QUESTION 1

(CH1) All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT:
a) Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project. These factors
decrease over the life of the project.
b) The ability to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without significantly impacting
cost, is highest at the start of the project and decreases as the project progresses toward completion.
c) The cost of changes and correcting errors typically increases substantially as the project approaches
completion.
d) Cost and staffing levels are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.

QUESTION 2
(CH1) All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true
EXCEPT:
a) In the project predictive life cycle, the project scope and the time and cost required to deliver that scope
are determined as early in the project life cycle as practically possible.
b) In the project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases intentionally repeat one or more
project activities as the project team's understanding of the product increases.
c) The product life cycle is the series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept
through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.
d) The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle.

QUESTION 3
(CH1) You are managing a project in which you intend to respond to high levels of change and ongoing
stakeholder involvement. The most suitable project life cycle for your project is the:
a) Predictive life cycle.
b) Adaptive life cycle.
c) Waterfall life cycle.
d) Configuration management life cycle.

QUESTION 4
(CH1) The five Project Management Process Groups are:
a) Planning, Checking, Directing, Monitoring, and Recording.
b) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
c) Planning, Executing, Directing, Closing, and Commissioning.
d) Initiating, Executing, Monitoring, Evaluating, and Closing.
QUESTION 5
(CH1) Project Management Processes:
a) May be overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.
b) May be overlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each phase of the
project.
c) Are generally discrete, one-time events.
d) Are discrete, repetitive events that occur generally at the same level of intensity throughout each phase
of the project.

QUESTION 6
(CH1) The linkages between project management processes are best described by the following:
a) The work breakdown structure links processes.
b) Processes are linked by their planned objectives—the summary objective of one often becomes the
detailed action plan for another within the project, subproject, or project phase.
c) Processes are linked by the outputs that are produced—the output of one process generally becomes
an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project, subproject, or project phase.
d) There are no significant links between discrete processes.

QUESTION 7
(CH1) For a project to be successful, the project should generally achieve all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Achieving stakeholder satisfaction.
b) Striving to obtain acceptable customer/end-user adoption.
c) Appling knowledge, skills, and processes within the Project Management Process Groups uniformly
to meet the project objectives.
d) Fulfilling other agreed-upon success measures or criteria.

QUESTION 8
(CH1) The project business case is all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected
component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project
management activities.
b) A document that lists the objectives and reasons for project initiation.
c) A document that serves as an important input to the project initiation and is seldom used after the
project is approved.
d) An important document that may result in a go/no-go decision for the project.

QUESTION 9
(CH1) The key elements of the benefits management plan are all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Work Breakdown Structure.
b) Benefits owner.
c) Assumptions.
d) Strategic alignment.
QUESTION 10
(CH1) A significant amount of data is collected and analyzed throughout the project. All of the following
are examples of project data and information EXCEPT:
a) Work performance data.
b) Work performance analysis.
c) Work performance information.
d) Work performance reports.

QUESTION 11
(CH1) A project is:
a) A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system.
b) A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer satisfaction.
c) An ongoing endeavour undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
d) A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

QUESTION 12
(CH1) Project tailoring is an important consideration for most projects. Which of the following is the
least likely project consideration?
a) Project manager's skills and competency.
b) Each project is unique.
c) Addressing competing constraints.
d) Level of project governance varies.

QUESTION 13
(CH1) All of the following are types of adaptive life cycle, EXCEPT:
a) Agile
b) Iterative
c) Incremental
d) Hybrid

QUESTION 14
(CH1) You are explaining to a junior engineer that difference between a project and operations. Which
one fo the following is true only of operations?
a) They are performed by people
b) They are constrained by limited resources
c) They are ongoing
d) They are planned, executed, and controlled
QUESTION 15
(CH1) Which one of the following statements best defines the difference between a program and
portfolios in regard to scope?
a) Programs do not have scopes because they are made up of project. Portfolios have an organizational
scope
b) Programs have larger scopes than projects. Portfolios have an organizational scope.
c) Programs have larger scopes than projects. Portfolios don’t have scopes because they are a financial
investment.
d) Programs and portfolios can share the same scope because a portfolio may have two or more programs

QUESTION 16
(CH1) A project life cycle approach that adopts both predictive and either of iterative or increment is
known as
a) Agile
b) Hybrid
c) Waterfall
d) Predictive

QUESTION 17
(CH1) Who is usually responsible for portfolio management within an organization?
a) Project managers
b) Project sponsors
c) Stakeholders
d) Senior management

QUESTION 18
(CH1) An Energy Company is investing in a series of initiatives to look for alternative energy sources so
that the company can be competitive in 10 years. The initiatives are tracked and managed together
because this goal is vital to the success of the company. This is an example of ____________
a) a portfolio
b) a program
c) a project
d) an enterprise environmental factor

QUESTION 19
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
a) Temporary
b) Strategic
c) Specific result
d) Progressively elaborated
QUESTION 20
(CH1) ____________ is a review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next
phase or not.
a) Project life cycle
b) Phase gate
c) Project phases
d) Project management process group

QUESTION 21
(CH1) Which of the following document details the economic feasibility of a project?
a) Project business case
b) Project benefits management plan
c) Project management plan
d) Project charter

QUESTION 22
(CH1) Project management is:
a) The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management system.
b) The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements.
c) The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to achieve
operational excellence.
d) A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.

QUESTION 23
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT true about portfolio management?
a) The portfolio manager judges the success of the portfolio by combining data from all of its programs
and projects
b) A portfolio can contain projects and programs
c) A portfolio is organized around a business goal
d) A portfolio is always a group of programs

QUESTION 24
(CH1) The targeted tangible and intangible value of a project should be document in which of the
following?
a) Project business case
b) Project benefits management plan
c) Project scope statement
d) Project charter
QUESTION 25
(CH1) Bob is the project manager of a project for a company that manufactures pharmaceuticals. In
Bob’s industry, many standards and regulations affect his projects. What is the difference between a
standard and regulation?
a) Standards are mandatory; regulations are not
b) Standards are optional; regulations are not
c) Regulations and standards are essentially the same
d) Regulations are usually mandatory; standards may be seen as guidelines

QUESTION 26
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT A Project Constraint?
a) Quality
b) Scale
c) Time
d) Cost

QUESTION 27
(CH1) A project manager is running a data center installation project. He finds that his stakeholder is
angry because he’s run over his budget because the staff turned out to be more expensive than planned.
The stakeholder’s unhappy that when the project is over, the servers won’t have as much drive space as
he needs. Which of the following constraints was not affected by this problem?
a) Quality
b) Resource
c) Time
d) Cost

QUESTION 28
(CH1) Portfolio management refers to:
a) Managing various contents of the project file.
b) Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision making.
c) The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
d) Applying resource-levelling heuristics across all the organization's projects to achieve the organization's
strategic objectives.

QUESTION 29
(CH1) All of the following are questions that the key stakeholders and project managers should answer to
develop the project success measures EXCEPT:
a) What does success look like for the project?
b) How will success be measured?
c) What are the communication requirements?
d) What factors may impact success?
QUESTION 30
(CH1) A program is a:
a) Group of related tasks lasting one year or less.
b) Group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a coordinated
manner.
c) Large projects with significant cost and resource requirements.
d) Sequence of activities constituting a major project.

QUESTION 31
(CH1) All of the following are true about projects and operations EXCEPT:
a) Operations are ongoing endeavours that produce repetitive outputs, with resources assigned to do
basically the same set of tasks according to the standards institutionalized in a product life cycle,
whereas projects are temporary endeavours.
b) Projects require project management activities and skill sets, whereas operations require business
process management, operations management activities, and skill sets.
c) Projects can intersect with operations at various points during the product life cycle. At each point,
deliverables and knowledge are transferred between the project and operations for implementation of the
delivered work.
d) Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's long-term goals.
Therefore, strategic activities in the organization can be generally addressed within the organization's
normal operations.

QUESTION 32
(CH1) Your job responsibility is to align components (projects, programs, or related operations) to the
organizational strategy, organized into portfolios or subsidiary portfolios to optimize project or program
objectives, dependencies, costs, timelines, benefits, resources, and risks. This is known as:
a) Components management.
b) Process management.
c) Program management.
d) Portfolio management.

QUESTION 33
(CH1) The PMBOK® Guide is the standard for:
a) Managing all projects all of the time.
b) Managing all projects most of the time.
c) Managing most projects most of the time.
d) Managing some projects some of the time.
QUESTION 34
(CH1) The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases, whose name and
number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or organizations
involved in the project, is known as the:
a) Project waterfall.
b) Project life cycle.
c) Project life stages.
d) Project Management Process Groups.

QUESTION 35
(CH2) The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and
capabilities that are important for projects. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the
system?
a) Organization's management.
b) Project sponsor.
c) Project manager.
d) Project team.

QUESTION 36
(CH2) Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This
framework includes all of the following components EXCEPT:
a) Rules.
b) Policies.
c) Techniques.
d) Relationships.

QUESTION 37
(CH2) Which of the following best describe management elements?
a) Management elements are the components that comprise the key functions or principles of general
management in the organization.
b) Management elements are the project management principles that guide how projects are executed in the
organization.
c) Management elements are established by PMOs to guide project implementation.
d) Management elements are influenced by the governance framework, established for effective
implementation of projects.
QUESTION 38
(CH2) Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors that
surround or influence a project's success. All of the following are true about these factors EXCEPT:
a) Enterprise environmental factors include organizational culture, structure, and processes.
b) Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as regulatory agency
regulations, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards, and workmanship standards.
c) Enterprise environmental factors include information technology software (e.g., an automated tool, such
as a scheduling software tool, a configuration management system, an information collection and
distribution system, or web interfaces to other online automated systems).
d) Enterprise environmental factors exclude personnel administration functions (e.g., staffing and
retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training records, and time tracking) because
these are considered to be functions of the human resources department.

QUESTION 39
(CH2) The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices,
training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.
b) Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various means.
c) Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team
members.
d) Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.

QUESTION 40
(CH2) A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a
variety of ways, which may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project manager.
b) Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
c) Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and standards.
d) Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.

QUESTION 41
(CH2) All of the following are potential information in organizational knowledge repositories EXCEPT:
a) Metrics used to collect and make available measurement data on processes and products.
b) Configuration management.
c) Tacit knowledge of previous projects such as project performance data and lessons learned.
d) Issue and defect management data.
QUESTION 42
(CH2) All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT:
a) Legal restrictions.
b) Organizational values and principles.
c) Competitive movements.
d) Economic conditions.

QUESTION 43
(CH2) Organizational process assets (OPAs) influence the management of projects. Which one of the
following best describes the important categories of OPAs?
a) Organizational knowledge bases and processes.
b) Processes, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques.
c) Organizational knowledge bases, processes, policies, and procedures.
d) Organizational knowledge bases, tools, and techniques.

QUESTION 44
(CH2) The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during project initiation
and planning include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Preapproved supplier list.
b) Traceability matrices.
c) Tailoring guidelines for project management processes and procedures.
d) Product and project life cycles, and methods and procedures.

QUESTION 45
(CH2) The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing,
Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Change control procedure.
b) Issue and defect management procedures.
c) Resource availability control and assignment management.
d) Project closing guidelines.

QUESTION 46
(CH2) Projects operate within the constraints imposed by the organization through their structure and
governance framework. The system factors include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Management elements.
b) Governance framework.
c) Organizational structure types.
d) Project management processes.
QUESTION 47
(CH2) At which point is the risk of failure the least but the consequence of failure the highest?
a) During the early stages
b) During the middle stages
c) During the final stages
d) Risk of failure is even across all project phases

QUESTION 48
(CH2) A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is:
a) Organizational project management
b) The PMBOK Guide
c) Project Governance
d) Portfolio managemen

QUESTION 49
(CH2) Stacey is the project manager of the GBN Project for her company. She’ll be using several
templates for a project, but she’s not certain where these templates should originate. Where can a project
manager usually expect to receive templates?
a) Commercial databases
b) The project management office
c) The project sponsor
d) Project Management Information System (PMIS)

QUESTION 50
(CH2) Which of the following is not a type of project management office?
a) Directive
b) Value-driven
c) Supportive
d) Controlling

QUESTION 51
(CH2) if you are working in an organization where you continually have to ask another manger if you
can spend money allocated to your project, and obtain personnel to work on your project, what sort of
organizational structure are you working in?
a) Projectized organization
b) Functional organization
c) Strong matrix organization
d) Balanced matrix organization
QUESTION 52
(CH2) You’re a project manager working in a weak matrix organization. Which of the following is NOT
true?
a) Your team members report to functional mangers
b) You are not directly in charge of resources
c) Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects
d) You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project

QUESTION 53
(CH2) Tracey is the project manager of the KHG Project. Her organization is a classic functional
environment. Her level of authority as a project manager can be best described as which of the following?
a) Low
b) Moderate
c) Balanced
d) High

QUESTION 54
(CH2) Who has the most power in the projectized organization?
a) The Project Manager
b) The Functional Manager
c) The Team
d) They all share power

QUESTION 55
(CH2) A project manager is having trouble securing programmers for her project. Every time she asks
the programming manager for resources for her project, he says they’re all assigned to other work. So,
she constantly has to go over his head to overrule him. Which type or organization is she working for?
a) Functional
b) Weak Matrix
c) Strong Matrix
d) Projectized

QUESTION 56
(CH2) Marcy, the project manager for the ERP Project, is about to complete the project phase review.
The completion of a project phase is also known as which of the following?
a) A lesson learned
b) A kill point
c) Earned value management
d) Conditional advancement
QUESTION 57
(CH2) The project manager for a construction project discovers that a new water line is being created in
the neighborhood where he’s managing a project. Company policy requires that a series of forms for city
environmental changes need to be filled out before his team can continue work on the project. This is an
example of:
a) A portfolio
b) A program
c) An enterprise environmental factor
d) A project

QUESTION 58
(CH2) Project team members are most likely to work full time on a project in which of the following
organizational structures?
a) Functional
b) Weak matrix
c) Strong matrix
d) Projectized

QUESTION 59
(CH2) You are the project manager for the ERP Project. Your organization uses a PMO. The primary
purpose of a project management office is to do which of the following:
a) Support the project manager
b) Support the project sponsor
c) Support the project team
d) Identify the stakeholders

QUESTION 60
(CH2) A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many people are
asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction to
the team member?
a) The project manager
b) The functional manager
c) The team
d) The PMO

QUESTION 61
(CH2) One of your team members informs you that be does not know which of the many projects he is
working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities between projects in a company?
a) The project manager
b) The project management team
c) The project management office (PMO)
d) The team
QUESTION 62
(CH3) The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT:
a) Directing vs. influencing.
b) Focus on systems vs. focus on relationships.
c) Accept status quo vs. challenge status quo.
d) Concentrate on project activities vs. emphasis on results.

QUESTION 63
(CH3) Leadership and management are ultimately about being able to get things done, and power plays
an important part. Which of the following best describe the various forms of power?
a) Positional, referent, personal, cultural, and relational.
b) Positional, personal, relational, guilt-based, informational, and expertise.
c) Referent, personal, expertise, and cultural.
d) Positional and pressure-based.

QUESTION 64
(CH3) Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and
behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project managers?
a) Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural, and emotional.
b) Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social.
c) Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social, and system.
d) Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural, and managerial.

QUESTION 65
(CH3) Project managers exhibit different leadership styles. Which of the following is NOT a leadership
style?
a) Laissez-faire.
b) Motivational.
c) Charismatic.
d) Servant.

QUESTION 66
(CH3) Complexity exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a) Containing multiple parts.
b) Containing high-risk parts.
c) Exhibiting dynamic interactions between the parts.
d) Exhibiting emergent behaviour, this cannot be easily explained as the simple sum of parts.
QUESTION 67
(CH3) Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra, EXCEPT:
a) They are responsible for the final result of the team.
b) They communicate with the team.
c) They need to integrate multiple disciplines.
d) They need to be an expert or knowledgeable of all aspects of their endeavour.

QUESTION 68
(CH3) All of the following are generally true about leadership in a project environment EXCEPT:
a) It involves focusing the efforts of a group of people toward a common goal and enabling them to work
as a team.
b) It is the ability to get things done through others.
c) Respect and trust, rather than fear and submission, are the key elements of effective leadership.
d) Although important throughout all project phases, effective leadership is critical during the Closing
phase of a project when the emphasis is on stakeholder acceptance of the project.

QUESTION 69
(CH3) Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and other
project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally perform all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) Calculating the potential number of communication channels accurately.
b) Developing finely tuned skills using multiple methods of communication.
c) Incorporating feedback channels.
d) Seeking to understand project stakeholders’ communication needs.

QUESTION 70
(CH3) All of the following are components of culture EXCEPT:
a) Values.
b) Norms.
c) Intelligence.
d) Beliefs.

QUESTION 71
(CH3) When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is:
a) To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure the alignment of
the project objectives and results with those of the project and business area.
b) To perform all of the work that is required to get the project approved and baseline for communication
to the team.
c) To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the project.
d) To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an integrated project
organizational structure.
QUESTION 72
(CH3) Performing integration is a cornerstone skill for all project managers; the following describe the
three different levels of performing integration EXCEPT:
a) Cognitive level.
b) Process level.
c) Complexity level.
d) Context level.

QUESTION 73
(CH3) Complexity within projects is a result of much different organizational behaviour; the dimensions
of complexity include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) System behaviour.
b) Human behaviour.
c) Ambiguity.
d) Process behaviour.

QUESTION 74
(CH3) Which of the following is least likely to be a project manager's role?
a) Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation.
b) Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives.
c) Assisting in business analysis, business case development, and aspects of portfolio management for a
project.
d) Ensuring that organizations are operating efficiently.

QUESTION 75
(CH3) Which of the following is least likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence?
a) Government.
b) Project team.
c) Sponsors.
d) Customers.

QUESTION 76
(CH3) The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT:
a) Technical project management.
b) Operational management.
c) Leadership.
d) Strategic management.
QUESTION 77
(CH3) Which of the following is NOT true about interpersonal skills?
a) Coaching means helping your team to get more physical exercise
b) Motivation means helping team members get what they want out of the project
c) Influencing means sharing power with people to get something done
d) Conflict management means finding positive solutions to conflicts during the project

QUESTION 78
(CH3) Which of the following is the most important role of a project manager?
a) Management by objective
b) Performing integration
c) Requirement analysis
d) Managing people

QUESTION 79
(CH3) During a monthly meeting, the project manager insists the importance of focusing on goals and
following process and procedures. Which of the leadership style is being followed by the project
manager?
a) Laissez-faire
b) Transformational
c) Charismatic
d) Transactional

QUESTION 80
(CH3) ____________ is the art of getting others to want to do something that you believe should be done.
a) Management
b) Leadership
c) Transactional
d) Influencing

QUESTION 81
(CH3) Which one of the following is an interpersonal skill a project manager must have to be successful?
a) Sales and marketing
b) Leadership
c) Health and safety practices
d) Information technology experience
QUESTION 82
(CH3) You have decided to take disciplinary action against one of your project team member who have
failed to submit the weekly progress report after several repeated reminders due to his lethargic attitude.
Which of the following type of power is being adopted?
a) Positional
b) Punitive
c) Persuasive
d) Charismatic

QUESTION 83
(CH3) A project manager is having trouble with his project because one of his team members is not
performing, which is causing him to miss an important date he promised to a stakeholder. He discovers
that the team member knew about the project problem, but didn’t tell him because the team members
are all afraid of his bad temper. Which BEST describes how the project manager can avoid this situation
in the future?
a) Increasing his knowledge of the PMBOK Guide
b) Measuring personal performance
c) Improving his personal skills
d) Managing stakeholder expectations

QUESTION 84
(CH3) Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill?
a) Motivation
b) Brainstorming
c) Team building
d) Coaching

QUESTION 85
(CH3) You’re managing a project to build a new accounting system. One of the accountants in another
department really likes the current system and is refusing to be trained on the new one. What is the
BEST way to handle this situation?
a) Refuse to work with him because he’s being difficult
b) Appeal to the accountant’s manager and ask to have him required to take training
c) Get a special dispensation so that the accountant doesn’t have to go to the training
d) Work with him to understand his concerns and do what you can to help alleviate them without
compromising your project
QUESTION 86
(CH3) ____________ is the capability of individual to recognize their own emotions and those of others.
a) Emotional intelligence
b) Intrapersonal skill
c) Courtesy
d) Servant-Leader

QUESTION 87
(CH3) You are the project manager of a large project that will affect how your organization accepts and
processes orders from customers. Many of the stakeholders have strong opinions about the project and
how it should proceed. Thomas, the manufacturing manager, and Jane, the sales manager, have been in
conflict with one another over some of the project’s requirements. You’ve met with these two
stakeholders to resolve the conflict, negotiate the difference, and come to an agreement about the
requirements in the project. What skills have you used effectively in this scenario?
a) Active listening
b) Stakeholder resolution
c) Management skills
d) Interpersonal skills

QUESTION 88
(CH3) A project manager who focuses on the well-being of the team more important than the outcome of
the objective is ____________ oriented.
a) Task
b) Process
c) People
d) Performance

QUESTION 89
(CH3) In a weekly meeting, the project manager is soliciting opinions from the project team to resolve an
unexpected issue. What type of leadership style is followed by the project manager?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez-Faire
c) Transactional
d) Transformational

QUESTION 90
(CH3) Which of the following is critical to the project manager to understand the market context in
which the project operates?
a) Leadership
b) Technical project management
c) Strategic and business management
d) Enterprise environmental factors
QUESTION 91
(CH3) Which of the following is a type of personality traits for the ability to understand and manage
people?
a) Social
b) Intellectual
c) Cultural
d) Emotional

QUESTION 92
(CH4) Approved corrective action is an input to:
a) Verify Scope
b) Direct and Manage Project Execution
c) Develop Project Charter
d) Develop Schedule

QUESTION 93
(CH4) You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ____ during planning in order to
improve your chance of success.
a) Your intuition and training
b) Stakeholder analysis
c) Historical information
d) Configuration management

QUESTION 94
(CH4) Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan?
a) A printout from project management software
b) A bar chart
c) Risk, staffing, process improvement, and other management plans
d) The project scope

QUESTION 95
(CH4) A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project. Which
of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan?
a) Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager
b) Functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager
c) Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior management
d) Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team
QUESTION 96
(CH4) You are taking over a project during the planning process group and discover that six individuals
have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST concern you?
a) Who will be a member of the change control board
b) Spending more time on configuration management
c) Getting a single project sponsor
d) Determining the reporting structure

QUESTION 97
(CH4) The project charter for a project was approved for planning and you have just been assigned as
project manager. Realizing that project planning is an ongoing effort throughout the project, which
processes are you MOST likely to combine?
a) Create WBS and Define Activities
b) Estimate Activity Durations and Develop Schedule
c) Develop Human Resource plan and Estimate Costs
d) Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

QUESTION 98
(CH4) All of the following are parts of Direct and Manage Project Execution EXCEPT:
a) Identifying changes
b) Using a work breakdown structure
c) Implementing corrective actions
d) Setting up a project control system

QUESTION 99
(CH4) You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you learn
that the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to do is to:
a) Show how the resources were originally promised to your project
b) Replan the project without the resources
c) Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available
d) Crash the project

QUESTION 100
(CH4) The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not affect the project
schedule and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST?
a) Make the change happen as soon as possible
b) Contact the project sponsor for permission
c) Go to the change control board
d) Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints
QUESTION 101
(CH4) Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is valued at
$2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What is the FIRST thing you should do
once you hear of the new project?
a) Ask management how the new project will use resources
b) Resource level your project
c) Crash Your project
d) Ask management how the new project will affect your project

QUESTION 102
(CH4) Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:
a) The personal careers of the team members
b) Timely updates to the project management plan
c) Effective communications at key interface points
d) Product control

QUESTION 103
(CH4) You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from another project
manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you that the project is on
schedule, but only because he has constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing you
should do as the new project manager?
a) Check risk status
b) Check cost performance
c) Determine a management strategy
d) Tell the team your objectives

QUESTION 104
(CH4) You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the
baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the FIRST thing
you should do?
a) Discuss it with the project team
b) Recalculate baselines
c) Renegotiate the contract
d) Meet with the customer

QUESTION 105
(CH4) The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks to the
critical path. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
a) Compress the schedule to recover the two weeks
b) Cut scope to recover the two weeks
c) Consult with the sponsor about options
d) Advise the client of the impact of the change
QUESTION 106
(CH4) During project executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to material
purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the
change. This is an example of:
a) Management by objectives
b) Lack of a change management plan
c) Good team relations
d) Lack of a clear work breakdown structure
QUESTION 107
(CH4) An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of:
a) Project archives
b) A project charter
c) A project management plan
d) A risk analysis plan

QUESTION 108
(CH4) All of the following would occur during the Close Project or phase process EXCEPT:
a) Creating lessons learned
b) Formal acceptance
c) Reducing resource spending
d) Performing benefit cost analysis

QUESTION 109
(CH4) Which of the following is included in a project charter?
a) A risk management strategy
b) Work package estimates
c) Detailed resource estimates
d) The business need for the project

QUESTION 110
(CH4) A project manager is trying to convince management to use more formal project management
procedures and has decided to start improving the company's project management by obtaining a project
charter. Which of the following BEST describes why the project charter would help the project
manager?
a) It describes the details of what needs to be done
b) It lists the names of all team members
c) It gives the project manager authority
d) It describes the project's history
QUESTION 111
(CH4) Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
a) Constrained optimization
b) Comparative approach
c) Benefit measurement
d) Impact analysis

QUESTION 112
(CH4) You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your manager and his boss
have asked that the project begins immediately. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
a) Set up an integrated change control process
b) Show your manager the impact of proceeding without approval
c) Focus on completing projects that have signed project charters
d) Start work on only the critical path activities

QUESTION 113
(CH4) The need for ___ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project.
a) Optimization
b) Integrity
c) Integration
d) Differentiation

QUESTION 114
(CH4) All technical work is completed on the project.Which of the following remains to be done?
a) Verify Scope
b) Plan Risk Responses
c) Create a staffing management plan
d) Complete lessons learned

QUESTION 115
(CH4) Producing a Project Plan may BEST be described as:
a) Creating a network logic diagram that identifies the critical path.
b) Using a software tool to track schedule, cost & resources
c) Creating a document that guides project plan execution
d) Creating a plan that contains the entire product scope
QUESTION 116
(CH4) Project Management Plan Updates are NOT an output of:
a) Perform Integrated Change Control
b) Develop Project Plan
c) Direct and Manage Project Execution
d) Close Project or Phase

QUESTION 117
(CH4) You are meeting with a new Project Manager who has taken over a project that is in the middle of
executing. The previous project manager has left the company and the new project manager is upset that
the change reports are streaming in from numerous sources including his boss, the customer and various
stakeholders. The project manager is not even aware of how to process all of these incoming change
requests. Where would you refer him?
a) Project Scope Statement
b) Project Management Plan
c) The previous project manager
d) Project Charter

QUESTION 118
(CH4) The project charter is:
a) Developed before the project statement of work, and after the project management plan
b) Developed after the project statement of work and before the project management plan
c) Developed before the contract and after the project management plan
d) Developed before the project and before the project management plan

QUESTION 119
(CH4) The project management information system would likely include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) A scheduling tool
b) An information distribution system
c) A system for collecting information from team members
d) A system for identifying stakeholders

QUESTION 120
(CH4) A defect in the product was brought to the project manager's attention and now the project team
is engaged in repairing it. Which project management process would be the most applicable to this?
a) Perform Integrated Change Control
b) Monitor and Control Project Work
c) Direct and Manage Project Execution
d) Close Project or Phase
QUESTION 121
(CH4) You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you learn
that the resources promised in the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to do is:
a) Show how the resources where originally promised to your project.
b) Re-plan the project without the resources
c) Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available
d) Crash the project

QUESTION 122
(CH4) A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to
decide if these changes are necessary?
a) The project manager
b) The project team
c) The sponsor
d) The stakeholders

QUESTION 123
(CH4) Which of the following describes the BEST use of historical records from previous projects
a) Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning
b) Risk management, estimating, and creating lessons learned
c) Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report
d) Estimating, risk management, and project planning

QUESTION 124
(CH4) The person or group responsible for evaluating change on a project is:
a) Change control board
b) The sponsor
c) The project team
d) The program manager

QUESTION 125
(CH4) If you are creating a single document to guide project execution, monitoring and control and
closure, you are creating:
a) The execution plan
b) The project management plan
c) The integration plan
d) The project framework
QUESTION 126
(CH4) Change control meetings are held as part of which process:
a) Direct and Manage Project Execution
b) Monitor and Control Project Work
c) Perform Integrated Change Control
d) Evaluate Requested Changes

QUESTION 127
(CH4) When changes are approved and made to the project, they should be:
a) Tracked against the project baseline
b) Incorporated into the project baseline
c) Included as an addendum to the project plan
d) Approved by someone other than the project manager

QUESTION 128
(CH4) The output of Direct and Manage Project Execution process is
a) The work packages
b) The project management information system
c) The deliverables
d) The work breakdown structure

QUESTION 129
(CH4) Who is/are the main responsible for Project Integration management?
a) Project manager
b) All areas specialists
c) Project manager and all areas specialists
d) Project stakeholders

QUESTION 130
(CH4) Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Develop Project Management
Plan process?
a) The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project
b) The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c) The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and
implementing approved changes
d) The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e) The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f) The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract
QUESTION 131
(CH4) Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Monitor and Control Project
Work process?
a) The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project
b) The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c) The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and
implementing approved changes
d) The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e) The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f) The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract

QUESTION 132
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT one of the Develop Project Charter process attributes?
a) developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase
b) documenting initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations
c) must be authorized by someone external to the project
d) is authorized by the project manager

QUESTION 133
(CH4) When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST given to:
a) Making changes
b) Tracking and recording changes
c) Informing the sponsor of changes
d) Preventing unnecessary changes

QUESTION 134
(CH4) It describes the necessary information to determine whether the expected outcomes of the project
justify the required investment. This statement is a description of:
a) the Business Case
b) the benefits management plan
c) business agreements
d) The Project charter document

QUESTION 135
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor?
a) Government or industry standards
b) Legal and regulatory requirements
c) Organizational governance framework
d) Organizational standard policies, processes, and procedures and work templates
QUESTION 136
(CH4) Facilitation techniques used in Develop Project Charter process include all of the following except:
a) Brainstorming,
b) conflict resolution
c) problem solving
d) interviews with stakeholders

QUESTION 137
(CH4) Which of following plans is NOT considered a subsidiary plan to be managed through the Project
management plan?
a) Schedule management plan.
b) Cost management plan.
c) Quality management plan.
d) Resource management plan.
e) Portfolio management plan.

QUESTION 138
(CH4) In which process in implementing (executing) approved changes occur?
a) Direct and Manage Project Work
b) Monitor and Control Project Work
c) Perform Integrated Change Control
d) All of the other choices

QUESTION 139
(CH4) Project documents that can be considered as inputs for Manage Project Knowledge process
include the following except:
a) Lessons learned register
b) Project team assignments
c) Resource breakdown structure
d) Project charter

QUESTION 140
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT considered an output of Manage Project Knowledge process?
a) Lessons Learned Register
b) Project Management Plan Updates
c) Organizational Process Assets Updates
d) Interpersonal and Team Skills
QUESTION 141
(CH4) In case of rushed change during project execution in one of the project plans or processes is
required, this change
a) Must be performed within the Perform Integrated Change Control process frame
b) The project manager can take any quick action to resolve the issue
c) Stakeholders must be called for a meeting
d) The project shall stop until a decision is taken

QUESTION 142
(CH4) All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT:
a) Procedures
b) Standards for reports
c) Meetings
d) Lessons learned

QUESTION 143
(CH4) A work authorization system can be used to:
a) Manage who does each activity
b) Manage what time and in what sequence work is done
c) Manage when each activity is done
d) Manage who does each activity and when it is done

QUESTION 144
(CH4) Integration is done by the:
a) Project manager
b) Team
c) Sponsor
d) Stakeholders

QUESTION 145
(CH4) Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role as an integrator?
a) Help team members become familiar with the project
b) Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole
c) Put all the pieces of a project into a program
d) Get all team members together into a cohesive whole
QUESTION 146
(CH4) At what point in the project should you conduct the kick-off meeting?
a) As soon as the project is initiated
b) At the end of the project, to assist with project closure
c) Only after all the planning work has been completed
d) After enough planning work ahs been completed to begin execution

QUESTION 147
(CH4) Work performance information is used for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a) It provides information on resource utilization
b) It provides information on which activities have started
c) It shows what costs have been defects
d) It is used to help identify defects

QUESTION 148
(CH4) The project plan provides a baseline for several things. Which one of the following does the project
plan not provided a baseline for?
a) Scope
b) Cost
c) Schedule
d) Control

QUESTION 149
(CH4) The output of the direct and manage project work process is:
a) The work packages
b) The Project Management Information System
c) The deliverables
d) The work breakdown structure

QUESTION 150
(CH4) The BEST time to assign a project manager to a project is during:
a) Integration
b) Project selection
c) Initiating
d) Planning
QUESTION 151
(CH4) Which of the following is not an organizational process asset that would be updated as a result of
completing project closure
a) Historical information
b) Project files
c) Project charter
d) Project closure checklist

QUESTION 152
(CH4) The project management plan is made up of
a) The other planning outputs
b) The other planning outputs, tools and techniques
c) The aggregate outputs of approved software tools
d) The business case key value justifications and the GANT chart

QUESTION 153
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT true about the project charter?
a) The project charter defines the requirements that satisfy customer needs
b) The project charter defines the work authorization system
c) The project charter makes the business case that justifies the project
d) The project charter includes the milestone schedule

QUESTION 154
(CH4) Which is NOT true about the project charter?
a) The project manager must be consulted before the charter is finalized
b) The charter is issued by the project sponsor
c) The project manager’s authority to manage the project is granted by the charter
d) The charter gives a summary milestone schedule

QUESTION 155
(CH4) Which of these is not an input to develop project charter?
a) Enterprise environmental factor
b) Project manager Plan
c) Agreement
d) Project Statements of work
QUESTION 156
(CH4) Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality
testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an
example of which one of the following?
a) Scope creep
b) Change control
c) Quality assurance
d) Integrated change control

QUESTION 157
(CH4) You are holding a formal, approved that defines how the project is execute, monitored, and
controlled. You are holding
a) The project Management Plan
b) The performance measurement plan
c) The project charter
d) The work breakdown structure

QUESTION 158
(CH4) What is the primary role of the project sponsor?
a) To be ultimately accountable for the project
b) To directly manage the performance of the project manager
c) To provide financial and political support for the project
d) To be the primary liaison with the client
QUESTION 1
(CH5) All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:
a) It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
b) It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
c) It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the
project.
d) It is not related to the project management plan.

QUESTION 2
(CH5) Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing
stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true
about this process EXCEPT:
a) The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the
discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in
determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result
of the project.
b) Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, quality planning, and
sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
c) The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in
the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
d) Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in
the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.

QUESTION 3
(CH5) You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the
stakeholder register for all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.
b) Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
c) Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
d) Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key
stakeholders.

QUESTION 4
(CH5) You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to
manage changes to the product scope. This is known as the:
a) Configuration management system.
b) Business case.
c) New product development matrix.
d) Requirements traceability matrix.
QUESTION 5
(CH5) An output of the Define Scope process is:

a) Work breakdown structure (WBS).

b) Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
c) Project scope statement.
d) Scope and schedule delays control plan.

QUESTION 6
(CH5) All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:

a) It is an output of the Validate Scope process.

a) It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those
deliverables.
b) It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
c) It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations.

QUESTION 7
(CH5) Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

a) The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
b) The WBS is a simple list of project activities in chart form.
c) The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
d) The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

QUESTION 8
(CH5) The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits
the team's options in scope definition:

a) A predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the
customer or performing organization.
b) The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
c) Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
d) The method used to measure project performance.
QUESTION 9
(CH5) An input to the Define Scope process is:

a) The type of contract detail language.

b) Project charter.
c) Work breakdown structure (WBS).
d) Decomposition.

