MCQ:

WEEK 1
Question 1

When data is being prepared for transmission onto the network, it is broken into small pieces and a
header and trailer are added to each piece to help identify it. What is this process called?

a. multitasking b. application c. encapsulation d. verification

Question 2

What is one of the disadvantages of a server-based network compared to a peer-to-peer network?

a. decentralized data access b. difficult to expand c. additional costs d. less secure

Question 3

Which component, located on the motherboard, carries out all the instructions provided by
computer programs?

a. hard drive b. RAM c. CPU d. NIC

Question 4

Every NIC has a unique address that consists of a 12-digit hexadecimal value. What is this address
called?

a. IP address b. subnet mask c. MAC address d. default gateway

Question 5

Which part of the network communication process is responsible for sending and receiving data to
and from the network media?

a. network protocol b. user application c. network interface d. network software

Question 6

Which of the following are examples of output devices? (Choose all that apply.)

Select one or more:

a. speakers b. monitor c. keyboard d. printer e. CPU

Question 7

The XYZ company has two offices, one in Chicago, and a brand new office in Pittsburgh. To connect
the two offices, they will need a dedicated line, probably leased from the phone company. What
type of network will they be implementing to connect their two offices?

a. WAN b. SAN c. LAN d. PAN

Question 8

Which of the following characteristics is associated with a peer-to-peer network?

Select one or more:

a. Decentralized data storage b. Uses a directory service

c. User-managed resources d. Inexpensive e. Centralized control

Question 9

A network that has locations in different countries is considered a WAN.

True False

Question 10

Each component of a computer is designed to perform only one specific task-either input,
processing, or output.

True False

Question 11

What makes a computer a "server" is the fact that it has a server operating system installed on it.

True False

Question 12

Air waves are an example of what type of network component?

a. interconnecting device b. Network Interface Card

c. network medium d. network protocol

Question 13

Which component manages the details of communicating with the NIC hardware to send and
receive data to and from network media?

a. network interface b. client c. network protocol d. device driver

Question 14

What is one of the disadvantages of a peer-to-peer network compared to a server-based network?

a. limited security b. more expensive

c. more difficult to setup and install d. higher administration costs

Question 15

In order to find out your MAC address, you should open a command prompt and type ipconfig /all.

True False
Question 16

Using the physical mail analogy, what part of an address on an envelope is most like the IP address?

a. MAC address b. Recipient name c. Street address d. Zip code

Question 17

Which of the following are examples of input devices? (Choose all that apply.)

Select one or more:

a. keyboard b. printer c. scanner d. mouse e. monitor

WEEK 2
Question 1

The function of a repeater is to extend the range of an existing network.

True False

Question 2

In network communication, the ______________ address is used to deliver a frame to the correct
computer on the network.

Select one or more:

a. IP b. Physical c. MAC d.Logical

Question 3

Just as a switch keeps records of MAC addresses that it has learned, so does your computer. What
protocol does your computer use to learn MAC addresses?

a. DHCP b. ICMP c. IP d.ARP

Question 4

What does a switch store in its switching table?

a. the destination IP address of a frame and the port it was received on

b. the destination MAC address of a frame and the port it was received on

c. the source MAC address of a frame and the port it was received on

d. the source IP address of a frame and the port it was received on

Question 5

If a router receives a packet and it does not have an entry in its routing table for the destination
network, it will send the packet to its default route, if configured.

True False
Question 6

A MAC address is composed of two 24-bit numbers. What does the first 24-bit number represent?

a. It's a unique serial number assigned by the manufacturer

b. It's the organizationally unique identifier

c. It's the address it uses for a multicast packet

d. It's the decryption key used for security purposes

Question 7

A wireless access point is most like which other network device, in that all computers send signals
through it to communicate with other computers?

a. modem b. switch c. router d. hub

Question 8

Before a computer can transmit data on a wireless network in some cases, it must send What type of
signal to the AP?

a. DNS b. ARP c. RTS d. CTS

Question 9

How does a switch "learn" MAC addresses?

a. All the MAC addresses must be entered manually.

b. The switch comes loaded with the most frequently used addresses.

c. The switch uses a mathematical formula to determine what the MAC address would be for each
computer connected to it.

d. It reads the source address and keeps a record of which port the sending computer is on

Question 10

What component of the computer provides it with a MAC address?

a. motherboard b. CPU c. NIC d. BIOS

Question 11

Routers do not forward broadcast packets.

True False

Question 12

When a NIC is in "promiscuous" mode, it will process only the frames in which the destination MAC
address matches its own MAC address.

True False
Question 13

What does a switch do if it doesn't find the destination MAC address in its switching table?

a. Discards the frame b. Sends and error to the sending device

c. It forwards the frame to all ports d. Sends an ARP to learn the MAC address

Question 14

What is a frame called that is intended for only one individual computer?

a. anycast b. multicast c. unicast d. broadcast

Question 15

What does it usually mean when the activity light on a switch is blinking?

a. It is ready to receive data b. It is malfunctioning

c. A collision is imminent d. Network activity is detected

Question 16

What is the purpose of the default route?

a. It's a route set by Microsoft so that all information comes to their servers first.

b. It serves as a guideline for how to configure routes.

c. It's a route that all routers use to get to the Internet

d. It's where the router sends all packets with destinations of which it has no knowledge.

