.180
(c) 0.033 (d) 0.33
208. The natural frequency of an oscillator with capacitance of 0.055 mF,
inductance of 2 mH and resistance of 1 ohm shall be
(a) 33 kHz (b) 190 kHz
(c) 478 kHz (d) 280 kHz
z = 3 + 2j
type(z)
(a) complex (b) 3+2j
(c) z (d) integer
for n in range(5):
print(n)
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 0 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 5
211. Freely distributed Python library for symbolic mathematics
(a) SymPy (b) Symphony
(c) ZenPy (d) Starfish Prime
212. MicroPython is an implementation of Python 3 written in C to run on

(a) supercomputers
(b) quantum computers
(c) desktop and laptop computers
(d) microcontrollers
213. The blockchain ledger solves the problem of
(a) anonymous transaction
(b) cryptocurrency double spending
(c) large block sizes
(d) orphaned blocks
214. Digital cryptocurrencies lack a
(a) hash algorithm
(b) central authority
(c) programming language of implementation
(d) blockchain network
215. Segments of the blockchain may become orphaned when
(a) a blockchain segment is accidently overwritten by a sidechain
(b) the network abandons the shorter chain following a fork
(c) a power surge temporarily disables the network
(d) indistinguishable blocks are simultaneously added to the blockchain
216. Hardware specifically used to mine cryptocurrency
(a) Application Specific Integrated Circuit (ASIC)
(b) Raspberry Pi
(c) Oracles
(d) Bitcoin ATM
217. Smart contracts are written in the programming language called
(a) Oracle (b) Merkle
(c) Block Explorer (d) Solidity
218. A unique alphanumeric password that enables users to spend or transfer
cryptocurrencies
(a) proof of authority (b) user script
(c) wallet key (d) private key
219. Digital records stored at multiple locations

(a) Distributed ledgers (b) Stealth addresses
(c) Side chains (d) Smart contracts
220. A programming language is Turing complete if it can compute
(a) anything that a Turing machine can compute
(b) anything that any programmable computer can compute
221. The bitcoin scripting language
(a) is Turing complete
(b) is Turing incomplete
(c) cannot perform loops
222. The output hash created by the SHA-256 algorithm is
(a) 256-bits for any input data
(b) 28-bits for any input data
(c) a random number of bits for any 256-bit input
223. Cryptocurrency network that uses ring signatures
(a) Monero (XMR) (b) Ripple
(c) Ethereum Classic (d) Litecoin
224. Decrypting a hash by guessing of all possible inputs that produced an
output to a cryptographic hash function
(a) brute force attack (b) 51% attack
(c) hash hack (d) whisper attack
225. All the superconductors below are Type-II except
(b) Bi2Sr2Ca2Cu3O10 + x (BSCCO or Bi-2223)
(c) Hg
(d) Nb3Ge
(e) Nb-Ti
226. In the BCS theory electrons interact with positive ions in the lattice to form
(a) lattice defects
(b) electron pairs known as Cooper pairs
(c) pinning centers for vortices
(d) domain boundaries
227. Application of superconductors based on the Meissner effect
(a) superconducting magnets
(b) magnetic shields
(c) magnetic suspension
(d) quantum tunnelling
228. Electrons in Cooper pairs
(a) can travel through a superconductor with zero electrical resistivity
(b) have opposite spin
(c) condense into the same quantum state in a superconductor
(d) all the above
229. Perfect diamagnetism is characterized by
(a) zero relative permeability
(b) complete expulsion of magnetic fields (except for a very thin surface layer)
(c) high relative permeability
230. Above the lower critical field Bc1 and the below the upper critical field Bc2
(a) the superconductor is in a Meisner state
(b) magnetic flux can penetrate a Type-II superconductor
(c) the superconductor is normal
(d) the heat capacity is minimal
231. High field superconducting electromagnets are used
(a) for MRI and NMR
(b) in particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)
(c) for plasma storage devices (tokamaks)
(d) all the above
232. Measurement of the state of a qubit would destroy the quantum

