F3 - WES (OIC/MGT) Additional Questions on Safety

1
1. “HMSPN” (Marpol) “HMSPN”
2. “O-Nox-Ha-Se-G-A” (6 Annexes in Marpol) “O-Nox-Ha-Se-G-A”
3. After abandoning ship, how much water per day each person permitted after first 24 hours? 1 pint
4. An officer in charge of a watch or forming a part shall be provided a minimum of how many hours 10 hours
rest period in any 24 hour period pursuant to STCW regulations.
5. When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult, how many breaths per minute 12
should you administer?
6. Outside special Areas, unground food waste shall be disposed of: 12 nautical miles offshore
7. When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about: 12 to 15 times per minute
8. CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least 12 years
every:
9. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how 15 compressions and 2
many inflations should you do in one sequence? inflations
10. “Drop tests” given to lifebuoys include dropping it 3 times from a certain height on to a concrete 2 meters
floor. From what height should the lifebuoy be dropped to satisfy this particular SOLAS inspection
requirements?
11. At a speed of 6 knots, the fuel aboard a survival craft should last: 24 hours
12. Comminuted garbage shall pass through a screen with mesh size not larger than: 25 mm
13. Cebu Port Authority created into Law: 26 June 1992
14. Lifeboats shall have sufficient strength to withstand a drop into the water at a height of at least: 3 meters
15. Lifeboats should be launched and maneuvered in the water during abandoned ship drill once 3 months
every:
16. The falls used in launching devices shall be turned end for end at intervals of not more than: 30 months
17. The Master must maintain the Oil Record Book on board for at least ______? 36 months
18. The period required for a watchkeeper in the consumption of alcohol before going on watch is: 4 hours
19. Weight of life ring with light smoke: 4 kgs.
20. Hydrostatic release: 4 meters
21. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be 4.0 to 5.0 cm
depressed about:
22. A helipad has a diameter of: 5 meters
23. At what speed of a survival craft does the fuel aboard it would last for 24 hours? 6 knots
24. The normal adult pulse rate is variable but generally falls in the range of: 60-80 per minute
25. The STCW Code stipulate that watchkeepers must take mandatory rest periods of at least: 70 hours per week
26. An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot 9 meters
whenever the distance from the sea level is more than.
27. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class: A
28. Which lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? a red parachute flare
29. When a patient has a high fever one of the safest and simplest ways to reduce his body A tepid sponge bath
temperature is by:
30. The purpose of a sea anchor is to: act as a drag; to prevent
broaching
31. When a ship’s crew chokes suddenly, cannot speak and starts to turn blue, what action should be administer the Heimlich
taken? maneuver
32. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or life raft? After 24 hours
33. The purpose of the trip line on a sea anchor is to: aid in its recovery
34. The most frequent source of trouble in the hydraulic telemotor has been due to ________ in the Air
system:
35. Fire may be spread by which means? All of these
A. Convection C. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces
B. Direct radiation D. All of these
36. Marpol inspections are carried out by: All of these
A. all of these C. Port State Control
B. Coast Guard D. Nominated Surveeyors
37. The international shore connection: allows hook up of fire hoses
from a dock or another
vessel
38. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an: ammonia stimulant
39. The Oil Record Book must be maintained on board the vessel for: At least three years after last
entry
40. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged: at the embarkation deck
41. When should you prepare the list of duties and regulations for emergencies? before leaving the port
42. The Master must provide a safety orientation to a newly joined crew who has not participated on before sailing
any drills or who has nor received any safety instructions:
43. Yellow streamer is for which of the following? Blankets and protective
clothings
44. When a SAR aircraft drop items in container to survivors “Food and Water”, the color of the Blue
container will be:
45. What is meant by the term “overhaul” in fire fighting? Break up solid objects to
ensure that any deep seated
fires are extinguished
46. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire? C
47. Which category are noxious liquid substances which when discharged at sea from tank cleaning or Category D
deballasting presents a recognized hazard to marine resources or human health?
48. Carbon dioxide is a better fire fighting agent compared to other because it is: causing minimal damage
49. When in port, who gives appropriate instructions and orders to be followed in cargo operations? chief mate
50. Who is normally appointed as a Fire Officer on board ship? Chief Officer
51. Fires are grouped into what categories? Class A, B, C, and D
52. When administering artificial respiration [SBR] it is of utmost importance to: Clear airways