Question 17

The unit of information containing MAC addresses and an error-checking code that’s processed by
the network interface layer is called a _________.

a. Chunk b. Frame c. Packet d. Ping

Question 18

The SSID is configured on which of the following so that it can be distinguished from other available
wireless networks?

a. router b. switch c. repeater d. access point

WEEK 3
Question 1

What is the media access method used by Ethernet?

a. CSMA/CD b. Polling c. CSMA/CA d. Token passing

Question 2

When discussing Ethernet standards, what does the XBaseY terminology refer to?

a. the length or type of cabling, the transmission speed, and the type of transmissions

b. the transmission speed, the length or type of cabling, and the type of transmissions

c. the length or type of cabling, the type of transmissions, and the transmission speed

d. the transmission speed, the type of transmissions, and the length or type of cabling

Question 3

In wireless networks, what type of media access control is used?

a. Token passing b. CSMA/CD c. Polling d. CSMA/CA

Question 4

What is a result of absorption on Wi-Fi signals?

a. multipath b. reflection c. amplification d. attenuation

Question 5

What is the IEEE standard governing wireless networking?

a. 802.3 b. 802.3ab c. 802.5 d. 802.11

Question 6

What is in an Ethernet frame's trailer?

a. destination MAC address

b. source MAC address

c. cyclic redundancy check

d. frame payload

Question 7

Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Ethernet?

a. 802.11 b. 802.3 c. 802.4 d. 802.5 e. 802.2Question 8

Which of the following is true about full-duplex Ethernet?

Select one or more:

a. Stations can transmit and receive but not at the same time.

b. It's possible only with switches.

c. Collision detection is turned off.

d. It allows a physical bus to operate much faster.

Question 9

A collision can occur on a switch only if the switch is operating in full-duplex mode.

True False

Question 10

When a wireless computer uses a peer-to-peer connection to directly connect to another wireless
computer, it is operating in what mode?

a. Wi-Fi b. ad hoc c. hot spot d. infrastructure

Question 11

When discussing Ethernet standards, what does the XBaseY terminology refer to?

a. the transmission speed, the type of transmissions, and the length or type of cabling

b. the transmission speed, the length or type of cabling, and the type of transmissions

c. the length or type of cabling, the transmission speed, and the type of transmissions

d. the length or type of cabling, the type of transmissions, and the transmission speed

Question 12

Which of the following is a field of the most common Ethernet frame type?

Select one or more:

a. Data b. MAC Type c. Destination MAC Address d. FCS e. ARP trailer

WEEK 4
Question 1

Which of the following is a function of the Internetwork layer?

a. Authentication b. Provide a physical address

c. Break data into segments d. Deliver packets efficiently

Question 2

Which of the following protocols resolves logical addresses to physical addresses?

a. DNS b. TCP c. ARP d. IP e. DHCP

Question 3

After the Internetwork layer places its header on a datagram, what is the unit of information is
referred to?
a. packet b. frame c. segment d. data

Question 4

Which term refers to stripping header information as a PDU (Protocol Data Unit) is passed from one
layer to a higher layer?

a. Decapsulation b. PDU stripping c. Packetisation d. Encapsulation

Question 5

Which of the following is a function of the Application layer?

a. Routes packets through an internetwork

b. Provides frame error detection in the form of a CRC code

c. Protects data with a checksum

d. Data formatting and translation

Question 6

What does TCP use to provide flow control?

a. window size b. SYN c. Sequence number d. Segments

Question 7

In which layer does Ethernet operate?

a. Application b. Internetwork c. Transport d. Network Access

Question 8

If you want a computer to be assigned the same IP address each time an address is assigned, what
DHCP option should you configure?

a. Reservation b. Exclusion c. Scope d. Gateway

Question 9

TCP establishes a connection with the destination device using which process?

a. windowing b. flow control c. encapsulation d. three-way handshake

Question 10

IPX/SPX is considered the protocol suite of the Internet, and it is the most widely used protocol suite
in LANs.

True False

Question 11

Which TCP/IP model layer takes a large chunk of data from the Application layer and breaks it into
smaller segments?
a. Transport b. Network access c. Application d. Internetwork

Question 12

The Internetwork layer includes ICMP and ARP, among other protocols within the TCP/IP suite.

True False

Question 13

Which of the following is a feature of TCP? (Choose all that apply.)

Select one or more:

a. provides data-formatting services b. ensures flow control

c. converts signals into bits d. establishes a connection

e. segments data into chunks

Question 14

DNS is a protocol that automatically provides a computer with its IP address configuration.

True False

Question 15

The first packet in the four-packet exchange between a DHCP client and server is the DHCPRequest.

True False

Question 16

The Transport layer deals with which unit of information?

a. frame b. segment c. signal d. packet

Question 17

In which layer does a router operate?

a. Transport b. Internetwork c. Application d. Network Access

Question 18

What is the first segment in the three-way handshake?

a. Discover b. Reset c. SYN d. ACK

Question 19

What are you likely to find in a DNS zone?

a. MAC address-IP address pairs b. hostname-IP address pairs

c. IP address-scope pairs d. FQDN-MAC address pairs

WEEK 5
Question 1

When using TCP/IP, which of the following must computers on the same logical network have in
common?

Select one or more:

a. Host ID b. Network ID c. Computer name d. Subnet Mask

Question 2

What is the decimal equivalent to the binary number 11100000?

a. 224 b. 196 c. 98 d. 160

Question 3

How many host addresses are available on a Class C network?

a. 65536 b. 254 c. 256 d. 65534

Question 4

An IP address consists of four octets separated by periods. Which part of this address denotes its
class?

a. first octet b. third octet c. second octet d. fourth octet

Question 5

If your orginal network address with prefix is 172.16.0.0/16, what should your new network address
with prefix be if you need 16 subnets?

a. 172.16.16.0/16 b. 172.16.0.0/28 c. 172.16.0.0/24 d. 172.16.0.0/20

Question 6

Which address can’t be assigned to a host computer?

a. 192.168.100.66/26 b. 172.16.7.255/22 c. 10.100.44.16/24 d. 172.29.132.0/18

Question 7

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10000001 is 133.

True False

Question 8

An IP address is composed of 48 bits that are grouped together into 8-bit octets and are represented
by a decimal number from 0 to 255.