superposition such that it has a value of either 0 or 1
(a) true (b) false
1 0
233. The states 0 =   1 =   are basis states of
0 1
(a) one qubit
(b) two qubits
(c) four qubits
0 1 1 0
234. Given the not gate N =   and 0 =   1 =  
1 0 0 1
(a) N 0 = 1
(b) N 0 = 1
(c) N 1 = 0
235. The no cloning theorem states that
(a) it is not possible to transfer information from a classical to a quantum
computer
(b) it is not possible to make an exact copy of a quantum superposition state
(c) a given quantum computation is not always repeatable
(d) all the above
236. The quantum entanglement between two particles
(a) depends on their separation distance
(b) depends on the inverse square of the separation distance
(c) does not depend on the separation distance
237. Entangled particles exist in a superposition state
(a) true (b) false
238. A qubit may be physically implemented with superpositions states of
(a) two spin values of an electron
(b) clockwise or counter-clockwise current flow in a superconducting loop
(c) two polarization states of a photon
(d) all the above
0 - j1
239. Given a qubit is in a superposition state y = the probability of
measuring the qubits value to be 1 is 2
1
(a)
2
1
(b)
2
(c) the same as probability of measuring the qubit value equal to 0
(d) both (a) and (c)
240. The North Pole of the Bloch sphere corresponds to the state
(a) a 0 + b 1 (b) 0
(c) b 1 (d) 1
241. The South Pole of the Bloch sphere corresponds to the state
(a) a 0 + b 1 (b) 0
(c) b 1 (d) 1
242. The probability of measuring the state of a qubit to be either 0 or 1
(a) is equal to 1 (b) is equal to 1/2
(c) is equal to 0 (d) none of the above
243. The probability of measuring the state of a qubit to be neither 0 nor 1
(a) is equal to 1 (b) is equal to 1/2
(c) is equal to 0 (d) none of the above
244. A challenge to quantum computation where degradation and
disentanglement of superposition states occurs though interactions with the
environment such as by the scattering of photons
(a) quantum quenching (b) quantum interference
(c) quantum decoherence (d) Unruh-Davies effect
245. Which of the following controllers has zero proportional band?
(a) PID controller (b) PI controller
(c) PD controller (d) ON-OFF controller
246. Electrical capacitance is analogous to
(a) spring (b) fluid resistance
(c) inertia (d) viscous damper
247. Which of the following motors will be used for a compressor?

(a) Universal motor (b) Synchronous Motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) D.C. shunt motor
248. The torque of an induction type relay is
(a) proportional to the square of the current
(b) proportional to the current
(c) inversely proportional to the square of the current
249. The basic operational principle of Megger is based on
(a) moving iron meters (b) moving coil meters
(c) potentiometer (d) electrostatic meter
250. Which of the following equipment do we use for winding temperature
measurement of the motor?
(a) Thermocouple (b) Thermometer
(c) Resistance temperature detector (d) None of the above
APPENDIX: ANSWERS
CHAPTER 1 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

(Numbers with blanks have answers enumerated in the text)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a)

4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d)
10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c)
22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b)
28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d)
34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a)
40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c)
52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a)
58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a)
64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (a)
67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a)
70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b)
76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b)
79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b)
82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (c)
85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (a)
88. (c) 89. (e) 90. (c)

91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b)
94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (c)
100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (d)
103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a)
109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (b)
112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (a)
115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (c)
118. (d)
CHAPTER 2 ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c)
4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a)
10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (e)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b)
22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c)
28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a)
40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (b)
52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a)
55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c)
64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a)
70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a)
APPENDIX: ANSWERS • 419
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b)

76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b)
79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (a)
82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a)
85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b)
88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (a)
94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (a)
100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (b)
103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (b)
106. — 107. (a) 108. (b)
109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (a)
112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (a)
115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (a)
118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (d)
121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (c)
124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (a)
127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (c)
130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (c)
133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a)
136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (d)
139. (b) 140. (b) 141. (a)
142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (b)
145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (a)
148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (b)
154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (b)
157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (a)
160. (b) 161. (d) 162. (a)
163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (a) 167. (b) 168. (a)
169. (c) 170. (a) 171. (d)
172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (d)
175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (b)
178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (b) 183. (b)
184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (d)
187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (a)
190. (c) 191. (d) 192. (a)