QUESTION 10
(CH5) What is the WBS typically used for?

a) To organize and define the total scope of the project.

b) To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
c) To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
d) As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

QUESTION 11
(CH5) The following is true about the WBS:

a) The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.

b) Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
project work.
c) Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
d) The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

QUESTION 12
(CH5) Which of the following is true about the Validate Scope process?

a) It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

b) It is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
c) It occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
d) Scope validation is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, whereas quality
control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality
requirements specified for the deliverables.
QUESTION 13
(CH5) You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders in several international
locations. You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:

a) The language translation of technical terms used in the project.

b) Detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the
WBS.
c) Information relating the legal constraints of relevant international locations to the
development of the WBS.
d) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of key stakeholders and their
impact on the WBS.

QUESTION 14
(CH5) Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process?

a) Work performance information.

b) Change requests.
c) Project documents updates.
d) Accepted deliverables.

QUESTION 15
(CH5) All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:

a) Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
b) Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated with
the other control processes.
c) Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and
enforcing strict adherence to them.
d) Controlling the project scope ensures that all requested changes and recommended corrective
or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

QUESTION 16
(CH5) Describe capabilities that are temporary and are no longer needed after the new
product/service/result is ready.

a) Business requirements
b) Solution requirements
c) Quality requirements
d) Transition requirements
QUESTION 17
(CH5) Agile scope planning is especially useful when:

a) Solution requirements are emerging all the time.

b) Quality requirements are not stable.
c) Business requirements are not stable.
d) Scope is well understood at the beginning.

QUESTION 18
(CH5) Henry is the project manager for his organization, and management has asked him to
create a project management plan to define the scope statement. Which project management
plan guides the creation of the detailed project scope statement?

a) The charter
b) The project management plan
c) The project scope plan
d) The project scope management plan

QUESTION 19
(CH5) You are the project manager of the GYH Project. This project will create a walking
bridge across the Tennessee River. You’ve been asked to start the process of creating the
project scope statement and you need to gather the elements for this process. Which one of the
following is not needed to define the project scope?

a) A project charter
b) Organizational process assets
c) A risk management plan
d) Requirements documentation

QUESTION 20
(CH5) You are the project manager of the BHY Project. Your project customer has demanded
that the project be completed by December 1. December 1 is an example of which one of the
following?

a) A constraint
b) An assumption
c) A project boundary
d) Product acceptance criteria
QUESTION 21
(CH5) Marty is the project manager of the Highway 41 Bridge Project and he’s working with
his project team members to create the WBS. Marty shows the team how to break down the
project scope into the WBS components, but the team doesn’t understand how far down the
breakdown should occur. Marty should call the lowest-level item in a WBS what?

a) A deliverable
b) A work package
c) An activity
d) A leaf object

QUESTION 22
(CH5) You are working with the project team to create the WBS. Some elements in the WBS
can’t be broken down yet. You and the team elect to break down these items later in the
project as more details become available. This approach to creating the WBS is also known as
what?

a) Decomposition
b) The 8/80 Rule
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Rolling wave planning

QUESTION 23
(CH5) You are the project manager for your organization and you’re creating the WBS for a
new project. In your WBS, you’re numbering each level of the components following a project
sequenced numbering order. Your WBS is numbered in a hierarchical fashion for easy
identification and reference. This numbering scheme is called what?

a) Code of accounts
a) Chart of accounts
b) WBS template
c) WBS dictionary

QUESTION 24
(CH5) You’ll use the scope management plan to define the project scope statement. You’ll also
use this plan to build the scope baseline. Which two items are parts of the scope baseline for the
project?

a) The project scope management plan and project charter

b) The project scope management plan and the WBS
c) The WBS and WBS dictionary
d) Time and cost baselines
QUESTION 25
(CH5) Throughout the project, you have milestones scheduled at the end of each phase. Tied to
these milestones is a project management requirement of scope validation. Scope validation
leads to what?

a) Defect repair
b) Formal acceptance of the complete project scope
c) Rework
d) Inspection

QUESTION 26
(CH5) You’ve just reached the end of your project, and management has asked you and
several key stakeholders to begin the scope validation process. What is a tool and technique
used during scope validation?

a) Inspection
b) Quality control
c) Stakeholder analysis
d) Defect repair review

QUESTION 27
(CH5) David, one of your project team members, has been making changes to his work, which,
as a result, changes the project scope. David’s changes are also known as what?

a) Gold plating
b) Scope control defect
c) Scope creep
d) Improvised scope composition

QUESTION 28
(CH5) As the project manager, you are averse to change once the scope statement has been
approved. You do not want changes to enter the project because these changes can have a wide
impact on the project as a whole. Which process defines how the project scope can be changed?

a) The integrated change control process

b) The project integrated management system
c) The project management information system
d) Change control
QUESTION 29
(CH5) A scope change has been approved in Marcy’s project. All of the following must be
updated to reflect the change except for which one?

a) The project scope statement

b) The WBS
c) The WBS dictionary
d) Defect repair review

QUESTION 30
(CH5) A project team member has, on his own initiative, added extra vents to an attic to
increase air circulation. The project plan did not call for these extra vents, but the team
member decided they were needed based on the geographical location of the house. The project
team’s experts concur with this decision. This is an example of which of the following?

a) Cost control
b) Ineffective change control
c) Self-led teams
d) Value-added change

QUESTION 31
(CH5) It’s important for you, the project manager, to understand what each of the project
management processes creates. One of the key processes you’ll do is scope control throughout
your project. Which of the following is an output of scope control?

a) Work-around
b) Change request for a corrective action
c) Transference
d) Risk assessment

QUESTION 32
(CH5) You are the project manager for the JHG Project. Your project is to create a new
product for your industry. You have recently learned that your competitor is also working on a
similar project, but their offering will include a computer-aided program and web-based tools,
which your project does not offer. You have implemented a change request to update your
project accordingly. This is an example of which of the following?

a) A change due to an error and omission in the initiation phase

b) A change due to an external event
c) A change due to an error or omission in the planning phase
d) A change due to a legal issue
QUESTION 33
(CH5) You are the project manager of a large project. Your project sponsor and management
have approved your outsourcing portions of the project plan. What must be considered if a
change request affects the procured work?

a) The project sponsor

b) The contractual agreement
c) Vendor(s)
d) The cause of the change request

QUESTION 34
(CH5) A project team member has asked you what a scope statement is. Which of the following
is a characteristic of a project scope statement?

a) Defines the scope baseline for the project

b) Defines the requirements for each project within the organization
c) Defines the roles and responsibilities of each project team member
d) Defines the project deliverables and the work needed to create those deliverables

QUESTION 35
(CH5) One of the stakeholders of the project you are managing asks why you consider the
project scope statement so important in your project management methodology. You answer
her question with which of the following?

a) It is mandatory to consult the plan before authorizing any change.

b) Project managers must document any changes before approving or declining them.
c) The project scope helps the project manager determine whether a change is within or
outside of scope.
d) The project plan and earned value management (EVM) work together to assess the risk
involved with proposed changes.

QUESTION 36
(CH5) You are the project manager for a large construction project. The architect has
provided your project team with blueprints detailing the exact layout of the building your team
will be creating. He insists that the team follow the blueprints as he’s designed them. The
blueprints are an example of which one of the following?

a) Project specifications
b) Approval requirements
c) Project constraints
d) Initially defined risks
QUESTION 37
(CH5) Complete this sentence: Project scope management is primarily concerned with defining
and controlling _______________________________.

a) What is and is not included in the project

b) What is and is not included in the product
c) Changes to the project scope
d) Changes to the c

QUESTION 38
(CH5) Completion of a product scope is measured against:

a) Product Management Plan

b) Project Management Plan
c) WBS & WBS Dictionary
d) Product Requirements

QUESTION 39
(CH5) All of the below are inputs to Define Scope process EXCEPT:

a) Project Charter
b) Requirements Document
c) Organizational process assets
d) Project Management Plan

QUESTION 40
(CH5) Validated deliverables is an input to which of the following processes?

a) Collect Requirements
b) Define Scope
c) Create WBS
d) Validate Scope

QUESTION 41
(CH5) Project Charter is an input to all of the following processes EXCEPT:

a) Collect requirements
b) Define Scope
c) Create WBS
d) Develop Project Management Plan
QUESTION 42
(CH5) Validate Scope can be BEST described as the process of

a) Validating that the project quality requirements have been met

b) Obtaining stakeholder's formal acceptance of the project deliverables
c) Controlling changes to the scope of the project
d) Validating that all of the project's objectives have been met

QUESTION 43
(CH5) Which of the following can be BEST described as a characteristic of Work Package?

a) May or may not be cost estimated

b) Can be scheduled
c) Can be further decomposed into work packages
d) May be monitored subject to nature of the project

QUESTION 44
(CH5) What tool or technique would a project manager use to control scope?

a) Variance analysis
b) Inspection
c) Expert judgment
d) Product analysis

QUESTION 45
(CH5) Work Performance Measurement is an output of which process:

a) Define Scope
b) Create WBS
c) Validate Scope
d) Control Scope

QUESTION 46
(CH5) When performing the scope control process, which of the following statements is
correct?

a) Scope control validates the delivered scope for the project

b) The work performance measurements produced are part of the PMIS
c) The inspection process is a key tool and technique used in scope control
d) Scope control is performed in concert with other control processes
QUESTION 47
(CH5) What is scope decomposition?

a) Breaking down the work into increments of less than 40 hours each
b) Breaking down the work to the work package level
c) Breaking down the work to the lowest level of detail possible
d) Breaking down the work by functional area

QUESTION 48
(CH5) Who creates the scope baseline?

a) The project team

b) The project manager
c) All the stakeholders
d) Senior management

QUESTION 49
(CH5) You can determine whether requirements have been met by using ___________.

a) Quality Audits
b) Inspection
c) WBS
d) Scope Statement

QUESTION 50
(CH5) As a project manager, you have identified the deliverables and details about what is
included and excluded on your project. Where would you document this?

a) In the scope statement, which is an input to the Create WBS process.

b) In the scope statement, which is an input to the Collect Requirements process.
c) In the WBS, which is an output of the Requirement management plan process – Given
d) In the WBS, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process.

QUESTION 51
(CH5) The process of determining, documenting and managing stakeholder needs and
requirements to meet project objectives is known as________________/

a) Plan Scope Management

b) Collect Requirements
c) Control Scope
d) Validate Scope
QUESTION 52
(CH5) The Project charter is created by:

a) The project manager

b) The sponsor
c) The Vice President over a functional management group
d) The customer

QUESTION 53
(CH5) Complete this sentence: Project scope management is primarily concerned with defining
and controlling.

a) What is and is not included in the project

b) What is and is not included in the product
c) Changes to the project scope
d) Changes to the configuration management system

QUESTION 54
(CH5) Which of the following is a false statement about the WBS?

a) A control account may have many code of account identifiers.

b) You should keep decomposing WBS components to lower levels until necessary and
sufficient decomposition has been achieved.
c) Each work component appears in theWBS once and only once.
d) The work packages should appear from left to right in the order in which the work will be
performed.

QUESTION 55
(CH5) Which of the following is done first?

a) Creating the scope statement

b) Creating the WBS
c) Creating the requirement documentation
d) Creating the project charter

QUESTION 56
(CH5) The WBS is the output of which of the following processes?

a) The Create WBS process

b) The Define Scope process
c) The Develop WBS process
 d) The Project Initiating process

QUESTION 57
(CH5) The project scope statement is the output of which of the following processes?
a) The Create WBS process
b) The Define Scope process
c) The Create Project Scope process
d) The Project Initiating process

QUESTION 58
(CH5) Which of the following is a false statement about the output of the plan scope
management process that creates the project scope management plan?

a) It describes how to verify the project scope.

b) It describes how to control the project scope.
c) It doesn’t describe how to manage therequirements.
d) It describes how to define the product scope.

QUESTION 59
(CH5) What are the components in the lowest level of the WBS hierarchy collectively called?

a) Work packages
b) Control accounts
c) Phase
d) Milestones

QUESTION 60
(CH5) Choose what is included in the project scope statement:

a) Project scope
b) Product scope
c) Assumptions and constraints
d) Some things that the project is not going to do

QUESTION 61
(CH5) Which one of the following constitutes the project scope baseline?

a) The WBS document and the scope statement

b) The scope statement
c) The WBS document
d) The WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the scope statement
QUESTION 62
(CH5) Who creates the WBS?

a) The project manager alone

b) The upper management in the performing organization
c) The customer
d) The project manager with help from the project team

QUESTION 63
(CH5) Which of the following is not included in the project scope statement?

a) Project assumptions and constraints

b) The WBS
c) Product description
d) Project deliverables

QUESTION 64
(CH5) You are in the process of developing the requirement management plan for your
project. You will develop this plan:

a) By performing the Develop Requirement Plan process

b) By performing the Plan Scope Management process
c) There is no process for it.
d) During the initiation stage of the project

QUESTION 65
(CH5) You are in the planning stage of a project. Walking down the hallway, your supervisor
mumbles, “Don’t forget job shadowing.” Job shadowing is a technique used in:

a) Defining the project scope

b) Collecting product requirements
c) Creating the WBS
d) Developing the stakeholder management strategy
QUESTION 66
(CH5) You are planning the scope for your project. You have just created the requirement
documentation after meeting with the stakeholders and studying the project charter and so
forth. This requirement documentation can be used in developing:

a) Project scope statement

b) The WBS
c) The work performing information
d) The project scope statement and the WBS

QUESTION 67
(CH5) Which of the following is the correct order of running processes? Choose all that apply.

a) Develop Project Charter, Collect Requirements, and Create WBS

b) Collect Requirements, Control Quality, and Validate Scope
c) Identify Stakeholders, Define Scope, and Collect Requirements
d) Collect Requir ements, V alidate Scope, Contr ol Quality

QUESTION 68
(CH5) You have selected a node in the hierarchy of the WBS that you will use to compare
schedule, cost, and scope with the earned value in order to measure the project performance.
This node or component in the WBS is called:

a) Code of accounts
b) Control account
c) Management account
d) Performance node

QUESTION 69
(CH5) You are the project manager for a software product, and your project is in the
execution stage. You have learned that Maya, a developer, has started adding some new
features to the deliverable she is working on. What is the best action for you to take?

a) Tell Maya to delete the code corresponding to these features because this is a scope creep,
and scope creeps are not allowed.
b) Learn from Maya what those features are and how much time they will take and then make
necessary updates to the WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the schedule. Also tell Maya that in
the future she should get approval from you before adding any new features.
c) Determine where the request for the new features came from and process the change
request through the integrated change request process.
d) Contact Maya’s functional manager and ask the manager to replace Maya with another
developer.
QUESTION 70
(CH5) The project was tasked to develop a new software to be used by three sales channels of
an auto parts company. The project was consistently on time and within budget, and the
stakeholders approved prototypes of the software. However, when the completed software was
installed and beta tested, a problem was discovered. Although the software performed as
expected on in-store and call center- assisted purchases, it was found to be incompatible with
other software necessary to complete online transactions. Therefore, the customer refused to
accept the final deliverable, and the team was left to find a new software package that would
accommodate all the customer s needs. Which of the following did the team not do?
a) Collect requirements from the right stakeholders.
b) Test interim deliverables.
c) Control stakeholder engagement.
d) Accurately define product scope.

QUESTION 71
(CH5) Being prepared to do a complete job of developing and finalizing the scope baseline
requires that you have done a thorough and timely job of identifying and analyzing
stakeholders, and of collecting requirements. The development of the scope baseline can best
be described as involving:
a) The functional managers
b) The project team
c) All the stakeholders
d) The business analyst

QUESTION 72
(CH5) During which part of the project management process is the project scope statement
created?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and controlling

QUESTION 73
(CH5) Which of the following best describes product analysis?
a) Working with the customer to determine the product description
b) Mathematically analyzing the quality desired for the project
c) Gaining a better understanding of the product of the project in order to create the project
scope statement
d) Determining whether the quality standards on the project can be met
QUESTION 74
(CH5) You are managing a six-month project and have held biweekly meetings with your
project stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and
budget, but the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay
the project completion by one month. The most important process that could have prevented
this situation is:
a) Monitor Risks
b) Control Schedule
c) Define Scope
d) Control Scope

QUESTION 75
(CH5) A highway renewal project you are managing appears to have some missing scope. Your
understanding of the scope was that the highway was to be resurfaced. Now, one of the
construction foremen has come to ask why he finds no mention of repainting the lines on the
repaved road. He also wants to know if there are any guard rail replacement work packages
in the project. You have seen some of the resurfaced road that is completed, with the new lines
painted on them. Which of the following is most likely to have caused the misinterpretation of
the project scope statement?
a) Imprecise language
b) Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order
c) Variations in size of work packages or detail of work
d) Too much detail

QUESTION 76
(CH5) Which of the following best describes the difference between the Control Scope process
and the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
a) Control Scope focuses on making changes to the product scope, and Perform Integrated
Change Control focuses on making changes to integration.
b) Control Scope focuses on controlling the scope of the project, and Perform Integrated
Change Control focuses on determining the impact of a change of scope on time, cost,
quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction.
c) Control Scope focuses on controlling the scope of the project, and Perform Integrated Change
Control focuses on making changes to integration.
d) Control Scope focuses on making changes to the product scope, and Perform Integrated
Change, Control focuses on determining the impact of a change to scope, time, cost, quality,
risk, resources, and customer satisfaction.

QUESTION 77
(CH5) Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
a) Requirements traceability matrix
b) Project scope statement
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Change requests
QUESTION 78
(CH5) A project manager may use to make sure the team members clearly know what is
included in each of their work packages.
a) The project scope statement
b) The product scope
c) The WBS dictionary
d) The schedule

QUESTION 79
(CH5) On an agile software development project, the project manager asks business
stakeholders to create user stories, which will be used in the development and testing of the
new application. The main purpose of a user story is:
a) To document features or functions required by stakeholders
b) To create a record of issues encountered on the project
c) To perform what-if analysis
d) To communicate progress

QUESTION 80
(CH5) The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new
technology. While planning the next project in this program, the project manager has
expanded the scope management plan because as a project becomes more complex, the level of
uncertainty in the scope:
a) Remains the same
b) Decreases
c) Decreases then increases
d) Increases

QUESTION 81
(CH5) A new project manager has asked you for advice on creating a work breakdown
structure. After you explain the process to her, she asks you what software she should use to
create the WBS and what she should do with it when it is completed. You might respond that
the picture is not the most valuable result of creating a WBS. The most valuable result of a
WBS is:
a) A bar chart
b) Team buy-in
c) Activities
d) A list of risks
QUESTION 82
(CH5) During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is asked to
add work to the project scope. The project manager had access to correspondence about the
project before the project charter was signed and remembers that the project sponsor
specifically denied funding for the scope mentioned by these stakeholders. The best thing for
the project manager to do is to:
a) Let the sponsor know of the stakeholders’ request.
b) Evaluate the impact of adding the scope.
c) Tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added.
d) Add the work if there is time available in the project schedule.

QUESTION 83
(CH5) To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which
of the following does not describe how far to decompose the work?
a) Until it has a meaningful conclusion
b) Until it cannot be logically subdivided further
c) Until it can be done by one person
d) Until it can be realistically estimated

QUESTION 84
(CH5) All of the following are parts of the scope baseline except the:
a) Scope management plan
b) Project scope statement
c) Work breakdown structure
d) WBS dictionary

QUESTION 85
(CH5) You have just joined the project management office after five years of working on
projects. One of the things you want to introduce to your company is the value of creating and
utilizing work breakdown structures. Some of the project managers are angry that you are
asking them to do “extra work.” Which of the following is the best thing you could tell the
project managers to convince them to use work breakdown structures?
a) Work breakdown structures will prevent work from slipping through the cracks.
b) Work breakdown structures are of greater value on large projects.
c) Work breakdown structures are best when the project involves contracts.
d) Work breakdown structures are the only way to identify risks.
QUESTION 86
(CH5) A project has a number of deliverables that are complex and have to be assembled. As
the project manager, you know the work breakdown structure will help stakeholders to see
interim deliverables that will be integrated into the final project deliverables. To help manage
the individual elements, you have used a work breakdown numbering system. This numbering
system allows the project team to:
a) Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements.
b) Provide project justification.
c) Identify the level at which individual elements are found.
d) Use it in project management software.

QUESTION 87
(CH5) The product of the project has been completed and delivered to the customer by the
team. They are informed by the customer that several of the deliverables are not acceptable, as
they do not meet the requirements specified early in the project. The project manager and
team review the requirements documentation, and are in agreement that the product
deliverables meet the customer s requirements as they understand them. The project
manager, who is new to the organization, seeks the advice of the project management office in
determining what went wrong. After some discussion, the PMO realizes that the Validate
Scope process was not performed appropriately by the project manager. Which of the
following is a key output of the Validate Scope process?
a) A more complete scope management plan
b) Customer acceptance of project deliverables
c) Requirements analysis
d) Confirmation of the project scope statement

QUESTION 88
(CH5) During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope
that is beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team
needs to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an
example of:
a) Change management
b) Scope management
c) Quality analysis
d) Scope decomposition

QUESTION 89
(CH5) Validate Scope is closely related to:
a) Control Quality
b) Sequence Activities
c) Manage Quality
QUESTION 90
(CH5) Modifications may be needed to the WBS and WBS dictionary because of approved
change requests, which shows that:
a) Re-planning is an output of Control Scope
b) Scope creep is common on projects
c) Re-baselining will be necessary
d) Updates are needed to the scope baseline

QUESTION 91
(CH5) How is a context diagram used?
a) To depict product scope
b) To trace requirements as part of the traceability matrix
c) To develop the scope management plan
d) To develop the requirements management plan

QUESTION 92
(CH5) Assume you are working to collect the requirements for your project. As you do so, you
realize your project's success is due to:
a) Active stakeholder involvement
b) Linking the requirements you collect to the requirement management plan
c) Conducting facilitated workshops with stakeholders
d) Preparing a requirements document template that you and your team can use throughout the
Collect Requirements process

QUESTION 93
(CH5) Collecting requirements is critical in project scope management, but all the
requirements may not be used as the project scope is defined. Assume once you defined your
project's scope, you then began to develop your work breakdown structure. As you worked on
it, you found it useful to review the:
a) Scope management plan
b) Requirements documentation
c) Requirements management plan
d) Requirements traceability matrix

QUESTION 94
(CH5) 'hile the Validate Scope process has some similarities with the Control Quality process,
a key benefit of Validate Scope is:
a) It formalizes acceptance of the project's deliverables
b) It decreases the number of change requests
c) It brings objectivity to the acceptance process
d) It reduces the need for product reviews
QUESTION 95
(CH5) You and your project team recognize the importance of project scope management to a
project's overall success; therefore, you include only the work required for successful
completion of the project. The first step in the Project Scope Management process is to:
a) Clearly distinguish between project scope and product scope
b) Prepare a scope management plan
c) Define and document your stakeholders' needs to meet the project's objectives
d) Prepare your requirements documentation

QUESTION 96
(CH5) Your project is now under way, and you are working with your team to prepare your
requirements management plan. One component of this plan you want to include is:
a) Metrics to use
b) A se t of procedures by which project scope and product scope may be changed
c) Requirements traceability matrix
d) Requirements documentation

QUESTION 97
(CH5) You are leading a project team to identify potential new products for your organization.
One idea was rejected by management because it would not fit with the organization's core
competencies. You now have a project to make your organization one that is comfortable with
using disruptive technologies, which was approved. Now you are working on your scope
statement and as you do so, it is helpful to consider-
a) The assumption log
b) Project life cycle definition
c) Marketplace conditions
d) Development approach

QUESTION 98
(CH5) Your customer signed off on the requirements document and scope statement of your
video game project last month. Today she stated she would like to make it an interactive game
that can be played on a television, smart phone and on a computer. This represents a requested
scope change that at a minimum:
a) Should be reviewed according to the Perform Integrated Change Control process
b) Results in a change to all project baselines
c) Requires adjustments to cost, time, quality, and other objectives
d) Results in a lesson learned
QUESTION 99
(CH5) Validate scope:
a) Improves cost and schedule accuracy, particularly on projects using innovative techniques or
technology
b) Is the last activity performed on a project before handoff to the customer
c) Documents the characteristics of the product, service, or result that the project was
undertaken to create
d) Differs from Perform Quality Control in that Validate Scope is concerned with the
acceptance-not the correctness-of the deliverables

QUESTION 100
(CH5) You want to structure your project so that each project team member has a discrete
work package to perform. The work package is a:
a) Work defined at the lowest level of the WBS
b) Task with a unique identifier
c) Required level of reporting
d) Task that can be assigned to more than one organizational unit

QUESTION 101
(CH5) Assume you and your team prepared your project's scope statement, and it was
approved by your sponsor and your governance committee. However, you also need to update
some project documents as an output of the Define Scope process. One example is:
a) Value engineering
b) Assumptions log
c) WBS Dictionary
d) Change log

QUESTION 102
(CH5) You are managing a complex project for a new method of heating and air conditioning
in vehicles. You will use both solar and wind technologies in this project to reduce energy costs.
Therefore, you must ensure that the work of your project will result in delivering the project 's
specified scope, which means that you should measure completion of the product scope against
the:
a) Scope management plan
b) Business requirements
c) Solution requirements
d) Requirements management plan

QUESTION 103
(CH5) One approach that can be used to detect the impact of any change from the scope
baseline on the project objectives is-
a) Requirements traceability matrix
 b) Review of formal and informal scope control processes and guidelines
c) A formal configuration management plan
d) Well-documented requirements
QUESTION 104
(CH5) Progressive elaboration of product characteristics on your project must be coordinated
carefully with the:
a) Project scope definition
b) Project stakeholders
c) Scope change control system
d) Customer's strategic plan

QUESTION 105
(CH5) You are going to be using a number of contractors on your project to produce a car that
uses natural gas as its fuel supply since your country has an abundance of it available. You are
working on preparing your WBS for this project as you have completed the scope statement.
In your \VBS, the. most effective approach to use is to-
a) Link the WBS to the bill of materials
b) Integrate subcomponents
c) Use your organization's template
d) Focus on major deliverables

QUESTION 106
(CH5) Validate Scope is performed throughout the project. However. there are several outputs
from the Validate Scope process, one of which is-
a) Inspection reports
b) Voting results
c) Work performance data
d) Deliverables that have not been formally accepted

QUESTION 107
(CH5) Assume you are preparing the scope statement for your project. In it, you are
describing the project's deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. You also want to include:
a) Project exclusions
b) The business need
c) Stakeholder expectations
d) Project management methodology

QUESTION 108
(CH5) You have prepared the WBS for your project. However, for your project, your company
decided to try an agile approach. Many feel you will not need to develop a WBS and a lot of
other documents in your project management methodology. However, with agile the difference
is:
 a) Different levels of decomposition can be used
b) Epics are decomposed into user stories
c) The WBS is represented as a hierarchical breakdown
d) The project management element is not included because of the close customer collaboration
QUESTION 109
(CH5) The document to evaluate whether requests for changes or additional work are
contained within or outside the project 's exclusion is provided by the:
a) Project management plan
b) Project scope statement
c) Project scope management plan
d) WBS dictionary

QUESTION 110
(CH5) A key tool and technique used in Define Scope is:
a) Templates, forms, and standards
b) Decomposition
c) Multi-criteria decision analysis
d) Project management methodology

QUESTION 111
(CH5) You are establishing a PMO that will have a project management information system
that will be an online repository of all program data. You will collect descriptions of all work
components for each project under the PMO's jurisdiction. This information will form an
integral part of the:
a) Chart of accounts
b) WBS dictionary
c) WBS structure template
d) Earned value management reports

QUESTION 112
(CH5) The project scope statement is important in scope control because it-
a) Is a critical component of the scope baseline
b) Provides information on project performance
c) Alerts the project team to issues that may cause problems in the future
d) ls expected to change throughout the project

QUESTION 113
(CH5) Quality function deployment is one approach for collecting requirements. Assume that
you have studied the work of numerous quality experts, such as Deming, Juran, and Crosby,
and your organization has a policy that states the importance of quality as the key constraint of
all project constraints. You and your team have decided to use quality function deployment on
your new project to manufacture turbines that use alternative fuels. The first step you should
use is to:
a) Determine the voice of the customer.
b) Build the house of quality
c) Address the functional requirements and how best to meet them
d) Hold a focus group of prequalified stakeholders
QUESTION 114
(CH5) An example of an organizational process asset that could affect how project scope is to
be managed is:
a) Personnel administration
b) Marketplace conditions
c) Historical information
d) Organizational culture

QUESTION 115
(CH5) You have been appointed project manager for a new project in your organization and
must prepare a project management plan. You decide to prepare a WBS to show the
magnitude and complexity of the work involved. No WBS templates are available to help you.
To prepare the WBS, your first step should be to:
a) Determine the cost and duration estimates for each project deliverable
b) Identify and analyze the deliverables and related work
c) Identify the components of each project deliverable
d) Determine the key tasks to be performed

QUESTION 116
(CH5) In Control Scope it is important to determine the cause of any unacceptable variance
relative to the scope baseline. This can be done through-
a) Root-cause analysis
b) Control charts
c) Inspections
d) Data analysis

QUESTION 117
(CH5) Change is inevitable on projects. The number of interested stakeholders, technology, the
difficulty in obtaining resources, and the difficulty in motivating people to be on the team are
just a few changes that may occur on projects. Projects also cause changes in the development
of a new product, service, or result. The project manager wants to minimize changes on the
project. Uncontrolled changes are often referred to as-
a) Rework
b) Scope creep
c) Configuration items
d) Emergency changes
QUESTION 118
(CH5) To assist your software development team in collecting requirements from potential
users and to ensure that agreement about the stakeholders' needs exists early in the project,
you decide to use an interpersonal and team skill. Numerous techniques are available, but you
and your team choose a voting process to rank the most useful ideas for further prioritization.
This approach is known as:
a) Brainstorming
b) Nominal group technique
c) Delphi technique
d) Affinity diagram

QUESTION 119
(CH5) Although you and your team are actively working to control the scope of your project,
change is inevitable on projects. You have had some change requests from your sponsor, team
members, and other stakeholders. You have processed these change requests. This means you
also need to update which of the following documents?
a) Scope management plan
b) Requirements traceability matrix
c) WBS
d) Scope statement

QUESTION 120
(CH5) You are examining multiple scope change requests on a project you were asked to take
over because the previous project manager decided to resign. To assess the degree to which the
project scope will change, you need to compare the requests to which project document?
a) Preliminary scope statement
b) WBS
c) Change management plan
d) Scope management plan

QUESTION 121
(CH5) On the WBS, you have decided to structure it by phases of your project. In this
approach:
a) Deliverables are at the third level
b) Subcomponents are at the first level
c) Major deliverables are at the second level
d) Project organizational units are at the third level
QUESTION 122
(CH5) The product scope description is documented as pan of the project's scope statement. It
is important to include it because it-
a) Facilitates the project acceptance process
b) Describes specific constraints associated with the project
c) Progressively elaborates characteristics
d) Shows various alternatives considered

QUESTION 123
(CH5) Each organization is unique and has different ways to define its products, services, and
results. You are working on your project to develop a new Product using disruptive
technologies to reduce traffic in your city. You are working to define your project's scope, and
you have a large team plus interested stakeholders. A tool and technique that may be helpful
is:
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Decision trees
c) Facilitation
d) Lateral thinking

QUESTION 124
(CH5) Throughout the project, you are focusing on the Monitoring and Controlling process,
which include Control Scope. You have processed some change requests and now also need to
update some parts of the project management plan, one of which is the:
a) Requirements management plan
b) Lessons-learned register·
c) Cost baseline
d) Requirements documents

QUESTION 125
(CH5) You are the project manager on a systems engineering project designed to last six years
and to develop the next-generation corvette for use in military operations. You and your team
recognize that requirements may change as new technologies, especially in sonar systems, are
developed. You are concerned that these new technologies may lead to changes in the scope of
your product, which then will affect the scope of your project. Therefore to help you, you
should prepare a:
a) Requirements traceability matrix
b) Requirements prioritization process
c) Configuration management system
d) Requirements management plan
QUESTION 126
(CH5) You want to avoid scope creep on your project and are working hard to do so. Your
sponsor has asked for regular reports as to how the project is performing according to the
scope baseline. You decide to use-
a) Variance analysis
b) Inspection and peer review results
c) Work performance information
d) The impact analysis results of proposed change requests

QUESTION 127
(CH5) Rather than use a WBS, your team developed a bill of materials to define the project's
work components. A customer review of this document uncovered that a scope change was
needed, because a deliverable had not been defined, and it led to the need to write a change
request. This is an example of a change request that is required because it is the result of:
a) An external event
b) A change to the scope baseline
c) A value-adding change
d) An error or omission in defining the scope of the project

QUESTION 128
(CH5) You are working to collect the requirements for your project to eliminate the possibility
of later scope creep. You have a variety of tools and techniques you can use. Assume you want
to obtain early feedback on the requirements, and you have decided the most appropriate tool
and technique is:
a) Interviews
b) Prototypes
c) Brainstorming
d) Requirements management plan

QUESTION 129
(CH5) You and your team are documenting requirements on your project to control fatigue as
people need to work more hours to keep up with the competition. You decided to set up
categories for the requirements on your project. Temporary capabilities are an example of:
a) Stakeholder requirements
b) Transition requirements
c) Project requirements
d) Business requirements
QUESTION 130
(CH5) A project has just started the second phase, in which work packages are being created.
A new team member has completed his work packages for this phase and has asked the project
manager to validate the scope of his work packages. The team member is anxious to have the
customer see his work packages. The project manager, although confident in this new team
member, wants the team member to gain confidence after the customer sees his work
packages. When should the Validate Scope process be done?
a) At the end of the project
b) At the beginning of the project
c) At the end of each phase of the project
d) During the planning processes

QUESTION 131
(CH5) Which of the following best describes the Validate Scope process?
a) It provides assurances that the deliverable meets the specifications, is an input to the project
management plan, and is an output of Control Quality.
b) It ensures the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptance, and shows the
deliverable meets specifications.
c) It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a
chance for differences of opinion to come to light.
d) It is an output of Control Quality, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer
acceptance.

QUESTION 132
(CH5) The development phase of a new software product is near completion. A number of
quality issues have increased the cost of building the product, but the project manager and
team feel these costs will be inconsequential once the project gets to market. The next phases
are testing and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. Which of the
following processes should the project manager be most concerned with before moving into
the next phase?
a) Validate Scope
b) Control Quality
c) Manage Communications
d) Control Costs

QUESTION 133
(CH5) The project is mostly complete. The project has a schedule variance of300 and a cost
variance of -900. All but one of the quality control inspections have been completed, and all
have met the quality requirements. All items in the issue log have been resolved. Many of the
resources have been released. The sponsor is about to call a meeting to obtain product
validation when the customer notifies the project manager that they want to make a major
change to the scope. The project manager should:
a) Meet with the project team to determine if this change can be made.
b) Ask the customer for a description of the change.
c) Explain that the change cannot be made at this point in the process.
d) Inform management.
QUESTION 134
(CH5) Which of the following is correct in regard to the Control Scope process?
a) Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement.
b) The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning.
c) The Control Scope process must be integrated with other control processes.
d) Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope.

QUESTION 135
(CH5) During the completion of project work, the sponsor asks the project manager to report
on how the project is going. In order to prepare the report, the project manager asks each of
the team members what percent complete their work is. There is one team member who has
been hard to manage from the beginning. In response to being asked what percent complete
he is, the team member asks, “Percent complete of what?” Tired of such comments, the project
manager reports to the team member’s boss that the team member is not cooperating. Which
of the following is most likely the real problem?
a) The project manager did not get buy-in from the manager for the resources on the project.
b) The project manager did not create an adequate reward system for team members to improve
their cooperation.
c) The project manager should have had a meeting with the team member’s boss the first time
the team member caused trouble.
d) The project manager did not assign work packages.