True False
Question 9

Which IP addressing process enables workstations to use private IP addresses to access the Internet?

a. NAT b. Subnetting c. Supernetting d. DHCP

Question 10

The subnet mask of an IP address does which of the following?

a. Provides encryption in a TCP/IP network

b. Defines network and host portions of an IP address

c. Allows automated IP address configuration

d. Allows users to use a computer’s name rather than its address

Question 11

What is the binary number system based on?

a. powers of 2 b. powers of 16 c. powers of 4 d. powers of 10

Question 12

Which IP address expressed in CIDR notation has the subnet mask 255.255.255.0?

a. 172.29.111.201/18 b. 172.16.88.222/16

c. 192.168.100.1/26 d. 10.100.44.123/24

Question 13

Which of the following IPv6 features is an enhancement to IPv4?

Select one or more:

a. Larger address space

b. Works at the Internetwork and Transport layers

c. Connectionless communication

d. Built-in security

Question 14

Which IP address is a Class C address?

a. 177.14.23.19 b. 225.100.149.20 c. 125.88.1.66 d. 193.19.101.11

WEEK 6
Question 1

Which of the following is true of a hub?

Select one or more:

a. Usually has four or more ports

b. Works with MAC addresses

c. Transmits regenerated signals to all connected ports

d. Usually has just two ports

Question 2

What information is found in a routing table?

a. MAC addresses and ports b. Network addresses and interfaces

c. IP addresses and MAC addresses d. Computer names and IP addresses

Question 3

If you don’t want wireless clients to view the name of your wireless network, what feature should
you use?

a. AP Isolation b. MAC Filtering c. Disabling SSID broadcasts d. WEP

Question 4

Communications through a router are noticeably faster than communications through a switch.

True False

Question 5

Which of the following is not a function that would be found in a managed switch?

a. the ability to transfer it's switching table with neighboring switches

b. to limit access to the network by enabling security on individual ports

c. the ability to stop switching loops using STP

d. the creation of VLANS to logically separate resources

Question 6

Which of the following describe the function of routers?

Select one or more:

a. Attach computers to the inter-network

b. Work with packets and IP addresses

c. Forward frames from one network to another

d. Connect LANS

Question 7

You have two eight-port switches. On each switch, seven stations are connected to ports, and the
two switches are connected with the eighth port. How many collisions domains are there?

a. 8 b. 14 c. 16 d. 15 e. 1

Question 8

Which of the following is a Layer 3 device?

Select one or more:

a. NIC b. Router c. Multilayer switch d. Switch

Question 9

Which switching method reads a minimum of 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame before forwarding the
frame?

a. auto-negotiate b. fragment-free c. store-and-forward d. cut-through

Question 10

Which of the following would be found in a routing table on a router? (Choose all that apply.)

Select one or more:

a. MAC address b. destination network c. timestamp d. metric e. next hop

Question 11

Which of the following combinations will you find in a switching table?

a. IP address/exit interface b. application/destination port number

c. MAC address/switch port number d. destination network/next Hop

Question 12

Which is the strongest form of wireless security?

a. IGP b. WPA2 c. WEP d. RADIUS

Question 13

Each interface on a router must have an IP address and what else to be able to communicate on the
network?

a. MAC address b. network ID c. serial number d. default gateway

Question 14

Changing the SSID on the access point and disabling SSID broadcast is sufficient security for most
wireless networks.

True False

Question 15

Which of the following is the fastest switching mode?

a. cut-through b. fragment-free c. store-and-forward d. auto-negotiate

Question 16

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the function of a switch?

Select one:

a. Each port on a switch represents a separate collision domain.

b. It sends broadcast frames out all connected ports.

c. It determines the path used based on the destination IP address.

d. Switches have the ability to operate in full-duplex mode.

Question 17

Which of the following is needed if a computer with the IP address 172.31.210.10/24 wants to
communicate with a computer with the IP address 172.31.209.122/24?

a. Hub b. Switch c. Server d. Router

Question 18

All network switches require substantial configuration before they can be put into operation in a
network.

True False

Question 19

The time it takes for all the routing tables on every router in a network to be fully updated, either
when a change occurs or according to a schedule, is called the speed of what?

a. delivery b. convergence c. concurrence d. congestion

WEEK 7
Question 1

What is the local loop, or last mile?

a. cable between the customer premise equipment and a PC

b. the connection used between central offices

c. the connection between the demarcation point and the CO

d. a line used by ISPs for testing T-carrier signals.

Question 2

Which term best describes the place in a WAN connection where the customer’s responsibility ends,
and the provider’s responsibility begins?

a. Demarcation point b. Central Office

c. Data circuit-terminating equipment d. CPE

Question 3

Which of the following is a device used to make WAN connections?

(Choose all that apply.)

Select one or more:

a. Ethernet Repeater b. CSU/DSU c. Router d. 10BaseT hub

Question 4

Which of the following terms describes the category of cloud computing in which a customer
develops applications using development tools and infrastructure provided by the service provider?

a. Infrastructure as a service b. Platform as a service

c. Software as a service d. Network as a service

Question 5

Which cloud computing category refers to the use of software hosted on a service provider's
network, and is usually subscription based?

a. Software as a service b. Infrastructure as a service

c. Platform as a service d. Networking as a service

Question 6

Which cloud computing category allows a company to quickly provision additional disk space?

a. hosted infrastructure b. hosted platforms

c. hosted networking d. hosted applications

Question 7

A router is considered to be a CSU/DSU.