193. (b) 194. — 195. (b)
196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (c)
199. — 200. (a) 201. (a)
202. (c) 203. (a) 204. (a)
205. (b) 206. (d) 207. (b)
208. (b) 209. (b) 210. (a)
211. (b) 212. (d) 213. (c)
214. (d) 215. (a) 216. (a)
217. (c) 218. (a) 219. (d)
220. (a) 221. (b) 222. (a)
223. (a) 224. (b) 225. (c)
226. (a) 227. — 228. (c)
229. (a) 230. (d) 231. (d)
232. (a) 233. (c) 234. —
235. (b) 236. (a) 237. (d)
238. (d) 239. (c) 240. (c)
241. (b) 242. (a) 243. (b)
244. (b) 245. (b) 246. (a)
247. (a) 248. (c) 249. (a)
250. (a) 251. (a) 252. (c)
253. (a) 254. (e) 255. (b)
256. (b) 257. (c) 258. (d)
259. (b) 260. (b) 261. (b)
262. (b) 263. (d) 264. (b)
265. (c) 266. (c) 267. (b)
268. (d) 269. (c) 270. (b)
271. (a) 272. (b) 273. (d)
274. (b) 275. (b) 276. (b)
277. (d) 278. (a) 279. (c)
280. (a) 281. (c) 282. (c)
283. (b) 284. (b) 285. (c)
286. (d) 287. (c) 288. (b)
289. (a) 290. (e) 291. (d)
292. (c) 293. (a) 294. (d)
295. (a) 296. (e) 297. (b)
298. (b) 299. (c) 300. (a)
301. (c) 302. (b) 303. (a)
304. (b) 305. (c) 306. (c)
307. (b) 308. (c) 309. (a)

310. (b) 311. (c) 312. (c)
313. (b) 314. (a) 315. (b)
316. (c) 317. (c) 318. (b)
319. (a) 320. (e) 321. (b)
322. (c) 323. (c) 324. (c)
325. (d) 326. (c) 327. (a)
328. (a) 329. (b) 330. (c)
331. (d) 332. (a) 333. (a)
334. (a) 335. (d) 336. (b)
337. (e) 338. (a) 339. (a)
340. (b) 341. (c) 342. (b)
343. (b) 344. (c) 345. (c)
346. (b) 347. (b) 348. (b)
349. (a) 350. (a)
CHAPTER 3 MEASUREMENTS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (e)
4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b)
10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b)
22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. — 27. (b)
28. (c) 29. (a) 30. —
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c)
40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (a)
52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d)
55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (e)

64. (a) 65. (e) 66. (b)
67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c)
70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (e)
76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (c) 80. (a) 81. (b)
82. (b) 83. (e) 84. (a)
85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (c)
88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b)
94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (c)
97. — 98. — 99. —
100. — 101. (b) 102. (d)
103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (e)
112. (a) 113. (e) 114. (e)
115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (d)
118. (a) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (b)
124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (d)
127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (e)
130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (b)
133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (d)
136. (c) 137. (b) 138. (b)
139. (c) 140. (c) 141. (b)
142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (a)
148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (c) 153. (c)
154. (c) 155. (e) 156. (b)
157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (b)
160. (c) 161. (b) 162. (c)
163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (b)
166. (c) 167. (a) 168. (b)
169. (b) 170. (b) 171. (a)
172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (c)
175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (b)
178. (f) 179. (b) 180. (a)

181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (c)
184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (a)
187. (c) 188. (c) 189. (c)
190. (a) 191. (d) 192. (b)
193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (d)
196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (d)
199. (a) 200. (c) 201. (d)
202. (b) 203. (b) 204. (b)
205. (a) 206. (b) 207. (a)
208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (c)
211. (b) 212. (a) 213. (c)
214. (a) 215. (d) 216. (e)
217. (c) 218. (b) 219. (c)
220. (c) 221. (b) 222. (c)
223. (b) 224. (e) 225. (d)
226. (c) 227. (d) 228. (b)
229. (a) 230. (d) 231. (c)
232. (c) 233. (b) 234. (d)
235. (c) 236. (c) 237. (b)
238. (b) 239. (b) 240. (b)
241. (d) 242. (a) 243. (d)
244. (b) 245. (d) 246. (a)
247. (b) 248. (a)
CHAPTER 4 ELECTRIC CIRCUITS AND

ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELDS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a)
4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c)
10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (e)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c)
22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c)
28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c)

34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c)
40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (d)
52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d)
55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d)
64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b)
70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (b)
73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c)
76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (d)
82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (d)
85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d)
88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (d)
94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (d)
97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (d)
100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (d)
103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a)
106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c)
109. (d) 110. (e) 111. (c)
112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (d)
115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (c)
118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b)
124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (b)
127. (a) 128. (c) 129. (a)
130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (a)
133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a)
136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (b)
139. (b) 140. (b) 141. (c)
142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (c)
145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b)
148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (c) 152. (c) 153. (a)