53. Generally, which of the following is used to inflate life raft? CO2
54. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with: compressed air
55. When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should: cover the burns with thick,
sterile dressings
2
Continuation of F3 Safety Questions (OIC/MGT)
1. For small, first-degree burns, the quickest method to relieve pain is to ______(D. Immerse the burn in cold water)
2. How many hand held distress flares are in each lifeboat? (A. 6)
3. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each lifeboat? (A. 4)
4. How many thermal protective aids are required to be carried on vessels with open lifeboats? (A. One for each person on
board who is not provided with an immersion suit.)
5. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? (A. Once every month)
6. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an “abandon ship”-drill? (A. once every month)
7. Hoe often should an inflatable liferaft be serviced at an approved service station? (A. Every 12 months)
8. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed? (A. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months
and renewed every 5 years)
9. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to the ship? (A. Secured via a
weak link to a secure part of the ship)
10. If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge must____(B. log the reason for not
completing the drill)
11. If a person suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should: (D. immerse the arm in cold water)
12. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft which is floating close to the ship? (A. Use a rope ladder
close to the raft to climb down and board)
13. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should_____(D. tie the rafts together and try to stay in a
single group)
14. If Mouth to Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty’s heart stops, or has stopped beating,
you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the rhythm when performing M-
T-M? (A. 15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations)
15. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should_______.(B. form a small circle group
to create warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle)
16. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat you should________(A. remain in the immediate vicinity)
17. If you have abandon ship and enter a liferaft, your course of action should be: (B. remain in the vicinity of the sinking
ship)
18. If you have to jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes: (B. holding down the life preserver against chest with
one arm cross
19. If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is________(D. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
20. If you were put in charge of a fire team what is the minimum number of men wearing BA sets that you would allow to
enter a smoke filled compartment? (A. 2 men)
21. If for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should
________(D. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel’s last known position)
22. In a smoke filled alleyway where will the cleanest air be found, and how should you proceed out? (A. Near to the deck,
crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible)
23. In all probability, the last persons to abandon the vessel will be____. When they leave the post, all machinery should be
stopped and water light doors and hatches tightly closed. (C. the Master, Chief Engineer and Chief Officer)
24. In case a fire alarm is sounded from the bridge, what action would you take as Engineer on Duty? (A. start the fire
pump)
25. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST______. (C. remove the locking pin)
26. In the event of a collision, the master is required to_____(D. render assistance to the other vessel and person on board)
27. In the event of fire in a machinery space____(A. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other
means of extinguishment have failed)
28. In the event of the loss of the rudder,________(B. a jury rudder may be achieved by providing a drag on each side)
29. Inflatable life rafts are provided with a ________(D. A towing connection)
30. Inflatable life rafts shall be serviced at a U.S.C.G. servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel
inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed. (C. 15months)
31. Mention some important thoughts for what you have to do when you recognize that fire break out onboard. (A.
Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad.
32. Minimum pressure required with two fire pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles through any adjacent
hydrants for a cargo ship at 6000GT and upwards should be: (A. 0.27N/mm2)
33. On a passenger ship on an international voyage, muster and emergency drill must be carried out within______(D. 24 hrs.
after their embarkation
34. Preparation of muster lists and signing of same is the responsibility of the________(C. Master of the vessel)
35. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill
and one fire drill? (A. Monthly)
36. Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the station bill, is the responsibility of the____(A.
Master)
37. Ship staff shall inspect all lifting equipment and record the inspection in the cargo gear record book at intervals of: (A.
Yearly)