QUESTION 136
(CH5) The cost performance index (CPI) on the project is 1.13, and the benefit-cost ratio is 1.2.
The project scope was created by the team and stakeholders. Requirements have been
changing throughout the project. No matter what the project manager has tried to accomplish
in managing the project, which of the following is he most likely to face in the future?
a) Having to cut costs on the project and increase benefits
b) Making sure the customer has approved the project scope
c) Not being able to measure completion of the product of the project
d) Having to add resources to the project

QUESTION 137
(CH5) During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is
not sure what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents
contains detailed descriptions of work packages?
a) WBS dictionary
b) Activity list
c) Project scope statement
d) Scope management plan
QUESTION 138
(CH5) A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced PMP-certified project
manager. The new project manager is having difficulty finding enough time to manage the
project because the project scope is being progressively elaborated. The PMP-certified project
manager advises that the basic tools for project management, such as a work breakdown
structure, can be used during project executing to assist the project manager. For which of the
following can a work breakdown structure be used?
a) Communicating with the customer
b) Showing calendar dates for each work package
c) Identifying the functional managers for each team member
d) Describing the business need for the project

QUESTION 139
(CH5) The work breakdown structure can best be thought of as an effective aid for---------------
---------- communications.
a) Team
b) Project manager
c) Customer
d) Stakeholder

QUESTION 140
(CH5) One of the stakeholders on the project contacts the project manager to discuss some
additional scope they would like to add to the project. The project manager asks for details in
writing and then works through the Control Scope process. What should the project manager
do next when the evaluation of the requested scope is complete?
a) Ask the stakeholder if any more changes are expected.
b) Complete integrated change control.
c) Make sure the impact of the change is understood by the stakeholder.
d) Find out the root cause of why the scope was not identified during project planning.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) In rolling wave planning:

a) Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out

as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
b) The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in the
future is planned at a higher level.
c) The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the
WBS.
d) A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS
deliverables and project milestones are achieved.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

a) A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one
or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be
performed.
b) A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
c) A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
d) More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties about
the durations of project activities.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) The estimated activity resource requirements.

b) The types of resources assigned to the activity.
c) The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
d) Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of
using the critical path method (CPM).

QUESTION 17
(CH6) A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources is called:

a) Crashing.
b) Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
c) Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
d) Fast tracking.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) The “fast tracking” method of schedule compression involves:

a) The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the
project earlier than originally planned.
b) Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are
normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
c) Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if
possible.
d) Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) An example of a mandatory dependency is:

a) A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular

application area.
b) A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific
sequence is desired.
c) On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been
built.
d) On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all
project requirements.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) Inputs to the Define Activities process are:

a) Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network
diagram.
b) Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
c) Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
d) Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) For project scheduling, bar charts show:

a) The level of effort for an activity.

b) Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
c) Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
d) Relative priority of activities.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:

a) Various levels of the work breakdown structure.

b) Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
c) The logical relationships that exist between activities.
d) The project completion date based on normal resource availability.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:

a) Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.

b) Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
c) Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
d) Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) All of the following are true about resource levelling EXCEPT:

a) It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
b) It can often cause the original critical path to change.
c) It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
d) It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to
demand and supply of resources.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:

a) Directs a delay in the successor activity.

b) Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
c) Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
d) Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous
activity is completed.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) Three-point estimating uses:

a) An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.

b) The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the
expected duration of the activity.
c) Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
d) Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) Analogous duration estimating is:

a) Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed
information about the project.
b) A bottom-up estimating technique.
c) Based on multiple duration estimating.
d) Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is
used.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

❖ Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

❖ Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks
❖ Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the calculated Expected
activity duration (tE) is:

a) 4.0 weeks.
b) 4.5 weeks.
c) 5.5 weeks.
d) 6.5 weeks.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) Consider the following information about the duration of an activity:
❖ Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks
❖ Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks
❖ Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks
Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM)
activity duration is:
a) 4.0 weeks.
b) 4.5 weeks.
c) 5.0 weeks.
d) 6.0 weeks.

QUESTION 17
(CH6Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

❖ Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks

❖ Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks
❖ Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks

Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:

a) 10.0 weeks.
b) 10.5 weeks.
c) 11.5 weeks.
d) 12.0 weeks.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and
LF = 14. Therefore, LS = .

a) 9.0 weeks.
b) 10.0 weeks.
c) 11.0 weeks.
d) 12.0 weeks.
QUESTION 17
(CH6) An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22, and LS =
14. ES and LS relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week.
The duration of the activity is:

a) 8.0 weeks.
b) 11.0 weeks.
c) 12.0 weeks.
d) 14.0 weeks.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) “Crashing” in schedule management is:

a) A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.
b) A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel.
c) The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
d) Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their
associated durations in days for questions 98–99:

QUESTION 98
(CH6) The critical path in this network is:

a) A-B-C.
b) A-B-D.
c) A-C-D.
d) A-B-C-D.
QUESTION 99
(CH6) The free float for activity C is:

a) 14.
b) 12.
c) 0.
d) –2.

QUESTION 99
(CH6) The Control Schedule process for a project:

a) Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to
achieve the approved schedule baseline.
b) Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and
managing changes to the schedule baseline.
c) Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
d) Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.

QUESTION 1
(CH6) You are the project manager of the HGF Project. You would like to use a portion of the
activity list from the HGB Project, which is similar to your current project. The portion of the
activity list from the HGB Project is best described as which one of the following?

a) Rolling wave planning

b) Analogous estimating
c) A template
d) Expert judgment

QUESTION 2
(CH6) You are the project manager of a large project for your organization. Much of the
project will center on new software that you’ll be installing on 4500 laptops in stages. Because
of the likelihood of change, you’ve recommended a rolling wave planning approach. Which one
of the following is the best example of rolling wave planning?

a) Using expert judgment for the current project

b) Using a portion of the activity list from a previous project
c) Breaking down the project scope
d) Planning the immediate portions of the project in detail and the future project portions at a
higher level
QUESTION 3
(CH6) You are working with your project team to break down the project work into activities.
Which component in the WBS must be broken down to get to the schedule activities?

a) Project scope
b) Work packages
c) Planning packages
d) Product scope

QUESTION 4
(CH6) You and the project team have created the work breakdown structure based on the
project scope and requirements. Your next step is to create the project’s activity list. Which
one of the following will not be included in the activity list created with the project
management team?

a) Activities that are not part of the project scope

b) Quality control activities
c) Activities to create the work packages
d) Physical terms, such as linear feet of pipe to be installed

QUESTION 5
(CH6) Mary has created an activity list with her project team. She has included activity
attributes for each of the activities in her project activity list. Of the following, which one is not
an example of an activity attribute that Mary likely included?

a) Scope validation
b) Predecessor activities
c) Leads and lags
d) Geographic area where the work must take place

QUESTION 6
(CH6) Your project team agrees that the server operating system must first be installed before
the application can be installed. This best describes which one of the following?

a) Hard logic
b) Soft logic
c) Start-to-start relationship
d) Finish-to-finish relationship
QUESTION 7
(CH6) You are working with your project team to schedule activities for your construction
project. You have scheduled the painting activity to be completed before the carpet installation
activity may begin. The relationship between the painting activity and carpet installation
activity can best be described as which one of the following?

a) Lag
b) Lead
c) Finish-to-start
d) Start-to-finish

QUESTION 8
(CH6) You are the project manager for your organization, and the following illustration
represents your project. Based on the following illustration. How long will the project last?

a) 15 days
b) 12 days
c) 14 days
d) 41 days
QUESTION 9
(CH6) Beth is the project manager of her company and she’s asked you to help her with
project schedule network analysis. Examine the illustration to the right. If Activity B is delayed
by two days, how late will the project be?

a) The project will not be late because Activity B may use float.
b) The project will be late by one day.
c) The project will be late by two days.
d) The project will be late by four days.

QUESTION 10
(CH6) Ronald is the project manager for his company. He has created a project network
diagram for the activities in the activity list and he’s trying now to begin the process of float
determination. He’s asked for your help. Examine the following illustration. Which path is the
critical path?

a) ABFGJL
b) ACFGJL
c) ADEHJL
d) ADIKL
QUESTION 11
(CH6) Consider a project that is to begin work on a Monday and a project team that will not
work any weekends. The critical path of the project is 17 days. On what day of the week will
the project be completed?

a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday

QUESTION 12
(CH6) Mike, a project manager in your company, is falling behind on the project schedule. He
has elected to crash the project. What is crashing?

a) Adding lag time between all project activities

b) Adding lead time between all project activities
c) Adding additional project resources to the project work
d) Removing all unneeded project deliverables

QUESTION 13
(CH6) You are the project manager of the PJG Project for your company. This project is
similar to a project you completed a few months ago, and you’d like to reference the older
project for information. Which estimating technique uses a similar project to predict how long
the current project will take to complete?

a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Organizational process assets
d) Bottom-up estimating

QUESTION 14
(CH6) You are using a triangular estimate for your project. Howard reports that his optimistic
estimate is 16 hours, his most likely estimate is 24 hours, and the pessimistic estimate is 65
hours. What is the estimated duration for Howard’s activity?

a) You won’t know until Howard actually does the work.

b) 105 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 35 hours.
QUESTION 15
(CH6) The framing activity cannot begin until the concrete has cured for 36 hours. The time
between the concrete activity and the framing activity is best described as which one of the
following?

a) Hard logic
b) Lag time
c) Lead time
d) Finish-to-start relationship

QUESTION 16
(CH6) You are the project manager of the Data Warehouse Project. You’ve just recently
created the project network diagram and you now want to identify the critical path. Which one
of the following best describes the critical path?

a) It is always one path with no float.

b) It determines the earliest the project can finish.
c) It has the most activities.
d) It has the most important project activities.

QUESTION 17
(CH6) Management has asked that you create the schedule management plan to identify the
different processes and procedures your project will require. During the creation of the plan,
you need to identify schedule change control and its components. Schedule change control is
part of which project management process?

a) Change control
b) Cost control
c) WBS refinements
d) Integrated change control

QUESTION 18
(CH6) Terry is the project manager of the network update project and the project
stakeholders have requested that four new servers be added to the project. This addition will
cause changes in the project costs and schedule. Which process can manage changes to the
project schedule?

a) Change control system

b) Schedule change control system
c) Integrated change control
d) Change control board
QUESTION 19
(CH6) Which schedule development tool does not consider the availability of the project
resources, only when the work may take place in the project?

a) The critical path method

b) The critical chain method
c) Schedule compression
d) Arrow on the node method

QUESTION 20
(CH6) You are working with your project team to respond to some delays in the project
schedule. You have elected to crash the project schedule, and management wants to know what
effect this will have on the project as a whole. What happens when a project manager elects to
crash a project?

a) The project will end early.

b) The project will end on time.
c) The project costs will increase.
d) The project team morale will decrease

QUESTION 1
(CH6) Reserve Analysis involves:

a) Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate

b) Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
c) Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
d) Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates

QUESTION 2
(CH6) A milestone activity has a _______________.

a) Zero float
b) Negative float
c) No duration
d) None of the above
QUESTION 3
(CH6) Your project is experiencing resource constraints at certain times in the project
timeline, requiring you to adjust start and finish dates on the schedule. What tool is best to use
in this situation?

a) Resource leveling
b) Feeding buffer
c) Critical Path method
d) Resource smoothing

QUESTION 4
(CH6) Project crashing means____________________.

a) Speeding up the project by adding more resources.

b) Cancelling the project
c) delaying the project
d) All of the above

QUESTION 5
(CH6) Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following?

a) Project Manager who created the WBS

b) Project Team Members responsible for the work package
c) Project Officer
d) Project Stakeholder

QUESTION 6
(CH6) Which of the following is not an activity attribute?

a) Person responsible for the activity

b) Location where to perform the activity
c) Time when to perform the activity
d) Leads and Lags

QUESTION 7
(CH6) In PDM, which of the following relationships is rarely used?

a) Finish-to-Start
b) Start-to-Finish
c) Start-to-Start
d) Finish-to-Finish
QUESTION 8
(CH6) A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an
example of:

a) Finish-to-Start
b) Start-to-Finish
c) Start-to-Start
d) Finish-to-Finish

QUESTION 9
(CH6) A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an
example of:

a) ADM
b) PDM
c) A dependency with lag
d) A dependency with lead

QUESTION 10
(CH6) Which of the following is a technique for Sequence Activities:

a) Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

b) Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
c) Rolling Wave Planning
d) Mandatory Dependencies

QUESTION 11
(CH6) Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

a) Define Schedule
b) Sequence Activities
c) Estimate Activity Resources
d) Estimate Activity Durations

QUESTION 12
(CH6) Resource Leveling is a technique for:

a) Develop Schedule
b) Sequence Activities
c) Estimate Activity Resources
d) Estimate Activity Durations
QUESTION 13
(CH6) Critical path method is used in which of the following processes?
a) Sequence Activities
b) Define Activities
c) Develop Schedule
d) Estimate Activity Durations

QUESTION 14
(CH6) Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process?

a) Sequence Activities
b) Develop Schedule
c) Estimate Activity Resources
d) Estimate Activity Durations

QUESTION 15
(CH6) Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which
Project Scheduling technique?

a) Critical Path Method

b) Schedule Compression
c) What-if Analysis
d) Resource Leveling
 CHAPTER 6

Chapter 6 set 1

QUESTION 1

You are planning to conduct the team-building portion of your new project management training
curriculum out-of-doors in the local park. You are limited to scheduling the course at certain
times of the year, and the best time for the course to begin is in mid-July. You are using the
precedence diagramming method for your schedule. In it, you can show relationship s between
tasks in four ways, and the most common is:
• Finish-to-start
• Finish-to-finish
• Start-to-start
• Start-to-finish
1 points

QUESTION 2

You are managing a new technology project designed to improve the removal of hazardous
waste from your city. You are in the planning phase of this project and have prepared your
network diagram. Your next step is to:
• Describe any unusual sequencing in the network
• State the number resources required to complete each activity
• Establish a project calendar and link it to individual resource calendars
• Determine which schedule compression technique is the most appropriate, because
your customer requests that the project be completed as soon as possible
1 points
QUESTION 3

What is the float for Activity G?

• -2
• 0
• 1
• 4
1 points

QUESTION 4

An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th. The activity has a
duration of four days. There are no non-workdays. From the information given, what can be
concluded about the activity?
• Total float for the activity is nine days.
• The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 14“.
• The late finish date is the 25"‘.
• The activity can be completed in two days if the resources devoted to it are doubled.
1 points
QUESTION 5

What is the duration of the critical path in this network?

10

12

14

15

1 points

QUESTION 6

There are purposes and benefits in the Control Schedule process. Its benefit is-
• It maintains the schedule baseline
• It minimizes risk
• It reprioritizes remaining work as required
• It describes how the schedule will be managed and controlled
1 points

QUESTION 7

You are working to control your schedule. You have a number of tools and techniques you can
use and may need to use several of them for effectiveness. You decide you want to track
work remaining to be done so you will use:
• Iteration burndown charts
• Milestone charts
• Applied schedule reserves
• Calculation of multiple work package durations
1 points
QUESTION 8

Your project schedule was approved. Management has now mandated that the project be
completed as soon as possible. However, you do not think it is possible given resource
constraints. In order to convince your management of your need for additional resources, you
decide to use:
• Resource manipulation
• Resource breakdown structure
• Critical chain scheduling
• Resource leveling
1 points

QUESTION 9

Project managers should pay attention to critical and subcritical activities when evaluating
project time performance. One way to do this is to analyze 10 subcritical paths in order of
ascending float. This approach is part of:
• Variance analysis
• Simulation
• Earned value management
• Trend analysis
1 points

QUESTION 10

You are managing a project that will use a virtual team with team members on three different
continents. Your company is looking to use the virtual team to provide a lower cost product by
using resources in countries that have a favorable exchange rate to that of your country. To
assist in this process as you estimate resource requirements, it is helpful to consider-
• Bottom-up estimating
• Reserve analysis
• Analogous estimating
• Assumptions analysis
1 points

QUESTION 11

Your customer wants the project to be completed six months earlier than planned. You believe
you can meet this target by overlapping project activities. The approach you plan to use is
known as:
• Critical chain
• Fast tracking
• Resource leveling
• Crashing
1 points
QUESTION 12

Activity A has a duration of three days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has
three days of lag, and activity B has a duration of four days. Sunday is a non-workday. Such
data can help to determine:
• The total duration of both activities is 8 days
• Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days
• The finish date of B is Wednesday the 13th
• Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days
1 points

QUESTION 13

If a project planner imposes a finish time of 14 on the project with no change in the start date or
activity durations, what is the total float of Activity E?

• -1
• 0
• 2
• Cannot be determined

1 points

QUESTION 14

"I cannot test the software until I code the software." This expression describes which of the
following dependencies?
• Internal
• Rational
• Preferential
• Mandatory or hard
 1 points

QUESTION 15

If, when developing your project schedule, you want to define a distribution of probable results
for each schedule activity and use that distribution to calculate another distribution of probable
results for the total project, the most common technique to use is:
• What-if scenario analysis
• Monte Carlo analysis
• Linear programming
• Concurrent engineering
1 points

QUESTION 16

Project schedule development is an iterative process. If the start and finish dates are not
realistic, the project probably will not finish as planned. You are working with your team to define
how to monitor any schedule changes. You documented your decisions in which of the
following?
••• Schedule change control procedures
••• Schedule management plan
••• Schedule risk plan
••• Service-level agreement
• 1 points
QUESTION 17

If the imposed finish time in question 3 above is removed and reset to 16 and the duration of
Activity H is changed to 3, what is the late finish for Activity G?

• -11
• 11
• -13
• 13
 1 points

QUESTION 18

Decomposition is a technique used for both WBS development and activity definition. However,
in Define Activities, decomposition-
• The final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS.
• The final output is described as deliverables or tangible items.
• The final output is described as activities.
• ls used the same way in scope definition and activity definition.

1 points

QUESTION 19

To meet regulatory requirements, you need to crash your project schedule.. Your first step is to
compute-
• The cost and time slope for each critical activity that can be expedited
• The cost of additional resources to be added to the project's critical path
• The time saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited on the critical path
• Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT for each critical path activity
1 points

QUESTION 20

In project development, schedule information, such as who will perform the work, where the
work will be performed, activity type, and WBS classification, are examples of:
••• Activity attributes
••• Constraints
••• Data in the WBS repository
••• Refinements'
• 1 points
QUESTION 21

Working with your team to provide the basis for measuring and reporting schedule progress, you
agree to consider the:
• Schedule Data
••• Network diagram
••• Schedule baseline
••• Technical baseline
• 1 points
QUESTION 22

A schedule performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that the:

••• Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to accomplish
••• Earned value physically accomplished thus far is 100%
••• Project has experienced a permanent loss of time
••• Project may not be on schedule, but the project manager need not be concerned

QUESTION 23

Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete.
It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, built could take 180 weeks in the worst case.
What is the expected duration of the work package?
••• 45 weeks
••• 70 weeks
••• 90 weeks
••• 140 weeks
• 1 points
QUESTION 24

The reason that the schedule performance index (SPI) is shown as a ratio is to-
• Enable a detailed analysis of the schedule regardless of the value of the schedule variance
• Distinguish between critical path and noncritical path work packages
• Provide the ability to show performance for a specified time period for trend analysis
• Measure the actual time to complete the project
1 points

QUESTION 25

Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a particular activity and
does NOT affect the float in later activities is called:
• Extra float
• Free float
• Total float
• Expected float

QUESTION 26

You are managing a project to redesign a retail store layout to improve customer throughput and
efficiency. Much project work must be done on site and will require the active participation of
store employees who are life long members of a powerful union with a reputation for labor
unrest. One important component of your schedule must be:
• A resource capabilities matrix
• Buffers and reserves
• A resource calendar
• A resource histogram

1 points
QUESTION 27

Assume you are working on a on a project using lean manufacturing. Now you are preparing
your schedule. You feel your tasks may be relatively similar in size and scope. You should
consider:
• Fixed number of work periods
• Percent of the estimated activity duration
• Buffers
• Kanban system
1 points

QUESTION 28

You are working on a project to remodel a home, and you and your team decided you should
first finish the plumbing work and then do the electrical work. In this example, this is an example
of a-
• Start-to-finish approach
• Discretionary dependency
• Mandatory dependency
• Finish-to-start approach

QUESTION 29

You can use various estimating approaches to determine activity durations. When
you have a limited amount of information available about your project , especially when in
the early phases , the best approach to use is:
• Bottom-up estimating
• Analogous estimating
• Reserve analysis
• Parametric analysis
1 points

QUESTION 30

Assume your organization has decided to use agile for most of it projects. You are managing a
project using agile and are working to develop your schedule. In doing so, you are using agile
release planning. Your schedule is based on the:
• Resources available
• The requirements plan
• Start and finish dates from activities
• Product roadmap ·
1 points

QUESTION 31

Assume you are working to sequence the activities in your schedule. You have focused on the
need for predecessors and successors for your tasks. Now, you have finished , and you realize:
• You have a fragnet.
• There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks.
• Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout the project.
• There are too many successors.
1 points

QUESTION 32

25. A key input to the Define Activities process is the—

• Project management plan
• Project scope statement
• Project scope baseline
• Project charter
1 points

QUESTION 33

Assume you are working to Estimate Activity Durations. You need to determine the amount of
work to complete each activity and the resources required. As you work to do so, you should
consider-
• Consulting with people who may have worked on similar projects
• The requirements documentation
• Staff motivation
• Adding buffers for needed but often scare resources
1 points

QUESTION 34

sequencing project activities in the schedule, you should ensure-

• There always are scheduled dates for specific milestones
• Every activity is connected to at least one predecessor and at least one successor
• Lead or lag time should be used in each schedule
• Necessary sequencing of events may be described by the activity attributes
1 points

QUESTION 35

You are managing a construction project for a new city water system. The contract requires you
to use special titanium piping equipment that is guaranteed not to corrode. The Titanium pipe
must be resting in the ground a total of 10 days before connectors can be installed. In this
example, the 10-day period is defined as-
• Lag
• Lead
• Float
• Slack
QUESTION 36

Review the following network diagram and table. Of the various activities, which ones would you
crash and in what order?

• A, C, E, and F
• A, B, D, and F
• A, B , E, and F
• C, A, F, and G
1 points

QUESTION 37

It is important to use the critical path method in Control Schedule because:

• It assists in reviewing scenarios to bring the schedule in line with the plan
• It enables a consideration of the resource availability and the project time
• It examines project performance over time
• It can help identify schedule risks
1 points
 QUESTION 38

Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days, a most likely (ML) estimate of 21 days, and
an optimistic (O) estimate of 6 days. What is the probability that activity A will be completed in
16 to 26 days?
• 55.70 percent
• 68.26 percent
• 95.46 percent
• 99.73 percent
1 points

QUESTION 39

Your company, which operates one of the region's largest chemical processing plants, has been
convicted of illegally dumping toxic substances into the local river. The court has mandated that
the required cleanup activities be completed by February 15. This date is an example of:
••• A key event
••• A milestone
••• A discretionary dependency
••• An external dependency
• 1 points
QUESTION 40

Unlike bar charts, milestone charts show—

• Scheduled start or completion of major deliverables and key external interfaces
• Activity start and end dates of critical tasks
• Expected durations of the critical path
• Dependencies between complementary projects

Chapter 6 set 2

QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the most commonly used network diagramming method?
••• Critical path method (CPM)
••• Simulations
••• Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
••• Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
• 1 points
QUESTION 2

What is the crashing technique used for?

••• Schedule Network diagramming
••• Duration compression
••• Cost reduction
••• Activity sequencing
• 1 points
QUESTION 3

Which of the following is a true statement about the critical path?

••• Each activity on the critical path has zero float time.
••• It controls the project finish date.
••• It controls the project start date.
••• It is the shortest sequence in the network diagram.
• 1 points
QUESTION 4

In your research project on tourism, you must collect data before the tourist season ends
because the project involves interviewing tourists. The data-collection activity has which of the
following kinds of dependency?
••• Mandatory
••• External
••• Internal
••• Internal discretionary
• 1 points
QUESTION 5

You know from a network diagram that Activity B cannot start until Activity A is finished. Which
of the following are true?
••• Activities A and B have a start-to-finish dependency.
••• Activities A and B have a finish-to-start dependency.
••• Activity B has a mandatory dependency on Activity A.
••• Activities A and B are on a critical path.
• 1 points
QUESTION 6

Why should you monitor the activities on the critical path more closely?
••• Because each activity on the critical path has a zero float time and thereby poses a
schedule risk.
••• Because the activities on the critical path need to be performed before the activities on
other paths.
••• Because the activities on the critical path are critical to the organization’s strategy.
••• Because the activities on noncritical paths depend upon the activities on the critical path.
• 1 points
QUESTION 7

You estimate the duration of an activity as five days because an expert told you that it took five
days to complete a similar activity in a previous project. Which of the following methods might
the expert be using for this activity duration estimate?
• Parametric estimating
• Expert judgment
• Analogous estimating
• Delphi technique
1 points

QUESTION 8

You have developed the schedule for your project, and you’ve called the kickoff meeting. A team
member who is responsible for an activity comes to you and tells you that the activity cannot be
performed within the allocated time because some pieces were left out during activity definition.
The revised estimate will add two more days to the activity duration, but the activity is not on the
critical path. Which of the following actions will you take?
••• Go to the team member’s functional manager and find out whether the team member’s
estimate is correct.
••• Accept the new estimate but do not change the schedule.
••• Accept the new estimate and update the schedule accordingly.
••• Put the new estimate through the integrated change control process.
• 1 points
QUESTION 9

The amount of time by which an activity can be delayed without changing the project finish date
is called:
••• Float time
••• Lag time
••• Grace time
••• Activity gradient
• 1 points
QUESTION 10

You are the project manager of a project that is running behind schedule. The project sponsor is
very unhappy at the new finish date that you proposed, but he has accepted it. However, you
also requested extra funds to support the extended time of work, and the sponsor has refused to
supply more funds and is threatening to cancel the project if you cannot finish the project within
the planned budget. What are your options?
••• Crashing
••• Fast tracking
••• Asking the executive management for a new sponsor
••• Speaking with the customer directly without involving the sponsor to see whether the
customer can increase the budget
• 1 points
QUESTION 11

Consider the following network diagram. Which of the following is the critical path?

• Start-C-D-E-Finish
• Start-I-G-E-Finish
• Start-I-G-H-Finish
• Start-I-J-H-Finish
• Start-I-G-H-E-Finish
1 points

QUESTION 12

What is the float for Activity G in the network diagram in Question 11?
• 3
• 2
• 1
• 0
1 points

QUESTION 13

What is the length of the critical path in the network diagram shown in Question 11?
• 4
• 6
• 22
• 5
1 points
 QUESTION 14

You use a three-point estimate for activity duration estimating. An activity has a duration of 9
days for an optimistic scenario, 18 days for a pessimistic scenario, and 12 days for the most-
likely scenario. Which of the following will you take as the duration estimate if a weight of 4 is
assigned to the most-likely scenario as compared to a weight of 1 for each of the optimistic and
pessimistic scenarios?
• 13 days
• 12.5 days
• 12 days
• 18 days
1 points

QUESTION 15

Which of the following is not an input item to the Define Activities process?
••• The WBS
••• The activity duration
••• The project scope statement
••• The WBS dictionary
• 1 points
QUESTION 16

Which of the following is not an output of the schedule control process?

••• Recommended corrective actions
••• Updates to the schedule baseline
••• Schedule variations
••• Work performance data
• 1 points
QUESTION 17

The project charter is an input to which schedule management process?

• Define activities
• Sequence activities
• Plan schedule management
• Schedule development

Chapter 6 set 3
QUESTION 1

1. You are the project manager of the HGF Project. You would like to use a portion of the activity list
from the HGB Project, which is similar to your current project. The portion of the activity list from the
HGB Project is best described as which one of the following?
2. • Rolling wave planning
• Analogous estimating
• A template
• Expert judgment
 QUESTION 2

1. Mike, a project manager in your company, is falling behind on the project schedule. He has elected
to crash the project. What is crashing?
••• Adding lag time between all project activities
••• Adding lead time between all project activities
••• Adding additional project resources to the project work
••• Removing all unneeded project deliverables
• 1 points
QUESTION 3

1. Beth is the project manager of her company and she’s asked you to help her with project schedule
network analysis. Examine the following illustration. If Activity B is delayed by two days, how late will
the project be?

••• The project will not be late because Activity B may use float.
••• The project will be late by one day.
••• The project will be late by two days.
••• The project will be late by four days.
• 1 points
QUESTION 4

1. Terry is the project manager of the network update project and the project stakeholders have
requested that four new servers be added to the project. This addition will cause changes in the
project costs and schedule. Which process can manage changes to the project schedule?
••• Change control system
••• Schedule change control system
••• Integrated change control
••• Change control board
• 1 points
 QUESTION 5

1. Consider a project that is to begin work on a Monday and a project team that will not work any
weekends. The critical path of the project is 17 days. On what day of the week will the project be
completed?
••• Monday
••• Tuesday
••• Wednesday
••• Thursday
• 1 points
QUESTION 6

1. You are the project manager of a large project for your organization. Much of the project will center
on new software that you’ll be installing on 4500 laptops in stages. Because of the likelihood of
change, you’ve recommended a rolling wave planning approach. Which one of the following is the
best example of rolling wave planning?
••• Using expert judgment for the current project
••• Using a portion of the activity list from a previous project
••• Breaking down the project scope
••• Planning the immediate portions of the project in detail and the future project portions at a
higher level
• 1 points
QUESTION 7

1. You are working with your project team to schedule activities for your construction project. You have
scheduled the painting activity to be completed before the carpet installation activity may begin. The
relationship between the painting activity and carpet installation activity can best be described as
which one of the following?
2. • Lag
• Lead
• Finish-to-start
• Start-to-finish
1 points

QUESTION 8

1. Management has asked that you create the schedule management plan to identify the different
processes and procedures your project will require. During the creation of the plan, you need to
identify schedule change control and its components. Schedule change control is part of which
project management process?
2. • Change control
• Cost control
• WBS refinements
• Integrated change control
1 points
 QUESTION 9

1. Which schedule development tool does not consider the availability of the project resources, only
when the work may take place in the project?
••• The critical path method
••• The critical chain method
••• Schedule compression
••• Arrow on the node method
• 1 points
QUESTION 10

1. You are working with your project team to break down the project work into activities. Which
component in the WBS must be broken down to get to the schedule activities?
2. • Project scope
• Work packages
• Planning packages
• Product scope
1 points

QUESTION 11

1. You and the project team have created the work breakdown structure based on the project scope
and requirements. Your next step is to create the project’s activity list. Which one of the following
will not be included in the activity list created with the project management team?
••• Activities that are not part of the project scope
••• Quality control activities
••• Activities to create the work packages
••• Physical terms, such as linear feet of pipe to be installed
•

QUESTION 12

1. You are the project manager of the Data Warehouse Project. You’ve just recently created the
project network diagram and you now want to identify the critical path. Which one of the following
best describes the critical path?
2. • It is always one path with no float.
• It determines the earliest the project can finish.
• It has the most activities.
• It has the most important project activities.
1 points
 QUESTION 13

1. Your project team agrees that the server operating system must first be installed before the
application can be installed. This best describes which one of the following?
••• Hard logic
••• Soft logic
••• Start-to-start relationship
••• Finish-to-finish relationship
• 1 points
QUESTION 14

1. Mary has created an activity list with her project team. She has included activity attributes for each
of the activities in her project activity list. Of the following, which one is not an example of an activity
attribute that Mary likely included?
••• Scope validation
••• Predecessor activities
••• Leads and lags
••• Geographic area where the work must take place
• 1 points
QUESTION 15

1. You are the project manager of the PJG Project for your company. This project is similar to a project
you completed a few months ago, and you’d like to reference the older project for information.
Which estimating technique uses a similar project to predict how long the current project will take to
complete?
••• Analogous estimating
••• Parametric estimating
••• Organizational process assets
••• Bottom-up estimating
•
• 1 points
QUESTION 16

1. The framing activity cannot begin until the concrete has cured for 36 hours. The time between the
concrete activity and the framing activity is best described as which one of the following?
••• Hard logic
••• Lag time
••• Lead time
••• Finish-to-start relationship
• 1 points
QUESTION 17

1. You are working with your project team to respond to some delays in the project schedule. You
have elected to crash the project schedule, and management wants to know what effect this will
have on the project as a whole. What happens when a project manager elects to crash a project?
••• The project will end early.
••• The project will end on time.
••• The project costs will increase.
 ••• The project team morale will decrease.
• 1 points
QUESTION 18

1. You are the project manager for your organization, and the following illustration represents your
project. Based on the following illustration, how long will the project last?

2. • 15 days
• 12 days
• 14 days
• 41 days

1 points
 QUESTION 19

1. Ronald is the project manager for his company. He has created a project network diagram for the
activities in the activity list and he’s trying now to begin the process of float determination. He’s
asked for your help. Examine the following illustration. Which path is the critical path?

2. • ABFGJL
• ACFGJL
• ADEHJL
• ADIKL
1 points

QUESTION 20

1. You are using a triangular estimate for your project. Howard reports that his optimistic estimate is 16
hours, his most likely estimate is 24 hours, and the pessimistic estimate is 65 hours. What is the
estimated duration for Howard’s activity?
2. • You won’t know until Howard actually does the work.
• 105 hours.
• 24 hours.
• 35 hours.
 Chapter 6 Set 4

QUESTION 1

1. Your team worked hard throughout project planning, thoroughly defining and estimating each
activity required to complete the work. The resulting network diagram supported the end date that
was approved by the team, management, and the stakeholders. As work has progressed, most
milestones have been met. On two occasions, workarounds were needed to deal with the
occurrence of unidentified risk events. With continued attention to detail, you have been successful
in keeping the project on schedule and within budget. Now, an opportunity is identified that can
only be realized if the project is completed two days ahead of schedule. Which of the following is the
best thing to do when asked to complete a project two days earlier than planned?
2. • Tell senior management that the project’s critical path does not allow the project to be
finished earlier.
• Tell your manager.
• Meet with the team to look at options for crashing or fast tracking the critical path.
• Work hard and see what the project status is next month.

QUESTION 2

You have identified a diverse group of stakeholders, and you will need to report information in a
variety of ways to meet their different communications needs. When will you use a milestone chart
instead of a bar chart?

••• Project planning

••• Reporting to team members
••• Reporting to management
••• Risk analysis

QUESTION 3

The float of an activity is determined by:

1. • Performing a Monte Carlo analysis
• Determining the waiting time between activities
• Determining lag
• Determining the length of time the activity can be delayed without delaying the critical path

QUESTION 4

You are working collaboratively with the team to plan a project. You have obtained estimates
from team members on the activities for which they each will be responsible. You are currently
reaching agreement on the calendar dates for each activity. Which of the following processes are
you working on?

1. • Sequence Activities
• Develop Schedule
• Define Scope
• Develop Project Charter
 QUESTION 5

1. You have a project with the following activities: Activity A takes 40 hours and can start after the
project starts. Activity B takes 25 hours and should happen after the project starts. Activity C must
happen after activity A and takes 35 hours. Activity D must happen after activities B and C and
takes 30 hours. Activity E must take place after activity C and takes 10 hours. Activity F takes place
after Activity E and takes 22 hours. Activities F and D are the last activities of the project. Which of
the following is true if activity B actually takes 37 hours?
2. • The critical path is 67 hours.
• The critical path changes to Start, B, D,
End.
• The critical path is Start, A, C, E, F, End.
• The critical path increases by 12 hours.
1 points

QUESTION 6

1. A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for $ 130,000
over a six-week period. According to the schedule, the project should have cost $60,000 to
date. However, it has cost $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the
original estimates were not accurate. Who has the primary responsibility to solve this problem?
2. • Project manager
• Senior management
• Project sponsor
• Manager of the project management office
1 points

QUESTION 7

1. The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion date. You do not
have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the benefit-cost ratio is expected to be
1.6, and the dependencies are preferential. Under these circumstances, what is the best thing to
do?
2. • Cut resources from an activity.
• Make more activities concurrent.
• Move resources from the preferential dependencies to the external dependencies.
• Remove an activity from the project.