154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (c)
157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (a)
160. (c) 161. (b) 162. (a)
163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (a)
169. (a) 170. (b) 171. (b)
172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (a)
175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (a)
178. (a) 179. (e) 180. (c)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (a)
184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (c)
187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a)
190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (a)
193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (e)
196. (a) 197. (c) 198. (a)
199. (b) 200. (c) 201. (d)
202. (b) 203. (c) 204. (a)
205. (a) 206. (c) 207. (c)
208. (c) 209. (a) 210. (a)
211. (a) 212. (c) 213. (c)
214. (b) 215. (a) 216. (b)
217. (c) 218. (b) 219. (d)
220. (b) 221. (c) 222. (d)
223. (b) 224. (b) 225. (d)
226. (a) 227. (d) 228. (d)
229. (a) 230. (c) 231. (c)
232. (b) 233. (c) 234. (d)
235. (a) 236. (a) 237. (b)
238. (b) 239. (d) 240. (b)
241. (b) 242. (c) 243. (c)
244. (d) 245. (d) 246. (c)
247. (d) 248. (c) 249. (e)
250. (d) 251. (b) 252. (a)
253. (d) 254. (c) 255. (d)
256. (c) 257. (b) 258. (b)
259. (a) 260. (b) 261. (c)
262. (b) 263. (b) 264. (e)
265. (a) 266. (c) 267. (c)
268. (d) 269. (d) 270. (d)
271. (b) 272. (c) 273. (e)

274. (c) 275. (c) 276. (c)
277. (b) 278. (c) 279. (d)
280. (b) 281. (e) 282. (e)
283. (d) 284. (e) 285. (d)
286. (d) 287. (b) 288. (b)
289. (b) 290. (d) 291. (d)
292. (b) 293. (b) 294. (b)
295. (c) 296. (c) 297. (b)
298. (a) 299. (b) 300. (a)
301. (d) 302. (a) 303. (d)
304. (a) 305. (e) 306. (e)
307. (a) 308. (d) 309. (a)
310. (a) 311. (b) 312. (c)
313. (d) 314. (e) 315. (c)
316. (a) 317. (b) 318. (c)
319. (d) 320. (a) 321. (b)
322. (c) 323. (d) 324. (a)
325. (a) 326. (b) 327. (d)
328. (a) 329. (b) 330. (a)
331. (d) 332. (b) 333. (c)
334. (a) 335. (d) 336. (b)
337. (c) 338. (c) 339. (b)
340. (a) 341. (b)
CHAPTER 5 POWER SYSTEMS

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a)
4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a)
10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a)
22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d)
28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b)
34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b)

40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (b)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (b)
52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b)
58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a)
64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (b)
70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (c)
73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b)
76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (b) 81. (c)
82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (a)
85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b)
88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (d)
94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (c)
100. (c) 101. (b) 102. (b)
103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (c)
106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (b)
109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (a)
112. (b) 113. (a) 114. (d)
115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (b)
118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d)
124. (b) 125. (b) 126. (c)
127. (c) 128. (d) 129. (a)
130. (d) 131. (b) 132. (c)
133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (a)
136. (a) 137. (a) 138. (c)
139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (b)
142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (b)
145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (a)
148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d)
154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (e)
157. (b) 158. (e) 159. (b)

160. (a) 161. (c) 162. (a)
163. — 164. (d) 165. (c)
166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a)
169. (b) 170. (e) 171. (a)
172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (d)
175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (a)
178. (c) 179. (b) 180. (c)
181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (b)
184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (d)
187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (c)
190. (e) 191. (a) 192. (d)
193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (a)
196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (d)
199. (c) 200. (d) 201. (a)
202. (b) 203. (b) 204. (a)
205. — 206. (b) 207. (b)
208. (b) 209. (d) 210. (a)
211. (a) 212. (a) 213. (b)
214. (d) 215. (e) 216. (b)
217. (a) 218. (e) 219. (b)
220. (c) 221. (b) 222. (b)
223. (d) 224. (d) 225. (d)
226. (c) 227. (d) 228. (d)
229. (b) 230. (d) 231. (e)
232. (e) 233. (e) 234. (a)
235. (c)
CHAPTER 6 CONTROLL SYSTEM ENGINEERING