True False

Question 8

When would you most likely NOT choose to use a leased line connection?

a. when fast upstream as well as downstream communications is required

b. for mission critical applications

c. when a nondedicated link is needed for backups

d. when high-quality, 24/7 access is needed

Question 9

The plain old telephone service is a good example of what kind of WAN technology?

a. VPN over Internet b. circuit switched c. leased line d. packet switched

WEEK 8
Question 1

What type of wiring should be used for a high-speed connection between two buildings?

a. UTP cabling b. coaxial cabling c. STP cabling d. fiber-optic cabling

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT one of the main differences between the types of network cabling?

a. the speed at which the signal can be sent b. the ability to send and receive signals

c. the distance that a signal can travel d. the type of signal that the media can transmit

Question 3

What is the maximum cable length for both category 5e and category 6 UTP cable?

a. 20 m b. 1000 m c. 10 m d. 100 m

Question 4

The space between a false ceiling and the true ceiling where heating and cooling air circulates is
called the ______________.

a. duct-equivalent airspace b. plenum c. return air d. conduit

Question 5

Which access method does Wi-Fi use?

a. CSMA/CA b. CSMA/CD c. Token bus d. Demand priority

Question 6

Each cable type can transport data at a particular speed only so far before its signals begin to
weaken past the point that a receiving station can read them accurately What is the term for this
phenomenon?

a. electromagnetic interference b. crosstalk

c. attenuation d. radio frequency interference

Question 7

Which of the following is the purpose of an SSID?

a. Assigns an address to a wireless NIC

b. Acts as a unique name for a local area connection

c. Identifies a wireless network

d. Acts as a security key for securing a network

Question 8

Which type of interference is caused by wires in the same cabling bundle?

a. eavesdropping b. RFI c. attenuation d. crosstalk

Question 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cabling?

Select one or more:

a. Can be used in electrically noisy environments

b. Requires only a single strand of fiber for network connections

c. Carries data over longer distances than UTP

d. Lower bandwidth capability

Question 10

Which type of wireless technology bounces transmissions off walls and ceilings to deliver signals
from sender to receiver and is often used with TV remotes?

a. scatter infrared b. laser c. microwave d. narrowband radio

Question 11

Which of the following conditions requires cables not to exceed a recommended maximum length?

a. Diminution b. Attenuation c. Capacitance d. Bandwidth

Question 12

Which UTP limitations can be solved by fiber-optic cable?

Select one or more:

a. Bandwidth b. Installation cost c. EMI susceptibility d. Segment length

Question 13

Which of the following is a length of cable that connects a computer to either a networking device or
to an RJ-45 jack?

a. patch cable b. backbone cable c. patch panel d. cable segment

Question 14

Which of the following connections might require a crossover cable?

a. switch to switch b. switch to computer c. router to switch d. hub to computer

Question 15

There are two basic categories of physical cabling used in Ethernet networks. They are copper wire
and fiber optic.

True False

Question 16

What are all of the connections in a network considered, including the cables and their connectors?

a. work area b. cable plant c. horizontal wiring d. telecommunications closet

Question 17

Which of the following is a common characteristic of a networking medium?

Select one or more:

a. Broadband rating b. Interference susceptibility

c. Bandwidth rating d. Maximum segment length

Question 18

What type of wireless technology is used for 802.11b networks?

a. narrowband radio b. laser c. spread-spectrum radio d. infrared

Question 19

Because fiber-optic cabling uses light pulses instead of electrical signals, it is immune to interference
and highly resistant to eavesdropping.

True False
Question 20

Which of the following is UTP susceptible to?

Select one or more:

a. LEDs b. Crosstalk c. EMI d. Signal enhancement

WEEK 9
Question 1

Which layer has been subdivided into the Logical Link Control sublayer and the Media Access Control
sublayer?

a. Network b. Data Link c. Transport d. Physical

Question 2

Which layer is responsible for determining the best path a packet should travel across an
internetwork?

a. Session b. Transport c. Data Link d. Network

Question 3

What is the IEEE standard that governs all forms of Ethernet media and interfaces?

a. 802.2 b. 802.11 c. 802.3 d. 802.15

Question 4

What information would you find in the header of a Transport layer PDU?

a. window size b. destination IP address

c. source MAC address d. cyclic redundancy check

Question 5

The Transport layer segments data into smaller chunks, the size of which is determined by which of
the following?

a. LLC b. MTU c. TCP d. PDU

Question 6

One job that a router performs is that of gatekeeper, which means that it can be configured to only
allow certain packets access into the network based on a list of rules. What is that process called?

a. media control b. packet forwarding c. signal bounce d. access control

Question 7

What layer is responsible for making sure that the data that it sends and receives is in a format that
the receiving and sending computers can understand?

Select one:

a. 7 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5

Question 8

The Network layer communicates with the Data Link layer and the Session layer.

True False

Question 9

At what layer do NICs operate?

a. Network b. Data Link c. Transport d. Physical

Question 10

The Physical layer has been divided into two sublayers, called the LLC sublayer and the MAC
sublayer.

True False

Question 11

At which layer would you find errors that were caused by EMI?

a. Transport b. Network c. Data Link d. Physical

Question 12

What is a PDU?

a. It is a Network layer protocol that handles path determination

b. It is a unit of measurement for the maximum amount of data that can be transferred.

c. It is the name given to the unit of information used by each layer.

d. It is an Application layer protocol that handles delivery of messages.

Question 13

Which layer is responsible for determining the best path a packet should travel across an
internetwork?

a. Transport b. Session c. Network d. Data Link

Question 14

How can you find out what your MAC address is?

Select one or more:

a. Open a command prompt and type the command arp -d.

b. Open a command prompt and type the command ipconfig /all.

c. Right-click on the Local Area Connection and choose status.

d. Open a command prompt and type the command getmac.

Question 15

Which is the IEEE standard that sets the standards for wireless networking?

a. 802.15 b. 802.16 c. 802.11 d. 802.3

Question 16

One of the problems that can occur in the Network layer is the incorrect configuration of a hosts IP
address.