QUESTION 8

1. A project manager is informed midway through project planning that she was given inaccurate data
regarding new regulations affecting the required end date of her project. She may need to make a
few adjustments, but she thinks she can still manage the project to complete it before the
regulations take effect. She confirms this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least
amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
2. • Critical path method
• Flowchart
• Precedence diagramming
• Work breakdown structure
 QUESTION 9

1. The team is helping the project manager estimate activities on their project. They are experienced
and skilled, and many members have been with the company for some time. There are several
activities they need to estimate that have not been previously done by the company. What is the
best method of estimating these activities?
2. • Analogous estimating
• Three-point estimating
• Monte Carlo analysis
• Parametric estimating
1 points

QUESTION 10

1. A heuristic is best described as a:

2. • Control tool
• Scheduling method
• Planning tool
• Generally accepted rule
1 points

QUESTION 11

1. A project manager is taking over a project from another project manager during project planning. If
the new project manager wants to see what the previous project manager planned for managing
changes to the schedule, it would be best to look at the:
••• Communications management plan
••• Update management plan
••• Staffing management plan
••• Schedule management plan

QUESTION 12

1. During project planning, you estimate the time needed for each activity and then total the estimates
to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date. What is wrong with
this scenario?
••• The team did not create the estimate, and estimating takes too long using that method.
••• The team did not create the estimate, and a network diagram was not used.
••• The estimate is too long and should be created by management.
••• The project estimate should be the same as the customer s required completion date.
1 points
 QUESTION 13

1. The organization is committed to rolling out a new cell phone accessory at an industry trade show
in six months. The sponsor has made it clear that this product, to be created by your project team,
must meet a long list of requirements, adhere to high quality standards, and, most importantly, be
ready in time for the trade show. The sponsor has promised to commit as many resources as
necessary for you to complete the project within these constraints. Your project management plan
results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you
have extra personnel resources, what is the best thing to do?
••• Fast track the project.
••• Level the resources.
••• Crash the project.
••• Perform Monte Carlo analysis.
o points
QUESTION 14

1. To help them determine the schedule baseline, the team has drafted a network diagram. The
project manager adds the time estimates for each activity to establish the critical path for the project.
They discover the project has three critical paths. Which of the following best describes how this
discovery will affect the project?
••• It makes it easier to manage.
••• It increases the project risk.
••• It requires more people.
••• It makes it more expensive.
1 points

QUESTION 15

1. A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network
analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used?
2. • Critical path
method
• Beta
distribution
• Monte Carlo
• Resource
leveling

1 points

QUESTION 16

1. The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. The next
thing for the project manager to do is:
2. • Sequence the activities.
• Validate that they have the correct scope.
• Create a preliminary schedule and get the teams approval.
• Complete risk management.
1 points
 QUESTION 17

1. A design engineer is helping to ensure that the dependencies within her area of expertise are
properly defined on the project. The design of several deliverables must be complete before
manufacturing can begin. This is an example of what type of dependency?
2. •• Discretionary dependency
•• External dependency
•• Mandatory dependency
•• Scope dependency
1 points

QUESTION 18

1. You are the project manager for a new product development project that has four levels in the work
breakdown structure. The network diagram and duration estimates have been created, and a
schedule has been developed and compressed. Which schedule management activity should you
do next?
2. • Control the schedule.
• Determine dependencies.
• Analogously estimate the schedule.
• Gain approval.
1 points

QUESTION 19

1. A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown structure and has been
sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have been
received. What should be done next?
2. • Create an activity list.
• Begin the work breakdown structure.
• Finalize the schedule.
• Compress the schedule.

1 points

QUESTION 20

1. You are a project manager on a US $5,000,000 software development project. While working
with your project team to develop a network diagram, your data architects suggest that quality
could be improved if the data model is approved by senior management before moving on to other
design elements. They support this suggestion with an article from a leading software development
journal. Which of the following best describes this type of input?
2. • Mandatory external dependency
• Discretionary external dependency
• External regulatory dependency
• Heuristic
1 points
 QUESTION 21

1. Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of ongoing
projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide summary
information to senior management?
2. • Detailed cost estimates
• Project management plans
• Barcharts
• Milestone reports
1 points

QUESTION 22

1. A project manager has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the following
does he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process?
2. • Earned value analysis
• Schedule change control system
• Trend analysis
• Reserves
1 points

QUESTION 23

1. A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide
you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours
(from past, similar projects) to develop a prototype. This is an example of which of the following?
2. • Parametric estimating
• Three-point estimating
• Analogous estimating
• Monte Carlo analysis
1 points

QUESTION 24

1. A project manager is new to the company but has 10 years of project management experience. She
is given a medium-sized project and is asked to plan so it is finished as quickly as possible because
the company has a large list of projects to complete in the coming year. She will be given
another project to manage as soon as she has this one baselined. She needs to report on the
longest time the project will take. Which of the following is the best project management tool to use
to determine this?
2. • is new to the company
• Network diagram
• is new to the company
• is new to the company
1 points
 QUESTION 25

1. Which of the following is correct?

2. • The critical path helps prove how long the project will take.
• There can be only one critical path.
• The network diagram will change every time the end date changes.
• A project can never have negative float.
1 points

QUESTION 26

1. A project manager is in the middle of executing a large construction project when he discovers
the time needed to complete the project is longer than the time available. What is the best thing to
do?
••• Cut product scope.
••• Meet with management, and tell them the required date cannot be met.
••• Work overtime.
••• Determine options for schedule compression, and present management with the
recommended option.
o points
QUESTION 27

1. Lag means:
••• The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date
••• The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its
successor
••• Waiting time
••• The product of a forward and backward pass
o points
QUESTION 28

1. Which of the following best describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk?
••• There is no relationship.
••• Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate.
••• Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is.
••• Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad.
o points
QUESTION 29

1. As part of a project managers due diligence, he reviews the schedule, focusing on each activity as
its start time approaches. He also monitors activities as they progress. He is currently looking at an
activity that has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an early finish (EF) of day 9,
and a late finish (LF) of day 19. In all likelihood, this activity:
2. • Is on the critical path
• Has a lag
• Is progressing well
• Is not on the critical path
1 points
 QUESTION 30

1. During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. Several of the change
requests have come from the customer, significantly changing the functionality of the originally
requested product. Six project team members have been reassigned by management to
a higher- priority project, and they have been replaced. As project work has progressed, many of
the identified risks have occurred and have been successfully mitigated. However, three
contingency plans have been adjusted and will be implemented if identified risks recur during the
remainder of the project. The project manager should:
2. • Wait until all changes are known, and then print out a new schedule.
• Make sure the project charter is still valid.
• Change the schedule baseline.
• Talk to management before any changes are made.
1 points

QUESTION 31

1. Although the customer agreed to the original project schedule, they are now asking for an
earlier project finish. They are being pressured by their own customers. The project manager s
sponsor thinks finishing early is not only a viable option but also a good idea for your organization
because it will enable you to start another project sooner. In attempting to complete the project
faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The best
approach to crashing would also include looking at the:
••• Risk impact of crashing each activity
••• Customer s opinion of which activities to crash
••• Sponsors opinion of which activities to crash and in what order
••• Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur
o points
QUESTION 32

1. The team is working on a project to develop or procure a customized software package that will be
used by delivery drivers for a new chain of pizza restaurants. There are multiple stakeholders on
this project. Because of other ongoing projects to design, build, and equip brick-and-mortar
restaurant locations, you are informed that there is no rush to complete this software development
work. If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month,
which of the following is the best thing to do?
••• Perform a Monte Carlo analysis.
••• Fast track the project.
••• Perform resource optimization.
••• Analyze the life cycle costs.
o points
QUESTION 33

1. Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources is used each month is called:
••• Crashing
••• Floating
••• Leveling
••• Fast tracking
o points
 QUESTION 34

1. You are a project manager on a $5,000,000 software development project. While working with your
project team to develop a network diagram, you notice a series of activities that can be worked
in parallel but must finish in a specific sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is
required for these activities?
2. • Precedence diagramming method
• Arrow diagramming method
• Critical path method
• Operational diagramming method
1 points

QUESTION 35

1. Based on the following, if you needed to shorten the duration of the project, which activity would you
try to shorten?

2. • Activity B
• Activity D
• Activity H
• Activity C
1 points

QUESTION 36

1. Your sponsor and stakeholders have made it clear they wish to be kept informed on the project
status. There are many aspects of the project on which you will report, and you want to choose the
most appropriate tool to use in each case. Which of the following are generally illustrated better by
bar charts than network diagrams?
2. • Logical relationships
• Critical paths
• Resource trade-offs
• Progress or status
1 points
 QUESTION 37

1. A new project manager is walking you through the schedule she has created for her project. She
asks you about the duration of a particular milestone, so she knows how to properly schedule it.
What will you tell her about a milestones duration?
2. • It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity.
• It is shorter than the activity it represents.
• It has no duration.
• It is the same length as the activity it represents.

1. All of the following are the outputs of the Define Activities Process, EXCEPT ________.

a. Activity list
b. Activity attributes
c. Milestone list
d. Project schedule*

2. Which of the following processes does identify and document the relationships between project
activities?

a. Defining activities
b. Sequencing activities*
c. Developing the schedule
d. Planning schedule management

3. The significant events or points in a project can be found in ____________.

a. Activity list
b. Punch list
c. Milestone list*
d. WBS

4. The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor
activity is called ______.

a. Lag
b. Total float
c. Free float
 d. Lead*

5. What is the type of connection shown in the figure below?

a) Finish-to-Finish Relationship
b) Start-to-Finish Relationship*
c) Finish-to-Start Relationship
d) Start-to-Start Relationship

Suppose that for a particular activity, the optimistic time estimate is 12 days, the most likely estimate
is 15 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 20 days. Using the triangular distribution, the calculated
expected activity duration is ___________.
a. 15 days
b. 15.67 days*
c. 15.33 days
d. 7.83 days
7. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is __________.
a. A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one
or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be
performed.*
b. A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
c. A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
d. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties about
the durations of project activities.

8. Use the data given in the following table to answer the questions Q8-Q11.

What is the minimum project duration?

a. 22 days
b. 17 days
c. 16 days
 d. 23 days*

9. What is the critical path for the project?

a. A → B → D →E
b. A → C → D → E*
c. A → C → E
d. Both A → B → D →E and A → C → D → E

10. Which of the following is NOT a critical activity?

a. A
b. B*
c. C
d. D
11. What are the total float of Activity B and Activity C?
a. Total Float of B = 5, Total Float of C = 5
b. Total Float of B = 0, Total Float of C = 0
c. Total Float of B = 5, Total Float of C = 0*
d. Total Float of B = 6, Total Float of C = 1
12. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental
cost by adding resources is called:
a. Crashing.*
b. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
d. Fast tracking.
13. An example of a mandatory dependency is ___________.
a. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular
application area.
b. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been
built.*
c. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific
sequence is desired.
d. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all
project requirements

14. The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:

a. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.
b. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.*
c. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
d. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.
15. “Crashing” in schedule management is ____________.
a. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.*
b. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel.
c. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
d. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.
16. A price that can be completely attributed to the production of specific goods or services is called
__________.
a. Direct cost*
b. Sunk cost
c. Variable cost
d. Indirect cost
17. The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work is known as __________.
a. Net Present Value (NPV)
b. Opportunity Cost
c. Earned Value (EV)*
d. Internal Rate of Return
18. Which of the following processes is responsible of developing approximation of the monetary
resources needed to complete project work?
a. Plan cost management
b. Determine budget
c. Control costs
d. Estimate costs*

19. The project cost baseline includes all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. Activity cost estimates
b. Work package contingency reserves
c. Management reserves*
d. Activity contingency reserves

20. Which of the following represents processes concerned with establishing and controlling the cost
baseline?
a. Plan Resource Management and Control Costs.
b. Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline.
c. Determine Budget and Control Costs.*
d. Plan Resource Management, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control.

21. The cost baseline is a key output of the __________ process.

a. Estimate cost
b. Determine budget*
c. Control cost
d. Plan cost management

22. In answering to questions Q6-Q10, use the following information. In a particular project, at a
specific point of time, the planned value (PV) is AED 50,000, the earned value (EV) is AED 45,000,
and the actual cost (AC) is AED 55,000. The budget at completion (BAC) is AED 100,000. What is
the cost variance (CV)?
a. AED 10,000
b. -AED 10,000*
c. AED 5,000
d. -AED 5,000
23. What is the schedule variance (SV)?
a. AED 10,000
b. - AED 10,000
c. AED 5,000
d. -AED 5,000*

24. What is the Cost Performance Indicator (CPI)?

a. 0.82*
b. 1.22
c. 0.90
d. 1.11
25. What is the Schedule Performance Indicator (SPI)?
a. 0.82
b. 1.22
c. 0.90*
d. 1.11
26. What is the approximate Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
a. AED 111,111.11
b. AED 90,000.00
c. AED 81,820.00
d. AED 122,219.50*

27. An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT:
a. Labour.
b. Materials.
c. Equipment.
d. Time shortages.*

28. Parametric estimating involves:

a. Defining cost or duration parameters of the project life cycle.
b. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package and integrating them to obtain
the total cost of the project.
c. Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to
calculate a cost estimate for project work.*
d. Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project.

29. Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT ________.
a. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated costs.
b. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved
a. cost baseline.
b. Influencing the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline.
c. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost
d. baseline.*

30. The estimate at completion (EAC) is typically based on _______.

a. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC), and the estimate to complete (ETC) the
remaining work.*
b. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the cumulative cost performance
index (CPI).
c. The earned value (EV) and the actual cost for work completed (AC).
d. The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV).

31. ____________ is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

a. Work breakdown structures (WBS)
b. Organizational breakdown structures (OBS)
c. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)*
d. RACI Chart

32. The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is ________.

a. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams.
b. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to
project network activities.
c. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team
members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to avoid
confusion of responsibility.*
d. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance appraisals of
project team members.
33. The resource management plan may include but is not limited to _________.
a. Team performance assessments*
b. Methods to identify resources
c. Guidance on how to acquire resources
d. Competency requirements of team members

34. Which of the following scenarios is representing the Forming team development stage?
a. Project team is constantly arguing over the roles and responsibilities.
b. Project team is anxious about their project roles and responsibilities.*
c. There is a strong sense of team work and positive team environment.
d. Project team works in an open and trusting atmosphere.

35. Which of the following conflict management techniques is most appropriate for the scenario: “A
team member has raised a trivial issue in the project team meeting”?
a. Force
b. Avoid*
c. Collaborate
d. Smooth

36. Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include _______.
a. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.
b. Salary schedules for various project resources.
c. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work
package.*
d. Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work package and each work period.

37. It is important that the resource management plan addresses how team members will be released
when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
__________.
a. To optimize the utilization of human and material resources.*
b. To reduce project costs.
c. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already planned.
d. To help mitigate resource risks that may occur during or at the end of a project.

38. The major processes of Project Resource Management are __________.

a. Leadership, Management, Team Building, and Negotiation.
b. Develop Project Staffing Plan, Recruit Project Team, Administer Personnel Actions, and
Manage Labour Relations.
c. Plan Organizational Structure, Build Project Team, Develop Communications Plan, and
Manage Team Conflicts.
d. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop
Team, Manage Team, and Control Resources.*

39. All of the following are true about conflict management EXCEPT __________.
a. It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed early.
b. It should usually be addressed in private.
c. It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive, and at an official team meeting.*
d. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.

40. Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include __________.

a. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.
 b. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
c. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.*
d. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.

You are using earned value progress reporting for your current project in an effort to
teach your software developers the benefits of earned value. You plan to display project
results on the PMO dashboard so that the team knows how the project is progressing.
Use the current status, listed below, to answer questions 1 through 4:
PV=$2,200 EV=$2,000 AC= $2,500 BAC= $10,000
1-According to earned value analysis, the SV and status of the project
described above is:
a. -$300; the project is ahead of schedule
b. +$800; the project is on schedule.
c. +$200; the project is ahead of schedule.
d. -$200; the project is behind schedule.

2- What is the CPI for this project, and what does it tell us about cost performance thus
far?
a. 0.20; actual costs are exactly as planned
b. 0.80; actual costs have exceeded planned costs
c. 0.80; actual costs are less than planned costs
d. 1.25; actual costs have exceeded planned costs

3-The CV for this project is ____

a. 300
b. -$300
c. 500
d. -$500

4- What is the EAC for this project, and what does it represent?
a. $12,500; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far)
b. $10,000; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far)
c. $12,500; the original project budget
d. $10,000; the original project budget

5- You have now prepared your cost management plan so now you are preparing your
project's cost estimate. You decided to use analogous estimating. Analogous estimating
_________
a. Supports top-down estimating
b. Calculates costs based on project parameters
c. Produces higher levels of accuracy
d. Indicates a range of estimates

6- While cost estimates are the main output of the Estimate Costs process, not to be
overlooked is ___
a. Updates to the cost management plan
b. Assumptions log
c. Updates to the project schedule
d. Cost baseline

7- You must consider direct costs, indirect costs, overhead costs, and general and
administrative costs during cost estimating. An example of an indirect cost is ____
a. Salary of the project manager
b. Subcontractor expenses
c. Materials used by the project
d. Electricity
8- If the cost variance is the same as the schedule variance and both numbers are
greater than zero, then ______
a. The cost variance is due to the schedule variance
b. The variance is favorable to the project
c. The schedule variance can be easily corrected
d. Labor rates have escalated since the project began

9- You are responsible for preparing a cost estimate for a large World Bank project. You
decide to prepare a bottom-up estimate because your estimate needs to be as accurate
as possible. Your first step is to ______
a. Locate a computerized tool to assist in the process
b. Use the cost estimate from a previous project to help you prepare this estimate
c. Identify and estimate the cost for each work package or activity
d. Consult with subject matter experts and use their suggestions as the basis for your estimate

10- Management has grown weary of the many surprises, mostly negative, that occur on
your projects. In an effort to provide stakeholders with an effective performance metric,
you will use the to-complete performance index (TCPI). Its purpose is to:
a. Determine the schedule and cost performance needed to complete the remaining work
within management's financial goal for the project
b. Determine the cost performance needed to complete the remaining resources to meet management's
financial goal
c. Predict final project costs
d. Predict final project schedule and costs

11- If operations on a work package were estimated to cost $1,500 and finish
today but, instead, have cost $1,350 and are only two-thirds complete, the cost
variance is:
a. $150
b. -$150
c. -$350
d. -$500

12- When you review cost performance data on your project, different responses will be
required depending on the degree of variance or control thresholds from the baseline. For
example, a variance of 10 percent might not require immediate action, whereas a variance of
100 percent will require investigation. A description of how you plan to manage cost variances
should be included in the:
a. Cost management plan
b. Change management plan
c. Performance measurement plan
d. Variance management plan

13- As of the fourth month on the Acme project, cumulative planned expenditures were
$100,000. Actual expenditures totaled How is the Acme project doing?
a. It is ahead of schedule.
b. It is in trouble because of a cost overrun.
c. It will finish within the original budget.
d. The information is insufficient to make an assessment.

14- On your project, you need to assign costs to the time period in which they are
incurred. To do this, you should
a. Identify the project components so that costs can be allocated
b. Use the project schedule as an input to determine the budget
c. Prepare a detailed and accurate cost estimate
d. Prepare a cost performance plan
15- You have a number of costs to track and manage because your project is technically very
complex. They include direct costs and indirect (overhead) costs. You have found that
managing overhead costs is particularly difficult because they:
a. Are handled on a project-by-project basis
b. Represent only direct labor costs
c. Represent only equipment and materials needed for the project
d. Can be included in the activities or at higher levels

16- If you want to calculate the ETC based on the assumption that work is proceeding as
planned, the remaining work can be calculated by which of the following formulas?
a. ETC = BAC - EV
b. ETC = (BAC - EV)/CPI
c. ETC = AC + EAC
d. ETC = EAC – AC

17- You receive a frantic phone call from your vice president who says she is going to meet with
a prospective client in 15 minutes to discuss a large and complex project. She asks you how
much the project will cost. You quickly think of some similar past projects, factor in a few
unknowns, and give her a number. You provided which of the following type of estimate _____
a. Definitive
b. Budget
c. Rough-order-of-magnitude
d. Detailed

18- Your approved cost baseline has changed because of a major scope change on your project.
Your next step should be to:
a. Estimate the magnitude of the scope change
b. Issue a change request
c. Document lessons learned
d. Execute the approved scope change

19- You have set aside a certain portion of your project for contingency and management
reserves. You want to use these reserves to cover the costs of risk responses or other
contingencies. On your project, you have had some opportunities that resulted, which means
you should ______
a. Add these opportunities to your reserves for later risk responses
b. Use value analysis
c. Remove them from the contingency fund but maintain the management reserves
d. Use value engineering

20- There are many useful EVM metrics, but the most critical is _____
a. CPI
b. EAC
c. TCPI
d. VAC

21- The approved, integrated scope-schedule-cost plan for project work is ______
a. Project budget baseline
b. Performance measurement baseline
c. Level-of-effort control accounts
d. Expressed in the To Complete Performance Index
22- It is expensive to lease office space in cities around the world. Office space can cost
approximately USD $150 per square foot in Tampa, Florida. And it can cost approximately
Y50,000 per square meter in Tokyo. These "averages" can help a person to determine how
much it will cost to lease office space in these cities based on the amount of space leased. These
estimates are examples of _____
a. Variance analysis
b. Parametric estimating
c. Bottom-up estimating
d. Reserve analysis

23- Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a forecast of project costs
for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should be
increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information
sources, which of the following should you also consider?
a. Cost estimates from similar projects
b. WBS
c. Project schedule
d. Costs that have been authorized and incurred

24- There are a number of different earned value management rules of performance
measurement that can be established as part of the cos management plan. One of them is the:
a. Control account
b. Formulas to determine the ETC
c. Risk thresholds
d. Activity attributes

25- Which of the following calculations CANNOT be used to determine EAC?

a. EAC = ETC - AC
b. EAC = BAC/CPI
c. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV)
d. EAC = AC + (BAC – EV)/(CPI x SPI)

26- Typically, the statement "no one likes to estimate, because they know their estimate will be
proven incorrect" is true. However, you have been given the challenge of estimating the costs
for your nuclear reactor project. You are considering a variety of items as you incorporate the
cost of financing, which is in the _______
a. Schedule
b. Financial management plan
c. The amount of indirect costs
d. The benefit delivery plan

27- By reviewing cumulative cost curves, the project manager can monitor ____
a. EAC
b. PV, EV, and AC
c. CVs and SVs
d. CPI and SPI

28- Control accounts _____

a. Are charge accounts for personnel time management
b. Summarize project costs at level 2 of the WBS
c. Identify and track management reserves
d. Represent the basic level at which project performance is measured and reported
29- Assume you are holding performance review meetings on your project to assess schedule
activity and work packages over-running or under-running the budget and to determine any
estimated funds needed to complete work in progress. You also are using earned value. You
are preparing reports for your stakeholders as they want regular cost forecasts. This means
they are interested in ____
a. The Estimate at Completion
b. CPI and SPI
c. To Complete Performance Index
d. Variance analysis

30- Overall cost estimates must be allocated to individual activities to establish the cost
performance baseline. In an ideal situation, a project manager would prefer to prepare
estimates _______
a. Before the budget is complete
b. After the budget is approved by management
c. Using a parametric estimating technique and model specific for that project type
d. Using a bottom-up estimating technique

31- One way to engage team members to improve estimate accuracy is to:
a. Hold a focus group
b. Use vendor bid analysis
c. Use decision making
d. Use a Delphi technique

32- Assume you have used reserve analysis as a tool and technique in Control Costs. However,
during your project risk identification and subsequent analysis of the identified risks was
ongoing. In fact, you had a risk expert on your team. This means you may need to _____
a. Use management reserve
b. Re-baseline your cost estimate
c. Perform an assumptions analysis
d. Request additional contingency reserves for your budget

33- Increased attention to return on investment (ROI) now requires you to re-estimate the costs
for your project. When you looked at how costs were first estimated, you realized an order-of-
magnitude estimate was prepared, which was never refined. Therefore, now you are estimating
costs from the beginning. As you are preparing a new smart TV along with an automated home
as the products of your project, you realize market conditions should be reviewed because:
a. A competitor may be working on the same product
b. Global supply and demand conditions can influence resource costs
c. Resource cost data are available in your company's knowledge transfer system
d. Expert judgment can assist in determining when costs exceed profit.

34- A revised cost baseline may be required in cost control when:

a. CVs are severe, and a realistic measure of performance is needed
b. Updated cost estimates are prepared and distributed to stakeholders
c. Corrective action must be taken to bring expected future performance in line with the project plan
d. EAC shows that additional funds are needed to complete the project even if a scope change is not needed

35- As project manager, you identified a number of acceptable tolerances as part of your
earned value management system. During execution, some "unacceptable" variances
occurred. After each "unacceptable" variance occurred, a best practice is to:
a. Update the budget
b. Prepare a revised cost estimate
c. Adjust the project plan
d. Document lessons learned
36- Assume that the project cost estimates have been prepared for each activity and the basis of
these estimates has been determined. Now, as the project manager for your nutrition
awareness program in your hospital, you are preparing your budget. Because you have
estimates for more than 1,200 separate activities, you have decided to first:
a. Aggregate these estimates by work packages
b. Aggregate these estimates by control accounts to facilitate the use of earned value
management
c. Use the results of previous projects to predict total costs
d. Set your cost performance baseline

37- Assume you are using earned value on your project, and as of today, your cumulative
CPI is below the baseline. This means
a. All future work will need to be performed immediately with the range of the TCPI.
b. The ETC work will be performed at an efficiency rate that considers both the schedule and
performance indices.
c. What the project has experienced to date is expected to continue.
d. The budget should be re-baselined.

38- Assume it has become obvious on your project that the budget at completion is no longer
viable. This means as the project manager, you should:
a. Recommend to your managers that the project be terminated
b. Perform an analysis of the remaining tasks on the critical path and take corrective or
preventive action as required
c. Determine the relationship of physical performance to costs spent to show performance for a
specified time period for trend analysis
d. Consider the forecasted EAC

39- Assume that your actual costs are $800; your planned value is $1,200; and your earned
value is $1,000. Based on these data, what can be determined regarding your schedule
variance?
a. At +$200, the situation is favorable as physical progress is being accomplished ahead of your plan.
b. At —$200, the physical progress is being accomplished at a slower rate than is planned, indicating an
unfavorable situation.
c. At +$400, the situation is favorable as physical progress is being accomplished at a lower cost than was
forecasted.
d. At —$200, you have a behind-schedule condition, and your critical path has slipped.

40- The CPI on your project is 0.84. This means that you should:
a. Place emphasis on improving the timeliness of the physical progress
b. Reassess the life-cycle costs of your product, including the length of the life-cycle phase
c. Recognize that your original estimates were fundamentally flawed, and your project is in an
atypical situation
d. Place emphasis on improving the productivity by which work was being performed

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1-Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and
risk?
a. There is no relationship.
b. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate.
c. Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is.
d. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad.
2-Your project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network
diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do?
a. Fast track the project.
b. Level the resources.
c. Crash the project.
d. Perform Monte Carlo analysis.

3-A project manager has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the following
does he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process?
a. Change requests.
b. Schedule change control system.
c. Recommended corrective actions.
d. Reserves.

4-Lag means:
a. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date.
b. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its
successor.
c. Waiting time.
d. The product of a forward and backward pass.

5-The float of an activity is determined by:

a. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis.
b. Determining the waiting time between activities.
c. Determining lag.
d. Determining the length of time the activity can be delayed without delaying the critical path.

6-Which of the following is the best project management tool to use to determine the longest time the
project will take?
a. WBS.
b. Network diagram.
c. Bar chart.
d. Project charter.

7-During project planning, you estimate the time needed for each activity and then add up the
estimates to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date. What is
wrong with this scenario?
a. The team did not create the estimate, and estimating takes too long using that method.
b. The team did not create the estimate, and a network diagram was not used.
c. The estimate is too long and should be created by management.
d. The project estimate should be the same as the customer's required completion date.

8-The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion date. You do not
have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the benefit cost ratio is expected to be
1.6, and the dependencies are preferential. Under these circumstances, what is the BEST thing to do?
a. Cut resources from an activity.
b. Make more activities concurrent.
c. Move resources from the preferential dependencies to the external dependencies.
d. Remove an activity from the project.

9-Which of the following processes includes asking team members about the time estimates for their
activities and reaching agreement on the calendar date for each activity?
a. Sequence Activities.
b. Develop Schedule.
c. Define Scope.
d. Develop Project Charter.
10-Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BEITER by bar charts than network diagrams?
a. Logical relationships
b. Critical paths
c. Resource trade-offs
d. Progress or status

11-Which of the following may generate a milestone list:

a. Define Activities.
b. Sequence Activities.
c. Estimate Activity Resources.
d. Estimate Activity Durations.

12-A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network
analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used?
a. Critical path method
b. PERT
c. Monte Carlo
d. Resource leveling

13-The program evaluation and review technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the
critical path method (CPM) because the PERT method:
a. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration.
b. Uses dummy activities to represent logic ties.
c. Uses free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.
d. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule.

14-An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an early finish (EF) of day 9,
and a late finish (LF) of day 19. The activity:
a. Is on the critical path.
b. Has a lag.
c. Is progressing well.
d. Is not on the critical path.

15-Which of the following is the BEST thing to do when asked to complete a project two days earlier
than planned?
a. Tell senior management that the project's critical path does not allow the project to be finished
earlier.
b. Tell your boss.
c. Meet with the team to look at options for crashing or fast tracking the critical path.
d. Work hard and see what the project status is next month.

16-When is a milestone chart used instead of a bar chart?

a. Project planning
b. Reporting to team members
c. Reporting to management
d. Risk analysis

17- A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be able to identify
specific tasks that should be watched and managed more closely than others. The project manager
should use which method?
a. The PERT method.
b. The critical path method.
c. The GERT method.
d. The PCDM method.
18- A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown structure and has
been sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have
been received. What should be done NEXT?
a. Create an activity list.
b. Begin the work breakdown structure.
c. Finalize the schedule.
d. Compress the schedule.

19- To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration.
She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility.
What technique is she using?
a. Critical path method.
b. Flowchart.
c. Precedence diagramming.
d. Work breakdown structure.

20-What is the duration of a milestone?

a. It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity.
b. It is shorter than the activity it represents.
c. It has no duration.
d. It is the same length as the activity it represents.

21-Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

a. Define Schedule.
b. Sequence Activities.
c. Estimate Activity Resources.
d. Estimate Activity Durations.

22-A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network
analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used?
a. Critical path method.
b. Beta distribution.
c. Monte Carlo.
d. Resource leveling.
23- To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration.
She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility.
What technique is she using?
a. Critical path method.
b. Flowchart.
c. Precedence diagramming.
d. Work breakdown structure.

24-Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest time
the project will take?
a. Work breakdown structure.
b. Network diagram.
c. Bar chart.
d. Project charter.
25- During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of
what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain detailed
descriptions of work packages?
a. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary.
b. Activity list.
c. Preliminary project scope statement.
d. Project scope management plan.
26- Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of
ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide
summary information to senior management?
a. Detailed cost estimates.
b. Project management plans.
c. Bar charts.
d. Milestone reports.

27- A project has three critical paths. Which of the following BEST describes how this affects the
project?
a. It makes it easier to manage.
b. It increases the project risk.
c. It requires more people.
d. It makes it more expensive.

28- In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated
with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also include looking at the:
a. Risk impact of crashing each activity.
b. Customer's opinion of which activities to crash.
c. Boss's opinion of which activities to crash and in which order.
d. Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur.

29- A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an example
of a(n):
a. Discretionary dependency.
b. External dependency.
c. Mandatory dependency.
d. Scope dependency.

30-Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is BEST done during which process:

a. Sequence Activities.
b. Develop Schedule.
c. Define Activities.
d. Define Activities.

31- The float of an activity is determined by:

a. performing a Monte Carlo analysis.
b. the waiting time between activities.
c. determining lag.
d. determining the amount of time the activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1- If the project SPI is 0.83 and CPI is 1.19, what can you report on the status of this
project?
a. The project is behind schedule, but the budget is as per the plan.
b. The project is over budget and behind schedule.
c. The project is behind schedule, but with lower cost than planned.
d. The project schedule and budget is as per the plan.

2- Which of the following represents an estimate of the value work that is actually
completed?
a. PV
b. AC
c. EV
d. RP
3- A project to create a new software is scheduled to finish in 12 months with an estimated
budget of 230,000 dirhams. 6 months after the start date of the project 32% is complete and
90,000 DHS. is spent. Calculate the following:

1)BAC or Budget at completion is the budget allotted for completion = 230,000 dirhams
2) AC or Actual cost is total cost for actual work completed in 6 months = 90,000 dirhams
3)PV or Planned Value is the amount of work that should be completed as per schedule = 50% of
BAC= 0.5 x 230,000= 115,000 dirhams
4) EV or earned value is estimated value of work actually completed = 32% of BAC = 0.32 x
230,000= 73,600 dirhams
5) CV or Cost Variance is difference in the budget spent = EV – AC = 73,600 - 90,000 = -16,400
(negative) that suggests we are over budget
6) CPI or Cost performance index is the measurement of project performance wrt to cost
expectation = EV/AC = 73,600/90,000 =
!"#
$$%
= 0.8177 = 0.818 (less than 1) that suggests we are
over budget
7)SPI or Schedule Performance Index is the measure of efficiency wrt to project schedule =
EV/PV= 73,600/115,000 = 0.64 (less than 1) that suggest we are behind schedule
8)EAC or Estimate at completion is the forecasted value of project. Since we are over budget
and behind schedule the formula will be = &'()
)*+ , = .$/0,000
234
556
7 = 281,250
9) ETC Estimate to complete is the estimated cost to complete the remaining = EAC-AC = 281,250
– 90,000 = 191,250 dirhams
10) Estimated time to Complete =
4- How much we earned? And in which shape we’ll be?
You have a project to build a new fence. The fence is four sided as shown. Each side is
to take one day to build, and $1,300 has been budgeted per side. The sides were planned
to be completed one after the other, but circumstances changed on the project, and
work on the sides was able to proceed in parallel. Assume therefore that the sides have a
finish-to-finish relationship, so more than one side can be worked on at the time (in
parallel). Today is the end of day 3.
Using the following project status chart, calculate PV, EV, etc., in the spaces provided.
When completed, check your answers.
Activity
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Status End of Day 3
Side 1 S----------F Complete, spent $1,300
Side 2 S----F----PF Complete, spent $1,200
Side 3 S---- PS-------PF 60% done, spent $1,100
Side 4 S---- PS-------PF 75% done, spent $600
Key S = Actual Start, F = Actual Finish, PS = Planned Start, and PF = Planned Finish
PV = Planed Value = Budget x end of the day = 1300 x 3 = 3900
EV = side1 + side2 + side3 + side4 = 1300 + 1300 + 0.6 x 1300 + 0.75 x 1300 =
4355
AC = The total of complete spent statues at end of day 3 = 1300 + 1200 + 1100 +
600 = 4200
BAC = Budget x total days for the project = 1300 x 4 = 5200
CV = EV – AC = 155
CPI = EV/AC = 871/840 = 1.0369
SV = EV – PV = 455
SPI = EV/PV = 67/60 = 1.1167
EAC = BAC/CPI = 5014.9 = 5015
ETC = EAC – AC = 814.9 = 815
VAC = BAC – EAC = 185
TCPI =
5- Match the following: Who is who?
• As of today, what is the actual cost incurred for the work accomplished? Actual Cost (AC) (total
cost)
• How much did we budget for the total project effort? Budget at Completion (BAC) (the budget)
• As of today, what is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished? Earned Value (EV)
• As of today, how much over or under budget do we expect to be at the end of the project? Variance
at Completion (VAC)
• What do we currently expect the total project to cost (a forecast)? Estimate at Completion (EAC)
• From this point on, how much more do we expect it to cost to finish the project (a forecast)?
Estimate to Complete (ETC)
• As of today, what is the estimated value of the work planned to be done? Planned Value (PV)

1. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the project staff to.
A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements
B. Provide project justification
*C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found
D. Use it in project management software

2. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for __ communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager
C. Customer
*D. Stakeholder

3. Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process?