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b)
4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c)
10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (a)
22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b)

28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a)
40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (a)
43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (c)
52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a)
58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b)
64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (c)
67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b)
70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (a)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b)
76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b)
79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (a)
82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (a)
88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (c)
94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c)
100. (b) 101. (a) 102. (c)
103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (a)
109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (b)
112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (c)
115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (c)
118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d)
124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (c)
127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (b)
130. (c) 131. (b) 132. (a)
133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (c)
136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (b)
139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (a)
142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (a)

145. (e) 146. (a) 147. (a)
148. (c) 149. (a) 150. (b)
151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (d)
154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (c)
157. — 158. (d) 159. (c)
160. (c) 161. (a) 162. (a)
163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (a)
166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (d)
169. (d) 170. (c) 171. (d)
172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (c)
175. (c) 176. (a) 177. (e)
178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (d)
181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (a)
184. (b) 185. (c) 186. (a)
187. (b) 188. (a) 189. (b)
190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (a)
193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (b)
196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (b)
199. (b) 200. (c) 201. (a)
202. (b) 203. (c) 204. (a)
205. (c) 206. (c) 207. (c)
208. (b) 209. (d) 210. (c)
211. (a) 212. (d) 213. (b)
214. (b) 215. (b) 216. (b)
217. (d) 218. (c) 219. (c)
220. (a) 221. (a) 222. (a)
223. (a) 224. (a) 225. (b)
226. (e) 227. (c) 228. (b)
229. (c) 230. (d)
CHAPTER 7 ELECTRONICS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b)
4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d)
10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b)

22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c)
28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a)
34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a)
40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (a)
52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a)
58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a)
64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c)
67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b)
70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (b)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (a) 78. —
79. (c) 80. (c) 81. (b)
82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (c)
85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (a)
88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (b)
94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. — 99. (b)
100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (a)
103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (c)
106. (b) 107. — 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (d)
112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (c)
115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (b)
118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (d)
121. (d) 122. (d) 123. (a)
124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (d)
127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (d)
130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (a)
133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (c)
136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (b)
139. (c) 140. (b) 141. (c)

142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (c)
145. (a) 146. (d) 147. (a)
148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (c) 153. (d)
154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (a)
157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (b)
160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (b)
163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (b)
169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (c)
172. (d) 173. (e) 174. (b)
175. (b) 176. (a) 177. (d)
178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (b)
181. (a) 182. (c) 183. (d)
184. (d) 185. (b) 186. (c)
187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (b)
190. (c) 191. (a) 192. (b)
193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a)
196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (b)
199. (d) 200. (b) 201. (c)
202. (c) 203. (c) 204. (c)
205. (a) 206. (b) 207. (b)
208. (a) 209. (b) 210. (a)
211. (c) 212. (b) 213. (a)
214. (b) 215. (c) 216. (c)
217. (c) 218. (a) 219. (d)
220. (c) 221. (d) 222. (d)
223. (a) 224. (a) 225. (a)
226. (d) 227. (d) 228. (b)
229. (b) 230. (b) 231. (a)
232. (b) 233. (a) 234. (a)
235. (f) 236. (e) 237. (d)
238. (d) 239. (c) 240. (b)
241. (a) 242. (a) 243. (c)
244. (d) 245. (b) 246. (c)
247. (e) 248. (c) 249. (a)
250. (a) 251. (b) 252. (d)
253. (b) 254. (b) 255. (f)
256. (c) 257. (a) 258. (b)
259. (c) 260. (b) 261. (a)