True False

Question 17

The maximum transmission unit for Ethernet is 1518 bytes.

True False

Question 18

At each layer of the OSI model, data is appended to the original message and then sent on to the
next lower layer. What is this process called?

a. encapsulation b. checkpointing c. packetization d. deencapsulation

Question 19

What does the Transport layer use to make sure that a message is reassembled correctly on the
receiving device?

a. window Size b. sequence number c. destination port number d. source port number
WEEK 10
Question 1

What is an advantage of a point-to-point topology?

a. provides redundancy and fault tolerance b. relatively inexpensive

c. data travels on a dedicated link d. a reliable and fast backbone

Question 2

In a physical bus topology, both ends of the medium must be terminated in order to prevent what?

a. signal propagation b. signal bounce c. collision d. signal degradation

Question 3

What is a result of absorption on Wi-Fi signals?

a. reflection b. attenuation c. multipath d. amplification

Question 4

In which topology does a central device communicate with two or more other devices and is used in
WANs where a main office has connections to several branch offices via a router?

a. switched b. logical star c. logical bus d. Point-to-multipoint

Question 5

What type of logical topology is at work when using an Ethernet hub?

a. logical ring b. logical bus c. switched topology d. hierarchical topology

Question 6

A network's logical topology often depends on the central device's electronics.

True False

Question 7

In a token ring network, what is the central device called?

a. multiport Ethernet switch b. multistation access unit

c. multiservice switch d. multisession drive

Question 8

A point-to-point topology is typically used for WAN connections or wireless bridges.

True False

Question 9

What is the most common topology and technology combination in use today?

a. logical bus / wireless LAN b. switched / Ethernet

c. logical bus / Ethernet d. logical ring / token ring

Question 10

When a wireless computer uses a peer-to-peer connection to directly connect to another wireless
computer, it is operating in what mode?

a. infrastructure b. hot spot c. ad hoc d. Wi-Fi

WEEK 11
Question 1

How many bits are in an IPv6 address?

a. 64 b. 32 c. 48 d. 128

Question 2

The last 64 bits of an IPv6 address are the interface identifier. What is frequently used to specify the
interface identifier?

Select one:

a. an ARP broadcast b. the IP address c. a DHCP server d. the MAC address

Question 3

Which of the following are solutions to the shortage of available IPv4 addresses? (Choose all that
apply.)

Select one or more:

a. NAT b. private addressing c. IPv6 d. supernetting e. subnetting

Question 4

What is the hexadecimal number F equal to in binary?

a. 1111 b. 1011 c. 0011 d. 1001

Question 5

What is the decimal equivalent to the hexadecimal number D?

a. 15 b. 12 c. 13 d. 10

Question 6

How many bits are available in an IPv6 network for creating subnets when the prefix is /48 and the
host ID is 64 bits?

a. 32 b. 48 c. 16 d. 64

Question 7

IPv6 addresses are written as 12 16-bit hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.

True False
SHORT ANSWERS
WEEK-1
1) What is a peer-to-peer network, and what are it's advantages and disadvantages?
A peer-to-peer network is a collection of computers in which each computer can act
as a client or a server, or both, and each has equal authority. Advantages of a peer-
to-peer network are that it is easy to install, is relatively inexpensive to implement,
doesn't require extensive training or special staff, and the lose of a single machine
will not cripple the network. Disadvantages include lack of security, difficult to locate
resources, reduced performance when computer is acting as server, and limitation
on the number of users.
2) What is a server-based network, and what are it's advantages and disadvantages?
ADVANTAGE

(1) Higher level of security

(2) Highly scalable due to (a) use of a common database to store network
management information and (b) ability of network operating system software to
support large complex networks

(3) Supports a wider range of network based applications due to the ability of NOS
to provide more extensive support to these applications

DISADVANTAGE

(1) Cost of the hardware (network server) and software (network operating system)

(2) Complex to install and maintain

(3) Specialized expertise is required to manage client/server based networks

3) What is the difference between a LAN and a WAN?

-LAN over short distances / WAN over geographically remote distances
-LAN hardwired or short range wireless / WAN tends to use third party communication links
-LAN more secure / WAN subject to attack
-LAN require no extra communication device / WAN requires modem
-LAN is hard wired or wireless from central point/WAN tends to use external
communications
4) What is the difference between a client operating system and a server operating system?

A client operating system is designed mainly to run user applications like a word processor or
spreadsheet program and to access network resources like file servers or the Internet. A server
operating system is designed to provide clients with access to network resources such as directory
services, shared files, and e-mail.
 5) What is the difference between an intranet and an extranet?

INTRANET EXTRANET
An intranet is unique to an organization Extranet is for individuals or group of
or group of people who work together personnel who want to send private
at a place information
Private intermediately Extremely Private
Independent yet dependent on internet Dependent on internet and intranet
Firewall it can have Yes is have firewall.

6) What is the difference between short-term storage and long-term storage?

Data that is stored in short-term storage is completely erased when the computer is powered off.
When the computer is turned back on, there is no trace of any previous data. The computer
transfers programs and files into this short-term storage to make it readily available for the CPU.
Long-term storage retains its data even when no power is applied to the computer. Long-term
storage is where programs and files are stored.

WEEK 2
1) What are the key differences between a switch and a router?
Routers are used to connect LANs together. A switch is used to connect computers and
other devices together to form a LAN. Routers are intelligent just like a switch, but routers
deal with IP addresses instead of MAC addresses and packets instead of frames. Switches
forward broadcast messages to all devices on a LAN, but routers separate LANs so they do
not forward broadcast messages.

2) What are the major differences between a hub and a switch?