A. A more complete scope management plan
*B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system

4. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of what
work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain detailed
descriptions of work packages?
*A. WBS dictionary
B. Activity list
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan

5. During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?
A. Initiating
*B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
6. The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new technology. While
planning the next project in this program, the project manager has expanded the scope management plan
because as a project becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in the scope.
A. Remains the same
B. Decreases
C. Decreases then increases
*D. Increase

7. During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is beyond
the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs to concentrate on
completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of.
A. Change management process
*B. Scope management
C. Quality analysis
D. Scope decomposition

8. When should the Verify Scope process be done?

A. At the end of the project
B. At the beginning of the project
*C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes

9. You have just joined the project management office after five years of working on projects. One of the
things you want to introduce to your company is the need to create and utilize WBSs. Some of the project
managers are angry that you are asking them to do "extra work".
Which of the following would be the BEST thing you could tell the project managers to convince them to
use WBSs?
*A. Tell them it will prevent work from slipping through the cracks
B. Tell them that it is not needed
C. Tell them it is required only if the project involves contracts
D. Tell them it is the only way to identify risks

10. To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following
does NOT describe how far to decompose the work?
A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion
B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further
*C. Until it can be done by one person
D. Until it can be realistically estimated

11. A project manager may use to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included in
each of their work packages.
A. The project scope statement
B. The product scope
*C. A WBS dictionary
D. A schedule

12. The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phases are testing and
implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the project manager be MOST
concerned with before moving on to the final phase?
*A. Verify Scope
B. Control Quality
C. Create Performance Reports
D. Control Costs
13. You are managing a six-month project and have held biweekly meetings with your project
stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the
stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by
one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is.

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Control Schedule
*C. Define Scope
D. Control Scope

14. All of the following are parts of the scope baseline EXCEPT the.
*A. Scope management plan
B. Project scope statement
C. Work breakdown structure
D. WBS dictionary

15. The preparation of the scope baseline can BEST be described as involving.
A. The functional managers
*B. The project team
C. All the stakeholders
D. The project expediter

16. Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

*A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Change requests

17. A scope change has been suggested by one of the stakeholders on the project. After careful
consideration and a lot of arguing, the change control board has decided to reject the change. What
should the project manager do?
A. Support the stakeholder by asking the board for the reason for the rejection
B. Suggest to the stakeholder that the next change they request will be approved
*C. Record the change request and its result
D. Advise the change control board to make sure they create approval processes before the next change is
proposed

18. Suggesting a change process that circumvents the change control board's authority (choice B) is not
ethical. There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in place (choice D). A rejected
change should be recorded for historical purposes, in case the idea is resurrected later, and for other
reasons.
Verify Scope is closely related to.
*A. Perform Quality Control
B. Sequence Activities
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Time Management

19. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the Control Scope process?
A. Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement
B. The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning
*C. The Scope Control process must be integrated with other control processes
D. Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope
1. Which of the following is not an input to Verify Scope
*A. Accepted Deliverables
B. Project Management Plan
C. Validated Deliverables
D. Requirements Traceability Matrix

2. The features and functions of a product or service are considered ____; and the work that must be done
to deliver a product/service as the output of the project is considered ____.
A.Project scope, Product Scope
B. Requirements, Deliverables
*C. Product Scope; Project Scope
D. Scope Management Plan, Project Management Plan

3. As a project manager, you should follow which of the following in order to ensure clear boundaries for
project completion:
A. WBS
B. Scope Verification
*C. Scope Statement
D. Scope Control

4. All of the following are outputs of Control Scope Except?

A. Change Requests
*B. Scope Changes
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance measurements

5. A project team member has asked you what project scope management is. Which of the following is a
characteristic of project scope management.
A. It defines the baseline for project acceptance.
B. It defines the requirements for each project within the organization.
*C. It defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work
required, to complete the project successfully.
D. It defines the functional managers assigned to the project.

6. With which of the following objectives are the techniques "Brainstorming and lateral thinking" used in
the scope definition process?
A. Create WBS
*B. Alternatives identification
C. Expert judgement
D. Stakeholder analysis

7. In order to properly complete the Create WBS process, you would document the WBS dictionary in
which of the following ways?
A. Use the organizational breakdown structure and the WBS together and present this scope baseline to
stakeholders.
*B. Record the code of account identifier, responsible organization and milestone schedule in the WBS
dictionary for each component of the WBS.
C. Elaborate the WBS to the point where the new machine specifications are clear and highly detailed.
D. Record the approved change requests as one of the outputs of this process.
8. Decomposition occurs during:
A. Define Scope
B. Verify Scope
*C. Create WBS
D. Control Scope

9. Which of the following is done during Verify scope?

A. Verify product correctness
B. Verify the WBS
*C. Inspection
D. Performance measurement

10. Which of the following sequences is in the proper order:

A. Define scope, estimate activity duration, estimate resources, determine budget
B. Collect requirements, develop human resource plan, estimate activity duration, sequence activities
C. Collect requirements, define scope, determine budget, sequence activities
*D. Collect requirements, define scope, create WBS, define activities, sequence activities

11. You can determine whether requirements have been met by using ___________
A. Quality Audits
*B. Inspection
C. WBS
D. Scope Statement

12. Which of the following documents is used as the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes
or additional work are contained within or outside the project's boundaries and guiding the team through
the Executing processes?
A. Project Charter
*B. Project Scope Statement
C. Project Requirements Documentation
D. WBS Dictionary

13. As a project manager, you have identified the deliverables and details about what is included and
excluded on your project. Where would you document this?
*A. In the scope statement, which is an input to the Create WBS process.
B. In the scope statement, which is an input to the Collect Requirements process.
C. In the WBS, which is an output of the Requirement management plan process
D. In the WBS, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process.

14. Which of the following BEST describes the elements of a WBS Dictionary entry?
A. The definition of the work package including it Net Present Value (NPV)
B. Work Package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Required Resources, and Monte Carlo Analysis
C. Work Package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Risk Register, Earned Value Calculation, Scheduled
Complete Date, and Cost.
*D. Work package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Responsible Organization, Schedule Milestones,
Quality Requirements, Code of Account Identifier, Required Resources, Cost Estimate.

15. Project document updates are a component of all Scope sub processes except .
*a. Collect requirements
b. Define scope
c. Create WBS
d. Scope control
16. Work Breakdown Structure outputs include all but (except).
a. WBS
*b. Scope definition
c. Scope baseline
d. WBS Dictionary

17. Scope management processes include all of the following except?

a. Collect requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Control scope
d. Develop project management plan

18. In the ___ process group, project network diagrams are constructed.
a. Initiate
*b. Planning
c. Defining
d. Closing

19. When project work is initiated, Monitoring and Controlling process activities begin.
*a. True
b. False

1. Formal Stakeholder acceptance of project work is the product of .

*a. Validating Scope
b. Controlling Scope
c. Reducing Scope
d. Optimizing Scope

2. Activities that take place during the Monitoring/Controlling phase include:

*a. Comparing project actuals against pre-determined milestones
b. Developing the Charter
c. Producing the project management plan
d. Defining the Statement of Work

3. Work Performance Measurements is a ___ to the Control Scope process.

a. Input
*b. Output
c. External variable
d. Deliverable

4. Information about a projects progress is covered by a control scope input known as__ .
a. Scope baseline
*b. Work Performance Information
c. Requirements documentation
d. Organizational process assets

5. Change requests that are typically made in regard to .

a. Corrective action plans
b. Preventive action plans
c. Defect repairs
*d. All the other choices
6. The Scope Management knowledge area process inputs include?
*a. Plan Scope, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS
b. Define Scope, Validate Scope, Expert Judgment
c. Validate Scope, Progressive Elaboration, Update Project Management Plan
d. Scope validation, Collect Requirements, Scope Control, Create WBS

7. Validated deliverables are those deliverables that .

a. Meet the requirements set forth in the project plan
b. Have been checked for correctness by the Perform Quality
Control Process
c. Have all activities within the work package completed
*d. All the other choices

8. The Requirements Traceability Matrix .

*a. Links requirements to their point of origin and tracks them throughout the project
b. Traces stakeholder requirements back to the respective stakeholder
c. Traces vendor requirements that pertain to the project
d. Links the project charter to specific project requirements

9. How does scope validation differ from quality control?

a. Scope validation is concerned with correctness of the deliverable
b. Scope validation is concerned with quality requirements of the deliverable
*c. Scope validation is concerned with the acceptance of the deliverable
d. Scope validation is concerned with the cost of the deliverable

10. Project activities, once identified, initiates the development of

a. Communications Plan
b. Project Charter
c. Statement of Work
*d. Work Breakdown Structure

11. Validated deliverables is an input to which of the following processes?

a. Collect Requirements
b. Define Scope
c. Create WBS
*d. Validate Scope

12. Assumptions and risks are detailed during the Initiation Process.
*a. True
b. False

13. Formal Stakeholder acceptance is the product of .

*a. Validating Scope
b. Controlling Scope
c. Reducing Scope
d. Optimizing Scope

14. Project activities are detailed within the project's .

a. Communications Plan
b. Risk Management Plan
*c. Work Packages
d. Resource Plan
15. Control Scope processes are used for..
a. Define Scope Activities
b. Verifying Scope Activities
c. Validating Work Details
*d. Work Performance Measurements

16. Scope Validation takes place within the process group.

a. Initiating
b. Planning
*c. Monitoring & Control
d. Closing

17. Change requests are processed for review and execution through .
a. The work breakdown structure
b. The planning process
*c. The perform integrated change control process
d. The project plan

18. Accepted Deliverables, Change Requests and Project Document Updates are .
a. Inputs to Validate Scope
b. Outputs of WBS
c. Tools and Techniques
*d. Outputs of Validate Scope

19. Which document shows how features and deliverables directly correspond to business needs and
requirements of the project?
*a. Requirements Traceability Matrix
b. Statement of Work
c. Project Charter
d. The Risk Register

Requirements
Example
Type

Business
To increase market share by 10% with product feature enhancement.
Requirements

Stakeholder Stakeholder requirements can vary including but not limited to schedule, cost,
Requirement quality, resources, etc.
 Solution The customer relationship management software can able to generate monthly sales
Requirement report with a click of a button.

Project
Project must complete by end of the year to meet the government deadline.
Requirement

Quality
The final product must get certification from the municipality.
Requirement
Sl. No BENEFITS OF WBS

1 Helps prevent changes

Helps identify risks

2

3 Helps manage stakeholder’s expectations regarding the deliverables

Sl. No BENEFITS OF WBS DICTIONARY

1 Prevents Scope Creep

Increase stakeholder’s understanding of the effort required for each work package
2

3 It puts boundaries on what is included in the work package

 Statement Components

The game must have fewer than 15 defectsper

Acceptance Criteria
10,000 lines of code.

There will be four graphic designersreporting to the Project Assumptions

art director, and sixprogrammers and four testers
reporting tothe development manager.

Project Constraints
No more than 15 people can be allocatedto work on
the game at any time.

Project Deliverables
Scenery artwork.

The product will not include bug fixes forthe previous

Project Exclusions
version.

The game needs to run on a machine with1 GB of

Project Requirements
memory or less.
Sl. No Scenario Validation Control

1 Project and his team verifying the deliverables to check for variances. ⃝ ✔

Classic Contracting company had just completed a project phase. Project

2 manager and the client representatives are now inspecting deliverable for ✔ ⃝
conformance.

Project manager is performing variance analysis to understand the reason

3 ⃝ ✔
for scope creep.

4 Project manager is raising a change request for defect repair. ✔ ✔

Three critical stakeholders conducting voting to decide whether the

5 product is capable enough to provide the required solution for ✔ ⃝
acceptance.
Create a network diagram (using PDM) for the below activity list.

Activity Preceding Activity Duration

Start - -
A Start 5
B Start 6
C A,B 12
D A,C 7
E C 11
F D,E 4
END F -
 Sl. No Parametric Estimation

If the productivity rate of a painter is 30m2 per day, how long will it take to paint 600m2 with 4
Question
painters?

Answer (600/(30x4) = 5 Days

Sl. No Three-Point Estimation

An activity has a duration estimate that is best case = 3 days, most likely = 4 days, and worst case=6
Question
days. What is the three-point estimate for this activity?

Answer (3+(4*4)+6)/6 = 4.17 Days

Question What is the standard deviation for the above?

Answer (6-3)/6 = 0.5 Days

Develop Schedule using CPM for the given network diagram and answer the following
3 questions.

1. What is the project duration?33

2. What are the activities in critical path?B, C, E, F

3. What is the Total Float of activity D?4

 1 5 5 19 7 25

A D

1 1 6 23 4 29

7 12 18 30

C
START
7 0 18 30

1 6 6 19 11 29

B E

1 0 6 19 0 29
 Delegate Instructions

Answer the following four questions for the project schedule provided in the next
page.

1. If Activity C is crashed by 2 days, what will be the revised project

duration?31(Since activity C is on critical path, the project duration will be
affected)

2. If Activity D is crashed by 2 days, what will be the revised project

duration?33(Since activity D is not in critical path, it will have not any impact)

3. If Activity F is to be done in parallel with activity D and E, making activity C as

the predecessor, what will be the revised project duration?29 Days
 1 5 5 19 7 25

A D

2 1 6 23 4 29

7 12 18 3

C
START
7 0 18 3

1 6 6 19 11 29

B E

1 0 6 19 0 29

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Chapter 5 - Project Scope Management (Questions)

61. All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:

A. It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
B. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
C. It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the
project.
D. It is not related to the project management plan.

62. Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder
needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true about this
process EXCEPT:

A. The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the

discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in
determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result
of the project.
B. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, quality planning, and
sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
C. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in
the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
D. Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in
the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.

63. You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder
register for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.

B. Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
C. Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
D. Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key
stakeholders.

64. You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to
manage changes to the product scope. This is known as the:

A. Configuration management system.

B. Business case.
C. New product development matrix.
141
 D. Requirements traceability matrix.
65. An output of the Define Scope process is:

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.

66. All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:

A. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.

B. It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those
deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder
expectations.

67. Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B. B. The WBS is a simple list of project activities in chart form.
C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

68. The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the
team's options in scope definition:

A. A predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the
customer or performing organization.
B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
C. Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
D. The method used to measure project performance.

69. An input to the Define Scope process is:

A. The type of contract detail language.

B. Project charter.
142
 C. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. Decomposition.
70. What is the WBS typically used for?

A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.

B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

71. The following is true about the WBS:

A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.

B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
project work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

72. Which of the following is true about the Validate Scope process?

A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B. It is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
C. It occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
D. Scope validation is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, whereas quality
control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality
requirements specified for the deliverables.

73. You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders in several international locations.
You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:

A. The language translation of technical terms used in the project.

B. Detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the
WBS.
C. Information relating the legal constraints of relevant international locations to the
development of the WBS.
D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of key stakeholders and their
impact on the WBS.

74. Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process?

143
 A. Work performance information.
B. Change requests.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Accepted deliverables.
75. All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:

A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated with
the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and enforcing
strict adherence to them.
D. Controlling the project scope ensures that all requested changes and recommended
corrective or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change
Control process.

76. describe capabilities that are temporary and are no longer needed after the new
product/service/result is ready.

A. Business requirements
B. Solution requirements
C. Quality requirements
D. Transition requirements

77. Agile scope planning is especially useful when:

A. Solution requirements are emerging all the time.

B. Quality requirements are not stable.
C. Business requirements are not stable.
D. Scope is well understood at the beginning.
Chapter 6 - Project Schedule Management (Questions)

78. In rolling wave planning:

A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out

as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in
the future is planned at a higher level.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the
WBS.
D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS
deliverables and project milestones are achieved.
144
79. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A. A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one
or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be
performed. B. A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C. A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties
about the durations of project activities.

80. The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The estimated activity resource requirements.

B. The types of resources assigned to the activity.
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of
using the critical path method (CPM).

81. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources is called:

A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM). D. Fast tracking.

82. The “fast tracking” method of schedule compression involves:

A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the
project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are
normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if
possible.
D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.

83. An example of a mandatory dependency is:

145
 A. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular
application area.
B. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific
sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been
built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all
project requirements.

84. Inputs to the Define Activities process are:

A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network
diagram.
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

85. For project scheduling, bar charts show:

A. The level of effort for an activity.

B. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
C. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations. D. Relative priority of activities.

86. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:

A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.

B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.
87. The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:

A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.

B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.

146
 88. All of the following are true about resource levelling EXCEPT:

A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to
demand and supply of resources.

89. As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:

A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.

B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous
activity is completed.

90. Three-point estimating uses:

A. An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.

B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the
expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities. D. Free float
instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

91. Analogous duration estimating is:

A. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed
information about the project.
B. A bottom-up estimating technique.
C. Based on multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is
used.
92. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks

147
 Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the calculated Expected
activity duration (tE) is:

A. 4.0 weeks. B. 4.5 weeks. C. 5.5 weeks. D. 6.5 weeks.

93. Consider the following information about the duration of an activity:

Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM) activity
duration is:

A. 4.0 weeks. B. 4.5 weeks. C. 5.0 weeks. D. 6.0 weeks.

94. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks

Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:

A. 10.0 weeks. B. 10.5 weeks. C. 11.5 weeks.

D. 12.0 weeks.

95. An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and LF = 14.
Therefore, LS = .

A. 9.0 weeks.
B. 10.0 weeks.
C. 11.0 weeks. D. 12.0 weeks.

96. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22, and LS = 14. ES and
LS relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week. The
duration of the activity is:
148
 A. 8.0 weeks.
B. 11.0 weeks.
C. 12.0 weeks. D. 14.0 weeks.

97. “Crashing” in schedule management is:

A. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their associated
durations in days for questions 98–99:

98. The critical path in this network is:

A. A-B-C.
B. A-B-D.
C. A-C-D.
D. A-B-C-D.

99. The free float for activity C is:

A. 14.
B. 12.
C. 0.
D. –2.

100. The Control Schedule process for a project:

A. Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to
achieve the approved schedule baseline.

149
B. Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and
managing changes to the schedule baseline.
C. Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
D. Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.

150
 101. Henry is the project manager for his organization, and management has asked him to
create a project management plan to define the scope statement. Which project
management plan guides the creation of the detailed project scope statement?

The person scope management plan

102. You are the project manager of the GYH Project. This project will create a walking
bridge across the Tennessee River. You've been asked to start the process of creating the
project scope statement and you need to gather the elements for this process. Which one of
the following is not needed to define the project scope?

A risk management plan

103. You are the project manager of the BHY Project. Your project customer has
demanded that the project be completed by December 1. December 1 is an example of which
one of the following?

A constraint

104 Marty is the project manager of the Highway 41 Bridge Project and he's working with
his project team members to create the WBS. Marty shows the team how to break down the project
scope into the WBS components, but the team doesn't understand how far down the breakdown
should occur. Marty should call the lowest-level item in a WBS what?

A work package

105 You are working with the project team to create the WBS. Some elements in the
WBS can't be broken down yet. You and the team elect to break down these items later in
the project as more details become available. This approach to creating the WBS is also
known as what?
151
 Rolling wave planning

106. You are the project manager for your organization and you're creating the WBS for a
new project. In your WBS, you're numbering each level of the components following a project
sequenced numbering order. Your WBS is numbered in a hierarchical fashion for easy identification
and reference. This numbering scheme is called what?

Code of accounts

107. You'll use the scope management plan to define the project scope statement. Yo'll also use this
plan to build the scope baseline. Which two items are parts of the scope baseline for the project?

The WBS and WBS dictionary

108. Throughout the project, you have milestones scheduled at the end of each phase. Tied to these
milestones is a project management requirement of scope validation. Scope validation leads to what?

Formal acceptance of the complete project scope

109. You've just reached the end of your project, and management has asked you and several key
stakeholders to begin the scope validation process. What is a tool and technique used during scope
validation?

Inspection

110. David, one of your project team members, has been making changes to his work, which, as a
result, changes the project scope. David's changes are also known as what?
152
Scope creep

111. As the project manager, you are averse to change once the scope statement has been approved.
You do not want changes to enter the project because these changes can have a wide impact on the
project as a whole. Which process defines how the project scope can be changed?

The integrated change control process

112. A scope change has been approved in Marcy's project. All of the following must be updated to
reflect the change except for which one?

Defect repair review

113. A project team member has, on his own initiative, added extra vents to an attic to increase air
circulation. The project plan did not call for these extra vents, but the team member decided they
were needed based on the geographical location of the house. The project team's experts concur with
this decision. This is an example of which of the following?

Ineffective change control

114. It's important for you, the project manager, to understand what each of the project management
processes creates. One of the key processes you'll do is scope control throughout your project. Which
of the following is an output of scope control?

Change request for a corrective action

115. You are the project manager for the JHG Project. Your project is to create a new product for your
industry. You have recently learned that your competitor is also working on a similar project, but their
offering will include a computer-aided program and web-based tools, which your project does not
offer. You have implemented a change request to update your project accordingly. This is an example
of which of the following?

153
A change due to an external event

116. You are the project manager of a large project. Your project sponsor and management have
approved your outsourcing portions of the project plan. What must be considered if a change request
affects the procured work?

The contractual agreement

117. project team member has asked you what a scope statement is. Which of the following is a
characteristic of a project scope statement?

Defines the project deliverables and work needed to create those deliverables

118. One of the stakeholders of the project you are managing asks why you consider the project
scope statement so important in your project management methodology. You answer her question
with which of the following?

The project scope helps the project manager determine whether a change is within or outside of
scope

119. You are the project manager for a large construction project. The architect has provided your
project team with blueprints detailing the exact layout of the building your team will be creating. He
insists that the team follow the blueprints as he's designed them. The blueprints are an example of
which one of the following?

Project specifications

120. Complete this sentence: Project scope management is primarily concerned with defining and
controlling

What is and is not included in the project

121. You are the project manager of the HGF Project. You would like to use a portion of the activity
list from the HGB Project, which is similar to your current project. The portion of the activity list from
the HGB Project is best described as which one of the following?

A template
154
122. You are the project manager of a large project for your organization. Much of the project will
center on new software that you'll be installing on 4500 laptops in stages. Because of the likelihood of
change, you've recommended a rolling wave planning approach. Which one of the following is the
best example of rolling wave planning?

Planning the immediate portions of the project in detail and the future project portions at a higher
level

123.you are working with your project team to break down the project work into activities .Which
component in the WBS must be broken down to get to the schedule activities

Work packages

124.You and the project team have created the work breakdown structure based on the project scope
and requirements . Your next step is to create the project’s activity list. Which one of the following
will not be included in the activity list created with the project management team ?

Activities that are not part of the project scope

125. Mary has created an activity list with her project team. She activity the activities project activity
list. Of the following, which one is not an example of an activity attribute that Mary likely included?

Scope validation

126. Your project team agrees that the server operating system must first be installed before the
application can be installed. This best describes which one of the following?

Hard logic

127. You are working with your project team to schedule activities for your construction project. You
have scheduled the painting activity to be completed before the carpet installation activity may begin.
The relationship between the painting activity and carpet installation activity can best be described as
which one of the following?

Finish-to-start
155
128.You are the project manager for your organization, and the following illustration represents your
project. Based on the following illustration. How long will the project last?

15 days

129.Beth is the project manager of her company and she's asked you to help her with project
schedule network analysis. Examine the illustration to the right. If Activity B is delayed by two days,
how late will the project be?

The project will be late by two days

130. Ronald is the project manager for his company. He has created a project network diagram for the
activities in the activity list and he's trying now to begin the process of float determination. He's asked
for your help. Examine the following illustration. Which path is the critical path?

ADEHJL

131. Consider a project that is to begin work on a Monday and a project team that will not work any
weekends. The critical path of the project is 17 days. On what day of the week will the project be
completed?

Tuesday

132. Mike, a project manager in your company, is falling behind on the project schedule. He has
elected to crash the project. What is crashing?

Adding additional project resources to the project work

133.You are using a triangular estimate for your project. Howard reports that his optimistic estimate
is 16 hours, his most likely estimate is 24 hours, and the pessimistic estimate is 65 hours. What is the
estimated duration for Howard's activity?

35 hours

156
134. The framing activity cannot begin until the concrete has cured for 36 hours. The time between
the concrete activity and the framing activity is best described as which one of the following?

Lag time

135. You are the project manager of the Data Warehouse Project. You've just recently created the
project network diagram and you now want to identify the critical path. Which one of the following
best describes the critical path?

It determines the earliest the project can finish

136. Management has asked that you create the schedule management plan to identify the different
processes and procedures your project will require. During the creation of the plan, you need to
identify schedule change control and its components. Schedule change control is part of which project
management process?

Integrated change control

137. Terry is the project manager of the network update project and the project stakeholders have
requested that four new servers be added to the project. This addition will cause changes in the
project costs and schedule. Which process can manage changes to the project schedule?

Integrated change control

138. Which schedule development tool does not consider the availability of the project resources,
only when the work may take place in the project?

The critical path method

139. You are working with your project team to respond to some delays in the project schedule. You
have elected to crash the project schedule, and management wants to know what effect this will have
on the project as a whole. What happens when a project manager elects to crash a project?

The project costs will increase

157
57. You are the project manager of a project that is in its early phase. You need to estimate the
duration
of implementing the project. Based on your experience with similar past projects, you estimate a 6-
month implementation time. What is this type of estimation technique called?
A. Three Point estimating
B. Bottom up Estimating
C. PERT
D. Analogous Estimating
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D. Analogous Estimating uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure
for a future project. Since the question specifically states that based on the experience gained from
similar past projects, hence the estimation technique is Analogous.

58. An activity has an Early start(ES) of day 5, a Late Start (LS) of day 15, an Early Finish (EF) of day 8
and
Late Finish(LF) of day 18. This activity :
A. Is on the critical path
B. Has a lag
C. Is progressing well
D. Is not on the critical path
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D. The said activity has a float, LS - ES = 15-5=10 or LF-EF=18-8=10. Hence this
activity
is not on the critical path as activities on the critical path do not have a positive float.

59. The difference between actual time and planned time is known as,
A. Variance
B. Performance quota
C. BAC
D. Baseline reserve
Explanation:
Correct Answer is A. Variance is the difference between actual time and planned time.

60. If a project has 5 days of project float and 10 days of total float, what will happen if the early start
date is delayed 3 days, how will this impact the project completion date:
A. The project end date will be pushed out 5 days
B. The project end date will be pushed out 10 days
C. The finish date won't change
D. The project will be able to finish early
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. Since the project already has 5 days of project float and 10 days of total float, the
early start date delay of 3 days will not impact the project completion date.

61. The project manager decided to improve the predicted completion date for the project by doing in
parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. This is called:
A. Crashing
B. Increasing priorities
C. Fast Moving
D. Fast Tracking
Explanation:
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Correct Answer is D. Fast tracking a schedule is finding activities that can be done in parallel that were
originally scheduled to be done in sequence.

62. The original schedule (for a project, a work package, or an activity), plus or minus approved
changes,
is called:
A. The working schedule
B. The target schedule
C. The performance schedule
D. The schedule baseline
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D. The baseline schedule as well as the baseline budget and the baseline scope are
the
original project plans plus or minus any approved changes. There are many other terms used to
describe
schedules, but the definition given is the definition of the baseline schedule.

63. Resource leveling will generally:

A. Reduce the time needed to do the project
B. Increase the total time necessary to do all the tasks
C. Reduce the overutilization of resources
D. Reduce resources to the lowest skill that is possible
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. Resource leveling is a tool in most project management software and can also be
done manually. In resource leveling an attempt is made to reduce overutilization of resources to their
normal utilization.

64. A task was scheduled to use two persons, full time, and take two weeks to complete. Instead, the
project manager was only able to assign one person to this task. At the end of two weeks, the person
assigned to the task was 75% complete. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 1.1
D. 0.7
Explanation:
Correct Answer is B. At the end of two weeks this task is 75% complete. The PV was to be 4
personweeks,
two people working full time for two weeks. The EV is therefore 3 person-weeks, .75 x 4. The AC
is 2 person-weeks. The cost performance index (CPI) is the EV / AC. i.e., CPI = 3 person-weeks / 2
personweeks

1.5.
65. Which of the following is considered to be a simulation technique?
A. PERT Analysis
B. GERT Analysis
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. Critical path method
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that assigns durations to tasks in a
schedule and then calculates the schedule information.

66. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur?

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A. The number of required resources will increase during certain time periods of the project
B. The number of required resources will decrease during certain time periods of the project
C. The overall project duration will increase
D. The overall project duration will DECREASE
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. Resource leveling, because of the limited availability of the resources, often
results
in a project duration that is longer than the preliminary schedule.

67. A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be able to predict
the
duration of the project more accurately, even though the estimates for the duration of the activities
have a lot of variability. The project manager should use which method to more accurately predict the
project completion date?
A. CPM
B. GERT
C. PERT
D. Activity Sampling
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. PERT stands for program evaluation and review technique. In PERT, each of the
activities has the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration estimated. The weighted average is
calculated by adding the optimistic, pessimistic and four times the most likely duration and dividing by
6.

68. The project manager will use the PERT method of scheduling for the project that she is working
on.
Using the PERT calculation, the variance for the project is found to be 25 days and the duration of the
project is found to be 169 days. What is the range of values for the project duration such that there
will
be at least a 95% probability that the actual project completion will fall between the high and low
value
of the range of values?
A. 164 - 173 days
B. 144 - 194 days
C. 119 - 219 days
D. 159 - 179 days
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D. In the PERT calculation, the standard deviation is calculated by squaring the
standard deviation for each of the activities on the critical path of the project, adding them together
and
then taking the square root. This is the standard deviation of the project. Plus or minus two standard
deviations from the expected value of the project duration will have a range of values such that the
project has a 95% probability of actually finishing within the dates calculated.

69. Of the following, which is NOT a tool and technique for the 'Sequence Activities' process?
A. Dependency determination
B. Applying leads and lags
C. Schedule network templates
D. Milestone list
Explanation:
Correct Answer is D. Milestone List is an input to the 'Sequence Activities' process.

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70. Which of the following represents a progressive elaboration planning technique where the work
to
be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher level of
the
WBS?
A. Rolling Wave Planning
B. Decomposition
C. Templates
D. Activity Sampling
Explanation:
Correct Answer is A. Rolling Wave Planning is a progressive elaboration planning technique where the
work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher
level of the WBS.

71. Which dependency or logical relationship of Activity-On-Node is depicted when we say - The
completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity
A. Finish to Start
B. Finish to Finish
C. Start to Start
D. Start to Finish
Explanation:
Correct Answer is B. Finish to Finish is when the completion of the successor activity depends upon
the
completion of the predecessor activity.

72. Which is the output from the 'Estimate Activity Resources'?

A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Alternatives data
C. Project management software
D. Resource calendars
Explanation:
Correct Answer is A. Of all the options listed, Resource Breakdown structure is the output from this
process.

1. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50
weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, built could

take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the expected duration of the work

package? 70 weeks

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2. The reason that the schedule performance index (SPI) is shown as a ratio is to- Provide the ability
to show performance for a specified d time period for trend analysis

3. Project schedule development is an iterative process. If the start and finish dates are not realistic,
the project probably will not finish as planned. You are working with your team to define how to
monitor any schedule changes. You documented your decisions in which of the following?
Schedule management plan

4. An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th. The activity has a
duration of four days. There are no non-workdays. From the information given, what can be
concluded about the activity? Total float for the activity is nine days.

5. Assume you are working to sequence the activities in your schedule. You have focused on the
need for predecessors and successors for your tasks. Now, you have finished , and you realize:
There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks.

6. Decomposition is a technique used for both WBS development and activity definition. However,
in Define Activities, decomposition- ANS: The final output is described as activities.

7. Project managers should pay attention to critical and subcritical activities when evaluating project
time performance. One way to do this is to analyze 10 subcritical paths in order of ascending
float. This approach is part of: Variance analysis

8. You are managing a construction project for a new city water system. The contract requires you
to use special titanium piping equipment that is guaranteed not to corrode. The Titanium pipe
must be resting in the ground a total of 10 days before connectors can be installed. In this
example, the 10-day period is defined as- Lag

9. What is the float for Activity G? 1

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10. Working with your team to provide the basis for measuring and reporting schedule progress, you
agree to consider the: Schedule baseline

11. Your customer wants the project to be completed six months earlier than planned. You believe
you can meet this target by overlapping project activities. The approach you plan to use is known
as: Fast tracking

12. You are managing a project to redesign a retail store layout to improve customer throughput and
efficiency. Much project work must be done on site and will require the active participation of
store employees who are life long members of a powerful union with a reputation for labor
unrest. One important component of your schedule must be: A resource calendar

13. A key input to the Define Activities process is the— Project management plan

14. A schedule performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that the: Project is running behind the
monetary value of the work it planned to accomplish

15. It is important to use the critical path method in Control Schedule because: It can help identify
schedule risks

16. If a project planner imposes a finish time of 14 on the project with no change in the start date or
activity durations, what is the total float of Activity E? -1

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17. Review the following network diagram and table. Of the various activities, which ones would you

crash and in what order?

C, A, F, and G

18. You are working to control your schedule. You have a number of tools and techniques you can use
and may need to use several of them for e"ectiveness. You decide you want to track work
remaining to be done so you will use: Iteration burndown charts

19. If, when developing your project schedule, you want to define a distribution of probable results
for each schedule activity and use that distribution to calculate another distribution of probable
results for the total project, the most common technique to use is: Monte Carlo analysis

20. There are purposes and benefits in the Control Schedule process. Its benefit is- It maintains the
schedule baseline

21. You are planning to conduct the team-building portion of your new project management training
curriculum out-of-doors in the local park. You are limited to scheduling the course at certain times
of the year, and the best time for the course to begin is in mid-July. You are using the precedence
diagramming method for your schedule. In it, you can show relationship s between tasks in four
ways, and the most common is: Finish-to-start

22. Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days, a most likely (ML) estimate of 21 days, and an
optimistic (O) estimate of 6 days. What is the probability that activity A will be completed in 16 to
26 days? 68.26 percent

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23. To meet regulatory requirements, you need to crash your project schedule.. Your first step is to
compute- The cost and time slope for each critical activity that can be expedited

24. If the imposed finish time in question 3 above is removed and reset to 16 and the duration of
Activity H is changed to 3, what is the late finish for Activity G? 11

25. Assume you are working on a on a project using lean manufacturing. Now you are preparing your
schedule. You feel your tasks may be relatively similar in size and scope. You should consider:
Kanban system

26. What is the duration of the critical path in this network? 15

27. In project development, schedule information, such as who will perform the work, where the
work will be performed, activity type, and WBS classification, are examples of: Activity attributes

28. You can use various estimating approaches to determine activity durations. When you have a
limited amount of information available about your project , especially when in the early phases ,
the best approach to use is: Analogous estimating

29. You are managing a project that will use a virtual team with team members on three di"erent
continents. Your company is looking to use the virtual team to provide a lower cost product by
using resources in countries that have a favorable exchange rate to that of your country. To assist
in this process as you estimate resource requirements, it is helpful to consider- Reserve analysis

30. Unlike bar charts, milestone charts show— Scheduled start or completion of major deliverables
and key external interfaces

31. Your project schedule was approved. Management has now mandated that the project be
completed as soon as possible. However, you do not think it is possible given resource
constraints. In order to convince your management of your need for additional resources, you
decide to use: Resource leveling

32. You are working on a project to remodel a home, and you and your team decided you should first
finish the plumbing work and then do the electrical work. In this example, this is an example of a-
Discretionary dependency
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33. Assume your organization has decided to use agile for most of it projects. You are managing a
project using agile and are working to develop your schedule. In doing so, you are using agile
release planning. Your schedule is based on the: Product roadmap

34. sequencing project activities in the schedule, you should ensure- Every activity is connected to at
least one predecessor and at least one successor

35. Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a particular activity and
does NOT a"ect the float in later activities is called: Free float

36. Assume you are working to Estimate Activity Durations. You need to determine the amount of
work to complete each activity and the resources required. As you work to do so, you should
consider- Sta" motivation

37. Activity A has a duration of three days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to- start relationship has
three days of lag, and activity B has a duration of four days. Sunday is a non-workday. Such data
can help to determine: Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days

38. You are managing a new technology project designed to improve the removal of hazardous waste
from your city. You are in the planning phase of this project and have prepared your network
diagram. Your next step is to: Describe any unusual sequencing in the network

39. Your company, which operates one of the region's largest chemical processing plants, has been
convicted of illegally dumping toxic substances into the local river. The court has mandated that
the required cleanup activities be completed by February 15. This date is an example of: A
milestone

40. "I cannot test the software until I code the software." This expression describes which of the
following dependencies? Mandatory or hard

41. You have developed the schedule for your project, and you’ve called the kicko" meeting. A team
member who is responsible for an activity comes to you and tells you that the activity cannot be
performed within the allocated time because some pieces were left out during activity definition.
The revised estimate will add two more days to the activity duration, but the activity is not on the
critical path. Which of the following actions will you take? Accept the new estimate and update
the schedule accordingly.