262. (e) 263. (a) 264. (e)
265. (d) 266. (b) 267. (b)
268. (a) 269. (a) 270. (d)
271. (c) 272. (b) 273. (b)
274. (a) 275. (c) 276. (c)
277. (a) 278. (a) 279. (a)
280. (c) 281. (c) 282. (b)
283. (a) 284. (b) 285. (a)
286. (b) 287. (c) 288. (e)
289. (a) 290. (b) 291. (a)
292. (c) 293. (a) 294. (a)
295. (c) 296. (c) 297. (a)
298. (a) 299. (a) 300. (b)
301. (b) 302. (a) 303. (b)
304. (d) 305. (a) 306. (b)
307. (a) 308. (b) 309. (b)
310. (b) 311. (b) 312. (b)
313. (d) 314. (d) 315. (a)
316. (d) 317. (b) 318. (a)
319. (c) 320. (b) 321. (b)
322. (a) 323. (d) 324. (c)
325. (c) 326. (b) 327. (b)
328. (a) 329. (a) 330. (d)
331. (a) 332. (b) 333. (c)
334. (c) 335. (a) 336. (a)
337. (c) 338. (d) 339. (b)
340. (c) 341. (c) 342. (a)
343. (a) 344. (c) 345. (b)
346. (d) 347. (e) 348. (b)
349. (b) 350. (a) 351. (b)
352. (b) 353. (b) 354. (a)
355. (d) 356. (b) 357. (a)
358. (c) 359. (a) 360. (a)
361. (b) 362. (b) 363. (a)
364. (b) 365. (c) 366. (a)
367. (b) 368. (b) 369. (c)
370. (b) 371. (b) 372. (a)
373. (c) 374. (b) 375. (c)
376. (d) 377. (c) 378. (b)
379. (a) 380. (c) 381. (c)

382. (c) 383. (a) 384. (c)
385. (a) 386. (a) 387. (a)
388. (a) 389. (b) 390. (a)
391. (a) 392. (b) 393. (b)
394. (a) 395. (b) 396. (d)
397. (a) 398. (a) 399. (b)
400. (a) 401. (b) 402. (a)
403. (a) 404. (a) 405. (a)
406. (c) 407. (a) 408. (b)
409. (a) 410. (a) 411. (b)
412. (b) 413. (a) 414. (b)
415. (a) 416. (c) 417. (c)
418. (a) 419. (a) 420. (b)
421. (a) 422. (a) 423. (c)
424. (d) 425. (b) 426. (a)
427. (a) 428. (b) 429. (a)
430. (a) 431. (c) 432. (b)
433. (d)
CHAPTER 8 COMPUTER SCIENCE

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c)
4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b)
10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (e)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b)
22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c)
28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c)
34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a)
40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (c)
52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b)

55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c)
58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b)
64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (c)
70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a)
76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (a)
79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (a)
82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (a)
85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d)
88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a)
94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a)
97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (a)
100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (a)
103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a)
106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (d) 110. (b) 111. (d)
112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (a)
115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (c)
118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a)
124. (e) 125. (e) 126. (b)
127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (a)
130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (a)
133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (e)
136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (b)
139. (c) 140. (a) 141. (a)
142. (c) 143. (e) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (d) 147. (b)
148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (b)
154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (c)
157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (a)
160. (b) 161. (b) 162. (b)
163. (e) 164. (a) 165. (b)
166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (e)
169. (d) 170. (b) 171. (a)
172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (b)

175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (a)
178. (c) 179. (e) 180. (a)
181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (b)
184. (b) 185. (f) 186. (a)
187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (d)
190. (b) 191. (b) 192. (c)
193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a)
196. (c) 197. (b)
CHAPTER 9 PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b)
4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c)
10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b)
22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a)
28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c)
34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d)
40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (d)
52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d)
55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (a)
64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (a)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (b)
70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (e)
73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (a)
79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (b)

82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (d)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (c)
88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (a)
94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (a)
100. (c) 101. (b) 102. (a)
CHAPTER 10 INFORMATION AND

BLOCKCHAIN TECHNOLOGY
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d)
4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a)
10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (e) 20. (b) 21. (a)
22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a)
28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b)
40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (e) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a)
52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d)
55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (a)
58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b)
64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d)
67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (c)
70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (a)
CHAPTER 11 SUPERCONDUCTIVITY AND

QUANTUM COMPUTING
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b)
4. (c) 5. (e) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (e)
10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (d)
22. (e) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d)
28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a)
34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d)
40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a)
52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (a)
64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d)
67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d)
70. (a) 71. (e) 72. (e)
73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (c)
82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (b)
85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (c)
CHAPTER 12 SELF-EXAMINATION
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a)
4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b)
10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d)

16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b)
22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b)
28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a)
34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a)
40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a)
52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a)
55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c)
58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c)
64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (c)
67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a)
70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (a)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)
76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c)
79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (c)
82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (c)
85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b)
88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (b)
94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (e) 99. (b)
100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (b)
103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (b)
106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (d)
112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (c)
115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (e)
118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (b)
124. (b) 125. (b) 126. (a)
127. (c) 128. (d) 129. (c)
130. (c) 131. (b) 132. (d)
133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (d)