The major difference is that switches are intelligent. They examine each frame that they
receive for the destination MAC address and then send the frame out the correct port for that
address. A hub simply accepts a frame from one of its ports and then sends it out all ports. A switch
also keeps a table of MAC addresses so that it knows where to send a frame. Because a switch can
control where it sends a frame, devices that are connected to a switch can communicate at the same
time, allowing each device to access the full network bandwidth. With a hub, only one device can
transmit at a time so the bandwidth is shared among all connected devices. Also, because a switch
controls the flow of frames, there is little chance of a collision. In a hub, collisions might occur
frequently when under heavy use.
 3) What are the major tasks that a NIC performs?

A NIC, along with its driver, provides your computer with a connection to the network
medium. When a NIC receives a packet from the network protocol, it encapsulates the
packet with the source and destination in a new header and the CRC in a trailer. Then it
converts the frame into bits and sends it to the network medium. When the NIC receives a
message, it does the reverse, converts the bits into a frame. Then the NIC checks the
destination MAC to make sure that it is the same as its own or a broadcast address. It then
removes the header and trailer and sends the packet on up to the network protocol.

WEEK 3

1) Describe the structure of an Ethernet frame.

The basic structure of an ethernet frame is it has a header which contains information about
source, destination MAC address, the middle part of the frame is where the actual data is
stored at the end of a frame a field called Frame Check Sequence exists. The Ethernet frame
structure is defined in the IEEE 802.3 standard.

2) List five common types of Wi-Fi signal interference.

Absorption – solid objects absorb radio signals, causing them to attenuate (weaken)

Refraction – the bending of a radio signal as it passes from a medium of one density through
a medium of a different density

Diffraction – the altering of a wave as it tries to bend around an object

Reflection – occurs when a signal hits a dense, reflective material, resulting in signal loss

Scattering – when a signal changes direction in unpredictable ways, causing a loss in signal
strength

3) What is CSMA/CD and how does it work?

This is built-in to hubs and is responsible for responding to network collisions. When
CSMA/CD senses a collision, it sends out a jam signal that instructs all host on the
collision domain to stop transmitting. The jam signal also includes a random number
letting the host know when it can transmit again.

WEEK 4

1) Briefly describe ARP, include the meaning of its acronym and the layer in which it functions.

ARP stands for Address Resolution Protocol, and it functions in the Internetwork layer. ARP's
job is to find the MAC address of a device given its IP address
 2) What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
- Transmission Control Protocol
- connection-oriented protocol, a connection can be made from client to server, and from
then on any data can be sent along that connection.
- when you send a message along this protocol's socket, you know it will get there unless
the connection fails completely. If it gets lost along the way, the server will re-request
the lost part. This means complete integrity, things don't get corrupted.
- if you send two messages along a connection, one after the other, you know the first
message will get there first. You don't have to worry about data arriving in the wrong
order.
- when the low level parts of the this protocol "stream" arrive in the wrong order, resend
requests have to be sent, and all the out of sequence parts have to be put back together,
so requires a bit of work to piece together.

UDP
- User Datagram Protocol
- A simpler message-based connectionless protocol. With this protocol, you send
messages(packets) across the network in chunks.
- When you send a message, you don't know if it'll get there, it could get lost on the way.
- If you send two messages out, you don't know what order they'll arrive in.
- No ordering of messages, no tracking connections, etc. It's just fire and forget! This
means it's a lot quicker, and the network card / OS have to do very little work to
translate the data back from the packets.

3) What is the function of DNS, and at which layer does it operate?

The DNS is the Domain Name System. It translates the names into IP addresses and provides
a list of mail servers for emails. The DNS operates as an application layer protocol.

WEEK 5

1) Briefly describe an IP address.

An IP address connects with the network to assign itself on the network. An IP address will
be given to every device that utilizes the network to give it an identity when connecting to
the source of connection like a router.

2) How does a computer know when to send packets to the default gateway?
The only way to know is by consulting the subnet mask. Computers determine the network
ID by doing a logical AND operation between its IP address and subnet mask. This tells
computers whether or not they are on the same network. If Computer 2 is on a different
network than Computer 1, then Computer 1 knows that the packet must be sent to the
default gateway.
3) List and describe three improvements that IPv6 has over IPv4.

IPv6 has a larger address space, a hierarchal address space, autoconfiguration, built-in
quality of service (QoS) support, built-in support for security, support for mobility, and
extensibility.
 4) Discuss Network Address Translation (NAT).

NAT stands for network address translation. The NAT protocol is used when connecting
multiple devices on internal private networksto a public network such as the Internet using a
limited number of public IPv4 addresses. It was originally designed for conserving IPv4
address space because the IPv4 address space is not big enough to uniquely identify all
devices that need Internet connectivity. typically NAT is used when a private IP address
needs to be routed in a public network, let's say internet. but it could also be used when
there is an overlap between intranets.

WEEK 6

1) Why should you change the SSID on your wireless router?

The SSID is always set to a default value by the manufacturer. These SSIDs, along with their
passwords, are readily available on the Internet. It is best to change the SSID as a
preventative measure to help strengthen your security.
2) Discuss the function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP).
The Spanning Tree Protocol is used to detect whether there is a possibility of a switching
loop caused by redundant paths. If a loop is possible, it places one of the ports in blocking
mode to prevent it.
3) Switches receive a frame on one port and forward out another port with a variety of
methods. Name and describe three switching methods.
Frame Forwarding.
1) Cut-through Switching - Simplest and fastest frame forwarding method. The switch
reads only enough of the incoming frame to determine the frame's source and
destination addresses. After the forwarding location is determined, the frame is
switched internally from the incoming port to the outgoing port, and the switch is free
to handle additional frames. The switch indiscriminately forwards frames containing
errors, so it ties up bandwidth needlessly with frames that will be discarded.
2) Store-and-forward switching - Frame forwarding method that requires that the switch
reads the entire frame into buffers before forwarding it. the switch first examines the
frame's frame check sequence field to make sure it contains no errors before it's
forwarded. If an error is found, the switch discards the frame. Conserves bandwidth
when many frames contain errors.
3) Fragment-free-switching - the switch reads enough of the frame to guarantee that it's at
least the minimum size for the network type. A network error that means the frame is
damaged because of Collison or a malfunctioning device, such as a NIC of hub.
4) What is a broadcast storm?
A broadcast storm is a switching loop that occurs with broadcast frames.
WEEK 7

1) Discuss Cloud Computing, what are the advantages and disadvantages? Name and describe
the three main Cloud Computing categories.