42. Which of the following is not an output of the schedule control process? Work performance data

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43. The amount of time by which an activity can be delayed without changing the project finish date
is called: Float time

44. What is the length of the critical path in the network diagram shown in Question 11? 22

45. Which of the following is not an input item to the Define Activities process? The activity duration

46. Why should you monitor the activities on the critical path more closely? Because each activity on
the critical path has a zero float time and thereby poses a schedule risk.

47. Which of the following is a true statement about the critical path? Each activity on the critical
path has zero float time.

48. What is the float for Activity G in the network diagram in Question 11? 0

49. Which of the following is the most commonly used network diagramming method? Precedence
diagramming method (PDM)

50. You know from a network diagram that Activity B cannot start until Activity A is finished. Which of
the following are true? Activities A and B have a finish-to-start dependency.

51. You are the project manager of a project that is running behind schedule. The project sponsor is
very unhappy at the new finish date that you proposed, but he has accepted it. However, you also
requested extra funds to support the extended time of work, and the sponsor has refused to
supply more funds and is threatening to cancel the project if you cannot finish the project within
the planned budget. What are your options? Fast tracking

52. You use a three-point estimate for activity duration estimating. An activity has a duration of 9
days for an optimistic scenario, 18 days for a pessimistic scenario, and 12 days for the most-likely
scenario. Which of the following will you take as the duration estimate if a weight of 4 is assigned
to the most-likely scenario as compared to a weight of 1 for each of the optimistic and pessimistic
scenarios? 12.5 days

53. You estimate the duration of an activity as five days because an expert told you that it took five
days to complete a similar activity in a previous project. Which of the following methods might
the expert be using for this activity duration estimate? Analogous estimating

54. What is the crashing technique used for? Duration compression

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55. Consider the following network diagram. Which of the following is the critical path? Start-I-G-H-
Finish

56. The project charter is an input to which schedule management process? Plan schedule
management

57. In your research project on tourism, you must collect data before the tourist season ends because
the project involves interviewing tourists. The data-collection activity has which of the following
kinds of dependency? External

58. Mike, a project manager in your company, is falling behind on the project schedule. He has
elected to crash the project. What is crashing? Adding additional project resources to the project
work

59. The framing activity cannot begin until the concrete has cured for 36 hours. The time between the
concrete activity and the framing activity is best described as which one of the following? Lag
time
60. Beth is the project manager of her company and she’s asked you to help her with project
schedule network analysis. Examine the following illustration. If Activity B is delayed by two days,
how late will the project be? The project will be late by one day.

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61. You are the project manager for your organization, and the following illustration represents your
project. Based on the following illustration, how long will the project last? 15 Days.
62. You are the project manager of the PJG Project for your company. This project is similar to a
project you completed a few months ago, and you’d like to reference the older project for
information. Which estimating technique uses a similar project to predict how long the current
project will take to complete? Analogous estimating

63. You are working with your project team to break down the project work into activities. Which
component in the WBS must be broken down to get to the schedule activities? Work packages

64. You are working with your project team to respond to some delays in the project schedule. You
have elected to crash the project schedule, and management wants to know what e"ect this will
have on the project as a whole. What happens when a project manager elects to crash a project?
The project costs will increase.
65. You are the project manager of the HGF Project. You would like to use a portion of the activity list

from the HGB Project, which is similar to your current project. The portion of the activity list from
the HGB Project is best described as which one of the following? A template

66. You are the project manager of a large project for your organization. Much of the project will
center on new software that you’ll be installing on 4500 laptops in stages. Because of the
likelihood of change, you’ve recommended a rolling wave planning approach. Which one of the
following is the best example of rolling wave planning? Planning the immediate portions of the
project in detail and the future project portions at a higher level

67. Mary has created an activity list with her project team. She has included activity attributes for
each of the activities in her project activity list. Of the following, which one is not an example of
an activity attribute that Mary likely included? Scope validation

68. You are the project manager of the Data Warehouse Project. You’ve just recently created the
project network diagram and you now want to identify the critical path. Which one of the
following best describes the critical path? It determines the earliest the project can finish

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69. Your project team agrees that the server operating system must first be installed before the
application can be installed. This best describes which one of the following? Hard logic

70. Which schedule development tool does not consider the availability of the project resources, only
when the work may take place in the project? The critical path method

71. You are using a triangular estimate for your project. Howard reports that his optimistic estimate is
16 hours, his most likely estimate is 24 hours, and the pessimistic estimate is 65 hours. What is
the estimated duration for Howard’s activity? 35 hours.

72. Ronald is the project manager for his company. He has created a project network diagram for the
activities in the activity list and he’s trying now to begin the process of float determination. He’s
asked for your help. Examine the following illustration. Which path is the critical path? ADEHJL
73. Management has asked that you create the schedule management plan to identify the di"erent

processes and procedures your project will require. During the creation of the plan, you need to
identify schedule change control and its components. Schedule change control is part of which
project management process? Integrated change control

74. You are working with your project team to schedule activities for your construction project. You
have scheduled the painting activity to be completed before the carpet installation activity may
begin. The relationship between the painting activity and carpet installation activity can best be
described as which one of the following? Finish-to-start

75. Consider a project that is to begin work on a Monday and a project team that will not work any
weekends. The critical path of the project is 17 days. On what day of the week will the project be
completed? Tuesday

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76. You and the project team have created the work breakdown structure based on the project scope
and requirements. Your next step is to create the project’s activity list. Which one of the following
will not be included in the activity list created with the project management team? Activities that
are not part of the project scope

77. Terry is the project manager of the network update project and the project stakeholders have
requested that four new servers be added to the project. This addition will cause changes in the
project costs and schedule. Which process can manage changes to the project schedule?
Integrated change control

78. A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network
analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used? Beta distribution

79. The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. The next
thing for the project manager to do is: Create a preliminary schedule and get the teams
approval.

80. A heuristic is best described as a: Generally accepted rule

81. To help them determine the schedule baseline, the team has drafted a network diagram. The
project manager adds the time estimates for each activity to establish the critical path for the
project. They discover the project has three critical paths. Which of the following best describes
how this discovery will a"ect the project? It increases the project risk.

82. The team is working on a project to develop or procure a customized software package that will
be used by delivery drivers for a new chain of pizza restaurants. There are multiple stakeholders
on this project. Because of other ongoing projects to design, build, and equip brick-and-mortar
restaurant locations, you are informed that there is no rush to complete this software
development work. If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used
each month, which of the following is the best thing to do? Perform resource optimization.

83. During project planning, you estimate the time needed for each activity and then total the
estimates to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date.
What is wrong with this scenario? The team did not create the estimate, and a network diagram
was not used.

84. The team is helping the project manager estimate activities on their project. They are experienced
and skilled, and many members have been with the company for some time. There are several
activities they need to estimate that have not been previously done by the company. What is the
best method of estimating these activities? Three-point estimating

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85. Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of
ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide
summary information to senior management? Milestone reports

86. A project manager is in the middle of executing a large construction project when he discovers
the time needed to complete the project is longer than the time available. What is the best thing
to do? Determine options for schedule compression, and present management with the
recommended option.

87. Your sponsor and stakeholders have made it clear they wish to be kept informed on the project
status. There are many aspects of the project on which you will report, and you want to choose
the most appropriate tool to use in each case. Which of the following are generally illustrated
better by bar charts than network diagrams? Progress or status

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88. You have a project with the following activities: Activity A takes 40 hours and can start after the
project starts. Activity B takes 25 hours and should happen after the project starts. Activity C must
happen after activity A and takes 35 hours. Activity D must happen after activities B and C and
takes 30 hours. Activity E must take place after activity C and takes 10 hours. Activity F takes place
after Activity E and takes 22 hours. Activities F and D are the last activities of the project. Which of
the following is true if activity B actually takes 37 hours? The critical path is Start, A, C, E, F, End.

89. The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion date. You do not
have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the benefit-cost ratio is expected to
be 1.6, and the dependencies are preferential. Under these circumstances, what is the best thing
to do? Make more activities concurrent.

90. Lag means: Waiting time

91. A design engineer is helping to ensure that the dependencies within her area of expertise are
properly defined on the project. The design of several deliverables must be complete before
manufacturing can begin. This is an example of what type of dependency? Mandatory
dependency

92. Although the customer agreed to the original project schedule, they are now asking for an earlier
project finish. They are being pressured by their own customers. The project manager s sponsor
thinks finishing early is not only available option but also a good idea for your organization
because it will enable you to start another project sooner. In attempting to complete the project
faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The best
approach to crashing would also include looking at the: Risk impact of crashing each activity

93. During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. Several of the
change requests have come from the customer, significantly changing the functionality of the
originally requested product. Six project team members have been reassigned by management to
a higher- priority project, and they have been replaced. As project work has progressed, many of
the identified risks have occurred and have been successfully mitigated. However, three
contingency plans have been adjusted and will be implemented if identified risks recur during the
remainder of the project. The project manager should: Make sure the project charter is still valid.

94. You are a project manager on a $5,000,000 software development project. While working with
your project team to develop a network diagram, you notice a series of activities that can be
worked in parallel but must finish in a specific sequence. What type of activity sequencing method
is required for these activities? Precedence diagramming method

95. The float of an activity is determined by: Determining the length of time the activity can be
delayed without delaying the critical path

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96. You have identified a diverse group of stakeholders, and you will need to report information in a
variety of ways to meet their di"erent communications needs. When will you use a milestone
chart instead of a bar chart? Reporting to management

97. A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for $
130,000 over a six-week period. According to the schedule, the project should have cost $60,000
to date. However, it has cost $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the
original estimates were not accurate. Who has the primary responsibility to solve this problem?
Project manager

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98. You are the project manager for a new product development project that has four levels in the
work breakdown structure. The network diagram and duration estimates have been created, and
a schedule has been developed and compressed. Which schedule management activity should
you do next? Gain approval.

99. A project manager is taking over a project from another project manager during project
planning. If the new project manager wants to see what the previous project manager planned for
managing changes to the schedule, it would be best to look at the: Schedule management plan

100. You are a project manager on a US $5,000,000 software development project. While working
with your project team to develop a network diagram, your data architects suggest that quality
could be improved if the data model is approved by senior management before moving on to other
design elements. They support this suggestion with an article from a leading software development
journal. Which of the following best describes this type of input? Discretionary external dependency

101. A new project manager is walking you through the schedule she has created for her project.
She asks you about the duration of a particular milestone, so she knows how to properly schedule it.
What will you tell her about a milestones duration? It has no duration.

102. A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown structure and has
been sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have
been received. What should be done next? Compress the schedule.

103. A project manager is informed midway through project planning that she was

104. given inaccurate data regarding new regulations a"ecting the required end date of her
project. She may need to make a few adjustments, but she thinks she can still manage the project
to complete it before the regulations take e"ect. She confirms this by analyzing the sequence of
activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using? Critical
path method

105. Which of the following best describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk?
Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is.

106. Your team worked hard throughout project planning, thoroughly defining and estimating each
activity required to complete the work. The resulting network diagram supported the end date
that was approved by the team, management, and the stakeholders. As work has progressed,
most milestones have been met. On two occasions, workarounds were needed to deal with the
occurrence of unidentified risk events. With continued attention to detail, you have been
successful in keeping the project on schedule and within budget. Now, an opportunity is identified
that can only be realized if the project is completed two days ahead of schedule. Which of the
following is the best thing to do when asked to complete a project two days earlier than planned?
Meet with the team to look at options for crashing or fast tracking the critical path.

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107. Based on the following, if you needed to shorten the duration of the project, which activity
would you try to shorten? Activity C

108. Which of the following is correct? The critical path helps prove how long the project will
take.

109. You are working collaboratively with the team to plan a project. You have obtained estimates
from team members on the activities for which they each will be responsible. You are currently
reaching agreement on the calendar dates for each activity. Which of the following processes are
you working on? Develop Schedule

110. he organization is committed to rolling out a new cell phone accessory at an industry trade
show in six months. The sponsor has made it clear that this product, to be created by your project
team, must meet a long list of requirements, adhere to high quality standards, and, most
importantly, be ready in time for the trade show. The sponsor has promised to commit as many
resources as necessary for you to complete the project within these constraints. Your project
management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram
cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the best thing to do? Crash the
project.

111. A project manager is new to the company but has 10 years of project management
experience. She is given a medium-sized project and is asked to plan so it is finished as quickly as
possible because the company has a large list of projects to complete in the coming year. She will
be given another project to manage as soon as she has this one baselined. She needs to report on
the longest time the project will take. Which of the following is the best project management tool
to use to determine this? Network diagram

112. As part of a project managers due diligence, he reviews the schedule, focusing on each
activity as its start time approaches. He also monitors activities as they progress. He is currently
looking at an activity that has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an early finish
(EF) of day 9, and a late finish (LF) of day 19. In all likelihood, this activity: Is not on the critical
path

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113. A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to
provide you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor
hours (from past, similar projects) to develop a prototype. This is an example of which of the
following? Parametric estimating

114. A project manager has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the
following does he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process? Reserves

115. Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources is used each month is called:
Leveling

1. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

A. The personal careers of the team members
B. Timely updates to the project management plan
*C. Effective communications at key interface points
D. Product control

2. The need for ___ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project.
A. Optimization
B. Integrity
*C. Integration
D. Differentiation

3. Which of the following describes the BEST use of historical records from previous projects
A. Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning
B. Risk management, estimating, and creating lessons learned
C. Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report
*D. Estimating, risk management, and project planning

4. When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST given to:
A. Making changes
B. Tracking and recording changes
C. Informing the sponsor of changes
*D. Preventing unnecessary changes

5. All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT:
A. Procedures
B. Standards for reports
C. Meetings
*D. Lessons learned

6. A work authorization system can be used to:

A. Manage who does each activity
*B. Manage what time and in what sequence work is done
C. Manage when each activity is done
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done

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7. A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to
decide if these changes are necessary?
A. The project manager
B. The project team
*C. The sponsor
D. The stakeholders

8. Integration is done by the:

*A. Project manager
B. Team
C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders

9. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role as an integrator?
A. Help team members become familiar with the project
*B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole
C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program
D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole

10. Approved corrective action is an input to:

A. Verify Scope
*B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Schedule

11. You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been
asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ____ during planning in
order to improve your chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
*C. Historical information
D. Configuration management

12. Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan?

A. A printout from project management software
B. A bar chart
*C. Risk, staffing, process improvement, and other management plans
D. The project scope

13. A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project.
Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan?
A. Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager
B. Functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project
manager
C. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior
management
*D. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team

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14. You are taking over a project during the planning process group and discover that six
individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST concern you?
A. Who will be a member of the change control board
*B. Spending more time on configuration management
C. Getting a single project sponsor
D. Determining the reporting structure

15. The project charter for a project was approved for planning and you have just been assigned
as project manager. Realizing that project planning is an ongoing effort throughout the project,
which processes are you MOST likely to combine?
*A. Create WBS and Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations and Develop Schedule
C. Develop Human Resource plan and Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

16. All of the following are parts of Direct and Manage Project Execution EXCEPT:
A. Identifying changes
B. Using a work breakdown structure
C. Implementing corrective actions
*D. Setting up a project control system

17. You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you learn
that the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to
do is to:
A. Show how the resources were originally promised to your project
B. Replan the project without the resources
*C. Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available
D. Crash the project

18. The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not affect the
project schedule and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Make the change happen as soon as possible
B. Contact the project sponsor for permission
C. Go to the change control board
*D. Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints

19. Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is valued at
$2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What is the FIRST thing you
should do once you hear of the new project?
A. Ask management how the new project will use resources
B. Resource level your project
C. Crash Your project
*D. Ask management how the new project will affect your project

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1. You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from another
project manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you
that the project is on schedule, but only because he has constantly pushed the team to
perform. What is the FIRST thing you should do as the new project manager?

A. Check risk status

B. Check cost performance
*C. Determine a management strategy

D. Tell the team your objectives

2. You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is
within the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project.
What is the FIRST thing you should do?

A. Discuss it with the project team

B. Recalculate baselines
C. Renegotiate the contract
*D. Meet with the customer

3. The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks
to the critical path. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to
do?

A. Compress the schedule to recover the two weeks

B. Cut scope to recover the two weeks

*C. Consult with the sponsor about options
D. Advise the client of the impact of the change

4. During project executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to
material purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to
plan how to make the change. This is an example of:

A. Management by objectives
*B. Lack of a change management plan
C. Good team relations
D. Lack of a clear work breakdown structure

5. An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of:

*A. Project archives

B. A project charter
C. A project management plan

D. A risk analysis plan

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6. All of the following would occur during the Close Project or phase process EXCEPT:

A. Creating lessons learned

B. Formal acceptance
C. Reducing resource spending
*D. Performing benefit cost analysis

7. Which of the following is included in a project charter?

A. A risk management strategy

B. Work package estimates
C. Detailed resource estimates
*D. The business need for the project

8. A project manager is trying to convince management to use more formal project

management procedures and has decided to start improving the company's project
management by obtaining a project charter. Which of the following BEST describes why
the project charter would help the project manager?

A. It describes the details of what needs to be done

B. It lists the names of all team members

*C. It gives the project manager authority
D. It describes the project's history

9. Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?

*A. Constrained optimization

B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis

10. You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your manager
and his boss have asked that the project begins immediately. Which of the following is
the BEST thing to do?

A. Set up an integrated change control process

*B. Show your manager the impact of proceeding without approval

C. Focus on completing projects that have signed project charters

D. Start work on only the critical path activities

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11. All technical work is completed on the project.Which of the following remains to be
done?

A. Verify Scope
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Create a staffing management plan

*D. Complete lessons learned

12. Producing a Project Plan may BEST be described as:

A. Creating a network logic diagram that identifies the critical path.

B. Using a software tool to track schedule, cost & resources

*C. Creating a document that guides project plan execution
D. Creating a plan that contains the entire product scope

13. Project Management Plan Updates are NOT an output of:

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

*B. Develop Project Plan

C. Direct and Manage Project Execution

D. Close Project or Phase

14. You are meeting with a new Project Manager who has taken over a project that is in
the middle of executing. The previous project manager has left the company and the new
project manager is upset that the change reports are streaming in from numerous
sources including his boss, the customer and various stakeholders. The project manager
is not even aware of how to process all of these incoming change requests. Where would
you refer him?

A. Project Scope Statement

*B. Project Management Plan

C. The previous project manager

D. Project Charter

15. The project charter is:

A. Developed before the project statement of work, and after the project management plan

*B. Developed after the project statement of work and before the project management plan

C. Developed before the contract and after the project management plan
D. Developed before the project and before the project management plan

182
16. The project management information system would likely include all of the following
EXCEPT:

A. A scheduling tool
B. An information distribution system
C. A system for collecting information from team members

*D. A system for identifying stakeholders

17. A defect in the product was brought to the project manager's attention and now the
project team is engaged in repairing it. Which project management process would be the
most applicable to this?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

*C. Direct and Manage Project Execution

D. Close Project or Phase

18. You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when
you learn that the resources promised in the beginning of the project are not available.
The BEST thing to do is:

A. Show how the resources where originally promised to your project.

B. Re-plan the project without the resources

*C. Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available

D. Crash the project

19. A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary
responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary?

A. The project manager

B. The project team

*C. The sponsor

D. The stakeholders

183
1. You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have
been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ____
during planning in order to improve your chance of success

A. Your intuition and training

B. Stakeholder analysis
*C. Historical information
D. Configuration management

2. Approved corrective action is an input to

A. Verify scope
*B. Direct and manage project execution
C. Develop Project charter

D. Develop Schedules

3. The person or group responsible for evaluating change on a project is:

*A. Change control board

B. The sponsor
C. The project team
D. The program manager

4. If you are creating a single document to guide project execution, monitoring and
control and closure, you are creating:

A. The execution plan

*B. The project management plan

C. The integration plan

D. The project framework

5. Change control meetings are held as part of which process:

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work

*C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Evaluate Requested Changes

184
6. When changes are approved and made to the project, they should be:

A. Tracked against the project baseline

*B. Incorporated into the project baseline
C. Included as an addendum to the project plan
D. Approved by someone other than the project manager

7. The output of Direct and Manage Project Execution process is

A. The work packages

B. The project management information system

*C. The deliverables

D. The work breakdown structure

8. Who is/are the main responsible for Project Integration management?

*a. Project manager

b. All areas specialists
c. Project manager and all areas specialists

d. Project stakeholders

9. Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Develop Project

Management Plan process?

a. The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project
*b. The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c. The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and
implementing approved changes
d. The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e. The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f. The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract

10. Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Monitor and

Control Project Work process?

a. The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project
b. The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c. The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and
implementing approved changes
*d. The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e. The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f. The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract

185
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the Develop Project Charter process attributes?

a. developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase

b. documenting initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations c.
must be authorized by someone external to the project
*d. is authorized by the project manager

12. It describes the necessary information to determine whether the expected outcomes of
the project justify the required investment. This statement is a description of:

*a. the Business Case

b. the benefits management plan

c. business agreements
d. The Project charter document

13. Which of the following is NOT considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor?

a. Government or industry standards

b. Legal and regulatory requirements
c. Organizational governance framework
*d. Organizational standard policies, processes, and procedures and work templates

14. Facilitation techniques used in Develop Project Charter process include all of the
following except:

a. Brainstorming,
b. conflict resolution
c. problem solving
*d. interviews with stakeholders

15. Which of following plans is NOT considered a subsidiary plan to be managed through
the Project management plan?

a. Schedule management plan.

b. Cost management plan.

c. Quality management plan.
d. Resource management plan.

*e. Portfolio management plan.

186
16. In which process in implementing (executing) approved changes occur?

*a. Direct and Manage Project Work

b. Monitor and Control Project Work

c. Perform Integrated Change Control

d. All of the other choices

17. Project documents that can be considered as inputs for Manage Project Knowledge
process include the following except:

a. Lessons learned register

b. Project team assignments
c. Resource breakdown structure

*d. Project charter

18. Which of the following is NOT considered an output of Manage Project Knowledge
process?

a. Lessons Learned Register

b. Project Management Plan Updates
c. Organizational Process Assets Updates

*d. Interpersonal and Team Skills

19. In case of rushed change during project execution in one of the project plans or
processes is required, this change

*a. Must be performed within the Perform Integrated Change Control process frame

b. The project manager can take any quick action to resolve the issue
c. Stakeholders must be called for a meeting
d. The project shall stop until a decision is taken

1. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the project staff to.

A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements

B. Provide project justification

*C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found
D. Use it in project management software

Answer C

187
The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the work breakdown structure where
the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS dictionary

2. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for __ communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager

C. Customer
*D. Stakeholder
Answer D

The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices. In this case, it is the best answer since the
WBS can be used (but does not need to be used) as a communications tool for all stakeholders to
"see" what is included in the project.

3. Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process?

A. A more complete scope management plan

*B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system
Answer B
The output of the Verify Scope process is customer acceptance of project deliverables. The other
choices all happen during project planning, well before the time that the Verify Scope process takes
place.

4. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of
what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain
detailed descriptions of work packages?
*A. WBS dictionary

B. Activity list
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan
Answer A
Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to, but they do not contain detailed
descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement (choice C) defines the project scope,
but it does not describe the work a team member is assigned. The scope management plan (choice D)
describes how scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. It does not include a description of
each work package. The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of
the work packages are in the WBS dictionary.

188
5. During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?

A. Initiating
*B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling

Answer B

The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, which occurs during project
planning.

6. The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new technology.
While planning the next project in this program, the project manager has expanded the scope
management plan because as a project becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in the
scope.

A. Remains the same

B. Decreases
C. Decreases then increases
*D. Increase
Answer D
The level of uncertainty in scope increases based on the scale of effort required to identify all the
scope. For larger projects it is more difficult to "catch" everything.

7. During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is
beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs to
concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required.
This is an example of.

A. Change management process

*B. Scope management

C. Quality analysis
D. Scope decomposition Answer B

The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the scope of the project charter.
Scope management involves focusing on doing the work and only the work in the project
management plan that meets the objectives of the project charter. The project manager is performing
scope management.

8. When should the Verify Scope process be done?

A. At the end of the project

B. At the beginning of the project
*C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes
Answer C
The Verify Scope process occurs during the monitoring and controlling process group, so choices A, B,
and D cannot be correct. Verify Scope is done at the end of each phase (the end of design,
implementation, etc.), making choice C the best answer.

189
9. You have just joined the project management office after five years of working on projects. One
of the things you want to introduce to your company is the need to create and utilize WBSs. Some
of the project managers are angry that you are asking them to do "extra work".
Which of the following would be the BEST thing you could tell the project managers to convince
them to use WBSs?

*A. Tell them it will prevent work from slipping through the cracks

B. Tell them that it is not needed

C. Tell them it is required only if the project involves contracts
D. Tell them it is the only way to identify risks

Answer A

Choice C is not generally true. Every project must have a WBS. Risks can be identified using various
methods. Therefore, choice D is an incorrect statement and not the best answer. Choice A, preventing
work from being forgotten (slipping through the cracks) is ONE of the reasons the tool is used.

10. To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the
following does NOT describe how far to decompose the work?
A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion
B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further

*C. Until it can be done by one person

D. Until it can be realistically estimated
Answer C
The lowest level of the WBS is a work package, which can be performed by more than one person.

11. A project manager may use to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included
in each of their work packages.
A. The project scope statement
B. The product scope

*C. A WBS dictionary

D. A schedule
Answer C
The project scope statement (choice A) describes work on a high-level basis. Work packages need to
be specific to enable team members to co~plete their work with less gold plating. The product scope
(choice B) would not tell team members what work is assigned to them. The team should have a copy
of the schedule (choice D), but a schedule will not show them what work is included in each of their
work packages. Work packages are described in the WBS dictionary (choice C).

NOTE. Do not think of the WBS dictionary as a dictionary of terms.

190
12. The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phases are
testing and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the project
manager be MOST concerned with before moving on to the final phase?
*A. Verify Scope

B. Control Quality
C. Create Performance Reports

D. Control Costs

Answer A

The Verify Scope process deals with acceptance by the customer. Without this acceptance, you will
not be able to move into the next project phase.

13. You are managing a six-month project and have held biweekly meetings with your project
stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the
stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion
by one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is.

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Control Schedule
*C. Define Scope
D. Control Scope

Answer C

Choices A, B, and D are processes in the monitoring and controlling process group.
This situation asks how to prevent the problem. This would have been done during the planning
processes. The project deliverables are defined in the Define Scope process (choice C), which is a part
of project planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a situation like the one described by
including the right people and spending adequate time in clarifying the project scope.

14. All of the following are parts of the scope baseline EXCEPT the.

*A. Scope management plan

B. Project scope statement

C. Work breakdown structure

D. WBS dictionary

Answer A

The scope management plan is not part of the scope baseline.

191
15. The preparation of the scope baseline can BEST be described as involving.

A. The functional managers

*B. The project team

C. All the stakeholders
D. The project expediter

Answer B

After the customer's input, the performing organizations project team is responsible for scope
baseline preparation. The scope baseline includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope
statement.

16. Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

*A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Project scope statement

C. Work breakdown structure
D. Change requests

Answer A

The project scope statement (choice B) is an output of the Define Scope process. The work
breakdown structure (choice C) is an output of the Create WBS process. Change requests (choice D)
are an output of the Verify Scope and Control Scope processes.

17. A scope change has been suggested by one of the stakeholders on the project. After careful
consideration and a lot of arguing, the change control board has decided to reject the change. What
should the project manager do?
A. Support the stakeholder by asking the board for the reason for the rejection

B. Suggest to the stakeholder that the next change they request will be approved
*C. Record the change request and its result
D. Advise the change control board to make sure they create approval processes before the next
change is proposed
Answer C
One could do choice A, but there is no reason to think that the board's rejection would not contain an
explanation already, since providing that information is commonly done.

192
18. Suggesting a change process that circumvents the change control board's authority (choice B) is
not ethical. There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in place (choice D).
A rejected change should be recorded for historical purposes, in case the idea is resurrected later,
and for other reasons.

Verify Scope is closely related to.

*A. Perform Quality Control

B. Sequence Activities
C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Time Management

Answer A

Perform Quality Control checks for correctness, and Verify Scope checks for acceptance.

19. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the Control Scope process?

A. Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement

B. The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning

*C. The Scope Control process must be integrated with other control processes
D. Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope

Answer C

Though it is a correct statement, choice A cannot be the answer because it does not deal with control.
Since scope planning occurs before the Control Scope process, choice B cannot be the answer. Since
controlling the schedule is not the best way to control scope, choice D is not the best answer. The
control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the others. Therefore,
choice C is the best answer.

31. ____________ is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

a. Work breakdown structures (WBS)
b. Organizational breakdown structures (OBS)
c. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)*
d. RACI Chart
32. The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is ________.
a. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams.
b. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to
project network activities.
c. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project
team members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to
avoid confusion of responsibility.*
d. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance appraisals of
project team members.

193
33. The resource management plan may include but is not limited to _________.
a. Team performance assessments*
b. Methods to identify resources
c. Guidance on how to acquire resources
d. Competency requirements of team members
34. Which of the following scenarios is representing the Forming team development stage?
a. Project team is constantly arguing over the roles and responsibilities.
b. Project team is anxious about their project roles and responsibilities.*
c. There is a strong sense of team work and positive team environment.
d. Project team works in an open and trusting atmosphere.
35. Which of the following conflict management techniques is most appropriate for the
scenario: “A team member has raised a trivial issue in the project team meeting”?
a. Force
b. Avoid*
c. Collaborate
d. Smooth
36. Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include _______.
a. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.
b. Salary schedules for various project resources.
c. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a
work package.*
d. Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work package and each work
period.
37. It is important that the resource management plan addresses how team members will be
released when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT __________.
a. To optimize the utilization of human and material resources.*
b. To reduce project costs.
c. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already
planned.
d. To help mitigate resource risks that may occur during or at the end of a project.
38. The major processes of Project Resource Management are __________.
a. Leadership, Management, Team Building, and Negotiation.
b. Develop Project Staffing Plan, Recruit Project Team, Administer Personnel Actions,
and Manage Labour Relations.
c. Plan Organizational Structure, Build Project Team, Develop Communications Plan,
and Manage Team Conflicts.
d. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources,
Develop Team, Manage Team, and Control Resources.*
39. All of the following are true about conflict management EXCEPT __________.
a. It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed early.
b. It should usually be addressed in private.
c. It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive, and at an official team
meeting.*
d. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.
40. Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include __________.
a. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.
b. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
c. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.*
d. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.

194
Create a network diagram (using PDM) for the below activity list.

Activity Preceding Activity Duration

Start - -
A Start 5
B Start 6
C A,B 12
D A,C 7
E C 11
F D,E 4
END F -

195
196
1. If the productivity rate of a painter is 30m2 per day, how long will it take to paint 600m2
with 4 painters? 600/(30x4) = 5 Days
2. An activity has a duration estimate that is best case = 3 days, most likely = 4 days, and worst
case=6 days. What is the three-point estimate for this activity? (3+(4*4)+6)/6 = 4.17 Days
3. What is the standard deviation for the above? (6-3)/6 = 0.5 Days
4. Develop Schedule using CPM for the given network diagram and answer the following 3
questions. What is the project duration? 33 What are the activities in critical path? B, C, E, F
What is the Total Float of activity D? 4

197
 1 5 5 19 7 25

A D

1 1 6 23 4 29

7 12 18 30 4 33

C F END
START
7 0 18 30 0 33

1 6 6 19 11 29

B E

1 0 6 19 0 29

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Answer the following four questions for the project schedule provided in the next
page.

4. If Activity C is crashed by 2 days, what will be the revised project duration?

31 (Since activity C is on critical path, the project duration will be affected)

5. If Activity D is crashed by 2 days, what will be the revised project duration?

33 (Since activity D is not in critical path, it will have not any impact)

6. If Activity F is to be done in parallel with activity D and E, making activity C

as the predecessor, what will be the revised project duration?29 Days

199
 1 5 5 19 7 25

A D

2 1 6 23 4 29

7 12 18 30 4 33

C F END
START
7 0 18 30 0 33

1 6 6 19 11 29

B E

1 0 6 19 0 29

200
Requirements
Example
Type

Business
To increase market share by 10% with product feature enhancement.
Requirements

Stakeholder Stakeholder requirements can vary including but not limited to schedule, cost,
Requirement quality, resources, etc.

Solution The customer relationship management software can able to generate monthly sales
Requirement report with a click of a button.

Project
Project must complete by end of the year to meet the government deadline.
Requirement

Quality
The final product must get certification from the municipality.
Requirement

201
 Statement Components

Acceptance Criteria

The game must have fewer than 15 defects per

10,000 lines of code.

Project Assumptions
There will be four graphic designers reporting to the
art director, and six programmers and four testers
reporting to the development manager.

Project Constraints

No more than 15 people can be allocated to work on

the game at any time.

Project Deliverables

Scenery artwork.

Project Exclusions

The product will not include bug fixes for the previous
version.

Project Requirements
The game needs to run on a machine with 1 GB of
memory or less.

202
Sl. No BENEFITS OF WBS

1
Facilitates communication and cooperation between and among the project team and other
stakeholders.

2 Helps prevent changes.

3
Provides a basis for estimating staff, cost and time.

Sl. No BENEFITS OF WBS DICTIONARY

Provides a detailed information about each element in the WBS, including work packages and control
accounts.

2
It helps to create the product that will be obtained with the execution of the project Work Packages are
the lowest level of the WBS.

To ensure that we do the work right the first time by providing the team with the information they need
to produce quality deliverables that meet project requirements and organization standards.

203
Sl. No Scenario Validation Control

1 Project and his team verifying the deliverables to check for variances. ⃝ ⃝

Classic Contracting company had just completed a project phase.

2 Project manager and the client representatives are now inspecting ⃝ ⃝
deliverable for conformance.

Project manager is performing variance analysis to understand the

3 ⃝ ⃝
reason for scope creep.

4 Project manager is raising a change request for defect repair. ⃝ ⃝

Three critical stakeholders conducting voting to decide whether the

5 product is capable enough to provide the required solution for ⃝ ⃝
acceptance.