136. (e) 137. (e) 138. (b)
139. (d) 140. (b) 141. (c)
142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (b)
145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a)
148. (b) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (b)
154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (b)
157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (c)
160. (c) 161. (c) 162. (d)
163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (b)
166. (d) 167. (b) 168. (a)
169. (c) 170. (d) 171. (a)
172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (b)
175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (b)
178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (d)
181. (c) 182. (d) 183. (b)
184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (a)
187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (a)
190. (a) 191. (d) 192. (a)
193. (b) 194. (d) 195. (d)
196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (a)
199. (b) 200. (a) 201. (c)
202. (c) 203. (d) 204. (a)
205. (a) 206. (e) 207. (d)
208. (c) 209. (a) 210. (b)
211. (a) 212. (d) 213. (b)
214. (b) 215. (b) 216. (a)
217. (d) 218. (d) 219. (a)
220. (c) 221. (d) 222. (d)
223. (a) 224. (a) 225. (c)
226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (d)
229. (d) 230. (b) 231. (d)
232. (a) 233. (a) 234. (d)
235. (b) 236. (c) 237. (a)
238. (d) 239. (d) 240. (b)
241. (d) 242. (a) 243. (c)
244. (c) 245. (d) 246. (c)
247. (b) 248. (c) 249. (b)
250. (c)

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ELEC TRICAL

MLI Exam Prep Series

MERCURY LEARNING AND INFORMATION

Original Title and Copyright: Electrical Engineering. ©2014 by Khanna Publishers.

Publisher: David Pallai

Library of Congress Control Number: 2017915454

1. Engineering Mathematics 1–28

Appendix: Answers 417–440

4. The area of a trapezoid above is

7. ∫ sinθ cosθ dθ is equal to (plus a constant)

8. Consider a triangle with sides a, b and c with q between sides a and b

9. Given f ( x ) and g ( x ) are inverse functions

(c) Both (a) and (b)

The function f ( x ) = x exp ( − x ) is

16. The integral ∫x

(c) is equal to 2 ∫ x exp ( − x )dx

(d) is equal to −2 ∫ x exp ( − x )dx

∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

(c) is equal to 2 ∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

(d) is equal to −2 ∫ sin ( x ) exp ( − x )dx

Given E ( x, t ) = A exp ( −α x ) sin (ω t ) where the units of E, x, and t are

(a) a definite integral

28. The dot product ( A − B ) ⋅ ( A − B ) where the angle between A and B is q

(d) answers (a) and (b)

37. If A is the inverse matrix of B then

(a) a local maximum

(a) a local maximum

(a) a local maximum

(c) yziˆ + xzˆj + yzkˆ

(a) 2 xiˆ + 2 yˆj + 2 zkˆ

Given that the Laplace transform of f ( t ) is L  f ( t )  = ∫ e f ( t ) dt the

transform L δ ( t − 1 )  = ∫ e f ( t ) dt is equal to

75. The vector Laplacian of

84. The vector field F ( x, y ) = ( x - y ) iˆ + ( x + y ) ˆj has

(b) open surface integral ∫ F ⋅ nˆ da

(b) open surface integral ∫ F ⋅ nˆ da

89. The expression (1 − cos nπ ) (1 − cos mπ )

93. Subtracting a complex number and its complex conjugate gives

(c) not given by a specific identity

(c) not given by a specific identity

110. Given a vector function F, the curl of the curl ∇ × ( ∇ × F ) is

(d) there is no specific identity

(a) defined the same way as the scalar Laplacian

6. The phase sequence of voltage generated in the alternator can be reversed by

21. The rotation of wound-rotor induction motor can be reversed by

30. The efficiency of D.C. shunt generator is maximum when

37. Interpoles in the armature of a D.C. generator are used

51. The use of the starter in D.C. motors is necessary because

74. The diverter in D.C. machine is basically a potential divider.

89. Which of the following statements is correct?

96. The short-circuit test in the transformer is used to determine

124. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is

where s is the slip and

R2 Resistance of the rotor

174. Which of the following motors is an unexcited single-phase synchronous

182. Which of following statements is correct?

224. Which of the following statements is true?

231. The advantage of using a larger phase mercury-arc rectifier is that

238. The squirrel cage-induction motor has

242. Find the odd man out: Fig. Q. 241.