The delivery of computing service over a network/internet. Services include infrastructure

(servers, storage devices), development platforms, and software apps. Cloud refers to data
centers located around the world that house hardware that offer cloud services.

ADVANTAGE

Less expensive, fewer staff people with greater focus and more time, increased
agility/scalability, remote access, disaster recovery, easier to use, improved service and
performance.

DISADVANTAGE

Downtime (network availability is an issue), device security, data integrity,

privacy/confidentiality of data, compliance.

THREE MAIN TYPES:

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) can be defined as...

Cloud computing service where providers supply servers (physical computers/virtual

machines), block storage, networking components.. all are pooled to provide on demand
access. Some degree of customization for users. Providers are responsible for the
equipment, customers are responsible for the apps running on the equipment.

Platform-as-a-service can be defined as...

supplies an environment where software developers can build and deliver web-based
applications/services over the internet.

Software-as-a-service can be defined as...

A cloud computing service where providers host software apps and the data stored in them.
NO part of the software resides in the users computer. Accessible via internet, and typically
based off subscription which replaces the need for licenses.

2) What is multiplexing, and where is it used?

Multiplexing is a method by which multiple analogue message signals or digital data streams
are combined into one signal over a shared medium. The purpose is to share an expensive
resource. For example, in telecommunications, several telephone calls may be carried using
one wire.
WEEK 8

1) What are the benefits of fiber-optic cabling?

Totally immune to EMI (electromagnetic interference)
Highly resistant to eaves dropping
Supports extremely high data transmission rates
allows greater cable distances without a repeater
2) What are the benefits of installing a wireless network?
We do not have to be present at a place to be able to connect to the network wireless
network gives up freedom and allows more devices to be connected at a time there would
be no wiring and no maintenance costs as well as more space would be available. Two or
more networks could be connected to the same network by means of a VLAN. We could
communicate while on the move. We could easily extend a wireless network by means of
equipment’s.
3) List and explain four criteria you should consider when choosing physical network media
such as twisted-pair, coaxial or fiber-optic.
We have to consider the speed of cabling fiber is faster, cost of fiber is more,
Electromagnetic MI subject to coaxial, Radio frequency interference subjected to fiber,
distance at which cable would transfer, ease of installation, maintenance cost, testability,
fiber is more flexible, and security

4) When would you use a straight-through cable and when would you use a crossover?
Straight- through cable - are used to connect unlike devices, such as computers to hubs or
switches. All wire pairs are in the same order at each end of the cable. A straight-through
cable is also commonly known as a patch cable.
Crossover cables - are used to connect like devices, such as device to device, switch to
switch, or router to router. In a crossover cable, the transmit conductor at one end is
connected to the receive conductor at the other, allowing both devices to communicate
simultaneously.

WEEK 9

1) List the layers of the OSI model from the top down, along with their counterparts in the
TCP/IP model.
Application—Application
Presentation—Application
Session—Application
Transport—Transport
Network—Internetwork
Data Link—Network Access
Physical—Network Access
OSI Model
The OSI model consists of seven different layers that are labeled from 1 through 7; Figure 1 shows a
representation of the OSI model:

Figure 1 OSI Model

The Physical Layer (Layer 1)

Layer 1 of the OSI model is named the physical layer because it is responsible for the transmission and
reception of wire level data. For example, the physical layer is where it is dictated how bits are represented
across a specific networking medium. Regardless of whether the networking medium is electrical or optical
in construction, the physical layer handles how data is physically encoded and decoded; examples of this
would include whether a specific voltage on an electrical medium represents a 1 or 0 or another example
would be how a light received at a specific wavelength would be interpreted. Standards examples include
IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet), IEEE 802.11 (Wireless Ethernet) and Synchronous optical networking (SONET)
among others.

The Data Link Layer (Layer 2)

Layer 2 of the OSI model is named the data link layer and is responsible for link establishment and
termination, frame traffic control, sequencing, acknowledgement, error checking, and media access
management. The most familiar standards used at the data link layer include IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet) Media
Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayers. The LLC acts as an interface between the
physical layer and the MAC sublayer, and the MAC sublayer provides the ability for multiple terminals
(computers) to communicate over the same physical medium. Other standards examples include
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC), Frame Relay and the Point to
Point Protocol (PPP).

The Network Layer (Layer 3)

Layer 3 of the OSI model is named the network layer and is where routing of network traffic begins. The
network layer not only makes the traffic routing decisions but also provides traffic control, fragmentation,
and logical addressing (Internet Protocol (IP) addresses). The most common network layer protocol is IP,
but other commonly used protocols include the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet
Group Message Protocol (IGMP).

The Transport Layer (Layer 4)

Layer 4 of the OSI model is named the transport layer and is responsible for message segmentation,
acknowledgement, traffic control, and session multiplexing. The transport layer also has the ability to
perform error detection and correction (resends), message reordering to ensure message sequence, and
reliable message channel depending on the specific transport layer protocol used. The most common of
the used transport layer protocols include the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram
Protocol (UDP).

The Session Layer (Layer 5)

Layer 5 of the OSI model is named the session layer and is responsible for session establishment,
maintenance and termination (the ability to have multiple devices use a single application from multiple
locations). Common examples of session layer protocols are Named Pipes and NetBIOS.