204
Create a network diagram (using PDM) for the below activity list.

Activity Preceding Activity Duration

Start - -

A Start 5

B Start 6

C A,B 12

D A,C 7

E C 11

F D,E 4

END F -

205
 1 5 5 19 7 25

A D

2 1 6 23 4 29

7 12 18 30 4 33

C F END
START
7 0 18 30 0 33

1 6 6 19 11 29

B E

1 0 6 19 0 29

206
 Sl. No Parametric Estimation

If the productivity rate of a painter is 30m2 per day, how long will it take to paint 600m2 with 4
Question
painters?

120 m2 per day with 4 painters

It will take 5 days
Answer

Sl. No Three-Point Estimation

Question An activity has a duration estimate that is best case = 3 days, most likely = 4 days, and worst case=6
days. What is the three-point estimate for this activity?

Answer Beta distribution T = (O+4M+P)/6

4.167

Question What is the standard deviation for the above?

Answer One standard deviation = (P-O)/6

0.5

207
 Chapter 1.1
 Question 1
(CH1) The five Project Management Process Groups are:

Selected Answer: a.
Planning, Checking, Directing, Monitoring, and Recording.
Answers: a.
Planning, Checking, Directing, Monitoring, and Recording.
b.
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
c.
Planning, Executing, Directing, Closing, and Commissioning.
d.
Initiating, Executing, Monitoring, Evaluating, and Closing.
 Question 2
(CH1) The linkages between project management processes are best described by the following:

Selected c.
Answer: Processes are linked by the outputs that are produced—the output of one process
generally becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project,
subproject, or project phase.
Answers: a.
The work breakdown structure links processes.
b.
Processes are linked by their planned objectives—the summary objective of one often
becomes the detailed action plan for another within the project, subproject, or project
phase.
c.
Processes are linked by the outputs that are produced—the output of one process
generally becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project,
subproject, or project phase.
d.
There are no significant links between discrete processes.
 Question 3
(CH1) The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases, whose
name and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or
organizations involved in the project, is known as the:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project waterfall.
b.
Project life cycle.
c.
Project life stages.
d.
Project Management Process Groups.
 Question 4
(CH1) The key elements of the benefits management plan are all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Work Breakdown Structure.
b.
Benefits owner.
c.
Assumptions.
d.
Strategic alignment.
 Question 5
(CH1) All of the following are questions that the key stakeholders and project managers should
answer to develop the project success measures EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
What does success look like for the project?
b.
How will success be measured?
c.
What are the communication requirements?
d.
What factors may impact success?
 Question 6
(CH1) A significant amount of data is collected and analyzed throughout the project. All of the
following are examples of project data and information EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Work performance data.
b.
Work performance analysis.
c.
Work performance information.
d.
Work performance reports.
 Question 7
(CH1) The project business case is all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits
of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the
authorization of further project management activities.
b.
 A document that lists the objectives and reasons for project
initiation.
c.
A document that serves as an important input to the project initiation and is seldom
used after the project is approved.
d.
An important document that may result in a go/no-go decision for the project.
 Question 8
(CH1) Project management is:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management
system.
b.
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to
meet the project requirements.
c.
The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational
activities to achieve operational excellence.
d.
A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.
 Question 9
(CH1) You are managing a project in which you intend to respond to high levels of change and
ongoing stakeholder involvement. The most suitable project life cycle for your project is the:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Predictive life cycle.
b.
Adaptive life cycle.
c.
Waterfall life cycle.
d.
Configuration management life cycle.
 Question 10
(CH1) A program is a:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Group of related tasks lasting one year or less.
b.
Group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in
a coordinated manner.
c.
Large projects with significant cost and resource requirements.
 d.
Sequence of activities constituting a major project.
 Question 11
(CH1) All of the following are true about projects and operations EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Operations are ongoing endeavours that produce repetitive outputs, with resources
assigned to do basically the same set of tasks according to the standards
institutionalized in a product life cycle, whereas projects are temporary endeavours.
b.
Projects require
project management activities and skill sets,
whereas operations require business process management, operations management
activities, and skill
sets.
c.
Projects can intersect with operations at various points during the product life cycle.
At each point, deliverables and knowledge are transferred between the project and
operations for implementation of the delivered
work.
d.
Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's
long-term goals. Therefore, strategic activities in the organization can be generally
addressed within the organization's normal operations.
 Question 12
(CH1) The PMBOK® Guide is the standard for:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Managing all projects all of the time.
b.
Managing all projects most of the time.
c.
Managing most projects most of the time.
d.
Managing some projects some of the time.
 Question 13
(CH1) All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project.
These factors decrease over the life of the project.
b.
The ability
to influence the final characteristics of the project's
product, without significantly impacting cost, is highest at the start of the project
and decreases as the project progresses toward completion.
 c.
The cost of changes and correcting errors typically increases substantially as the
project approaches completion.
d.
Cost and staffing levels are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.
 Question 14
(CH1) Portfolio management refers to:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Managing various contents of the project file.
b.
Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision making.
c.
The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic
objectives.
d.
Applying resource-levelling heuristics across all the organization's projects to
achieve the organization's strategic objectives.
 Question 15
(CH1) Project tailoring is an important consideration for most projects. Which of the following is the
least likely project consideration?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project manager's skills and competency.
b.
Each project is unique.
c.
Addressing competing constraints.
d.
Level of project governance varies.
 Question 16
(CH1) All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true
EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
In the project predictive life cycle, the project scope and the time and cost required to
deliver that scope are determined as early in the project
life cycle as practically possible.
b.
In the project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases intentionally repeat
one or more project activities as the project team's understanding of the product
increases.
c.
The product life cycle is the series of phases that represent the evolution of a product,
 from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.
d.
The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle.
 Question 17
(CH1) For a project to be successful, the project should generally achieve all of the following
EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Achieving stakeholder satisfaction.
b.
Striving to obtain acceptable customer/end-user adoption.
c.
Appling knowledge, skills, and processes within the Project Management Process
Groups uniformly to meet the project objectives.
d.
Fulfilling other agreed-upon success measures or criteria.
 Question 18
(CH1) Project Management Processes:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
May be overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.
b.
May be overlapping activities that generally occur
at the same level of intensity within
each phase of the project.
c.
Are generally discrete, one-time events.
d.
Are discrete, repetitive events that occur generally at the same level of intensity
throughout each phase of the project.
 Question 19
(CH1) Your job responsibility is to align components (projects, programs, or related operations) to
the organizational strategy, organized into portfolios or subsidiary portfolios to optimize project or
program objectives, dependencies, costs, timelines, benefits,
resources, and risks.
This is known as:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Components management.
b.
Process management.
c.
Program management.
d.
 Portfolio management.

 Question 20
(CH1) A project is:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system.
b.
A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving
customer satisfaction.
c.
An ongoing endeavour undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
d.
A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
 Chapter 1.2

 Question 1
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Temporary
b.
Strategic
c.
Specific result
d.
Progressively elaborated
 Question 2
(CH1) You are explaining to a junior engineer that difference between a project and operations.
Which one fo the following is true only of operations?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
They are performed by people
b.
They are constrained by limited resources
c.
They are ongoing
d.
They are planned, executed, and controlled
 Question 3
(CH1) ____________ is a review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the
next phase or not.

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project life cycle
b.
Phase gate
c.
Project phases
d.
Project management process group
 Question 4
(CH1) An Energy Company is investing in a series of initiatives to look for alternative energy
sources so that the company can be competitive in 10 years. The initiatives are tracked and managed
together because this goal is vital to the success of the company. This is an example of
____________

Selected Answer: [None Given]

 Answers: a.
a portfolio
b.
a program
c.
a project
d.
an enterprise environmental factor
 Question 5
(CH1) The targeted tangible and intangible value of a project should be document in which of the
following?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project business case
b.
Project benefits management plan
c.
Project scope statement
d.
Project charter
 Question 6
(CH1) All of the following are types of adaptive life cycle, EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Agile
b.
Iterative
c.
Incremental
d.
Hybrid
 Question 7
(CH1) A project manager is running a data center installation project. He finds that his stakeholder is
angry because he’s run over his budget because the staff turned out to be more expensive than
planned. The stakeholder’s unhappy that when the project is over, the servers won’t have as much
drive space as he needs. Which of the following constraints was not affected by this problem?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Quality
b.
Resource
c.
Time
d.
Cost
 Question 8
(CH1) Which one of the following statements best defines the difference between a program and
portfolios in regard to scope?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Programs do not have scopes because they are made up of project. Portfolios have
an organizational scope
b.
Programs have larger scopes than projects. Portfolios have an organizational scope.
c.
Programs have larger scopes than projects. Portfolios don’t have scopes because
they are a financial investment.
d.
Programs and portfolios can share the same scope because a portfolio may have
two or more programs
 Question 9
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT true about portfolio management?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
The portfolio manager judges the success of the portfolio by combining data from
all of its programs and projects
b.
A portfolio can contain projects and programs
c.
A portfolio is organized around a business goal
d.
A portfolio is always a group of programs
 Question 10
(CH1) Which of the following is NOT A Project Constraint?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Quality
b.
Scale
c.
Time
d.
Cost
 Question 11
(CH1) Who is usually responsible for portfolio management within an organization?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project managers
b.
Project sponsors
c.
Stakeholders
d.
Senior management
 Question 12
(CH1) A project life cycle approach that adopts both predictive and either of iterative or increment is
known as

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Agile
b.
Hybrid
c.
Waterfall
d.
Predictive
 Question 13
(CH1) Which of the following document details the economic feasibility of a project?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project business case
b.
Project benefits management plan
c.
Project management plan
d.
Project charter
 Question 14
(CH1) Bob is the project manager of a project for a company that manufactures pharmaceuticals. In
Bob’s industry, many standards and regulations affect his projects. What is the difference between a
standard and regulation?

Selected Answer: d.
Regulations are usually mandatory; standards may be seen as guidelines
Answers: a.
Standards are mandatory; regulations are not
b.
 Standards are optional; regulations are not
c.
Regulations and standards are essentially the same
d.
Regulations are usually mandatory; standards may be seen as guidelines
Chapter 2.1

 Question 1
(CH2) The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during project
initiation and planning include all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: a.
Preapproved supplier list.
Answers: a.
Preapproved supplier list.
b.
Traceability matrices.
c.
Tailoring guidelines for project management processes and procedures.
d.
Product and project life cycles, and methods and procedures.
 Question 2
(CH2) Projects operate within the constraints imposed by the organization through their structure
and governance framework. The system factors include all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Management elements.
b.
Governance framework.
c.
Organizational structure
types.
d.
Project management processes.
 Question 3
(CH2) The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and
capabilities that are important for projects. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the
system?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Organization's management.
b.
Project sponsor.
c.
Project manager.
d.
 Project team.
 Question 4
(CH2) The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the
following EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates,
best practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other
projects.
b.
Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various
means.
c.
Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among
project team members.
d.
Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.
 Question 5
(CH2) Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors that
surround or influence a project's success.
All of the following are true about these factors
EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Enterprise environmental factors include organizational culture, structure, and
processes.
b.
Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as
regulatory agency regulations, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards,
and workmanship standards.
c.
Enterprise environmental factors include information technology software (e.g., an
automated tool, such as a scheduling software tool, a configuration management
system, an information collection and distribution system, or web interfaces to other
online automated systems).
d.
Enterprise environmental factors exclude personnel administration functions (e.g.,
staffing and retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training records,
and time tracking) because these are considered to be functions of the human
resources department.
 Question 6
(CH2) Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This
framework includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Rules.
 b.
Policies.
c.
Techniques.
d.
Relationships.
 Question 7
(CH2) Organizational process assets (OPAs) influence the management of projects. Which one of
the following best describes the important categories of OPAs?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Organizational knowledge bases and processes.
b.
Processes, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques.
c.
Organizational knowledge bases, processes, policies, and procedures.
d.
Organizational knowledge bases, tools, and techniques.
 Question 8
(CH2) All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT:
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Legal restrictions.
b.
Organizational values and principles.
c.
Competitive movements.
d.
Economic conditions.
 Question 9
(CH2) All of the following are potential information in organizational knowledge repositories
EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Metrics used to collect and make available measurement data on processes and
products.
b.
Configuration management.
c.
Tacit knowledge of previous projects such as project performance data and
lessons learned.
d.
Issue and defect management data.
 Question 10
 (CH2) Which of the following best describe management elements?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Management elements are the components that comprise the key functions or
principles of general management in the organization.
b.
Management elements are the project management principles that guide how
projects are executed in the organization.
c.
Management elements are established by PMOs to guide project implementation.
d.
Management elements are influenced by the governance framework, established for
effective implementation of projects.
 Question 11
(CH2) A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a
variety of ways, which may include all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project
manager.
b.
Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
c.
Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and
standards.
d.
Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.
 Question 12
(CH2) The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing,
Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Change control procedure.
b.
Issue and defect management procedures.
c.
Resource availability control and assignment management.
d.
Project closing guidelines.
 Chapter 2.2

 Question 1
(CH2) A project manager is having trouble securing programmers for her project. Every time she
asks the programming manager for resources for her project, he says they’re all assigned to other
work. So, she constantly has to go over his head to overrule him. Which type or organization is she
working for?

Selected Answer: b.
Weak Matrix
Answers: a.
Functional
b.
Weak Matrix
c.
Strong Matrix
d.
Projectized
 Question 2
(CH2) The project manager for a construction project discovers that a new water line is being
created in the neighborhood where he’s managing a project. Company policy requires that a series of
forms for city environmental changes need to be filled out before his team can continue work on the
project. This is an example of:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
A portfolio
b.
A program
c.
An enterprise environmental factor
d.
A project
 Question 3
(CH2) Who has the most power in the projectized organization?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The Project Manager
b.
The Functional Manager
c.
The Team
d.
They all share power
 Question 4
(CH2) At which point is the risk of failure the least but the consequence of failure the highest?
 Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
During the early stages
b.
During the middle stages
c.
During the final stages
d.
Risk of failure is even across all project phases
 Question 5
(CH2) Which of the following is not a type of project management office?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Directive
b.
Value-driven
c.
Supportive
d.
Controlling
 Question 6
(CH2) Tracey is the project manager of the KHG Project. Her organization is a classic functional
environment. Her level of authority as a project manager can be best described as which of the
following?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Low
b.
Moderate
c.
Balanced
d.
High
 Question 7
(CH2) A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many people
are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give
direction to the team member?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The project manager
b.
The functional manager
c.
The team
 d.
The PMO
 Question 8
(CH2) A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Organizational project management
b.
The PMBOK Guide
c.
Project Governance
d.
Portfolio management
 Question 9
(CH2) Project team members are most likely to work full time on a project in which of the following
organizational structures?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Functional
b.
Weak matrix
c.
Strong matrix
d.
Projectized
 Question 10
(CH2) Marcy, the project manager for the ERP Project, is about to complete the project phase
review. The completion of a project phase is also known as which of the following?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
A lesson learned
b.
A kill point
c.
Earned value management
d.
Conditional advancement
 Question 11
(CH2) Stacey is the project manager of the GBN Project for her company. She’ll be using several
templates for a project, but she’s not certain where these templates should originate. Where can a
project manager usually expect to receive templates?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
 Commercial databases
b.
The project management office
c.
The project sponsor
d.
Project Management Information System (PMIS)
 Question 12
(CH2) You are the project manager for the ERP Project. Your organization uses a PMO.
The primary purpose of a project management office is to do which of the following:
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Support the project manager
b.
Support the project sponsor
c.
Support the project team
d.
Identify the stakeholders
 Question 13
(CH2) You’re a project manager working in a weak matrix organization. Which of the following is
NOT true?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Your team members report to functional mangers
b.
You are not directly in charge of resources
c.
Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects
d.
You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project
 Question 14
(CH2) if you are working in an organization where you continually have to ask another manger if
you can spend money allocated to your project, and obtain personnel to work on your project, what
sort of organizational structure are you working in?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Projectized organization
b.
Functional organization
c.
Strong matrix organization
d.
Balanced matrix organization
 Question 15
 (CH2) One of your team members informs you that be does not know which of the many projects he
is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities between projects in a
company?

Selected Answer: c.
The project management office (PMO)
Answers: a.
The project manager
b.
The project management team
c.
The project management office (PMO)
d.
The team
Chapter 3.1

 Question 1
(CH3) Performing integration is a cornerstone skill for all project managers; the following describe
the three different levels of performing integration EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Cognitive level.
b.
Process level.
c.
Complexity level.
d.
Context level.
 Question 2
(CH3) The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Technical project management.
b.
Operational management.
c.
Leadership.
d.
Strategic management.
 Question 3
(CH3) Complexity exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Containing multiple parts.
 b.
Containing high-risk parts.
c.
Exhibiting dynamic interactions between the parts.
d.
Exhibiting emergent behaviour, this cannot be easily explained as the simple sum
of parts.
 Question 4
(CH3) Which of the following is least likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Government.
b.
Project team.
c.
Sponsors.
d.
Customers.
 Question 5
(CH3) All of the following are components of culture EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Values.
b.
Norms.
c.
Intelligence.
d.
Beliefs.
 Question 6
(CH3) Complexity within projects is a result of much different organizational behaviour; the
dimensions of complexity include all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
System behaviour.
b.
Human behaviour.
c.
Ambiguity.
d.
Process behaviour.
 Question 7
(CH3) Leadership and management are ultimately about being able to get things done, and
power plays an important part. Which of the following best describe the various forms of
 power?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Positional, referent, personal, cultural, and relational.
b.
Positional, personal, relational, guilt-based, informational, and expertise.
c.
Referent, personal, expertise, and cultural.
d.
Positional and pressure-based.
 Question 8
(CH3) Which of the following is least likely to be a project manager's role?
Selected [None Given]
Answer:
Answers: a.
Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation.
b.
Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives.
c.
Assisting in business analysis, business case development, and aspects of portfolio
management for a project.
d.
Ensuring that organizations are operating efficiently.
 Question 9
(CH3) All of the following are generally true about leadership in a project environment
EXCEPT:
Selected [None Given]
Answer:
Answers: a.
It involves focusing the efforts of a group of people toward a common goal and
enabling them to work as a team.
b.
It is the ability to get things done through others.
c.
Respect and trust, rather than fear and submission, are the key elements of effective
leadership.
d.
Although important throughout all project phases, effective leadership is
critical during the Closing phase of a project when the emphasis
is on stakeholder acceptance of the project.
 Question 10
(CH3) The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Directing vs. influencing.
b.
Focus on systems vs. focus on relationships.
 c.
Accept status quo vs. challenge status quo.
d.
Concentrate on project activities vs. emphasis on results.
 Question 11
(CH3) Project managers exhibit different leadership styles. Which of the following is NOT a
leadership style?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Laissez-faire.
b.
Motivational.
c.
Charismatic.
d.
Servant.
 Question 12
(CH3) Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and
other project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally
perform all of the following EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Calculating the potential number of communication channels accurately.
b.
Developing finely tuned skills using multiple methods of communication.
c.
Incorporating feedback channels.
d.
Seeking to understand project stakeholders’ communication needs.
 Question 13
(CH3) When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is:
Selected [None Given]
Answer:
Answers: a.
To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and
ensure the alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the
project and business area.
b.
To perform all of the work that is required to get the project approved and baseline
for communication to the team.
c.
To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the
project.
d.
To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an
integrated project organizational structure.
 Question 14
 (CH3) Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling,
and behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project managers?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural, and emotional.
b.
Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social.
c.
Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social, and system.
d.
Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural, and managerial.
 Question 15
(CH3) Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra, EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
They are responsible for the final result of the team.
b.
They communicate with the team.
c.
They need to integrate multiple disciplines.
d.
They need to be an expert or knowledgeable of all aspects of their endeavour.
Chapter 3.2

 Question 1
(CH3) You are the project manager of a large project that will affect how your organization accepts
and processes orders from customers. Many of the stakeholders have strong opinions about the
project and how it should proceed. Thomas, the manufacturing manager, and Jane, the sales
manager, have been in conflict with one another over some of the project’s requirements. You’ve
met with these two stakeholders to resolve the conflict, negotiate the difference, and come to an
agreement about the requirements in the project. What skills have you used effectively in this
scenario?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Active listening
b.
Stakeholder resolution
c.
Management skills
d.
Interpersonal skills
 Question 2
(CH3) ____________ is the capability of individual to recognize their own emotions and those of
others.
 Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Emotional intelligence
b.
Intrapersonal skill
c.
Courtesy
d.
Servant-Leader
 Question 3
(CH3) A project manager is having trouble with his project because one of his team members is not
performing, which is causing him to miss an important date he promised to a stakeholder. He
discovers that the team member knew about the project problem, but didn’t tell him because the
team members are all afraid of his bad temper. Which BEST describes how the project manager can
avoid this situation in the future?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Increasing his knowledge of the PMBOK Guide
b.
Measuring personal performance
c.
Improving his personal skills
d.
Managing stakeholder expectations
 Question 4
(CH3) In a weekly meeting, the project manager is soliciting opinions from the project team to
resolve an unexpected issue. What type of leadership style is followed by the project manager?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Democratic
b.
Laissez-Faire
c.
Transactional
d.
Transformational
 Question 5
(CH3) Which of the following is a type of personality traits for the ability to understand and manage
people?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Social
b.
Intellectual
 c.
Cultural
d.
Emotional
 Question 6
(CH3) Which of the following is the most important role of a project manager?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Management by objective
b.
Performing integration
c.
Requirement analysis
d.
Managing people
 Question 7
(CH3) Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Motivation
b.
Brainstorming
c.
Team building
d.
Coaching
 Question 8
(CH3) You’re managing a project to build a new accounting system. One of the accountants in
another department really likes the current system and is refusing to be trained on the new one. What
is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Refuse to work with him because he’s being difficult
b.
Appeal to the accountant’s manager and ask to have him required to take training
c.
Get a special dispensation so that the accountant doesn’t have to go to the training
d.
Work with him to understand his concerns and do what you can to help alleviate
them without compromising your project
 Question 9
(CH3) Which of the following is NOT true about interpersonal skills?
 Selected [None Given]
Answer:
Answers: a.
Coaching means helping your team to get more physical exercise
b.
Motivation means helping team members get what they want out of the project
c.
Influencing means sharing power with people to get something done
d.
Conflict management means finding positive solutions to conflicts during the
project
 Question 10
(CH3) During a monthly meeting, the project manager insists the importance of focusing on goals
and following process and procedures. Which of the leadership style is being followed by the project
manager?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Laissez-faire
b.
Transformational
c.
Charismatic
d.
Transactional
 Question 11
(CH3) Which one of the following is an interpersonal skill a project manager must have to be
successful?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Sales and marketing
b.
Leadership
c.
Health and safety practices
d.
Information technology experience
 Question 12
(CH3) Which of the following is critical to the project manager to understand the market context in
which the project operates?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Leadership
b.
Technical project management
c.
 Strategic and business management
d.
Enterprise environmental factors
 Question 13
(CH3) ____________ is the art of getting others to want to do something that you believe should be
done.

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Management
b.
Leadership
c.
Transactional
d.
Influencing
 Question 14
(CH3) You have decided to take disciplinary action against one of your project team member who
have failed to submit the weekly progress report after several repeated reminders due to his lethargic
attitude. Which of the following type of power is being adopted?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Positional
b.
Punitive
c.
Persuasive
d.
Charismatic
 Question 15
(CH3) A project manager who focuses on the well-being of the team more important than the
outcome of the objective is ____________ oriented.

Selected Answer: c.
People
Answers: a.
Task
b.
Process
c.
People
d.
Performance
 Chapter 4.1

 Question 1
(CH4) All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Procedures
b.
Standards for reports
c.
Meetings
d.
Lessons learned
 Question 2
(CH4) Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
A printout from project management software
b.
A bar chart
c.
Risk, staffing, process improvement, and other management plans
d.
The project scope
 Question 3
(CH4) Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is valued at
$2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What is the FIRST thing you should
do once you hear of the new project?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Ask management how the new project will use resources
b.
Resource level your project
c.
Crash Your project
d.
Ask management how the new project will affect your project
 Question 4
(CH4) When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST given to:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Making changes
b.
 Tracking and recording changes
c.
Informing the sponsor of changes
d.
Preventing unnecessary changes
 Question 5
(CH4) The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not affect the
project schedule and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Make the change happen as soon as possible
b.
Contact the project sponsor for permission
c.
Go to the change control board
d.
Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints
 Question 6
(CH4) You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you
learn that the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to
do is to:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Show how the resources were originally promised to your project
b.
Replan the project without the resources
c.
Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available
d.
Crash the project
 Question 7
(CH4) Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role as an integrator?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Help team members become familiar with the project
b.
Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole
c.
Put all the pieces of a project into a program
d.
Get all team members together into a cohesive whole
 Question 8
(CH4) Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:
 Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
The personal careers of the team members
b.
Timely updates to the project management plan
c.
Effective communications at key interface points
d.
Product control
 Question 9
(CH4) The project charter for a project was approved for planning and you have just been assigned
as project manager. Realizing that project planning is an ongoing effort throughout the project,
which processes are you MOST likely to combine?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Create WBS and Define Activities
b.
Estimate Activity Durations and Develop Schedule
c.
Develop Human Resource plan and Estimate Costs
d.
Estimate Costs and Determine Budget
 Question 10
(CH4) A work authorization system can be used to:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Manage who does each activity
b.
Manage what time and in what sequence work is done
c.
Manage when each activity is done
d.
Manage who does each activity and when it is done
 Question 11
(CH4) You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been
asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ____ during planning in
order to improve your chance of success.

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Your intuition and training
b.
Stakeholder analysis
c.
Historical information
 d.
Configuration management
 Question 12
(CH4) A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to
decide if these changes are necessary?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The project manager
b.
The project team
c.
The sponsor
d.
The stakeholders
 Question 13
(CH4) The need for ___ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project.

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Optimization
b.
Integrity
c.
Integration
d.
Differentiation
 Question 14
(CH4) A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project.
Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project
manager
b.
Functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the
project manager
c.
Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior
management
d.
Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the
team
 Question 15
(CH4) Approved corrective action is an input to:
 Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Verify Scope
b.
Direct and Manage Project Execution
c.
Develop Project Charter
d.
Develop Schedule
 Question 16
(CH4) All of the following are parts of Direct and Manage Project Execution EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Identifying changes
b.
Using a work breakdown structure
c.
Implementing corrective actions
d.
Setting up a project control system
 Question 17
(CH4) Integration is done by the:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project manager
b.
Team
c.
Sponsor
d.
Stakeholders
 Question 18
(CH4) You are taking over a project during the planning process group and discover that six
individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST concern you?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Who will be a member of the change control board
b.
Spending more time on configuration management
c.
Getting a single project sponsor
d.
Determining the reporting structure
 Question 19
 (CH4) Which of the following describes the BEST use of historical records from previous projects

Selected Answer: c.
Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report
Answers: a.
Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning
b.
Risk management, estimating, and creating lessons learned
c.
Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report
d.
Estimating, risk management, and project planning
Chapter 4.2

 Question 1
(CH4) A defect in the product was brought to the project manager's attention and now the project
team is engaged in repairing it. Which project management process would be the most applicable to
this?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Perform Integrated Change Control
b.
Monitor and Control Project Work
c.
Direct and Manage Project Execution
d.
Close Project or Phase
 Question 2
(CH4) All technical work is completed on the project.Which of the following remains to be done?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Verify Scope
b.
Plan Risk Responses
c.
Create a staffing management plan
d.
Complete lessons learned
 Question 3
(CH4) Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Constrained optimization
b.
 Comparative approach
c.
Benefit measurement
d.
Impact analysis
 Question 4
(CH4) The project charter is:

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
Developed before the project statement of work, and after the project
management plan
b.
Developed after the project statement of work and before the project management
plan
c.
Developed before the contract and after the project management plan
d.
Developed before the project and before the project management plan
 Question 5
(CH4) A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to
decide if these changes are necessary?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The project manager
b.
The project team
c.
The sponsor
d.
The stakeholders
 Question 6
(CH4) You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from another project
manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you that the project is on
schedule, but only because he has constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing
you should do as the new project manager?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Check risk status
b.
Check cost performance
c.
Determine a management strategy
d.
Tell the team your objectives
 Question 7
(CH4) An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project archives
b.
A project charter
c.
A project management plan
d.
A risk analysis plan
 Question 8
(CH4) A project manager is trying to convince management to use more formal project management
procedures and has decided to start improving the company's project management by obtaining a
project charter. Which of the following BEST describes why the project charter would help the
project manager?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
It describes the details of what needs to be done
b.
It lists the names of all team members
c.
It gives the project manager authority
d.
It describes the project's history
 Question 9
(CH4) During project executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to material
purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the
change. This is an example of:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Management by objectives
b.
Lack of a change management plan
c.
Good team relations
d.
Lack of a clear work breakdown structure
 Question 10
(CH4) You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the
baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the FIRST
thing you should do?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
 Discuss it with the project team
b.
Recalculate baselines
c.
Renegotiate the contract
d.
Meet with the customer
 Question 11
(CH4) Project Management Plan Updates are NOT an output of:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Perform Integrated Change Control
b.
Develop Project Plan
c.
Direct and Manage Project Execution
d.
Close Project or Phase
 Question 12
(CH4) All of the following would occur during the Close Project or phase process EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Creating lessons learned
b.
Formal acceptance
c.
Reducing resource spending
d.
Performing benefit cost analysis
 Question 13
(CH4) The project management information system would likely include all of the following
EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
A scheduling tool
b.
An information distribution system
c.
A system for collecting information from team members
d.
A system for identifying stakeholders
 Question 14
(CH4) Producing a Project Plan may BEST be described as:
 Selected Answer: [None Given]
Answers: a.
Creating a network logic diagram that identifies the critical path.
b.
Using a software tool to track schedule, cost & resources
c.
Creating a document that guides project plan execution
d.
Creating a plan that contains the entire product scope
 Question 15
(CH4) Which of the following is included in a project charter?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
A risk management strategy
b.
Work package estimates
c.
Detailed resource estimates
d.
The business need for the project
 Question 16
(CH4) The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks to the
critical path. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Compress the schedule to recover the two weeks
b.
Cut scope to recover the two weeks
c.
Consult with the sponsor about options
d.
Advise the client of the impact of the change
 Question 17
(CH4) You are meeting with a new Project Manager who has taken over a project that is in the
middle of executing. The previous project manager has left the company and the new project
manager is upset that the change reports are streaming in from numerous sources including his boss,
the customer and various stakeholders. The project manager is not even aware of how to process all
of these incoming change requests. Where would you refer him?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project Scope Statement
b.
Project Management Plan
c.
 The previous project manager
d.
Project Charter
 Question 18
(CH4) You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your manager and his
boss have asked that the project begins immediately. Which of the following is the BEST thing to
do?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Set up an integrated change control process
b.
Show your manager the impact of proceeding without approval
c.
Focus on completing projects that have signed project charters
d.
Start work on only the critical path activities
 Question 19
(CH4) You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you
learn that the resources promised in the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing
to do is:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Show how the resources where originally promised to your project.
b.
Re-plan the project without the resources
c.
Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available
d.
Crash the project
 Chapter 4.3

 Question 1
(CH4) The output of Direct and Manage Project Execution process is

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The work packages
b.
The project management information system
c.
The deliverables
d.
The work breakdown structure
 Question 2
(CH4) Project documents that can be considered as inputs for Manage Project Knowledge process
include the following except:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Lessons learned register
b.
Project team assignments
c.
Resource breakdown structure
d.
Project charter
 Question 3
(CH4) You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been
asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ____ during planning in
order to improve your chance of success

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Your intuition and training
b.
Stakeholder analysis
c.
Historical information
d.
Configuration management
 Question 4
(CH4) Facilitation techniques used in Develop Project Charter process include all of the following
except:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Brainstorming,
 b.
conflict resolution
c.
problem solving
d.
interviews with stakeholders
 Question 5
(CH4) Change control meetings are held as part of which process:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Direct and Manage Project Execution
b.
Monitor and Control Project Work
c.
Perform Integrated Change Control
d.
Evaluate Requested Changes
 Question 6
(CH4) The person or group responsible for evaluating change on a project is:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Change control board
b.
The sponsor
c.
The project team
d.
The program manager
 Question 7
(CH4) Which of following plans is NOT considered a subsidiary plan to be managed through the
Project management plan?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Schedule management plan.
b.
Cost management plan.
c.
Quality management plan.
d.
Resource management plan.
e.
Portfolio management plan.
 Question 8
 (CH4) In which process in implementing (executing) approved changes occur?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Direct and Manage Project Work
b.
Monitor and Control Project Work
c.
Perform Integrated Change Control
d.
All of the other choices
 Question 9
(CH4) In case of rushed change during project execution in one of the project plans or processes is
required, this change

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Must be performed within the Perform Integrated Change Control process frame
b.
The project manager can take any quick action to resolve the issue
c.
Stakeholders must be called for a meeting
d.
The project shall stop until a decision is taken
 Question 10
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Government or industry standards
b.
Legal and regulatory requirements
c.
Organizational governance framework
d.
Organizational standard policies, processes, and procedures and work templates
 Question 11
(CH4) When changes are approved and made to the project, they should be:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Tracked against the project baseline
b.
Incorporated into the project baseline
c.
Included as an addendum to the project plan
d.
 Approved by someone other than the project manager
 Question 12
(CH4) Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Monitor and Control
Project Work process?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a
project
b.
The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c.
The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management
plan and implementing approved changes
d.
The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e.
The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f.
The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract
 Question 13
(CH4) It describes the necessary information to determine whether the expected outcomes of the
project justify the required investment. This statement is a description of:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
the Business Case
b.
the benefits management plan
c.
business agreements
d.
The Project charter document
 Question 14
(CH4) Who is/are the main responsible for Project Integration management?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Project manager
b.
All areas specialists
c.
Project manager and all areas specialists
d.
Project stakeholders
 Question 15
(CH4) If you are creating a single document to guide project execution, monitoring and control and
 closure, you are creating:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The execution plan
b.
The project management plan
c.
The integration plan
d.
The project framework
 Question 16
(CH4) Which of the following description is a description or attribute to Develop Project
Management Plan process?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
Answers: a.
The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a
project
b.
The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components
c.
The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management
plan and implementing approved changes
d.
The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress
e.
The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes
f.
The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract
 Question 17
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT considered an output of Manage Project Knowledge process?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Lessons Learned Register
b.
Project Management Plan Updates
c.
Organizational Process Assets Updates
d.
Interpersonal and Team Skills
 Question 18
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT one of the Develop Project Charter process attributes?

Selected [None Given]

Answer:
 Answers: a.
developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase
b.
documenting initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and
expectations
c.
must be authorized by someone external to the project
d.
is authorized by the project manager
 Question 19
(CH4) Approved corrective action is an input to

Selected Answer: b.
Direct and manage project execution
Answers: a.
Verify scope
b.
Direct and manage project execution
c.
Develop Project charter
d.
Develop Schedules
Chapter 4.4

 Question 1
(CH4) Work performance information is used for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
It provides information on resource utilization
b.
It provides information on which activities have started
c.
It shows what costs have been defects
d.
It is used to help identify defects
 Question 2
(CH4) The project plan provides a baseline for several things. Which one of the following does the
project plan not provided a baseline for?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Scope
b.
Cost
c.
Schedule
 d.
Control
 Question 3
(CH4) Change control meetings are held as part of which process?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Direct and mange project work
b.
Monitor and control project work
c.
Performa integrated change control
d.
Evaluate requested changes
 Question 4
(CH4) At what point in the project should you conduct the kick-off meeting?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
As soon as the project is initiated
b.
At the end of the project, to assist with project closure
c.
Only after all the planning work has been completed
d.
After enough planning work ahs been completed to begin execution
 Question 5
(CH4) The person or group responsible for evaluating change on a project is:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The change control board
b.
The sponsor
c.
The project team
d.
The program manager
 Question 6
(CH4) You are holding a formal, approved that defines how the project is execute, monitored, and
controlled. You are holding

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The project Management Plan
b.
 The performance measurement plan
c.
The project charter
d.
The work breakdown structure
 Question 7
(CH4) The project management plan is made up of

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The other planning outputs
b.
The other planning outputs, tools and techniques
c.
The aggregate outputs of approved software tools
d.
The business case key value justifications and the GANT chart
 Question 8
(CH4) Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional
quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable.
This is an example of which one of the following?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Scope creep
b.
Change control
c.
Quality assurance
d.
Integrated change control
 Question 9
(CH4) The BEST time to assign a project manager to a project is during:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Integration
b.
Project selection
c.
Initiating
d.
Planning
 Question 10
(CH4) Which is NOT true about the project charter?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

 Answers: a.
The project manager must be consulted before the charter is finalized
b.
The charter is issued by the project sponsor
c.
The project manager’s authority to manage the project is granted by the charter
d.
The charter gives a summary milestone schedule
 Question 11
(CH4) Which of these is not an input to develop project charter?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Enterprise environmental factor
b.
Project manager Plan
c.
Agreement
d.
Project Statements of work
 Question 12
(CH4) What is the primary role of the project sponsor?