3
38. Spontaneous combustion is caused by: (C. chemical action within a substance)
39. Survivors on the water are best approached on what side, relative to the wind? (A. windward side)
40. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with_______(A. compressed air)
41. The best procedure to follow in fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room would be to secure the
power, then (C. use a portable CO2 extinguisher)
42. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguisher system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity
of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than______-(D. 300 pounds)
43. The greatest danger in cold temperature when at sea in an inflatable liferaft is______ (D. hypothermia)
44. The international shore connection______(A. allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities)
45. The key to a rapid effective response to a man situation is_______ (A. well conducted drills)
46. The maximum height that a pilot should be required to climb on a pilot ladder before reaching the deck or stepping onto
an accommodation ladder platform is_________ (A. 9 meters)
47. The most critical part of the bunkering operations which can result in oil spill is_____ (C. when the tanks are being
topped off)
48. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be____(D. in the pump room)
49. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the _______ ( D. Master)
50. The Master List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included
in the “muster list” according to present regulations? ( A. closing of water light doors, fire doors, valves, scuppers. Side
scuttles skylights)
51. The operator of an uninspected vessel; MUST assist people affected by an accident if he or she can do so without
_______-(A. serious danger to his or her vessel)

F3 Safety Questions (OIC/MGT)

1. An unconscious person should not = given something to drink
2. At the required fire drill = in the Muster List (“ Station Bill”)
3. Boat stations and duty assignments = station bill
4. During helicopter winching operations over = shock from static discharge
5. How many pyrotechnic signals to be = 4 Rocket parachute flares/ 6 hand flares/ 2 buoyant smoke signals
6. Spreading oil on the open sea = prevent the wave crests from breaking
7. Tank top in engine room has = notify Ch. Eng.,find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start
cleaning of the tank top
8. The air cylinder bottles in the = compressed air
9. The fire control draft on board = at the gangway
10. The helicopter hoisting an arm = do not hoist
11. The operator of an uninspected vessel = serious danger to his or her own vessel
12. The part of sea anchor = trip line
13. Treatment of burns and scalds = Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but
preferably until the pain is gone. If no water is available,. Use any cold, harmless liquid
14. What information must be entered = duties and station of each person during emergencies
15. What is the first thing you are doing when having a lifeboat drill? = put on the life jacket
16. A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics called a
flame_____( C. screen)
17. A person referring to the stern sheets of a life boat is speaking of_____ (A. the aftermost seating)
18. A person wearing life jacket or immersion suit, shall be able to turn a face down to a face up position in not more than;
(A. 5 seconds)
19. A portable foam fire extinguisher is placed in operation by_____(C. turning it upside down)
20. A raft should be manually releated from its cradle by_____(B. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release)
21. A rescue helicopter’s hoist area should have a radius of at least _____(D. 50 feet of clear deck)
22. A strain occurs when a mInternationalle or group of mInternationalles is over-stretched and possibly torn by violent or
sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be
remembered as the word RICG____(A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)
23. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to _____(D. Stay in the general location)
24. After launching the motor lifeboat when abandoning ship you should_______(C. stay in the immediate area)
25. All lifeboats, rescue boats and rigid type life rafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once
every_____(B. year)
26. All the following are part of the fire triangle except______(C. electricity)
27. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is sounded by the ship’s whistle and the alarm
bells. What are you to do? (A. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station)
28. An aluminum power fire is classified as class (A. D)
29. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using____(D. all of the above)
30. An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which type of extinguisher_________(B. all of these)
31. Antiseptics are used principally to______(B. prevent infection)
32. Any act or activity undertaken to assist a vessel or any property in danger in any navigable water is considered as
________(A. Salvage operations)
33. Anyone of the crew who is assigned to watch duties in ports has a number of important tasks to carry out. Which one of
the listed tasks has to be included in the watchman’s duties? (A. Checking the moorings for tightness/slack)
34. Apart from red, what other color is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher? (A. Black)
35. Apart from red, what other color is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher? (A. Blue)
4
36. Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen located in the_____ (D. lower right side)
37. As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any space? (A. Near to the entrance to
the space)
38. As per 46 CFR 182.30-1 and 182.30-5, auxiliary steering will not be required: (C. both A and B)

39. Asthma is distressing condition in which the mInternationalles of the air passage go into spasm. How can the asthma
attacks be triggered off? ( A. Nervous tension, allergy, or non obvious cause)
40. At the lifeboat station, the following shall be done EXCEPT: (A. help facilitate the immediate lowering of the lifeboat)
41. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate theor ability to perform the duties
assigned to them______-(B. in the Muster List(“ station Bill”)
42. At which time shall required fixed detection and fire alarm systems with manual operated call points be in the operation?
( SOLAS II-2/13.1.1) (A. Capable of immediate operation at all times)
43. Before commencing the tow, a continuous radio communication shall maintained between the Masters. No navigation or
engine maneuver will commence without________ (A. first advising the other master)
44. Boat stations and duty assignments may be found in the (A. station bill)
45. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is_____(C. Gasoline)
46. Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which of the following advantages over off agents? (D. It causes minimal
damage)
47. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done_______ (A. without losing the rhythm of
respiration)
48. CO2 extinguishes a fire by________(D. smothering)
49. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum recommended effective
temperature (ET) for full work loadin enclosed spaces? (A. 30.5degree Celsius ET)
50. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by: (B. its trip line)
51. During a helicopter evacuation, the helicopter lowers his winch wire to the deck. Which of the following should NOT be
done with the winch wire? (A. all of the mentioned actions)
52. During helicopter winching operations over the deck of a vessel needing assistance the high handler should be equipped
with electricians and rubber soled shoes to avoid______ (D. shock from static discharge)
53. Each crew member has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown on the _______. (D. muster list)
54. Emergency exits are provided for personnel’s safe and quick escape from the engine room in case of fire. The emergency
exits are an item to be checked during the Safety Equipment survey annually. What is the surveyor checking? (A. The
surveyor is checking that the emergency exits are properly marked, free from obstacles and that the closing devices are
easy operable.
55. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the_______(D. muster list)
56. Fire protected lifeboats when water borne should be capable of protecting its full complement when subjected to a
continuous oil fire that envelops the boat for a period of not less than how many minutes? (A. 8 minutes)
57. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery space that are normally manned, are actuated by one control
to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and _______.( B. a separate control to release the CO2)
58. Fixed fire detection and alarm systems, fire door indicator panel and other control and indicator functions are centralized
in: (C. central control station)
For carbon dioxide fire fighting systems for machinery spaces the fixed piping systems shall be such that: (SOLAS II 2/5.2.4)
(A. 85% of the gas can be discharge into the space within two minutes)