The Presentation Layer (Layer 6)

Layer 6 of the OSI model is named the presentation layer and is responsible for character code translation
(i.e. ASCII vs. EBCDIC vs. Unicode), data conversion, compression, and encryption. Some common
examples include Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME), Transport Layer Security (TLS) and
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

The Application Layer (Layer 7)

Layer 7 of the OSI model is named the application layer and is responsible for a number of different things
depending on the application; some of these things include resource sharing, remote file access, remote
printer access, network management, and electronic messaging (email). There are a large number of
application layer protocols that are familiar to the common Internet user, including the File Transfer
Protocol (FTP), Domain Name Service (DNS), Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Simple Mail
Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

TCP/IP Model
Like the OSI model, the TCP/IP model is layered and is used in the same fashion as the OSI model but
with fewer layers. As the modern Internet and most communications use the Internet Protocol (IP), the
TCP/IP model is technically more in line with modern network implementations. As stated before, the layers
within the TCP/IP model are considered less rigid then that of the OSI model, which basically means that
many protocols implemented can be considered in grey areas between one area and another. The TCP/IP
protocol suite (often referred to as the TCP/IP protocol) contains the same protocols referenced in the
earlier OSI model sections. Figure 2 below shows a representation of the TCP/IP model:

Figure 2  TCP/IP Model

The Link Layer

The link layer is the lowest layer of the TCP/IP model; it is also referred to in some texts as the network
interface layer. The link layer combines the physical and data link layer functions into a single layer. This
includes frame physical network functions like modulation, line coding and bit synchronization, frame
synchronization and error detection, and LLC and MAC sublayer functions. Common protocols include the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11.

The Internet Layer

The Internet layer is the next layer up from the link layer and is associated with the network layer of the OSI
model. Functions include traffic routing, traffic control, fragmentation, and logical addressing. Common
protocols include IP, ICMP and IGMP.

The Transport Layer

The Transport layer is the next layer and is typically related directly with the same named layer in the OSI
model. Functions include message segmentation, acknowledgement, traffic control, session multiplexing,
error detection and correction (resends), and message reordering. Common protocols include the
Transport Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

The Application Layer

The Application layer is the highest layer in the TCP/IP model and is related to the session, presentation
and application layers of the OSI model. The application layer of the TCP/IP model is used to handle all
process-to-process communication functions; these functions were carried out by multiple different layers
when referencing the OSI model. There are a number of different functions which are carried out by this
layer, including session establishment, maintenance and termination, character code translations, data
conversion, compression and encryption, remote access, network management and electronic messaging
to name a few. Common protocols include Named Pipes, NetBIOS, MIME, TLS, SSL, FTP, DNS, HTTP,
SMTP and many others.

2) What are the benefits to using a layered approach?

Assists in protocol design, because protocols that operate at a specific layer have defined
information that they act upon and a defined interface to the layers above and below.
Fosters competition because products from different vendors can work together.
Prevents technology or capability changes in one layer from affecting other layers above
and below.
Provides a common language to describe networking functions and capabilities.

3) What does "802" refer to in the IEEE 802 standard?

802 is a standard in IEEE. IEEE 802 is a family of IEEE standards dealing with local area
networks and metropolitan area networks.
More specifically, the IEEE 802 standards are restricted to networks carrying variable-size
packets. By contrast, in cell relay networks data is transmitted in short, uniformly sized units
called cells. Isochronous networks, where data is transmitted as a steady stream of octets, or
groups of octets, at regular time intervals, are also out of the scope of this standard. The number
802 was simply the next free number IEEE could assign, [1] though "802" is sometimes associated
with the date the first meeting was held — February 1980.

WEEK 10

1) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a physical star topology?

three advantages of a star topology.
It's easy to install and wire.
-There are no disruptions to the network when connecting or removing devices.
-It's easy to detect faults and to remove parts.
three disadvantages of a star topology.
It requires more cable length than a linear topology.
-If the hub fails, nodes attached are disabled.
-It's more expensive than a linear bus because of the cost of the hub.

2) What is the difference between a network's physical topology and its logical topology?

Physical topologies refer to the physical layout of devices and network media. Logical topologies
refer to the logical paths in which data accesses the media and transmits packets across it.
3)What is the difference between operating in half-duplex mode or full-duplex mode and why does
it eliminate collisions?

When a station is operating in half-duplex mode, the station cannot transmit and receive a
signal at the same time. It must first wait for the medium to be clear of activity, and then it
can transmit. When a station is operating in full-duplex mode, it can transmit and receive
data at the same time. Because a hub repeats its signal to all ports, it can only operate in
half-duplex mode. However, when using a switch, the communication on each port is
isolated, and the switch decides where to send the signal. Therefore, a switch can operate in
full-duplex mode, sending and receiving data at the same time, thus eliminating collisions. If
a switch is set to operate in half-duplex mode, then a collision is possible if the station starts
to transmit at the same time that the switch sends a signal to the station.

WEEK 11

1) List and describe three improvements that IPv6 has over IPv4.
i. IPv6 makes routing efficient.
ii. it is more efficient when it processes packets.
iii. IPv6 also has better security than IPv4.
2) What is an IPv6 anycast address?
An address that represents a group of devices that support a similar service. Each device will
be assigned the same anycast address. Routers will deliver data to the nearest node that is
using the common anycast address. Anycast addresses have a one-to-nearest mapping.

3) What is an IPv6 link-local address?

A link-local address is an IPv6 unicast address that can be automatically configured on

any interface using the link-local prefix FE80::/10 (1111 1110 10) and the interface identifier
in the modified EUI-64 format. Link-local addresses are not necessarily bound to the
MAC address (configured in a EUI-64 format).