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
To be ultimately accountable for the project
b.
To directly manage the performance of the project manager
c.
To provide financial and political support for the project
d.
To be the primary liaison with the client
 Question 13
(CH4) The output of the direct and manage project work process is:

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
The work packages
b.
The Project Management Information System
c.
The deliverables
d.
The work breakdown structure
 Question 14
(CH4) Which of the following is not an organizational process asset that would be updated as a
 result of completing project closure

Selected Answer: [None Given]

Answers: a.
Historical information
b.
Project files
c.
Project charter
d.
Project closure checklist
 Question 15
(CH4) Which of the following is NOT true about the project charter?

Selected Answer: a.
The project charter defines the requirements that satisfy customer needs
Answers: a.
The project charter defines the requirements that satisfy customer needs
b.
The project charter defines the work authorization system
c.
The project charter makes the business case that justifies the project
d.
The project charter includes the milestone schedule
Chapter 1 – Introduction (Questions)

1. A project is:

A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system.

B. A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer
satisfaction.
C. An ongoing endeavour undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
D. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

2. Project management is:

A. The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management system.
B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements.
C. The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to
achieve operational excellence.
D. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.

3. Portfolio management refers to:

A. Managing various contents of the project file.

B. Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision making.
C. The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
D. Applying resource-levelling heuristics across all the organization's projects to achieve the
organization's strategic objectives.

4. All of the following are questions that the key stakeholders and project managers should answer
to develop the project success measures EXCEPT:

A. What does success look like for the project?

B. How will success be measured?
C. What are the communication requirements?
D. What factors may impact success?

5. A program is a:

A. Group of related tasks lasting one year or less.

B. Group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a
coordinated manner.
C. Large projects with significant cost and resource requirements.
D. Sequence of activities constituting a major project.

1
6. All of the following are true about projects and operations EXCEPT:

A. Operations are ongoing endeavours that produce repetitive outputs, with resources
assigned to do basically the same set of tasks according to the standards institutionalized in
a product life cycle, whereas projects are temporary endeavours.
B. Projects require project management activities and skill sets, whereas operations require
business process management, operations management activities, and skill sets.
C. Projects can intersect with operations at various points during the product life cycle. At each
point, deliverables and knowledge are transferred between the project and operations for
implementation of the delivered work.
D. Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's long-term
goals. Therefore, strategic activities in the organization can be generally addressed within
the organization's normal operations.

7. Your job responsibility is to align components (projects, programs, or related operations) to the
organizational strategy, organized into portfolios or subsidiary portfolios to optimize project or
program objectives, dependencies, costs, timelines, benefits, resources, and risks. This is known as:

A. Components management.
B. Process management.
C. Program management.
D. Portfolio management.

8. The PMBOK® Guide is the standard for:

A. Managing all projects all of the time.

B. Managing all projects most of the time.
C. Managing most projects most of the time.
D. Managing some projects some of the time.

9. The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases, whose name
and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or
organizations involved in the project, is known as the:

A. Project waterfall.
B. Project life cycle.
C. Project life stages.
D. Project Management Process Groups.

10. All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT:

A. Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project. These
factors decrease over the life of the project.
B. The ability to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without significantly
impacting cost, is highest at the start of the project and decreases as the project progresses
toward completion.
C. The cost of changes and correcting errors typically increases substantially as the project
approaches completion.
D. Cost and staffing levels are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.

2
3
11. All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true
EXCEPT:

A. In the project predictive life cycle, the project scope and the time and cost required to
deliver that scope are determined as early in the project life cycle as practically possible.
B. In the project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases intentionally repeat one or
more project activities as the project team's understanding of the product increases.
C. The product life cycle is the series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from
concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.
D. The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle.

12. You are managing a project in which you intend to respond to high levels of change and ongoing
stakeholder involvement. The most suitable project life cycle for your project is the:

A. Predictive life cycle.

B. Adaptive life cycle.
C. Waterfall life cycle.
D. Configuration management life cycle.

13. The five Project Management Process Groups are:

A. Planning, Checking, Directing, Monitoring, and Recording.

B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
C. Planning, Executing, Directing, Closing, and Commissioning.
D. Initiating, Executing, Monitoring, Evaluating, and Closing.

14. Project Management Processes:

A. May be overlapping activities that occur throughout the project.

B. May be overlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each
phase of the project.
C. Are generally discrete, one-time events.
D. Are discrete, repetitive events that occur generally at the same level of intensity throughout
each phase of the project.

15. The linkages between project management processes are best described by the following:

A. The work breakdown structure links processes.

B. Processes are linked by their planned objectives—the summary objective of one often
becomes the detailed action plan for another within the project, subproject, or project
phase.
C. Processes are linked by the outputs that are produced—the output of one process generally
becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project, subproject, or project
phase.
D. There are no significant links between discrete processes.

4
16. For a project to be successful, the project should generally achieve all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Achieving stakeholder satisfaction.

B. Striving to obtain acceptable customer/end-user adoption.
C. Appling knowledge, skills, and processes within the Project Management Process Groups
uniformly to meet the project objectives.
D. Fulfilling other agreed-upon success measures or criteria.

17. The project business case is all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a
selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the
authorization of further project management activities.
B. A document that lists the objectives and reasons for project initiation.
C. A document that serves as an important input to the project initiation and is seldom used
after the project is approved.
D. An important document that may result in a go/no-go decision for the project.

18. The key elements of the benefits management plan are all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Work Breakdown Structure.

B. Benefits owner.
C. Assumptions.
D. Strategic alignment.

19. A significant amount of data is collected and analyzed throughout the project. All of the following
are examples of project data and information EXCEPT:

A. Work performance data.

B. Work performance analysis.
C. Work performance information.
D. Work performance reports.

20. Project tailoring is an important consideration for most projects. Which of the following is the
least likely project consideration?
A. Project manager's skills and competency.
B. Each project is unique.
C. Addressing competing constraints.
D. Level of project governance varies.

5
Chapter 2 - The Environment in Which Projects Operate (Questions)

21. Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factors that
surround or influence a project's success. All of the following are true about these factors EXCEPT:

A. Enterprise environmental factors include organizational culture, structure, and processes.

B. Enterprise environmental factors include government or industry standards, such as
regulatory agency regulations, codes of conduct, product standards, quality standards, and
workmanship standards.
C. Enterprise environmental factors include information technology software (e.g., an
automated tool, such as a scheduling software tool, a configuration management system, an
information collection and distribution system, or web interfaces to other online automated
systems).
D. Enterprise environmental factors exclude personnel administration functions (e.g., staffing
and retention guidelines, employee performance reviews and training records, and time
tracking) because these are considered to be functions of the human resources department.

22. The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the
following EXCEPT:

A. Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best
practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.
B. Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various means.
C. Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team
members.
D. Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.

23. A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a
variety of ways, which may include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project manager.
B. Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
C. Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and
standards.
D. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.

24. All of the following are potential information in organizational knowledge repositories EXCEPT:

A. Metrics used to collect and make available measurement data on processes and products.
B. Configuration management.
C. Tacit knowledge of previous projects such as project performance data and lessons learned.
D. Issue and defect management data.

6
25. All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT:

A. Legal restrictions.
B. Organizational values and principles.
C. Competitive movements.
D. Economic conditions.

26. Organizational process assets (OPAs) influence the management of projects. Which one of the
following best describes the important categories of OPAs?

A. Organizational knowledge bases and processes.

B. Processes, policies, procedures, tools, and techniques.
C. Organizational knowledge bases, processes, policies, and procedures.
D. Organizational knowledge bases, tools, and techniques.

27. The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during project
initiation and planning include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Preapproved supplier list.

B. Traceability matrices.
C. Tailoring guidelines for project management processes and procedures.
D. Product and project life cycles, and methods and procedures.

28. The organization's processes and procedures for conducting project work during Executing,
Monitoring, and Controlling include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change control procedure.

B. Issue and defect management procedures.
C. Resource availability control and assignment management.
D. Project closing guidelines.

29. Projects operate within the constraints imposed by the organization through their structure and
governance framework. The system factors include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Management elements.
B. Governance framework.
C. Organizational structure types.
D. Project management processes.

7
30. The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and
capabilities that are important for projects. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the
system?

A. Organization's management.
B. Project sponsor.
C. Project manager.
D. Project team.

31. Governance is the framework within which authority is exercised in organizations. This
framework includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

A. Rules.
B. Policies.
C. Techniques.
D. Relationships.

32. Which of the following best describe management elements?

A. Management elements are the components that comprise the key functions or principles of
general management in the organization.
B. Management elements are the project management principles that guide how projects are
executed in the organization.
C. Management elements are established by PMOs to guide project implementation.
D. Management elements are influenced by the governance framework, established for
effective implementation of projects.

8
Chapter 3 - The Role of the Project Manager

33. All of the following are generally true about leadership in a project environment EXCEPT:

A. It involves focusing the efforts of a group of people toward a common goal and enabling
them to work as a team.
B. It is the ability to get things done through others.
C. Respect and trust, rather than fear and submission, are the key elements of effective
leadership.
D. Although important throughout all project phases, effective leadership is critical during the
Closing phase of a project when the emphasis is on stakeholder acceptance of the project.

34. Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and
other project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally
perform all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Calculating the potential number of communication channels accurately.

B. Developing finely tuned skills using multiple methods of communication.
C. Incorporating feedback channels.
D. Seeking to understand project stakeholders’ communication needs.

35. All of the following are components of culture EXCEPT:

A. Values.
B. Norms.
C. Intelligence.
D. Beliefs.

36. When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is:

A. To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure the
alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the project and business area.
B. To perform all of the work that is required to get the project approved and baseline for
communication to the team.
C. To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the project.
D. To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an integrated
project organizational structure.

37. Performing integration is a cornerstone skill for all project managers; the following describe the
three different levels of performing integration EXCEPT:
A. Cognitive level.
B. Process level.
C. Complexity level.
D. Context level.

9
38. Complexity within projects is a result of much different organizational behaviour; the dimensions
of complexity include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. System behaviour.
B. Human behaviour.
C. Ambiguity.
D. Process behaviour.

39. Which of the following is least likely to be a project manager's role?

A. Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation.

B. Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives.
C. Assisting in business analysis, business case development, and aspects of portfolio
management for a project.
D. Ensuring that organizations are operating efficiently.

40. Which of the following is least likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence?

A. Government.
B. Project team.
C. Sponsors.
D. Customers.

41. The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT:

A. Technical project management.

B. Operational management.
C. Leadership.
D. Strategic management.

42. The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT:

A. Directing vs. influencing.

B. Focus on systems vs. focus on relationships.
C. Accept status quo vs. challenge status quo.
D. Concentrate on project activities vs. emphasis on results.

43. Leadership and management are ultimately about being able to get things done, and power
plays an important part. Which of the following best describe the various forms of power?

A. Positional, referent, personal, cultural, and relational.

B. Positional, personal, relational, guilt-based, informational, and expertise.
C. Referent, personal, expertise, and cultural.
D. Positional and pressure-based.

10
44. Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and
behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project managers?

A. Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural, and emotional.

B. Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social.
C. Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social, and system.
D. Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural, and managerial.

45. Project managers exhibit different leadership styles. Which of the following is NOT a leadership
style?

A. Laissez-faire.
B. Motivational.
C. Charismatic.
D. Servant.

46 .Complexity exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Containing multiple parts.

B. Containing high-risk parts.
C. Exhibiting dynamic interactions between the parts.
D. Exhibiting emergent behaviour, this cannot be easily explained as the simple sum of parts.

47. Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra, EXCEPT:

A. They are responsible for the final result of the team.

B. They communicate with the team.
C. They need to integrate multiple disciplines.
D. They need to be an expert or knowledgeable of all aspects of their endeavour.

11
Chapter 4 - Project Integration Management

48. Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management?

A. Develop project management plan.

B. Control scope definition.
C. Review scope validation.
D. Conduct procurement surveillance.

49. All of the following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT:

A. It formally authorizes the existence of a project.

B. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project. The project initiator or sponsor
should be at the level that is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the
project.
C. It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project.
D. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to
project activities.

50. All of the following are characteristics of the Project Management Information System (PMIS)
EXCEPT:

A. Automated gathering and reporting on key performance indicators (KPIs) can be part of this
system.
B. It provides access to information technology (IT) software tools, such as scheduling software
tools, work authorization systems, and configuration management systems.
C. It is used as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work.
D. It is used by the project manager and the project management team primarily to generate
presentations to key stakeholders.

51. Which of the following is NOT true about tools and techniques of Perform Integrated Change
Control?

A. They include expert judgment.

B. They include change control meetings.
C. A change control board (CCB) is responsible for meeting and reviewing the change requests
and approving, rejecting, or other disposition of those changes.
D. They include project plan updates.

12
52. You are managing a $10 million project. Which of the following is an acceptable cause for “re-
base lining” this project?

A. The client has approved an addition to the scope of the project with a $150,000 budget
increase and a two-week extension of the scheduled completion.
B. The contractor's company has instituted a quality assurance program in which it has pledged
to spend $1 million during the next year.
C. The productivity in the design department is lower than estimated, which has resulted in
1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted and a forecasted two-week delay of the
scheduled completion.
D. The engineering department of the performing organization has converted to a new
$250,000 CAD system.

53. Configuration management is focused on:

A. The identification and correction of problems arising in functional areas of project

implementation.
B. The specification of both the deliverables and the processes, while change control is focused
on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting changes to the project documents,
deliverables, or baselines.
C. Testing new systems.
D. Identifying, documenting, and controlling changes to the project and the product baselines,
while change control is focused on the specifications of both the deliverables and the
processes.

54. A change control board (CCB) is:

A. A formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal
amount of changes occurs on the project.
B. A formal or an informal group of stakeholders that has oversight of project execution.
C. A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or
rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.
D. A dashboard that provides integrated information to help control changes to cost, schedule,
and specifications throughout the life of the project.

55. Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change
Control process include all of the following activities EXCEPT:

A. Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis for which the
product configuration is defined and verified, products and documents are labelled, changes
are managed, and accountability is maintained.
B. Monitoring changes in resource-levelling heuristics to ensure efficient resource utilization
throughout the life cycle of the project.
13
 C. Configuration status accounting, in which information is recorded and reported as to when
appropriate data about the configuration item should be provided.
D. Configuration verification and configuration audits that ensure that the composition of a
project's configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered,
assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented.

56. Actions and activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services, or results to the next
phase or to production and/or operations are addressed:

A. As part of the Close Project or Phase process.

B. Following the plan outlined in the Quality Management process.
C. As requested by senior executives.
D. As the last step in project management.

57. Outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change requests.
B. Project management plan updates.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Final product, service, or result transition.

58. All of the following are inputs to Manage Project Knowledge EXCEPT:

A. Deliverables.
B. Knowledge management.
C. Lessons learned register.
D. Project management plan.

59. All of the following are Knowledge Management tools and techniques EXCEPT:

A. Discussion forums.
B. Storytelling.
C. Work shadowing and reverse shadowing.
D. Regression analysis.

60. Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The causes of issues.

B. Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements.
C. Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen.
D. Other types of lessons learned about communications management.

14
Chapter 5 - Project Scope Management (Questions)

61. All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:

A. It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
B. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
C. It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the
project.
D. It is not related to the project management plan.

62. Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder
needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true about this process
EXCEPT:

A. The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the

discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in
determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result
of the project.
B. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, quality planning, and
sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
C. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in
the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
D. Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in
the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.

63. You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder
register for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.

B. Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
C. Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
D. Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key
stakeholders.

64. You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to
manage changes to the product scope. This is known as the:

A. Configuration management system.

B. Business case.
C. New product development matrix.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.

15
65. An output of the Define Scope process is:

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.

66. All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:

A. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.

B. It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those
deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder
expectations.

67. Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B. The WBS is a simple list of project activities in chart form.
C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

68. The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the
team's options in scope definition:

A. A predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the
customer or performing organization.
B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
C. Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
D. The method used to measure project performance.

69. An input to the Define Scope process is:

A. The type of contract detail language.

B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. Decomposition.

16
70. What is the WBS typically used for?

A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.

B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

71. The following is true about the WBS:

A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.

B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
project work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

72. Which of the following is true about the Validate Scope process?

A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B. It is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
C. It occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
D. Scope validation is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, whereas quality
control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality
requirements specified for the deliverables.

73. You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders in several international locations.
You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:

A. The language translation of technical terms used in the project.

B. Detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the
WBS.
C. Information relating the legal constraints of relevant international locations to the
development of the WBS.
D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of key stakeholders and their
impact on the WBS.

74. Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process?

A. Work performance information.

B. Change requests.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Accepted deliverables.

17
75. All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:

A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated with
the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and enforcing
strict adherence to them.
D. Controlling the project scope ensures that all requested changes and recommended
corrective or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change
Control process.

76. describe capabilities that are temporary and are no longer needed after the new
product/service/result is ready.

A. Business requirements
B. Solution requirements
C. Quality requirements
D. Transition requirements

77. Agile scope planning is especially useful when:

A. Solution requirements are emerging all the time.

B. Quality requirements are not stable.
C. Business requirements are not stable.
D. Scope is well understood at the beginning.

18
Chapter 6 - Project Schedule Management (Questions)

78. In rolling wave planning:

A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out

as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in the
future is planned at a higher level.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the
WBS.
D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS
deliverables and project milestones are achieved.

79. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A. A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or
more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.
B. A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C. A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties
about the durations of project activities.

80. The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The estimated activity resource requirements.

B. The types of resources assigned to the activity.
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of using
the critical path method (CPM).

81. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources is called:

A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
D. Fast tracking.

19
82.The “fast tracking” method of schedule compression involves:
A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the
project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are
normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if
possible.
D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.

83. An example of a mandatory dependency is:

A. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular

application area.
B. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific
sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been
built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all
project requirements.

84. Inputs to the Define Activities process are:

A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network
diagram.
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

85. For project scheduling, bar charts show:

A. The level of effort for an activity.

B. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
C. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
D. Relative priority of activities.

86. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:

A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.

B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.
20
87. The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:

A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.

B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.

88. All of the following are true about resource levelling EXCEPT:

A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to
demand and supply of resources.

89. As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:

A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.

B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous
activity is completed.

90. Three-point estimating uses:

A. An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.

B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the
expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

91. Analogous duration estimating is:

A. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed
information about the project.
B. A bottom-up estimating technique.
C. Based on multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is
used.

21
92. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the calculated Expected activity
duration (tE) is:

A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.5 weeks.
D. 6.5 weeks.

93. Consider the following information about the duration of an activity:

Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks

Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks

Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM) activity
duration is:

A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.0 weeks.
D. 6.0 weeks.

94. Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:

Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks

Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks

Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks

Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:

A. 10.0 weeks.
B. 10.5 weeks.
C. 11.5 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.

22
95. An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and LF = 14.
Therefore, LS = .

A. 9.0 weeks.
B. 10.0 weeks.
C. 11.0 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.

96. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22, and LS = 14. ES and LS
relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week. The duration of the
activity is:

A. 8.0 weeks.
B. 11.0 weeks.
C. 12.0 weeks.
D. 14.0 weeks.

97. “Crashing” in schedule management is:

A. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least
incremental cost by adding resources.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their
associated durations in days for questions 98–99:

98. The critical path in this network is:

A. A-B-C.
B. A-B-D.
C. A-C-D.
D. A-B-C-D.

23
99. The free float for activity C is:

A. 14.
B. 12.
C. 0.
D. –2.

100. The Control Schedule process for a project:

A. Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to
achieve the approved schedule baseline.
B. Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and
managing changes to the schedule baseline.
C. Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
D. Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.

24
Chapter 7 – Project Cost Management (Questions)

101. Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:

A. Plan cost management.

B. Level resources.
C. Determine budget.
D. Control costs.

102. The cost management plan has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is based on project cost estimates and is separate from the project management plan.
B. It may specify variance thresholds for monitoring cost performance to indicate an agreed-
upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.
C. It may specify the level of precision, which is the degree to which activity cost estimates, will
be rounded up or down.
D. It describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

103. All of the following are true about cost estimates EXCEPT:

A. Cost estimates are generally expressed in units of some currency (i.e., dollars, euros, yen,
etc.), although in some instances other units of measure, such as staff hours or staff days,
are used to facilitate comparisons by eliminating the effects of currency fluctuations.
B. Costs are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project.
C. Information in the risk register should not be considered in cost estimates, because risks can
be either threats or opportunities and their impacts tend to balance out.
D. A cost estimate is a quantitative assessment of the likely costs for resources required to
complete the activity. Cost estimates may be presented at the activity level or in summary
form.

104. An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT:

A. Labour.
B. Materials.
C. Equipment.
D. Time shortages.

105. Parametric estimating involves:

A. Defining cost or duration parameters of the project life cycle.

B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package and integrating them to obtain
the total cost of the project.
C. Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to
calculate a cost estimate for project work.
D. Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project.

25
106. Analogous cost estimating:

A. Integrates bottom-up estimating techniques with relevant statistical relationships to

estimate the cost of the current project.
B. Relies on the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of
the current project.
C. Is used most frequently in the later phases of a project.
D. Summarizes estimates for individual work packages to estimate the cost of the current
project.

107. Which of the following represents processes concerned with establishing and controlling the
cost baseline?

A. Plan Resource Management and Control Costs.

B. Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline.
C. Determine Budget and Control Costs.
D. Plan Resource Management, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control.

108. The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management
reserves, and is used as a basis for comparison with actual results.
B. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the project life cycle.
C. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities.
D. It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve.

109. Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated costs.

B. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost
baseline.
C. Influencing the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline.
D. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost baseline.

26
110. You have been promoted to the position of project manager for a large project, due to the
abrupt transfer of the previous project manager. On the first day in your new, exciting position, you
find a folder on your desk entitled: Earned Value Management. In that folder, you find only the
following chart related to your project with the Data Date of a few days ago:

Based on this chart, you conclude that:

A. The project is below budget and probably ahead of schedule.

B. The project is over budget and probably behind schedule.
C. The project is below budget but probably behind schedule.
D. The performance on this project compared to budget and schedule cannot be determined
because this chart does not show any values.

Cumulative data for questions 111–116:

BAC = 200

PV = 100

AC = 120

EV = 80

111. Assuming that all future work will be performed at the budgeted rate, the estimate at
completion (EAC) is:

A. 200.
B. 220.
C. 240.
D. 260.

112. Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the
future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:

A. 300.
B. 325.
C. 350.
D. 375.

27
113. Assuming that future work will be performed at an efficiency rate that considers both the cost
and schedule performance indices because project schedule is a factor that impacts future effort,
the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
A. 250.
B. 300.
C. 350.
D. 345.

114. Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the
future, the variance at completion (VAC) is:

A. –80.
B. –100.
C. +100.
D. +200.

115. Assuming that all future work will be performed at the budgeted rate, the estimate to complete
(ETC) is:

A. 120.
B. 140.
C. 180.
D. 200.

116. Your sponsor specifies that there is no additional money in the budget for your project and asks
you to complete the project at the original budget at completion (BAC). To achieve that goal, you
and your team must complete the remaining work at the to-complete performance index (TCPI) of:

A. 0.67.
B. 1.00.
C. 1.50.
D. 2.00.

117. The estimate at completion (EAC) is typically based on:

A. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC), and the estimate to complete (ETC) the
remaining work.
B. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the cumulative cost performance
index (CPI).
C. The earned value (EV) and the actual cost for work completed (AC).
D. The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV).

28
118. Your earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its baseline
schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:

A. Higher than the cumulative AC.

B. Higher than the cumulative PV.
C. Lower than the cumulative PV.
D. Lower than the cumulative CPI.

119. Which of the following cumulative measures indicates that your project is about 9% under
budget?

A. The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110.

B. The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110.
C. The cumulative AC was 110, and the cumulative EV was 100.
D. The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110.

120. Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:

A. Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed in the project as of the status
date.
B. Analysis of the sum of the labour costs that have been incurred on the project to date.
C. Method of performance measurement for projects.
D. Method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.

121. During the sixth monthly update on a 10-month, $300,000 project, analysis of the earned value
management data shows that the cumulative PV is $190,000, the cumulative AC is $120,000, and the
cumulative EV is $150,000. In planning its action, the project management team can conclude all of
the following from these measures EXCEPT:

A. Less has been accomplished than was planned.

B. Less has been spent than was planned.
C. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the
project will probably be completed behind schedule and under budget.
D. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the
project will probably be completed ahead of schedule and over budget.

122. In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to:

A. EV minus PV.
B. EV minus AC.
C. AC minus EV.
D. PV minus EV.

123. Earned value (EV) involves all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Value of the work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.
B. Actual cost for an activity or work breakdown structure (WBS) component.
C. Progress measurement criteria, which should be established for each WBS component to
measure work in progress.
D. Budget associated with the authorized work that has been completed.

29
124. If cumulative PV = 100, cumulative EV = 98 and cumulative AC = 104, the project is likely to be:

A. Ahead of schedule.
B. Headed for a cost overrun.
C. Operating at project cost projections.
D. Under budget at completion.

Cumulative data for questions 125–126:

125. Which item is MOST over budget?

A. Item 1.
B. Item 2.
C. Item 3.
D. Item 4.

126. Which item has the LOWEST SPI?

A. Item 1.
B. Item 2.
C. Item 3.
D. Item 4.

30
Chapter 9 - Project Resource Management (Questions)

145. The major processes of Project Resource Management are:

A. Leadership, Management, Team Building, and Negotiation.

B. Develop Project Staffing Plan, Recruit Project Team, Administer Personnel Actions, and
Manage Labour Relations.
C. Plan Organizational Structure, Build Project Team, Develop Communications Plan, and
Manage Team Conflicts.
D. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team,
Manage Team, and Control Resources.

146. The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is:

A. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams.

B. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to
project network activities.
C. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team
members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to avoid
confusion of responsibility.
D. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance appraisals of
project team members.

147. Plan Resource Management should generally include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Roles and responsibilities.

B. Identification of resources.
C. Acquiring resources.
D. Project interfaces.

148. Questions that arise when planning the acquisition of team members generally include all of
the following EXCEPT:

A. Whether the resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted
sources.
B. The costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project.
C. The compensation of senior executives.
D. The level of assistance that the organization's human resource department and functional
managers are able to provide to the project management team.

149. Acquire resources is the process of confirming resource availability and obtaining the team
necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this
process generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Organizational structure.
B. Political philosophy.
C. Competency levels, prior experience, and cost rate.
D. Personnel administration policies, such as those that affect outsourcing.

31
150. It is important that the resource management plan addresses how team members will be
released when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

A. To reduce project costs.

B. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already planned.
C. To optimize the utilization of human and material resources.
D. To help mitigate resource risks that may occur during or at the end of a project.

151. To be effective, recognition and rewards systems should have the following characteristics
EXCEPT:

A. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use to help promote and reinforce
desired behaviours.
B. Being based on activities and performance under a person's control.
C. Cultural differences should be considered when determining recognition and rewards.
D. The required performance for rewards should be made unachievable for most team
members, to ensure that all team members strive for excellence throughout the project.

152. Tools and techniques to acquire resources include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Decision making.
B. Acquisition.
C. Interpersonal and team skills.
D. Pre-assignment.

153. All of the following are true about conflict management EXCEPT:

A. It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed early.

B. It should usually be addressed in private.
C. It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive, and at an official team meeting.
D. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.

154. Team building has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Team-building activities can vary from a five-minute agenda item in a status review meeting
to an off-site, professionally facilitated experience designed to improve interpersonal
relationships.
B. Team building should be primarily considered after major conflicts within the project team,
because they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays.
C. Team-building strategies are particularly valuable when team members operate from
remote locations without the benefit of face-to-face contact.
D. Team building is essential during the front end of a project and is an ongoing process. To
effectively manage inevitable changes in the project environment, a continued or renewed
team-building effort is required.

32
155. Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of the project team members.
B. It can be formal or informal. Examples of training methods include classroom, online,
computer-based, on-the-job training from another project team member, mentoring, and
coaching.
C. If project team members lack necessary management or technical skills, the project should
be deemed outside the core competencies of the performing organization, outsourced, or
abandoned.
D. If project team members lack the necessary management or technical skills, such skills can
be developed as part of the project work.

156. Effective team development strategies and activities are expected to increase the team's
performance, which increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. The evaluation of a
team's effectiveness may include all of the following indicators EXCEPT:

A. Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform assignments more effectively.

B. Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better as a unit.
C. Improvements in the overall project performance as a result of increased intensity of conflict
among project team members.
D. Reduced staff turnover rate.

157. Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include:

A. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.

B. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
C. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.
D. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.

158. Managing and leading the project team includes:

A. The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues,
and optimizing project performance.
B. Subscribing to the code of professional conduct, but does not involve ensuring that all team
members follow professional and ethical behaviours.
C. Influencing the project team to achieve the triple constraints of the project. However,
professional and ethical behaviours of project team members are outside the domain of the
project management team.
D. Instructing the project team to avoid being caught in repetitive violations of the norms of
professional and ethical behaviours specified by the performing organization.

159. Team development stages include:

A. Starting, Organizing, Preparing, Executing, and Closing.

B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
C. Acquiring, Managing, Leading, Decision Making, and Releasing.
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

33
160. All of the following choices represent inputs to the Estimate Activity Resources process EXCEPT:

A. Activity list.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. The deliverable-oriented WBS of a previous, similar project.
D. Resource management plan.

161. Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include:

A. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.

B. Salary schedules for various project resources.
C. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work
package.
D. Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work package and each work period.

162. Team building has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is the process of helping a group of individuals to build a collaborative and cooperative

working environment.
B. It requires handling project team problems decisively and removing the individual(s)
responsible for these problems from the team promptly to ensure a productive, smooth
project environment.
C. It can help individual team members work together effectively.
D. It can be particularly valuable when team members operate from remote locations without
the benefit of face-to-face contact.

163. Motivating involves creating an environment to meet project objectives while providing
satisfaction related to what people value most. All of the following are reasons of motivation
EXCEPT:

A. Encouraging someone to act.

B. Participating in decision making.
C. Providing accurate criticism in the annual performance review or after the project is
completed.
D. Encouraging people to work independently.

34
Chapter 11 - Project Risk Management (Questions)

176. The key processes of Project Risk Management are:

A. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Assess Risks, Mitigate Risks, Transfer Risks, and
Document Outcomes.
B. Identify Risks, Plan Risk Management, Evaluate Risks, Develop Risk Responses, Mitigate Risks
and Document Results.
C. Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Validation, Perform Quantitative Impact Assessment,
Develop Risk Response Strategies, Document Response Strategies, and Monitor Risk
Responses.
D. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor
Risks.

177. Strategies typically used to deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project
objectives if they occur include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Interpreting.
B. Avoiding.
C. Transferring.
D. Mitigating.

178. Risk transference nearly always involves:

A. Eliminating risk through beta testing.

B. Policies and procedures for a response system.
C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget.
D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.

179. In the Plan Risk Responses process, an accept strategy for a negative risk or threat indicates
that the project team has decided:

A. To agree with the project manager.

B. To eliminate a specific risk or threat, to reduce the probability and/or impact of an adverse
risk event to be within acceptable threshold limits, or to pursue an opportunity actively.
C. Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or it is unable to identify any
other suitable response strategy.
D. To purchase insurance, or to require performance bonds, warranties, and guarantees.

180. The primary output of the Identify Risks process is the:

A. Risk register.
B. Expected monetary value of the risk events.
C. List of corrective actions.
D. Risk mitigation plan.

181. A thorough analysis of the will help identify potential risks to the project.
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 A. Risk identification checklist based on historical information and knowledge
B. Project's change control system
C. Project's mission statement
D. Project's schedule and budget

182. All of the following are inputs to the Identify Risks process EXCEPT:

A. Risk management plan.

B. Scope baseline.
C. Risk mitigation plan.
D. Quality management plan.

183. Outputs from the Plan Risk Responses process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Change requests.
B. Corrective actions.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Project management plan updates.

184. Tools and techniques of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process include:

A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance.

B. Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and response development.
C. Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection.
D. Expert judgment, data gathering, simulations, and decision tree analysis.

185. As an output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, the risk register is updated.
These updates generally include:

A. Prioritized list of quantified risks.

B. Qualitative analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept.
C. Checklists, corrective actions, and qualified decision trees.
D. Direction, resources, and contingency costs.

186. A risk impact assessment to investigate the potential effect on a project objective such as
schedule, cost, quality, or performance has the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Evaluation of each risk can be conducted using a probability and impact matrix that leads to
rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
B. Approaches used in evaluating risk impacts related to project objectives could be relative,
numerical, or nonlinear.
C. Usually, risk-rating rules are specified by the organization in advance of the project and can
be tailored to the specific project.
D. The impact on project objectives should be assessed primarily at the end of the project, as
part of the lessons learned.

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187. The outputs from the Monitor Risks process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Project documents updates.

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. Change requests.
D. Project management plan updates.

188. The risk rating:

A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of the occurrence of a risk times its impact
(numerical scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it were to occur.
B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact.
C. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate, or high.
D. Is a commonly used technique for risk avoidance.

189. Which one of the following choices is the BEST description of sensitivity analysis?

A. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project
element simultaneously.
B. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective
being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values.
C. It is a method for assessing stakeholders’ tolerance to risk.
D. It cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project.

190. All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree EXCEPT:

A. A decision tree is a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of
a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.
B. Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can be used to choose the most appropriate
responses.
C. A decision tree is primarily a graphical, qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally
used in quantitative risk analysis.
D. Decision tree analysis uses the expected monetary value (EMV) analysis to calculate the
average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.

191. The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Methodology.
B. Risk strategy.
C. Responses to individual risks.
D. Risk categories.

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192. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process assesses the priority of identified risks using all of
the following EXCEPT:

A. Relative probability or likelihood of occurrence of identified risks.

B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks occur.
C. A mathematical technique, such as the expected monetary value (EMV), to create the
impression of precision and accuracy.
D. The organization's risk tolerance associated with the project constraints of cost, schedule,
scope, and quality.

193. As an output of the Monitor Risks process, an updated risk register generally includes some or
all of the following EXCEPT:

A. The work breakdown structure (WBS).

B. Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk reviews.
C. Identification of new risks, updates to probability, impact, priority, response plans,
ownership, and other elements of the risk register.
D. Actual outcomes of the project's risks and of the risk responses.

194. SWOT analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. It is a technique that examines the project from each of the strengths, weaknesses,
opportunities, and threats (SWOT) perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by
including internally generated risks.
B. It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization, regardless of the specific project
or the general business area.
C. It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and
any threats arising from organizational weaknesses.
D. It examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats, as well as identifies
opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses.

195. All of the following are inputs to the Implement Risk Response process EXCEPT:

A. Project documents.
B. Project risk management plan.
C. Organizational project assets.
D. Expert judgment.

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